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IBPS PO 2015 Prelims Previous Year Paper

IBPS PO Prelims 2015 Previous Year Paper
June 18, 2019
IBPS PO 2015 Prelims Previous Year Paper
June 18, 2019

IBPS PO Prelims 2015 paper 3

Section

Questions

Marks

English

30 Questions (1 – 30)

30

Quantitative Aptitude

25 Questions

25

Data Interpretation

10 Questions

10

Logical Reasoning

35 Questions (66 – 100)

35

 

Q : 1 – 5

Directions (1 – 5) : Rearrange the following five sentences (A),(B),(C),(D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given questions.

(A) with the country’s decades- old investment boom fast dwindling, it needs consumption to kick in as a new driver of growth.

(B) It is only a slight exaggeration to say that china’s economic hopes rest on the faux-corinthian columns og global horror.

(C) Beneath its vaulting glass domes and mock renaissance murals are a hello kitty cafe, a half dozen noodle restaurants, jewellery shops dripping with gold and a theatre used for karaoke contests.

(D) It blends ersatz European architecture with a distinctly Asian selection of stores.

(E) Global harbor ranks among the world’s biggest shopping malls, its floor space equivalent to nearly 70 football fields.

 

Q. 1 Which of the following should be first sentence after rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Q. 2 Which of the following should be third sentence of the rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Q. 3 Which of the following should be second sentence of the rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Q. 4 Which of the following should be fourth sentence of the rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Q. 5 Which of the following should be fifth(last) sentence of the rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Questions: 6 – 10

Directions(6-10): Each of the following questions has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. choose the set of words for each blank that fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

 

Q. 6 A clash between_________of two rival gangs in high security prison _________several inmates injured.

A. member, left

B. members, left

C. leaders, leave

D. groups, put

E. volunteers, have

 

Q. 7 Banks caused a bubble, failed to do due_________and _________more than what was warranted to developers.

A. diligence, lent

B. diligent, lend

C. diligently, borrowed

D. carelessly, lent

E. carelessness, lending

 

Q. 8 Acting__________on vehicles polluting city, government ordered all commercial vehicles entering city to_________environmental compensation charge.

A. toughness, pay

B. toughly, paying

C. leniently, pay

D. tough, play

E. roughly, paid

 

Q. 9 The project has__________under fire for___________a vital elephant corridor in kaziranga.

A. gone, destroy

B. come, destructed

C. went, destroying

D. reached, destruction

E. come, destroying

 

Q. 10 Health minister has given all city government hospitals a two day________to get prepared for H1N1 _________

A. deadline, outbreak

B. hardline, outbreaking

C. headline, outbreak

D. period, spread

E. hotline, spreading

 

Questions: 11 – 20

Directions(11-20): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

“I promise to open a bank account for a british citizen in just two minutes”, with a background in IT banking and asset management, this young entrepreneur is submitting plans to the regulators to start the new bank called Lintel; the two minute pledge is one of his selling points. Young entrepreneurs can do better than the existing banks, and is putting plenty of his own money where his mouth is, as part of the 5 million euros start up cost. Since April 2013 three new british banks have appeared and three outfits have taken over old licences. A person, who doles out banking licences at the prudential regulation authority(PRA), part of the bank of england, says people are now applying to open banks in ‘unprecedented numbers’. Four applicants are likely to start operating this year, he says, with a further four or so probably coming to market next year. At least as far as the consumer is concerned, banking could be on the verge of quite a shake-up. Since march 2013 the process to apply for a license has been streamlined. The PRA claims that a new bank can be up and running just six months after final authorisation. The capital requirements of the start-ups are lower than they used to be. And many of the new entrants are acting like classic entrepreneurs. They work out how the existing banks are failing customers or technology. All are encouraged by the growing willingness of consumers to switch for one bank to another, stimulated in part by regulations designed to make this easier. The niche will be about immigrants, both students on short -stay visas and longer -term economic migrants. They are treated “extremely bad”by existing banks he claims. He will offer a full range of products in ,many languages, digitally and also at a few branches, to be located at the most convenient places for his target customers –such as the railway stations in London that serve Heathrow and gatwick airports. Atom bank’s niche, by contrast , is technological. It will be the first british bank to the digital only, with all transactions done through smartphones and tablets, via an app. This ought to lower the banks overheads. set up by Mark Mullen, a former head of branchless bank first direct, and anthony thomson, co-founder of another of the new wave of “challenger” banks, Metro, atom bank should start operating in the second half of this year. Metro bank itself, which started in 2010, is following a quite different road: it is opening new branches almost as quickly as traditional banks like lloyds, RBS, Barclays and HSBC are closing them. The banking sector is currently the subject of a review by the competition and Markets authority, an official watchdog. Most with authority’s criticism that some features of the current banking market “prevent, restrict or distort competition”, in relation to both personal customers and small businesses. The entrepreneurs also claim that their innovative new products new products and technologies will help to address some of those criticisms. Mr. Mullen, for instance, attacks what he calls the opaque pricing of many current accounts: a selling point of atom bank, he claims, is that all its pricing will be utterly transparent.”we will drive change”, he says.

 

Q. 11 Which of the following is/are correct in the context of the given passage?

I. The young entrepreneur is to start a new bank called unitel.

II. The start-up cost of a new bank is set at 5 million euros.

III. The young entrepreneur promises to open a bank account for a british citizen in just two minutes.

A. only I and II

B. only II and III

C. Only I and III

D. only II

E. all three I, II and III

 

Q. 12 what should be the most appropriate title of the given passage?

A. state of existing banks in the united kingdom

B. prospective willingness to open new banks in the united kingdom

C. economic slowdown and existing banks

D. hurdles in opening a new bank in london

E. none of these

 

Q. 13 which of the following statements is not correct in the context of the given passage?

A. since april 2013, three new british banks have come to light.

B. the capital requirements for the start-ups are higher than they used to be.

C. all new entrepreneurs are encouraged by the growing willingness of consumers to change banks

D. A new bank can be up and running just six months after authorisation

E. none of these

 

Q. 14 new entrants are looking for niches whether in products, customers or technology. Which of the following is not correct in this regard?

A. they are thinking about immigrants as they are treated extremely badly by existing banks.

B. offering a full range of products in many languages and digitally.

C. some branches to be located at the most convenient places for the the target customers.

D. opening bank accounts without proper identification

E. none of these

 

Q. 15 select the correct statement(s) in the context of the given passage.

I. Atom bank’s niche is technological.

II. Metro bank was started in 2010.

III. Atom bank was set up by mark mullen.

A. only I

B. Only III

C. only I and III

D. only II and III

E. all three I, II and III

 

Q. 16 select the incorrect statement in the context of the given passage.

A. anthony thomson is co-founder of metro bank.

B. all the pricing of atom bank will be utterly transparent

C. the banking sector is currently the subject or review

D. barclays, HSBC and RBS are new entrants in banking sector

E. none of these

 

Q. 17 Similar meaning for “Dole out”

A. give out

B. leave

C. borrow

D. cancel

E. accept

 

Q. 18 Similar meaning to “Appear”

A. seam

B. arrive

C. begin to exist

D. append

E. appease

 

Q. 19 opposite to “classic”

A. accepted

B. traditional

C. modern

D. elegant

E. musical

 

Q. 20 opposite to “restrict”

A. impede

B. limit

C. control

D. allow

E. restrain

 

Questions: 21 – 25

Direction(21-25): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. select the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error,select no error as your answer.ignore the error of punctuations if any.

 

Q. 21 insurance ombudsman have(1)/sought more power to settle higher(2)/ claim causes as the number(3)/of complaints continue to rise.(4)/no error(5)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 22 The rising cases of dengue across(1)/many Indian states has fastly(2)/turned into new business opportunities (3)/for pharma, FMCG and insurance.(4)/ no error(5)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 23 Earlier studies have shown (1)/ that even drinking water, beverages and soft drinks(2)/were not totally(3)/free of hazardous chemicals.(4)/no error (5)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 24 Over the past two(1)/months, the prices of oil has(2)/surged due to (3)/estimates of less productions. (4)/no error(5)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 25 With the clew of benefits and business friendly policies(1)/acting as a magnet the

government has succeeded in making (2)/ the state the more preferred destinations(3)/ for investments and business.(4)/no error(5)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Questions: 26 – 30

Directions(26-30): In the given passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered against each five words are suggested,one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

India’s private schooled, English speaking urban elite may attract global attention, but they are in the______(26). The vast majority of Indian children______(27) government run preliminary schools in rural areas. In 2008-2009, rural India ______(28)for more than 88 % of India’s primary school students, of whom over 87% were enrolled in government run schools. This is where we see one of the nations____(29) challenges. India’s education system has not achieved strong learning out comes for reasons that are as diverse and_____(30) as the country itself. Key among these reasons is poor teaching quality which results from a multitude of factors.

 

Q. 26 which word suits the best?

A. minor

B. major

C. majority

D. minority

E. maturity

 

Q. 27 which word suits the best?

A. go

B. follow

C. attend

D. attended

E. leave

 

Q. 28 which word suits the best?

A. account

B. accounted

C. arranged

D. counted

E. accumulated

 

Q. 29 which word suits the best?

A. tougher

B. stricter

C. toughest

D. simplest

E. simpler

 

Q. 30 which word suits the best?

A. nuanced

B. difference

C. similar

D. simplified

E. divine

 

Q. 31 A trader has 400 kg of ride. He sells a part of it at a profit of 36% and remaining part at a loss of 24%. He overall loses 12% in the whole transaction.Find the quantity of rice sold at 24% loss.

A. 320 kg

B. 330 kg

C. 300 kg

D. 350 kg

E. none of these

 

Q. 32 The volume and curved surface area of a right circular cylinder are 462 cu. metre and 264 sq. metre respectively. What is the total surface area of the cylinder?(in sq metre)

A. 332

B. 341

C. 336

D. 431

E. none of these

 

Q. 33 In a vessel, there is a mixture of apple, orange and mango juices in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 4 respectively. A quantity of 12 litres from the mixture is replaced by 8 litres of apple juice. Thereafter the quantities of apple and orange juices in the resultant mixture become same. Find out the initial quantity of mixture in the vessel.

A. 76 litres

B. 65 litres

C. 60 litres

D. 80 litres

E. none of these

 

Questions: 34 – 38

what approximate value will come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions. you are not expected to calculate the exact value.

 

Q. 34 25.01% of 541 ÷ (29.97% of 20.01)+ ?=140

A. 110

B. 145

C. 85

D. 95

E. 125

 

Q. 35 1680.11-12.03 x 14.93 + ?² = 1644

A. 12

B. 13

C. 14

D. 15

E. none of these

 

Q. 36 1442 ÷ 36 + 2/9 x 4049 – 125.01 = ?

A. 820

B. 815

C. 840

D. 850

E. none of these

 

Q. 37 9659 ÷ 20.99 + 7921 ÷ 11.97 = ?

A. 1140

B. 1160

C. 1120

D. 1150

E. none of these

 

Q. 38 1401 ÷ 34.97 + 21.98 x √626 = ?

A. 590

B. 700

C. 540

D. 550

E. none of these

 

Questions: 39 – 43

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Number of candidates from a state X who appeared and qualified in a competitive exam during last 5 years.

 

Q. 39 In 2001, 6400 candidates appeared at the exam and 401 of them qualified males and females was 3: 5. What is the total number of female candidates who qualified in these two years?

A. 1120

B. 1220

C. 1330

D. 1150

E. none of these

 

Q. 40 In 2004, what percent of male candidates did qualify in the exam among all qualified candidates?

A. 51%

B. 61%

C. 55%

D. 56%

E. none of these

 

Q. 41 In 2002, 54% of appeared candidates did qualify. How many female candidates did qualify in the exam?

A. 280

B. 170

C. 180

D. 250

E. 240

 

Q. 42 In 2003, a total of 68 male candidates did qualify . what is the respective ratio will between males and females who had qualified in 2003?

A. 11 : 25

B. 19 : 25

C. 17 : 25

D. 25 : 13

E. 13 : 19

 

Q. 43 what is the average number of candidates who did not qualify in the exam in the years 2003 and 2005?

A. 1165

B. 1156

C. 1065

D. 1056

E. none of these

 

Q. 44 There are 6 red balls, 5 yellow and 3 pink balls in an urn. Two balls are drawn at  random. what is the probability that none of the drawn balls is of red colour?

A. 8/13

B. 7/13

C. 6/13

D. 5/13

E. 4/13

 

Questions: 45 – 49

what will come in place of the question mark(?) in the following number series?

 

Q. 45 4 5.8 9.4 16.6 ? 59.8

A. 31

B. 32

C. 29

D. 33

E. 34

 

Q. 46  7 6 10 27 104 ?

A. 516

B. 515

C. 525

D. 535

E. 540

 

Q. 47  139 135 128 116 97 ?

A. 65

B. 68

C. 69

D. 67

E. 80

 

Q. 48  10 10 16 31 70 ?

A. 156

B. 150

C. 180

D. 184

E. 148

 

Q. 49  9 4 3 3 4 ?

A. 9.5

B. 8.5

C. 4.5

D. 6.5

E. 7.5

 

Q. 50 Time taken by a boat in going upstream a certain distance is twice the time taken in going the same distance downstream. Find the speed of boat upstream if it covers 20 km downstream in 1 hour 40 minutes.

A. 6 kmph

B. 7 kmph

C. 6.5 kmph

D. 7.2 kmph

E. none of these

 

Q. 51 To reach a point B at 10 am from point A, Abhinav travels at an average speed of 15 kmph. He reaches the point B at 12 noon, if he travels at an average speed of 10 kmph. Find the average speed of Abhinav if he intends to reach the point B at 9 am(in kmph)

A. 87/7

B. 120/7

C. 101/7

D. 121/7

E. none of these

 

Q. 52 B is 8 years older than A and 8 years younger than C. 12 years hence, respective ratio of the ages of A and C will be 5 : 9. What is the sum of present ages A, B and C?

A. 58 years

B. 46 years

C. 48 years

D. 60 years

E. none of these

 

Questions: 53 – 57

Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Number of tourists visiting country ‘XYZ’ from city A and city B during 6 different months.

 

Q. 53 What is the difference between the average number of tourists from city A and city B during april , may and june taken together?

A. 63 : 31

B. 64 : 75

C. 31 : 63

D. 11 : 13

E. none of these

 

Q. 54 By what percent is the number of tourists from state A less than that form state B in the month of june?

A. 13.97

B. 13.27

C. 12.25

D. 14.5

E. 13.8

 

Q. 55 By what percent the number of tourists from city B increased in august in respect to april ?

A. 36.67

B. 60.57

C. 65.27

D. 66.67

E. none of these

 

Q. 56 by what percent approximately is the total number of tourists from city A less than that of all tourists from city A less than that of all tourists from city B taking all the months together?

A. 1.5%

B. 2%

C. 4%

D. 3%

E. 2.5%

 

Q. 57 What is the respective ratio between the total number of tourists from states A and B during april, may and june taken together?

A. 63 : 31

B. 64 : 75

C. 31 : 63

D. 11 : 13

E. none of these

 

Questions: 58 – 62

In each of the following questions, two equations, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.

 

Q. 58 I. x² = 81

II. y² + 13y + 36 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 59 I. 2x² – 11x + 14 = 0

II. 2y² – 7y + 6 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 60 I. 3x² – 13x + 14 = 0

II. 3y² – 17y + 22 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 61 I. 2x² + 9x + 9 = 0

II. 4yv + 9y + 5 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 62 I. x² – 7x + 12 = 0

II. 2y² – 19y + 44 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 63 24 men can complete a piece of work in 28 days. 27 men start working and are replaced by 14 women after 8 days. In how many days will 14 women finish the remaining work?

A. 12 days

B. 14 days

C. 13 days

D. 12 1/2 days

E. 15 days

 

Q. 64 A gave 40% of his monthly salary of Mr. B. Mr. B spent 20% of this amount on taxi fare. He spent the remaining amount in the respective ratio of 3 : 5 on tuition fees and library membership. If he spent Rs. 1720 for membership, what is A’s monthly salary?

A. Rs. 8500

B. Rs. 8600

C. Rs. 7600

D. Rs. 7500

E. none of these

 

Q. 65 A invests a certain sum in scheme A at compound interest(compounded annually) of 10% per annum for 2 years. In scheme B he invests at simple interest of 8% per annum for 2 years. He invests in schemes A and B in the ratio of 1 : 2. The difference between the interests earned from both the schemes in Rs. 990. Find the amount invested in scheme A.

A. Rs. 7500

B. Rs. 8000

C. Rs. 9000

D. Rs. 8500

E. Rs. 8600

 

Questions: 66 – 70

In a certain code language, “offer prayers to god” is written as ‘bi gv oc st’. “prayers for school assembly” is written as ‘tm oc da pu’. “school offer special education” is written as ‘nh mk tm gv’. “assembly must to school” is written as ‘da st rx tm’

All the codes are two letter codes.

 

Q. 66 what is the code for ‘must’ in the given code language ?

A. da

B. other than those given as options

C. rx

D. tm

E. st

 

Q. 67 what is the code for ‘education’ in the given code language?

A. either ‘mk’ or ‘nh’

B. either ‘tm’ or ‘gv’

C. mk

D. nh

E. tm

 

Q. 68 If ‘school to home’ is coded as ‘aj tm st’ in the given code language, then how ‘home for god’ will be coded ?

A. pu gv aj

B. bi aj oc

C. da bi st

D. aj bi pu

E. bi mk rx

 

Q. 69 What may be the possible code for ‘school must offer training’ in the language ?

A. rx gv mk tm

B. tm rk rx gv

C. oc gv oc bi

D. st gv oc bi

E. gv da nh pu

 

Q. 70 what does the code ‘da’ stand for in the given code language?

A. school

B. to

C. prayers

D. other than those given as options

E. assembly

 

Questions: 71 – 75

Directions(71-75) : In each of the following questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.

give answer(1) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.

give answer (2) if either conclusion I is true.

give answer (3) If only conclusion I is true

give answer (4) if only conclusion II is true

give answer (5) i both the conclusion I and conclusion II are true

 

Q. 71 statements: F < R ≤ E ≥ A > K ; Y ≥ E

conclusion : I. A > F

II. R ≥ K

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 72 statements: F < R ≤ E ≥ A > K ; Y ≥ E

conclusions: I. Y > K

II. F < Y

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 73 statements : B < R ≤ E = A ≥ D ≥ S; D ≥ C ≤ J

conclusions : I. E > C II. E = C

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 74 statements : B < R ≤ E = A ≥ D ≥ S; D ≥ C ≤ J

conclusions : I. D ≥ S II. E ≥ S

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 75 statement : A > B ≥ C < D < E ≤ F

conclusions : I. C < F II. A ≥ E

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Questions: 76 – 80

Directions(76-80): In each of the following questions, two/ three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II are given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance form the commonly known as facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known as facts.

give answer (1): if only conclusion I follows.

give answer (2): if only conclusion II follows

give answer (3): if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

give answer(4): if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

give answer(5): if both the conclusion I and conclusion II follows

 

Q. 76 statements:

some slides are photos.

all photos are images.

all images are creations.

conclusions:

I. at least some images are slides.

II. all photos are creations.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 77 statements:

no space is a gap.

all fissures are gaps.

no gap is a crack.

conclusions:

I. no space is crack.

II. no fissure is a crack.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 78 statements:

no loss is a profit.

some profits are gains.

conclusions:

I. no gain is a loss.

II. some gains are losses.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 79 statements:

all points are views.

no view is an idea.

some ideas are thoughts.

conclusions:

I. some thoughts being points is a possibility.

II. no view is a thought.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 80 statements:

all points are views.

no view is an idea.

some ideas are thoughts.

conclusions:

I. at least some ideas are points.

II. all thoughts being ideas is a possibility.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Questions: 81 – 82

U is the mother of D. S is the sister of D. L is the father of S. L has only one daughter. M is the daughter of S. P is the daughter of D.

 

Q. 81 If R is married to S, then how is R related to U ?

A. grandson

B. nephew

C. son-in-law

D. uncle

E. cannot be determined

 

Q. 82 How is S related to P?

A. aunt

B. sister

C. mother

D. niece

E. grandmother

 

Questions: 83 – 85

six sales persons- U,V,W,X,Y and Z- sell insurance policies. Each of them sold different number of policies. U sold more policies than both Y and Z but less than X.

Z sold more policies than only W. X did not sell the highest number of policies. Third highest number of policies sold is equal to

 

Q. 83 who among the following did sell exactly 33 policies?

A. X

B. Y

C. Z

D. U

E. cannot be determined

 

Q. 84 which of the following may represent the number of policies sold by Z?

A. 26

B. 19

C. 9

D. 36

E. 28

 

Q. 85 who among the following did sell less policies than only V ?

A. U

B. Y

C. X

D. Z

E. cannot be determined

 

Questions: 86 – 90

directions(86-90): study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing five persons each in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row–1,D,E,F,G and H are seated and all of them are facing south but not necessarily in the same order. In row–2,T,U,V,W and X are seated and all of them are facing north but not necessarily in the same order. Therefore in the given seating arrangement each member of the other row. V sits exactly in the middle of the row. The one who faces V sits to the immediate left of F. H is an immediate neighbour of F but does not face V. W sits second to left of U. U faces the one who is an immediate neighbour of D, G is not an immediate neighbour of D,G does not sit at the extreme end of the row. X does not face H.

 

Q. 86 who amongst the following its facing V ?

A. G

B. E

C. F

D. D

E. cannot be determined

 

Q. 87 which of the following statements is true regarding T ?

A. T faces F

B. only two persons sit to the left of T

C. T sits to the immediate left of T

D. U sits fourth to the right of T

E. None of the given statements is true.

 

Q. 88 what is the position of D with respect to F?

A. third to the right

B. second to the right

C. immediate left

D. third to the left

E. second to the left

 

Q. 89 fourth of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and hence they form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group ?

A. H

B. T

C. X

D. D

E. U

 

Q. 90 who amongst the following is facing F ?

A. T

B. W

C. V

D. X

E. U

 

Questions: 91 – 95

Eight persons- J, K , L M ,Q, R, S and T –are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them is related to M in some way or the other. Two persons are sitting between Q and L. M is sitting second to the left of Q. Three persons are sitting between L and the wife of M. The son of M is sitting second to the right of the wife of M. Three persons are sitting between the son of M and the brother of M. The daughter of M is sitting second to the left of the brother of M. J is sitting to the intermediate right of the R. R is neither son nor wife of M. The sister of M is sitting to the immediate right of the sister of M. Two persons are sitting between K and the father of M. T is sitting second to the right of the mother of M.

 

Q. 91 who amongst the following is the brother of M?

A. L

B. S

C. T

D. R

E. J

 

Q. 92 What is the position of M’s daughter with respect to M’s son ?

A. third to right

B. second to the left

C. third to the left

D. second to the right

E. immediate right

 

Q. 93 who amongst the following is the wife of M?

A. K

B. S

C. R

D. L

E. T

 

Q. 94 Which of the following statements is true regarding the given seating arrangement ?

A. M’s father is sitting to the immediate left of M’s son

B. only four persons are sitting between S and J

C. M is sitting exactly between his daughter and brother

D. M’s wife is sitting just opposite to M’s father

E. none of the given statements is true.

 

Q. 95 who amongst the following is the sister of M?

A. R

B. S

C. L

D. J

E. Q

 

Questions: 96 – 100

Seven persons- O, P, Q, R, S, T and U–attended a farewell party in the months of february, march, april, may, july, october and december but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them likes different stationery items viz., pen, stapler, ruler, solder, envelope, label and worksheet but not necessarily in the same order. The one who likes envelope attended a farewell party in that month which has less than 31 days. T attended farewell party between O and the who likes folder. O does not like label. The one who likes pen attended farewell party immediately before the one who like worksheet. S does not like ruler. The person who likes label attended the farewell party in the month having less than 31 days.

 

Q. 96 which one of the following stationery items is liked by T?

A. Pen

B. folder

C. label

D. stapler

E. worksheet

 

Q. 97 which of the following combinations of month-person-stationery item is correct?

A. march-U-pen

B. july-O-pen

C. october-S-label

D. may-Q-ruler

E. april-T-envelope

 

Q. 98 which of the following statements is true with respect to the given arrangement?

A. Q attended farewell party in october

B. O likes worksheet

C. R attended farewell party immediately before S

D. S attended farewell party in july

E. none of the given statements is true

 

Q. 99 who among the following attended the farewell party in April?

A. T

B. O

C. Q

D. R

E. P

 

Q. 100 who among the following attended the farewell party immediately after R ?

A. S

B. Q

C. O

D. U

E. P

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer E C D B A B A D E A
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer B B B D E D A C C D
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer D B C B C D C B B A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer A B C C A B C A B B
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C C D E A B C D C A
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer B C A C E B B A A B
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer D B A B C C A E B E
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer A E B D C E B C A B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C A B D C A C D E B
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B E A E C D B A E C

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