Latest Current Affairs 20 May 2021

CURRENT AFFAIRS
20 May 2021

NATIONAL NEWS:

 

A) Covid-19 vaccination should be deferred by 3 months after recovery, says government.

Vaccination should be deferred by three months after recovery in individuals having lab test proven SARS-2 COVID-19 illness, the Health Ministry said in a statement issued on Wednesday. SARS-2 COVID-19 patients who have been given anti-SARS-2 monoclonal antibodies or convalescent plasma should also defer vaccination by three months from the date of discharge from the hospital. The statement also recommended Covid-19 vaccination for all lactating women. The second dose of the Covid-19 vaccine should also be delayed by three months for anyone contracting the disease after the first dose. So far, there was no fixed gap for taking a vaccine in such situations. Individual physicians recommended a gap of two or four weeks depending on the condition of the patient. The fresh rules are part of the recommendations by NEGVAC the National Expert Group on Vaccine Administration for COVID-19 led by NITI Aayog member Dr VK Paul which have been accepted by the Union Health Ministry.

B) Jaishankar intervenes with Singapore over Kejriwal’s remarks on new variant.

Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal does not speak for India, External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar declared on Wednesday after Singapore’s Foreign Minister Vivian Balakrishnan objected to Kejriwal’s claim that a highly infectious variant of Covid-19 that affects children is being transmitted from Singapore. Singapore and India have been solid partners in the fight against Covid-19. Appreciate Singapore’s role as logistics hub and oxygen supplier. Their gesture of deploying military aircraft to help us speaks of our exceptional relationship. However, irresponsible comments from those who should know better can damage long-standing partnerships. So, let me clarify Delhi CM does not speak for India, Jaishankar said, after Singapore summoned Indian envoy to protest Kejriwal’s remarks. In a rather unusual diplomatic gesture, the Ministry of External Affairs announced that the Indian High Commissioner was summoned by the Singapore Government on Wednesday to convey strong objection to Delhi CM’s tweet on ‘Singapore variant.’ The High Commissioner clarified that te Delhi CM had no competence to pronounce on COVID variants or civil aviation policy, said Official Spokesperson Arindam Bagchi. In diplomatic protocol, it is usually the host country that announces if a foreign envoy is summoned to convey displeasure on a certain issue. Singapore’s move came soon after the political leaders in the country objected to Kejriwal’s assertions. Politicians should stick to facts! said Balakrishnan a day after Kejrwal claimed that the strain of the corona virus that is targeting children in Singapore was from there. The Foreign Minister of Singapore was the second to respond to the Delhi leader’s comments. Singapore maintains that the variant found in the country came from India. The Embassy of Singapore in its social media handle had responded to Delhi chief minister’s comment on Tuesday evening. There is no truth whatsoever in the assertions. There is no ‘Singapore variant’. The strain that is prevalent in many of the Covid-19 cases in recent weeks is B.1.617.2 variant, which originated in India. Phylogenetic testing has shown this B.1.617.2 Variant to be associated with several clusters in Singapore, said the Ministry of Health of Singapore in a statement issued on Tuesday.

C) Govt asks Whatsapp to withdraw update to privacy policy.

The Centre has sent a notice to WhatsApp asking it to withdraw a controversial update to its privacy policy and has sought a response within seven days. The government has also warned the Facebook-owned firm that failure to give a satisfactory response may result in steps in consonance with law. The Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY), in the notice dated May 18, has told WhatsApp that deferring the May 15 implementation deadline does not absolve it from respecting the values of informational privacy, data security and user choice for Indian users, a Ministry source said. The notice directs WhatsApp to withdraw its Privacy Policy 2021, as the changes and the manner of introducing them undermine the sacrosanct values of informational privacy, data security and user choice for Indian users and harm the rights and interests of Indian citizens. The source added that the Ministry has also highlighted how WhatsApp’s updated privacy policy is a violation of several provisions of existing Indian laws and rules. In fulfilment of its sovereign responsibility to protect the rights and interests of Indian citizens, the Government of India will consider various options available to it under laws in India. The government has given seven days’ time to WhatsApp to respond to this notice and if no satisfactory response is received, necessary steps in consonance with law will be taken, the source said.

D) Narada case hearing to continue on May 20, Kolkata Police register case against CBI.

The hearing at the Calcutta High Court in connection with the Narada case remained inconclusive on Wednesday and will continue on Thursday. The development implies that four heavy weight political leaders, including two Ministers, Subrata Mukherjee and Firhad Hakim, and MLA Madan Mitra and former Minister Sovan Chatterjee, arrested by the CBI on Monday, will have to the spend Wednesday night in judicial custody. Three of the four arrested, except Minister Firhad Hakim, were admitted to the State-run SSKM Hospital.  In another development, the Kolkata Police filed a case against CBI personnel under Section 51B of the Disaster Management Act. The case was filed at Gariahat police station in the city for violation of the restrictions imposed during the pandemic while arresting one of the accused. The CBI, along with personnel of central forces, had picked all the accused early on Monday morning from their respective residences. The CBI on Wednesday also filed a transfer petition to move the matter involving Narada case out of West Bengal and also made Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee, Law Minister Moloy Ghatak and Trinamool Congress MP Kalyan Banerjee party to the case.

E) Cyclone Tauktae death toll rises to 45; another storm brewing in Bay of Bengal.

As many as 45 people have been killed due to cyclone Tauktae across 12 districts of Gujarat, officials said Wednesday. Fifteen deaths were reported from Amreli district in Saurashtra region, the worst affected in the cyclone. Eight people each were killed in Bhavnagar and Gir Somnath coastal districts, an official of the State Emergency Operation Centre said. While 24 deaths were due to wall collapses during the cyclone, six died after trees fell on them, five each because of house collapse and electrocution, four due to roof collapse, and one died due to a tower collapse, the official said. Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Wednesday undertook an aerial survey of affected areas in Gujarat and adjoining union territory of Diu to assess the devastation caused by Cyclone Tauktae. Modi is in Gujarat to review the situation in the state in the aftermath of cyclone Tauktae. He landed at Bhavnagar from Delhi around noon and proceeded for the aerial survey of Una, Diu, Jafarabad and Mahuva, an official said. Meanwhile, with Cyclone Tauktae yet to entirely abate, a new storm may be in the works, this time in the Bay of Bengal. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) said in a statement Wednesday that a low pressure area— a precursor to cyclonic storm — was likely to form in the eastern Bay of Bengal and the Northern Andaman Sea by May 22 (Saturday). It is very likely to intensify gradually into a cyclonic storm during subsequent 72 hours and reach Odisha-West Bengal coast by May 26, according to the statement.

F) Only three teachers on polling duty died of Covid-19, says U.P. govt.

The Uttar Pradesh government has said that only three teachers died of Covid-19 while on duty during the recently-concluded panchayat polls, dismissing the figure of over 1,600 deaths claimed by teacher unions. Satya Prakash, under secretary in the basic education department, Uttar Pradesh, said on Tuesday that so far District Magistrates had provided the State Election Commission (SEC) a list of only three confirmed deaths of teachers. He also appealed to people to not fall for misleading reports not based on facts. The State government’s statement stands in stark contrast to the claim made by the Uttar Pradesh Prathmik Shikshak Sangh, a union for primary teachers. The union earlier this week released a list of 1,621 teachers and staff of the basic education department who allegedly died of Covid-19 after being assigned duty in the panchayat polls and control rooms for the pandemic. The son of a science school teacher, who died of COVID-19, performs final rituals prior to lighting his father’s funeral pyre. Interestingly, the SEC had recently informed the Allahabad High Court that 77 polling officers and agents in 28 districts had died while on polling duty during the panchayat polls. Data from other districts was awaited, the SEC told the court on May 7. It also alleged that despite assurances by the State Chief Secretary on May 1, a day before counting, that unwell teachers and staff would not be asked to be on polling duty, those who were absent due to illness on counting and voting days had faced suspension and salary cuts. Reacting to the State basic education department’s claim of only three deaths, Dinesh Chandra Sharma, president of the Uttar Pradesh Prathmik Shikshak Sangh, said the government statement was insensitive, irresponsible and far from reality. We won’t let them kill the rights of the children of the teachers who died. We will fight for their families at all levels, he said.

G) Vaccine caller tune removed due to shortage: AAP’s Atishi.

Senior AAP leader Atishi on Wednesday claimed that the caller tune asking citizens to get vaccinated has been removed by the Centre due to the shortage of vaccines in the country. The caller tune asking all citizens to come forward and get vaccinated has been removed from all phone networks! So basically the Central Govt has accepted that there are not enough vaccines for everyone and so there is no point in encouraging people for vaccination! she tweeted. Till recently, the caller tune was being played before each call across all networks. These have now become less frequent and only some users are still getting the tune before the call connects. The Central government has been using the caller tune feature since the beginning of the pandemic as means to create awareness among the public. The Department of Telecom, on a request from the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, had in March 2020 ordered all telecom firms to make a 30-second audio clip on coronavirus as a caller tune of mobile phone users. The earlier audio clips, voiced by actor Amitabh Bacchan, asked the public to follow Covid-19-appropriate behaviours such as masking up and maintaining physical distance. The latest caller tune was focused on the inoculation drive and asked people to get vaccinated, while assuring them that the vaccines are safe.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS 

A) U.S. to work with COVAX to allocate 80 mn vaccine doses.

The U.S. will work with the COVID-19 Vaccine Global Access (COVAX) programme as well as its partners to decide how to allocate the 80 million doses of vaccine it is sending to other countries over the next six weeks. lndia, which is currently the global epicentre of the pandemic, is expected to receive a significant share of these vaccines, but administration officials have not released actual numbers. We’re looking at how we can get maximum coverage, because, I think, as all of you would agree, that demand exists everywhere, Gayle Smith, the U.S.’s Coordinator for Global COVID Response and Health Security, said on a briefing call with reporters on Wednesday. We’re consulting closely with COVAX, which, as you know, is the largest vaccine delivery platform in the world and that is focused on, in particular, low income and low-middle income countries and with our partners , she said. Ms. Smith referred to COVAX as an absolutely critical and the central platform for vaccine allocation. White House Press Secretary Jen Psaki, on Tuesday, said vaccine allocation decisions would be made based on ‘equity’, in response to a question on whether India would be a recipient of the vaccines. The U.S. has deployed around SIOO million in assistance to India during this current wave of the pandemic. Transparent manner We, of course, will be making decisions based on equity, based on ensuring they are providing these vaccines in a transparent manner with the global community through COVAX and also through direct relationships, Ms. Psaki said. While India could theoretical use some of the vaccines it will produce as part of a Quad (India, the U.S., Australia and Japan) plan to supply at least I billion doses of to the Indo-Pacific by the end of 2022, the actual decisions will be taken based on ground conditions at the time, as per Ms. Smith. Biological E, a Telengana based pharmaceutical company, is collaborating with Johnson & Johnson to produce the Janssen COVID-19 vaccine under the Quad plan. Given the timeline for that production, I think its dispensation will depend to a great extent on the state of play around the world with vaccine coverage. That timeline is fairly extended. So, I think, while in principle those vaccine doses are available for internal use, but also for export to the rest of the world, the final allocation or plan for that will depend on what conditions we’re facing at the time they’re available, Smith said.

B) U.S. to waive sanctions on firm behind Russia’s Nord Stream 2.

The U.S. government will waive sanctions on the company behind Russia’s Nord Stream 2 pipeline to Europe and its Chief Executive, a Washington source familiar with the plans and Germany’s Foreign Minister said on Wednesday. A U.S. State Department report to be delivered to Congress as early as Wednesday concludes that Nord Stream 2 AG and CEO Matthias Warnig, an ally of Ruse Sian President Vladimir Putin, engaged in sanctionable activity but that it was in the U.S. national interest to waive the sanctions, the source said. German Foreign Minister Heiko Maas said the administration had waived the sanctions on those two parties but also imposed sanctions on Russian entities and ships linked to Nord Stream 2. We see this as a constructive step. which we are happy to further discuss with our partners in Washington. Mr. Maas said. The administration under Democratic President Joe Biden still opposed the Nord Stream 2 pipeline but felt it was important to send a signal about its commitment to ties with Germany, which were badly damaged under former President Donald Trump.  Russia’s state energy company Gazprom and its western partners are racing to finish the line to take Russian gas to Europe via Germany, under the Baltic Sea. The project, now about 95% complete, would bypass Ukraine, depriving it of lucrative transit fees and potentially undermining its struggle against Russian aggression.

Latest Current Affairs 19 May 2021

CURRENT AFFAIRS
19 May 2021

NATIONAL NEWS:

 

A) CPI (M) drops high profile ministers from Cabinet positions.

Communist Party of India (Marxist) State committee on Tuesday dropped high-profile Ministers K.K. Shylaja, Kadakampally Surendran and A.C. Modieen from the next Pinarayi Vijayan Cabinet. Instead, it nominated Shylaja as the party’s whip in the next Assembly. Shylaja’s non-inclusion in the Cabinet comes as a surprise for many. The Health Minister had been touted as the face of Kerala’s struggle against the Nipah virus and later Covid-19. Shylaja won with a decisive majority of 60,000 votes from Mattannur in Kannur. She told a television news channel that the party’s decision was paramount. It was a collective recommendation consistent with the CPI(M) line to rotate governmental responsibilities. Predictably, the CPI (M) nominated Politburo member Pinarayi Vijayan as legislature party leader and consequently Chief Minister-designate. The party has included two women legislators in the new Cabinet. They are former Thrissur Mayor R. Bindu and Veena George. Bindu is the wife of CPI (M) acting State secretary A. Vijayaraghavan. The party has proposed M.B. Rajesh as the Speaker candidate. Democratic Youth Federation of India president and Vijayan’s son-in-law Mohammed Riyaz would get a Cabinet berth. Speaker candidate M.B. Rajesh told newspersons that the party paved the way for a new set of party leaders to gain legislative and administrative experience. The new Cabinet, a mix of youth and experience, also reflected Kerala’s social cross-section, said a party spokesperson. The CPI(M) had signalled a generational shift by withdrawing many high-profile Ministers, including Finance Minister Thomas Isaac, Industries Minister E. P. Jayarajan and Public Works Minister G. Sudhakaran, from the electoral arena of the recently concluded assembly polls. Vijayan has also indicated that it would be his final term as Chief Minister. The central leadership of the CPI(M) has refrained from criticising the decision to drop K.K. Shylaja from the Cabinet, putting the onus instead on the State committee. 

B) Live-in relationships morally and socially unacceptable, says Punjab & Haryana HC.

The Punjab and Haryana High Court has said live-in-relationships are morally and socially unacceptable, an observation which runs contrary to the Supreme Court stand recognising them, PTI reported. The High Court made the observation while dismissing a petition filed by a runaway couple seeking protection. In their petition, Gulza Kumari (19) and Gurwinder Singh (22) said they were living together and intended to get married shortly. They apprehended danger to their lives from Kumari’s parents. In his May 11 order, Justice H S Madaan said, As a matter of fact, the petitioners in the garb of filing the present petition are seeking seal of approval on their live-in-relationship, which is morally and socially not acceptable and no protection order in the petition can be passed. The petition stands dismissed accordingly, his order said. According to petitioners’ counsel J S Thakur, Singh and Kumari were living together in Tarn Taran district. The woman’s parents in Ludhiana did not approve of their relationship. The couple could not get married as Kumari’s documents, which have details of her age, were in the possession of her family, Thakur added. The Supreme Court has taken a different view on the issue in the past. A three-judge bench of the apex court held in May 2018 that an adult couple had the right to live together even without marriage. It had made this clear while asserting that a 20-year-old Kerala woman, whose marriage had been annulled, could choose whom she wanted to live with. The top court had held that live-in-relationships were now even recognized by the legislature and they had found a place under the provisions of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005.

C) Kejriwal announces free schooling, monthly allowance for children orphaned by Covid-19.

Delhi Chief Minster Arvind Kejriwal on May 18 announced that if a child had lost both parents (one or both due to Covid-19), education will be provided free of cost to them and additionally Rs. 2,500 will be given to them every month till they are 25 years of age. Due to Corona and the lockdown many homes are facing financial difficulties. We have been thinking about a plan on how to help people overcome this difficulty. We have come up with four steps to provide relief during this tough time, he said. We have come up with several steps to provide relief during this tough time, assured Mr. Kejriwal said in a digital address. Screengrab from twitter.com/@ArvindKejriwal. We will give all ration card holders 5kg ration free from Delhi government + 5kg free ration from the Central government. For those without ration cards, Delhi government will give rations if people demand. If someone says they are poor, we will give ration without asking for income proof, he said. For those who have lost lives due to Corona, we will give Rs.50,000 ex-gratia to every family. If the deceased was the earning member of the family, we will give Rs.2,500 pension every month along with the ex-gratia of Rs.50,000. If a child has lost both parents [one or both due to coronavirus], education will be provided free of cost and we will give Rs.2,500 every month till they attain 25 years of age, he said.

D) Journalist in Manipur booked after saying cow urine and cow dung cannot cure Covid-19.

The police in Imphal have booked journalist Kishorchandra Wangkhem and political activist Erendro Leichombam under the National Security Act of 1980 over their Facebook posts allegedly deriding the death of State BJP president S. Tikendra Singh. The duo was arrested on May 13 after the BJP leader succumbed to Covid-19. Referring to his death, both had commented that cow urine and dung were not cures for infection by the virus. Their arrest was based on a complaint filed by Manipur BJP general secretary P. Premananda Meetei and vice-president Usham Deban Singh. An order issued by Imphal West District Magistrate Th. Kirankumar on Monday said Wangkhem be detained under Section 3(2) of National Security Act, 1980, until further orders as and when he is released on bail. The journalist and Leichombam were subsequently booked under NSA, Imphal West’s Superintendent of Police L. Meghachandra Singh said. On Monday, the district’s Chief Judicial Magistrate granted bail to the duo on the execution of a personal recognisance bond of Rs. 50,000 each with a surety bond of a like amount on condition that they will not repeat a similar offence in the future and be available for interrogation by the investigating officer as and when required. Both Wangkhem, 41, and Leichombam, 40, had been arrested twice earlier on charges of sedition and for criticising the government. The latter is the founder of the People’s Resurgence and Justice Alliance, a political party whose candidate in the 2017 Manipur elections included rights activist Irom Sharmila.

E) Prepare a Covid-19 strategy for children now, Rahul Gandhi cautions govt.

Former Congress president Rahul Gandhi on Tuesday urged the Narendra Modi government to prepare a Covid-19 protocol for children as they needed to be protected now. In the time to come, children will need protection from Corona. Paediatric services and vaccine-treatment protocols should already be in place. India’s future needs for the present Modi ‘system’ to be shaken out of sleep, Gandhi said on twitter. Even though the overall number of Covid-19 cases have stabilised, with the number of cases coming down in the past few days, experts are warning of a new third wave that can affect children. The Congress leader, who had warned of a Covid-19 tsunami as early as February last year, had also been warning of a third wave because of the slow pace and consistently declining numbers of vaccination due to vaccine shortage. GOI’s disastrous vaccine strategy will ensure a devastating third wave. It can’t be repeated enough — India needs a proper vaccine strategy! Gandhi had said last Saturday.

F) SC seeks response from West Bengal govt on plea seeking CBI/SIT probe into post-poll killings.

The Supreme Court on Tuesday sought a response from the West Bengal government on a petition seeking a CBI or SIT (Special Investigation Team) probe into the murder of two BJP activists in the violence after the victory of Mamata Banerjee-led All India Trinamool Congress (TMC) in the Assembly elections. A Vacation Bench of Justices Vineet Saran and B.R. Gavai issued the notice to the government on the joint petition filed by Biswajit Sarkar and Swarnalata Adhikari. Biswajit is the brother of Abhijit Sarkar, one of the two victims. Swarnalata is the widow of Haran Adhikari. They were represented by senior advocate Mahesh Jethmalani. The Bench scheduled the next hearing on the issue for May 25. Jethmalani argued that there was total inaction and even subversion of the investigation on the part of the State administration and the police. The murders happened on the same day the Assembly election results were declared. The police stood by idly… The investigation into the crimes needs to be transferred to the CBI or a SIT and requires court monitoring, he submitted.

G) Justice Gavai recuses himself from hearing Param Bir Singh case.

Supreme Court judge Justice B.R. Gavai, one of the two judges on the Vacation Bench scheduled to hear a plea by former Mumbai Police Commissioner Param Bir Singh challenging the internal enquiries instituted against him, recused himself from hearing the case on Tuesday. Singh has moved the Supreme Court alleging that the departmental enquiries against him was part of a conspiracy to frame him for levelling allegations of corruption against Anil Deshmukh, who resigned as Maharashtra Home Minister. He urged the apex court to shift the enquiries to another State. My brother [pointing to Justice Gavai] cannot hear the case, Justice Vineet Saran, the lead judge on the Bench, informed senior advocate Puneet Bali, who appeared for Singh. Justice Gavai also made it clear that he would withdraw from hearing the petition. In that case, we are recording in our order to list the case before another Bench, Justice Saran said.

H) Covid Watch: Numbers and Developments.

The number of reported coronavirus cases from India stood at 2,53,96,581 with the death toll at 2,80,753. Less than 2% of India’s total population has been affected by Covid-19 so far and 98% of the population is still susceptible or vulnerable to the infection, the government said on Tuesday. Despite the high number of cases reported so far, we have been able to contain the spread to under 2% of the population, said Health Ministry Joint Secretary Lav Agarwal. The government said a continued decline has been noted in active cases in the last 15 days. From 17.13% of the total caseload reported on May 3, it has come down to 13.3%, it added. The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) on Tuesday extended the deadline for schools to submit Class X exam results to June 30, citing the Covid-19 pandemic. On May 1, the CBSE had notified a policy for tabulation of Class X results based on internal assessment by schools, with the deadline for submission of marks as June 5. The CBSE had said in the notification that it would declare the results by June 20. On Tuesday, however, the Board extended the deadline for schools to submit the marks to June 30, keeping in view the situation of the pandemic, lockdown in States and safety of teachers and other staff members of affiliated schools.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS 

A) Sri Lanka’s China-backed tax haven clears final hurdle.

A Chinese-funded tax-free enclave billed as Sri Lanka’s answer to Dubai and Singapore cleared the final legal hurdle on Tuesday as the Supreme Court in Colombo ruled it could go ahead with only minor tweaks. The largest single foreign investment in Sri Lanka is one of several massive Asian infrastructure projects funded by China as Beijing increases its regional footprint. Sri Lanka’s top court rejected 19 petitions challenging the Colombo Port City Economic Commission Bill and approved the $1.4 billion project subject to minor amendments which the government immediately said it accepted. Project officials have said they hope the brand new Port City, an area of reclaimed land, will attract billions of dollars for trade, banking and offshore services similar to what is available in Dutni and Singapore, two of its potential competitors. Named the Colombo Port City because of its proximity to Colombo’s main harbour, the sea reclamation carried out with considerable Chinese labour completed in 2019 has doubled the size of Colombo’s financial district by adding 269 hectares. Under the proposed legislation expected to be passed by Parliament, the Port City will be administered by a commission with unprecedented powers to fast track investment approvals. Il transactions within the Port City will be denominated in foreign currency and all salaries earned by any worker will be tax-exempt.

B) Bangladesh arrests scribe under Official Secrets Act.

A journalist in Bangladesh reporting on official corruption was arrested on charges of violating a colonial-era Official Secrets Act which carries a possible death penalty, authorities said on Tuesday. Rozina Islam, a senior reporter for the leading Prothom Alo newspaper, allegedIy used her mobile phone without permission to photograph documents related to government negotiations to buy coronavirus vaccines while she waited in the room of an official involved in the process, according to case documents seen by The Associated Press. Ms. Islam is known for reporting on corruption involving the Ministry of Health and others. Several of her recent stories have drawn attention to the millions of dollars spent procuring health equipment to deal with the coronavirus pandemic. She was held for more than five hours late on Monday in the room of a personal assistant of the secretary of the Ministry of Health, said her sister, Sabina Parvin. Her family said she was physically and mentally harassed while being held. Sensitive documents Ms. Islam was then handed over to police and faces charges under the Penal Code and Official Secrets Act for alleged theft and photographing of sensitive state documents, said Harun-or-Rashid, an Additional Deputy Commissioner of Dhaka Metropolitan Police. The charges carry a possible death penalty, the New York-based Committee to Protect Journalists said in a statement.

Latest Current Affairs 18 May 2021

CURRENT AFFAIRS
18 May 2021

NATIONAL NEWS:

A) Trinamool Ministers arrested by CBI in Narada case, get bail.

Four political heavyweights, including two ministers of the ruling Trinamool Congress (TMC) government and a party MLA, were on Monday arrested by the Central Bureau of Investigation ( CBI) in the Narada sting operation case and were granted interim bail in the evening. Senior Ministers Subrata Mukherjee and Firhad Hakim, TMC MLA Madan Mitra and former Minister and former Kolkata Municipal Corporation mayor who recently quit the BJP, Sovan Chatterjee, were all picked up from their residences in the early hours of the day and brought to the CBI headquarters at Nizam Palace in south Kolkata. The four of them were produced before a virtual city court, where the counsels representing the CBI sought a 14-day judicial custody. The lawyers representing the arrested members said there was no need for custody of any of the accused since the chargesheet has been filed. The defence counsels also said such custodial interrogation is not required in the time of a pandemic. The central investigating agency may also appeal before the higher courts opposing the bail. The Narada tapes, which were allegedly shot sometime in 2014, were made public in 2016, months before the State went to Assembly Polls. The purported videos showed about a dozen TMC leaders, MPs and Ministers accepting cash on camera from an operator of a fictitious company. In March 2017, the Calcutta High Court directed CBI to probe the tapes and the agency filed an FIR against 13 persons in April, 2017, including the four persons arrested today. The main allegation in the case was that the said accused as public servants demanded and accepted illegal gratification to show favour to a private person who was posing as a representative of a fictitious company at the time of transaction and discreetly recording the same, a press statement issued by the CBI said. The CBI also added that all the four arrested were ministers in the State government and sanction was received from competent authorities to prosecute them on May 7, 2021. The arrests triggered dramatic developments and protests across the city, with Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee rushing to the CBI office at Nizam Palace. Banerjee was at the CBI office for almost six hours. Some of the lawyers representing those arrested said Banerjee dared the CBI authorities to take her into custody. The TMC described the arrests as political vendetta and questioned why BJP leaders Suvendu Adhikari and Mukul Roy, who were both named in the FIR, had not yet been arrested. Mathew Samuel, who carried out the sting on behalf of the portal Narada News, also asked why Adhikari, now a BJP MLA and leader of the Opposition, had not been quizzed. Meanwhile, hundreds of Trinamool Congress supporters gathered outside the CBI office. Violence erupted, with the TMC supporters throwing stones and bottles at the central forces, who resorted to baton charge. The TMC supporters remained at Nizam Palace till late in the evening and left only after the news of the TMC leaders being granted bail reached them.

B) 1,621 teachers died of Covid-19 during U.P. panchayat polls, says union.

The number of teachers and staff who died of Covid-19 after being assigned duty in the panchayat polls and in Covid-19 control rooms has gone up to 1,621, a union for the primary teachers in Uttar Pradesh claimed on Sunday. The union also alleged that despite assurances by the state chief secretary on May 1, a day before counting, that unwell teachers and staff would not be asked to be on polling duty, those who were absent due to illness on counting and voting days had faced suspension and salary cuts. Uttar Pradesh Prathmik Shikshak Sangh president Dinesh Chandra Sharma said the number of primary education department teachers and staff to die on polling duty during the pandemic had gone up to to 1,621. The union released a list of the 1,621 people. Moreover, he added, many teachers and staff with heart diseases died due to tension and heart attack. As reported on May 2, Covid-19 safety protocols were not followed at the counting centres of the panchayat polls by the district administration, said Sharma. What’s worrying is that even after the so much of loss of life, administrative officials in districts are harassing primary teachers, he said. Basic education department teachers and staff are allowed to work from home but in several districts like Unnao, Rae Bareli, Lucknow, Basti, Banda and Hardoi, they have been assigned duty at Covid-19 control rooms at the cost of their safety, he said. The union demanded that a compensation of Rs.1 crore be provided to the kin of the staff and teachers who died during polling duty. The union also demanded that the government withdraw all punitive action against the teachers and staff absent on polling duty and declare all teachers, including the deceased, as corona warriors. The Allahabad High Court on May 11 had said that the compensation provided to kin of polling officers who died on duty during the panchayat polls due to the deliberate act on the part of the State and the State Election Commission to force them to perform duties in the absence of RTPCR support should be at least Rs.1 crore. The State government had recently told the court that it would provide a compensation of Rs.30 lakh to the family members of the deceased polling officers, including teachers and sikhsa mitras.

C) Petition in SC to stop action against those questioning Centre’s vaccine policy.

A petition has been filed in the Supreme Court to direct the Delhi Police Commissioner to stop the registration of FIRs against persons who have voiced their dissent against the Centre’s vaccination policy and Covid-19 management by pasting posters and brochures in public places. Advocate Pradeep Kumar Yadav said free speech and expression is guaranteed under the Constitution. The Supreme Court in the Shreya Singhal judgment has held that sharing of information on social media is not a criminal offence under the Information Technology Act. The petitioner referred to the fact that the Supreme Court, while hearing the suo motu case on Covid-19 management, had specifically told State authorities to not take penal action against people who seek medical help or vent their grievances about Covid-19 management on social media. Contrary to this, authorities are registering FIRs against the innocent persons over their hate speech against the Hon’ble PM with regard to his official functions over the second wave of COVID-19 crisis and government vaccine policies, the petition said. The petition mentioned the arrest of over 20 people in Delhi in connection with posters against the Prime Minister regarding the vaccination policy.

D) Miniscule risk of developing blood clots after Covishield jab, says Health Ministry.

Adverse Event Following Immunisation (AEFI) data in India showed that there was a minuscule but definitive risk of thromboembolic events after the AstraZeneca-Oxford vaccine (known as Covishield in India). A statement issued by the Health Ministry on Monday noted that the reporting rate of these events in India is around 0.61/million doses, which is much lower than the four cases/million reported by UK’s regulator Medical and Health Regulatory Authority (MHRA). Germany has reported 10 events per million doses. There were no potential thromboembolic events reported following administration of Covaxin vaccine. Bleeding and clotting cases following Covid-19 vaccination in India are minuscule and in line with the expected number of diagnoses of these conditions in the country, a report submitted by the National AEFI committee to the Health Ministry noted. Since the vaccination drive was initiated, more than 23,000 adverse events were reported through the Co-WIN platform from 684 of the 753 districts of the country. Of these, only 700 cases (9.3 cases/million doses administered) were reported to be serious and severe in nature. The AEFI Committee has completed an in-depth case review of 498 serious and severe events, of which 26 cases have been reported to be potential thromboembolic (formation of a clot in a blood vessel that might also break loose and be carried by the blood stream to plug another vessel) events, following the administration of Covishield vaccine, with a reporting rate of 0.61 cases/ million doses, said the release.

E) TN skips virtual meeting with Union Education Minister.

Representatives from the Tamil Nadu School Education Department chose not to participate in the virtual meeting organised for State Education Secretaries on Monday. Union Education Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal had announced that he would be attending the meeting virtually and had outlined the objectives as reviewing the Covid-19 situation, online education and work around the National Education Policy (NEP). The meeting had called for the participation of the Education secretary alone, and not State Ministers of Education. In a letter to the Union Minister sent on Sunday, School Education Minister Anbil Mahesh Poyyamozhi had said that it would be appropriate only if the Education Department Minister participates along with officials from the Department for such a high-level meeting. He had further said that he was ready to participate and share their views on the implementation of NEP. Chief Minister M.K. Stalin had said that I should take part in it as the Minister of the department and we subsequently wrote to the Centre as well about my participation in the meeting. But there hasn’t been any response, and we chose not to participate, said Anbil Mahesh, speaking at Tiruchi on Monday afternoon. We are not looking to fight with them, but want to be able to participate and put forth our views on the NEP and other issues discussed, he added. The DMK was strongly opposed to the National Education Policy when it came out in 2020 and had demanded it to be withdrawn. Many of our suggestions which we had put forth when the draft NEP was released were not taken into consideration. There are many aspects that need further discussion including the three-language policy, and the NEP also does not say much about how it is going to help underprivileged students or about reservations, Anbil Mahesh said.

F) Covid Watch: Numbers and Developments.

The number of reported coronavirus cases from India stood at 2,51,11,469 with the death toll at 2,76,186. The first batch of the adjunct COVID therapy drug, 2-deoxy-D-glucose (2-DG) — developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) along with Dr Reddy’s Laboratories (DRL), Hyderabad — was today released for emergency use. Defence Minister Rajnath Singh formally handed over the drug to Health Minister Dr Harsh Vardhan. Bihar has lost the highest number of doctors to the second wave of Covid-19 — 69 — followed by Uttar Pradesh (34) and Delhi (27). According to the Indian Medical Association (IMA) registry, 244 deaths have been recorded in the second wave, with the youngest physician who died being Dr. Anas Mijahid, 25, from Delhi. While last year we lost nearly 730 doctors across India, this year in a short period of time we have lost 244 doctors, said IMA president J.A. Jayalal.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS 

A) Gaza’s rockets part of resistance, says collective led by Arundhati Roy, Nayantara Sahgal.

Rockets fired by Palestinians against Israel are part of a resistance which is supported by international law, a group of writers and artistes led by Arundhati Roy and Nayantara Sahgal has declared. In a statement, the collective accused Israeli government of killing Palestinian children and blamed Israeli settlers for illegally trying to snatch Palestinian land. Palestinians in Gaza fired rockets at Israel. The rockets did not start or define the brutality that followed. The rockets came as part of a resistance backed by international law of an illegal occupation, declared the statement from the collective. It said Israeli retaliation with extreme force killed civilians, including children. The collective urged the Egyptian air force to provide a ‘no-fly zone’ above Gaza strip and pointed to the lack of political will in the Arab world to protect the Palestinians. The group, consisting of some of the leading artistes, authors and actors, drew attention to the U.N. General Assembly resolution 1514 of 1960 that supported a decolonisation process.

B) At UN, India supports Palestine, but without getting into specifics.

At the United Nations Security Council on Sunday, India, a non-permanent member, reaffirmed its support for Palestine, but stopped short of making any direct reference to the status of Jerusalem or the future Israel-Palestine borders. Wrapping up his over-4-minute-long speech at the Security Council, T.S. Tirumurti, India’s Permanent Representative to the UN said, In conclusion, India reiterates its strong support for the just Palestinian cause and its unwavering commitment to the two-state solution. Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu on Sunday tweeted the national flags of 25 countries, from the United States to Albania, that he said were resolutely standing with Israel and supporting our right to self defence. India’s flag was not among them. Ambassador Tirumurti’s statement made two things clear. One, he said the violence began in East Jerusalem a week back, referring to the clashes in the Al-Aqsa compound and East Jerusalem’s neighbourhood. This means, India doesn’t see Hamas’s rocket firing on May 10, which followed Israeli forces storming Al-Aqsa Mosque in the morning, as the trigger of the conflict. India has also urged both sides to refrain from attempts to unilaterally change the existing status quo, including in East Jerusalem and its neighbourhood. Here, it is Israel which is trying to unilaterally change the status quo by moving to evict the Palestinian families, and deploying troops to the Al-Aqsa compound. India said the historic status quo at the holy places of Jerusalem, including Haram esh-Sharif/Temple Mount must be respected. So, without naming any country, India has, in effect, called for the eviction process to be stopped and status quo ante to be restored at the Al Aqsa compound.

Social Science 10th Previous Year Question Paper 2015 (CBSE)

SOCIAL SCIENCE

SET-I

Q.  1. What was the main aim of the French revolutionaries?

Answer. The main aim of the French revolutionaries was to create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. They proclaimed that it was the people who would constitute the nation and shape its  decisions.

Or

What is the meaning of concentration camps?

Answer. Concentration camps are prisons where people are detained and tortured without due process of law.

 

Q.  2. How do minerals occur in sedimentary rocks?

Answer. In sedimentary rocks a numbers of minerals occur in beds or layers. They have been formed as a result of deposition, accumulation and concentration in horizontal strata. For example, coal, iron ore.

 

Q. 3. What was the main aim of the popular movement of April 2006, in Nepal?

Answer. Aim of popular movement of April 2006 in Nepal:

  1. Restoring democracy.
  2. Regaining popular control over the government from the King.

 

Q. 4. How can you say that democracies are based on political equality?

Answer. Democracies are based on political equality as individuals have equal weight in electing representatives.

 

Q. 5. Why do political parties involve partisanship?

Answer. Partisanship is marked by a tendency to take a side and inability to take a balanced view, on an issue. Parties reflect fundamental political divisions in a society. Parties are a part of the society and they involve partisanship.

 

Q. 6. What is meant by double coincidence of wants?

Answer. Double coincidence of wants means when both parties have agreed to sell and buy each other’s commodities.

 

Q. 7. Suppose your parents want to purchase Gold jewellery along with you; then which logo will you look for on the jewellery?

Answer. Hallmark, is the logo to look for while purchasing Gold jewellery.

 

Q. 8. How does money act as a medium of exchange?

Answer. Money acts as a medium of exchange as it acts as an intermediate in the exchange process and transactions. A person holding money can easily exchange it for any commodity or services that he or she might want.

 

Q. 9. How did nationalism develop through culture in Europe? Explain.

Answer. Culture, music, dance and religion played an important role in the growth of nationalism.

  1. Culture. Role of culture was important in creating the idea of the nation. Art, poetry, music etc. helped in developing and expressing nationalist feelings. Romanticism was a cultural movement that led to the development of nationalist sentiment. Romantic artists and poets criticized the glorification of reason and science and instead focussed on emotions and intuition.
  2. Language. Language too played an important role in developing nationalist sentiments. After Russian occupation, the Polish language was forced out of schools and Russian language was imposed everywhere. In 1831, an armed rebellion against Russian rule took place which was ultimately crushed. Following this, many members of the clergy in Poland began to use language as a weapon of national resistance.
  3. Music and Dance. Romantics such as the German philosopher Herder claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people—das volk. It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation was popularised.

Or

How did Paul Bernard argue in favour of economic development of Vietnam? Explain.

Answer. Paul Bernard was an influential writer and policy-maker who strongly believed that the

purpose of acquiring colonies was to make profits.

  1. According to him, the development of economy will raise the standard of people and people would buy more goods. The market would consequently expand, leading to better profit for French business.
  2. According to Bernard, there were several barriers to economic growth in Vietnam, such as large population, low agricultural productivity and extensive indebtedness amongst the peasants.
  3. To reduce the poverty and increase agricultural productivity, it was necessary to carry out land reforms.
  4. Industrialisation was also essential for creating more jobs as agriculture was not likely to ensure sufficient employment opportunities.

 

Q. 10. Describe the main features of ‘Poona Pact’.

Answer. The Poona Pact:

  1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, who organised the dalits into the Depressed Classes Association in 1930 demanded separate electorates for dalits in the Second Round Table Conference organised in London.
  2.  When British accepted this demand in the name of Communal Award, Gandhiji started a fast into death. He believed that separate electorates for dalits would slow down the process of their integration into the society.
  3. Ambedkar and Gandhi came to an agreement with Ambedkar accepting Gandhis position and the result was the Poona Pact of September, 1932.
    — It gave the depressed classes (later to be known as Schedule castes) reserved seats in provincial and central legislative councils.
    — But, they were to be voted in by the general electorate.

 

Q. 11. How did ‘Salt March’ become an effective tool of resistance against colonalism? Explain.

Answer. Mahatma Gandhi found in salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation.

  1. On 31st January, 1930 he sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands, one of which was the demand to abolish Salt Tax.
  2. Salt was one of the most essential food items consumed by the rich and poor alike and a tax on it was considered an oppression on the people by the British Government,
  3.  Mahatma Gandhi’s letter was an ultimatum and if his demands were not fulfilled by March 11, he had threatened to launch a civil disobedience campaign.
  4. So, Mahatma Gandhi started his famous Salt March accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi.
  5. On 6th April, he reached Dandi, and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing salt by boiling sea water. This marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

 

Q. 12. Explain the importance of railways as the principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India.

Answer.

  1. Railways are the principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India, as they link different parts of the country.
  2.  They carry huge loads and bulky goods to long distances.
  3. Railways make it possible to conduct multiple activities like business, tourism, pilgrimage along with goods transportation over longer distances.
  4. Railways have been a great integrating force for the nation, for more than 150 years now,
  5. They have been helpful in binding the economic life of the country and also promoted cultural fusion.
  6.  They have accelerated the development of the industry and agriculture.

 

Q. 13. Why the ‘Chhotanagpur Plateau Region’ has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries? Analyse the reasons.

Answer. Chhotanagpur Plateau has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries because of the relative advantages this region has for the development of this industry like:

  1.  Low cost of iron ore which is mined here.
  2. High grade raw materials in close proximity.
  3. Availability of cheap labour.
  4. Vast growth potential in the home market.
  5. Availability of power because this region has many thermal and hydel power plants.
  6. Liberalisation and FDI have also given boost to the industry with efforts of private enterpreneurs.

 

Q. 14. How can solar energy solve the energy problem to some extent in India? Give your opinion.

Answer. Reasons:

  1. India is a tropical country and gets abundant sunshine.
  2.  It has enormous possibilities of tapping solar energy.
  3. It is an inexhaustible source of energy which is freely available in nature.
  4.  It is a cheaper source of energy and is fast becoming popular in rural and remote areas.
  5.  Photovaltic technology is available which converts sunlight directly into electricity.
  6. Because of its abundant and free availability in all parts of India in addition to its eco friendly nature, solar energy is called the energy of future.

Also use of solar energy will minimise the dependence of rural households on firewood. It will contribute to environmental conservation and reduce pressure on conventional sources of energy.

 

Q. 15. “Dynastic succession is one of the most serious challenges before the political parties.” Analyse the statement.

Answer. Most political parties do not practise open and transparent procedures for their functioning. So there are very few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party. Those who happen to be the leaders are in a position of unfair advantage as they favour people close to them or even their family members.

In many parties in India, we see a trend of dynastic succession. The top positions are always controlled by members of a particular family, which is unfair to other members of the party, and bad for democracy. This is so because people who do not have adequate experience or popular support come to occupy positions of power.

More than loyalty to party principles and policies, personal loyalty to the leader becomes more important. This tendency is seen all over the world, even in older democracies.

 

Q. 16. How is democracy accountable and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens? Analyse.

Answer. A democracy is concerned with ensuring that people have the right to choose their rulers and have control over the rulers.

— Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision making in a democracy.

— Democracy ensures that decision-making is based on norms and procedures. A citizen has the right anti the means to examine the process of decision-making. Thus democracy entails transparency.

— For a democracy to produce an accountable, responsive and legitimate government, it must ensure the following:

  1. Regular, free and fair elections.
  2. Open public debate on major policies and legislations. .
  3. Citizens’ right to be informed about government policies.
  4.  A government free from corruption.

 

Q. 17. “A challenge is an opportunity for progress.” Support the statement with your arguments.

Answer. A challenge is not just any problem. Only those difficulties are a ‘challenge’ which are significant and can be overcome and therefore carry within them an opportunity for progress. Democracy is the dominant form of government in the contemporary world. It does not face a particular challenger, but the promise of democracy is far from realised anywhere in the world. Democracy as a whole faces certain challenges.

Legal constitutional changes by themselves cannot help to overcome challenges to democracy—like economic inequality, unemployment, illiteracy, caste, gender discrimination. Democratic reforms can be carried out by political activities, parties, movements and politically conscious citizens, in order to realise the opportunity in a challenge, in order to overcome it an go up to a higher level.

 

Q. 18. Why is modern currency accepted as a medium of exchange without any use of its own? Find out the reason.

Answer. Modem forms of money currency in India include paper notes and coins which are known as Rupees and Paise.

  1. It is accepted as a medium of exchange because the currency is authorised by the Government of India.
  2. In India, the Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government. As per Indian law, no other individual or organisation is allowed to issue currency.
  3.  The law legalises the use of the rupee as a medium of payment that cannot be refused in settling transactions in India.
  4. No individual in India can legally refuse a payment made in rupees.
    Therefore, the rupee is widely accepted as a medium of exchange.

 

Q. 19. “Foreign trade integrates the markets in different countries.” Support the statement with arguments.

Answer. 

  1.  Foreign trade creates opportunities for producers to reach beyond domestic markets.
    Producers can compete in markets located in other countries of the world. Similarly for the buyers, import of goods from another country leads to expanding choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced. Buyers can thus choose from a wide range of products to suit their individual tastes.
  1. With the opening of trade, goods travel from one market to another. Choice of goods in the market rises. Prices of similar goods in two markets tend to become equal, and producers in the two countries now closely compete against each other even though they are separated by thousands of miles.
    Foreign trade, thus, results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in different countries.
    For example., There are endless number of footwear brands available in the Indian market. A consumer who is aware of international trends can choose between a local brand like Bata, Lakhani and international brands like Adidas, Nike, Reebok etc.

 

Q. 20. Explain with an example how you can use the right to seek redressal.

Answer. Right to seek redressal:

  1. The consumers can seek redressal against trade practices of exploitation and have the right to fair settlement of the genuine grievances.
  2.  He has a right to get compensation from a manufacturer/trader if he is harmed. The consumer can seek redressal through Consumer Courts functioning at district, state and national levels.
    Example: Mahesh sent a money order to his village for his mother’s medical treatment. The money did not reach his mother at the time when she needed it and reached months later. Mahesh, thus filed a case in the district level consumer court to seek redressal.

Q. 21. Describe any five steps taken by the French Revolutionaries to create a sense of collective identity among the French people.

Answer. The first clear-cut expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789. In 1789, France was under the rule of an absolute monarch.

When the revolutionaries came to power in France, they were determined to create a new sense of unity and nationhood. For this, they emphasized the concept of France being the father land (La Patrie) for all French people, who were from now on addressed as citizens (citoyen). They were given the tricolour flag, the three colours representing liberty*; equality and fraternity.

French revolutionaries introduced various other measures such as:

  1. The Estate General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly.
  2.  New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated all in the name of the nation.
  3.  A centralized administrative system was put in place and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory.
  4.  Internal customs, duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted.
  5.  Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation. .
  6. They further declared that it was the mission and the destiny of the French nation to liberate the people of Europe from despotism and help them to become nations.

Or

Describe any five steps taken by the French for the development of the ‘Mekong Delta Region’.

Answer. Steps taken by the French for the development of the ‘Mekong Delta Region’:

  1. Colonies were considered essential to supply natural resources and other essential goods. Like other western nations, France also thought that it was the mission of the advanced’ European countries to bring benefits of civilization to backward people.
  2. The colonial economy in Vietnam was primarily based on rice cultivation and rubber
    plantations owned by the French and a small Vietnamese elite. The French built canals and drained lands in the Mekong Delta to increase rice cultivation. A vast system of irrigation was built which led to great expansion in rice production and gradually Vietnam became the third largest exporter of rice in the world.
  3. Rail and port facilities were set up to support and service this sector.
  4.  Indentured Vietnamese labour was widely used in the rubber plantations, French did little to industrialise the economy.
  5. in the rural areas landlordism spread and standard of living declined.

 

Q. 22. Explain the attitude of the Indian merchants and the industrialists towards the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’.

Answer. Role of merchants and the industrialists in the Civil Disobedience Movement:

  1. Merchants reacted against colonial policies that restricted business activities.
  2. They wanted protection against import of foreign goods and wanted a rupee-sterling foreign exchange ratio that would discourage imports.
  3. Industrialsits formed the Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920.
  4.  They formed the Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries ‘ (FJCCl) in 1927.
  5.  Thev refused to sell or buy imported goods. They gave financial assistance and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement.
  6.  Industrialists like G.D. Birla and Pursnottamdas Thakurdas attacked colonial control over the Indian economy.

 

Q. 23. What is the manufacturing sector? Why is it considered the backbone of development? Interpret the reason.

Answer. Production of goods in large quantities after processing from raw materials to more valuable products is called manufacturing.

Manufacturing belongs to the secondary’ sector in which the primary’ materials are processed and converted into finished goods. The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.

Importance of manufacturing industries for development in India:

  1. It helps in modernising agriculture, which is the base of our economy.
  2.  It reduces heavy dependence on agricultural income by providing jobs in non- agricultural sectors.
  3.  Industrial development is necessary for eradication of poverty and unemployment because people get jobs and generate more income.
  4.  Export of manufactured goods expands trade and brings in much needed foreign exchange.
  5. Industries bring riches faster to a nation because manufacturing changes raw materials into finished goods of a higher value, so industrial development brings prosperity to the country.

 

Q. 24. Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? Assess the importance of its different forms. 

Answer. Coal is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India.

Four types of coal and their characteristics:

(a) Anthracite. 1. It is the highest quality hard coal;

2. It contains more than 80% carbon content. It gives less smoke.

(b) Bituminous. 1. It is the most popular coal in commercial use and has 60-80% carbon content;

2. Metallurgical coal is high grade bituminous coal and is of special value for smelting iron in blast furnaces.

(c) Lignite. 1. IHs a low grade brown coal;

2. It is soft with high moisture content. The main lignite reserve is Neyveli in Tamil Nadu.

(d) Peat. 1. It has a low carbon and high moisture content;

2. It has low heating capacity and gives lot of smoke on burning.

 

Q. 25. What is meant by a political party? Describe the three components of a political party.

Answer. Political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and to hold power in the government. They agree on some policies to promote collective good. They seek to implement those policies by winning popular support through elections. Thus political parties tend to fill political offices and exercise political power.

Answer. Components of a political party are: (1) The leaders, (2) active members and (3) the followers.

  1. The leaders are recruited and trained by parties. They are made ministers to run the government. The big policy decisions are taken by the political executives that come from the political parties.
  2.  Parties have lakhs of members and activists spread over the country. Many of the pressure groups are the extensions of political parties among different sections of society. But since most of the members belong to a party, they go by the direction of the party leadership, irrespective of their personal opinion.
  3. The followers are the ordinary citizens, who believe in the policies of their respective party and give popular support through elections. Often the opinions of the followers crystallise on the lines parties take.

 

Q. 26. Suggest any five effective measures to reform political parties.

Answer. See Q. 26, 2011 (I Delhi).

 

Q. 27. How do banks play an important role in the economy of India? Explain.

Answer.

  1. Banks help people to save their money and keep their money in safe custody. To ensure safety of their money, people deposit their money with banks. Banks accept deposits and pay interest on deposits. People have the provision to withdraw their money as and when they require.
  2. Banks also grant loans to people for a variety of purposes. In times of need individuals, business houses and industries can borrow money from the banks.
  3. Credit provided by banks is crucial for the country’s growth and economic
    development. Credit is needed for all kinds of economic activities, to set up business, buy cars, houses, etc.
  4. Banks also help people in obtaining cheap and affordable loans. This can help people to grow crops, do business, set up small-scale industries or trade in goods and also help indirectly in the country’s development. They should do so, so that relatively poor people do not have to depend on informal sources of credit (money-lenders).

 

Q. 28. “Globalisation and greater competition among producers has been advantageous consumers.” Support the statement with examples.

Answer.

  1.  Greater competition among producers (both local and foreign) has been advantageous to consumers, particularly the well-off section. Rich people enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products and enjoy a higher standard of living.
  2. MNCs have increased their investments in India over the past 20 years in industries such as cell phones, automobiles, electronics, soft drinks, fast food and services such as banking thereby providing consumers with a vast variety of products.
  3. New jobs have been created in all these industries and services, thereby increasing purchasing power of individuals.
  4. Top Indian companies have benefitted from the increased competition. They have invested in newer technology and production methods indirectly benefitting the consumers.
  5.  Consumers today, enjoy much higher standards of living than was possible earlier.

 

Q. 29. Three features A, B and C are marked on the given political outline map of India.

Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map:

A. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.

B. The place associated with the Peasant’s Satyagraha.

C. The place related to calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-social-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-1

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-social-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-2

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q.  No. 29.

(29.1) Name the place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in Dec., 1920.

(29.2) Name the place associated with the movement of Indigo Planters.

(29.3) Name the place related to the Satyagraha of peasants in Gujarat.

Answer. (29.1) Nagpur (29.2) Champaran (29.3) Kheda

 

Q. 30 (30.1) Two features A and B are marked on the given political outline map of India.

Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map:

A. Iron-orb mines B. Terminal Station of East-West Corridor

(30.2) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label the following:

(i) Vishakhapatnam—Software Technology Park

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-social-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-3

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-social-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-4

Note: Tite foil Giving questions are for the VISUALLY IMPAIRED CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Q.  No. 30.

(30.1) In which state are Bailadila Iron-ore mines located?

(30.2) Name the Western Terminal Station of East-West Corridor.

(30.3) Name the well known Software Technology Park located in Karnataka State.

Answer. (30.1) Chhattisgarh (30.2) Porbandar (30.3) Bangalore or Mysore

 

SET II

Q. 2. Why has the ‘National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council’ been set up?

Answer. The trend of growth rate in the manufacturing sector over the last decade has been around 7% per annum. The desired growth rate over the next decade is 12%. The NMCC has been set up to improve productivity with government policy intervention and efforts by Industry.

 

Q. 3. What is the guiding philosophy of Bhartiya Janata Party?

Answer. The source of inspiration of Bharatiya Janata Party is the ancient Indian culture and values. Cultural nationalism (Hindutva) is an important element in its conception of Indian nationhood and politics.

 

Q. 6. What is meant by trade barrier?

Answer. Barriers or restrictions that are imposed by the government on free import and export activities are called trade barriers. Tax on imports is an example of a trade barrier because it increases the price of imported commodities. The government can use a trade barrier like ‘tax’ to increase or decrease (regulate) foreign trade and to decide what kind of goods and how much of what should come into the country.

 

Q. 10. Describe the spread of Non-Cooperation Movement in the countryside.

Answer. The Non-cooperation movement spread to the countryside also.

It drew into the struggles of peasants and tribals from different parts of India.

  1. In Awadh, the peasants’ movement ied by Baba Ramchandra was against talukdars and landlords who demanded extremely high rents and a variety of other cesses from the peasants. Peasants were forced to work in landlords’ farms without any payment (begar). Peasants had no security of tenure, thus being regularly evicted so that they could acquire no right over the leased land. The demands of the peasants were— reduction of revenue, abolition of begar and social boycott of oppressive landlords.
  2. In the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh a militant guerrilla movement spread in the early 1920s against the closure of forest areas by the colonial government, preventing people from entering the forests to graze their cattle, or to collect fuelwood and fruits. They felt that their traditional rights were being denied.
  3. For plantation workers in Assam, freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed. It meant retaining a link with the village from which they had come.

Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers were not permitted to leave tea gardens without permission. In fact the permission was hardly granted. When they heard of the Non-Cooperation Movement, thousands of workers defied the authorities and left for their homes.

 

Q. 12. Describe any three features of waterways in India,

Answer.

  1. Waterways are the cheapest means of transport.
  2.  Waterways are a fuel efficient and environment friendly mode of transport.
  3. They are most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods.
  4.  India’s trade with foreign countries if carried from the ports located along the coast, and more than 95% of the’country’s trade volume is moved by the sea.

 

Q. 15. How do money and muscle power play an important role in elections?

Answer. Political parties need to face and overcome the growing challenge of Money and Muscle power during elections in order to remain effective instruments of democracy.
Since parties are focussed only on winning elections, they tend to use shortcuts to win elections, for example, like booth-rigging, distribution of food, money, alcohol, etc. to the poor voters to get their votes. Political parties tend to nominate those candidates who have or can raise lots of money. Rich people and companies who give funds to the parties tend to have influence on the policies and decisions of the party. These days, parties are supporting criminals who can win elections. This is a major cause of concern to the democrats all over the world who are worried about the increasing role of rich people and big companies in democratic politics.

 

Q. 22. Explain any five major problems posed by the First World War in India.

Answer. The outbreak of the First World War had created a new economic and political situation in India:

  1. Tire increased defence expenditure was financed by war loans and by raising tax rates, custom duties, etc. There was tremendous price rise during the war years. Between 1913 and 1918, the prices had almost doubled. People, particularly common people, were lacing extreme hardships.
  2. Forced recruitment in the army caused widespread anger in the villages. .
  3. The failure of crops in many parts of India had created food shortages, leading to the added misery of the people.
  4. In addition to this, there was the outbreak of the great influenza epidemic. Millions of people perished due to influenza and starvation.
  5. The nationalist movement grew stronger during the war years. A large number of Muslims were drawn into the anti-British struggle during the war. The defence of the ‘Caliphate’ (Khilafat) became an important question for Muslims. Peasant movements during war period also had helped the nationalist movement to grow stronger.

 

Q. 23. Why was the cotton textile industry concentrated in the cotton growing belt in the early years? Explain.

Answer. In the early years, the cotton growing belt was primarily concentrated in Maharashtra and Gujarat.

  1. Availability of raw cotton was abundant and cheap here because these are the traditional cotton growing states.
  2. Moist climate in these coastal states also helped in the development of cotton textile industry because humid conditions are required for weaving the cloth, else the yam breaks.
  3. Well developed transportation system and accessible port facilities in Maharashtra and Gujarat led to their concentration there.
  4. Proximity to the market was yet another factor as cotton clothes were ideal and comfortable to wear in these warm and humid states.
  5. Cheap labour was also abundantly available.

 

Q. 26. “The democracy has been evolved through struggles and movements all over the world.” Support the statement with examples.

Answer.

  1. Democracy has evolved through struggles and movements all over the world. The struggles in Poland, Nepal and Bolivia all relate to establishing and restoring democracy. The struggled in these countries is a reminder that popular struggles are integral to the working of democracy.
  2. The role of popular struggle does not come to an end with the establishment of democracy. Democracy involves conflict of interests and viewpoints. These views are expressed in organised ways through which ordinary citizens can play a role in democracy.
  3. In a democracy, several different kinds of organisations work behind any big struggle. These organisations influence the decisions in a democracy either by creating parties, contesting elections and forming government. They promote the interest and viewpoints of citizens in a democracy through interest groups or pressure groups.
  4. Democracy evolves through popular struggle. Some major decisions may take place through consensus. But some decisions involve conflict between the groups who have exercised power and those who aspire to share power. Here the popular struggle helps in the expansion of democracy.

SET III

Q. 2. Why was the Haldia sea-port set up?

Answer. Haldia sea-port was set up as a subsidiary port, in order to relieve growing pressure on the Kolkata port.

 

Q. 3. What is meant by ‘transparency’?

Answer. In a democracy, every citizen has the right and means to examine the process of decision making. This is known as transparency.

 

Q. 6. Why was the Consumer Protection Act enacted by the Indian Parliament?

Answer. The Consumer Protection Act was enacted by the Indian parliament in 1986 to protect the consumers from unfair trade practices and retain interest of consumers.

 

Q. 10. Describe any three major problems faced by the peasants of Awadh in the days of Non-Cooperation Movement.

Answer. The movement of Awadh peasants was led by:

  1. The peasants’ movement Baba Ramchandra was against talukdars and landlords who demanded extremely high rents and a variety of other cesses from the peasants.
  2. Peasants were forced to work in landlords’ farms without any payment (begar). Peasants had no security of tenure, thus being regularly evicted so that they could acquire no right over the leased land.
  3. The demands of the peasants were: reduction of revenue, abolition of begar and social boycott of oppressive landlords.

 

Q. 12. Describe the significance of tourism as a trade in India.

Answer.

  1. With increase in the number of foreign tourists visiting India, we earned foreign exchange worth ?21,828 crore in 2004 which is further increasing year by year making tourism an important trade.
  2. Over 2.6 million foreign tourists visit India every year for appreciating our heritage, our culture, for medical purposes or for business purposes, etc.
  3. Over 15 million people are directly engaged in the tourism industry.
  4. Tourism promotes national integration, provides support to local handicrafts and cultural pursuits.
  5. Tourism also helps in the development of international understanding about our culture and heritage.
  6.  Rajasthan, Goa, Jammu & Kashmir and temple towns of south India are the most popular tourist destinations. These states earn huge sums of money from tourism trade.

 

Q. 15. “There is an overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world.” Support the statement.

Answer. Over a hundred countries of the world today claim and practice some kind of democratic politics.

— They have formal constitutions, hold elections, have parties and they guarantee rights of citizens. Thus, in most countries, the democracy produces a government that is accountable to the citizens and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens.

— No society7 can fully and permanently resolve conflict among different groups. But we can learn to respect these differences and evolve mechanisms to negotiate them. Democracy is best suited as it develops a procedure to conduct competitions. Belgium is a successful example of negotiating difference among ethnic population.

— Passion for respect and freedom is the basis of democracy and has been achieved in various degrees in various democracies.

— The support for democracy is overwhelming all over the world and is evident from South Asia, where the support exists in countries with democratic as well as undemocratic regimes.

— People wish to be ruled by representatives elected by them, as a democratic government is people’s own government and makes them believe that it is suitable for their country as it is a legitimate government.

 

Q. 22. How did the ‘Non-Cooperation Movement’ spread in cities across the country? Explain its effects on the economic front.

Answer. In the cities, the Non-Cooperation Movement started with middle class participation.

  1. Thousands of students left government-controlled schools and colleges. Headmasters and teachers resigned and. lawyers gave up their legal practices.
  2.  The Council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras.
  3. Foreign goods and foreign cloth was boycotted. Traders and merchants also refused to trade in foreign goods.

The economic sphere was affected by the Non-Cooperation Movement.

  1. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops were picketed and foreign doth was burnt. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921-1922. Its value dropped from Rs 102 crores to Rs 57 erores.
  2. Many merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade. (Hi) People began discarding imported clothes and wearing Indian ones.
  3. The production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up. Use of khadi was popularised.

 

Q. 23. Explain the pro-active approach adopted by the National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) for preserving the natural environment and resources.

Answer. NTPC is taking the following measures in places where it is setting up power plants to preserve natural environment and resources:

  1. Optimum utilization of equipment by adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment.
  2. Minimizing waste generation by maximizing ash utilization.
  3.  Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance. .
  4. Reducing environmental pollution through ash pond management, ash water recycling system and liquid waste management.
  5. Ecological monitoring,, reviews and online data base management for all its power stations.

 

Q. 26. Why do we feel that democracy is a better form of government than any other form? Explain.

Answer. Democracy is a better form of government than any other form because:

  1. It is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation. Thus the necessary delay in implementation.
  2. Decisions are acceptable to people and are more effective.
  3. A citizen has the right and the means to examine the process of decision-making. There is transparency in a democracy.
  4.  Democratic government is a legitimate government, people’s own government.
  5. Ability to handle differences, decisions and conflicts is a positive point of democratic regimes.
  6. Democracy has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity.

CDS(I) Exam 2016 Maths Previous Year Paper

CDS(I) Exam 2016 

ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS

प्रश्न 1. यदि समीकरण lx2 + mx + m = 0 के मूल p:q के अनुपात में हैं, तो √(p/q) +  √(q/p) +√(m/l) किसके बराबर है? 

(a) 0 

(b) 1 

(c) 2 

(d) 3 

 

प्रश्न  2. यदि के मूल α और β हैं, तो αβ का मान क्या है? 

(a) -15 

(b) -5 

(c) 0 

(d) 5

 

प्रश्न  3. यदि p/x + q/y = m और q/x + p/y = n हैं, तो x/y किसके बराबर है? 

(a) (np + mq)/(mp + nq)

(b) (np + mq)/(mp – nq) 

(c) (np – mq)/(mp – nq) 

(d) (np – mq)/(mp + nq)

प्रश्न  4. यदि a2 – by – cz = 0, ax – b2+cz = 0 और ax + by – c2 = 0, हैं, तो का मान क्या होगा? 

(a) a+b+c 

(c) 1 

(b) 3 

(d) 0 

 

प्रश्न  5. यदि समीकरण x2 – px + q = 0 और x2 + qx – p = 0 का एक उभयनिष्ठ मूल है, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है? 

(a) p-q= 0 

(b) p+q-2 = 0 

(c) p+q-1 = 0 

(d) p-q- 1 = 0 

 

प्रश्न 6. यदि x = 23+2-3 है, तो 2x3 – 6x – 5 का मान किसके बराबर है? 

(a) 0 

(b) 1 

(c) 2 

(d) 3 

 

प्रश्न  7. दो व्यंजकों का जोड़ और अंतर क्रमशः 5x2 – x – 4 और x2 + 9x – 10 है। उन दो व्यंजकों का म०स० (HCF) क्या होगा? 

(a) (x + 1) 

(b) (x – 1) 

(c) (3x +7) 

(d) (2x – 3) 

प्रश्न  8. यदि (s-a) + (s – b) + (s – c) = s है, तो का मान क्या होगा? 

(a) 3 

(b) 1 

(c) 0 

(d) -1 

 

प्रश्न  9. यदि बहुपद x6 + px5 + qx4 – x2 – x – 3, (x4 – 1) से विभाज्य है, तो p2+q2 का मान क्या है? 

(a) 1 

(b) 9 

(c) 10 

(d) 13 

 

प्रश्न  10. मान लीजिए p और q शून्येतर पूर्णांक हैं। बहुपद A(x) = x2 + px +q पर विचार कीजिए। यह दिया गया है कि (x -m) और (x – km), A(x) के सरल गुणनखंड हैं, जहां m एक शून्येतर पूर्णांक है, k एक धनात्मक पूर्णांक और k ≥ 22 है। निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है? 

(a) (k + 1)2 p2 = kq 

(b) (k + 1)2q = kp2 

(c) k2q = (k + 1)p2 

(d) k2p2 = (k + 1)2q

 

प्रश्न  11. मान लीजिए m एक शून्येतर पूर्णांक और n एक धनात्मक पूर्णांक है। मान लीजिए R, बहुपद xn +mn को (x – m) से विभाजित करने पर प्राप्त शेषफल है। तब 

(a) R एक शून्येतर सम पूर्णांक है 

(b) R विषम है, यदि m विषम है 

(c) किसी पूर्णांक s के लिए R = S2 है, यदि n सम है 

(d) किसी पूर्णांक t के लिए R = t3 है, यदि 3, n को विभाजित करता है 

 

प्रश्न  12. यदि 4x2y = 128 और 33x32y – 9xy = 0 हैं, तो x+ y का मान किसके बराबर हो सकता है? 

(a) 7 

(b) 5 

(c) 3 

(d) 1 

 

प्रश्न  13. यदि ax2 – (a2 + 1)x + a के रैखिक गुणनखंड p और q हैं, तो p+q किसके बराबर है? 

(a) (x – 1)(a + 1) 

(b) (x + 1) (a + 1) 

(c) (x – 1)(a-1) 

(d) (x + 1)(a-1) 

 

प्रश्न  14. यदि है, तो bx2 – ax + b किसके बराबर है? (दिया गया है कि b ≠ 0.) 

(a) 0 

(b) 1 

(c) ab 

(d) 2ab

 

प्रश्न  15. यदि a3 = 117 + b3 और a = 3+ b हैं, तो a+b का मान क्या है? (दिया गया है कि a > 0 और b> 0.) 

(a) 7 

(b) 9 

(c) 11 

(d) 13 

 

प्रश्न  16. यदि ax2 + bx + c = 0 के मूलों का जोड़, उनके व्युत्क्रमों के वर्गों के जोड़ के बराबर है, तो निम्नलिखित संबंधों में से कौन-सा एक सही है? 

(a) ab2+ bc2 = 2a2c 

(b) ac2 + bc2 = 2b2a 

(c) ab2 + bc2 = ac 

(d) a2 + b2 + c2 = 1 

 

प्रश्न  17. व्यंजक , जहाँ n एक पूर्णांक है, के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. n के यथातथ्य दो मान हैं, जिनके लिए Sn = 861 है। 

2. Sn = S-(n+1) है और इस प्रकार किसी पूर्णांक m के लिए हमारे पास n के दो मान हैं, जिनके लिए Sn = m है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) न तो 1 और न ही 2  

 

प्रश्न  18. दो विभिन्न शून्येतर पूर्णांकों p और 4 के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. (p+q) के (p-q) से कम होने के लिए ऋणात्मक होना ही चाहिए। 

2. (p+q) के (p-q) से अधिक होने के लिए p और q दोनों धनात्मक होने ही चाहिए। 

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) न तो 1 और न ही 2 

 

प्रश्न  19. यदि a/b = b/c = c/a है, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 

1. (b3 + c3 + d3)/(a3 + b3 + c3) = d/a

2. (a2 + b2 + c2)/(b2 + c2 + d2) = a/d

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) न तो 1 और न ही 2 

 

प्रश्न  20. 710 – 510 किससे विभाज्य है? 

(a) 5 

(b) 7 

(c) 10 

(d) 11 

 

प्रश्न  21. मान लीजिए दो अंको की एक संख्या अपने अंकों के योगफल की k गुना है। यदि संख्या के अंकों को आपस में बदलने से बनी संख्या अपने अंको के योगफल की m गुना है, तो m का मान क्या है? 

(a) 9-k 

(b) 10-k 

(c) 11-k 

(d) k-1 

 

प्रश्न  22. एक आदमी ने 5 कि० मी०/घंटा की चाल से चलते हुए देखा कि विपरीत दिशा से आती हुई 225 मी० लंबी एक रेलगाड़ी उसे 9 सेकंड में पार करती है। रेलगाड़ी की चाल क्या है? (a) 75 कि० मी०/घंटा 

(b) 80 कि० मी०/घंटा 

(c) 85 कि० मी०/घंटा 

(d) 90 कि० मी०/घंटा 

 

प्रश्न  23. (sin 35°/ cos 55°)2 – (cos 55°/ sin 35° )2 + 2 sin 30° किसके बराबर है?

(a) -l 

(b) 0

(c) 1 

(d) 2 

 

प्रश्न  24. एक साइकिल चालक A से B तक 14 कि० मी० की दूरी बिना रुके एक निश्चित औसत चाल से तय करता है। यदि उसकी औसत चाल 1 कि० मी० प्रति घंटा कम होती है, तो वह उसी दूरी को पूरा करने के लिए 20 मिनट अधिक लेता है। उस साइकिल चालक की प्रारंभिक औसत चाल क्या है? 

(a) 5 कि० मी०/घंटा 

(b) 6 कि० मी०/घंटा 

(c) 7 कि० मी०/घंटा 

(d) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं

 

प्रश्न  25. यदि कोई धनराशि साधारण ब्याज की किसी निश्चित वार्षिक दर से 5 वर्ष में दो गुनी हो जाती है और साधारण ब्याज की किसी अन्य वार्षिक दर से 12 वर्ष में तीन गुनी हो जाती है, तो साधारण ब्याज की उन दोनों वार्षिक दरों में क्या अंतर है? 

(a) 2% 

(b) 3% 

(c) 33% 

(d) 43% 

 

प्रश्न  26. मान लीजिए ABC और A’B’C’ दो त्रिभुज हैं, जिनमें AB> A’B’, BC> BC’ और CA> CA’ हैं।  मान लीजिए D, E और F क्रमशः भुजाओं BC, CA और AB के मध्य-बिंदु हैं। मान लीजिए D’, E’ और F‘ क्रमशः भुजाओं BC’, CA’ और A’B’ के मध्य-बिंदु हैं। निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

कथन I : 

AD > A’D‘, BE > B‘E’ और CF > C’F’ हमेशा सत्य हैं।

कथन II : 

(AB2 + BC2 + CA2)/(AD2 + BE2 +CF2) = (A‘B’2+ B’C2+ C’A2 )/(A’D2+ B’E 2 + C’F 2 )

उपर्युक्त कथनों के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है? 

(a) कथन I और कथन II दोनों सत्य हैं तथा कथन II, कथन I की सही व्याख्या है 

(b) कथन I और कथन II दोनों सत्य हैं लेकिन कथन II, कथन I की सही व्याख्या नहीं है 

(c) कथन I सत्य है लेकिन कथन II असत्य है 

(d) कथन I असत्य है लेकिन कथन II सत्य है

 

प्रश्न  27. दो व्यक्तियों की वार्षिक आय 9 : 7 के अनुपात में हैं और उनके व्यय 4 : 3 के अनुपात में हैं। यदि उनमें से प्रत्येक व्यक्ति रुपये 2,000 प्रति वर्ष बचाता है, तो उनकी वार्षिक आय में क्या अंतर है? 

(a) रु. 4,000 

(b) रु. 4,500 

(c) रु. 5,000 

(d) रु. 5,500 

 

प्रश्न  28. मान लीजिए S पहले चौदह धन पूर्णांकों का एक समुच्चय है। युग्मों (a, b) की संभावित संख्या क्या है, जहाँ a, b ∊ S और a ≠ b इस प्रकार कि ab को 15 से विभाजित करने पर शेषफल 1 रहता है? 

(a) 3 

(b) 5 

(c) 6 

(d) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं 

 

प्रश्न  29. एक घड़ी 1 बजने पर एक बार बजती है, 2 बजने पर दो बार बजती है, 3 बजने पर तीन बार बजती है और इसी क्रम में बजती रहती है। यदि 5 बजे यह बजने में 8 सेकंड लेती है, तो 10 बजे उसे बजने में कितना समय लगता है? 

(a) 14 सेकंड

(b) 16 सेकंड 

(c) 18 सेकंड 

(d) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं 

 

प्रश्न  30. 2 इकाई त्रिज्या वाले एक वृत्त में व्यास AB, 2 इकाई लंबी जीवा को P पर अनुलंब प्रतिच्छेदित करता है। यदि AP > BP, तो AP किसके बराबर है? 

(a) (2 + √5) इकाई 

(b) (2 + √3) इकाई 

(c) (2 + √2) इकाई 

(d) 3 इकाई

 

प्रश्न  31. समीकरण x2 + px +q= 0 के एक मूल को दूसरे मूल का वर्ग होने के लिए p और q किस प्रतिबंध के अधीन होंगे? 

(a) 1 + q + q2 = 3pq 

(b) 1 + p + p2 = 3pq 

(c) p3 + q + q2 = 3pq 

(d) q3+ p + p2 = 3pq

 

प्रश्न  32. यदि संख्या N = 90 × 42 × 324 × 55, 3m से विभाज्य है, तो m का अधिकतम मान क्या है? उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं?

(a) 8 

(b) 7 

(c) 6 

(d) 5 

 

प्रश्न  33. एक मोटरसाइकिल को 25-50 कि० मी०/घंटा के परिसर में किसी चाल से चलाए जाने पर 20 मि. लि. पेट्रोल प्रति किलोमीटर की खपत होती है और किसी अन्य चाल से चलाए जाने पर 40 मि० लि. पेट्रोल प्रति किलोमीटर की खपत होती है। यदि मोटरसाइकिल पहले 10 कि० मी० में 40 कि० मी०/घंटा की चाल से, अगले 30 कि० मी० में 60 कि. मी./घंटा की चाल से और अंतिम 10 कि० मी० में 30 कि० मी०/ घंटा की चाल से चलाई जाती है, तो मोटरसाइकिल द्वारा 50 कि० मी० की दूरी तय करने में कितने पेट्रोल की खपत होगी? 

(a) 1 लि० 

(b) 1.2 लि० 

(c) 1.4 लि० 

(d) 1.6 लि.

 

प्रश्न  34. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. प्रत्येक धन पूर्णांक एक वास्तविक संख्या होती है। 

2. प्रत्येक वास्तविक संख्या एक परिमेय संख्या होती है।

3. प्रत्येक पूर्णांक एक वास्तविक संख्या होती है। 

4. प्रत्येक परिमेय संख्या एक वास्तविक संख्या होती 

(a) 1, 2 और 3 

(b) 1, 3 और 4 

(c) केवल 2 और 3 

(d) केवल 3 और 4 

 

प्रश्न  35. k के किस मान के लिए (x + 1),  x3 + kx2 – x + 2 का एक गुणनखंड है? 

(a) 4 

(b) 3 

(c) 1 

(d) -2

 

प्रश्न  36. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. एक धनात्मक वास्तविक संख्या m का अस्तित्व इस प्रकार है कि cos x = 2m+1 है। 

2. mn ≥ m +n, जहाँ सभी m, n धन पूर्णांकों के समुच्चय के सदस्य हैं। 

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) न तो 1 और न ही 2 

 

प्रश्न  37. असमिका 1 + 1/x – 1/x2 ≥ 0 का हल क्या है? (दिया गया है कि x ≠ 0.) 

(a) x > 0 

(b) x < 0 

(c) (-1-√5)/2 ≤  x ≤ (-1+√5/2)

(d) x ≤ (-1-√5)/2 or x ≥ (-1+√5/2)

 

प्रश्न  38. बिंदुओं P(5, – 1), Q(3, – 2) और R(1, 1) में से कौन-से बिंदु असमिका निकाय x + y ≤ 4 और x – y ≥ 2 के हल में मौजूद हैं? 

(a) केवल Q और R 

(b) केवल P और R 

(c) केवल P और 0 

(d) P, Q और R 

 

प्रश्न  39. एक यात्री रेलगाड़ी 120 कि० मी० यात्रा के लिए 1 घंटा कम समय लेती है, यदि इसकी चाल सामान्य चाल से 10 कि० मी०/घंटा बढ़ाई जाती है। इसकी सामान्य चाल क्या है? 

(a) 50 कि० मी० /घंटा 

(b) 40 कि० मी०/घंटा 

(c) 35 कि० मी०/घंटा 

(d) 30 कि० मी०/घंटा 

 

प्रश्न  40. k का वह मान, जिसके लिए समीकरण निकाय 3x – ky-20 = 0 और 6x – 10y+40 = 0 का कोई हल नहीं है, क्या है? 

(a) 10 

(b) 6 

(c) 5 

(d) 3 

 

प्रश्न  41. धन पूर्णांकों a, b और c के लिए निम्नलिखित पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. LCM (ab, ac) = a LCM (b, c) 

2. HCF (ab, ac) = a HCF (b, c) 

3. HCF (a, b) < LCM (a, b) 

4. HCF (a, b), LCM (a, b) को विभाजित करता है। 

उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से सही हैं? 

(a) केवल 1 और 2 

(b) केवल 3 और 4 

(c) केवल 1, 2 और 4 

(d) 1, 2, 3 और 4

 

प्रश्न  42. तीन भाई हैं। किसी समय पर उनमें से दो की आयु का योगफल 4 वर्ष, 6 वर्ष और 8 वर्ष है। सबसे बड़े और सबसे छोटे की आयु का अंतर क्या है? 

(a) 3 वर्ष 

(b) 4 वर्ष 

(c) 5 वर्ष 

(d) 6 वर्ष 

 

प्रश्न  43. एक व्यक्ति सायं 4 बजे से सायं 5 बजे के बीच बाजार जाता है। जब वह वापस आता है, तब वह पाता है कि घड़ी में घंटे की सुई और मिनट की सुई की स्थिति को आपस में बदल गई हैं। वह कितने समय (लगभग) के लिए घर से बाहर था? 

(a) 55.38 मिनट 

(b) 55.48 मिनट 

(c) 55.57 मिनट 

(d) 55.67 मिनट 

 

प्रश्न  44. 100 व्यक्तियों का एक समूह है। उनमें से 70 व्यक्ति हिन्दी बोल सकते हैं, 60 व्यक्ति अंग्रेजी बोल सकते हैं और 30 व्यक्ति फ्रेंच बोल सकते हैं। इसके साथ ही, उनमें से 30 व्यक्ति हिन्दी और अंग्रेजी दोनों बोल सकते हैं तथा 20 व्यक्ति हिन्दी और फ्रेंच दोनों बोल सकते हैं। यदि x उन व्यक्तियों की संख्या है जो अंग्रेजी और फ्रेंच दोनों बोल सकते हैं, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है? (मान लीजिए कि प्रत्येक व्यक्ति तीनों भाषाओं में से कम-से-कम एक भाषा बोल सकता है।) 

(a) 9 <  x  < 30 

(b) 0< x <8 

(c) x = 9

(d) x = 8 

 

प्रश्न  45. एक कपड़े का व्यापारी बुनकर से कपड़ा खरीदता है और सामान्य मीटर मापनी से 10 से० मी० लंबी मापनी का प्रयोग कर बुनकर को धोखा देता है। वह अपने ग्राहकों को लागत मूल्य पर कपड़ा बेचने का दावा करता है, लेकिन बेचते समय जिस मापनी का प्रयोग करता है वह सामान्य मीटर मापनी से 10 से० मी० छोटी है। उसका लाभ क्या है? 

(a) 20% 

(b) 21% 

(c) 22²/₉%

(d) 23⅓ % 

 

प्रश्न  46. दो नल A और B किसी टंकी को क्रमशः 60 मिनट और 75 मिनट में भर सकते हैं। एक निकास C भी है। यदि A, B और C एकसाथ खोल दिए जाएँ, तो टंकी 50 मिनट में भरती है। भरी टंकी को C द्वारा खाली करने में कितना समय लगेगा? 

(a) 100 मिनट 

(b) 110 मिनट 

(c) 120 मिनट 

(d) 125 मिनट 

 

प्रश्न  47. 1000 मी० लंबी एक दौड़ में A, B को 100 मी० या 10 सेकंड से हराता है। यदि वे एक ही स्थल से 1000 मी० की दौड़ एकसाथ आरंभ करते हैं और यदि B दौड़ की लंबाई के आधे से 50 मी० कम तक दौड़ने के पश्चात् घायल हो जाता है, जिसके कारण उसकी चाल आधी हो जाती है, तो A, B को कितने समय से हराएगा? 

(a) 65 सेकंड 

(b) 60 सेकंड 

(c) 50 सेकंड 

(d) 45 सेकंड  

 

प्रश्न  48. एक व्यक्ति के वेतन में मूल वेतन की 10% वृद्धि कर दी गई। लेकिन वेतन वृद्धि के बाद भी उसे वेतन की उतनी ही राशि प्राप्त हुई। उसे अपने वेतन की कितनी प्रतिशत राशि प्राप्त नहीं हुई? 

(a) 11% 

(b) 10% 

(c) (100/11)%

(d) (90/11)% 

 

प्रश्न  49. एक ट्रक वृत्तीय पथ पर चलते हुए केंद्र पर 36° अनुरेखित करने पर 100 मी० की दूरी तय करता है। वृत्त की त्रिज्या किसके बराबर है?

(a) 100/π  मी० 

(b) 250/π  मी० 

(c)500/π  मी० 

(d) 600π  मी० 

 

प्रश्न  50. दो खंभे एक सड़क के दोनों किनारों पर P और पर इस प्रकार लगाए जाते हैं कि P और Q को मिलाने वाली रेखा सड़क की लंबाई पर लंब होती है। एक व्यक्ति सड़क के समांतर P से x मीटर दूर चलता है और एक अन्य खम्भा R पर लगाता है। उसके बाद वह व्यक्ति उसी दिशा में x मीटर बढ़कर मुड़ जाता है और सड़क के अनुलंब y मीटर की दूरी तय करता है; जहाँ वह पाता है कि वह स्वयं, Q और R एक ही रेखा पर हैं। P और Q के बीच की दूरी (अर्थात् सड़क की चौड़ाई) मीटर में क्या है? 

(a)  x 

(b) x/2

(c)  Y

(d) 2y 

 

प्रश्न  51. मान लीजिए एक वृत्त की जीवाएँ AB और CD वृत्त के अंदर बिंदु P पर प्रतिच्छेद करती हैं। दो समकोण त्रिभुज A’P’B’ और C’Q’D’ नीचे दिए चित्रों के अनुसार इस प्रकार बनती हैं कि A’P’ = AP, B’P’ = BP, C’Q’ = CP, D’O’ = DP BTT LA‘P‘B’ = 90° = ZC’Q’D’ हैं : 

निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-से सही नहीं हैं?

1. A’P’B’ और CQ’D’ समरूप त्रिभुज हैंआवश्यक नहीं कि सर्वांगसम हों। 

2. A’P’B’ और C’Q’D’ सर्वांगसम त्रिभुज हैं। 

3. A’P’B‘ और CQ’D’ समान क्षेत्रफल के . त्रिभुज हैं। 

4. A’P’B‘ और COD’ समान परिमाप के त्रिभुज 

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। 

(a) केवल 2 और 3 

(b) केवल 1 और 3 

(c) केवल 1, 2 और 4 

(d) 1, 2, 3 और 4 

 

प्रश्न  52. मान लीजिए कि ABC एक त्रिभुज है, जिसमें AB की एक इकाई है। D और E क्रमशः AB और AC पर इस प्रकार स्थित बिंदुएँ हैं कि BC और DE समांतर हैं। यदि त्रिभुज ABC का क्षेत्रफल, त्रिभुज ADE के क्षेत्रफल का दो गुना है, तो AD की लंबाई क्या है? 

(a) 1 इकाई

(b) ⅓  इकाई

(c) 1/√2 इकाई

(d) 1/√3 इकाई

 

प्रश्न  53. एक आयत की भुजाओं के मध्य-बिंदुओं को एक उपयुक्त क्रम में जोड़कर एक समचतुर्भुज बनाया जाता है। यदि समचतुर्भुज का क्षेत्रफल 2 वर्ग इकाई है, तो आयत का क्षेत्रफल क्या है?

(a) 2√2 वर्ग इकाई 

(b) 4 वर्ग इकाई 

(c) 4√2 वर्ग इकाई 

(d) 8 वर्ग इकाई 

 

प्रश्न  54. यदि एक सम बहुभुज का प्रत्येक अंतःकोण 140° है, तो बहुभुज के शीर्षों की संख्या किसके बराबर है? 

(a) 10

(b) 9

(c) 8

(d) 7

 

प्रश्न  55. मान लीजिए कि त्रिभुज ABC और त्रिभुज DEF इस ∠ABC = ∠DEF, और ∠ACB = ∠DFE और ∠BAC = ∠EDF हैं। मान लीजिए L, BC का मध्य-बिंदु है और M, EF का मध्य-बिंदु है। निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

कथन I : त्रिभुज ABL और त्रिभुज DEM समरूप हैं। 

कथन II : त्रिभुज ALC, त्रिभुज DMF के सर्वांगसम है, तब भी, जब AC ≠ DF है। 

उपर्युक्त कथनों के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है? 

(a) कथन I और कथन II दोनों सत्य हैं कथन II, कथन I की सही व्याख्या है 

(b) कथन I और कथन II दोनों सत्य हैं लेकिन कथन II, कथन I की सही व्याख्या नहीं है 

(c) कथन I सत्य है लेकिन कथन II असत्य है 

(d) कथन I असत्य है लेकिन कथन II सत्य है 

 

प्रश्न  56. 7/11 मीटर व्यास के एक पहिए द्वारा 4 कि० मी० की दूरी तय करने में लगाए गए चक्करों की संख्या क्या होगी? 

(a)  500

(b) 1000

(c)  1700

(d) 2000

 

प्रश्न  57. किसी समद्विबाहु त्रिभुज का आधार 300 इकाई है। इसकी समान भुजाओं में से प्रत्येक की लंबाई 170 इकाई है। त्रिभुज का क्षेत्रफल क्या है? 

(a) 9600 वर्ग इकाई 

(b) 10000 वर्ग इकाई 

(c) 12000 वर्ग इकाई 

(d) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं 

 

प्रश्न  58. चार समान चक्रिकाओं को इस प्रकार रखा जाता है कि प्रत्येक चक्रिका दो अन्य चक्रिकाओं को स्पर्श करती है। यदि उनके द्वारा परिबद्ध रिक्त स्थान का क्षेत्रफल 150/847 वर्ग से० मी० है, तो प्रत्येक चक्रिका की त्रिज्या किसके बराबर है? 

(a) 7/6 से० मी० 

(b) 5/6 से० मी० 

(c) 1/2 से० मी० 

(d) 5/11 से० मी०

 

प्रश्न  59. ABC और DEF समरूप त्रिभुज हैं। यदि भुजा AB और भुजा DE का अनुपात (√2 + 1) : √3 है, तो त्रिभुज ABC के क्षेत्रफल का त्रिभुज DEF के क्षेत्रफल से क्या अनुपात है?

 (a) (3-2√2): 3 

(b) (9-6√2): 2 

(c) 1:(9-6√2)

 (d) (3+2√2):2 

 

प्रश्न  60. 3 इकाई की त्रिज्या के एक वृत्त के बिंदु P पर एक बाह्य बिंदु ० से एक स्पर्श-रेखा इस प्रकार खींची जाती है कि OP = 4 इकाई है। यदि वृत्त का केंद्र C है, तो कोण COP का sine क्या है? 

(a) ⅘  

(b) ¾  

(c) ⅗

 (d) ½  

 

प्रश्न  61. p और q भुजाओं वाले एक समकोण त्रिभुज में एक अंतःवर्ग खींचा जाता है। त्रिभुज का समकोण, वर्ग का समकोण भी है। वर्ग का विकर्ण किसके बराबर है? 

(a) pq/(p+2q)

(b) pq/ (2p+q)

(c) √2pq/(p+q) 

(d) 2pa /(p+q) 

 

प्रश्न  62. यदि x/a – y/b tanθ = 1 और x/a tanθ + y/b = 1 हैं, तो x2/a2 – y2/b2  का मान क्या है? 

(a) 2sec2θ 

(b) sec2θ 

(c) cos2θ 

(d) 2cos2θ 

 

प्रश्न  63. निम्नलिखित पर विचार कीजिए : 

उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सी सर्वसमिका/सर्वसमिकाएँ है/हैं? 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d)  न तो 1 और न ही 2 

 

प्रश्न  64. यदि p = cotθ + tanθ  और q = secθ – cosθ हैं, तो (p2q)^⅔ – (q2p)^⅔ किसके बराबर है? 

(a) 0 

(b) 1 

(c) 2

(d) 3 

 

प्रश्न  65. दो प्रेक्षक एक मीनार (x मीटर ऊँची) के ठीक उत्तर में एक-दूसरे से मीटर की दूरी पर उपस्थित हैं। उन दोनों द्वारा प्रेषित मीनार के उन्नयन कोण क्रमशः 30° और 45° हैं। तो x/y किसके बराबर है? 

(a)  (√2 – 1)/ 2

(b)  (√3 – 1)/ 2

(c)  (√3 + 1)/ 2

(d) 1

 

प्रश्न  66. यदि (cos2θ – 3cosθ + 2)/ sin2θ = 1 जबकि 0 < θ < π/2 है, तो निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

 1. उपर्युक्त समीकरण को संतुष्ट करने वाले, θ के दो मान हैं।

 2. θ = 60° उपर्युक्त समीकरण से संतुष्ट है।

 नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।

 (a) केवल 1

 (b) केवल 2 

 (c) 1 और 2 दोनों

 (d) न तो 1 और न ही 2

 

प्रश्न  67. एक त्रिभुज ABC में यदि A – B = π/2 है, तो C+2B किसके बराबर है? 

(a) 2π/3

(b) 3π/4

(c)  π 

(d) π/2

 

प्रश्न  68. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा, समीकरण 3-tan2θ = α(1-3 tan2θ) के बारे में सही है? (दिया गया है कि एक वास्तविक संख्या है।) 

(a) α ∊ [⅓ + 1] 

(b) α ∊ [-∞, ⅓]∪[3, ∞] 

(c) α ∊ [∞, ⅓]∪[3, ∞] 

(d) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं 

 

प्रश्न  69. एक समतल में पाँच रेखाएँ हैं, जिनमें से कोई भी दो समांतर नहीं हैं। उन बिंदुओं की, जिन पर ये प्रतिच्छेद कर सकती हैं, अधिकतम संख्या क्या है? 

(a) 4 

(b) 6 

(c) 10

(d) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं 

 

प्रश्न  70. केंद्र 0 और 7 से० मी० त्रिज्या के एक वृत्त पर विचार कीजिए। मान लीजिए QR, 2 से० मी० लम्बी एक जीवा है और मान लीजिए P, QR का मध्य-बिंदु है। मान लीजिए CD इसी वृत्त की, P से गुजरने वाली, एक अन्य जीवा इस प्रकार है कि ∠CPQ न्यूनकोण है। यदि M, CD का मध्य-बिंदु है और MP = √24 से० मी० है, तो निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं? 

1. ∠QPD = 1350 

2. यदि CP = m से० मी० और PD = n से० मी० __ हैं, तो m और n द्विघात समीकरण x2– 10x + 1 = 0 के मूल हैं। 

3. त्रिभुज OPR के क्षेत्रफल का त्रिभुज OMP के क्षेत्रफल से अनुपात 1: 2√2 है। 

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। 

(a) केवल 1 और 2 

(b) केवल 2 और 3

(c) केवल 1 और 3 

(d) 1, 2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न  71. मान लीजिए ABC एक त्रिभुज है, जिसमें AB = AC है। मान लीजिए बिंदुओं X का, जो कि त्रिभुज के अंदर या त्रिभुज पर इस प्रकार हैं कि BX = CX है, बिंदुपथ L है। निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं? 

1. L, A से गुजरने वाली एक सरल रेखा है और त्रिभुज ABC का अंतः केंद्र L पर है।

2. L, A से गुजरने वाली एक सरल रेखा है और त्रिभुज ABC का लम्ब केंद्र L पर एक बिंदु है। 

3. L, A से गुजरने वाली एक सरल रेखा है और त्रिभुज ABC का केन्द्रक L पर एक बिंदु है।

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। 

(a) केवल 1 और 2 

(b) केवल 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 1 और 3 

(d) 1, 2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न  72. केंद्र C वाले एक वृत्त पर विचार कीजिए। मान लीजिए OP, OQ क्रमशः वृत्त के बाह्य बिंदु 0 से वृत्त पर खींची गई स्पर्श-रेखाएँ हैं। मान लीजिए R, OP पर एक बिंदु और S, OQ पर एक बिंदु इस प्रकार है कि OR × SQ = OS × RP है। निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 

1. यदि X, केंद्र 0 और त्रिज्या OR का वृत्त है तथा Y, केंद्र 0 और त्रिज्या OS का वृत्त है, तो X = Y है।

2. ∠POC + ∠QCO = 90° नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) न तो 1 और न ही 2

 

प्रश्न  73. यदि m और n भिन्न धन पूर्णांक हैं, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से पूर्णांक है/हैं?

1. m/n + п/т 

2. mn(m/n + п/т)(m2 +n2)-1 

3. mn / (m2 + n2)  

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। 

(a) 1 और 2 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 2 और 3 

(d) केवल 3 

 

प्रश्न  74. सभा कक्ष के बाहर एक व्यक्ति ने मधुकर को बताया कि प्रत्येक बैठक 13/4 घंटों के बाद होती है। पिछली बैठक ठीक 45 मिनट पहले ही समाप्त हुई है और अगली बैठक अपराह्न 2 बजे होगी। मधुकर को यह सूचना किस समय प्राप्त हुई? 

(a) 10:20 पूर्वाह्न

(b) 11:30 पूर्वाह्न 

(c) 11:40 पूर्वाह्न

(d) 11:50 पूर्वाह्न 

 

प्रश्न  75. एक घर का किसी विशेष महीने का व्यय रु. 20,000 है, जिसमें से शिक्षा पर रु. 8,000, खाने पर रु. 5,900, खरीदारी पर रु. 2,800 और शेष व्यक्तिगत देखभाल पर व्यय हुए हैं। कुल व्यय का कितना प्रतिशत व्यय व्यक्तिगत देखभाल पर हुआ 

(a) 12% 

(b) 16.5% 

(c) 18% 

(d) 21.8%

 

प्रश्न  76. यदि 

जहाँ x, y और 2 धन पूर्णांक हैं, तो z किसके बराबर हैं?

(a) 1

(b) 2 

(c) 3 

(d) 4  

 

प्रश्न  77. एक वृत्तीय पथ दो संकेंद्री वृत्तीय वलयों से इस प्रकार बना है कि जब छोटे वलय को बड़े वलय की परिधि पर घुमाया जाता है, तो वह पूरे तीन परिक्रमण करता है। यदि मार्ग का क्षेत्रफल, छोटे वलय के क्षेत्रफल का n गुना है, तो n किसके बराबर है? 

(a) 4 

(b) 6 

(c) 8 

(d) 10 

 

प्रश्न  78. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. यदि n ≥ 3 और m ≥ 3 भिन्न धनात्मक पूर्णांक हैं, तो m भुजाओं वाले एक सम बहुभुज के बहिष्कोणो का योगफल, n भुजाओं वाले एक सम बहुभुज के बहिष्कोणों के योगफल से भिन्न है? 

2. मान लीजिए m, n पूर्णांक इस प्रकार हैं कि m> n> 3 तो m भुजाओं वाले एक सम बहुभुज के अन्तः कोणों का योगफल, n भुजाओं वाले एक सम बहुभुज के अन्तः कोणों के योगफल से अधिक है और उनका योगफल (m +n)π/2 

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) न तो 1 और न ही 2

 

प्रश्न  79. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. एक सम बहुभुज का, जिसका बहिष्कोण 70° है, अस्तित्व है। 

2. मान लीजिए n ≥25 है। तो किसी भी n भुजाओं वाले सम बहुभुज का बहिष्कोण न्यून है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) न तो 1 और न ही 2 

 

प्रश्न  80. किसी त्रिभुज PQR में बिंदु X, PQ पर और बिंदु Y, PR पर इस प्रकार हैं कि XP = 1.5 इकाई, XQ= 6 इकाई, PY = 2 इकाई तथा YR = 8 इकाई हैं। निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से सही हैं? 

1. QR = 5XY 

2. QR, XY के समांतर है। 

3. त्रिभुज PYX, त्रिभुज PRQ के समरूप है। 

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। 

(a) केवल 1 और 2 

(b) केवल 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 1 और 3 

(d) 1, 2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न  81. यदि एक तिर्यक रेखा चार समांतर सरल रेखाओं का प्रतिच्छेद करती है, तो इस प्रकार बने कोणों के भिन्न मानों की संख्या क्या होगी? 

(a) 2 

(b) 4 

(c) 8 

(d) 16

 

प्रश्न  82. एक व्यक्ति पूर्व की ओर 7 कि० मी० चलता है, फिर दायें मुड़ता है तथा 3 कि० मी० चलता है, और फिर दाएँ मुड़ता है एवं 13 कि० मी० चलता है। उस व्यक्ति के प्रारम्भिक बिंदु से उसकी वर्तमान स्थिति की न्यूनतम दूरी कितनी है? 

(a) 6 कि० मी० 

(b) 3√5 कि० मी० 

(c) 7 कि० मी० 

(d) 4√5 कि० मी०

 

प्रश्न  83. ABC एक त्रिभुज है, जिसमें D, BC का मध्य-बिंदु है और E, AD का मध्य-बिंदु है। निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 

1. त्रिभुज ABC का क्षेत्रफल, त्रिभुज BED के क्षेत्रफल का चार गुना है। 

2. त्रिभुज ADC का क्षेत्रफल, त्रिभुज BED के क्षेत्रफल का दो गुना है। 

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) न तो 1 और न ही 2 

 

प्रश्न  84. जैसा कि ऊपर अंकित चित्र में दर्शाया गया है, 3 मी० त्रिज्या के एक वृत्त को 1 मी० और 2 मी० त्रिज्या के अर्धवृत्त से तीन क्षेत्रों में विभाजित किया गया है। तीनों क्षेत्रों A, B और C का अनुपात क्या होगा?

(a) 2: 3:2 

(b) 1: 1: 1 

(c) 4: 3:4 

(d) 1:2 : 1 

 

प्रश्न  85. यदि √(x/y) = 10/3 – √(y/x) और x – y = 8 हैं, तो xy का मान किसके बराबर है? 

(a) 36 

(b) 24 

(c) 16 

(d)  9 

 

प्रश्न  86. ABC एक त्रिभुज है, जिसमें C समकोण है, जैसा कि ऊपर अंकित चित्र में दर्शाया गया है। 

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

(a) AQ2 + AB2 = BP2 + PQ2

(b) AQ2 + PQ2 = AB2 + BP2 

(c) AQ2 + BP2 = AB2 + PQ2

(d) AQ2 + AP2 = BK2 + KQ2 

 

प्रश्न  87. ऊपर अंकित चित्र में AD = CD = BC है। 

∠CDB का मान क्या है? 

(a) 32° 

(b) 64° 

(c) 78° 

(d) अपर्याप्त आँकड़ों के कारण निर्धारित नहीं किया जा सकता 

 

प्रश्न  88. ABC एक समबाहु त्रिभुज है और बिंदुएँ X, Y एवं z क्रमशः BC, CA तथा AB पर इस प्रकार हैं कि BX = CY = AZ है। निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 

1. XYZ एक समबाहु त्रिभुज है। 

2. त्रिभुज XYZ, त्रिभुज ABC के समरूप है। 

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 AR 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) न तो 1 और न ही 2

 

प्रश्न  89. 

ऊपर अंकित चित्र में p और q समांतर रेखाएँ हैं। कोण x, y और 2 के मान क्या हैं? 

(a) x = 80°, y= 40°, 2 = 100° 

(b) x = 80°, y= 50°, Z = 105° 

(c) x = 70°, y= 40°, 2 = 110° 

(d) x = 60°, y= 20°, 2 = 120° 

 

प्रश्न  90.

वे रैखिक असमिकाएँ, जिनके लिए हल समुच्चय छायित क्षेत्र द्वारा ऊपर अंकित चित्र में दर्शाया गया है, हैं 

(a) 2x+6y ≤ 21, 5x – 2y ≤ 10 

(b) 2x+6y ≤ 21, 5x – 2y ≥ 10 

(c) 2x + 6y ≥ 21, 5x – 2y ≤ 10 

(d) 2x + 6y ≥ 21, 5x – 2y ≥ 10

 

प्रश्न  91. एक चुनाव का, जिसमें छह दलों ने भाग लिया, परिणाम वृत्तारेख (पाई चार्ट) द्वारा दर्शाया गया। इस वृत्तारेख में दल A का कोण 135° था। यदि इसे 21960 मत मिले, तो कुल कितने वैध मत डाले गए थे? 

(a) 51240 

(b) 58560 

(c) 78320 

(d) 87840 

 

प्रश्न  92. 5 प्रेक्षणों के माध्य और माध्यिका क्रमशः 9 और 8 हैं। यदि प्रत्येक प्रेक्षण से 1 घटाया जाए, तो नया माध्य और नई माध्यिका होंगे, क्रमशः 

(a) 8 और 7 

(b) 9 और 7 

(c) 8 और 9 

(d) अपर्याप्त आँकड़ों के कारण निर्धारित नहीं किए जा सकते 

 

प्रश्न  93. 40 बच्चों की आयु का बंटन निम्नलिखित है :

Age (in years) 5-6 6-7 7-8 8-9 9-10 10-11
No. of Children 4 7 9 12 6 2

उपर्युक्त बारंबारता बंटन के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. आयु बंटन की माध्यिका 7 वर्ष है। 

2. 70% बच्चे 6–9 वर्ष के आयु वर्ग में हैं। 

3. बच्चों की बहुलक आयु 8 वर्ष है। 

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं? 

(a) केवल 1 और 2 

(b) केवल 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 1 और 3 

(d) 1, 2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न  94. मान लीजिए 0 < i <10 के लिए xi = λi  है, जहाँ λ > 1 है। निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है? 

(a) AM < माध्यिका 

(b) GM < माध्यिका 

(c) GM = माध्यिका 

(d) AM = माध्यिका 

 

प्रश्न  95. मान लीजिए i = 1, 2, 3, …, 11 के लिए xi = 1/i है। निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही नहीं है? 

(a) AM > 1/6 

(b) GM > 1/6 

(c) HM > 1/6 

(d) माध्यिका = HM

 

प्रश्न  96. ⅕ log10 3125 – 4 log10 2 +log10 32 का मान क्या है? 

(a) 0 

(b) 1 

(c) 2 

(d) 3

 

प्रश्न  97. यदि tanθ + cotθ = 4/√3 है, जहाँ 0 < θ < π/2, तो sinθ + cosθ किसके बराबर है? 

(a) 1 

(b) (√3-1) /2

(c) (√3+1) /2 

(d) √2 

 

प्रश्न  98. व्यंजक [(243 +647)2 + (243 – 647)2 ] / [243 × 243 + 647 × 647] का मान किसके बराबर है? 

(a) 0 

(b) 1 

(c) 2 

(d) 3 

 

प्रश्न  99. यदि a और b ऋणात्मक वास्तविक संख्याएँ हैं और c एक धनात्मक वास्तविक संख्या है, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 

1. a – b < a – c 

2. यदि a < b, तो a/c  < b/c 

3. 1/b  < 1/c 

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। 

(a) 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) केवल 3 

(d) 2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न  100. 

जैसा कि ऊपर अंकित चित्र में दर्शाया गया है, AD एक वृत्त का व्यास है, वृत्त का क्षेत्रफल 707 वर्ग मी० है और AB = BC = CD है। वृत्त के अंदर सभी वक्र अर्धवृत्त हैं, जिनके व्यास AD पर हैं। रु. 63 प्रति वर्ग मी० की दर से छायित क्षेत्र को सपाट करने की लागत क्या है? 

(a) रु. 29,700 

(b) रु. 22,400 

(c) रु. 14,847 

(d) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं

CDS(I) Exam 2016 Maths Previous Year Paper

CDS(I) Exam 2016 

ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS 

Q 1. If the roots of the equation lx2 + mx + m = 0 are in the ratio p:q, then

√(p/q) +  √(q/p) +√(m/l)  is equal to 

(a) 0 

(b) 1 

(c) 2 

(d) 3 

 

Q 2. If has α and β as its roots, then the value of αβ is 

(a) -15 

(b) -5 

(c) O 

(d) 5 

 

Q 3. If p/x + q/y = m and q/x + p/y = n, then what is х/у equal to? 

(a) (np + mq)/(mp + nq)

(b) (np + mq)/(mp – nq) 

(c) (np – mq)/(mp – nq) 

(d) (np – mq)/(mp + nq)

 

Q 4. If a2 – by – cz = 0, ax – b2+cz = 0 and ax + by – c2 = 0, then the value of 

will be 

(a) a+b+c 

(b) 3 

(c) 1 

(d) 0 

 

Q 5. If the equations x2 – px + q = 0 and x2 + qx – p = 0 have a common root, then which one of the following is correct? 

(a) p-q=0 

(b) p+q-2 = 0 

(c) p+q-1=0 

(d) p-q-1 = 0 

 

Q 6. If x = 2^(⅓)+2^(-⅓), then the value of 2x3 – 6x – 5 is equal to 

(a) 0

(b) 1 

(c) 2 

(d) 3 

 

Q 7. The sum and difference of two expressions are 5x2 – x – 4 and x2 + 9x – 10 respectively. The HCF of the two expressions will be 

(a) (x + 1) 

(b) (x – 1) 

(c) (3x + 7) 

(d) (2x – 3) 

Q 8. If (s-a) +(s-b)+(s -c) = s, then the value of will be 

(a) 3 

(b) 1 

(c) 0 

(d) -1 

 

Q 9. If the polynomial x6 + px5 + qx4 – x2 – x – 3 is divisible by (x4 – 1), then the value of p2 +q2 is 

(a) 1 

(b) 9 

(c) 10 

(d) 13 

 

Q 10. Let p and q be non-zero integers. Consider the polynomial 

A(x) = x2 + px +q 

It is given that (x – m) and (x – km) are simple factors of A(x), where m is a non-zero integer and k is a positive integer, k > 2. Which one of the following is correct? 

(a) (k + 1)2 p2 = kq 

(b) (k + 1)2q = kp2 

(c) k2q = (k + 1)p2 

(d) k2p2 = (k + 1)2q 

 

Q 11. Let m be a non-zero integer and n be a positive integer. Let R be the remainder obtained on dividing the polynomial xn + mn by (x-m). Then 

(a) Ris a non-zero even integer 

(b) Ris odd, if m is odd 

(c) R= s2 for some integer s, if n is even 

(d) R = t3 for some integer t, if 3 divides n 

 

Q 12. If 4x2y = 128 and 33x32y – 9xy = 0, then the value of x + y can be equal to 

(a) 7 

(b) 5 

(c) 3 

(d) 1 

 

Q 13. If the linear factors of ax2 – (a2 +1)x+ a are p and q, then p+q is equal to 

(a) (x – 1)(a + 1) 

(b) (x + 1)(a + 1) 

(c) (x – 1)(a – 1) 

(d) (x + 1)(a – 1)

 

Q 14. If then bx2 – ax + b is equal to (given that b ≠ 0) 

(a) o 

(b) 1 

(c) ab 

(d) 2ab

 

Q 15. If a3 = 117 + b3 and a = 3+b, then the value of a+b is (given that a>0 and b>0) (a) 7 

(b) 9 

(c) 11 

(d) 13 

 

Q 16. If the sum of the roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals, then which one of the following relations is correct? 

(a) ab2+ bc2 = 2a2c 

(b) ac2 + bc2 = 2b2a 

(c) ab2 + bc2 = ac 

(d) a2 + b2 + c2 = 1 

 

Q 17. Consider the following statements in respect of the expression 

where n is an integer : 

1. There are exactly two values of n for which Sn = 861. 

2. Sn = S-(n+1) and hence for any integer m, we have two values of n for which Sn = m. 

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 18. Consider the following statements in respect of two different non-zero integers p and q: 

1. For (p+q) to be less than (p-q), q must be negative. 

2. For (p+q) to be greater than (P-9), both p and q must be positive. 

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

 

Q 19. If a/b = b/c = c/a then which of the following is/are correct?

1. (b3 + c3 + d3)/(a3 + b3 + c3) = d/a

2. (a2 + b2 + c2)/(b2 + c2 + d2) = a/d

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) l only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 20. 710 – 510 is divisible by 

(a) 5 

(b) 7 

(c) 10 

(d) 11

 

Q 21. Let a two-digit number be k times the sum of its digits. If the number formed by interchanging the digits is m times the sum of the digits, then the value of m is 

(a) 9 – k 

(b) 10 – k 

(c) 11 – k 

(d) k – 1

 

Q 22. A man walking at 5 km/hour noticed that a 225 m long train coming in the opposite direction crossed him in 9 seconds. The speed of the train is 

(a) 75 km/hour 

(b) 80 km/hour 

(c) 85 km/hour 

(d) 90 km/hour 

 

Q 23. (sin 35°/ cos 55°)2 – (cos 55°/ sin 35° )2 + 2 sin 30° is equal  to

(a) -l 

(b) 0

(c) 1 

(d) 2

 

Q 24. A cyclist moves non-stop from A to B, a distance of 14 km, at a certain average speed. If his average speed reduces by 1 km per hour, he takes 20 minutes more to cover the same distance. The original average speed of the cyclist is 

(a) 5 km/hour 

(b) 6 km/hour 

(c) 7 km/hour 

(d) None of the above

 

Q 25. If a sum of money at a certain rate of simple interest per year doubles in 5 years and at a different rate of simple interest per year becomes three times in 12 years, then the difference in the two rates of simple interest per year is 

(a) 2% 

(b) 3% 

(c) 31% 

(d) 44% 

 

Q 26. Let ABC and A‘B‘C’ be two triangles in which AB > A‘B’, BC> B’C‘ and CA > C’A’. Let D, E and F be the mid points of the sides BC, CA and AB respectively. Let D’, E’ and F be the midpoints of the sides B’C’, C’A’ and A‘B‘ respectively. Consider the following statements : 

Statement I : 

AD > A‘D’, BE > B’E’ and CF > C’F’ are always true. 

Statement II : 

(AB2 + BC2 + CA2)/(AD2 + BE2 +CF2) = (A‘B’2+ B’C2+ C’A2 )/(A’D2+ B’E 2 + C’F 2 )

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I 

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I 

(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 

(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q 27. The annual incomes of two persons are in the ratio of 9:7 and their expenses are in the ratio of 4:3. If each of them saves 2,000 per year, what is the difference in their annual incomes? 

(a) 4,000 

(b) 4,500 

(c) 5,000 

(d) 5,500 

 

Q 28. Let S be a set of first fourteen natural numbers. The possible number of pairs (a, b), where a, b ∊ S and a ≠ b such that ab leaves remainder 1 when divided by 15, is 

(a) 3 

(b) 5 

(c) 6

(d) None of the above 

 

Q 29. A clock strikes once at 1 o’clock, twice at 2 o’clock and thrice at 3 o’clock, and so on. If it takes 8 seconds to strike at 5 o’clock, the time taken by it to strike at 10 o’clock is 

(a) 14 seconds 

(b) 16 seconds 

(c) 18 seconds 

(d) None of the above 

 

Q 30. In a circle of radius 2 units, a diameter AB intersects a chord of length 2 units perpendicularly at P. If AP > BP, then AP is equal to 

(a) (2+√5) units 

(b) (2 +√3) units 

(c) (2+ √2) units 

(d) 3 units 

 

Q 31. Under what condition on p and q, one of the roots of the equation x2 + px +q = 0 is the square of the other? 

(a) 1 + q + q2 = 3pq 

(b) 1 + p + p2 = 3pq 

(c) p3 + q + q2 = 3pq 

(d) q3+ p + p2 = 3pq

 

Q 32. What is the maximum value of m, if the number N = 90 × 42 × 324 × 55 is divisible by 3m? 

(a) 8 

(b) 3 

(c) 6 

(d) 5

 

Q 33. A bike consumes 20 mL of petrol per kilometre, if it is driven at a speed in the range of 25-50 km/hour and consumes 40 ml of petrol per kilometre at any other speed. How much petrol is consumed by the bike in travelling a distance of 50 km, if the bike is driven at a speed of 40 km/hour for the first 10 km, at a speed of 60 km/hour for the next 30 km and at a speed of 30 km/hour for the last 10 km? 

(a) 1 L 

(b) 1.2 L 

(c) 1.4 L 

(d) 1.6 L

 

Q 34. Consider the following statements : 

1. Every natural number is a real number. 

2. Every real number is a rational number. 

3. Every integer is a real number. 

4. Every rational number is a real number. 

Which of the above statements are correct? 

(a) 1, 2 and 3 

(b) 1, 3 and 4 

(c) 2 and 3 only 

(d) 3 and 4 only 

 

Q 35. For what value of k is (x + 1) a factor of x3+ kx2 – x + 2? 

(a) 4 

(b) 3 

(c) 1 

(d) -2 

 

Q 36. Consider the following statements : 

1. There exists a positive real number m such that cos x = 2m+1. 

2. mn ≥ m +n for all m, n belonging to a set of natural numbers. 

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 37. The solution of the inequation 1 + 1/x – 1/x2 ≥ 0 is (given that x ≠ 0) 

(a) x > 0 

(b) x < 0 

(c) (-1-√5)/2 ≤  x ≤ (-1+√5/2)

(d) x ≤ (-1-√5)/2 or x ≥ (-1+√5/2)

 

Q 38. Which of the points P(5, -1), Q(3, -2) and R(1, 1) lie in the solution of the system of inequalities x + y ≤ 4 and x-y ≥ 2 ? 

(a) Q and R only 

(b) P and R only 

(c) P and Q only 

(d) P, Q and R 

 

Q 39. A passenger train takes 1 hour less for a journey of 120 km, if its speed is increased by 10 km/hour from its usual speed. What is its usual speed? 

(a) 50 km/hour 

(b) 40 km/hour 

(c) 35 km/hour 

(d) 30 km/hour

 

Q 40. The value of k, for which the system of equations 3x – ky – 20 = 0 and 6x – 10y + 40 = 0 has no solution, is 

(a) 10 

(b) 6 

(c) 5 

(d) 3

 

Q 41. Consider the following in respect of natural numbers a, b and c: 

1. LCM (ab, ac) = a LCM(b, c) 

2. HCF(ab, ac) = a HCF(b, c) 

3. HCF(a, b) < LCM(a, b) 

4. HCF(a, b) divides LCM(a, b). 

Which of the above are correct? 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 3 and 4 only 

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only 

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 

 

Q 42. There are three brothers. The sums of ages of two of them at a time are 4 years, 6 years and 8 years. The age difference between the eldest and the youngest is 

(a) 3 years 

(b) 4 years 

(c) 5 years 

(d) 6 years 

 

Q 43. A person goes to a market between 4 p.m. and 5 p.m. When he comes back, he finds that the hour hand and the minute hand of the clock have interchanged their positions. For how much time (approximately) was he out of his house? 

(a) 55.38 minutes 

(b) 55.48 minutes 

(c) 55.57 minutes 

(d) 55-67 minutes

 

Q 44. In a gathering of 100 people, 70 of them can speak Hindi, 60 can speak English and 30 can speak French. Further, 30 of them can speak both Hindi and English, 20 can speak both Hindi and French. If x is the number of people who can speak both English and French, then which one of the following is correct? (Assume that everyone can speak at least one of the three languages.) 

(a) 9 < x < 30

(b) 0 ≤ x < 8

(c) x = 9 

(d) x = 8

 

Q 45. A cloth merchant buys cloth from a weaver and cheats him by using a scale which is 10 cm longer than a normal metre scale. He claims to sell cloth at the cost price to his customers, but while selling uses a scale which is 10 cm shorter than a normal metre scale. What is his gain? 

(a) 20% 

(b) 21% 

(c) 22²/₉%

(d) 23⅓ % 

 

Q 46. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 60 minutes and 75 minutes respectively. There is also an outlet C. If A, B and C are opened together, the tank is full in 50 minutes. How much time will be taken by C to empty the full tank? 

(a) 100 minutes 

(b) 110 minutes 

(c) 120 minutes 

(d) 125 minutes 

 

Q 47. In a race of 1000 m, A beats B by 100 m or 10 seconds. If they start a race of 1000 m simultaneously from the same point and if B gets injured after running 50 m less than half the race length and due to which his speed gets halved, then by how much time will A beat B? 

(a) 65 seconds 

(b) 60 seconds 

(c) 50 seconds 

(d) 45 seconds

 

Q 48. The salary of a person is increased by 10% of his original salary. But he received the same amount even after the increment. What is the percentage of his salary he did not receive? 

(a) 11% 

(b) 10% 

(c) (100 /11)% 

(d) (90 /11)% 

 

Q 49.  A truck moves along a circular path and describes 100 m when it has traced out 36° at the centre. The radius of the circle is equal to 

(a) 100/π m

(b) 250/π m

(c)500/π m

(d) 600π m

 

Q 50. Two poles are placed at P and on either side of a road such that the line joining P and Q is perpendicular to the length of the road. A person moves x metre away from P parallel to the road and places another pole at R. Then the person moves further x metre in the same direction and turns and moves a distance y metre away from the road perpendicularly, where he finds himself, Q and R on the same line. The distance between P and Q (i.e., the width of the road) in metre is 

(a)  x 

(b) x/2

(c)  Y

(d) 2y 

 

Q 51. Suppose chords AB and CD of a circle intersect at a point P inside the circle. Two right-angled triangles A’P’B‘ and C’O’D’ are formed as shown in the figures below such that A‘P’ = AP, B’P’ = BP, C’Q’ = CP, D’Q’ = DP and LA‘P’B’ = 90° = ZC’O’D’:  Which of the following statements are not correct?

1. A’P’B’ and C’O’D’ are similar triangles, but need not be congruent. 

2 A‘P’B‘ and C’Q’D‘ are congruent triangles. 

3. A‘P’B’ and C’O‘D’ are triangles of the same area. 

4. A‘P’B’ and C‘Q’D’ are triangles of the same perimeter. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 2 and 3 only 

(b) 1 and 3 only 

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only 

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 

 

Q 52. Suppose ABC is a triangle with AB of unit length. D and E are the points lying on AB and AC respectively such that BC and DE are parallel. If the area of triangle ABC is twice the area of triangle ADE, then the length of AD is 

(a) ½ unit 

(b) ⅓ unit

(c) 1/√2 unit

(d) 1/√3 unit

 

Q 53. A rhombus is formed by joining midpoints of the sides of a rectangle in the suitable order. If the area of the rhombus is 2 square units, then the area of the rectangle is 

(a) 2√2 square units 

(b) 4 square units 

(c) 4√2 square units 

(d) 8 square units 

 

Q 54. If each interior angle of a regular polygon is 140°, then the number of vertices of the polygon is equal to 

(a)  10

(b)  9

(c)  8

(d) 7

 

Q 55. Let the triangles ABC and DEF be such that ∠ABC = ∠DEF, ∠ACB = ∠DFE and ∠BAC = ∠EDF. Let L be the midpoint of BC and M be the midpoint of EF. Consider the following statements : 

Statement I : 

Triangles ABL and DEM are similar.

Statement II : 

Triangle ALC is congruent to triangle DMF even if AC ≠ DF. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I 

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 

(d) Statement I is true but statement II is true 

 

Q 56. The number of rounds that a wheel of diameter 7/11 metre will make in traversing 4 km will be 

(a) 500 

(b) 1000 

(c) 1700 

(d) 2000 

 

Q 57. The base of an isosceles triangle is 300 units and each of its equal sides is 170 units. Then the area of the triangle is 

(a) 9600 square units

(b) 10000 square units 

(c) 12000 square units 

(d) None of the above 

 

Q 58. Four equal discs are placed such that each one touches two others. If the area of empty space enclosed by them is 150/847 square centimetre, then the radius of each disc is equal to

(a) 7/6 cm

(b) 5/6 cm

(c) 1/2 cm 

(d) 5/11 cm 

 

Q 59. ABC and DEF are similar triangles. If the ratio of side AB to side DE is (√2+1): √3, then the ratio of area of triangle ABC to that of triangle DEF is 

(a) (3-2√2):3 

(b) (9-6√2):2

(c) 1:(9-6√2) 

(d) (3+2√2):2 

 

Q 60. A tangent is drawn from an external point o to a circle of radius 3 units at P such that OP = 4 units. If C is the centre of the circle, then the sine of the angle COP is 

(a) ⅘  

(b) ¾  

(c) ⅗ 

(d) ½  

 

Q 61. A square is inscribed in a right-angled triangle with legs p and q, and has a common right angle with the triangle. The diagonal of the square is given by 

(a) pq/(p+2q)

(b) pq/ (2p+q)

(c) √2pq/(p+q) 

(d)2pa /(p+q)

 

Q 62. If x/a – y/b tanθ = 1 and x/a tanθ + y/b = 1, then the value of x2/a2 – y2/b2  is 

(a) 2sec2θ 

(b) sec2θ 

(c) cos2θ 

(d) 2cos2θ 

 

Q 63. Consider the following: 

Which of the above is/are identity/ identities? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

 

Q 64. If p = cotθ + tanθ and q = secθ – cosθ, then (p2q)^⅔ – (q2p)^⅔ is equal to

(a) o 

(b) 1 

(c) 2

(d) 3 

 

Q 65. Two observers are stationed due north of a tower (of height x metre) at a distance y metre from each other. The angles of elevation of the tower observed by them are 30° and 45° respectively. Then x/y is equal to 

(a)  (√2 – 1)/ 2

(b)  (√3 – 1)/ 2

(c)  (√3 + 1)/ 2

(d) 1

 

Q 66. If (cos2θ – 3cosθ + 2)/ sin2θ = 1 where 0 < θ < π/2 then which of the following statements is/are correct? 

1. There are two values of θ satisfying the above equation. 

2. θ = 60° is satisfied by the above equation.

 Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

 

Q 67. In a triangle ABC if A-B= π/2 then C+2B is equal to 

(a) 2π/3

(b) 3π/4

(c)  π

(d) π/2

 

Q 68. Which of the following is correct in respect of the equation 3-tan2θ = α(1-3 tan2θ) (Given that a is a real number.) 

(a) α ∊ [⅓ + 1] 

(b) α ∊ [-∞, ⅓]∪[3, ∞] 

(c) α ∊ [∞, ⅓]∪[3, ∞] 

(d) None of the above 

 

Q 69. There are five lines in a plane, no two of which are parallel. The maximum number of points in which they can intersect is 

(a) 4 

(b) 6 

(c) 10 

(d) None of the above 

 

Q 70. Consider a circle with centre at O and radius 7 cm. Let QR be a chord of length 2 cm and let P be the midpoint of QR. Let CD be another chord of this circle passing through P such that ∠CPQ is acute. IfM is the midpoint of CD and MP = √24 cm, then which of the following statements are correct? 

1. ∠OPD = 135° 

2. If CP = m cm and PD = n cm, then m and n are the roots of the quadratic equation x2 – 10x + 1 = 0.

3. The ratio of the area of triangle OPR to the area of triangle OMP is 1:2√2. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

 

Q 71. Let ABC be a triangle in which AB = AC. Let L be the locus of points X inside or on the triangle such that BX = CX. 

Which of the following statements are correct? 

1. L is a straight line passing through A and in-centre of triangle ABC is on L. 

2. L is a straight line passing through A and orthocentre of triangle ABC is a point on L. 

3. L is a straight line passing through A and the centroid of triangle ABC is a point on L. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Q 72. Consider a circle with centre at C. Let OP, OQ denote respectively the tangents to the circle drawn from a point o outside the circle. Let R be a point on OP and S be a point on OQ such that OR × SQ = OS × RP. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 

1. If X is the circle with centre at O and radius OR, and Y is the circle with centre at O and radius OS, then X = Y. 

2. ∠ POC+ ∠ QCO = 90° Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 73. If m and n are distinct natural numbers, then which of the following is/are integer/integers? 

1. m/n + п/т 

2. mn(m/n + п/т)(m2 +n2)-1 

3. mn / (m2 + n2) 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 and 2 

(b) 2 only 

(c) 2 and 3 

(d) 3 only 

 

Q 74. Outside the meeting room, Madhukar was told by a person that each meeting takes place after 13/4 hours. The last meeting has been over just 45 minutes ago and the next meeting will take place at 2 p.m. At what time did Madhukar receive this information? 

(a) 10:20 a.m. 

(b) 11:30 a.m. 

(c) 11:40 a.m. 

(d) 11:50 a.m.

 

Q 75. The expenditure of a household for a certain month is Rs. 20,000, out of which Rs. 8,000 is spent on education, Rs. 5,900 on food, Rs. 2,800 on shopping and the rest on personal care. What percentage of expenditure is spent on personal care? 

(a) 12% 

(b) 16.5% 

(c) 18% 

(d) 21.8% 

 

Q 76. If 

where x, y and z are natural numbers, then what is z equal to? 

(a) 1 

(b) 2 

(c) 3 

(d) 4 

 

Q 77. A circular path is made from two concentric circular rings in such a way that the smaller ring when allowed to roll over the circumference of the bigger ring, it takes three full revolutions. If the area of the pathway is equal to n times the area of the smaller ring, then n is equal to 

(a) 4 

(b) 6 

(c) 8 

(d) 10 

 

Q 78. Consider the following statements : 

1. If n ≥ 3 and m ≥ 3 are distinct positive integers, then the sum of the exterior angles of a regular polygon of m sides is different from the sum of the exterior angles of a  regular polygon of n sides. 

2. Let m, n be integers such that m > n > 3. Then the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon of m sides is greater than the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon of n sides, and their sum is (m + n)π/2

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 79. Consider the following statements : 

1. There exists a regular polygon whose exterior angle is 70°. 

2. Let n ≥ 5. Then the exterior angle of any regular polygon of n sides is acute. 

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 80. In a triangle PQR, point X is on PQ and point Y is on PR such that XP = 1.5 units, XQ = 6 units, PY = 2 units and YR = 8 units. Which of the following are correct? 

1. QR = 5XY 

2. QR is parallel to XY. 

3. Triangle PYX is similar to triangle PRO.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

 

Q 81. If a transversal intersects four parallel straight lines, then the number of distinct values of the angles formed will be

(a) 2 

(b) 4

(c) 8 

(d) 16

 

Q 82. A person travels 7 km eastwards and then turns right and travels 3 km and further turns right and travels 13 km. What is the shortest distance of the present position of the person from his starting point? 

(a) 6 km 

(b) 3√5 km 

(c) 7 km 

(d) 4√5 km 

 

Q 83. ABC is a triangle in which D is the midpoint of BC and E is the midpoint of AD. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 

1. The area of triangle ABC is equal to four times the area of triangle BED. 

2. The area of triangle ADC is twice the area of triangle BED. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

 

Q 84. A circle of 3 m radius is divided into three areas by semicircles of radii 1 m and 2 m as shown in the figure above. The ratio of the three areas A, B and C will be 

(a) 2:3:2 

(b) 1:1:1 

(c) 4:3:4 

(d) 1:2:1 

 

Q 85. If √(x/y) = 10/3 – √(y/x) and x – y = 8, then the value of xy is equal to 

(a) 36 

(b) 24 

(c) 16 

(d) 9

 

Q 86. ABC is an equilateral triangle and X, Y and Z are the points on BC, CA and AB respectively such that BX = CY = AZ. 

Which of the following is/are correct?

(a) AQ2 + AB2 = BP2 + PQ2

(b) AQ2 + PQ2 = AB2 + BP2 

(c) AQ2 + BP2 = AB2 + PQ2

(d) AQ2 + AP2 = BK2 + KQ2 

 

Q 87. In the figure given above, AD = CD = BC. 

What is the value of ∠CDB?

(a) 32° 

(b) 64° 

(c) 78° 

(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

 

Q 88. ABC is a triangle right angled at C as shown in the figure above. 

Which one of the following is correct? 

1. XYZ is an equilateral triangle. 

2. Triangle XYZ is similar to triangle ABC. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

 

Q 89. In the figure given above, p and q are parallel lines. What are the values of the angles x, y and z? 

(a) x = 800, y = 40°, z = 100° 

(b) x = 80°, y = 50°, z = 105° 

(c) x = 70°, y = 40, z = 110° 

(d) x = 60°, y=20, z = 120° 

 

Q 90. The linear inequations, for which the shaded area in the figure given above is the solution set, are 

(a) 2x+6y ≤ 21, 5x – 2y ≤ 10 

(b) 2x+6y ≤ 21, 5x – 2y ≥ 10 

(c) 2x + 6y ≥ 21, 5x – 2y ≤ 10 

(d) 2x + 6y ≥ 21, 5x – 2y ≥ 10 

 

Q 91. The election result in which six parties contested was depicted by a pie chart. Party A had an angle 135° on this pie chart. If it secured 21960 votes, how many valid votes in total were cast? 

(a) 51240 

(b) 58560 

(c) 78320 

(d) 87840 

 

Q 92. The mean and median of 5 observations are 9 and 8 respectively. If 1 is subtracted from each observation, then the new mean and the new median will respectively be 

(a) 8 and 7 

(b) 9 and 7 

(c) 8 and 9 

(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data 

 

Q 93. The age distribution of 40 children is as follows :

Age (in years) 5-6 6-7 7-8 8-9 9-10 10-11
No. of Children 4 7 9 12 6 2

Consider the following statements in respect of the above frequency distribution : 

1. The median of the age distribution is 7 years. 

2. 70% of the children are in the age group 6-9 years. 

3. The modal age of the children is 8 years. 

Which of the above statements are correct? 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Q 94. Suppose xi = λi for 0 ≤ i ≤ 10, where λ > 1. 

Which one of the following is correct? 

(a) AM < Median 

(b) GM < Median 

(c) GM = Median 

(d) AM = Median 

 

Q 95. Suppose xi  =1/ i= for i = 1, 2, 3, …, 11. 

Which one of the following is not correct? 

(a) AM  > 1/6 

(b) GM > 1/6 

(c) HM > 1/6 

(d) Median = HM 

 

Q 96. The value of  ⅕ log10 3125 – 4 log10 2 +log10 32 is 

(a) 0 

(b) 1 

(c) 2 

(d) 3 

 

Q 97. If tanθ + cotθ = 4/√3, where 0 < θ < π/2, then sinθ + cosθ is equal to 

(a) 1 

(b) (√3-1) /2

(c) (√3+1) /2 

(d) √2 

 

Q 98. The value of the expression [(243 +647)2 + (243 – 647)2 ] / [243 × 243 + 647 × 647] is equal to 

(a) 0 

(b) 1 

(c) 2 

(d) 3 

 

Q 99. If a and b are negative real numbers and c s a positive real number, then which of the following is/are correct? 

1. a-b < a–c 

2. If a < b, then a/c  < b/c

3. 1/b  < 1/c

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 

(b) 2 only 

(c) 3 only 

(d) 2 and 3

 

Q 100. 

AD is the diameter of a circle with area 707 m2 and AB = BC = CD as shown in the figure above. All curves inside the circle are semicircles with their diameters on AD. What is the cost of levelling the shaded region at the rate of Rs. 63 per square metre? (a) 29,700 

(b) 22,400 

(c) 14,847 

(d) None of the above

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