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SSC CGL Tier 1 2012 7 Jan Shift 1 Previous Year Paper

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SSC CGL Tier 1 2012 7 Jan Shift 1


Q. 1 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

8 : 12 : : 6 : ?

A. 8

B. 11

C. 5

D. 7


Q. 2 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

13: 19: : 21 : ?

A. 41

B. 81

C. 141

D. 14


Q. 3 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

Eagle : Swoops :: Duck: ?

A. waddles

B. floats

C. swims

D. flits


Q. 4 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

APPLE: 50 : : ORANGE : ?

A. 60

B. 69

C. 61

D. 63


Q. 5 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

Accommodation:Rent:: Journey: ?

A. Freight

B. octrol

C. fare

D. expense


Q. 6 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

Fire : Smoke : : ?

A. children : school

B. cloud : ram

C. Moon : sky

D. shoe : polish


Q. 7 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

Grenade: Gun: : ?

A. Sister: Brother

B. Father: Mother

C. Man : Woman

D. Head : Brain


Q. 8 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

TSH : IRQ : : QPK : ?






Q. 9 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

AEZ: FPY : : BGX : ?






Q. 10 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.






Q. 11 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Major

B. colonel

C. Brigadier

D. Admiral


Q. 12 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Life Insurance Corporation  

B. New India Assurance Company Ltd

C. United India Insurance Company Ltd.

D. National Insurance Company Ltd


Q. 13 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. hurdle

B. disease

C. barrier

D. obstacle


Q. 14 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. mar

B. remedy

C. maim

D. mutilate


Q. 15 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. socrates

B. beethoven

C. mozart

D. bach


Q. 16 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. (132, 5)

B. (125, 8)

C. (124, 7)

D. (112, 4)


Q. 17 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 6246-6296

B. 7137-7267

C. 4344-4684

D. 5235-5465


Q. 18 YX,UTS, ONML, ?






Q. 19 DA, HE, LI, ? , TN






Q. 20 Choose the correct alternative for

B E I NT ?

A. x

B. Y

C. A

D. Z


Q. 21 AZ, CX, EV, ?






Q. 22 D9Y, J27S, P81M, V243G, __?

A. A324B

B. C729B

C. B729A

D. A729B


Q. 23 Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?


A. daabbc

B. bdbcba

C. adabcd

D. cdbbca


Q. 24 9,19,40,83, 170,340

A. 83

B. 40

C. 340

D. 170


Q. 25 21,28,33,35.37,36

A. 21

B. 36

C. 33

D. 35


Q. 26  5,13,29,61,120,253

A. 120

B. 253

C. 61

D. 29


Q. 27 . 0,7,28,63, 124,215

A. 28

B. 215

C. 7

D. 63


Q. 28 Some relationships have been expressed through symbols which are explained below:

0 = greater than

Δ = not equal to

× = not less than

+ = equal to

∅ = not greater than

— = less than

a ∇ b ∇ c implies

A. a Δ A b ∅ c

B. a b + c

C. a o b + c

D. a o b x c


Q. 29 What is the value ?

A. 14400

B. 15600

C. 23040

D. 12400


Q. 30 If PEAR is written a GFDN how is REAP written in this code?






Q. 31 If 54 + 43 = 2, 60 + 51 = 10, then 62 + 72 =?

A. 30

B. 18

C. 20

D. 9


Q. 32 If L denotes x

M denotes ÷

P denotes +

Q denotes –

then 16 P 24 M 8 Q 6 M 2 L 3 = ?

A. 10

B. 9

C. 12

D. 11


Q. 33 In this question, from the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word.







Q. 34 If FLATTER is coded as 7238859 and MOTHER is coded as 468159, then how is MAMMOTH coded?

A. 4344681

B. 4344651

C. 4146481

D. 4346481


Q. 35 If l6 – 2= 2,9 – 3 = 0, 81 -1 = 8, then what is 64 – 4 = ?

A. 4

B. 2

C. 6

D. 8


Question:- 36-37

In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.


Q. 36 What is the number missing

A. 20

B. 10

C. 25

D. 15


Q. 37 What is the missing number ?

A. 21

B. 20

C. 23

D. 22


Q. 38 Four aeroplanes of Air Force viz, A,B,C,D, started for a demonstration flight towards east. Afterflying 50 km planes A and Dflew towards right, planes B and C flew towards left. After 50 km, planes B and C flew towards their left, planes A and D also towards their left. In which directions are the aeroplanes A, B,D, C respectively flying now?

A. North, South” East, West

B. South, North, West, East

C. East, West, West, East

D. West, East, West, East


Q. 39 Satishstartfrom Aand walks 2 kmeastupto B and turns southwards and walks 1 km upto C. At C he turns to east and walks 2 km upto D. He then turns northwards and walks 4 km to E. How far is he from his starting point?

A. 5 km

B. 6 km

C. 3 km

D. 4 km


Q. 40 Statements :

Temple is a place of worship. Church is also a place of worship.


I. Hindus and Christians use the same place for worship.

II. All churches are temples

A. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

B. Both conclusions I and II follow

C. Only conclusion I follows

D. Only conclusion II follows


Q. 41 Statement:

The human organism grows and develops through stimulation and action.


I. Inert human organism cannot grow and develop.

II. Human organisms do not react to stimulation and action

A. Neither conclusion I nor II follow

B. Both conclusions I and II follow

C. Only conclusion I follows

D. Only conclusion II follows


Q. 42 . If the first four letters of a term HIPPNOWADIASM are written in reverse order,the next five letters are written without changing their order and then, the remaining letters are again written in reverse order, in the middle of the word?

A. O

B. W

C. A

D. I


Q. 43 In the following letter series how many times do PQR occur in such a way that Q is in the middle of P and R.



A. 5

B. 6

C. 4

D. 3


Q. 44 . Volume of a sphere is equal to the volume of a hemisphere. If the radius of the hemisphere is 3√2 cm, then the radius of the sphere is equal to

A. 9√2

B. 6√2

C. 27

D. 3


Q. 45 A sheet of paper has been folded as shown by the question figures. You have to figure out from amongst the four answer figures how it will appear when opened?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 46 Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror image of the question figure if a mirror is placed on the line MN?


A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 47 If SEARCH is coded as TFBSDI. how will PENCIL be coded?






Q. 48 Which answer Figure completes the form in question figure? 

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 49 From the answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/ embedded.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 50 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in anyone of the alternatives.

The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. ‘A’ can be represented by 10. 33, etc and ‘H’ can be represented by 59. 78. etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word 


A. 85, 23, 21, 87, 32

B. 58, 31, 12, 57, 41

C. 77, 13, 42, 99, 32

D. 66, 31, 43, 78, 14


Q. 51 The National Commission for Minorities was constituted in the year

A. 1990

B. 1992

C. 1980

D. 1989


Q. 52 The first Indian who was chosen as the Secretary General of Commonwealth i

A. Rakesh verma

B. Gopalaswami

C. Krishna murthy

D. Kamlesh SHrama


Q. 53 In which of the following systems of government is bicameralism an essential feature?

A. federal system

B. unitary system

C. parliamentary system

D. presidential system


Q. 54 Kuldip Nayer, a journalist, was appointed as a High Commissioner in

A. Sri lanka

B. Australia


D. Pakistan


Q. 55 Which king is referred to as Devanampiya Piyadassi (Beloved of the Gods) in the inscriptions?

A. Asoka

B. Harsha

C. Bindusara

D. Chandragupta Maurya


Q. 56 Socialism succeeds in achieving

A. higher standard of living of the people

B. equal distribution of income in the society

C. higher individual welfare in the society

D. maximum social welfare in the society


Q. 57 Monopolist resorts to price discrimination depending upon the

A. Elasticity of supply

B. Elasticity of demand

C. Law of demand

D. Law of supply


Q. 58 Economic planning is an essential feature of

A. Socialist economy

B. Capitalist economy

C. Mixed economy

D. Dual economy


Q. 59 The HYV programme in India is also’ called as

A. Traditiona lAgriculture

B. New Agricultural Strategy

C. White Revolution

D. Blue Revolution


Q. 60 The National Policy for Empowerment of Women was adopted in the year

A. 2001

B. 2005

C. 1991

D. 1995


Q. 61 Ballots were first used in

A. Australia


C. Ancient Greece

D. England


Q. 62 The Rashtriya Barh Ayog (RBA) is related with

A. Droughts and Floods

B. Poverty Alleviation

C. floods

D. Disaster Management


Q. 63 Which of the following criteria is not used for the classification of human races?

A. nose

B. hair

C. eyes

D. ears


Q. 64 Railway coaches are manufactured at

A. Jamshedpur

B. Chittaranjan

C. Perambur

D. varanasi


Q. 65 Fertilization occurs normally in the

A. cervix

B. vagina

C. Fallopian tube

D. uterus


Q. 66 People consuming alcohol in heavy quantities generally die of

A. liver or stomach cancer

B. weakening of heart muscles leading to cardiac arrest

C. blood cancer

D. Cirrhosis


Q. 67 The organisms at the base of the grazing food-chain are

A. Carnivores

B. Decomposers

C. Producers

D. herbivores


Q. 68 Who among the following was credited with the destruction of Chinalgani, a group of powerful nobles?

A. Balban

B. Qutb-ud-din Aibak

C. IItutmish

D. Razia-sultan


Q. 69 Bombay was given away as dowry to the English King Charles II for marrying the Princess of

A. France

B. Portugal

C. Hlland

D. Denmark


Q. 70 The ‘Grand Trunk Road built by Shershah connected Punjab with

A. Agra

B. East Bengal

C. LAhore

D. Multan


Q. 71 Nam the Maratha Saint who was a contemporary of Shivaji.

A. Saint Eknath

B. Saint Tukaram

C. Saint Dhyaneshwar

D. Namdev


Q. 72 The study of lake is called

A. Topology

B. Hydrology

C. Limnology

D. Potomology


Q. 73 A series of lines connecting places having a quake at the same time are called

A. Homoseismal lines

B. Seismolines

C. Coseisrnal line

D. Isoseismallines


Q. 74 ‘Lumen’ is the unit of

A. Illuminance

B. Brightness

C. Luminous flux

D. Luminous intensity


Q. 75 The transfer of date from a CPU to peripheral devices of computer is achieved through

A. interfaces

B. buffermemory

C. modems

D. computer ports


Q. 76 Which of the following items is not used in Local Area Networks (LANs) ?

A. Interface Card

B. Cable

C. Computer

D. Modem


Q. 77 The mass of 10 moles of water is

A. 90 g

B. 45 g

C. 18 g

D. 180 g


Q. 78 Vitamin A is rich in

A. carrot

B. lime

C. beans

D. rice


Q. 79 The high boiling point of water compared to hydrogen sulphide or hydrogen chloride is due to

A. Dipole insulation

B. Vander Waal’s attraction

C. Polar covalent bonding

D. Hydrogen bonding


Q. 80 Which of the following determines the chemical properties of an element?

A. numb er of electrons

B. number of neutrons

C. number of protons

D. all the above


Q. 81 The Central Drug Research Institute of India is located at

A. Madras

B. Lucknow

C. Delhi

D. Bangalore


Q. 82 Which of the following cereals was among the first to be used by man ?

A. Rye

B. Wheat

C. Rarley

D. Oat


Q. 83 What of the following wheat species are being cultivated in India?

A. Club wheat

B. Durum wheat

C. Emmer wheat

D. Bread wheat


Q. 84 Which one of the following forces is a ‘dissipative force’?

A. Electrostatic force

B. Magnetic force

C. Gravitational force

D. Frictional force


Q. 85 If a resistive wire is elongated, its resistance

A. decreases

B. remains constant

C. increases

D. all of the above


Q. 86 If a magnet has a third pole, then the third pole is called

A. defective pole

B. consequent pole

C. extra pole

D. arbitary pole


Q. 87 How many spokes are there in the Dharmachakra of the National Flag?

A. 14

B. 18

C. 22

D. 24


Q. 88 The latest official language of the U.N. is

A. Russian

B. Arabic

C. Chinese

D. Spanish


Q. 89 Srikrishna Committee Report which was made public in 2011, is related t

A. rejuvenation of higher education

B. demand for a separate Telangana State

C. ragging in educational institutions

D. impeachment of Justice Dinakaran


Q. 90 The latest book “Kurukshetra to Kargil’ is written by

A. Suryanath Singh

B. Kunal Bhardwaj

C. Karan Singh

D. Kuldip Singh


Q. 91 The Educational Development Index (EDI) Report.,released in 2011, is led by

A. Tamil nadu

B. Pondicherry

C. Kerela

D. Lakshadweep


Q. 92 Shunglu Committee, which submitted its report in 2011, is related to

A. Commonwealth Games scandal

B. reforms in the Insurance sector

C. revamp of Defence management

D. management of Co-operative Sector


Q. 93 The 65th National Football Championship (Santosh Trophy 2011) was won by 

A. bangal

B. punjab

C. manipur

D. goa


Q. 94 The organisation involved primarily with environmental planning is






Q. 95 What would be the impact of on mangrove forests?

A. They will grow more luxurious

B. Large areas of mangroves will be submerged

C. Their role as carbon sinks will become more important

D. Both (1) and (3) above


Q. 96 The sweet taste of fruits is due to

A. Lactose

B. Fructose

C. maltose

D. ribose


Q. 97 The most endangered Asiatic top predator on the edge of extinction is

A. Black Bear

B. Asiatic lion

C. Siberian Tiger

D. Dhole


Q. 98 Analects is the sacred book of

A. Confucianism

B. Judaism

C. Shintoism

D. Taoism


Q. 99 The seat of Madhya Pradesh High Court is located at

A. Gwalior

B. Indore

C. Bhopal

D. Jabalpur


Q. 100 The brightest planet is

A. Venus

B. MErcury

C. Jupiter

D. MArs


Q. 101 P and Q are two points observed from the top of a building 10 √3 m high. IF the angles of depression of the points are complementary and PQ = 20 m, then the distance of P from the building is

A. 25 m

B. 45 m

C. 30 m

D. 40 m


Q. 102 If A and are complementary angles, then the value of

Sin A cos B + cos A sin B – tan A tan B + sec²A – cot² B is

A. 2

B. 0

C. 0

D. -1


Q. 103 The least value of 2sin² q + 2cos² q is

A. 3

B. 5

C. 1

D. 2


Q. 104 A,O,B are three points on a line segment and C is a points not lying on ∠AOB. IF ∠AOC = 40° and OX, OYare the internal and external bisectors of ∠AOC respectively, then ∠BOY is

A. 70°

B. 80°

C. 75°

D. 68°


Q. 105 If 4x = sec θ and 4 /x = tan θ then find the value

A. 1/16

B. 1/8

C. 1/2

D. 1/4


Q. 106 If 2 – cos² θ = 3 sin θ cos θ , sin θ≠ cos θ then tan θ is

A. 1/2

B. 0

C. 2/3

D. 1/3


Q. 107 If sin θ + cos θ √2 cos (90 – θ ), then cot θ is

A. √2 + 1

B. 0

C. √2

D. √2 – 1


Q. 108 If x sin² θ + y cos³ θ = sin θ cos θ and x sin θ = y cos θ , sin θ ≠ θ , cos θ 0 , then x²+y³ is 

A. 1/√2

B. 1/2

C. 1

D. √2


Q. 109 In the following figure, O is the centre of the circle and XO is perpendicular to OY. If the area of the triangle XOY is 32, then the area of the circle is 

A. 64

B. 256

C. 16

D. 32


Q. 110 The side BC of ΔABC is produced to D. If ΔACD = 108° and ∠B =1/2 ∠A then ∠A

A. 36°

B. 72°

C. 108°

D. 59°


Q. 111 Two circles of radii 4 cm and 9 cm respectively touch each a common tangent touches then at the points P and Q respectively. Then the area of a square with one side PQ, is 

A. 97 sq.cm

B. 194 sq.cm

C. 72 sq.cm

D. 144 sq.cm


Q. 112 Two tangent are drawn from a point P to a circle at A and B. O is the centre of the circle. If ∠AOP = 60°, then ∠APB is

A. 120°

B. 90°

C. 60°

D. 30°


Q. 113 If each interior angle is double of each exterior angle of a regular polygon with n sides, then the value of n is

A. 8

B. 10

C. 5

D. 6


Q. 114 If the length of the side PQ of the rhombus PQRS is 6cm and ∠PQR = 120°, then the length of QS, in cm, is

A. 4

B. 6

C. 3

D. 5


Q. 115 The angle formed by the hour-hand and the minute-hand of a clock at 2 : 15 p.m. is

A. 27(1/2) °

B. 45 °

C. 22(1/2) °

D. 30 °


Q. 116 Two sides of a triangle are of length 4 cm and 10 cm. If the length of the third side is ‘a’ cm, then

A. a > 5

B. 6 ≤ a ≤ 12

C. a < 6

D. 6 ≤ a ≤ 14


Q. 117 If x = (0.08)² , y = 1/(0.08)² and z = (1 – 0.08)² – 1, then out of the following, the true relation is

A. y < x and x = z

B. x < y and x = z

C. y < x < x

D. z < x < y


Q. 118 In xy plane, P and Q are two points having co-ordinates (2, 0) and (5, 4) respectively. Then the numerical value of the area of the circle with radius PQ, i

A. 16 π

B. 32 π

C. 14 π

D. 25 π


Q. 119 If x⁴ + 1/x⁴ = 23 , then the value of (x- 1/x) ² will be

A. 7

B. -7

C. -3

D. 3


Q. 120 The value of …… is equal to

A. 3

B. 10

C. 8

D. 2


Q. 121 If x+1/x = 3 , the value of x⁵+1/x⁵ is

A. 123

B. 126

C. 113

D. 129


Q. 122 sec⁴ θ – sec²θ is equal to

A. tan² θ – tan⁴θ

B. tan²θ + tan⁴ θ

C. cos⁴ θ – cos²θ

D. cos²θ-cos⁴ θ


Q. 123 In ΔABC , AD is the median and AD =1/2 BC. IF ∠ACD = 30°, then measure of then measure of is

A. 90°

B. 45°

C. 30°

D. 60°


Q. 124 If √6 *√15 = x√10 , then the value of x is

A. 3

B. ± 3

C. √3

D. √6


Q. 125 What is the value of the given equation

A. 0

B. 3/2

C. √5/2

D. √5


Q. 126 If a + b + 1 = 0, then the value of (a³ + b³ + 1– 3ab) is

A. 3

B. 0

C. -1

D. 1


Q. 127 In the xy-coordinate system, if(a, b) and(a + 3, b + k) are two points on the line defined by the equation x = 3y – 7, then k = ?

A. 7/3

B. 1

C. 9

D. 3


Q. 128 The average age of 4 boys, five year age was 9 years. On including a new boy, the present average age of all the five is 15 years. The present age of the new boys is

A. 14 years

B. 6 years

C. 15 years

D. 19 years


Q. 129 If the average of 39, 48, 51, 63, 75, 83, x and 69 is 60, then the value of x is

A. 52

B. 53

C. 50

D. 51


Q. 130 The cost of a piece of diamond varies with the square of its weight. A diamond of Rs. 5,185 value is cut into 3 pieces whose weights are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. Find the loss involved in the cutting

A. Rs. 3,068

B. Rs. 3,008

C. Rs. 3,175

D. Rs. 3,168


Q. 131 A discount of 30% on the marked price of a toy reduces its selling price byRs. 30. What is the new selling price (in Rs.)?

A. 70

B. 21

C. 130

D. 100


Q. 132 The capacities of two hemispherical vessels are 6.4 litres and 21.6 litres. The ratio of their inner radii is

A. 4 : 9

B. 16 : 81

C. √2 : √3

D. 2 : 3


Q. 133 Pipe A alone can fill a tank in 8 hours. Pipe B alone can fill it in 6 hours. If both the pipes are opened and after 2 hours pipe A is closed, then the other pipe will fill the tank in 

A. 6 hours

B. 3 (1/2) hours

C. 4 hours

D. 2 (1/2 ) hours


Q. 134 If(a – b)=3, (b– c)= 5 and(c – a)=1, then the value of

A. 17.5

B. 20.5

C. 10.5

D. 15.5


Q. 135 .The population of a town is 15000. If the number of males increases by 8% and that of females by 10%, then the population would increase to 16300. Find the number of females in the town

A. 4000

B. 6000

C. 3000

D. 5000


Q. 136 If Rs. 5,0000 becomes Rs. 5,700 in a year’s time, what will Rs. 7,000 become at the end of 5 years atthe same rate of simple interest?

A. Rs. 10,500

B. Rs. 11,900

C. Rs. 12,700

D. Rs. 7,700


Q. 137 A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 200 m. The thief starts running and the policeman chases him. The thief and the policeman run at the rate of 10 km and 11 km per hour respectively. The distance (in metres) between then after 6 minutes is

A. 190

B. 200

C. 100

D. 150


Q. 138 ‘A’ sells an article to ‘B’ at a profit of 20% and ‘B’ sells it to ‘C’ at a profit of 25%. If ‘C’ pays Rs. 1,200, the cost price of the article originally (in Rs.) is

A. 700

B. 600

C. 1000

D. 800


Q. 139 The number nearest to 75070 which is divisible by 65, is

A. 75070

B. 75075

C. 75010

D. 75065


Q. 140 The number 20% more than 80 in

A. 36

B. 30

C. 90

D. 96


Q. 141 Atree is brokenbythe wind. Ifthe top of the tree struck the ground at an angle of 30° and at a distance of 30m from the root, then the height of the tree is

A. 25 √3 m

B. 30√3 m

C. 15√3 m

D. 20√3 m


Q. 142 If cos A + cos2 A = 1, then sin² A + sin⁴ A is equal to

A. 1

B. 1/2

C. 0

D. -1


Q. 143 A farmer divides his herd of n cows among his four sons, so that the first son gets one half the herd,the second one-fourth,the third son and the fourth son 7 cows. Then the value of n is

A. 240

B. 100

C. 180

D. 140


Q. 144 .By what least number should 675 be multiplied to obtain a number which is a prefectcube?

A. 7

B. 8

C. 5

D. 6


Q. 145 The least number which when divided by 35, 45, 55 leaves the remainder 18, 28, 38 respectively is

A. 3448

B. 3482

C. 2468

D. 3265


The graph shows Income and Expenditure of a Company. Study the graph and answer the questions.


Q. 146 The expenditure from 2002 to 2003 increased by

A. 33 (1/3) %

B. 40 %

C. 10 %

D. 20 %


Q. 147 The income in 2002 was equal to the expenditure in the year

A. 2003

B. 2004

C. 2000

D. 2001


Q. 148 The profit was maximum in the year

A. 2003

B. 2004

C. 2001

D. 2002


Q. 149 The difference in profit between 2001 and 2002 is

A. Rs. 25 lakhs

B. no differnce

C. Rs. 10 lakhs

D. Rs. 20 Lakhs


Q. 150 The number of years in which the income exceeds the average income is

A. 3

B. 4

C. 1

D. 2


Q. 151 You do not (1)/ look as (2)/ your brother. (3)/ No error(4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 152 My elder brother(1)/is six(2)/ foot high.(3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 153 Without no proof of your guilt (1)/ the only course open to me (2)/ is to dismiss the case. (3)/ No error(4

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 154 As we see it (1) / she appears to be unreasonable (2) / Anxious about pleasing her husband (3) / no error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 155 The scissor is (1) / lying on (2) / the table (3) / no error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 156 The Union Budget is likely to be presented on February 26, two days a head of the _____ 

A. critical

B. conventional

C. suitable

D. convenient


Q. 157 I am sorry _____ the mistake.

A. from

B. with

C. for

D. at


Q. 158 He _______her that she would pass.

A. insured

B. ensured

C. assumed

D. assured


Q. 159 Your father __ worry. I’m a very careful driver

A. needn’t

B. none

C. can’t

D. doesn’t


Q. 160 The __ chosen for construction of the building is in the heart of the city

A. cite

B. slight

C. sight

D. site


Q. 161 choose the one which best expresses the meaning


A. connection

B. distance

C. deficit

D. difference


Q. 162 choose the one which best expresses the meaning


A. straight

B. huge

C. wild

D. greedy


Q. 163 choose the one which best expresses the meaning


A. expansion

B. imitation

C. decoration

D. exaggeration


Q. 164 choose the one which best expresses the meaning


A. apology

B. address

C. speech

D. praise


Q. 165 choose the one which best expresses the meaning


A. dangerously

B. threateningly

C. harmfully

D. hideously


Q. 166 choose the word opposite in meaning


A. faulty

B. tedious

C. flashy

D. boring


Q. 167 choose the word opposite in meaning


A. Seperate

B. Combine

C. assimilate

D. integrate


Q. 168 choose the word opposite in meaning


A. climax

B. crisis

C. acne

D. nadir


Q. 169 choose the word opposite in meaning


A. reflex

B. defelction

C. effluent

D. exodus


Q. 170 choose the word opposite in meaning


A. semitic

B. colic

C. democratic

D. chaotic


Q. 171 Ram is very calculative and always has an axe to grind

A. has no result

B. works for both sides

C. has a private agenda

D. fails to arouse interest


Q. 172 The police looked all over for him but drew a blank

A. did not find him

B. put him in prison

C. arrested him

D. took him to court


Q. 173 On the issue of marriage, Sarita put her foot down

A. stood up

B. was firm

C. got down

D. walked fast


Q. 174 His investments helped him make a killing in the stock market

A. lose money quickly

B. plan a murder quickly

C. murder someone quickly

D. make money quickly


Q. 175 There is no gainsaying the fact that the country is in difficulties

A. ignoring

B. hiding

C. forgetting

D. denying


Q. 176 Sordid and sensational books tend to vitiate the public taste

A. divide

B. distract

C. distort

D. no improvement


Q. 177 By studying AIDS has engaged many researchers in the last decade

A. Important study

B. Now that the study

C. The study of

D. No improvement


Q. 178 His Master’s thesis was highly estimated and is now being prepared for publication.

A. was highly discussed

B. was highly commended

C. is highly appraised

D. No improvement


Q. 179 No sooner had she realized her blunder than she began to take corrective measures.

A. then she began to take

B. than she began taking

C. when she began to take

D. no improvement


Q. 180 A good scholar must be precise and possess originality.

A. must be precise and original

B. must be possess precision and original

C. must be precision and possess Originality

D. No improvement


Q. 180 One who loves book

A. Bibliophile

B. Bibliophagist

C. Bibliophoebe

D. Bibliographer


Q. 181 Speaking without preparation

A. deliberate

B. fluent

C. loquacious

D. extempore


Q. 182 Special trial of the Head of State by Parliament

A. Impingement

B. Infringement

C. Impeachment

D. Impediment


Q. 183 Someone able to use both hands with equal skill

A. Ambivalent

B. Amphibious

C. Ambiguous

D. Ambidextrous


Q. 184 Cure for all diseases

A. curable

B. pancreas

C. incurable

D. curative


Q. 186 Find the correctly spelt word.

A. pleintive

B. sustein

C. villain

D. allenice


Q. 187 Find the correctly spelt word

A. comissioner

B. commissionar

C. commistoner

D. commissioner


Q. 188 Find the correctly spelt word.

A. suprintendent

B. supirentendent

C. superintendent

D. superentendent


Q. 189 Find the correctly spelt word

A. aprentice

B. advertise

C. treatrce

D. sencitive


Q. 190 Find the correctly spelt word

A. symetry

B. symmitry

C. symatry

D. symmetry


Questions: 191 – 195

Two years later, in November 1895, he signed his final will. He left the bulk of his fortune, amounting to about £ 1,75,00 to a trust fund administered by Swedish and Norwegian trustees. The annual interest shall be awarded as prizes to those persons who during the previous year have rendered the greatest services to mankind. The interest shall ‘be divided into five equal parts – now amounting to about £ 8,000 each – one of which shall be awarded to the person who has made the most important discovery or invention in the- realm of physics, one to the person who has made the most important chemical discovery or improvement, one to the person who has made the most important physiological or medical discovery one to the person who has produced the most outstanding work of literature, idealistic in character, and one to the person who has done the best work for the brotherhood of nations, the abolition or reduction of standing armies, as well as for the formation or popularization of peace congress.


Q. 191 The said prize is awarded

A. once in 5 years

B. every year

C. once in 4 years

D. once in 2 years


Q. 192 Which is the prize that is referred to in the passage?

A. Nobel Prize

B. Magsaysay Award

C. Pulitzer Prize

D. Booker Prize


Q. 193 The number of prizes in the field of scinece are

A. 4

B. 1

C. 3

D. 5


Q. 194 Total annual prize money amount to

A. £ 8,000

B. £ 1.750,000

C. £ 350,000

D. £ 40,000


Q. 195 Prize is awarded for outstanding work in

A. chemistry

B. literature

C. physics

D. all of the above


Questions: 196 – 200

If an opinion contrary to your own makes you angry, that is a sign that you are subconsciously aware of having no good reason for thinking, as you do. If someone maintains that two and two are five that Iceland is on the Equator, you feel pity rather than anger, unless you know so little of arithmetic or geography that his opinion shakes your own contrary conviction.


Q. 196 If someone else’s opinion makes us angry, it means that

A. we are subconsciously aware of having no good reason for becoming angry

B. there may be good reasons for his opinion but we are not consciously aware of them

C. our own opinion is not based on good reason and we know this subconsciously

D. we are not consciously aware of any reason for our own opinion


Q. 197 “Your own contrary conviction” refers to

A. the fact that you feel pity rather than anger

B. The opinion that two and two are five and that Ice-land is one the Equator

C. The opinion that two and two are five and that Ice-land is on the Equator

D. The fact that you know so little about arithmetic or geography


Q. 198 Conviction means

A. persuasion

B. disbelief

C. strong belief

D. ignorance


Q. 199 The writer says if someone maintains that two and two are five you feel pity because you

A. have sympathy

B. don’t agree with him

C. want to help the person

D. feel sorry for his ignorance


Q. 200 The second sentence in the passage

A. builds up the argument of the first sentence by restarting it from the opposite point of view

B. makes the main point which has only been introduced by the first sentence

C. simply adds, a further point to the agreement already stated in the first sentence

D. illustrates the point made in the first sentence



Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer A A A A C B D B A B
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer D A B B A D A B A C
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer D C C C D A B A A B
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer D A B A A D C C A A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A B C D B D C B D A
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer B D A C A B B A B A
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer A C D C C D C A B A
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer B C A C A C D A D A
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer B B B D C B D B B D
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer C A A D D B D A D A
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer C C C D A A D C A B
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer D C D B C D D D D A
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer A B D A B B B D A D
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer A D D A D B C D B D
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer C A D C A A A B C A
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer B C A B A B C D A D
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer A B D D B A A D D D
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer C A B D D B C B D A
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer C C D B B D C B D
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer B A C A D A A C D D

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