SSC CGL Tier-I 05 August 2017 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

 SSC CGL Tier 1 2017 5 Aug Shift 2 

Q. 1 In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Player : Team : : Minister : ?

A. Army

B. Troupe

C. Council

D. Crowd

 

Q. 2 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

TRACK : MECTV : : POND : ?

A. EOPQ

B. FPQR

C. GOQQ

D. HPPR

 

Q. 3 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

850 : 863 : : 430 : ?

A. 437

B. 442

C. 435

D. 451

 

Q. 4 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Cotton

B. Mustard

C. Peas

D. Sesame

 

Q. 5 In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. CXA

B. MNQ

C. PKN

D. HSU

 

Q. 6 In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 64 – 576

B. 17 – 343

C. 27 – 196

D. 32 – 36

 

Q. 7 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Yangtze

2. Yakking

3. Yakuzas

4. Yobbery

5. Yobbish

A. 24531

B. 23145

C. 54231

D. 54321

 

Q. 8 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

AK12, GV29, LF18, PO?

A. 34

B. 31

C. 42

D. 40

 

Q. 9 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

21, 26, 33, 42, 53, ?

A. 56

B. 63

C. 66

D. 69

 

Q. 10 Ratio of present ages of Pankaj and Punit is 5 : 6 and the sum of their ages is 33 years. What will be the difference (in years) of their ages?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

 

Q. 11 Kritika walks 40 metres towards south. Then turning to her right she rides 30 metres. Then, turning to her left, she rides 50 metres. Again, she turns to her left and rides 30 metres. How far (in metres) is she from her initial position?

A. 65

B. 70

C. 80

D. 90

 

Q. 12 In the following question, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

CONSOLIDATE

A. CONSOLE

B. ONSET

C. SALTY

D. SOLID

 

Q. 13 In a certain code language, “STUBBORN” is written as “VUTAAOSP”. How is “SHIPPING” written in that code language?

A. TIJOOHPJ

B. QFOLLSLO

C. TIJNNOJH

D. JITOOHOJ

 

Q. 14 Correct the following equation by interchanging the two signs and two numbers.

7 x 6 + 5 – 4 = 33

A. –, x an d 4, 5

B. –, x an d 4, 5

C. +, – and 5 , 6

D. x, – and 5, 6

 

Q. 15 If 3 @ 3 * 3 = 3 and 48 @ 4 * 3 = 36, then 91 @ 13 * 2 = ?

A. 4

B. 8

C. 10

D. 14

 

Q. 16 In the following question select the number which can be placed at the sign of the question mark(?) from the given alternatives

A. 11

B. 16

C. 21

D. 31

 

Q. 17 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 11

B. 9

C. 10

D. 12

 

Q. 18 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. No purse is cloth.

II. All purses are leather.

Conclusions:

I. No leather is cloth.

II. Some leather are cloth.

III. Some leather are purses.

A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Only conclusion (III ) follows.

C. Only conclusion (I) and conclusion (II) follow.

D. All conclusions follow.

 

Q. 19 Three positions of a cube are shown below. What will come opposite to face containing ‘1’?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

 

Q. 20 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Brother, Husband, Men

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 21 Which of the following figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figure. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figure is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 25 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘D’ can be represented first by 68, 95, etc, and ‘P’ can be represented by 75, 97, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word “BAND”

A. 23, 76, 22, 77

B. 11, 67, 40, 95

C. 00, 55, 03, 59

D. 44, 89, 30, 87

 

Q. 26 In which of the following case, law of demand fails?

A. Giffen goods

B. Normal goods

C. Inferior goods

D. Both Giffen and Inferior goods

 

Q. 27 Match the following

A. 1-b, 2- c, 3-a

B. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b

C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c

D. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c

 

Q. 28 How many fundamental Rights are mentioned in Indian constitution?

A. Five

B. Four

C. Seven

D. Eight

 

Q. 29 Which of the following Article/Articles cannot be suspended even during emergency?

A. Article 19

B. Article 20 and 21

C. Article 22 and 23

D. Article 24 and 25

 

Q. 30 Who was the first Viceroy of India?

A. Lord Canning

B. Lord Curzon

C. Lord Wavell

D. Lord Mountbatten

 

Q. 31 Who wrote ‘Nyaya Sutra’?

A. Vyasa

B. Gautam

C. Kapila

D. Charaka

 

Q. 32 Earth’s Deepest point in water is Mariana trench. It is located in which of the following oceans?

A. Atlantic Ocean

B. Arctic Ocean

C. Indian Ocean

D. Pacific Ocean

 

Q. 33 Masai is a tribe of which of the following country?

A. Kenya

B. Germany

C. Australia

D. India

 

Q. 34 With which of the following body organ is ‘pace-maker’ associated?

A. Liver

B. Brain

C. Heart

D. Lungs

 

Q. 35 Haemoglobin is an important component of _______.

A. white blood cells

B. red blood cells

C. plasma

D. All options are correct

 

Q. 36 Anaemia is caused because of deficiency of which of the following?

A. Cobalt

B. Iron

C. Sodium

D. Calcium

 

Q. 37 What is the minimum distance (in metres) required to hear an echo?

A. 10

B. 13

C. 17

D. 21

 

Q. 38 Why does a black board appears black in colour?

A. It reflects black colour

B. It absorbs black colour

C. It reflects all colours

D. It absorbs all the colours

 

Q. 39 Which one among the following is a main system board of a computer?

A. CPU

B. Keyboard

C. Microchip

D. Mother board

 

Q. 40 Which among the following metal is used for galvanization?

A. Zinc

B. Copper

C. Iron

D. Silver

 

Q. 41 What is dry ice?

A. Solid Carbon dioxide

B. Solid Nitrogen dioxide

C. Solid Sulphur dioxide

D. Solid Water

 

Q. 42 Which of the following represents the most complex trophic level?

A. Community

B. Population

C. Ecosystem

D. Species

 

Q. 43 Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh launched a medical scheme for APL families. What is the name of that scheme?

A. Haritha Kalyanam

B. Arogya Raksha

C. Kalyanamsurvay

D. Swasthya Raksha

 

Q. 44 Who discovered X-rays?

A. W. C. Roentgen

B. Albert Einstein

C. Samuel Cohen

D. Edward Taylor

 

Q. 45 How many players are there in a water polo team?

A. 6

B. 5

C. 7

D. 8

 

Q. 46 ‘Lavani’ is a dance form of which state in India?

A. Maharashtra

B. Gujarat

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Andhra Pradesh

 

Q. 47 Who is being awarded with Asian Award 2016 as the Chivas Social entrepreneur of the year?

A. Vikram Patel

B. Shri Prakash Lohia

C. Rami Ranger

D. Anil Agarwal

 

Q. 48 The book “Azad Bachpan ki Aur” is written by which author?

A. Kailash Satyarthi

B. Radhakant Bharti

C. Dipak Misra

D. Subhash Chandra

 

Q. 49 India by the Nile’, was a cultural festival celebrated by India and _____.

A. Sudan

B. Kampala

C. Egypt

D. Kenya

 

Q. 50 Sheikh Hasina Wazed is the Prime Minister of which neighbouring country of India?

A. Pakistan

B. Bangladesh

C. Afghanistan

D. Nepal

 

Q. 51 What is the value of [12/(√5 + √3)] + [18/(√5 – √3)]?

A. 15(√5 – √3)

B. 3(5√5 + √3)

C. 15(√5 + √3)

D. 3(3√5 + √3)

 

Q. 52 S, T and U can complete a work in 40, 48 and 60 days respectively. They received Rs 10800 to complete the work. They begin the work together but T left 2 days before the completion of the work and U left 5 days before the completion of the work. S has completed the remaining work alone. What is the share of S(in Rs) from total money? 

A. 4000

B. 4320

C. 4500

D. 4860

 

Q. 53 A farmer’s land is in the shape of a trapezium which has its parallel sides measuring 2.56 yards and 3.44 yards and the distance between the parallel sides in 1.44 yards. The cost of ploughing the land is Rs 1800 per square yard. What amount will (in Rs) have to be spent in order to plough the entire land?

A. 3672

B. 6732

C. 7776

D. 8214

 

Q. 54 If after giving a discount of 18%, a book is sold for Rs 1599, then what will be the marked price (in Rs) of the book?

A. 1800

B. 1880

C. 1950

D. 2000

 

Q. 55 A man has 3 sons, 2 daughters and a wife. They divided a sum of Rs 19000 among themselves such that each daughter got 1.5 times the amount received by each son and his wife received 600 less than each son. What is the total amount (in Rs) received by the 3 sons together?

A. 2800

B. 3600

C. 5600

D. 8400

 

Q. 56 The average of 3 consecutive even numbers is A. If next 5 even numbers are added, then what is the average of these 8 numbers?

A. A + 3

B. A + 4

C. A + 5

D. A + 7

 

Q. 57 While selling an article for Rs 18450, a person suffered a loss of 50%. At what price he should have sold the article (in Rs) to earn a profit of 50%?

A. 13837

B. 52000

C. 55350

D. 56775

 

Q. 58 The present population of a town is 26010. It increases annually at the rate of 2%. What was the population of town 2 years ago?

A. 25000

B. 25100

C. 25200

D. 25500

 

Q. 59 A train of length 100 m crosses another train of length 150 m, running on a parallel track in the opposite direction in 9 seconds. If the speed of train having length 150 m is 40 km/hr, then what is the speed (in km/hr) of the other train?

A. 30

B. 48

C. 50

D. 60

 

Q. 60 What is the compound interest (in Rs) for 1 year on a sum of Rs 20000 at the rate of 40% per annum compounding half yearly?

A. 8000

B. 8650

C. 8750

D. 8800

 

Q. 61 What is the difference of the cube and square of the common root of (x2 – 8x + 15) = 0 and (y2 + 2y – 35) = 0?

A. 76

B. 100

C. 294

D. 318

 

Q. 62 If (x – 1/3)² +(y – 4)² = 0, then what is the value of y – x/y + x?

A. 11/13

B. 13/11

C. 16/9

D. 9/16

 

Q. 63 What is the difference of the factors of the expression x² + (1/x²) – 6?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

 

Q. 64 If x +(1/x) = √13, then what is the value of x⁵ -(1/x⁵)?

A. 169

B. 169√3

C. 393

D. 507

 

Q. 65 If D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively of a triangle ABC such that DE||BC. If AD = x cm, DB = (x – 3) cm, AE = (x + 3) cm and EC = (x – 2) cm, then what is the value (in cm) of x?

A. 3

B. 3.5

C. 4

D. 4.5

 

Q. 66 If medians of a triangle have lengths 18 cm, 24 cm and 30 cm, then what is the area (in cm2) of the triangle?

A. 24√6

B. 244

C. 288

D. 360

 

Q. 67 Two smaller circles touch a large circle internally and pass through the center O of the larger circle. If the diameter of the bigger circle is 28 cm, then what is the area of the bigger circle which is not enclosed by the two smaller circles (in cm2)?

A. 154

B. 256

C. 308

D. 616

 

Q. 68 In the given figure, O is the in-center of triangle ABC. If AO/OE = 5/4 and CO/OD = 3/2, then what is the value of BO/OF?

A. 19/4

B. 38/17

C. 38/7

D. 19/7

 

Q. 69 What is the simplified value of tan (θ/2) + cot (θ/2)?

A. 2 cosec θ

B. 2 sec θ

C. sin θ

D. cosec θ

 

Q. 70 What is the simplified value of [(sec³x – tan³x)/(secx – tanx)] – 2tan²x – secxtanx?

A. 0

B. 2

C. -1

D. 1

 

Q. 71 If sin⁸θ + cos⁸θ – 1 = 0, then what is the value of cos²θsin²θ(If θ ≠ 0 or n/2)?

A. -1

B. 0

C. 1

D. 2

 

Questions: 72 – 75

The table given below represents the marks obtained by 5 students in 4 different

subjects. Each student was given marks out of 100 in each of the given subjects.

 

Q. 72 In which subject the total marks of all the students is highest?

A. English

B. Mathematics

C. Science

D. Hindi

 

Q. 73 Which student scored the maximum marks in all the 4 subjects taken together?

A. Student 1

B. Student 2

C. Student 3

D. Student 5

 

Q. 74 A new subject is added in which all the students have scored 100 marks. If total marks are calculated as sum of the marks of highest 4 subjects, then who will be second in terms of total marks?

A. Student 3

B. Student 2

C. Student 5

D. Student 4

 

Q. 75 The average marks per student in English is what percent of the average marks per student in Hindi?

A. 91.48

B. 97.12

C. 92.71

D. 98.18

 

Q. 76 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No error’.

My sister-in-laws (1)/ who lives in Kolkata (2)/ have come to stay with us. (3)/ No Error (4) 

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 77 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No error’.

These kind of clothes (1)/ are rather expensive (2)/ for me to buy. (3)/ No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 78 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The employee did not _____ to the argument of the manager.

A. precede

B. exceed

C. concede

D. recede

 

Q. 79 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

He was sworn _____ as the Prime Minister of our country.

A. in

B. off

C. about

D. out

 

Q. 80 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Cantankerous

A. Humorous

B. Quarrelsome

C. Remorseful

D. Dullness

 

Q. 81 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Connoisseur

A. Decisive

B. Uncivilised

C. Discerning Judge

D. Narrow-minded

 

Q. 82 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Nugatory

A. Delusive

B. Futile

C. Unreal

D. Productive

 

Q. 83 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Naive

A. Artful

B. Candid

C. Credulous

D. Sincere

 

Q. 84 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.

A. Ill-tempered

B. Soft-spoken

C. Enthusiastic

D. Depressed

 

Q. 85 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.

By fits and starts

A. Occasionally

B. Totally

C. Finally

D. Irregularly

 

Q. 86 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

I had (not only helped her by) giving hints but also with providing him links.

A. helped not only to her by.

B. helped her not only by

C. not only helped her

D. No improvement

 

Q. 87 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

We (has finished) our lunch half an hour ago.

A. finished

B. will have finished

C. had finished

D. No improvement

 

Q. 88 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

The act of speaking irreverently about sacred things. 

A. Atheist

B. Blasphemy

C. Bellicose

D. Deflection

 

Q. 89 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

A person who talks too much of himself.

A. Egoist

B. Elite

C. Emetic

D. Egotist

 

Q. 90 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt.

Find the incorrectly spelt word.

A. Entrepreneur

B. Remuneration

C. Apprentice

D. Soveriegnity

 

Q. 91 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt.

Find the incorrectly spelt word.

A. Tranquillity

B. Perseverence

C. Resplendence

D. Accommodation

 

Q. 92 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

P: In other countries which are populated by ‘haves’, frustration is among them also

because they do “haves”.

Q: In some countries, frustration exists because these countries are populated by “havenots”.

R: Frustration is a global cancer.

S: It has spared no country.

A. RSQP

B. SQRP

C. PSRQ

D. QRPS

 

Q. 93 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

P: The real purpose underlying this maxim lies in its utility in the worldly sense.

Q: He has within him a spirit which is ever exhorting him to cut down his needs and learn to be happy with what he has.

R: Man is something much greater than an intelligent being using his intellect to make newer inventions from time to time.

S: It tells us to be up and doing, not to be passive in our attitude to life.

A. PRQS

B. QPSR

C. RQPS

D. SRPQ

 

Q. 94 In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

Why do you waste money?

A. Why is money been wasted by you?

B. Why has money been wasted by you ?

C. Why is money wasted by you?

D. Why is money being wasted by you?

 

Q. 95 In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

The doctor said, “well, what can I do for you?”

A. The doctor wanted to know what he could do for her.

B. The doctor said that he couldn’t do anything for her.

C. The doctor asked what he couldn’t do for her.

D. The doctor wondered what he could do for her.

 

Questions: 96 – 100

In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives. The world has seen a _____ growth in several spheres. Agricultural production, industrial production, communication, medicine, education etc, have seen _____ growth. We can safely assume that the future is not as _____ as once appeared to be. We are not by a vision of hungry hordes overwhelming world food resources. Although it is _____ that many people, especially in the developing countries, are hungry, illiterate and _____ to diseases.

 

Q. 96 The world has seen a _____ growth in several spheres.

A. tremendous

B. mere

C. hardly

D. slow

 

Q. 97 Agricultural production, industrial production, communication, medicine, education etc, have seen _____ growth.

A. equal

B. unprecedented

C. negligible

D. negative

 

Q. 98 We can safely assume that the future is not as _____ as once appeared to be.

A. good

B. strong

C. bleak

D. high

 

Q. 99 Although it is _____ that many people, especially in the developing countries,

A. unclear

B. false

C. incorrect

D. true

 

Q. 100 are hungry, illiterate and _____ to diseases.

A. prone

B. averse

C. liable

D. engross

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C B A A D B B B C B
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer D C D C D A C B C B
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer D B B A C D A A B A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B D A C B B C D D A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A C B A C A A A C B
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer B D C C D C C A D D
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer B B D C D C C C A A
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer D B C B C A A C A B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C D A B D B C B D D
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B A C C A A B C D A

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