SSC CGL Tier-II 13 September 2019 English Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL English

Tier-II (13 Sept 2019)  

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order.

A. Using his mother’s show-business contacts, Charlie became a professional entertainer in 1897. 

B. He spent his early childhood with his mother, the singer Hannah Hall, after she and his father separated. 

C. Even today Charlie is widely regarded as the greatest comic artist of the screen and one of the most important figures in motion-picture history. 

D. Charlie Chaplin was born on April 16, 1889 in London and named after his father, a British music-hall entertainer. 

A CBDA 

B CABD 

C DABC 

D DBAC 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. All human beings must learn to live in ______ with nature. 

A kindness 

B pleasure 

C admiration 

D harmony 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 3 Find a word that is the ANTONYM OF animosity 

A sarcasm 

B benevolence 

C bitterness 

D contamination 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 4 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice(active/passive voice) form of a given sentence 

A I regret the way I treated you 

B I regret the way you were treated by me 

C I regret the way I am treating you 

D I regret the way you treated me. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 5 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. I owe a big debt of gratitude to my mentor, Ms. Pallavi Dutta. 

A A big debt of gratitude had been owed by me to my mentor,Ms. Pallavi Dutta. 

B A big debt of gratitude was owing by me to my mentor,Ms. Pallavi Dutta. 

C A big debt of gratitude will be owed by my mentor, Ms. Pallavi Dutta. 

D A big debt of gratitude is owed by me to my mentor, Ms Pallavi Dutta. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 6 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Mrs. Sethi said to her students, “Would you like to go outdoors for the yoga class?” 

A Mrs Sethi asked her students whether they would like to go outdoors for the yoga class 

B Mrs Sethi asked her students about their liking to go outdoors for the yoga class. 

C Mrs Sethi told her students that would you like to go outdoors for the yoga class. 

D Mrs Sethi said to her students will you like to go outdoors for the yoga class? 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 7 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence.. Did the boys take permission to go out today? 

A Are the boys taking permission to go out today? 

B Was permission to go out today taken by the boys? 

C Has permission to going out today been taken by the boys? 

D Had the boys taken permission to go out today? 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 8 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. My friends persuaded me that I should forgive him. 

A I was persuaded by my friends that he should be forgiven 

B I will have been persuaded by my friends to forgive him 

C I am being persuaded by my friends that he should be forgiven. 

D I will be persuaded by my friends that he should be forgiven. 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 9 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. ‘Let’s not go out today. It’s going to be a hot day,” he said to me. 

A He suggested that we shouldn’t be going out that day as it is going to be a hot day. 

B He is suggesting that they shouldn’t go out today as it was going to be a hot day. 

C He suggested that we shouldn’t go out that day as it was going to be a hot day 

D He had suggested that they shouldn’t go out today as it was going to be a hot day 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. 

Comprehension: Dust storms of May 2018, in Northern India, contributed to the deteriorating air quality in the region and the capital city of Delhi, with implications for human health, a study found. The high death toll from the severe dust storms that lashed the region was mainly attributed to the intense winds, which surprised even scientists and meteorologists. But apart from the immediate damage to life and property, drastic changes in air quality from the dust engulfing the region affected far more people with potential implications for human health, stated a team of researchers who analysed the impact of the spell of dust storms that struck the region that month. They reported increases in particulate matter, mainly in Delhi and urged for an early 

Dust storms commonly occur in the Indo-Gangetic Plains – the fertile plains in northern India that stretch all the way to the East – from March to May, the pre-monsoon season. Westerly winds typically bring loose sand and soil particles, picked up from the Arabian Peninsula or the Thar Desert in North Western India, to the Indo-Gangetic Plains. The dust tends to worsen air quality over the Indo-Gangetic Plains, home to around 900 million people, which can have far- reaching effects on human health. While dust storms are a regular feature in the region, the May 2018 dust storms specifically had a death toll of about 100 people, with around 200 people injured. 

“We are concerned that the dust impacts the health of people who get exposed,” said a senior professor. However, he also observed that scattered rains occurring soon after the dust storms tend to clean up the dust, improving air quality. During October-November, densely populated cities like Delhi and Kanpur in the Indo-Gangetic Plains are vulnerable to wind borne long-range air pollution from crop residue burning in the North, and now this study “shows the effect of dust storms during the March-May time frame,” Sarkar pointed out. “This really puts the Indo-Gangetic valley in a unique spot in terms of it being targeted by these different hazardous conditions which are mostly outsourced from other areas.” 

Q. 10 Dust storms in Delhi are a cause of concern as they 

A cause strong winds. 

B affect Delhi alone. 

C challenge scientists 

D are a health hazard. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 11 Dust storms are caused by 

A winds from the North. 

B winds from the South. 

C Westerly winds. 

D Easterly winds. 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 12 The notable fact about pollution in Oct to Nov is that _____ 

A Westerly winds bring loose sand and soil particles 

B dust storms are a regular feature. 

C it is caused by crop burning in North India 

D it is caused by the winds from Thar Desert 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 13 By saying, ‘This really puts the Indo-Gangetic valley in a unique spot’ the writer refers to the fact that 

A the Indo- Gangetic valley receives its pollution from other areas or factors. 

B the valley is affected by pollution caused by hazardous industries. 

C intense winds in the valley surprise even scientists and meteorologists. 

D studies find that only the valley faces pollution all year round. 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 14 Choose the correct sequence in which events take place – 

A Strong winds- poor air quality -dust storms- – death and disease 

B Dust storms- poor air quality- strong winds -death and disease 

C Dust storms – death and disease-strong winds- poor air quality 

D Strong winds- dust storms- poor air quality- death and disease 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 15 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. New ideas on marketing were brainstormed and all the members agreed to try them forthwith. B. Upon their return from anoff-site camp Ravi and Sunil decided to hold a meeting. C. As soon as everyone assembled, the meeting which lasted for four hours, began. D. Its purpose was to replace some of the old ways of marketing used by the company with new ones. 

A ACBD 

B BDAC 

C CDBA 

D BCDA 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 16 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- I’m thinking about buying a new car as my old one is giving me trouble. 

A thinks to buying 

B thinking of buying 

C thought to buy 

D no improvement 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 17 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. exercising a compelling charm 

A dismissive 

B vapid 

C charismatic 

D uninspiring 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 18 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. They shifted the venue of the conference. 

A The venue of the conference was shifted. 

B The venue of the conference has been shifted 

C They are shifting the venue of the conference 

D They were shifting the venue of the conference 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 19 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. There is a story about an ancient Indian sage who was called ugly names by a passerby. B. The sage then said, “Well then, I have not accepted your offering” and walked away. C. He finally asked the man, “If an offering is not accepted who does it belong to?” at which the man replied, “To the person who offered it.” D. The sage listened unperturbed till the man ran out of words. 

A CABD 

B ACDB 

C DCBA 

D ADCB 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 20 Identify the word that is misspelt. 

A definitely 

B accidentally 

C conscience 

D chargable 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 21 Select the segment which has an error. Over the years, the writer Amish has evolved to what millions of youngsters aspires to be today – an intellectual. 

A Over the years 

B aspires to be today 

C Amish has evolved 

D millions of youngsters 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 22 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. Rohit was ______ when he took important decisions without consulting the family. 

A cutting the red tape 

B told to get a new lease of life 

C in the same boat 

D told to fight his own battles himself 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 23 Select the segment which has an error Each film will be checked by a government-appointed censor board along public exhibition. 

A along public exhibition. 

B each film 

C by a government-appointed censor board 

D will be checked 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 24 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- The books those I gave you is mine . Please don’t misplace them or lend them to someone else. 

A that I gave you are mine 

B no improvement 

C that I gave to you is my 

D which I gives to you is mine 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 25 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order.

A. It was called the ‘take ownership’ programme, and it worked.

B. The programme was a huge success in reviving the corporate culture of the bank and in reviving the bank’s stock price.

C. My colleagues and I felt and behaved like owners, because we actually were.

D. I once worked for a large bank that gave stock options to all of its employees. 

A CDBA 

B DACB 

C ADCB 

D CABD 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 26 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Kapil said to his team, “If you don’t perform well in this match, you will not get a place in the team.” 

A Kapil told his team if you don’t perform well in this match, you will not get a place in the team. 

B Kapil warned his team that if they didn’t perform well in that match, they would not get a place in the team 

C Kapil warned to his team, if they don’t perform well in this match, they will not get a place in the team. 

D . Kapil said to his team that if you don’t perform well in that match, you will not get a place in the team. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 27 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- The author is not well known. Few people have heard of him. 

A no improvement 

B A little bit of people 

C A few person 

D Few people 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 28 Select the segment which has an error. It is said that in 2019 the Indian Stock Market will fall drastically and we can expect 

A we can expect 

B It is be said 

C that in 2019 

D the Indian Stock Market will fall 

Answer: B

 

Q. 29 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “I will be twenty five tomorrow”, said Vidushi. 

A Vidushi is saying that she will be twenty five by tomorrow. 

B Vidushi said that she would be twenty five the next day. 

C Vidushi will say that she would be twenty five tomorrow. 

D .Vidushi had told me she would be twenty five the next day. 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 30 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. My grandmother believes that drinking a glass of milk at bedtime is essential for health. 

A It is believed by my grandmother that drinking a glass of milk at bedtime is essential for health. 

B It is being believed by my grandmother that drinking a glass of milk at bedtime is essential for health.. 

C It will have been believed by my grandmother that drinking a glass of milk at bedtime is essential for health. 

D It has been believed by my grandmother that drinking a glass of milk at bedtime is essential for health 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 31 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. Radha is unable to continue working in this office. Hard work is ______ on her health.. 

A making her meet both ends 

B blowing hot and cold 

C It will have been believed by my grandmother that drinking a glass of milk at bedtime is essential for health. 

D It has been believed by my grandmother that drinking a glass of milk at bedtime is essential for health. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 32 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. Radha is unable to continue working in this office. Hard work is ______ on her health. 

A making her meet both ends 

B blowing hot and cold 

C keeping an eye 

D volatile 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 33 Find a word that is the synonym of – mercurial 

A interchangeable 

B predictable 

C permanent 

D volatile 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 34 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- My recent London trip was really special because I was being able to meet my nephew and his family after many years. 

A was able to meet 

B am unable to 

C no improvement 

D has able to 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and fill in each blank with words chosen from the options given. 

Comprehension: Uncertainty looms over the revival of Naini Lake, a waterbody in the middle of Model Town in North Delhi, due to ______ (1) in the opinions of residents and local bodies regarding its desilting and ______ (2). While the Corporation claimed that the lake ______ (3) for years and several attempts by them to initiate a drive to desilt it were halted because of lack of funds or ______ (4) from locals, residents alleged that it is ______ (5) fresh water lake and is free from silt, and only a water treatment plant will be enough to resolve the problem. 

Q. 35 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1 

A feuds 

B protest 

C objections 

D differences 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 36 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2 

A evacuation 

B beautification 

C moderation 

D resolution 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 37 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3 

A is desilted 

B is not to be desilted 

C hasn’t been desilted 

D has desilted 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 38 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4 

A activation 

B applause 

C resistance 

D assault 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 39 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5 

A any 

B some 

C the 

D a 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 40 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The interviewer said, “Rajiv, I’m impressed with you.” 

A The interviewer says I am impressed with Rajiv 

B The interviewer told to Rajiv that he is impressed with him 

C The interviewer told Rajiv that he was impressed with him. 

D The interviewer said to Rajiv that he had been impressed with you. 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. 

Comprehension: Parents all over Iceland’s capital Reykjavik embark on a two-hour evening walk around their neighbourhood every weekend, checking on youth hangouts as a 10 pm curfew approaches. The walk in Reykjavik is one step toward Iceland’s success in turning around a crisis in teenage drinking. 

Focusing on local participation and promoting more music and sports options for students, an island nation in the North Atlantic has dried up a teenage culture of drinking and smoking. Icelandic teenagers now have one of the lowest rates of substance abuse in Europe. 

The Icelandic Centre for Social Research and Analysis, the institute pioneering the project for the past two decades, says it currently advises 100 communities in 23 countries, from Finland to Chile, on cutting teenage substance abuse. “The key to success is to create healthy communities and by that get healthy individuals, ” said Inga Dora Sigfusdottir, a sociology professor who founded the Youth of Iceland programme, which now has rebranded as Planet Youth. 

The secret, she says, is to keep young people busy and parents engaged without talking much about drugs or alcohol. That stands in sharp contrast to other anti-abuse programmes, which try to sway teenagers with school lectures and scary, disgusting ads showing smokers’ rotten lungs or eggs in a frying pan to represent an intoxicated brain. 

“Telling teenagers not to use drugs can backlash and actually get them curious to try them,” Ms Sigfusdottir said. In 1999, when thousands of teenagers would gather in Reykjavik every weekend, surveys showed 56% of Icelandic 16- year-olds drank alcohol and about as many had tried smoking. 

Years later, Iceland has the lowest rates for drinking and smoking among the 35 countries measured in the 2015 European School Survey Project on Alcohol and Other Drugs. 

On average, 80% of European 16-year-olds have tasted alcohol at least once, compared with 35% in Iceland, the only country where more than half of those students completely abstains from alcohol. 

Denmark, another wealthy Nordic country, has the highest rates of teenage drinking, along with Greece, Hungary and the Czech Republic, where 92% to 96% have consumed alcohol. 

In the US, teen drinking is a significant health concern, because many US teenagers are driving cars and do not have access to good public transport like teenagers in Europe. 

Reykjavik mayor Dagur B. Eggertsson said the Icelandic plan “is all about society giving better options” for teens than substance abuse. He believes the wide variety of opportunities that now keep students busy and inspired has dramatically altered the country’s youth culture. 

Local municipalities like Reykjavik have invested in sport halls, music schools and youth centres.To make the programmes widely available, parents are offered a 500 US dollar annual voucher toward sports or music programmes for their children. 

Researchers say the Planet Youth prevention model is evolving constantly because it is based on annual surveys to detect trends and measure policy effectiveness. By law, introduced when Icelandic police routinely dealt with alcohol- fuelled street gatherings, children under 12 are not allowed to be outside after 8pm without parents and those 13 to 16 not past 10pm. 

“We tell the kids if they are out too late, polite and nice, and then they go home,” said Heidar Atlason, a veteran member of the patrol. Over Iceland’s harsh winter, one parent admits, evenings sometimes pass without running into any students. 

 

Q. 41 Parents in Reykjavik take an evening walk at night in order to 

A remain fit and healthy by avoiding drinking at night 

B keep a watch on teenagers to ensure they don’t get into the habit of drinking 

C meet other parents to know and discuss how to control teenagers 

D enjoy the evening stroll with other parents after dinner 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 42 What is dramatic about the figures of teenage drinking in Iceland? 

A They’ve remained the same over the years 

B They’ve become the lowest in Europe 

C They’ve gone up by 36% 

D They’ve shot down by 96% 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 43 The Icelandic Centre for Social Research and Analysis does the work of 

A showing teenagers anti-abuse programmes, which stop teenagers from drinking 

B advising many countries on controlling use of drugs etc. by young adults 

C legally allowing children 12 years and more to remain outside their homes after 6 

D going around at night with patrolling groups in many European countries. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 44 Teenage drinking in many countries like Denmark, Greece, Hungary, etc has been reported as 

A completely eradicated. 

B the lowest in the world. 

C low compared to Iceland. 

D the highest in the world 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 45 “Cutting teenage substance abuse” refers to 

A teenagers consuming hazardous substances such as alcohol and drugs. 

B parents shaming their young children for their bad habits. 

C reducing consumption of drugs and alcohol among young adults. 

D teenagers who consume alcohol abusing their parents. 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 46 The programme Planet Youth was started by 

A The Icelandic Centre for Social Research and Analysis 

B the local municipality of Reykjavik 

C Inga Dora Sigfusdottir 

D Dagur B. Eggertsson 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 47 Which of the following does not contribute to the success of Planet Youth programme? 

A Enacting laws against late night movement of teenagers 

B Arranging street gatherings of teenagers 

C Arranging opportunities for music, sports etc. 

D Ensuring parental control and influence 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 48 From the passage one can conclude that 

A bad habits can be checked by engaging teens in alternative activities 

B by showing smokers’ diseased lungs to teens, parents can influence them 

C parents must pay for sports and other activities for their children. 

D strict punishment is needed as it acts as a deterrent. 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 49 The word from the passage that means ‘change the image of an organisation or program’ is 

A abstain 

B rebrand 

C invest 

D embark 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 50 ‘Over Iceland’s harsh winter, one parent admits, evenings sometimes pass without running into any students.’ This means – 

A parents are not motivated to get involved in the programme. 

B students are not bothered about the efforts made for them. 

C the programme is having the right impact on teenagers 

D authorities are disappointed that the programme has failed. 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- The masses, though well intentioned, preferable to remain passive spectators. 

A prefer to remain 

B prefers to remaining 

C No improvement. 

D had preferred to remaining 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 52 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The old lady said, “May God bless you and give you all you desire in life!” 

A The old lady says that may God bless you and give you all you desire in life. 

B The old lady said that God may bless you and give you all you desire in life 

C The old lady said that God will bless me and give me all I desire in life 

D The old lady wished that God would bless me and give me all I desired in life 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 53 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. They are selling very good stationery here. 

A very good stationery sells here. 

B Very good stationery is being sold here. 

C Stationery selling here is very good. 

D Stationery selling has been very good here. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 54 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given The act of compelling or forcing authority on others. 

A aspersion 

B volition 

C coercion 

D scion 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 55 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A.This move is part of the government’s reform agenda for PSBs under Enhanced Access and Service Excellence Programme (EASE) 2.0. B. Banks have already agreed to keep branches operational for customers for uniform working hours in one location and this will be another step towards standardising operating hours. C. Under EASE a banker’s panel has recommended that every region adopt one of three six-hour time slots — 9 am to 3 pm, 10 am to 4 pm or 11 am to 5 pm. D. Public sector banks (PSBs) across the country will soon have standard operating hours as per a recent move. 

A BCDA 

B CDBA 

C DCBA 

D DACB 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 56 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Were all formalities completed by you? 

A Did you complete all formalities? 

B Have you completed all formalities? 

C Have you been completing all formalities? 

D Will you complete all formalities? 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 57 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “Don’t use your mobile while crossing the road,” I said to him. 

A I told him not to use his mobile phone while crossing the road. 

B I advised him not to use his mobile phone while crossing the road. 

C I am advising him not to use his mobile phone while crossing the road. 

D I told him not to use his mobile phone while crossing the road. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 58 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. He tries to perform well but good projects done by him are______. He needs to put in extra effort 

A on edge 

B walking on air 

C few and far between 

D going with the flow 

Answer: C

 

Instructions Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

Q. 59 A. In the study, researchers found that kids who experienced their growth spurt late had lower than average bone density in young adulthood.

B. Teens who hit puberty late may end up with weaker bones, a new study finds.

C. However, they continue to have lower bone strength even after they finish growing and may be at greater risk for osteoporosis in adulthood.

D. These later maturing teens do catch up with early maturing teens in terms of bone strength. 

A ACDB 

B BADC 

C BCDA 

D ADCB 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 60 A. Having cancer is often one of the most stressful experiences in a person’s life.

B. They also allow people to learn from others facing similar situations .

C. The groups are gaining popularity these days as they allow volunteers to talk with those who are living with cancer.

D. But these days there are support groups that help patients cope with the emotional aspects of cancer by providing an opportunity to share feelings and challenges they face with others. 

A CBDA 

B ADCB 

C DCBA 

D ACBD 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 61 Select the segment which has an error. Two American cities, witnessed the shooting and resulting in mass fatalities over the weekend. 

A over the weekend 

B Two American cities 

C witnessed shooting 

D and resulting in mass fatalities 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 62 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. She said to her friend, “Where did you go yesterday?” 

A She asked her friend where she had gone the day before 

B She asked her friend where had she gone the day before. 

C She asked her friend where she was going yesterday. 

D She asked her friend where she went yesterday 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’ 

Q. 63 Word by word reading lead to the development of another bad habit which is the habit of reading aloud. 

A lead to develops 

B leads to the development 

C No improvement 

D leading to the developing 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 64 My friend did not understand the story. She asked me to explain it to her . 

A to explain it to her 

B no improvement 

C to explaining it for her 

D can I explain that to her 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 65 Select the segment which has an error. Instead of helping her mother in the kitchen, Rekha was on her mobile talking to her friend. 

A talking to her friend 

B of helping 

C at the kitchen 

D on her mobile 

Answer: C 

Q. 66 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order.

A. The ingredients must therefore be of the finest quality and in the right proportions.

B. When you have them right and keep practicing you are sure to bake some of the yummiest cakes.

C. Success in life is just like baking a cake that requires many things.

D. Firstly, unless you have the right ingredients and recipe it is not going to work 

A BADC 

B CDAB 

C CABD 

D BCDA 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 67 Select the segment which has an error. Please go out and check if it is still raining. 

A and check 

B if it is 

C yet raining 

D Please go out 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 68 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- My new office is on the first floor of the new office complex. 

A no improvement 

B over first floor 

C on the first floor 

D at above floor 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 69 Select the segment which has an error It was a really bad movie- a worse movie I’ve ever seen in my life. 

A in my life 

B I’ve ever seen 

C was a really 

D a worse 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 70 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. found everywhere 

A scarce 

B rare 

C unusual 

D omnipresent 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 71 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence The government has decided to ______ GST on some items in order to help small traders. 

A steer clear of 

B roll back 

C wash away 

D crack down on 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 72 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. If your actions are ______ what you say, no one is going to believe you. 

A contrary for 

B contrary with 

C contrary to 

D contrary at 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 73 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The mother said to her son, “You always do what you want. Do you always have to be so ______? 

A stubborn 

B reasoning 

C withdrawn 

D awkward 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 74 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order.

A. Creating a relaxing bedroom environment is very important too, and this can be done using a calming, subtle fragrance..

B. It is possible to retrain your brain to have a sound sleep.

C. This is possible if you make sure your room is undisturbed, quiet and dark.

D. Start by regulating the times you go to bed and get up. 

A BDCA 

B ADBC 

C BCAD 

D DACB 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 75 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. The residents of my colony ______ in trying to find out about the increasing number of car thefts. 

A hit a purple patch 

B hit the sack 

C beat about the bush 

D pulled all the stops 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 76 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- It takes me within 15 minutes to walk to the metro station from my house. 

A take me most of 

B no improvement 

C takes me about 

D takes me going 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. When you ______ it is best to be patient and have faith in your inner strength. 

A remain on high alert 

B keep someone at an arm’s length 

C call a spade a spade 

D find yourself in troubled waters 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 78 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- When we were on holiday in Kerala, we were visiting beautiful tea terraces and spice gardens. 

A visited any 

B are visit a few 

C visited many 

D no improvement 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 79 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. The belief that events are predetermined and therefore cannot be changed 

A fatalism 

B chasm 

C autism 

D prism 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 80 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. Spoon the brownie batter into prepared pan and bake for 30 to 40 minutes. 

B. Now beat in eggs and vanilla extract, and add cocoa and mix until well combined. 

C. To make chocolate chip brownies mix together melted butter, brown sugar and white sugar using a wooden spoon or hand mixer. 

D. Next, stir in flour and salt and mix until flour is incorporated, and then add some chocolate chips. 

A CDBA 

B ACDB 

C CABD 

D ADCB 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 81 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The airport helper said, “Should I fetch you a trolley?” 

A The helper had said he would be fetching me a trolley. 

B The airport helper is asking me that he will fetch a trolley. 

C The airport helper asked me if he should fetch me a trolley. 

D The airport helper said he will go to fetch me a trolley. 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 82 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- Would you like to speak in English or Hindi? 

A like to speaking 

B liking to speak 

C no improvement 

D liked speaking 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 83 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The salesgirl said, “Forgive me but this dress is already sold.” 

A The salesgirl said that she is sorry but this dress is already sold. 

B The salesgirl begged forgiveness and regretted that that dress was already sold. 

C The salesgirl asked to be forgiven but this dress was already sold. 

D The salesgirl said to me to forgive her but this dress was sold. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 84 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. The exact opposite 

A prosthesis 

B aesthete 

C analogous 

D antithesis 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 85 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order.

A. She started the Udaipur-based organisation Shikshantar to create a space for self directed learning called ‘unschooling’.

B. It also organizes week-long camps where children involve themselves in local communities and interact with other kids who don’t attend school.

C. Nidhi Jain has been an unschooling parent for over two decades.

D. The organisation arranges everything from internships in filmmaking to cooking for unschooled kids. 

A DBAC 

B CBAD 

C ACDB 

D CADB 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 86 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “If the rains don’t stop we will have to move the animals to another place,”said the zoo official. 

A The zoo official had been saying that if the rains don’t stop they would have to move the animals to another place. 

B The zoo official said that if the rain didn’t stop they would have to move the animals to another place. 

C The zoo official will say that if the rains don’t stop they would have to move the animals to another place. 

D The zoo official said that if the rains are not stopping they would have to move the animals to another place. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 87 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. touching along the side or boundary 

A inconspicuous 

B unpretentious 

C harmonious 

D contiguous 

Answer: D 

Q. 88 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order.

A. “It’s sort of cool to be on a ship but even more amazing is this Earth we live on,” Williams remarked as she described life on a spaceship to eager kids.

B. Williams, who is set to be one of the first to fly aboard Boeing’s Starliner spacecraft in November 2019, was introduced at the festival by former NASA astronaut Mike Massimino .

C. On Sept. 22, 2018 NASA astronaut Sunita Williams — a veteran of two long-duration space flights — talked to families and space enthusiasts about space travel.

D. She was speaking at the Intrepid Air, Sea & Space Museum during the recent Space & Science Festival. 

A BCDA 

B CDBA 

C CBDA 

D BACD 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 89 Select the segment which has an error. Found in many parts of India, the frangipani tree is a small, low -branching tree which is especially used for several medicinal purposes. 

A a small, low -branching tree 

B Found in many parts 

C The frangipani tree is 

D which is especial used 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 90 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The art teacher said, “I never tell my students what to draw. I tell them to imagine.” 

A The art teacher said that I never tell my students what to draw. I tell them to imagine. 

B The art teacher said that she never told her students what to draw. She told them to imagine. 

C The art teacher is saying that she never tells her students what to draw. She tells them to imagine. 

D The art teacher had said that she never told her students what to draw. She tells them to imagine. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 91 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- I am very much like Chinese food and have learnt to cook it. 

A like very much Chinese food 

B like Chinese food very much 

C no improvement 

D am liking very much Chinese food 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 92 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. Some used cars may have been involved in accidents or salvaged and rebuilt. B. Before buying a used car, it’s important to know everything there is to know about it. C. If the car engine is clean, it’s a good sign, but still ask for a test drive. D. It is therefore very important to examine the car’s engine for any fluid leaks. 

A CDBA 

B ACDB 

C BADC 

D DBCA 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. Many old projects are ______ with a change in company policies. 

A beating around the bush 

B caught red handed 

C getting a new lease of life 

D breaking the ice 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 94 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- Food and water are the two basic necessities that citizens should have access . 

A access for 

B access at 

C No improvement. 

D access to 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 95 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “Reena, I’m surprised you want dinner as we had such a late lunch,” said Rajat. 

A Rajat had told Reena that he was surprised that she had wanted dinner as they were having such a late lunch. 

B Rajat was saying to Reena that he was surprised that she was wanting dinner as they had been having such a late lunch. 

C Rajat had been telling Reena that he was surprised that she wants dinner as they had had such a late lunch. 

D Rajat told Reena that he was surprised that she wanted dinner as they had had such a late lunch. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 96 Find a word that is the synonym of – onerous 

A arduous 

B abundant 

C honourable 

D accessible 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 97 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. The two little girls were playing a game of dice. 

A The two little girls had played a game of dice. 

B A game of dice was played by the two little girls. 

C A game of dice was being played by the two little girls. 

D The two little girls had been playing a game of dice. 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 98 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. To be a good speaker you need to memorize these speeches. 

A These speeches will be memorized by you to be a good speaker. 

B To be a good speaker these speeches need to be memorized by you 

C To be a good speaker these speeches need to memorize by you. 

D To be a good speaker these speeches being memorized by you. 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions: Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. 

Q. 99 “Can you pay him in cash?” she said to me. 

A She asked me if he could pay me in cash. 

B She asked him if I can pay him in cash. 

C She asked me if I could pay him in cash. 

D She asked him if I should pay him in cash. 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 100 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. He advised me to go abroad for higher studies the following year. 

A He said to me,”I go abroad for higher studies next year.” 

B He said to me,”Please go abroad for higher studies next year.” 

C He told me,”You should go abroad for higher studies the following year.” 

D He said to me,”You should go abroad for higher studies next year.” 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 101 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. one who studies human societies and their culture 

A pathologist 

B astrobiologist 

C pharmacologist 

D anthropologist 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 102 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order.

A. According to hair loss experts, excess DHT drastically increases collagen production in the hair follicle.

B. Hair loss can be traced to an increase of internal Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) and collagen production.

C. Eventually, collagen blocks the pore completely causing a lack of necessary blood flow due to which your hair loses its sheen, thins down and finally you lose your hair completely.

D. When too much collagen lines the interior of the follicle, it narrows the pores, decreases blood flow and slowly strangles your hair to death. 

A DABC 

B DCAB 

C BADC 

D BDAC 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 103 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “If I had the manual of the new T.V, I would have fixed it by now,” said Uma. 

A Uma said that if she was having the manual of the new T.V she would have fixed it by now. 

B Uma said that if she has the manual of the new T.V she will have fixed it by then. 

C Uma said that if she will have the manual of the new T.V she would have fixed it by then 

D Uma said that if she had had the manual of the new T.V she would have fixed it by then 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 104 Find a word that is the ANTONYM of – pandemonium 

A turbulence 

B harmony 

C excitement 

D uproar 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 105 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- Shyamalan’s movie ‘The Sixth Sense’ starring Bruce Willis was a great success but doesn’t win all Academy Award as expected. 

A No improvement. 

B but didn’t win any 

C but did win most 

D although it won some 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 106 Find a word that is the ANTONYM OF piquant 

A pungent 

B interesting 

C bland 

D peppery 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 107 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order.

A. Over the past week, the state has been pounded by intense rainfall, thus transforming the July deficit to surplus.

B. A year after being ravaged by the worst floods in 100 years, Kerala is once again facing a deluge.

C. The districts in Kerala’s north – in particular Kozhikode, Wayanad, and Malappuram – are among the worst affected where relief work is going on.

D. The copious amounts of rainfall in the state have been both intense and consistent leading to many deaths besides rendering thousands homeless. 

A BADC 

B DBAC 

C DBCA 

D ABCD 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 108 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. I hope you are 100 percent fit by now. 

A It will be hoped that you are 100 percent fit by then. 

B It is hoping you are 100 percent fit by now. 

C It is hoped that you are 100 percent fit by now. 

D It was being hoped by me that you are 100 percent fit by then. 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 109 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- Even if Uma is unable to make it, I can’t most definitely come. 

A No improvement. 

B won’t definite 

C needn’t more definite 

D shall most definitely 

Answer: D

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow 

Comprehension: Mount Everest, the world’s highest peak at 8,848 metres, draws adventurers from all over. But the mountain on the Nepal-China border is fast becoming a dangerous place to visit even for the hardened mountaineer. The inherent risks were highlighted with a photograph by Nirmal Purja, a Gorkha ex-soldier. The image, which went viral and altered the manner in which people worldwide imagine what it is to scale Mt. Everest, showed a long queue awaiting a final tilt at the summit, with all the dangers such a wait holds. In the 2019 season, at least 11 climbers have died or gone missing, including four Indians. Experts have been calling for Nepal to restrict the number of permits. It awarded a record 381 for this spring each fetching $11,000 (climbing from the Tibet side is more expensive). On 22nd May, 200 climbers ascended the summit, a new record for a single day. Last year, 807 managed to reach the summit. In 2012, the United Nations estimated that there were more than 26,000 visitors to the Everest region, and this figure has grown manifold since then. Nepal officials argue that permits are not issued recklessly, and that jams such as this year’s near the summit are on account of spells of bad weather, which result in mountaineers being compelled to reach the summit within a narrow time frame. Waiting in sub-zero temperatures at rarefied altitude can be fatal— this season’s deaths were mostly due to frostbite, exhaustion, dehydration and lack of oxygen. 

This year’s drama has caught the public imagination, as happened in 1996 when eight people died in a single day amid an unexpected storm – events of and around that day were the subject of Jon Krakauer’s bestselling book ‘Into Thin Air’. The adventure industry that is built around the human desire to scale the peak has meant many amateurs take up the challenge, confident that support teams and specialized equipment will make up for their lack of adequate mountaineering experience. The fallout is that in case of a disaster not only are some of them unable to manage but they also hold up others, putting them in harm’s way. The commercial operations have led to the Everest being called the world’s highest garbage dump as many climbers discard non-critical gear, used oxygen cylinders, plastic bottles, cans, batteries, food wrappings, fecal matter and kitchen waste on the mountains. It is unlikely, however, that this season’s tragedies will deter future summiteers, as the hypnotic lure remains intact. But the authorities must learn from this year’s tragedies and work out an optimum number of climbers and strengthen safety measures. 

Q. 110 What is the theme of this newspaper editorial? Select the most appropriate combination of factors given below. a. Overcrowding of Mount Everest on 22nd May, 2019. b. The urgent necessity to introduce and implement adequate safety measures to prevent man-made disasters. c. Not to treat the ascent of the highest peak as an adventure sport. d. Refuse permits to amateur climbers. e. Disallow tour operating companies from crowding the base-camp. 

A c & d 

B b & c 

C a & e 

D a & b 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 111 Fill in the blank to complete the statement. In 2019 ______ people have lost their lives on Mt. Everest. 

A eleven 

B eight 

C nine 

D ten 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 112 What image has Nirmal Purja’s viral photograph captured? 

A A long queue of climbers on the final stretch of a steep slope. 

B Dead bodies of mountaineers on the route of the highest peak. 

C The accumulated garbage on the mountain slopes. 

D Exhausted mountaineers falling unconscious on the way up. 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 113 Why was the Nepal Government criticized recently? 

A For not providing optimum facilities to the mountaineers. 

B For charging a hefty fee to issue a permit. 

C For allowing too many tour operators at the Everest Base Camp Site. 

D For issuing 381permits to aspiring climbers. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 114 Why, according to the text, do most climbers prefer to climb Everest from Nepal side? 

A Nepali people are keen to help the climbers because this is their only way to earn money. 

B International mountaineers are not allowed in Chinese territory. 

C Nepal provides better logistical support than India. 

D Climbing Mount Everest from Nepal side is cheaper than the Tibet side. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 115 Choose the factor, which was NOT responsible for the death of mountaineers in May, 2019. 

A Dehydration 

B Lack of food 

C Lack of oxygen 

D Frostbite and exhaustion 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 116 If an amateur mountaineer is one who climbs mountains as a hobby, which word in the text, describes an experienced one. 

A reckless mountaineer 

B ex-soldier climber 

C adventure climber 

D hardened mountaineer 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 117 How are amateur mountaineers a threat to others? 

A Amateurs are dependent on their support teams and cannot manage anything on their own. 

B Amateurs, because of their inexperience and slow pace, are exposed to all kinds of hazards. 

C Amateurs need specialized equipment to make up for their inexperience. 

D Amateurs hold up other mountaineers in case of unforeseen disasters because they are not self-reliant. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 118 Identify the INCORRECT OPTION. The Everest has become the ‘highest garbage dump’ as many climbers leave behind ______ 

A kitchen waste 

B protective clothing. 

C empty food cans and bottles 

D spent oxygen tanks 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 119 Select the INCORRECT Option. ‘Into Thin Air’ is _____ 

A a best- selling book. 

B based on an unexpected storm in the Himalayas. 

C an account of the death of eight people in a single day. 

D an incident that happened in 1999. 

Answer: D 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 120 Select the segment which has an error. A recent government report highlighted that the shortage of teachers in higher educational institutions is greater than that in countries like China, Brazil, Sweden and Russia. 

A A recent government report highlight 

B in higher educational institutions 

C that the shortage of teachers 

D is greater than 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 121 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. Consisting of many things or parts 

A few 

B singular 

C numerical 

D multitudinous 

Answer: D

 

Instructions: Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- 

Q. 122 His large income was still insufficient to meet the growing demands of his family. 

A No improvement. 

B was still insufficient 

C have been still insufficient 

D was being yet insufficient 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 123 I had no idea at first how difficult it was being track the identity of every tree in Delhi. 

A No improvement. 

B was to track 

C were to tracked 

D have been tracking 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions: For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 124 Select the segment which has an error. Their houses aren’t very big but their garden is. 

A aren’t very big 

B Their house 

C garden is 

D but their 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 125 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. It is known by everyone that the tournament will be won by us. 

A It is known to everyone that we are going to win the tournament. 

B It is known that the tournament is going to be won by us. 

C Everyone knows that we will win the tournament. 

D Everyone knows that the tournament was won by us. 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions: Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

Q. 126 A. It requires continuous learning and sacrifices. B. To raise well behaved and responsible children one should be willing to invest a considerable amount of time, patience and energy. C. Instilling and inculcating good values in a child will go a long way in making him/her a good person and a better citizen. D. There is no doubt that parenting is among the most difficult and demanding tasks in the world. 

A ACBD 

B ABCD 

C BDCA 

D DABC 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 127 A. Such was his devotion that Kaali Ma appeared before him with a thousand heads and a thousand pairs of arms.

B. Once, Tenali Raman wanted to visit the Kaali temple on the outskirts of the city and pray.

C. It was quite dark by the time Tenali reached the temple, prostrated before the goddess, and with eyes closed started praying to Mother Kaali.

D. Raman who was dazzled to see Mother Kaali in all her glory, looked at her from left to right and right to left and could not control his happiness. 

A BCAD 

B BACD 

C DCBA 

D CDAB 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 128 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. How were they managing the school for one year without a Principal? 

A How was the Principal managed for one year without a School? 

B How was the school managed for one year without a Principal? 

C How was the Principal being managed for one year without a School? 

D How was the school being managed for one year without a Principal? 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 129 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. Factory owners are protesting because they think that the government has ______ of plastic manufacturing companies by closing their factories in big cities. 

A separated the wheat from the chaff 

B made no bones 

C been barking up the wrong tree 

D upset the applecart 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 130 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. It was quite a ______ matter but was escalated due to the media coverage. 

A humble 

B trivial 

C stingy 

D ghastly 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 131 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. In trying to solve the crime, the detective found himself ______ Yet the mystery kept deepening. 

A beating the bush 

B beating his brains out 

C letting his hair down 

D making room for others 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 132 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. One should leave office on time to maintain good work life balance. 

A Office is being left on time to maintain good work life balance. 

B Office should be left on time to maintain good work life balance. 

C Office has to be left on time to maintain good work life balance. 

D Office will be left on time to maintain good work life balance. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 133 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’ Now that I grow old , I often spend a lot of time thinking about my childhood. 

A had grown older 

B has grown older 

C No improvement. 

D am growing older 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions: Select the segment which has an error. 

Q. 134 Is she goes to visit her parents in the evening? 

A her parents 

B to visit 

C in the evening 

D Is she go 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 135 Our most memorable meeting with Spielberg happened while we were at the Berlin Film Festival in 1977, where the film ‘Shatranj ke Khilari ‘were being screened as India’s official entry. 

A Our most memorable meeting 

B while we were at 

C where the film 

D were being screened 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 136 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The commander said, “Keep marching till you reach the border.” 

A The commander ordered his men to keep marching until they reached the border. 

B The commander requested the men keep marching till they reach the border. 

C The commander said the men should keep marching till they reach the border. 

D The commander said to his men they should keep marching till you reach the border. 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 137 Select the segment which has an error. Doctors say that eating red meat is one of the leading causes of heart disease. 

A is one of the leading causes 

B of heart disease 

C Doctors say that 

D eating red meat 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 138 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. An interesting discussion is being held on environmental degradation. 

A They are holding an interesting discussion on environmental degradation. 

B An interesting discussion had been held on environmental degradation. 

C An interesting discussion is to be held on environmental degradation. 

D They will be holding an interesting discussion on environmental degradation. 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 139 Identify the word that is misspelt. 

A exhilaration 

B idiosyncracy 

C recalcitrant 

D conscientious 

Answer: B

 

Q. 140 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. The official found himself ______ when he could not explain his actions and all the members started attacking him with accusations of cheating. 

A in the eye of a storm 

B on the same page 

C wet behind the ears 

D burning the midnight oil 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 141 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. So he told his son that for every careless act of his he would hammer a nail into a wooden pillar in their house, and for every positive act he would pull out one nail. B. The boy saw that the pillar was getting crowded with nails and realised his mistake. C. A father wanted to inculcate a sense of responsibility in his careless son. D. He resolved to change his behaviour and soon the nails started coming out, until there were none left. 

A BACD 

B BCDA 

C CABD 

D CDBA 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 142 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. I said, “Mother please let me go out for a movie with my friends.” 

A He requested his mother she may please let him go out for a movie with his friends. 

B I said to mother you please let me go out for a movie with my friends. 

C She is begging her mother to please let me go out for a movie with my friends. 

D I begged my mother to let me go out for a movie with my friends. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 143 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. My art teacher asked me whether I had attended her classes. 

A My art teacher was asking me whether I had attended her classes. 

B My art teacher asks me whether I attended her classes. 

C I was being asked by my art teacher whether I was attending her classes. 

D I was asked by my art teacher whether I had attended her classes. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 144 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- I think you can have a piece of this cake but not all of it. I have to save some for my mother. 

A but never all of those 

B but not some of that 

C or not most of it 

D no improvement 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 145 Identify the word that is misspelt. 

A questionnaire 

B hierarchy 

C liaison 

D millenium 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 146 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. We expect an important announcement regarding the foreign policy today. 

A An important announcement regarding the foreign policy was expected today. 

B We had been expected an important announcement regarding the foreign policy today 

C An important announcement regarding the foreign policy is expected today. 

D An important announcement regarding the foreign policy will be expected today. 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 147 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “Why is everybody leaving so early today?” said the manager. 

A The manager asked why was everybody leaving so early that day. 

B The manager asked why everybody left so early that day. 

C The manager asked why everybody was leaving so early that day. 

D The manager asked why everybody was leaving so early today. 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 148 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- In my lifetime, I have been greatly privileged to travel to some of the most wonderful places in the world. 

A No improvement. 

B only a few of 

C none of 

D least of the 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 149 Select the segment which has an error. Since a meeting drew to a close, I realized that people were not really listening to me. 

A I realized 

B Since a meeting 

C drew to a close 

D were not really 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 150 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Amar urged Amit to stop taking tranquillizers without consulting the doctor. 

A “Amit,please stop taking tranquillizers without consulting the doctor,”Amar was advising, 

B Amit said to Amar, “Please stop taking tranquillizers without consulting the doctor.” 

C “Amit,please stop taking tranquillizers without consulting the doctor,” said Amar. 

D Amar says to Amit,“ Please consult the doctor before taking tranquilisers.” 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 151 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. My birthday was celebrated by my colleagues at the office today. 

A My colleagues have celebrated my birthday at the office today. 

B My colleagues are celebrating my birthday at the office today. 

C My colleagues will celebrate my birthday at the office today. 

D My colleagues celebrated my birthday at the office today. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 152 Select the segment which has an error. Rescue officials was unable to find any survivors in the California boat tragedy. 

A was unable 

B in the 

C to find 

D Rescue officials 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 153 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Aanya said, “Even if it rains very hard I will not miss school tomorrow.” 

A Aanya says that even if it rains very hard she will not miss school tomorrow. 

B Aanya said that even if it rained very hard she would not miss school the next day. 

C Aanya said though it rains very hard she will not miss school the next day. 

D Aanya has said that if it rains very hard I will not miss school tomorrow. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 154 Find a word that is the synonym of – diminutive 

A petite 

B expeditious 

C dangerous 

D fallacious 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 155 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Father hugged me and said, “What a beautiful painting!” 

A Father hugged me and exclaimed that my painting was very beautiful. 

B Father hugs me and exclaimed that my painting is very beautiful. 

C Father hugs me and says that my painting was very beautiful. 

D Father hugged me and exclaimed I had made a very beautiful painting. 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 156 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. Making a show of being morally superior to others 

A approving 

B sanctum 

C profligate 

D sanctimonious 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 157 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The ______ speech did not impress the audience as they could not really make out the focus of her discussion. 

A contagious 

B concurrent 

C contaminated 

D convoluted 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 158 Select the segment which has an error. Please don’t disturb me as I am reading a book. 

A Please don’t 

B reading a book 

C as I am 

D disturbs me 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and fill in each blank with words chosen from the options given. 

Comprehension: Packing is one of those chores that seems ______ (1) simple but it’s a skill that most of humanity ______ (2).Even seasoned travellers end up carrying a ______ (3) array of stuff they don’t use.Heavy bags ______ (4) be back-breaking and frustrating. Packing ______ (5) is a test of planning skills and is indicative of one’s ability to ______ (6) one’s life. The simplest way to pack smart is to ______ (7) a medium- sized bag so you’re not tempted to ______ (8)more stuff at the last minute.The smart packer doesn’t ______ (9)what -if -I -need it-category of stuff, the singular reason junk lands in ______ (10) suitcase. 

Q. 159 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1 

A deceptively 

B cleverly 

C specially 

D deceitfully 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 160 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2 

A do have 

B does have 

C don’t have 

D doesn’t have 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 161 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3 

A irritating 

B illuminating 

C bedazzling 

D mind boggling 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 162 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4 

A will 

B mustn’t 

C should 

D can 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 163 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5 

A complicatedly 

B randomly 

C deliberately 

D strategically 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 164 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.6 

A detect 

B reflect 

C organise 

D interpret 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 165 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.7 

A select 

B invest 

C go 

D look 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 166 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.8 

A squeeze in 

B pushing in 

C spreading on 

D putting on 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 167 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.9 

A live on 

B stay on 

C think on 

D dwell on 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 168 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.10 

A most 

B the 

C one 

D many 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 169 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Rashmi says, “My startup is doing very well.” 

A Rashmi says that my startup is doing very well. 

B Rashmi said that her startup is doing very well. 

C Rashmi said that her startup was doing very well. 

D Rashmi says that her startup is doing very well. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 170 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. Now, that the real estate sector has got its own regulator, RERA, from May 1, 2017, things are expected to improve. B. For many of the homebuyers, across locations the delay has extended to almost six years or more. C. In the absence of a regulator and with no rules in place, the builder-buyer battle appeared one-sided. D. For the buyers of real estate properties the delay in possession of their homes has been the biggest concern. 

A DBCA 

B ABDC 

C DABC 

D BACD 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 171 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. He said, “The last film I saw was such a violent one that I couldn’t sleep the whole night.” 

A He is saying the last film he saw was such a violent one that he couldn’t sleep the whole night. 

B He shall be saying that the last film he had been seeing was such a violent one that he couldn’t sleep the whole 

night. 

C He shall say that the last film he had seen was such a violent one that he couldn’t sleep the whole night. 

D He said that the last film he had seen was such a violent one that he couldn’t sleep the whole night. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 172 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. a private conversation between two people 

A monologue 

B tête-à-tête 

C dialogue 

D sermon 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 173 Select the segment which has an error. Aanya’s class teacher and her friends congratulates her warmly when she won the inter school debate and brought the trophy to the school. 

A and brought the trophy 

B congratulates her 

C when she won 

D and her friends 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 174 Select the segment which has an error. Some of us are planning to go for a movie tonight. 

A for a movie 

B to go 

C Some of us 

D are plan to go 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 175 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. proceeding in a gradual way and secretly intending to cause harm 

A benevolent 

B malevolent 

C solvent 

D insidious 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 176 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order.

A. Thought everything was on the up and up for Holzman, yet … something wasn’t quite right.

B. At 19, he enrolled in the Culinary Institute of America before heading to the West Coast to cook for such well-esteemed restaurants as Paladin, Napa and Aqua.

C. He got a little fed up with the kitchen and started to feel that he wanted to do something different with it.

D. Holzman, a well known chef, started his career at the age of 15 when the prodigy began cooking under Eric Ripert at the iconic New York restaurant, Le Bernardin. 

A DBAC 

B ABCD 

C DACB 

D ACBD 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 177 Select the segment which has an error. The novel ‘Embers’ has a captivating plot and begins with a senior army officer preparing to receive a rare visitor, a man who was once his closest friend. 

A his close friend 

B has a captivating plot 

C a man who was once 

D begins with 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow- 

Comprehension: Brain training is big business. From online websites to video games to mobile apps, it seems like there are plenty of ways to give your brain a bit of a boost. But does all this brain training really work? Can it increase your cognitive abilities or your IQ? According to a few recent studies, while these brain training tools might help sharpen your abilities to retain information, they won’t necessarily increase your intelligence or improve your ability to reason and think abstractly. 

The parent company of one of the most prominent “brain training” websites was recently fined for deceptive advertising. According to the complainant, the company suggested its games could reduce or delay cognitive impairment such as one might find in Alzheimer’s patients, which is false. 

So while there may be some benefits to brain training, don’t expect miraculous results. Earlier studies have found no link between increased intelligence and brain training exercises. 

Same is the case with standardized tests. Students today take a wide variety of standardized tests, from assessments throughout elementary school to evaluations required for college admission. While test preparation for such assessments can increase factual knowledge, one study suggests that this preparation does little to increase overall IQ.Why is it so? While test preparation increases what psychologists refer to as crystallized intelligence, it does not increase what is known as fluid intelligence. Crystallized intelligence includes facts and information, while fluid intelligence involves the ability to think abstractly or logically. 

In a study published in the journal Psychological Science, researchers looked at the IQ scores and test scores of approximately 1,400 eighth-grade students. While schoolwork helped increase the students’ test scores, it had no effect on measures of fluid intelligence. The authors suggest that fluid intelligence is a much better indicator of abilities such as problem solving ability, abstract thinking skills, memory capacity, and processing speed. 

While the study found no indicator that test preparation improved IQ, that does not mean that this preparation has no value. Research clearly shows that having high scores on standardized tests is linked to having high scores on other important tests including Advanced Placement tests, the SAT etc. 

Q. 178 In the passage, ‘give your brain a bit of a boost’ means to – 

A increase its ability to grow stronger 

B be able to play video games 

C increase its size 

D sharpen it 

Answer: D 


Q. 179 What do brain training tools do? 

A Enable you to retain information 

B Sharpen the ability to think clearly 

C Increase intelligence 

D Improve problem solving abilities 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 180 A brain training site was fined for- 

A making false claims 

B causing Alzheimer’s disease 

C helping improve learning ability 

D decreasing intelligence 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 181 On comparing crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence it is found that- 

A students have better fluid intelligence and perform better because of schoolwork and standardized test. 

B crystallized intelligence helps in making you think with a logical mind gives you better test scores. 

C fluid intelligence is what gives a learner skills such as problem-solving and processing of information. 

D crystallized intelligence is better because it helps you learn facts and information. 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 182 From the passage one can arrive at the conclusion that both brain training and standardized tests – 

A do not really increase overall IQ and mental abilities. 

B sharpen logical thinking through intensive training. 

C increase brain functioning and performance. 

D make you more intelligent and get better results. 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 183 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Hillary Clinton and her daughter Chelsea are working on ‘The Book of Gutsy women ‘. 

A ‘The Book of Gutsy Women,’is being worked upon by Hillary Clinton and her daughter Chelsea. 

B Hillary Clinton and Chelsea will have worked upon ‘The Book of Gutsy Women’. 

C ‘The Book of Gutsy Women’ would have been worked upon by Hillary Clinton and her daughter Chelsea. 

D Hillary Clinton and her daughter Chelsea were working upon ‘The Book of Gutsy Women.’ 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 184 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. The monsoons spur the trees to sprout new leaves. 

A Trees were spurred to sprout new leaves by the monsoons. 

B The monsoons will have spurred the trees to sprout new leaves. 

C Trees are spurred by the monsoons to sprout new leaves. 

D The monsoons are spurring the trees to sprout new leaves. 

Answer: C 


Instructions: Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. 

Q. 185 The gym instructor exclaimed that her students’ performance was extremely poor. 

A The gym instructor said to her students, “How poor their performance is!” 

B The gym instructor said to her students, “How is your performance so poor?” 

C The gym instructor said to her students, “How poor your performance is!” 

D The gym instructor says to her students, “Your performance is poor.” 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 186 The teacher suggested that the PTM be postponed to the third Saturday of the month. 

A The teacher said, “The PTM will be postponed to the third Saturday of the month. “ 

B The teacher said, “Let’s postpone the PTM to the third Saturday of the month. “ 

C The teacher said, “The PTM would be postponed to the third Saturday of the month.” 

D The teacher suggested, “The PTM must be postponed to the third Saturday of the month.” 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 187 The RWA members said, “We want to see the audited accounts before we make more payments.” 

A The RWA members are saying that they want to see the audited accounts before they make more payments. 

B The RWA members said that they wanted to see the audited accounts before they made more payments. 

C The RWA members said that we want to see the audited accounts before we make more payments. 

D The RWA members said we wanted to see the audited accounts before we make more payments. 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions: Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- 

Q. 188 The vicious cycle of poverty refers to a situation where those who are poor will be trapped in poverty. 

A would be trap 

B will remain trapped 

C No improvement. 

D were trapping 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 189 There was a time when it was fashionable to have a dainty dog, like as the poodles or any other tiny creature as a pet. 

A like as the poodle 

B such as a poodle 

C No improvement. 

D much like a poodle 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and fill in each blank with words chosen from the options given. 

Comprehension: It’s a magical sight: Just as the light begins to vanish, thousands of tiny penguins waddle ______ (1) the surf on an island in south-eastern Australia, then ______ (2) the beach and along well-worn paths toward ______ (3) burrows. The “Penguin Parade” has been a major attraction since the 1920s, when tourists ______ (4) by torchlight to view the nightly ______ (5) the birds — the world’s smallest penguin breed, with adults ______ (6) 13 inches tall. For much of that time, the penguins lived ______ (7) the residents of a housing development, in tight proximity to cars and pets. The penguins’ numbers fell ______(8) But in 1985, the state government decided to buy ______ (9) piece of property on the Peninsula and return the land to the penguins. Today there are about 31,000 penguins ______ (10) on the peninsula, up from 12,000 in the 1980s. 

Q. 190 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 1 

A stand off 

B passing off 

C far off 

D out of 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 191 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 2 

A move out 

B move up 

C moves on 

D moved to 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 192 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 3 

A their 

B those 

C these 

D this 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 193 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 4 

A was lead 

B had led 

C were led 

D were leading 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 194 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 5 

A shining of 

B arrival of 

C playing off 

D going of 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 195 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 6 

A averages 

B average 

C averaging 

D averaged 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 196 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 7 

A within 

B among 

C between 

D towards 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 197 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 8 

A drastically 

B variously 

C numerously 

D clearly 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 198 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 9 

A all 

B any 

C each 

D some 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 199 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 10 

A preparing 

B proceeding 

C propelling 

D breeding 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions: For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 200 Select the segment which has an error. It is estimated that most of the addict, a whopping 85%, in God’s own country Kerala, are below 25 years of age. 

A It is estimated that 

B are below 25 

C most of the addict 

D a whopping 85% 

Answer: C 

SSC CGL Tier-II 13 September 2019 Maths Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL – MATHS

Tier-2 (13 Sept 2019) 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.1 N solid metallic spherical balls are melted and recast into a cylindrical rod whose radius is 3 times that of a spherical ball and height is 4 times the radius of a spherical ball. The value of N is: 

A 30 

B 27 

C 24 

D 36 

Answer: B 

 

Q.2 If x is the remainder when 361284 is divided by 5 and y is the remainder when 496 is divided by 6, then what is the value of (2x – y)? 

A -4 

B 4 

C -2 

D 2 

Answer: C 

 

Q.3 What is the area (in square units) of the triangular region enclosed by the graphs of the equations x + y = 3, 2x + 5y = 12 and the x-axis? 

A 2 

B 3 

C 4 

D 6 

Answer: B 

 

Q.4 The value of √(28+10√3) – √(7-4√3)is closest to: 

A 7.2 

B 6.1 

C 6.5 

D 5.8 

Answer: C 

 

Q.5 If secθ + tanθ = p, ( p > 1 ) then cosecθ+1/cosecθ-1 =?

A p+1/p-1

B P2

C p-1/p+1

D 2p2

Answer: B 

 

Q.6 The value cosec(670 + θ) − sec(230 − θ) + cos150 cos350 cos550 cos600 cos750 is: 

A 2 

B 0 

C 1 

D ½ 

Answer: D 

 

Q.7 35% of goods were sold at a profit of 65%, while the remaining were sold at x% loss. If the overall loss is 12%, then what is the value of x ? (correct to one decimal place) 

A 51.8 

B 50.6 

C 53.5 

D 52.4 

Answer: C 

 

Q.8 In a circle with centre O, ABCD is cyclic quadrilateral and AC is the diameter. Chords AB and CD are produced to meet at E. If ∠CAE = 340 and ∠E = 300, then ∠CBD is equal to: 

A 360 

B 260 

C 240 

D 340 

Answer: B 

 

Q.9 ab(a − b) + bc(b − c) + ca(c − a) is equal to: 

A (a + b)(b − c)(c − a) 

B (a − b)(b + c)(c − a) 

C (a − b)(b − c)(c − a) 

D (b − a)(b − c)(c − a) 

Answer: D 

 

Q.10 The radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is increased by 20%. By what percent should its height be reduced so that its volume remains the same as before? 

A 25 

B 30 2/9

C 30 5/9

D 28 

Answer: C 

 

Q.11 A is as efficient as B and C together. Working together A and B can complete a work in 36 days and C alone can complete it in 60 days. A and C work together for 10 days. B alone will complete the remaining work in: 

A 110 days 

B 88 days 

C 84 days 

D 90 days 

Answer: A 

 

Q.12 If 2cos2 θ + 3sinθ = 3 , where 00 < θ < 90 , then what is the value of sin2 2θ + cos2 θ + tan2 2θ + cosec2 2θ ? 

A 35/12

B 29/3

C 35/6

D 29 6

Answer: C 

 

Q.13 The radius and the height of a right circular cone are in the ratio 5 : 12. Its curved surface area is 816.4 cm². What is the volume (in cm³ ) of the cone? (Take π = 3.14) 

A 2512 

B 1256 

C 3140 

D 628 

Answer: A 

 

Q.14 Given that (5x − 3)3 + (2x + 5)3 + 27(4 − 3x)3 = 9(3 − 5x)(2x + 5)(3x − 4), then the value of (2x + 1) is: 

A -13 

B 15 

C -15 

D 13 

Answer: B 

 

Q.15 The sides of a triangle are 12 cm, 35 cm and 37 cm. What is the circumradius of the triangle 

A 19 cm 

B 17.5 cm 

C 17 cm 

D 18.5 cm 

Answer: D 

 

Q.16 The base of a right pyramid is an equilateral triangle with area 163cm2. If the area of one of its lateral faces is 30 cm2, then its height (in cm) is: 

A √(739/12)

B √(209/12)

C √(611/12)

D √(643/12)

Answer: C 

 

Q.17 A vessel contains a 32 litre solution of acid and water in which the ratio of acid and water is 5 : 3. If 12 litres of the solution are taken out and 7½ litres of water are added to it, then what is the ratio of acid and water in the resulting solution? 

A 4 : 7 

B 5 : 6 

C 4 : 9 

D 8 : 11 

Answer: B 

 

Q.18 A sphere of maximum volume is cut out from a solid hemisphere. What is the ratio of the volume of the sphere to that of the remaining solid? 

A 1 : 4 

B 1 : 2 

C 1 : 3 

D 1 : 1 

Answer: C 

 

Q.19 If √5x3+2√2y3 = (Ax+√2y)(Bx2+2y2+Cxy), then the value of (A2 + B2 − C2) is: 

A 15 

B 20 

C 30 

D 40 

Answer: B 

 

Q.20 The value of (1 + cotθ − cosecθ )(1 + cosθ + sinθ)secθ =? 

A -2 

B 2 

C sec θ cosec θ

D sin θ cos θ

Answer: B 

 

Q.21 S is the incenter △PQR of ∠PSR = 1250. If , then the measure of ∠PQR  is: 

A 750

B 550

C 800

D 700

Answer: D 

 

Q.22 The value of 0.4 7 + 0.5 03 − 0.3 9 × 0.8 is: 

A 0.615

B 0.615

C 0.625

D 0.625

Answer: D 

 

Q.23 If △ABC in , D and are the points on AB and BC respectively such that DE ∥ BC, and AD : AB = 3: 8, then (area of △BDE) : ( area of quadrilateral DECA) = ? 

A 9 : 55 

B 9 : 64 

C 8 : 13 

D 25 : 39 

Answer: D 

 

Q.24 Monika spends 72% of her income. If her income increases by 20% and savings increase by 15%, then her expenditure increases by: (correct to 1 decimal place) 

A 20.8% 

B 20.2% 

C 21.9% 

D 19.8% 

Answer: C 

 

Q.25 A. B and C started a business with their capitals in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. A increased his capital by 50% after 4 months, B increased his capital by 33⅓% after 6 months and C withdrew 50% of his capital after 8 months, from the start of the business. If the total profit at the end of a year was ₹86,800,then the difference between the shares of A and C in the profit was: 

A ₹12,600 

B ₹7,000 

C ₹9,800 

D ₹8,400 

Answer: A 

 

Q.26 The graph of the equations 5x − 2y + 1 = 0 and 4y − 3x + 5 = 0, interest at the point P(α,β), What is the value of (2α − 3β)? 

A 4 

B 6 

C -4 

D -3 

Answer: A 

 

Q.27 An article was sold at a profit of 14%. Hadit been sold for ₹121 less, a loss of 8% would have been incurred. If the same article would have been sold for ₹536.25, then the profit/loss per cent would have been: 

A Profit, 5% 

B Loss, 5% 

C Loss, 2.5% 

D Profit, 2.5% 

Answer: C 

 

Q.28 A shopkeeper allows 18% discount on the marked price of an article and still makes a profit of 23%. If he gains ₹18.40 on the sale of the article, then what is the marked price of the article? 

A ₹140 

B ₹125 

C ₹120 

D ₹146 

Answer: C

 

Q.29 The value of (sec2θ/cosec2θ)+ (cosec2θ/sec2θ) – (sec2θ+cosec2θ)is: 

A 0 

B -2 

C 2 

D 1 

Answer: B 

 

Q.30 The given graph shows the weights of students in a school on a particular day. 

The number of students weighing less than 50 kg is what percent less than the number of students weighing 55 kg or more? 

A 44 

B 40 

C 55 

D 30 

Answer: A 

 

Q.31 A right prism has height 18 cm and its base is a triangle with sides 5 cm, 8 cm and 12 cm. What is its lateral surface area (in cm2) ? 

A 450 

B 468 

C 432 

D 486 

Answer: A 

 

Q.32 A can do one-third of a work in 15 days, B can do 75% of the same work in 18 days and C can do the same work in 36 days. B and C work together for 8 days. In how many days will A alone complete the remaining work? 

A 24 days 

B 18 days 

C 20 days 

D 16 days 

Answer: C 

 

Q.33 A person buys 80 kg of rice and sells it at a profit of as much money as he paid for 30 kg. His profit per cent is: 

A 27 ³/₁₁

B 35 

C 40 

D 37½

Answer: D 

 

Q.34 To cover a distance of 416 km, a train A takes 2⅔ hours more than train B. If the speed of A is doubled, it would take 1⅓ hours less than B, What is the speed (in km/h) of train A? 

A 56 

B 54 

C 52 

D 65 

Answer: C 

 

Q.35 The value of  (2√10) / (√5+√2-√7) – √(√5-2/√5+2) – (3/√7-2)is: 

A 2+√2

B 2√5

C √2

D √7

Answer: C 

 

Q.36 The price of oil has increased by 20%. However, its consumption decreased by 8⅓%. What is the percentage increase or decrease in the expenditure on it? 

A Increase by 10% 

B Increase by 5% 

C Decrease by 10% 

D Decrease by 5% 

Answer: A 

 

Q.37 The average age of 120 students in a group is 13.56 years. 35% of the number of students are girls and the rest are boys. If the ratio of the average age of boys and girls is 6 : 5, then what is the average age (in years)of the girls? 

A 12 

B 11.6 

C 10 

D 14.4 

Answer: A 

 

Q.38 The marked price of an article is ₹1500. If two successive discounts, each of x% . on the marked price is equal to a single discount of ₹587.40, then what will be the selling price of the article if a single discount of x% is given on the marked price? 

A ₹1,025 

B ₹1,155 

C ₹1,170 

D ₹1,200 

Answer: C 

 

Q.39 Two parallel chords on the same side of the centre of a circle are 12 cm and 20 cm long and the radius of the circle is 5√13cm. What is the distance (in cm) between the chords? 

A 2 

B 3 

C 2.5 

D 1.5 

Answer: A 

 

Q.40 Study the following bar graph and answer the question given. 

The ratio of the total demand of motorcycles of companies A, C and E to the total production of motorcycles of B and C is: 

A 1 : 1 

B 2 : 1 

C 11 : 10 

D 3 : 2 

Answer: D

 

Q.41 A circle touches the side BC of ABC at D and AB and AC are produced to E and F, respectively. If AB = 10 em, AC = 8.6 cm and BC = 6.4 cm, then BE =? 

A 3.2 cm 

B 3.5 cm 

C 2.2 cm 

D 2.5 cm 

Answer: D 

 

Q.42 If the measure of each exterior angle of a regular polygon is 513/70 then the ratio of the number of its diagonals to the number of its sides is: 

A 5 : 2 

B 13 : 6 

C 3 : 1 

D 2 : 1 

Answer: D 

 

Q.43 Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 13 is subtracted from each, the new numbers are in the ratio 10 : 21, If 15 is added to each of the original numbers, then the ratio becomes: 

A 5 : 7 

B 23 : 33 

C 4 : 5 

D 24 : 35 

Answer: D 

 

Q.44 Pipes A and B are filling pipes while pipe C is an emptying pipe. A and B can fill a tank in 72 and 90 minutes respectively. When all the three pipes are opened together, the tank gets filled in 2 hours. A and B are opened together for 12 minutes, then closed and C is opened, The tank will be empty after: 

A 15 minutes 

B 18 minutes 

C 12 minutes 

D 16 minutes 

Answer: B 

 

Q.45 The LCM of two numbers x and y is 204 times their HCF. If their HCF is 12 and the difference between the numbers is 60, then x + y = ? 

A 660 

B 426 

C 852 

D 348 

Answer: D 

 

Q.46 In △ABC,BE ⊥ AC,CD ⊥ AB and BE and CD intersect each other at O. The bisectors of ∠OBC and ∠OCB meet at P. If ∠BPC = 148, then what is the measure of ∠A? 

A 560 

B 280

C 320

D 640

Answer: D 

Q.47 The value of is:

A -1 

B -2 

C 2 

D 1 

Answer: D 

 

Q.48 The value of 24 × 2 ÷ 12 + 12 ÷ 6 of 2 ÷ (15 ÷ 8 × 4) of (28 ÷ 7 of 5) is: 

A 4⅙ 

B 4 8/75

C 4⅔ 

D 4 32/75

Answer: A 

 

Q.49 A person covers 40% of the distance from A to B at 8 km/h, 40% of the remaining distance at 9 km/h and the rest at 12 km/h. His average speed (in km/h) for the journey is: 

A 9⅝ 

B 9⅔ 

C 9⅜ 

D 9⅓ 

Answer: C 

 

Q.50 A 15 m deep well with radius 2.8 m is dug and the earth taken out from it is spread evenly to form platform of breadth 8 m and height 1.5 m. What will be the length of the platform? (Take π = 22/7) 

A 28.4 m 

B 28.8 m 

C 30.2 m 

D 30.8 m 

Answer: D 

 

Q.51 In △PQR,∠Q > ∠R,PS is the bisectors of ∠P and PT ⊥ PQ. If ∠SPT = 28 and ∠ R = 23, then the measure of ∠Q is: 

A 74

B 79 

C 82

D 89

Answer: B 

 

Q.52 25 persons can complete a work in 60 days. They started the work. 10 persons left the work after x days. If the whole work was completed in 80 days, then whatis the value of x ? 

A 9

B 8 

C 12 

D 15 

Answer: C 

 

Q.53 The value of sin264 + cos64 sin26 + 2cos43 cosec47 is: 

A 4 

B 1 

C 2 

D 3 

Answer: D 

 

Q.54 A tank is in the form of a cuboid with length 12 m. If 18 kilolitre of water is removed from it, the water level goes down by 30cm. What is the width (in m) of the tank? 

A 4 

B 5 

C 5.5 

D 4.5 

Answer: B 

 

Q.55 In finding the HCF of two numbers by division method, the last divisor is 17 and the quotients are 1. 11 and 2, respectively. What is the sum of the two numbers? 

A 833 

B 867 

C 816 

D 901 

Answer: C 

 

Q.56 A person invested one-fourth of the sum of ₹25,000 at a certain rate of simple interest and the rest at 4% p.a. higher rate. If the total interest received for 2 years is ₹4,125, what is the rate at which the second sum was invested? 

A 9.5% 

B 9.25% 

C 5.25% 

D 7.5% 

Answer: B 

 

Q.57 The radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is 3 cm and its curved surface area is 60πcm2, The volume of the cylinder (in cm3) is: 

A 90π 

B 72π

C 60π

D 81π

Answer: A 

 

Q.58 If [3(x2+1)-7x] / 3x = 6, x ≠ 0, then the value of √x+ 1/√x is: 

A  √25/3

B  √11/3

C  √35/3

D  √31/3

Answer: D

 

Q.59 Basir’s working hours per day were increased by 15% and his wages per hour were increased by 20%. By how much percent did his daily earnings increase? 

A 40 

B 38 

C 35 

D 36 

Answer: B 

 

Q.60 A student was asked to find the value of 9⁴/9 ÷ 11⅓ of ⅙ +(1⅓×1⅘÷⅗)×2⅙ of ⅔÷⁴/3of ⅔.His answer was 19¼What is the difference between his answer and the correct answer 

A 7¾ 

B 6⅔ 

C 7½ 

D 6⅓ 

Answer: A 

 

Q.61 If a 10-digit number 5 4 3 2 y 1 7 4 9 x is divisible by 72, then what is the value of (5x – 4y)? 

A 14 

B 15 

C 10 

D 9 

Answer: A 

 

Q.62 What is the remainder when (12797+9797) is divided by 32? 

A 4 

B 2 

C 7 

D 0 

Answer: D 

 

Q.63 The value of [(sinθ-cosθ)(1+tanθ+cotθ)]/1+sinθcosθ= ?

A secθ − cosecθ

B cosecθ − secθ

C sinθ + cosθ

D tanθ − cotθ

Answer: A 

 

Q.64 A, B and C spend 80%, 85% and 75% of their incomes, respectively. If their savings are in the ratio 8 : 9 : 20 and the difference between the incomes of A and C is ₹18,000, then the income of B is: 

A ₹24,000 

B ₹27,000 

C ₹30,000 

D ₹36,000 

Answer: B 

 

Q.65 If 25% of half of x is equal to 2.5 times the value of 30% of one-fourth of y. then x is what percent more or Less than y? 

A 33⅓% more 

B 50% more 

C 33⅓% less 

D 50% less 

Answer: B 

 

Q.66 The value of (sinθ+cosθ-1)/(sinθ-cosθ+1)×[tan2θ(cosec2θ-1)]/(secθ-tanθ) is:

A 0 

B -1 

C 1 

D 1 

Answer: C 

 

Q.67 In an examination, A obtained 10% more marks than B, B obtained 20% more marks than C and C obtained 32% less marks than D. If A obtained 272 more marks than C, then the marks obtained by B is: 

A 850 

B 816 

C 1020 

D 952 

Answer: C 

 

Q.68 In quadrilateral ABCD,∠C = 72 and ∠D = 28 . The bisectors of ∠A and ∠B meet in O. What is the measure of ∠AOB ? 

A 48∘ 

B 54∘ 

C 50∘ 

D 36∘ 

Answer: C 

 

Q.69 a, b and c are three fractions such that a < b < c. If c is divided by a, the result is 9/2, which exceeds b by 23/6. The sum of a, b and c is 19/12, What is the value of (2a + b – c)? 

A ½ 

B ⅓ 

C 1/12

D ¼ 

Answer: D 

 

Q.70 How many kg of salt costing ₹28 per kg must be mixed with 39.6 kg of salt costing ₹16 per kg, so that selling the mixture at ₹29.90, there is a gain of 15%? 

A 33 

B 31 

C 35 

D 32 

Answer: A 

 

Q.71 Study the following bar graph and answer the question given. 

The total production of motorcycles of companies C, D and E is what percent less than the total demand of motorcycles of all the companies during five years? 

A 43 

B 32 

C 38 

D 47 

Answer: B 

 

Q.72 A, B and C started a business, Thrice the investment of A is equal to twice the investment of B and also equal to four times the investment of C, If C’s share out of the total profit is ₹4,863,then the share ofA in the profit is: 

A ₹7,272 

B ₹6,484 

C ₹9,726 

D ₹8,105 

Answer: B 

 

Q.73 Two positive numbers differ by 2001. When the larger number is divided by the smaller number, the quotient is 9 and the remainder is 41. The sum of the digits of the larger number is: 

A 15 

B 11 

C 10 

D 14 

Answer: D 

 

Q.74 Let , then the value of x2+y2 is:

A 223/36

B 221/36

C 221/9

D 227/9

Answer: A 

 

Q.75 If (5x + 2y) : (10x + 3y) = 5 : 9 , then (2x2 + 3y2 ) : (4x2 + 9y2 ) = ?

A 31 : 87 

B 10 : 27 

C 16 : 47 

D 1 : 3 

Answer: A 

 

Q.76 The average of 18 numbers is 37.5. If six numbers of average X are added to them, then the average of all the numbers increases by one, The value of x is: 

A 40 

B 41.5 

C 42 

D 38.5 

Answer: B 

 

Q.77 In an office, ⅝ of the total number of employees are males and the rest are females. ⅖ of the number of males are non technical workers while ⅔ of the number of females are technical workers, What fraction of the total number of employees are technical workers? 

A ⅝ 

B ⅖ 

C ½ 

D ⅜ 

Answer: A 

 

Q.78 A solid cylinder of base radius 12 cm and height 15 cm is melted and recast into m toys each in the shape of a right circular cone of height 9 cm mounted on a hemisphere of radius 3 cm. The value of n is: 

A 27 

B 64 

C 48 

D 54 

Answer: C 

 

Q.79 In △ABC,D and E are the points on AB and AC respectively such that AD × AC = AB × AE. If ∠ADE = ∠ACB + 30 and ∠ABC = 78 , then ∠A =? 

A 56∘ 

B 54∘ 

C 68∘ 

D 48∘ 

Answer: B 

 

Q.80 P and Q are two points on the ground on either side of a pole. The angles of elevation of the top of the pole as observed from P and Q are 60 and 30, respectively and the distance between them is 84√3m. What is the height (in m) of the pole? 

A 63 

B 73.5 

C 52.5 

D 60 

Answer: A 

 

Q.81 If in △PQR,∠P = 120 ,PS ⊥ QR at S and PQ + QS = SR . then the measure of ∠Q is: 

A 20

B 50

C 40

D 30

Answer: C 

 

Q.82 The given pie-chart shows the break-up of total marks obtained by a student in five subjects A, B, C, D and E. The maximum marks in each subject is 150 and he obtained a total of 600 marks. 

In how many subjects did the student obtain more than his average score? 

A 3 

B 2 

C 4 

D 1 

Answer: B 

 

Q.83 Walking at 60% of his usual speed, a man reaches his destination 1 hour 40 minutes late, His usual time (in hours) to reach the destination is: 

A 2½ 

B 2¼ 

C 3⅛ 

D 3¼ 

Answer: A 

 

Q.84 A man can row a distance of 900 metres against the stream in 12 minutes and returns to the starting point in 9 minutes. What is the speed (in km/h) of the man in still water? 

A 4½ 

B 6 

C 5¼ 

D 5 

Answer: C 

 

Q.85 If x + y + z = 6,xyz = −10 and x2 + y2 + 22 = 30, then what is the value of (x3 + y3 + z3 )? 

A 132 

B 135 

C 130 

D 127 

Answer: A 

Q.86 The value of is:

A 24.42 

B 24.24 

C 25.42 

D 25.48 

Answer: D 

 

Q.87 If  ,0< θ <90,then the value of (tanθ +secθ)-1 is:

A 2-√3

B 3-√2

C 2+√3

D 3+√2

Answer: A 

 

Q.88 Sudha bought 80 articles at the same price. She sold some of them at 8% profit and the remaining at 12% loss resulting in an overall profit of 6%. The number of items sold at 8% profit is: 

A 64 

B 60 

C 72 

D 70 

Answer: C 

 

Q.89 The given pie-chart shows the break-up of total marks obtained by a student in five subjects A, B, C, D and E. The maximum marks in each subject is 150 and he obtained a total of 600 marks. 

The total marks obtained by the student in subjects C and E is approximately how much per cent more than what he obtained in A and D together? 

A 9.09% 

B 10.25% 

C 8.33% 

D 7.26% 

Answer: A 

 

Q.90 If the selling price of an article is 32% more than its cost price and the discount offered on its marked price is 12%, then what is the ratio of its cost price to the marked price? 

A 4 : 5 

B 3 : 8 

C 2 : 3 

D 1 : 2 

Answer: C 

 

Q.91 Study the following bar graph and answer the question given. 

The number of companies whose production of motorcycles is equal to or more than the average demand of motorcycles (per year) over five years is: 

A 4 

B 2 

C 1 

D 3 

Answer: D 

 

Q.92 The internal diameter of a hollow hemispherical vessel is 24 cm. It is made of a steel sheet which is 0.5 cm thick. What is the total surface area (in cm2) of the vessel? 

A 612.75 π

B 468.75 π

C 600.2 π

D 600.5 π

Answer: A 

 

Q.93 The bisector of in ∠A △ABC meets BC in D. If AB = 15cm,AC = 13cm and BC = 14cm , then DC =?

A 8.5 cm 

B 7.5 cm 

C 6.5 cm 

D 8 cm 

Answer: C 

 

Q.94 A certain loan was returned in two equal half yearly instalments each of ₹6,760. If the rate of interest was 8% p.a., compounded yearly, how much was the interest paid on the loan? 

A ₹750 

B ₹810 

C ₹790 

D ₹770 

Answer: D 

 

Q.95 A sum is divided among A, B, C and D such that the ratio of the shares of A and is 2 : 3, that of B and C is 1 : 2 and that of C and D is 3 : 4. If the difference between the shares of A and is ₹648,then the sum of their shares is: 

A ₹2,052 

B ₹2,160 

C ₹2,484 

D ₹1,944 

Answer: A 

 

Q.96 The given pie-chart shows the break-up of total marks obtained by a student in five subjects A, B, C, D and E. The maximum marks in each subject is 150 and he obtained a total of 600 marks. 

What is the difference between the marks obtained by the student in subjects B and D? 

A 20 

B 27 

C 30 

D 12 

Answer: A 

 

Q.97 A sector of radius 10.5 cm with the central angle 1200 is folded to form a cone by joining the two bounding radii of the sector. What is the volume (in cm3) of the cone so formed? 

A (343√2)π /6

B (343√3)π /6

C (343√3)π /12

D (343√2)π /12

Answer: D 

 

Q.98 A certain sum amounts to ₹4,205.55 at 15% p.a. in years, interest compounded yearly. The sum is: 

A ₹3,200 

B ₹3,500 

C ₹2,700 

D ₹3,000 

Answer: D 

 

Q.99 In △ABD,C is the midpoint of BD. If AB = 10cm,AD = 12cm and AC = 9cm, then BD =?

A 2√14 cm

B 2√10 cm

C √41 cm

D √10 cm

Answer: A 

 

Q.100 A sum of ₹10,500 amounts to ₹13,825 in years at a certain rate per cent per annum simple interest. What will be the simple interest on the same sum for 5 years at double the earlier rate? 

A ₹8,470 

B ₹8,750 

C ₹8,670 

D ₹8,560 

Answer: B 

SSC CGL Tier-I 23 August 2017 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2017 23 Aug Shift 1 

 

Q. 1 Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Car : Steering wheel :: Motorcycle : ?

A. Tyre

B. Headlight

C. Engine

D. Handle bar

 

Q. 2 Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

EFG : VUT :: JIH : ?

A. SUW

B. QRS

C. QSU

D. HFD

 

Q. 3 Select the related number from the given alternatives.

0.02 : 0.002 :: 1/3 : ?

A. 0.333

B. 1/30

C. 0.003

D. 3

 

Q. 4 Select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Bat

B. Umpire

C. Stumps

D. Bails

 

Q. 5 Select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. ECA

B. GIK

C. QOM

D. WUS

 

Q. 6 Select the odd number from the given alternatives.

A. 133

B. 253

C. 231

D. 209

 

Q. 7 A series is given, with one word missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

rupees, arena, pursue, spare, separate, ?

A. rapid

B. pusher

C. person

D. super

 

Q. 8 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

U, T, R, O, K ?

A. G

B. H

C. E

D. F

 

Q. 9 A series is given, with one number missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

-7.25, -5.75, -4.25, -2.75, ? , 0.25

A. 1.25

B. -1.25

C. 1.5

D. -1.5

 

Q. 10 Aarush’s birthday is on Thursday 27th April. On what day of the week will be Mitul’s Birthday in the same year if Mitul was born on 28th September?

A. Monday

B. Thursday

C. Wednesday

D. Tuesday

 

Q. 11 The weights of 4 boxes are 20, 30, 40 and 60 kilograms. Which of the following cannot be the total weight, in kilograms, of any combination of these boxes and in a combination a box can be used only once?

A. 150

B. 110

C. 130

D. 140

 

Q. 12 From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

HUMBLING

A. BLUE

B. NUMB

C. LUNG

D. GLUM

 

Q. 13 If FOREIGN is coded as ULIVRTM, then how will SAP be coded as?

A. NQL

B. PLQ

C. GYP

D. HZK

 

Q. 14 In a certain code language, ‘+’ represents ‘x’, ‘-‘ represents ‘+’, ‘x’ represents ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ represents ‘-‘. What is the answer to the following question?

25 + 10 ÷ 240 x 16 = ?

A. 85

B. 235

C. 12

D. 20

 

Q. 15 If 9#3=6; 15#3=9; 60#4=32; then what is the value of 27#3=?

A. 24

B. 15

C. 13

D. 33

 

Q. 16 Select the missing number from the given responses

A. 13

B. 17

C. 84

D. 98

 

Q. 17 Priya cycles 5 km North, then turns East and cycles 4 km, then turns South and cycles 5 km, then turns to her right and cycles 6 km. Where is she now with reference to her starting position?

A. 2km East

B. 2km West

C. 10km West

D. 10km East

 

Q. 18 In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statement 1 : No squares are rectangles.

Statement 2 : All rectangles are triangles.

Conclusion I : Some triangles are squares.

Conclusion II : Some triangles are rectangles.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both I and II follow

D. Neither I nor II follows

 

Q. 19 Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure? 

 

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 20 In the following figure, square represents teacher, triangle represents swimmers, circle represents numbers,

A. D,F

B. A, B, D, F, G

C. A, B, G

D. I, C, H

 

Q. 21 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 22 From the given figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figure. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

 

Q. 25 A word is created by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘K’ can be represented by 42, 33 etc and ‘Z’ can be represented by 56, 67 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘NOTE’.

A. 04,30, 85,66

B. 20,40,75,69

C. 40,21,69,55

D. 99,78,75,22

 

Q. 26 The marginal product curve is inverse ____ shaped.

A. X

B. W

C. V

D. U

 

Q. 27 Goods which are consumed together are called?

A. Inferior goods

B. Normal goods

C. Complementary goods

D. Substitute goods

 

Q. 28 “Public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries” is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India.

A. Union

B. State

C. Global

D. Concurrent

 

Q. 29 _________ elects the President and the Vice President and removes judges of Supreme Court and High Court.

A. Ministry of Defence

B. Lok Sabha

C. Prime Minister’s Office

D. Securities and Exchange Board of India

 

Q. 30 According to the categories of land mentioned in the Chola inscriptions ___________ was known as the land gifted to Brahmanas?

A. Vellanvagai

B. Brahmadeya

C. Shalabhoga

D. Devadana

 

Q. 31 Prithviraj III (1168-1192) was a best known ___________ ruler.

A. Chahamana

B. Gahadavala

C. Chalukya

D. Brahmana

 

Q. 32 ___________ is the wearing away of the landscape by different agents like water, wind and ice. 

A. Weathering

B. Attrition

C. Erosion

D. Abrasion

 

Q. 33 The method of soil conservation in which bare ground between plants is covered with layer of organic matter like straw is called?

A. Mulching

B. Contour barriers

C. Rock dam

D. Terrace farming

 

Q. 34 Classes comprising animals like fishes, amphibians, reptiles, birds along with mammals constitute the category called?

A. Species

B. Genus

C. Kingdom

D. Phylum

 

Q. 35 The predominant stage of the life cycle of a moss is the gametophyte which consists of two stages. The first stage is the ___________ stage.

A. Agar

B. Leafy

C. Chlorella

D. Protonema

 

Q. 36 _________ is the largest phylum of Animalia which includes insects.

A. Annelida

B. Chordata

C. Arthropoda

D. Platyhelminthes

 

Q. 37 For an object, the state of rest is considered to be the state of ______ speed.

A. increasing

B. decreasing

C. inverse

D. zero

 

Q. 38 The laws which govern the motion of planets are called _______.

A. Newton’s Laws

B. Kepler’s Laws

C. Avogadro’s Laws

D. De Morgan’s Laws

 

Q. 39 In Microsoft Word, _______ allows us to change the color of selected text.

A. Font Color

B. Text Color

C. Change Color

D. Background Color

 

Q. 40 Brownish film formed on iron when left in open is called?

A. Dust

B. Shovel

C. Spade

D. Rust

 

Q. 41 The substances which have very low ignition temperature and can easily catch fire with a flame are called _____________ substances.

A. hazardous

B. perilous

C. incombustible

D. inflammable

 

Q. 42 Many freshwater animals cannot live for long in sea water and vice versa because of the _______ problems, they would face.

A. Osmotic

B. Eurythermal

C. Stenothermal

D. Hydrothermal

 

Q. 43 _____________ scheme has been introduced by the Central Government to provide equal primary education to all budding children across India.

A. Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan

B. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana

C. Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Yojana

D. Vidyanjali Yojana

 

Q. 44 Who discovered Insulin?

A. Sir Alexander Fleming

B. Frederick Banting

C. James Watt

D. Sir F.G . Hopkins

 

Q. 45 Which nation will host the Summer Olympics in the year 2020?

A. China

B. South Korea

C. Canada

D. Japan

 

Q. 46 Dhamek Stupa was built by?

A. Akbar

B. Humayun

C. Ashoka

D. Narasimha

 

Q. 47 Which of the following is India’s highest award in cinema given annually by the Government of India for lifetime contribution to Indian cinema?

A. Ashok Chakra

B. Dada Saheb Phalke Awards

C. Arjuna Award

D. Padma Shri

 

Q. 48 Which of the statements given below are correct?

1. The author of the novel ‘Air’ is Geoff Ryman.

2. The author of the novel ‘Ulysses’ is James Joyce.

3. The author of the novel ‘The Great Gatsby’ is F. Scott Fitzgerald

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1and 3

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Q. 49 In 2016, which company lost high profile legal battles with HP and Google?

A. Oracle

B. Apple

C. Microsoft

D. Intel

 

Q. 50 Which of the following is a major river in Bangladesh which is also the main distributary of the Ganges?

A. Gandak

B. Kosi

C. Gomati

D. Padma

 

Q. 51 What least number must be subtracted from 518, so that the sum is completely divisible by 13?

A. 11

B. 10

C. 9

D. 12

 

Q. 52 A and B together do a job in 12 days and A could do the job in 20 days if he worked alone. How many days would B take to do the job if he worked alone?

A. 30

B. 25

C. 24

D. 15

 

Q. 53 What is the area (in sq cm) of a regular hexagon of side 9 cm?

A. 50√3

B. 300√3

C. 243√3/2

D. 200√3

 

Q. 54 If 1 shirt is offered free on purchase of 4 shirts, what is the effective discount (in %) on each shirt?

A. 25

B. 20

C. 16

D. 24

 

Q. 55 The ratio of present ages of P and Q is 7:9. Before 10 years the ratio of their ages was 5:7. What is Q’s present age (in years)?

A. 35

B. 45

C. 25

D. 55

 

Q. 56 The average marks of 40 students in an examination was 34. It was later found that the marks of one student had been wrongly entered as 62 instead of 26. what is the correct average?

A. 33.1

B. 33.3

C. 33.5

D. 33.7

 

Q. 57 A wholesaler sells a good to a retailer at a profit of 5% and the retailer sells it to a customer at a profit of 10%. If the customer pays Rs. 2,000, what had it cost (in Rs) the wholesaler?

A. 1731.6

B. 3210.6

C. 1931.6

D. 2310.6

 

Q. 58 When a number is increased by 69, it becomes 103% of itself. What is the number ?

A. 1300

B. 3300

C. 2300

D. 4300

 

Q. 59 A boat goes a certain distance at 40 km/hr and comes back the same distance at 24 km/hr. What is the average speed (in km/hr) for the total journey?

A. 32

B. 28

C. 34

D. 30

 

Q. 60 A sum fetched a total simple interest of Rs.5,400 at the rate of 12.5 %/yr in 4 years. What is the sum (in Rs)?

A. 11800

B. 12800

C. 9800

D. 10800

 

Q. 61 If 2/3(6x/5 – 1/4) + 1/3 = 9x/5, then what is the value of x?

A. 1/6

B. -1/6

C. 1/5

D. -1/5

 

Q. 62 If a³+b³=341and ab = 30, then what is the value of a + b?

A. 1

B. 9

C. 7

D. 11

 

Q. 63 Sum of a fraction and thrice its reciprocal is 31/6. What is the fraction?

A. 2/9

B. 9/4

C. 9/2

D. 4/9

 

Q. 64 What is the sum of the first 13 terms of an arithmetic progression if the 5th term is 1 and the 8th term is -17?

A. -140

B. 61

C. -143

D. 166

 

Q. 65 What is the reflection of the point (-4, 3) in the line x = -2?

A. (-4, -7)

B. (4, 3)

C. (0, 3)

D. (-4, 7)

 

Q. 66 Point A divides segment BC in the ratio 5:1. Coordinates of B are (6 ,-4) and C are (0,8). What are the coordinates of point A?

A. (-1, 6)

B. (1, -6)

C. (-1, -6)

D. (1, 6)

 

Q. 67 What is the slope of the line parallel to the line passing through the points (3 , -4) and (-2 , 5)?

A. 9/5

B. -5/9

C. -9/5

D. 5/9

 

Q. 68 ΔXYZ is similar to ΔPQR. If ratio of Perimeter of ΔXYZ and Perimeter of ΔPQR is 4:9 and if PQ = 27 cm, then what is the length of XY (in cm)?

A. 9

B. 12

C. 16

D. 15

 

Q. 69 What is the value of Cot 45° + 1/3 Cosec 60°?

A. √3 + 2

B. (9 + 2√3)/9

C. √3

D. (2√2 + 3)/√6

 

Q. 70 Δ DEF is right angled at E. If m∠F = 45o, then what is the value of Sin F x Tan F?

A. √2

B. 1/√3

C. 1/√2

D. 2/√3

 

Q. 71 If Cot θ = 21/20, then what is the value of Sec θ?

A. 29/21

B. 21/29

C. 29/20

D. 20/29

 

Questions: 72 – 75

A survey conducted to find what genre of movies people liked the most 1200 people answered the survey. The pie chart shows the results of that survey. The numbers in the pie chart are the ratios. Study the diagram end answer the following questions.

 

Q. 72 Which two genres of movies were liked the least?

A. Fiction and Historical

B. Fiction and Drama

C. Drama and Historical

D. Drama and Romance

 

Q. 73 How many surveyed said they liked Historical movies?

A. 6

B. 72

C. 80

D. 60

 

Q. 74 How many more people surveyed like Drama movies than those who like Romance movies?

A. 3

B. 36

C. 40

D. 30

 

Q. 75 24% people who were mailed the survey questionnaire answered the survey. The survey questionnaire was mailed to how many people?

A. 5000

B. 10000

C. 1200

D. 288

 

Q. 76 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

The lady was knocked down (1)/by a speeding car (2)/upon crossing the road.(3)/No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 77 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Grandfather led (1)/a peaceful life after his (2)/retirement from the army.(3)/No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 78 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Since my father was an _____________ from India, he brought his Indian culture and traditions to the United States with him.

A. emigrant

B. immigrant

C. native

D. citizen

 

Q. 79 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

At night, the winding roads can make driving up the mountain a ______________ journey.

A. carefree

B. beastly

C. obnoxious

D. treacherous

 

Q. 80 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Stupor

A. Sensibility

B. Slumber

C. Liveliness

D. Consciousness

 

Q. 81 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Subtle

A. Harsh

B. Open

C. Ignorant

D. Understated

 

Q. 82 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Sullen

A. Glum

B. Silent

C. Crabby

D. Agreeable

 

Q. 83 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Summon

A. Dismiss

B. Draft

C. Invite

D. Mobilise

 

Q. 84 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

At the drop of a hat

A. Without any hesitation; instantly

B. Show outward respect to someone you hate.

C. Forcibly let go of something which is very personal to you

D. A mistake which is of not much consequence.

 

Q. 85 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Beat a dead horse

A. Show extreme level of cruelty especially to animals.

B. Exploit someone to the point of killing him/her.

C. To uselessly dwell on a subject far beyond its point of resolution.

D. To continue playing a game knowing very well that you are going to lose.

 

Q. 86 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”.

I gave up (drinks) many years ago.

A. to drink

B. drink

C. drinking

D. no improvement

 

Q. 87 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”.

Rahul went out without (saying) good bye.

A. say even

B. even said

C. say

D. no improvement

 

Q. 88 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence.

A person or thing that is likely to cause harm

A. Menace

B. Cordial

C. Festal

D. Blithe

 

Q. 89 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence.

Having or involving an extreme or irrational fear of or aversion to something.

A. Valiant

B. Stout

C. Phobic

D. Foolhardy

 

Q. 90 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. bereaving

B. bereaveing

C. bereving

D. bireaving

 

Q. 91 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. deligence

B. diligence

C. delegence

D. dilegence

 

Q. 92 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. 

I’ve taken out my

X-and stay poised and vigilant

Y-ear buds so I can

Z-listen for announc ements

A. ZXY

B. YZX

C. XZY

D. YXZ

 

Q. 93 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

In the Northeast, the sun

X-sets by four in the evening

Y-morning and in winter it

Z-rises as early as four in the

A. XYZ

B. YZX

C. ZYX

D. ZXY

 

Q. 94 In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

The majestic Asiatic Lions roam the sanctuary.

A. The Asiatic lions which are majestic roamed the sanctuary.

B. The sanctuary is the place where the majestic Asiatic lions roam.

C. The sanctuary is roamed by majestic Asiatic lions.

D. The majestic Asiatic Lions have been roaming the sanctuary.

 

Q. 95 In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

“How old is your grandmother?”, Navneet asked her.

A. Navneet asked her how old her grandmother is.

B. Navneet asked her how old her grandmother has been.

C. Navneet asked her how old her grandmother was.

D. Navneet asked her how old is her grandmother.

 

Questions: 96 – 100

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

The promise of nuclear power has so __________ outweighed all of these concerns,  and India has reason to be proud of its technology and determination to look for non-fossil _______________ in its energy planning. However, _________ rapid progress in technology in other ______________ energy sources such as wind and solar power, the collapse of oil prices and the expansion in gas projects as a viable and

clean alternative, that promise ______________. 

 

Q. 96 nuclear power has so __________ outweighed all of these concerns

A. far

B. less

C. near

D. closely

 

Q. 97 look for non-fossil _______________ in its energy planning.

A. compulsions

B. obligations

C. alternatives

D. constraints

 

Q. 98 However, _________ rapid progress in technology

A. to

B. from

C. with

D. for

 

Q. 99 other ______________ energy sources such as wind and solar power

A. brief

B. renewable

C. untenable

D. temporary

 

Q. 100 projects as a viable and clean alternative, that promise ______________.

A. to dim

B. dimming

C. was dim

D. has dimmed

 

 

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer D B B B B A B D B B
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer D A D B B A B B C C
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer D D D D D D C B B B
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer A C A D D C D B A D
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer D A D B D C B D A D
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer A A C B B B A C D D
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer A D C C C D C B B C
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer A A C C A C D B D B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer D D A A C C D A C A
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B B C C C A C C B D

SSC CGL Tier-I 05 August 2017 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

 SSC CGL Tier 1 2017 5 Aug Shift 2 

Q. 1 In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Player : Team : : Minister : ?

A. Army

B. Troupe

C. Council

D. Crowd

 

Q. 2 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

TRACK : MECTV : : POND : ?

A. EOPQ

B. FPQR

C. GOQQ

D. HPPR

 

Q. 3 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

850 : 863 : : 430 : ?

A. 437

B. 442

C. 435

D. 451

 

Q. 4 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Cotton

B. Mustard

C. Peas

D. Sesame

 

Q. 5 In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. CXA

B. MNQ

C. PKN

D. HSU

 

Q. 6 In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 64 – 576

B. 17 – 343

C. 27 – 196

D. 32 – 36

 

Q. 7 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Yangtze

2. Yakking

3. Yakuzas

4. Yobbery

5. Yobbish

A. 24531

B. 23145

C. 54231

D. 54321

 

Q. 8 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

AK12, GV29, LF18, PO?

A. 34

B. 31

C. 42

D. 40

 

Q. 9 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

21, 26, 33, 42, 53, ?

A. 56

B. 63

C. 66

D. 69

 

Q. 10 Ratio of present ages of Pankaj and Punit is 5 : 6 and the sum of their ages is 33 years. What will be the difference (in years) of their ages?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

 

Q. 11 Kritika walks 40 metres towards south. Then turning to her right she rides 30 metres. Then, turning to her left, she rides 50 metres. Again, she turns to her left and rides 30 metres. How far (in metres) is she from her initial position?

A. 65

B. 70

C. 80

D. 90

 

Q. 12 In the following question, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

CONSOLIDATE

A. CONSOLE

B. ONSET

C. SALTY

D. SOLID

 

Q. 13 In a certain code language, “STUBBORN” is written as “VUTAAOSP”. How is “SHIPPING” written in that code language?

A. TIJOOHPJ

B. QFOLLSLO

C. TIJNNOJH

D. JITOOHOJ

 

Q. 14 Correct the following equation by interchanging the two signs and two numbers.

7 x 6 + 5 – 4 = 33

A. –, x an d 4, 5

B. –, x an d 4, 5

C. +, – and 5 , 6

D. x, – and 5, 6

 

Q. 15 If 3 @ 3 * 3 = 3 and 48 @ 4 * 3 = 36, then 91 @ 13 * 2 = ?

A. 4

B. 8

C. 10

D. 14

 

Q. 16 In the following question select the number which can be placed at the sign of the question mark(?) from the given alternatives

A. 11

B. 16

C. 21

D. 31

 

Q. 17 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 11

B. 9

C. 10

D. 12

 

Q. 18 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. No purse is cloth.

II. All purses are leather.

Conclusions:

I. No leather is cloth.

II. Some leather are cloth.

III. Some leather are purses.

A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Only conclusion (III ) follows.

C. Only conclusion (I) and conclusion (II) follow.

D. All conclusions follow.

 

Q. 19 Three positions of a cube are shown below. What will come opposite to face containing ‘1’?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

 

Q. 20 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Brother, Husband, Men

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 21 Which of the following figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figure. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figure is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 25 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘D’ can be represented first by 68, 95, etc, and ‘P’ can be represented by 75, 97, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word “BAND”

A. 23, 76, 22, 77

B. 11, 67, 40, 95

C. 00, 55, 03, 59

D. 44, 89, 30, 87

 

Q. 26 In which of the following case, law of demand fails?

A. Giffen goods

B. Normal goods

C. Inferior goods

D. Both Giffen and Inferior goods

 

Q. 27 Match the following

A. 1-b, 2- c, 3-a

B. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b

C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c

D. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c

 

Q. 28 How many fundamental Rights are mentioned in Indian constitution?

A. Five

B. Four

C. Seven

D. Eight

 

Q. 29 Which of the following Article/Articles cannot be suspended even during emergency?

A. Article 19

B. Article 20 and 21

C. Article 22 and 23

D. Article 24 and 25

 

Q. 30 Who was the first Viceroy of India?

A. Lord Canning

B. Lord Curzon

C. Lord Wavell

D. Lord Mountbatten

 

Q. 31 Who wrote ‘Nyaya Sutra’?

A. Vyasa

B. Gautam

C. Kapila

D. Charaka

 

Q. 32 Earth’s Deepest point in water is Mariana trench. It is located in which of the following oceans?

A. Atlantic Ocean

B. Arctic Ocean

C. Indian Ocean

D. Pacific Ocean

 

Q. 33 Masai is a tribe of which of the following country?

A. Kenya

B. Germany

C. Australia

D. India

 

Q. 34 With which of the following body organ is ‘pace-maker’ associated?

A. Liver

B. Brain

C. Heart

D. Lungs

 

Q. 35 Haemoglobin is an important component of _______.

A. white blood cells

B. red blood cells

C. plasma

D. All options are correct

 

Q. 36 Anaemia is caused because of deficiency of which of the following?

A. Cobalt

B. Iron

C. Sodium

D. Calcium

 

Q. 37 What is the minimum distance (in metres) required to hear an echo?

A. 10

B. 13

C. 17

D. 21

 

Q. 38 Why does a black board appears black in colour?

A. It reflects black colour

B. It absorbs black colour

C. It reflects all colours

D. It absorbs all the colours

 

Q. 39 Which one among the following is a main system board of a computer?

A. CPU

B. Keyboard

C. Microchip

D. Mother board

 

Q. 40 Which among the following metal is used for galvanization?

A. Zinc

B. Copper

C. Iron

D. Silver

 

Q. 41 What is dry ice?

A. Solid Carbon dioxide

B. Solid Nitrogen dioxide

C. Solid Sulphur dioxide

D. Solid Water

 

Q. 42 Which of the following represents the most complex trophic level?

A. Community

B. Population

C. Ecosystem

D. Species

 

Q. 43 Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh launched a medical scheme for APL families. What is the name of that scheme?

A. Haritha Kalyanam

B. Arogya Raksha

C. Kalyanamsurvay

D. Swasthya Raksha

 

Q. 44 Who discovered X-rays?

A. W. C. Roentgen

B. Albert Einstein

C. Samuel Cohen

D. Edward Taylor

 

Q. 45 How many players are there in a water polo team?

A. 6

B. 5

C. 7

D. 8

 

Q. 46 ‘Lavani’ is a dance form of which state in India?

A. Maharashtra

B. Gujarat

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Andhra Pradesh

 

Q. 47 Who is being awarded with Asian Award 2016 as the Chivas Social entrepreneur of the year?

A. Vikram Patel

B. Shri Prakash Lohia

C. Rami Ranger

D. Anil Agarwal

 

Q. 48 The book “Azad Bachpan ki Aur” is written by which author?

A. Kailash Satyarthi

B. Radhakant Bharti

C. Dipak Misra

D. Subhash Chandra

 

Q. 49 India by the Nile’, was a cultural festival celebrated by India and _____.

A. Sudan

B. Kampala

C. Egypt

D. Kenya

 

Q. 50 Sheikh Hasina Wazed is the Prime Minister of which neighbouring country of India?

A. Pakistan

B. Bangladesh

C. Afghanistan

D. Nepal

 

Q. 51 What is the value of [12/(√5 + √3)] + [18/(√5 – √3)]?

A. 15(√5 – √3)

B. 3(5√5 + √3)

C. 15(√5 + √3)

D. 3(3√5 + √3)

 

Q. 52 S, T and U can complete a work in 40, 48 and 60 days respectively. They received Rs 10800 to complete the work. They begin the work together but T left 2 days before the completion of the work and U left 5 days before the completion of the work. S has completed the remaining work alone. What is the share of S(in Rs) from total money? 

A. 4000

B. 4320

C. 4500

D. 4860

 

Q. 53 A farmer’s land is in the shape of a trapezium which has its parallel sides measuring 2.56 yards and 3.44 yards and the distance between the parallel sides in 1.44 yards. The cost of ploughing the land is Rs 1800 per square yard. What amount will (in Rs) have to be spent in order to plough the entire land?

A. 3672

B. 6732

C. 7776

D. 8214

 

Q. 54 If after giving a discount of 18%, a book is sold for Rs 1599, then what will be the marked price (in Rs) of the book?

A. 1800

B. 1880

C. 1950

D. 2000

 

Q. 55 A man has 3 sons, 2 daughters and a wife. They divided a sum of Rs 19000 among themselves such that each daughter got 1.5 times the amount received by each son and his wife received 600 less than each son. What is the total amount (in Rs) received by the 3 sons together?

A. 2800

B. 3600

C. 5600

D. 8400

 

Q. 56 The average of 3 consecutive even numbers is A. If next 5 even numbers are added, then what is the average of these 8 numbers?

A. A + 3

B. A + 4

C. A + 5

D. A + 7

 

Q. 57 While selling an article for Rs 18450, a person suffered a loss of 50%. At what price he should have sold the article (in Rs) to earn a profit of 50%?

A. 13837

B. 52000

C. 55350

D. 56775

 

Q. 58 The present population of a town is 26010. It increases annually at the rate of 2%. What was the population of town 2 years ago?

A. 25000

B. 25100

C. 25200

D. 25500

 

Q. 59 A train of length 100 m crosses another train of length 150 m, running on a parallel track in the opposite direction in 9 seconds. If the speed of train having length 150 m is 40 km/hr, then what is the speed (in km/hr) of the other train?

A. 30

B. 48

C. 50

D. 60

 

Q. 60 What is the compound interest (in Rs) for 1 year on a sum of Rs 20000 at the rate of 40% per annum compounding half yearly?

A. 8000

B. 8650

C. 8750

D. 8800

 

Q. 61 What is the difference of the cube and square of the common root of (x2 – 8x + 15) = 0 and (y2 + 2y – 35) = 0?

A. 76

B. 100

C. 294

D. 318

 

Q. 62 If (x – 1/3)² +(y – 4)² = 0, then what is the value of y – x/y + x?

A. 11/13

B. 13/11

C. 16/9

D. 9/16

 

Q. 63 What is the difference of the factors of the expression x² + (1/x²) – 6?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

 

Q. 64 If x +(1/x) = √13, then what is the value of x⁵ -(1/x⁵)?

A. 169

B. 169√3

C. 393

D. 507

 

Q. 65 If D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively of a triangle ABC such that DE||BC. If AD = x cm, DB = (x – 3) cm, AE = (x + 3) cm and EC = (x – 2) cm, then what is the value (in cm) of x?

A. 3

B. 3.5

C. 4

D. 4.5

 

Q. 66 If medians of a triangle have lengths 18 cm, 24 cm and 30 cm, then what is the area (in cm2) of the triangle?

A. 24√6

B. 244

C. 288

D. 360

 

Q. 67 Two smaller circles touch a large circle internally and pass through the center O of the larger circle. If the diameter of the bigger circle is 28 cm, then what is the area of the bigger circle which is not enclosed by the two smaller circles (in cm2)?

A. 154

B. 256

C. 308

D. 616

 

Q. 68 In the given figure, O is the in-center of triangle ABC. If AO/OE = 5/4 and CO/OD = 3/2, then what is the value of BO/OF?

A. 19/4

B. 38/17

C. 38/7

D. 19/7

 

Q. 69 What is the simplified value of tan (θ/2) + cot (θ/2)?

A. 2 cosec θ

B. 2 sec θ

C. sin θ

D. cosec θ

 

Q. 70 What is the simplified value of [(sec³x – tan³x)/(secx – tanx)] – 2tan²x – secxtanx?

A. 0

B. 2

C. -1

D. 1

 

Q. 71 If sin⁸θ + cos⁸θ – 1 = 0, then what is the value of cos²θsin²θ(If θ ≠ 0 or n/2)?

A. -1

B. 0

C. 1

D. 2

 

Questions: 72 – 75

The table given below represents the marks obtained by 5 students in 4 different

subjects. Each student was given marks out of 100 in each of the given subjects.

 

Q. 72 In which subject the total marks of all the students is highest?

A. English

B. Mathematics

C. Science

D. Hindi

 

Q. 73 Which student scored the maximum marks in all the 4 subjects taken together?

A. Student 1

B. Student 2

C. Student 3

D. Student 5

 

Q. 74 A new subject is added in which all the students have scored 100 marks. If total marks are calculated as sum of the marks of highest 4 subjects, then who will be second in terms of total marks?

A. Student 3

B. Student 2

C. Student 5

D. Student 4

 

Q. 75 The average marks per student in English is what percent of the average marks per student in Hindi?

A. 91.48

B. 97.12

C. 92.71

D. 98.18

 

Q. 76 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No error’.

My sister-in-laws (1)/ who lives in Kolkata (2)/ have come to stay with us. (3)/ No Error (4) 

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 77 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No error’.

These kind of clothes (1)/ are rather expensive (2)/ for me to buy. (3)/ No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 78 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The employee did not _____ to the argument of the manager.

A. precede

B. exceed

C. concede

D. recede

 

Q. 79 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

He was sworn _____ as the Prime Minister of our country.

A. in

B. off

C. about

D. out

 

Q. 80 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Cantankerous

A. Humorous

B. Quarrelsome

C. Remorseful

D. Dullness

 

Q. 81 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Connoisseur

A. Decisive

B. Uncivilised

C. Discerning Judge

D. Narrow-minded

 

Q. 82 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Nugatory

A. Delusive

B. Futile

C. Unreal

D. Productive

 

Q. 83 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Naive

A. Artful

B. Candid

C. Credulous

D. Sincere

 

Q. 84 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.

A. Ill-tempered

B. Soft-spoken

C. Enthusiastic

D. Depressed

 

Q. 85 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.

By fits and starts

A. Occasionally

B. Totally

C. Finally

D. Irregularly

 

Q. 86 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

I had (not only helped her by) giving hints but also with providing him links.

A. helped not only to her by.

B. helped her not only by

C. not only helped her

D. No improvement

 

Q. 87 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

We (has finished) our lunch half an hour ago.

A. finished

B. will have finished

C. had finished

D. No improvement

 

Q. 88 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

The act of speaking irreverently about sacred things. 

A. Atheist

B. Blasphemy

C. Bellicose

D. Deflection

 

Q. 89 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

A person who talks too much of himself.

A. Egoist

B. Elite

C. Emetic

D. Egotist

 

Q. 90 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt.

Find the incorrectly spelt word.

A. Entrepreneur

B. Remuneration

C. Apprentice

D. Soveriegnity

 

Q. 91 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt.

Find the incorrectly spelt word.

A. Tranquillity

B. Perseverence

C. Resplendence

D. Accommodation

 

Q. 92 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

P: In other countries which are populated by ‘haves’, frustration is among them also

because they do “haves”.

Q: In some countries, frustration exists because these countries are populated by “havenots”.

R: Frustration is a global cancer.

S: It has spared no country.

A. RSQP

B. SQRP

C. PSRQ

D. QRPS

 

Q. 93 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

P: The real purpose underlying this maxim lies in its utility in the worldly sense.

Q: He has within him a spirit which is ever exhorting him to cut down his needs and learn to be happy with what he has.

R: Man is something much greater than an intelligent being using his intellect to make newer inventions from time to time.

S: It tells us to be up and doing, not to be passive in our attitude to life.

A. PRQS

B. QPSR

C. RQPS

D. SRPQ

 

Q. 94 In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

Why do you waste money?

A. Why is money been wasted by you?

B. Why has money been wasted by you ?

C. Why is money wasted by you?

D. Why is money being wasted by you?

 

Q. 95 In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

The doctor said, “well, what can I do for you?”

A. The doctor wanted to know what he could do for her.

B. The doctor said that he couldn’t do anything for her.

C. The doctor asked what he couldn’t do for her.

D. The doctor wondered what he could do for her.

 

Questions: 96 – 100

In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives. The world has seen a _____ growth in several spheres. Agricultural production, industrial production, communication, medicine, education etc, have seen _____ growth. We can safely assume that the future is not as _____ as once appeared to be. We are not by a vision of hungry hordes overwhelming world food resources. Although it is _____ that many people, especially in the developing countries, are hungry, illiterate and _____ to diseases.

 

Q. 96 The world has seen a _____ growth in several spheres.

A. tremendous

B. mere

C. hardly

D. slow

 

Q. 97 Agricultural production, industrial production, communication, medicine, education etc, have seen _____ growth.

A. equal

B. unprecedented

C. negligible

D. negative

 

Q. 98 We can safely assume that the future is not as _____ as once appeared to be.

A. good

B. strong

C. bleak

D. high

 

Q. 99 Although it is _____ that many people, especially in the developing countries,

A. unclear

B. false

C. incorrect

D. true

 

Q. 100 are hungry, illiterate and _____ to diseases.

A. prone

B. averse

C. liable

D. engross

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C B A A D B B B C B
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer D C D C D A C B C B
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer D B B A C D A A B A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B D A C B B C D D A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A C B A C A A A C B
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer B D C C D C C A D D
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer B B D C D C C C A A
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer D B C B C A A C A B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C D A B D B C B D D
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B A C C A A B C D A

SSC CGL Tier-I 05 August 2017 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2017 5 Aug Shift 1 

Q. 1 In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Power : Watt : : ? : ? 

A. Pressure : Newton

B. Force : Pascal

C. Resistance : Mho

D. Work : Joule

 

Q. 2 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

NPBG : OQCH : : AJOT : ?

A. BKPU

B. BUPK

C. BHKP

D. HBKU

 

Q. 3 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

101 : 10201 : : 107 : ?

A. 10707

B. 10749

C. 11449

D. 11407

 

Q. 4 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Lion

B. Leopard

C. Snake

D. Tiger

 

Q. 5 In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. NPR

B. TVW

C. FHJ

D. KMO

 

Q. 6 In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

A. 69

B. 59

C. 61

D. 53

 

Q. 7 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Ropped

2. Roster

3. Roasted

4. Road

5. Roller

A. 35412

B. 45312

C. 34512

D. 43512

 

Q. 8 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

BCF, CDG, DEH, ?

A. EFI

B. EFG

C. DFI

D. EGI

 

Q. 9 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

2, 5, 12, 27, ?

A. 53

B. 56

C. 57

D. 58

 

Q. 10 If ‘P 3 Q’ means ‘P is daughter of Q’, ‘P 5 Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’, ‘P 7 Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’ and ‘P 9 Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’, then how is J related to K in J 3 L 9 N 3 O 5 K?

A. Mother

B. Wife

C. Niece

D. Daughter

 

Q. 11 Rakhi got engaged 10 years ago. Rakhi’s present age is 5/3 of her age at the time of engagement. If the present age of Rakhi’s mother is twice that of present age of Rakhi, then what was her mother’s age (in years) at the time of her engagement?

A. 50

B. 40

C. 30

D. 60

 

Q. 12 In the following question, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

Suspensefulness

A. Sense

B. Fuels

C. Useful

D. Fullness

 

Q. 13 In a certain code language, “BAD” is written as “7” and “SAP” is written as “9”. How is “BAN” written in that code language?

A. 8

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

 

Q. 14 In the following question, correct the equation by interchanging two signs.

9 x 3 + 8 ÷ 4 – 7 = 28

A. x and –

B. + and –

C. ÷ and +

D. x and ÷

 

Q. 15 If 4 * 5 % 3 = 8000 and 2 * 3 % 2 = 36, then

4 * 3 % 3 = ?

A. 432

B. 1728

C. 36

D. 144

 

Q. 16 In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

A. 43

B. 49

C. 59

D. 71

 

Q. 17 How many triangles are there in given figure ?

A. 20

B. 22

C. 28

D. 32

 

Q. 18 In each of the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. Some pens are pencils.

II. All pencils are erasers.

Conclusions:

I. Some pens are erasers.

II. No pens are erasers.

III. Some erasers are pencils

A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (I) and (II) follow.

C. Only conclusion (I) and (III) follow.

D. No conclusion follows.

 

Q. 19 Three positions of a cube are shown below. What will come opposite to face containing ‘I’ ?

A. VI

B. IV

C. II

D. V

 

Q. 20 In the given figure, how many pens are blue ?

A. 23

B. 19

C. 12

D. 15

Q. 21 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ?

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

 

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

 

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

 

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the lie AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure ?

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

 

Q. 25 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. 

The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘K’ can be represented by 01,34,etc. and ‘P’ can be represented by 65,99,etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word “BLAND”

A. 10, 14, 00, 68, 79

B. 31, 41, 33, 96, 86

C. 44, 20, 42, 88, 59

D. 23, 32, 24, 55, 66

 

Q. 26 At which rate, Reserve Bank of India borrows money from commercial banks?

A. Bank Rate

B. Repo Rate

C. Reverse Repo Rate

D. Statutory Liquidity Rate

 

Q. 27 Movement along the supply curve is known as ______ .

A. Contraction of supply

B. Expansion of supply

C. Increase in supply

D. Expansion and contraction of supply

 

Q. 28 What is the minimum age required to become vice-president of India?

A. 30 years

B. 35 years

C. 40 years

D. 37 years

 

Q. 29 Which of the following “writ” of the High Court or the Supreme Court is issued to restrain a person from holding a public office which he is not entitled to?

A. Certiorari

B. Mandamus

C. Prohibition

D. Quo Warranto

 

Q. 30 Who was the son of Chandragupta Maurya?

A. Bindusara

B. Chandragupta

C. Ashoka

D. Bimbisara

 

Q. 31 Which dynasty came to power in India after the Tughlaq dynasty?

A. The Guptas

B. The Khiljis

C. The Mughals

D. The Sayyids

 

Q. 32 Which planet is considered as the Dwarf planet?

A. Earth

B. Jupiter

C. Pluto

D. Saturn

 

Q. 33 Sandstone is which type of rock?

A. Calcareous Rock

B. Igneous Rock

C. Metamorphic Rock

D. Sedimentary Rock

 

Q. 34 Wheat is a ______.

A. Creeper

B. Herb

C. Shrub

D. Tree

 

Q. 35 Snakes, turtle, lizards and crocodiles falls under which category of animals?

A. Pisces

B. Amphibian

C. Reptilian

D. Aves

 

Q. 36 Which of the following instrument is used to measure Soil Water Tension?

A. Photometer

B. Pyrometer

C. Psychrometer

D. Tensiometer

 

Q. 37 What is the SI unit of Force?

A. Pascal

B. Boyle

C. Newton

D. Watt

 

Q. 38 Which one of the following is a bad Thermal Conductor?

A. Aluminium

B. Copper

C. Glass

D. Silver

 

Q. 39 Which of the following stores data permanently in a computer?

A. ALU

B. Cache Memory

C. RAM

D. ROM

 

Q. 40 Rusting is _____

A. Electrolysis

B. Oxidation

C. Redox reaction (Oxidation and Reduction)

D. Reduction.

 

Q. 41 Which amongst the following is not a Cation?

A. Aluminium ion

B. Copper ion

C. Sulphate ion

D. Zinc ion

 

Q. 42 Which of the following is not a component of Smog?

A. Volatile organic compounds

B. Nitrogen Oxide

C. Sulphur dioxide

D. Chlorine oxide

 

Q. 43 NITI Aayog has been formed to replace which of the following institution?

A. Planning Commission

B. IRDA

C. Department of Telecommunications (DoT)

D. Department of Information Technology

 

Q. 44 Who invented first working laser?

A. A. H. Taylor

B. W. K. Roentgen

C. T. H. Maiman

D. Fred Morrison

 

Q. 45 Which of the following venue hosted its first ever test match on 9th November, 2016 which was played between India and England?

A. JSCA International Stadium Complex, Ranchi

B. Saurashtra Cricket Association Stadium, Rajkot

C. Himachal Pradesh Cricket Association Stadium, Dharamshala

D. Holkar Cricket Stadium, Indore

 

Q. 46 Match the following.

Artist Art form

1. gauri Shankar Devilal 1. Flute

2. Hari prasad Chaurasia 2. Painting

3. M. F. Hussain 3. Kathak

4. Zakir Hussain 4. Tabla

A. 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c

B. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d

C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b,4-d

D. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d

 

Q. 47 Who is the only Indian cricketer to have received the Polly Umrigar award 3 times?

A. Sachin Tendulkar

B. Virender Sehwag

C. Virat Kohli

D. Ravichandran Ashwin

 

Q. 48 Who is the author of the book titled “The Sellout”?

A. Paul Beatty

B. Arvind Adiga

C. Eleanor Catton

D. Howard Jacobson

 

Q. 49 Which country was designated as the major defence partner of USA in December, 2016?

A. Canada

B. Israel

C. India

D. United Kingdom

 

Q. 50 With which country India did its seventh edition of bilateral EKUVERIN Exercise 2016 at Kadhdhoo?

A. Nepal

B. Pakistan

C. Maldives

D. Bhutan

 

Q. 51 If X and Y are the two digits of the number 347XY such that the number is completely divisible by 80, then what is the value of X + Y?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

 

Q. 52 A, B and C can complete a work in 20, 24 and 30 days respectively. All three of them starts together but after 4 days A leaves the job and B left the job 6 days before the work was completed. C completed the remaining work alone. In how many days was the total work completed?

A. 10

B. 12

C. 14

D. 16

 

Q. 53 A solid sphere of diameter 17.5 cm is cut into two equal halves. What will be the increase (in cm2 ) in the total surface area?

A. 289

B. 361.5

C. 481.25

D. 962.5

 

Q. 54 After a discount of 34% an article is sold for Rs 3168. What is the marked price (in Rs) of the article?

A. 4750

B. 4800

C. 4850

D. 5000

 

Q. 55 If 3/7 P = 4/11 Q then what is the ratio of P and Q respectively ?

A. 12 : 77

B. 12 : 33

C. 28 : 33

D. 3 : 28

 

Q. 56 The average of 17 results is 60. If the average of first 9 results is 57 and that of the last 9 results is 65, then what will be the value of 9th result?

A. 39

B. 78

C. 117

D. 156

 

Q. 57 For an article the profit is 170% of the cost price. If the cost price increases by 20% but the selling price remains same, then what is the new profit percentage?

A. 41

B. 50

C. 75

D. 125

 

Q. 58 32% of a number exceeds 17% of the same number by 120. What is the value of the number?

A. 900

B. 860

C. 940

D. 800

 

Q. 59 A boat goes 15 km upstream and 10 1/2 km downstream in 3 hours 15 minutes. It goes 12 km upstream and 14 km downstream in 3 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water ?

A. 4

B. 6

C. 10

D. 14

 

Q. 60 A person lent certain sum of money at 5% per annum simple interest and in 15 years the interest amounted to Rs 250 less than the sum lent. What was the sum lent (in Rs)?

A. 1000

B. 1500

C. 2400

D. 3000

 

Q. 61 If x = 2+√3/2-√3 , then what is the value of x+ 1/x ?

A. 14

B. 8√3

C. 0

D. 18

 

Q. 62 If x = 2+√3/2-√3 , then what is the value of √(2x) – 1/ √(2x) ?

A. 2√3

B. 3√3

C. (3√3 + 1)/2

D. 2√3 + 1

 

Q. 63 If x+1/x = 4 , then what is the value of x⁶ + 1/x⁶ ?

A. 52

B. 256

C. 1026

D. 2702

 

Q. 64 If y= 2-x/1+x, then what is the value of (1/y+1) + (2y-1/y²-1) ?

A. ((1+x)(2-x))/(2x-1)

B. ((1-x)(2+x))/(x-1)

C. ((1+x)(2-x))/(1-2x)

D. ((1+x)(1-2x))/(1-2x)

 

Q. 65 In the triangle ABC, ∠BAC = 50° and the bisectors of ∠ABC and ∠ACB meets at P. What is the value (in degrees) of ∠BPC?

A. 100

B. 105

C. 115

D. 125

 

Q. 66 Two circles of same radius intersect each other at P and Q. If the length of the common chord is 30 cm and distance between the centres of the two circles is 40 cm, then what is the radius (in cm) of the circles?

A. 25

B. 25√2

C. 50

D. 50√2

 

Q. 67 In the given figure, , ∠QRN =40⁰ , ∠PQR= 46⁰ and MN is a tangent at R. What is the value (in degrees) of x,y and z respectively ?

A. 40, 46, 94

B. 40, 50, 90

C. 46, 54, 80

D. 50, 40, 90

 

Q. 68 In ΔPQR, ∠R = 54°, the perpendicular bisector of PQ at S meets QR at T. If ∠TPR = 46°, then what is the value (in degrees) of ∠PQR?

A. 25

B. 40

C. 50

D. 60

 

Q. 69 what is the simplified value of (cot A + tan B)/(cot B + tan A) ?

A. tan B cot A

B. tan A cot B

C. tan A tan B

D. cot A cot B

 

Q. 70 What is the simplified value of (1/(cosec Ac+ cot A))² ?

A. sec A + tan A

B. (1 – cos A)/(1 + cos A)

C. (1 – cosec A)/(1 + cosec A)

D. sin A

 

Q. 71 If cos2 θ – sin θ = 1/4, then what is the value of sin θ?1)

A. -1

B. 1/2

C. 1

D. 3/2

 

Q. 72 The table shows the number of students of a college studying Arts, Science, Commerce and Business for given 5 years. What is the percentage increase in number of students of Commerce from 2012 to 2016?

A. 11.16

B. 17.28

C. 13.51

D. 15.67

 

Q. 73 The table shows the number of students of a college studying Arts, Science, Commerce and Business for given 5 years. What is the simple annual growth rate (in %) of the number of students of Business from 2012 to 2016?

A. 10

B. 12.5

C. 15

D. 17.5

 

Q. 74 The table shows the number of students of a college studying Arts, Science, Commerce and Business for given 5 years. What is the ratio of average number of students studying Arts per year and average number of students studying Science per year?

A. 169 : 331

B. 66 : 169

C. 127 : 261

D. 32 : 75

 

Q. 75 The table shows the number of students of a college studying Arts, Science, Commerce and Business for given 5 years. Which year shows the maximum percentage increase in the total number of students in these 4 subjects over the previous year?

A. 2013

B. 2014

C. 2015

D. 2016

 

Q. 76 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

The two men were (1)/ quarrelling with one another (2)/ claiming the same watch as their own. (3)/ No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 77 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Everybody knows (1)/ that Bhutan is the most peaceful (2)/ of all other countries of the

world. (3)/ No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 78 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The higher you climb, the more difficult it _____ to breathe.

A. became

B. becomes

C. has become

D. is becoming

 

Q. 79 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Neha has been crying _____ morning.

A. from

B. of

C. since

D. till

 

Q. 80 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Opulent

A. Fake

B. Gloomy

C. Rich

D. Selfish

 

Q. 81 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Morose

A. Flatter

B. Gloomy

C. friendly

D. Savvy

 

Q. 82 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Irk

A. Attract

B. Discourage

C. Irritate

D. Please

 

Q. 83 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Grotesque

A. Free

B. Odd

C. Plain

D. Queer

 

Q. 84 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

To keep the wolf from the door.

A. Avoid starvation

B. Crack the deal

C. Entry prohibited

D. Have a pleasant tour

 

Q. 85 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Teething problems

A. Oral problems

B. Problems at the start of a new project

C. Problems for quite a long time in adjusting in the new place

D. Problem of having good dentist

 

Q. 86 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

She did not like to have coffee (nor I did).

A. neither I liked it

B. nor did I

C. nor I like it

D. No improvement

 

Q. 87 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Taj Mahal is ( a worth seeing monument) in Agra.

A. a monument to see its worth

B. a monument worth seeing

C. one of worth seeing monuments

D. No improvement

 

Q. 88 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

That which cannot be corrected

A. Impregnable

B. Immolation

C. Incorrigible

D. Ineligible

 

Q. 89 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

A person who is blamed for the wrong doings of others

A. Bursar

B. Captor

C. Phlegmatic

D. Scapegoat

 

Q. 90 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word.

A. Conceive

B. Leisure

C. Neice

D. Reign

 

Q. 91 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word.

A. Dictionory

B. Irrelevant

C. Perishable

D. Tangible

 

Q. 92 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

P- It had been umpteen years since we had seen each other.

Q- One dull dark day in autumn, I was travelling on horseback through a dreary stretch of countryside.

R- This was the house of Roderick Usher, who had been my childhood pal.

S- At night fall, I came in sight of the house of Usher.

A. PQSR

B. PSQR

C. QSRP

D. QRSP

 

Q. 93 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

P- According to various estimates, between 1942 and 1944 there were approximately 400 victims of this practice daily in Warsaw alone, with numbers on some days reaching several thousands.

Q- A common German practice in occupied Poland was to round up random civilians on the streets of Polish cities.

R- For example, on 19th September 1942 close to 3000 men and women were transported by train to Germany – they had been caught in the massive round-ups all over Warsaw the previous two days.

S- The term, “lapanka” carried a sardonic connotation from the word’s earlier use for the children’s game known in English as “tag”.

A. SQRP

B. SRPQ

C. QSPR

D. QSPR

 

Q. 94 In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

An elephant may be helped even by an ant.

A. An ant can even help a elephant.

B. An ant may even help a elephant.

C. Even an ant may help an elephant

D. Even an ant ought to help an elephant.

 

Q. 95 In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Direct/Indirect speech.

“Please don’t cry” he said.

A. He begged that I should not cry.

B. He begged me not to cry.

C. He said to please him and not cry.

D. He told me to not to cry

 

Q. 96 In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The _____ of lectures could be enhanced by introducing the lecture with a brief review of the work _____, it should also be indicated how the day’s lecture _____ into the course pattern. A lecture should _____ be presented in one unbroken discourse. Unless exceptionally interesting, a long lecture strains the _____ of a concentrated listening, causing intermittent wandering of attention and loss of continuity in thought.

The _____ of lectures could be enhanced by introducing the lecture

A. condition

B. effectiveness

C. efficiency

D. interest

 

Q. 97 In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The _____ of lectures could be enhanced by introducing the lecture with a brief review of the work _____, it should also be indicated how the day’s lecture _____ into the course pattern. A lecture should _____ be presented in one unbroken discourse. Unless exceptionally interesting, a long lecture strains the _____ of a concentrated listening, causing intermittent wandering of attention and loss of continuity in thought. with a brief review of the work _____, it should also be indicated

A. ascending

B. preceding

C. reciting

D. succeeding

 

Q. 98 In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The _____ of lectures could be enhanced by introducing the lecture with a brief review of the work _____, it should also be indicated how the day’s lecture _____ into the course pattern. A lecture should _____ be presented in one unbroken discourse. Unless exceptionally interesting, a long lecture strains the _____ of a concentrated listening, causing intermittent wandering of attention and loss of continuity in thought. how the day’s lecture _____ into the course pattern. 

A. adds

B. fits

C. gets

D. lets

 

Q. 99 In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and

indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. The _____ of lectures could be enhanced by introducing the lecture with a brief review of the work _____, it should also be indicated how the day’s lecture _____ into the course pattern. A lecture should _____ be presented in one unbroken discourse. Unless exceptionally interesting, a long lecture strains the _____ of a concentrated listening, causing intermittent wandering of attention and loss of continuity in thought. A lecture should _____ be presented in one unbroken discourse. 

A. continuously

B. often

C. randomly

D. seldom

 

Q. 100 In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The _____ of lectures could be enhanced by introducing the lecture with a brief review of the work _____, it should also be indicated how the day’s lecture _____ into the course pattern. A lecture should _____ be presented in one unbroken discourse. Unless exceptionally interesting, a long lecture strains the _____ of a concentrated listening, causing intermittent wandering of attention and loss of continuity in thought. A long lecture strains the _____ of a concentrated listening, causing intermittent wandering of attention and loss of continuity in thought.

A. authority

B. capacity

C. comfortability

D. reasonability

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer D A C C B A D A D C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer B D A D B D B C A A
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer A A B C D C D B D A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer D C D B C D C C D C
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C D A C B C C A C C
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer A C C B C B D D C A
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer A C D C C A A B A B
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer B C B A B B C B C C
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer B D C A B B B C D C
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer A C C C B B B B D B

SSC CGL Tier-I 31 August 2016 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 31 Aug Shift 2 

 

Q. 1 Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives: 

Sanitation : Illness : : Care : ?

A. Rest

B. Ignore

C. Accident

D. Suggestion

 

Q. 2 Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives:

GrtK : KtrG : : FjbH : ?

A. HbjF

B. jHbF

C. FbjH

D. HjbF

 

Q. 3 Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives:

20 : 11 : : 102 : ?

A. 49

B. 52

C. 61

D. 58

 

Q. 4 For the following questions

Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Man : Garage

B. Pig : Sty

C. Horse : Stable

D. Cow : Shed

 

Q. 5 For the following questions

Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

A. WVU

B. DBA

C. NML

D. HGF

 

Q. 6 For the following questions

Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 1629

B. 3418

C. 2349

D. 1834

 

Q. 7 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.

1. Exploit 2. Explosive 3. Exponent 4. Exposition 5. Explore

A. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2

B. 1, 5, 2, 3, 4

C. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4

D. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2

 

Q. 8 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

CAR, GCO, KEL, OGI, ?

A. SIK

B. SIF

C. TIK

D. TIL

 

Q. 9 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

100, 50, 52, 26, 28, ? , 16, 8

A. 14

B. 30

C. 32

D. 38

 

Q. 10 Mithilesh said to Neha, ‘Your only brother’s son is my wife’s brother.’ How is Neha related to the wife of Mithilesh?

A. Aunt

B. Mother – in – law

C. Sister

D. Mother

 

Q. 11 W, X, Y and Z are four friends. W is shorter than X, but taller than Y, who is shorter than Z. Who is the shortest among all?

A. W

B. X

C. Y

D. Z

 

Q. 12 From the given alternatives words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

SPECULATION

A. SPECIAL

B. TOPIC

C. SECULAR

D. CAUTION

 

Q. 13 If A = 26 and X-RAY = 40, then WHAT = ?

A. 52

B. 54

C. 56

D. 58

 

Q. 14 If ‘A’ stands for ‘+’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘-‘ , ‘C’ stands for ‘x’ , what is the value of (10C4)A(4C4)B6 = ?

A. 46

B. 50

C. 56

D. 60

 

Q. 15 If 324⊕289 = 35, 441⊕484 = 43, then 625⊕400 = ?

A. 31

B. 43

C. 34

D. 45

 

Q. 16 Select the missing numbers from the given alternatives

12 8 4 8 4 12 4 12 8 100 44 ?

A. 80

B. 56

C. 48

D. 36

 

Q. 17 A person started walking towards West and covered a distance of 15 m, he turned right and walked 10 m. Again he turned right and walked 5 m and in the end he turned left and walked 15 m. Which direction is this person facing now?

A. North

B. South

C. East

D. West

 

Q. 18 Consider the given statement/s to be true and decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statements. Statements :

1. All cycles are ducks.

2. All ducks are swans.

Conclusions :

I. All swans are cycles.

II. Some swans are cycles.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

 

Q. 19 Find the number of triangles in the given figure?

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. 14

 

Q. 20 Which of the diagrams given below correctly represent the relationship among WOMEN, MOTHERS, SPINSTERS

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 21 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which question figure is hidden.

 

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

 

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 25 In this question, the sets of numbers given in alternatives are represented. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these Matrices can represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., S can be represented by 02, 11, etc., and ‘L’ can be represented by 65, 86, etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘GATE’

A. 30, 89, 11, 57

B. 21, 68, 34, 78

C. 21, 96, 24, 78

D. 12, 89, 42, 68

 

Q. 26 Which institution is known as ‘Soft Loan Window’ of World Bank?

A. IDBI

B. IDA

C. IMF

D. RBI

 

Q. 27 Which curve shows the inverse relationship between unemployment and inflation rates 

A. Supply curve

B. Indifference curve

C. IS curve

D. Phillips curve

 

Q. 28 The longest sea beach in India is

A. Chapora beach

B. Diu beach

C. Aksa beach

D. Marina beach

 

Q. 29 The Jammu and Kashmir State Legislative Assembly has a tenure of ________________

A. Six years

B. Five years

C. Four years

D. Seven years

Q. 30 Which of the following Committees is described as the ‘twin sister’ of the Estimates Committee?

A. Public Accounts Committee

B. Committee on Public Undertakings

C. Departmental Standing Committee

D. Privilege Committee

 

Q. 31

Potato is a ?

A. Root

B. Stem

C. Bud

D. Fruit

 

Q. 32 English education was introduced in India by

A. Curzon

B. Macaulay

C. Dalhousie

D. Bentick

 

Q. 33 Short term contractions and expansions in economic activity are called ________________

A. Expansions

B. Recession

C. Deficits

D. The business cycle

 

Q. 34 Which one of the following region is most rich in coal deposits?

A. Brahmaputra valley

B. Damodar valley

C. Mahanadi valley

D. Godavari valley

 

Q. 35 Rainfall caused by intense evaporation in equatorial areas is called ____________

A. Orographic rainfall

B. Cyclonic rainfall

C. Frontal rainfall

D. Convectional rainfall

 

Q. 36 Haematopoiesis is take place in ______________

A. Lungs

B. Pancreas

C. Liver

D. Bone marrow

 

Q. 37 __________________ is a hormone that regulates the amount of glucose in the blood

A. Glucogen

B. Thyroxine

C. Oxytocin

D. Insulin

 

Q. 38 Wall Street collapse led to _________________

A. World War II

B. Recession

C. U.S. Attack on Iraq

D. Great Depression

 

Q. 39 Gandhara Art is t

he combination of

A. Indo – Roman

B. Indo – Greek

C. Indo – Islamic

D. Indo – China

 

Q. 40 If electric resistance is to be decreased, then the number of resistances should be connected in __________________

A. Series

B. Parallel

C. Mixed arrangement

D. None of these

 

Q. 41 Related to computers, what is ‘Wetware’ ?

A. Computer programs

B. Circuitry

C. Human brain

D. Chemical storage devices

 

Q. 42 Indira Goswami, the famous editor, poet, scholar and writter won the Jnanpith Award in which language?

A. Bengali

B. Odisha

C. Assamese

D. Hindi

 

Q. 43 Ultraviolet radiation in the stratosphere is absorbed by

A. SO2

B. Ozone

C. Oxygen

D. Argon

 

Q. 44 All isotopes of same element have ____________

A. different atomic numbers and different atomic mass

B. different atomic numbers and the same atomic mass

C. the same atomic number but different atomic masses

D. the same atomic number and the atomic mass

 

Q. 45 Nitric acid does not react wit

A. Gold

B. Copper

C. Zinc

D. Iron

 

Q. 46 Nanda Devi peak is located in ________________ State

A. Himachal Pradesh

B. Uttarakhand

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Sikkim

 

Q. 47 Which one of the following industries is known as ‘Sunrise Industry’ ?

A. Iron & Steel

B. Cotton Textile

C. Information Technology

D. Tea & Coffee

 

Q. 48 The material used in electric heater is ….

A. Tungsten

B. Nichrome

C. Brass

D. Steel

 

Q. 49 Pellagra and Scurvy are caused by which pair of vitamin deficiency respectively____________________

A. Vitamin C and Vitamin D

B. Vitamin B-12 and Vitamin C

C. Vitamin C and Vitamin A

D. Vitamin A and Vitamin B-12

 

Q. 50 Who appoints the Finance Commission in India?

A. Governor, R. B. I.

B. CAG of India

C. President of India

D. Central Finance minister

 

Q. 51 A can do a certain job in 12 days. B is 60% more efficient than A. Then B can do the same piece of work in

A. 8 days

B. 15/2 days

C. 25/4 days

D. 6 days

 

Q. 52 A rectangle with one side 4 cm is inscribed in a circle of radius 2.5 cm. The area of the rectangle is :

A. 8 cm^2

B. 12 cm^2

C. 16 cm^2

D. 20 cm^2

 

Q. 53 A merchant marked cloth at Rs. 50/metre . He offers two successive discounts of 15% and 20%. The net price/metre is :

A. Rs. 32.50

B. Rs. 42.50

C. Rs. 34.00

D. Rs. 40.00

 

Q. 54 3 brothers divided Rs. 1620 among them in such a way that the share of second is equal to 5/13 of share of other two, combined. What is the share of the second one ?

A. Rs. 1170

B. Rs. 450

C. Rs. 540

D. Rs. 500

 

Q. 55 A dealer marks his goods 20% above their cost prices. then, he allows such a discount on the marked price so that he makes a profit of 8%. The rate of discount is :

A. 12%

B. 10%

C. 6%

D. 4%

 

Q. 56 The salary of a person is reduced by 20% . To restore the previous salary, his present salary is to be increased by

A. 20%

B. 25%

C. 17.5%

D. 22.5%

 

Q. 57 Two buses travel to a place at 45 km/hr and 60 km/hr respectively. If the second bus takes 11/2 hours less than the first for the journey, the length of the journey is :

A. 900 km

B. 945 km

C. 990 km

D. 1350 km

 

Q. 58 If (x + 1/x) : (x – 1/x) = 5 : 3, then the value(s) of x is / are

A. ±1

B. ±2

C. ±3

D. 0

 

Q. 59 An exterior angle of a triangle is 115° and one of the interior opposite angle is 45° . Then the other two angles are

A. 65° , 70°

B. 60° , 75°

C. 45° , 90°

D. 50° , 85°

 

Q. 60 In a ΔABC, ∠A + ∠B = 75° and ∠B + ∠C = 140° , then ∠B is

A. 40°

B. 35°

C. 55°

D. 45°

 

Q. 61 The value of (1 + tanθ^2)(1 – sinθ^2) is

A. 2

B. 1

C. -1

D. -2

 

Q. 62 If 4x^2 – 12x + k is a perfect square, then the value of k is

A. 2

B. 9

C. 12

D. 10

 

Q. 63 ((113^2) + (115^2) + (117^2) – 113 x 115 – 115 x 117 – 117 x 113) is equal to

A. 0

B. 4

C. 8

D. 12

 

Q. 64 The average of runs scored by a cricketer in his 99 innings is 99. How many runs will he have to score in his 100th innings so that his average of runs in 100 innings may be 100 ?

A. 100

B. 99

C. 199

D. 200

 

Q. 65 If rsinθ = 1, rcosθ = √3 then the value of (r^2)tanθ is

A. 4

B. 1/√3

C. 4/√3

D. 4√3

 

Q. 66 If p^3 – q^3 = (p – q) ((p – q)^2 + x p q) then value of x is

A. 1

B. -1

C. 3

D. 2

 

Q. 67 If (a + 1/a)^2 = 3, then the value of a^18 + a^12 + a^6 + 1 is

A. 3

B. 1

C. 0

D. 2

 

Q. 68 The top of a broken tree touches the ground at a distance of 15 m from its base. If a tree is broken at a height of 8 m from the ground, then the actual height of the tree is

A. 17 m

B. 20 m

C. 25 m

D. 30 m

 

Q. 69 In ΔPQR, straight line parallel to the base QR cuts PQ at X and PR at Y. If PX : XQ = 5 : 6, then the XY : QR will be

A. 5 : 11

B. 6 : 5

C. 11 : 6

D. 11 : 5

 

Q. 70 A man borrowed some money from a private organisation at 5% simple interest per annum. He lended this money to another person at 10% compound interest per annum, and made a profit of Rs 26,410 in 4 years. The man borrowed

A. 200000

B. 150000

C. 132050

D. 100000

 

Q. 71 From two points, lying on the same horizontal line, the angles of elevation of the top of the pillar are θ and Φ (θ < Φ). If the height of the pillar is ‘h’ m and the two points lie on the same sides of the pillar, then the distance between the two points is

A. h(tanθ – tanΦ) m

B. h(cotΦ – cotθ) m

C. h(cotθ – cotΦ) m

D. h((tanθ tanΦ)/(tanΦ – tanθ)) m

 

Q. 72 The bar graphs represents the number of road accidents due to bus and car during the years 2008 – 2013. Study the graph and answer the questions.

The total number of road accidents in the year 2009, 2011 and 2013 combined together is

A. 180000

B. 110000

C. 70000

D. 160000

 

Q. 73 The bar graphs represents the number of road accidents due to bus and car during the years 2008 – 2013. Study the graph and answer the questions.

The ratio of the road accidents due to bus in the year 2008 to that by Car in the year 2012 is

A. 2 : 1

B. 1 : 2

C. 2 : 3

D. 3 : 4

 

Q. 74 The bar graphs represents the number of road accidents due to bus and car during the years 2008 – 2013. Study the graph and answer the questions.

The respective ratio between the accidents by cars in the year 2012, 2010 and 2009 is 

A. 2 : 5 : 4

B. 4 : 5 : 4

C. 4 : 3 : 2

D. 4 : 5 : 2

 

Q. 75 The bar graphs represents the number of road accidents due to bus and car during the years 2008 – 2013. Study the graph and answer the questions.

The ratio of the averages of the road accidents due to Bus to that by Car in the year 2008, 2011 and 2013 is

A. 4 : 5

B. 5 : 4 

C. 5 : 1

D. 1 : 4

 

Q. 76 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

LETHARGIC

A. ENERGETIC

B. LAZY

C. LETHAL

D. LEGAL

 

Q. 77 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

MALLEABLE

A. TEACHABLE

B. INTRACTABLE

C. MANAGEABLE

D. PLIABLE

 

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word and click the button corresponding to it.

A. Persemonious

B. Persimonoius

C. Parsemonious

D. Parsimonious

 

Q. 79 In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the ‘No error’ option.

Sooner had he come (A) / his colleagues (B) / organised a get together (C) / No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 80 In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the ‘No error’ option.

I enjoyed during (A) / my tenure (B) / at Shimla (C) / No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 81 In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the ‘No error’ option.

The Government offered him (A) / derical job (B) / but he turned it over (C) / No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 82 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

After a noisy and tumultuous supper, we ______________ for the day.

A. retirement

B. retiring

C. retired

D. retire

 

Q. 83 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

The villager cried ____________________ his voice for help

A. on the top of

B. in the top of

C. from the top of

D. at the top of

 

Q. 84 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

Simon teaches children ________________ water colour painting

A. the art on

B. the art in

C. the art by

D. the art of

 

Q. 85 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

Be down with

A. Suffering from

B. In grief with

C. In pain with

D. Aching with

 

Q. 86 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

Fair – weather friend

A. Honest only when easy and convenient

B. Truthful only when easy and convenient

C. Supports only when easy and convenient

D. Temporary only when easy and convenient

 

Q. 87 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

Pull together

A. Become friends

B. Work harmoniously

C. Be successful

D. Live happily

 

Q. 88 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

A place where soldiers live

A. Tanks

B. Shacks

C. Ordnance Depots

D. Barracks

 

Q. 89 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

A man who collects old and new coins

A. Geologist

B. Numismatist

C. Archaeologist

D. Zoologist

 

Q. 90 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

Regular users of places/restaurants etc.

A. Client

B. Clientele

C. Often

D. Usage

 

Q. 91 A sentence/part of sentence is in double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the quoted part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to ‘No improvement’.

This material is “not much enough” for me

A. not more enough

B. not so much enough

C. not enough

D. No improvement

 

Q. 92 A sentence/part of sentence is in double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the quoted part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to ‘No improvement’.

This is a change “of my usual work”.

A. from my usual work

B. for my usual work

C. in my usual work

D. No improvement

 

Q. 93 A sentence/part of sentence is in double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the quoted part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to ‘No improvement’.

Maharana Pratap killed many enemy soldiers “through his sword”

A. by his sword

B. with his sword

C. across his sword

D. No improvement

 

Q. 94 A sentence/part of sentence is in double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the quoted part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to ‘No improvement’.

Everyone hoped “of” good weather on the day of the wedding.

A. for

B. at

C. about

D. No improvement

 

Q. 95 A sentence/part of sentence is in double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the quoted part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to ‘No improvement’.

He asked the child to go and play with “some others” children

A. some other’s children

B. some others

C. some other

D. No improvement

 

Q. 96 A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully & choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives & click the button corresponding to it. Two men were once walking along a forest path, talking of courage & loyalty. The bigger one, who had a gun, was boasting of his own bravery & fidelity, when suddenly a large bear came from behind a rock close in front of them, & stood in their way growling angrily. The boaster fled to the nearest tree, dropped his gun, & climbed to a safe place without thinking of his poor friend. The later flung himself upon his face as though dead. The bear smelt his body, turned him over, licked his face, & supposing him to be dead, went on its way leaving him unhurt. The other man came down from the tree, & going to his friend said “Well what secrets did he whisper so quietly in your ear?” . To which the little man, who owed his life to his own presence of mind & not to the boasted bravery & fidelity of his companion, replied, “why, he said, ‘put not your trust in braggarts’, & I shall take his advice.” What were the two men talking about while walking along the forest path? 

A. About their wives & children

B. About money & fame

C. About friendship & enjoyment

D. About courage & loyalty

 

Q. 97 A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully & choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives & click the button corresponding to it.

Two men were once walking along a forest path, talking of courage & loyalty. The bigger one, who had a gun, was boasting of his own bravery & fidelity, when suddenly a large bear came from behind a rock close in front of them, & stood in their way growling angrily. The boaster fled to the nearest tree, dropped his gun, & climbed to a safe place without thinking of his poor friend. The later flung himself upon his face as though dead. The bear smelt his body, turned him over, licked his face, & supposing him to be dead, went on its way leaving him unhurt.

The other man came down from the tree, & going to his friend said “Well what secrets did he whisper so quietly in your ear?” . To which the little man, who owed his life to his own presence of mind & not to the boasted bravery & fidelity of his companion, replied, “why, he said, ‘put not your trust in braggarts’, & I shall take his advice.”

What is the meaning of the word “fidelity” ? 

A. Muscle

B. Strength

C. Faithfulness

D. Courage

 

Q. 98  A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully & choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives & click the button corresponding to it.

Two men were once walking along a forest path, talking of courage & loyalty. The bigger one, who had a gun, was boasting of his own bravery & fidelity, when suddenly a large bear came from behind a rock close in front of them, & stood in their way growling angrily. The boaster fled to the nearest tree, dropped his gun, & climbed to a safe place without thinking of his poor friend. The later flung himself upon his face as though dead. The bear smelt his body, turned him over, licked his face, & supposing him to be dead, went on its way leaving him unhurt. The other man came down from the tree, & going to his friend said “Well what secrets did he whisper so quietly in your ear?” . To which the little man, who owed his life to his own presence of mind & not to the boasted bravery & fidelity of his companion, replied, “why, he said, ‘put not your trust in braggarts’, & I shall take his advice.” After seeing the bear, what happened to the boaster ? 

A. He fled home.

B. He hid himself behind the rock.

C. He hid himself behind a shed

D. He fled & climbed up the nearest tree.

 

Q. 99  A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully & choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives & click the button corresponding to it.

Two men were once walking along a forest path, talking of courage & loyalty. The bigger one, who had a gun, was boasting of his own bravery & fidelity, when suddenly a large bear came from behind a rock close in front of them, & stood in their way growling angrily. The boaster fled to the nearest tree, dropped his gun, & climbed to a safe place without thinking of his poor friend. The later flung himself upon his face as though dead. The bear smelt his body, turned him over, licked his face, & supposing him to be dead, went on its way leaving him unhurt. The other man came down from the tree, & going to his friend said “Well what secrets did he whisper so quietly in your ear?” . To which the little man, who owed his life to his own presence of mind & not to the boasted bravery & fidelity of his companion, replied, “why, he said, ‘put not your trust in braggarts’, & I shall take his advice.” What made the bear go away after examining the man ?

A. The bear thought the man was dead

B. The bear could not stand the bad odour of the man.

C. The bear did not want to eat the man

D. The bear heard a noise & was scarred

 

Q. 100  A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully & choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives & click the button corresponding to it.

Two men were once walking along a forest path, talking of courage & loyalty. The bigger one, who had a gun, was boasting of his own bravery & fidelity, when suddenly a large bear came from behind a rock close in front of them, & stood in their way growling angrily. The boaster fled to the nearest tree, dropped his gun, & climbed to a safe place without thinking of his poor friend. The later flung himself upon his face as though dead. The bear smelt his body, turned him over, licked his face, & supposing him to be dead, went on its way leaving him unhurt. The other man came down from the tree, & going to his friend said “Well what secrets did he whisper so quietly in your ear?” . To which the little man, who owed his life to his own presence of mind & not to the boasted bravery & fidelity of his companion, replied, “why, he said, ‘put not your trust in braggarts’, & I shall take his advice.” What saved the little man ?

A. The aid from the villagers

B. His friend’s bravery

C. His own presence of mind

D. His own courage

 

 

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C A B A B D B B A A
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer C C C B D B A B D D
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer D B D A C B D D A A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B B D B D D D D B B
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C C B C A B C B B C
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer B B C B B B C B A B
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer B B D C C C C C A D
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer C A D B B B B D A A
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C C D D A C B D B B
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer C A B A C D C D A C
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