NDA/NA(I) Exam 2016 General Ability Test
Q. 1 When the bus was at full speed its breaks failed and an accident was __________
A. inevitable
B. undeniable
C. fatal
D. miserable
Q. 2 To explain his design to his visitors, the architect a simple plan on the blackboard.
A. built
B. finalised
C. sketched
D. arranged
Q. 3 Though Bonsai, a well-known art form, originated in China, it was by __________by the Japanese
A. cultivated
B. finished
C. perfected
D. enlarged
Q. 4 He is greatly admired for his_______________ behaviour.
A. decrepit
B. decadent
C. decorative
D. decorous
Q. 5 Would you mind ___________ to the Principal how the trouble started ?
A. remarking
B. saying
C. explaining
D. talking
Q. 6 Vaccination will make people immune __________________ certain diseases for a given period.
A. against
B. to
C. with
D. for
Q. 7 The two boys looked so alike that it was impossible to ______________ between them.
A. discriminate
B. discern
C. distinguish
D. identify
Q. 8 The campers ____________ their tents at the base of the mountain.
A. installed
B. dug
C. pitched
D. established
Q. 9 The enemy had captured him and his life was at stake, still he refused to __ the state secrets.
A. divulge
B. divert
C. indulge
D. invert
Questions: 10 – 20
Each item in this section consists of an word in quotation in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word
Q. 10 He handled the machine with “deft” fingers. (opposite of the word in ” “)
A. delicate
B. sturdy
C. quick
D. clumsy
Q. 11 I was deeply affected by his “urbane” behaviour.(opposite of the word in ” “)
A. rural
B. rude
C. irrational
D. indifferent
Q. 12 His “timidity” proved costly.(opposite of the word in ” “)
A. arrogance
B. boldness
C. skillfulness
D. cunning
Q. 13 Arrangements were made to handle the “mammoth” gathering tactfully.(opposite of the word in ” “)
A. significant
B. small
C. unruly
D. noisy
Q. 14 He was “engrossed” in his work when I walked in(opposite of the word in ” “)
A. occupied
B. inattentive
C. engaged
D. absent
Q. 15 These are the main. points of the “preceding” paragraph.(opposite of the word in ” “)
A. following
B. previous
C. first
D. last
Q. 16 He made a “shrewd” guess.(opposite of the word in ” “)
A. clever
B. wild
C. incorrect
D. discriminating
Q. 17 He is suffering from a “severe” cough,(opposite of the word in ” “)
A. violent
B. mild
C. bad
D. continuous
Q. 18 “Cumulatively”, the effect of these drugs is quite bad.(opposite of the word in ” “)
A. Individually
B. Obviously
C. Clearly
D. Collectively
Q. 19 He was “conspicuous” because of his colourful shirt.(opposite of the word in ” “)
A. charming
B. ugly
C. small
D. unnoticeable
Q. 20 He hates these “continual” arguments with his friend.(opposite of the word in ” “)
A. repeated
B. irrational
C. occasional
D. regular
Questions: 21 – 30
Each question in this section has a sentence with three labelled part (a), (b), (c).
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any quotation part and indicate your response. If you not find any error, response should be indicated as (d).
Q. 21 She said that ‘she was understanding’ (a)/ ‘his point of view ‘(b)/’ very well’ (c)/. No Error(d)
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 22 All the houses ‘having been washed away'(a)/ ‘by the floods’ (b)/ ‘the villagers sought shelter’ in the panchayat office. (c)/ No error(d)
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 23 It is necessary for us ‘to familiarize with'(a)/ and ‘get used to'(b)/ the ways of the people ‘among whom we live'(c)/. ‘No error'(d)
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 24 ‘The mother asked the child'(a)/ ‘why did she cry out'(b)/ ‘in her sleep'(c)/ ‘No error'(d)
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 25 ‘I asked him that'(a)/ ‘why her was angry'(b)/ ‘but he did not answer'(c)/’No error’
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 26 ‘Had I not taken ill'(a)/ I would ‘have sent you'(b)/ my research paper ‘much earlier'(c)/’No error'(d)
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 27 The barn owl helps the farmer ‘by destroying'(a)/ rats which could, ‘if left unchecked'(b)/ do a lot of ‘damage to the crops'(c)/. ‘No error’
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 28 He ‘had gone'(a)/ home three weeks ago and ‘was expected'(b)/ yesterday, but he ‘has not come'(c)/ yet. ‘No error'(d)
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 29 We ‘must sympathize'(a)/ ‘for other'(b) ‘in their troubles'(c). ‘No error'(d)
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 30 ‘The scientists in America ‘(a)/ ‘are trying for long'(b)/ ‘to discover the genes responsible for ageing'(c)/ ‘No errors’
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Questions: 31 – 40
In this section, look at the word in quotation of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a),(b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No improvement” response will be signified by the letter (d)
Q. 31 When he heard the rhetorical speech of the leader, he was ‘carried along’ by his
enthusiasm
A. carried aloft
B. carried down
C. carried away
D. No improvement
Q. 32 After the heavy rains last week, the water in the lake ‘raised another two feet’
A. rose another two feet
B. arisen another two feet
C. would raise another two feet
D. no improvement
Q. 33 One can live and work in a town without being aware of the daily march of the sun acrossthe sky without ‘never’ seeing the moon and stars
A. seldom
B. hardly
C. ever
D. no improvement
Q. 34 Applications of those ‘who are not graduates’ will be considered
A. whom are graduates
B. whose are graduates
C. whom are only graduates
D. no improvement
Q. 35 It ‘is raining ‘ heavily all through this week
A. has rained
B. rains
C. rained
D. no improvement
Q. 36 The sparrow took no ‘notice about’ the bread
A. notice of
B. notice from
C. notice to
D. no improvement
Q. 37 As he spoke about his achievements, his ‘high’ claims amused us
A. big
B. tall
C. long
D. no improvement
Q. 38 We ought to ‘stand’ for what is right
A. stand at
B. stand on
C. stand up
D. no improvement
Q. 39 He enjoys ‘to tell stories’ to children
A. how to tell stories
B. telling stories
C. to narrate stories
D. no improvement
Q. 40 In a few minutes’ time, when the clock strikes six, I ‘would be waiting’ here for an hour
A. shall be waiting on
B. shall have been waiting
C. shall wait
D. no improvement
Questions: 41 – 50
Each item in this section consists of word in quotation in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the answer sheet accordingly
Q. 41 Suddenly there was a bright flash, followed by a ‘deafening’ explosion
A. dangerous
B. terrifying
C. mild
D. very loud
Q. 42 He showed ‘exemplary’ courage during the crisis
A. usual
B. durable
C. commendable
D. some
Q. 43 When the new teacher entered the classroom, he found the pupils ‘restive’
A. at rest
B. idle
C. quiet
D. impatient
Q. 44 There is no ‘dearth’ of talent in this country
A. scarcity
B. availability
C. plenty
D. absence
Q. 45 The servants ‘retired’ to their quarters
A. entered
B. went away
C. ran away
D. mobilised
Q. 46 The navy gave ‘tactical’ support to the marines
A. sensitive
B. strategic
C. immediate
D. expert
Q. 47 A genius tends to ‘deviate’ from the routine way of thinking
A. dispute
B. disagree
C. distinguish
D. differ
Q. 48 He was greatly ‘debilitated’ by an attack of influenza
A. depressed
B. weakened
C. worried
D. defeated
Q. 49 His effort at helping the poor are ‘laudable’
A. welcome
B. sincere
C. good
D. praiseworthy
Q. 50 His conduct brought him ‘reproach’ from all quarters
A. rebuke
B. sympathy
C. indifference
D. remorse
Questions: 51 – 55
The following five items consist of two statements. Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:
Code:
(a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(b) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Q. 51 Statement I: Petroleum is a mixture of many different hydrocarbons of different densities
Statement II: The grade of petroleum depends mainly on the relative proportion of the
different hydrocarbons
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 52 Statement I: There is high salinity in Red Sea.
Statement II: Rate of evaporation is high in Red Sea
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 53 Statement I: Volcanic eruption is accompanied by earthquakes.
Statement II: Volcanoes erupt water vapours and dust particles in the atmosphere
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 54 Statement I: Plantation farming has mostly been practiced in humid tropics
Statement II: The soil of humid tropics is highly fertile
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 55 Statement I: India has wide variation in population density
Statement II: Factors like agricultural productivity and history of settlements have greatly influenced the population density pattern in India
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 56 A container is first filled with water and then the entire water is replaced by mercury. Mercury has a density of 13.6 * 10³ kg/m³. If X is the weight of the water and Y is the weight if mercury, then
A. X=Y
B. X=13.6Y
C. Y=13.6X
D. None of the above
Q. 57 Density of water is
A. maximum of 0⁰ C
B. minimum of 0⁰ C
C. maximum of 4⁰ C
D. minimum of -4⁰ C
Q. 58 The phosphorous used in the manufacture of safety matches is
A. red phosphorous
B. black phosphorous
C. white phosphorous
D. scarlet phosphorous
Q. 59 Which of the following is not a chemical change?
A. ripening of fruits
B. curdling of milk
C. freezing of water
D. digestion of food
Q. 60 One of the main causes of air pollution in cities is emissions from vehicles like cars and trucks. Cars emit various pollutants which are bad for human health when inhaled, like
1. Nitrogen oxide(NOₓ)
2. carbon monoxide(CO)
3. carbon dioxide(CO₂)
4. benzene
Which of the above pollutants are not tolerated by human beings even at very low levels?
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1,2 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 4 only
Q. 61 Arrange the following centres of AIIMS from east to west:
1. Rishikesh
2. New delhi
3. Patna
4. Bhubaneswar
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 4-3-1-2
B. 4-1-3-2
C. 3-4-2-1
D. 3-2-1-4
Q. 62 Suppose the force of gravitation between two bodies of equal masses is F. If each mass is doubled keeping the distance of separation between them unchanged, the force would become
A. F
B. 2F
C. 4F
D. F/4
Q. 63 A body has a free fall from a height of 20 m. After falling through a distance of 5 m, then body would
A. lose one-fourth of its total energy
B. lose one-fourth of its potential energy
C. gain one-fourth of its potential energy
D. gain three-fourth of its total energy
Q. 64 Soap is sodium or potassium salt of
A. Stearic acid
B. Oleic acid
C. Palmitic acid
D. All of the above
Q. 65 Mass of a particular amount of substance
1. is the amount of matter present in it
2. does not vary from place to place
3. changes with change in gravitational force
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2 only
C. 2,3 only
D. 1 only
Q. 66 Which of the following substances are harmful for health if present in food items?
1. Pesticide residues
2. lead
3. metanil yellow
4. mercury
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1,2 only
B. 1,2,4 only
C. 3,4 only
D. 1,2,3,4 only
Q. 67 In India, glacial terraces known as ‘Karewas’ are found in
A. Sapt Kosi Valley
B. Jhelum Valley
C. Alakananda Valley
D. Teesta Valley
Q. 68 Structurally, the Meghalaya region is a part of
A. Shiwalik Range
B. deccan plateau
C. greater himalaya
D. aravalli range
Q. 69 Two bodies A and B are moving with equal velocities. The mass of B is double that of A. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?
A. momentum of B will be double that of A
B. momentum of A will be double that of B
C. momentum of B will be four times that of A
D. momentum of both A and B will be equal
Q. 70 During solar eclipse
A. the earth comes in between the sun and the moon
B. the moon comes in between the sun and the earth
C. the moon comes exactly halfway between the earth and the sun
D. the sun comes in between the earth and the moon
Q. 71 The S.I unit of acceleration is
A. ms⁻¹
B. ms⁻²
C. cms⁻²
D. kms⁻²
Q. 72 An atom of carbon has 6 protons. Its mass number is 12. How many neutrons are present in an atom of carbon?
A. 12
B. 6
C. 10
D. 14
Q. 73 Which one of the following is a reduction reaction?
A. 2Mg(s)+O₂(g)->2MgO(s)
B. S(s)+O₂->SO₂(g)
C. 2HgO(s)->2Hg(l)+O₂(g)
D. Mg(s)+S(s)->Mg(s)
Q. 74 Which of the commonly used household item(s) release Bisphenol A(BPA) which is an endocrine disruptor and bad for human health?
1. steel utensils
2. Plastic coffee mugs
3. Aluminium utensils
4. Plastic water storage bottles
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 1,2 only
C. 2,4 only
D. 1,2,3 only
Q. 75 The Nagarjuna Sagar Project is located on which one of the following rivers?
A. godavari
B. krishna
C. kavery
D. mahanadi
Q. 76 Consider the following statements:
1. Rajmahal highlands consist of lava flow deposits
2. Bundelkhand geneiss belong to the oldest Achaean rocks of India
Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both 1,2
D. neither 1 nor 2
Q. 77 An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror of focal length 16 cm. If the object is shifted by 8 cm towards the focus, the nature of the image would be
A. real and magnified
B. virtual and magnified
C. real and reduced
D. virtual and reduced
Q. 78 A pencil is placed upright at a distance of 10 cm from a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. The nature of the image of the pencil will be
A. real,inverted and magnified
B. real, erect and magnified
C. virtual, inverted and reduced
D. virtual, erect and magnified
Q. 79 Which one of the following is a conventional energy source?
A. tidal energy
B. geothermal energy
C. solar energy
D. biomass energy
Q. 80 Which one of the following oxides of nitrogen is known as ‘anhydride’ of nitric acid?
A. N₂O
B. N₂O₃
C. NO₂
D. N₂O₅
Q. 81 Which of the following is the chemical name for baking soda?
A. sodium bicarbonate(sodium hydrogen carbonate)
B. sodium carbonate
C. potassium bicarbonate(potassium hydrogen carbonate)
D. potassium carbonate
Q. 82 Which of the following statements about DNA is/are correct?
1. DNA is the hereditary material of all living organisms
2. All segments of DNA code for synthesis of proteins
3. Nuclear DNA is double helical with two nucleotide chains which run anti-parallel
4. DNA is also found in mitochondria
select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1,2,3 only
B. 3,4 only
C. 1,3,4 only
D. 4 only
Q. 83 Which organisation prepares the topographical maps of India?
A. geographical survey of India
B. archaeological survey of India
C. survey of India
D. National atlas and thematic mapping organisation
Q. 84 Which one of the following is not an international boundary line?
A. dresden line
B. durand line
C. maginot line
D. 38th parallel
Q. 85 A lady is standing in front of a plane mirror at a distance of 1 m from it. She walks 60 cm towards the mirror. The distance of her image now from herself(ignoring the thickness of the mirror) is
A. 40 cm
B. 60 cm
C. 80 cm
D. 120 cm
Q. 86 The brightness of a tar depends on its
A. size and temperature only
B. size and distance from the earth
C. size, temperature and mass
D. size, temperature and distance from the earth
Q. 87 When a solid is heated, it turns directly into a gas. This process is called
A. condensation
B. evaporation
C. sublimation
D. diffusion
Q. 88 Which one of the following is water gas?
A. mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen
B. mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen
C. mixture of carbon dioxide and water vapour
D. mixture of carbon monoxide and water vapour
Q. 89 Which of the following statements are correct?
In honey bees
1. Males are haploid
2. workers are sterile and diploid
3. queen develops from diploid larvae that fed on royal jelly
4. honey is collected/made by males
select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 2,3 only
C. 1,2,3 only
D. 1,4 only
Q. 90 The Amarkantak Hills is the source of which of the following rivers?
1. narmada
2. Mahanadi
3. Tapti
4. Son
select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1,2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1,3,4 only
D. 1,2,4 only
Q. 91 Which of the following statements in the context of northern hemisphere is/are correct?
1. vernal equinox occurs on march 21
2. summer solstice occurs on december 22
3. autumnal equinox occurs on september 23
winter solstice occurs on june 21
A. 1 only
B. 1.3 only
C. 2,4 only
D. 1,2,3 only
Q. 92 A glass vessel is filled with water to the rim and a lid is fixed to it tightly. Then it is left inside a freezer for hours. What is expected to happen?
A. the water freezes to ice and the level of ice comes down
B. the water in the glass vessel simply freezes to ice
C. the glass vessel breaks due to expansion as water freezes to ice
D. the water does not freeze at all
Q. 93 A simple circuit contains 12 V battery and a bulb having 24 ohm resistance. When you turn on the switch, the ammeter connected in the circuit would read
A. 0.5 A
B. 2 A
C. 4 A
D. 5 A
Q. 94 Three resistors with magnitudes 2, 4 and 8ohm are connected in. parallel. The equivalent resistance of the would be
A. less than 2 ohm
B. more than 2 ohm but less than 4 ohm
C. 4 ohm
D. 14 ohm
Q. 95 Suppose you have four test tubes labelled as ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ and ‘D’. ‘A’ contains plain water, ‘B’ contains solution of an alkali, ‘C’ contains solution of an acid, and ‘D’ contains solution of sodium chloride. Which one of these solutions will turn phenolphthalein solution pink ?
A. Solution ‘A’
B. Solution ‘B’
C. Solution ‘C’
D. Solution ‘D’
Q. 96 Which one of the following oxides dissolves in water?
A. CuO
B. Al₂O₃
C. Fe₂O₃
D. Na₂O
Q. 97 To prevent heart problems, blood of a normal healthy persqn should have © 1. Low choleserol level.
2. high HDL level.
3. high VLDL level.
4, high LDL level.
Select the correct answer using the code piven below :
(a) Land2only –
(b) 1,2 and 4 only
(c)
(d)
A. 1,2 only
B. 1,2,4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 8 only
Q. 98 Spruce and Cedar are tree varieties of
A. Equatorial forest
B. Temperate, coniferous forest
C. Monsoon forest
D. Temperate deciduous forest
Q. 99 ‘Sal’ tree is a
A. Tropical evergreen tree
B. Tropical semi-evergreen tree
C. Dry deciduous tree
D. Moist deciduous tree
Q. 100 Matter around us can exist in three different states, namely, solid, liquid and gas. The correct order of their compressibility is
A. Liquid < Gas < Solid
B. Solid < Liquid < Gas
C. Gas < Liquid < Solid
D. Solid < Gas < Liquid
Q. 101 The temperature at which a solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure is called its melting point. The melting point of a solid is an indication of
A. strength of the intermolecular forces of attraction
B. strength of the intermolecular forces of repulsion
C. molecular mass
D. molecular size
Q. 102 Consider the circuit in the diagram:
The equivalent resistance of the circuit will be
A. 12 Ω
B. 8(11/2) Ω
C. 9(1/11) Ω
D. 24/25 Ω
Q. 103 Which one of the following elements will not react, with dilute HCl to produce H₂?
A. Hg
B. Al
C. Mg
D. Fe
Q. 104 Which of the following pairs in the figure of vector and disease is/are correctly matched ? Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A. 1,3,4 only
B. 3,4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 2 only
Q. 105 Consider the following statements :
1. All Echinoderms are not marine.
2. Sponges are exclusively marine.
3. Insects are found in all kinds of habitats.
4. Many primates are arboreal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
A. 1,3,4 only
B. 3,4 only
C. 2,4 only
D. 3 only
Q. 106 Areas which are engines for economic growth
supported by quality infrastructure and complemented by an attractive fiscal package
are known as
A. Export Processing Zones
B. Duty Free Tariff Zones
C. Special Economic Zones
D. Technology Parks
Q. 107 Deserts, fertile plains and moderately forested mountains are the characteristic features of which one of the following regions of India?
A. South-Western border along Arabian Sea
B. Coromandel Coast
C. North-Eastern Frontier
D. North-Western India
Q. 108 A racing car accelerates on a straight road. from rest to a speed of 50 m/s in 25s. Assuming uniform acceleration of the car throughout, the distance covered in this time will be
A. 625 m
B. 1250 m
C. 2500 m
D. 50 m
Q. 109 A man’weighing 70 kg is coming down in a lift. If the cable.of the lift breaks suddenly, the weight of the man would become
A. 70 kg
B. 35 kg
C. 140 kg
D. zero
Q. 110 A given’ conductor carrying a current of 1 A produces an amount of heat equal to 2000 J. If the current through the conductor is doubled, the amount of heat produced will be
A. 2000 J
B. 4000 J
C. 8000 J
D. 1000 J
Q. 111 Which one of the following carbon compounds will not give a sooty flame ?
A. Benzene
B. Hexane
C. Naphthalene
D. Anthracene
Q. 112 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given in the figure and match with the solution figure
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 113 In Thar region, the shifting sand dunes are locally known as
A. Dhrian
B. Daurs
C. Dhoros
D. Dhaya
Q. 114 The impulse on a particle due to a force acting on it during a given time interval is equal to the change in its
A. force
B. momentum
C. work done
D. energy
Q. 115 Which one of the following statements with regard to expansion of materials due to heating is not correct?
A. As ice melts, it expands uniformly up to 4⁰ C
B. mercury thermometer works using the principle of expansion due to heating
C. small gap is kept between two rails to allow for expansion due to heating
D. the length of metallic wire increases when its temperature is increased
Q. 116 Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1,2,3 only
B. 1,2 only
C. 1,4 only
D. 2 only
Q. 117 Which one of the following is not a form of stored energy?
A. nuclear energy
B. potential energy
C. electrical energy
D. chemical energy
Q. 118 The motion of a car along a straight path is shown by the following figure:
The car starts from O and reaches at A, B and C at different instants of time. During its motion from O to C and back to B, the distance covered and the magnitude of the displacement are, respectively
A. 25 km and 60 km
B. 95 km and 35 km
C. 60 km and 25 km
D. 85 km and 35 km
Q. 119 Jelep La pass is located in
A. punjab himalayas
B. sikkim himalayas
C. kumaon himalayas
D. kashmir himalayas
Q. 120 What is the number of mole(s) of H₂(g) required to saturate one mole benzene?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 121 Which one of the following pairs of the schedule in the constitution of India and its content is not correctly matched?
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 122 Consider the following statements :
1. The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to form new States and to alter the areas, boundaries or names of existing States by passing a resolution in simple majority.
2. Jammu and Kashmir has been given special status under Article 370 of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 123 The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign his office by writing, addressed to the
A. President of India
B. Prime Minister of India
C. Vice President of India
D. Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Q. 124 Who among the following is the founder of the ‘Bachpan Bachao Andolan’ ?
A. Shantha Sinha
B. Kuilaah Satyarent
C. Aruna Roy
D. Anil Agarwal
Q. 125 Which of the following are the features of Pradhan Mentri Jan Dhan Yojana?
1. Ensuring financial inclusion of the poor
2. Enhancing financial literacy
3. Provision for accidental insurance to account holders
4. Allowing bank accounts with zero balance
Select the correct answer using the code given” below:
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 1,2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1,2,3 and 4
Q. 126 The Election Commission recognizes a political party as a national party if
1. it secures at least six percent of the total valid -votes polled in four or more States in a general election to the Lok Sabha or to ‘the State Legislative Assemblies.
2. it wins at least four seats in a general election to the Lok Sabha from any State or States. , Select the correct answer using the code given
below :
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 127 Which one of the following is not a feature of the Nehru Mahalanobis model of
Development strategy ?
A. Development of capital goods industries
B. Major involvement of the State in the economy
C. Industrial deregulation and disinvestment in the public sector
D. Enhancing the scope and importance of the public sector
Q. 128 Which of the following best explains the stated broad vision and aspirations of the Twelfth Five Year Plan(2012-2017)?
A. faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth
B. modernisation of industries and strengthiening infrastructure
C. enhancing agricultural and rural incomes
D. checking inflation and strengthening non-economic variables like nutritional
requirements, health and family planning
Q. 129 Nabhah sparsam diptam is the motto of
A. central industrial security force
B. indian air force
C. ISRO
D. indian navy
Q. 130 Consider the following statements:
1. The amendment procedure has been provided in Article 368 of the constitution of India
2. The consent of the states is mandatory for all Amendments to the constitution of India Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both 1,2
D. neither 1 nor 2
Q. 131 Which of the following statements relating to the Comptroller and Auditor General(CAG) of India is/are correct?
1. The CAG can attend the sittings of the Committee on Public Accounts
2. The CAG can attend the sittings of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
3. The jurisdiction of CAG is co-extensive with powers of the Union Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2,3 only
C. 1,2 only
D. 1,2,3 only
Q. 132 Which of the following statements relating to election as the President of India is/are correct?
1. A person above the age of thirty-five years is eligible for election as the President of India
2. The President of India is eligible for re-election for more than one term
3. A person is not eligible for election as the President of India if the person holds an office of profit
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1,2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1,2,3
D. 3 only
Q. 133 Which one of the following nations adopted its first democratic Constitution in September 2015?
A. bhutan
B. myanmar
C. nepal
D. singapore
Q. 134 Who among the following was defeated by Novak Djokovic in the final of the US Open Tennis Tournament Men’s Singles event (2015)?
A. Tommy Robredo
B. Fabio Fognini
C. Roger Federer
D. Pablo Cuevas
Q. 135 The citizens of India do not have which of the following Fundamental Rights?
A. right to reside and settle in any part of India
B. right to acquire, hold and disperse of property
C. right to practice any profession
D. right to form co-operative societies
Q. 136 Which one among the following Acts for the first time allowed Indians, at least theoretically, entry to higher posts in British Indian administration?
A. character act, 1813
B. character act, 1833
C. charles wood’s education despatch, 1854
D. indian councils act, 1861
Q. 137 Consider the Consider the following statements about Rashtrakuta kings :
1. They were ardent patrons of Shaivism and did not support other forms of religion.
2. They promoted only Sanskrit scholars and gave them large grants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both l and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 138 After a ban on unscientific coal mining and transportation of coal in this region by the National Green Tribunal, many of those engaged in the activity have been switching to turmeric farming for their livelihood. The region referred above is
A. Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya
B. Koriya, Chhattisgarh
C. Angul, Odisha
D. Bardhaman, West Bengal
Q. 139 Which of the following statements about the first act of the Revolt of 1857 is/are true ?
(1) It occurred in Meerut when two sepoys stole a superior officer’s rifle.
(2) It began when the Rani of Jhansi declared war on the British.
(3) It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Meerut.
(4) It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Barrackpore.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A. 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only
Q. 140 Which of the following statements about Gandhiji’s Hind Swaraj writtén in 1909 is/are true?
1. Hind Swaraj offers a civilizational concept of the Indian nation.
2. Hind Swaraj states that Parliamentary democracy was necessary for the amelioration of the sufferings of Indians.
3. Hind Sweraj argues that Industrial capitalism was responsible for the immorality of
society.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 3 only
B. 1,2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 only
Q. 141 Division of labour often involves
1. specialized economic activity.
2. highly distinct productive roles.
3. involving everyone in many of the same activities.
4. individuals engage in only a single activity and are dependent on others to meet their various needs.
Select the correct answer using below:
A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Q. 142 Who among the following is/was associated with Maharashtra Andhashraddha Nirmoolan Samiti?
A. Chandi Prasad Bhatt
B. Narendra Dabholkar
C. G.D. Agrawal
D. Kailash Satyarthi
Q. 143 Consider the following statements :
1. Warren Hastings set up the. Calcutta Madrassa for the study and teaching of Muslim law related subjects.
2. Jonathan Duncan started a Sanskrit | College at Varanasi for the study of Hindu law and philosophy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 144 Consider the following statements about Sufism in India
1. Pilgrimage called ziyarat to tombs of Sufi saints is an important feature.
2. The most influential group of Sufis in India were the Chishtis.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 145 Which of the following thinkers and movements influenced the development of Gandhiji’s political ideas?
1. Henry David Thoreau
2. John Ruskin
3. John Milton
4. Jainism
Select the correct answer using the a given below :
A. 1 only
B. 1,2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Q. 146 Consider the following statements:
1. The Arthashastra is the first Indian text to define a State.
2. The main concerns of the Arthashastra are theoretical issues like the origins of the state.
Which of the statements Shown above is/are correct ?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both 1,2
D. neither 1 nor 2
Q. 147 Which of the following is/are not FDi policy change(s) after 2010?
1. Permission of 100 percent FDI in automotive sector
2. Permitting of foreign airlines to make FDI up to 49 percent
3. Permission of up to 51 percent FDI under the government approval route in multi-brand retailing, subject to specified conditions
4. Amendment of policy on FDi in single-brand product retail trading for aligning with global practices.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2,4 only
C. 1,2 only
D. 1,2,3 only
Q. 148 Which of the following is/are the component/components of the Integrated Power Development Scheme launched by the Government of India recently?
1. Strengthening of sub-transmission and distribution networks in the urban areas
2. Metering of distribution transformers/feeders/consumers in the rural areas
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both 1 and 2
D. neither 1 nor 2
Q. 149 Which of the following statements about Brahmo Samaj is/are correct?
1. The brahmo marriage act of 1872 allowed inter-caste and widow re-marriage only if the contracting parties declared themselves to be non-Hindus
2. Keshub Chandra Sen arranged the marriage of his minor daughter with the Maharaja or Burdwan
3. Keshub Chandra Sen’s followers broke away to form the Naba Brahmo Samaj
4. The Brahmo Samaj gre from a small elite group to a mass movement in the 19th century.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 1,2 only
C. 2,3 only
D. 1,2,3,4
Q. 150 Which of the following statements about the aims of the United Nations is/are correct?
1. To foster a mutual appreciation of each other’ culture and literature among nations
2. To achieve international co-operation in solving problems of an economic, social,cultural or humanitarian character
3. To foster relations between scholars and academics in different countries
4. To organize international conferences
select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 1,2,4 only
C. 2 only
D. 1,2,3 only
| Answer Sheet |
||||||||||
| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | A | C | C | D | C | B | C | C | A | D |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | B | B | B | B | A | B | B | A | D | C |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | A | D | A | B | A | A | D | A | B | B |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | C | A | C | D | A | A | B | C | B | B |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | D | C | D | A | B | B | D | B | D | A |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | B | A | B | C | A | C | C | A | C | D |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | A | C | B | D | B | D | B | B | A | B |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | B | B | C | C | B | C | A | D | D | D |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | A | B | C | A | C | D | C | A | C | D |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | B | C | A | A | B | D | A | B | D | B |
| Question | 101 | 102 | 103 | 104 | 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 | 110 |
| Answer | A | C | A | B | B | C | D | A | D | C |
| Question | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| Answer | B | D | A | B | A | B | C | D | B | C |
| Question | 121 | 122 | 123 | 124 | 125 | 126 | 127 | 128 | 129 | 130 |
| Answer | B | C | D | B | D | C | C | A | B | A |
| Question | 131 | 132 | 133 | 134 | 135 | 136 | 137 | 138 | 139 | 140 |
| Answer | A | C | C | C | B | B | D | A | C | C |
| Question | 141 | 142 | 143 | 144 | 145 | 146 | 147 | 148 | 149 | 150 |
| Answer | B | B | C | C | C | A | A | A | A | C |