UGC NET 2014 Dec Paper 1 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2014 Dec Paper 1 

Q. 1 The term ‘Yellow Journalism’ refers to

A. sensational news about terrorism and violence

B. sensationalism and exaggeration to attract readers / viewers

C. sensational news about arts and culture

D. sensational news prints in yellow paper

 

Q. 2 In the classroom, the teacher sends the message either as words or images. The students are really

A. Encoders

B. Decoders

C. Agitators

D. Propagators

 

Q. 3 Media is known as

A. First Estate

B. Second Estate

C. Third Estate

D. Fourth Estate

 

Q. 4 The mode of communication that involves a single source transmitting information to a large number of receivers simultaneously, is called

A. Group Communication

B. Mass Communication

C. Intrapersonal Communication

D. Interpersonal Communication

 

Q. 5 A smart classroom is a teaching space which has

(i) Smart portion with a touch panel control system.

(ii) PC/Laptop connection and DVD/VCR player.

(iii) Document camera and specialized software

(iv) Projector and screen

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. (i) and (ii) only

B. (ii) and (iv) only

C. (i), (ii) and (iii) only

D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

 

Q. 6 Digital Empowerment means

(i) Universal digit literacy

(ii) Universal access to all digital resources

(iii) Collaborative digital platform for participative governance

(iv) Probability of all entitlements for individuals through cloud

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. (i) and (ii) only

B. (ii) and (iii) only

C. (i), (ii) and (iii) only

D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

 

Q. 7 The next term in the series :

2, 7, 28, 63, 126, _______ is

A. 215

B. 245

C. 276

D. 296

 

Q. 8 The next term in the series :

AB, ED, IH, NM, ________ is

A. TS

B. ST

C. TU

D. SU

 

Q. 9 If STREAMERS is coded as UVTGALDQR, then KNOWLEDGE will be coded as

A. MQPYLCDFD

B. MPQYLDCFD

C. PMYQLDFCD

D. YMQPLDDFC

 

Q. 10 A is brother of B. B is the brother of C. C is the husband of D. E is the father of A. D is related to E as

A. Daughter

B. Daughter-in-law

C. Sister-in-law

D. Sister

 

Q. 11 Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9 is subtracted from the numbers, the ratio becomes 12 : 23. The numbers are

A. 30, 50

B. 36, 60

C. 33, 55

D. 42, 70

 

Q. 12 The mean of the ages of father and his son is 27 years. After 18 years, father will be twice as old as his son. Their present ages are

A. 42, 12

B. 40, 14

C. 30, 24

D. 36, 18

 

Questions: 13 – 17

Passage : 1

The literary distaste for politics, however, seems to be focused not so much on the largely murky practice of politics in itself as a subject of literary representation but rather more on how it is often depicted in literature, i.e., on the very politics of such representation. A political novel often turns out to be not merely a novel about politics but a novel with a politics of its own, for it seeks not merely to show us how things are but has fairly definite ideas about how things should be, and precisely what one should think and do in order to make things move in that desired direction. In short, it seeks to convert and enlist the reader to a particular cause or ideology; it often is (in an only too familiar phrase) not literature but propaganda. This is said to

violate the very spirit of literature which is to broaden our understanding of the world and the range of our sympathies rather than to narrow them down through partisan commitment. As John Keats said, ‘We hate poetry that has a palpable design upon us’. Another reason why politics does not seem menable to the highest kind of

literary representation seems to arise from the fact that politics by its very nature is constituted of ideas and ideologies. If political situations do not lend themselves to happy literary treatment, political ideas present perhaps an even greater problem in this regard. Literature, it is argued, is about human experiences rather than about intellectual abstractions; it deals in what is called the ‘felt reality’ of human flesh and blood, and in sap and savour (rasa) rather than in arid and lifeless ideas. In an extensive discussion of the matter in her book Ideas and the Novel, the American novelist Mary McCarthy observed that ‘ideas are still today felt to be unsightly in the novel’ though that was not so in ‘former days’, i.e., in the 18th and 19th centuries. Her formulation of the precise nature of the incompatibility between ideas on the one hand and the novel on the other betrays perhaps a divided conscience in the matter and a sense of dilemma shared by many writers and readers : ‘An idea cannot have loose ends, but a novel, I almost think, needs them. Nevertheless, there is enough in common for the novelists to feel… the attraction of ideas while taking up arms against them – most often with weapons of mockery.’

Q. 13 According to the passage, a political novel often turns out to be a

A. Literary distaste for politics

B. Literary representation of politics

C. Novel with its own politics

D. Depiction of murky practice of politics

 

Q. 14 A political novel reveals

A. Reality of the things

B. Writer’s perception

C. Particular ideology of the readers

D. The spirit of literature

 

Q. 15 The constructs of politics by its nature is

A. Prevalent political situation

B. Ideas and Ideologies

C. Political propaganda

D. Understanding of human nature

 

Q. 16 Literature deals with

A. Human experiences in politics

B. Intellectual abstractions

C. Dry and empty ideas

D. Felt reality of human life

 

Q. 17 The observation of the novelist, Mary McCarthy reveals

A. unseen felt ideas of today in the novel

B. dichotomy of conscience on political ideas and novels

C. compatibility between idea and novel

D. endless ideas and novels

 

Q. 18 When in a group of propositions, one proposition is claimed to follow from the others, that group of propositions is called

A. An argument

B. A valid argument

C. An explanation

D. An invalid argument

 

Q. 19 Namita and Samita are brilliant and studious. Anita and Karabi are obedient and irregular. Babita and Namita are irregular but brilliant. Samita and Kabita are regular and obedient. Who among them is/are brilliant, obedient, regular and studious ?

A. Samita alone

B. Namita and Samita

C. Kabita alone

D. Anita alone

 

Q. 20 Warrior is related to sword, carpenter is related to saw, farmer is related to plough. In the same way, the author is related to

A. Book

B. Fame

C. Reader

D. Pen

 

Q. 21 Given is a diagram of three circles A, B and C over-lapping each other. The circle A represents the class of honest people, the circle B represents the class of sincere people and circle C represents the class of politicians. p, q, r, s, U, X, Y represent different regions. Select the code that represents the region indicating the class of honest politicians who are not sincere.

A. X

B. q

C. p

D. s

 

Q. 22 “A man ought no more to value himself for being wiser than a woman if he owes his advantage to a better education, than he ought to boast of his courage for beating a man when his hands were tied.”

The above passage is an instance of

A. Deductive argument

B. Hypothetical argument

C. Analogical argument

D. Factual argument

 

Q. 23 By which of the following proposition, the proposition ‘wise men are hardly afraid of death’ is contradicted ?

A. Some wise men are afraid of death.

B. All wise men are afraid of death.

C. No wise men is afraid of death.

D. Some wise men are not afraid of death.

Questions: 24 – 29 

For a country CO₂ emissions (million metric tons) from various sectors are given in the following table.

 

Q. 24 What is the percentage (%) growth of CO₂ emissions from power sector during 2005 to 2009 ?

A. 60

B. 50

C. 40

D. 80

 

Q. 25 Which sector has recorded maximum growth in CO₂ emissions during 2005 to 2009 ?

A. Power

B. Industry

C. Commercial

D. Agriculture

 

Q. 26 By what percentage (%), the total emissions of CO₂ have increased from 2005 to 2009 ? 

A. ~89.32%

B. ~57.62%

C. ~40.32%

D. ~113.12%

 

Q. 27 What is the average annual growth rate of CO₂ emissions in power sector ?

A. ~12.57%

B. ~16.87%

C. ~30.81%

D. ~50.25%

 

Q. 28 What is the percentage contribution of power sector to total CO₂ emissions in the year 2008 ?

A. ~30.82%

B. ~41.18%

C. ~51.38%

D. ~60.25%

 

Q. 29 In which year, the contribution (%) of industry to total sectoral CO₂ emissions was minimum?

A. 2005

B. 2006

C. 2007

D. 2009

 

Q. 30 Symbols A-F are used in which one of the following ?

A. Binary number system

B. Decimal number system

C. Hexadecimal number system

D. Octal number system

 

Q. 31 Which one of the following is not a search engine ?

A. Google

B. Chrome

C. Yahoo

D. Bing

 

Q. 32 CSS stands for

A. Cascading Style Sheets

B. Collecting Style Sheets

C. Comparative Style Sheets

D. Comprehensive Style Sheets

 

Q. 33 MOOC stands for

A. Media Online Open Course

B. Massachusetts Open Online Course

C. Massive Open Online Course

D. Myrind Open Online Course

 

Q. 34 Binary equivalent of decimal number 35 is

A. 100011

B. 110001

C. 110101

D. 101011

 

Q. 35 gif, jpg, bmp, png are used as extensions for files which store

A. audio data

B. image data

C. video data

D. text data

 

Q. 36 Which of the anthropogenic activity accounts for more than 2/3rd of global water consumption ?

A. Agriculture

B. Hydropower generation

C. Industry

D. Domestic and Municipal usage

 

Q. 37 One of the anthropogenic sources of gaseous pollutants chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in air is

A. Cement industry

B. Fertiliser industry

C. Foam industry

D. Pesticide industry

 

Q. 38 In terms of total CO₂emissions from a country, identify the correct sequence :

A. U.S.A. > China > India > Russia

B. China > U.S.A. > India > Russia

C. China > U.S.A. > Russia > India

D. U.S.A. > China > Russia > India

 

Q. 39 Match List – I and List – II and identify the correct code :

A. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

B. a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

C. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

D. a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

 

Q. 40 The cyclone ‘Hudhud’ hit the coast of which State ?

A. Andhra Pradesh

B. Karnataka

C. Kerala

D. Gujarat

 

Q. 41 Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource ?

A. Clean air

B. Fresh water

C. Fertile soil

D. Salt

 

Q. 42 The maximum number of fake institutions / universities as identified by the UGC in the year 2014 are in the State / Union territory of

A. Bihar

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Delhi

 

Q. 43 Which of the following institutions are empowered to confer or grant degrees under the UGC Act,1956 ?

1. A university established by an Act of Parliament.

2. A university established by an Act of Legislature.

3. A university / institution established by a linguistic minority.

4. An institution which is a deemed to be university.

Select the correct answer from the code:

A. 1 and 2

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1, 2 and 4

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q. 44 Which of the following are the tools of good governance ?

1. Social Audit

2. Separation of Powers

3. Citizen’s Charter

4. Right to Information

Select the correct answer from the code:

A. 1, 3 and 4

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1 and 4

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q. 45 Which of the following powers, the President has in relation to Lok Sabha ?

1. Summoning

2. Adjournment – sine die

3. Prorogation

4. Dissolution

Select the correct answer from the codes:

A. 1 and 4

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q. 46 The interval between two sessions of parliament must not exceed

A. 3 months

B. 6 months

C. 4 months

D. 100 days

 

Q. 47 Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right is implied in

A. Right to Freedom

B. Right to Life and Personal Liberty

C. Right to Equality

D. Right against Exploitation

 

Q. 48 Which of the following organizations deals with ‘capacity building program’ on Educational Planning ?

A. NCERT

B. UGC

C. NAAC

D. NUEPA

 

Q. 49 “Education is the manifestation of perfection already in man” was stated by

A. M.K. Gandhi

B. R.N. Tagore

C. Swami Vivekanand

D. Sri Aurobindo

 

Q. 50 Which of the following is not a prescribed level of teaching ?

A. Memory

B. Understanding

C. Reflective

D. Differentiation

 

Q. 51 Maximum participation of students during teaching is possible through

A. Lecture method

B. Demonstration method

C. Inductive method

D. Textbook method

 

Q. 52 Diagnostic evaluation ascertains

A. Students performance at the beginning of instructions.

B. Learning progress and failures during instructions.

C. Degree of achievement of instructions at the end.

D. Causes and remedies of persistent learning problems during instructions.

 

Q. 53 Instructional aids are used by the teacher to

A. glorify the class

B. attract the students

C. clarify the concepts

D. ensure discipline

 

Q. 54 Attitude of the teacher that affects teaching pertains to

A. Affective domain

B. Cognitive domain

C. Connative domain

D. Psychomotor domain

 

Q. 55 When planning to do as social research, it is better to

A. approach the topic with an open mind

B. do a pilot study before getting stuck into it

C. be familiar with literature on the topic

D. forget about theory because this is a very practical

 

Q. 56 When academicians are called to deliver lecture or presentation to an audience on certain topics or a set of topics of educational nature, it is called

A. Training Program

B. Seminar

C. Workshop

D. Symposium

 

Q. 57 The core elements of a dissertation are

A. Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and Recommendations

B. Executive Summary; Literature review; Data gathered; Conclusions; Bibliography

C. Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis; References

D. Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology; Results; Discussion and

Conclusion

 

Q. 58 What is a Research Design ?

A. A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.

B. The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.

C. The style in which you present your research findings e.g. a graph.

D. A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.

 

Q. 59 ‘Sampling Cases’ means

A. Sampling using a sampling frame

B. Identifying people who are suitable for research

C. Literally the researcher’s brief case

D. Sampling of people, newspapers, television programmes etc.

 

Q. 60 The frequency distribution of a research data which is symmetrical in shape similar to a normal distribution but center peak is much higher, is

A. Skewed

B. Mesokurtic

C. Leptokurtic

D. Platykurtic

 

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer B B D B D D A A B B
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer C A C B B D A A A D
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer D C B A D A A B A C
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B A C A B A C B B A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer D B C A C B B D C D
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer B D C A C B D D D C

UGC NET 2014 Dec Economics Paper 2 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2014 Dec Economics Paper 2

Q. 1 Which is called Gossen’s second law ?

A. Law of Equi-marginal Utility

B. Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility

C. Revealed Preference Theory

D. Indifference Curve Approach

 

Q. 2 When a consumer is in equilibrium, MRS(XY) is 2.5. If the price of commodity Y is 16, then what will be the price of commodity X ?

A. 40

B. 6.4

C. 23.2

D. 24

 

Q. 3 Which of the conditions support long run equilibrium in monopolistic competition ?

A. MR = MC, AR = AC

B. P = MC, AR = AC

C. MR = MC = AR = AC

D. AR = MC = AC

 

Q. 4 Who explained importance of time element in price determination, for the first time ?

A. Chamberlin

B. Stigler

C. Mrs. Joan Robinson

D. Marshall

 

Q. 5 Law of diminishing returns begins to operate when :

A. Total product begins to rise.

B. Total product begins to fall.

C. Marginal product begins to rise.

D. Marginal product begins to fall.

 

Q. 6 Consider the following statements regarding Edgeworth Duopoly model :

I. It takes as given output decision of rival.

II. It takes as given price decision of rival.

III. It is an explanation of price rigidity.

Of these, the correct answer is :

A. Only Statement I is true.

B. Both I & II are true.

C. Both II & III are true.

D. Only III is true.

 

Q. 7 Public goods are characterised by

1. Collective consumption 2. Divisibility

3. Non-exclusion 4. Rival consumption

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

A. 1 & 2 are correct.

B. 1 & 3 are correct.

C. 1 & 4 are correct.

D. 2 & 4 are correct.

 

Q. 8 Among the following what causes market failure ?

1. Externality

2. Asymmetry of information

3. Perfect competition

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

A. 1, 2 & 3 are correct.

B. Only 1 is correct.

C. 1 & 2 are correct.

D. 2 & 3 are correct.

 

Q. 9 Assuming wage-price flexibility, the classical economists asserted that a decline in money wages and price would lead to

A. Unemployment

B. Deflation

C. High level of employment and output

D. Unemployment and decline in output

 

Q. 10 The classical theory of interest postulates that both savings and investments are a function of

A. the level of National income

B. the level of employment and output

C. monetary and fiscal policy

D. rate of interest

 

Q. 11 The relative income hypothesis of Duesenberry suggests that as income increases, consumption function curve shifts above and therefore,

A. Average propensity to consume rises.

B. Average propensity to consume falls.

C. Average propensity to consume remains constant.

D. Average propensity to consume is equal to 1.

 

Q. 12 Who among the following said, “Inflation is everywhere and always a monetary phenomenon” ?

A. James Tobin

B. John M. Keynes

C. Milton Friedman

D. Anna J. Schwartz

 

Q. 13 Accelerator is most closely related to

A. interest rate

B. inventories

C. idle capacity

D. induced investment

 

Q. 14 Match List – I and List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : 

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 15 Which one of the following would be inconsistent with the Keynesian view about the effectiveness of monetary policy ?

A. Velocity of money is relatively stable.

B. The demand for money is unstable.

C. The demand for money is interest sensitive.

D. Investment demand is unstable.

 

Q. 16 Which of the following statement is true ?

A. Sporadic dumping is selling of goods at a low price in the foreign market to get rid of the inventory stocks.

B. Predatory dumping is destroying of competitors even at a loss initially and then, after eliminating of competitors, selling product at a high price.

C. Persistent dumping is selling a product at a lower price in foreign markets due to

differences in elasticity of demand at home and in the foreign market.

D. All the above.

 

Q. 17 According to Comparative Advantage Theory, International Trade will not take place if 

A. one country is efficient in the production of both the products.

B. one country is inefficient in the production of both the products.

C. opportunity costs of the two products are same in both the countries.

D. None of the above.

 

Q. 18 Imposition of tariff will lead to

A. Deterioration in terms of trade

B. Improvement in terms of trade

C. No effect on terms of trade

D. None of the above

 

Q. 19 Under a freely exchange rate system, a deficit in a Nation’s Balance of Payments Account is automatically corrected by

A. a depreciation of its currency

B. an appreciation of its currency

C. domestic inflation

D. deflation and rise in National income

 

Q. 20 Maastricht Treaty led to the creation of which one of the following ?

A. European Parliament

B. Euro

C. European Court of Justice

D. European Union

 

Q. 21 Assertion (A) : According to Mundell, “Imbalances in the balance of payments is caused by initial differences in unit factor costs.”

Reason (R) : Free movement of goods will correct the imbalance in the balance of payments of two countries.

In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

 

Q. 22 The Stolper-Samuelson theorem postulates that the imposition of a tariff by a nation causes the real income of the nation’s

A. abundant factor to rise

B. scarce factor to rise

C. scarce factor to fall

D. both (A) & (B) are possible

 

Q. 23 What is perspective planning ?

A. Overall appraisal of planning.

B. Review of planning in different fields.

C. Taking up past experience and reviewing the future in that light.

D. Planning for future so as to meet the long term requirement of development in the

country.

 

Q. 24 Who formulated the ‘People’s Plan’ for India in 1944 ?

A. J.L. Nehru

B. M.N. Roy

C. Subhas Chandra Bose

D. Mahatma Gandhi

 

Q. 25 “Trickle down” strategy implies

A. growing GNP taking care of poverty.

B. reduction in the income of the upper class by deliberate redistribution.

C. direct achievement of better nourishment, health, education, etc. instead of growth of GNP first.

D. to target a particular sector of economy for betterment.

 

Q. 26 What is the correct sequence of the following approaches to development in terms of their chronological emergency ?

1. Basic needs approach

2. Per capita income approach

3. Human Development Index approach

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. 1,2,3

B. 2,1,3

C. 2,3,1

D. 1,3,2

 

Q. 27 Choose the correct statements for economic development and answer from the code below :

Statements : I. Continuous process

II. Short-term process

III. Long-term process

Codes :

A. II only

B. I and III

C. III only

D. I and II

 

Q. 28 Which of the following economists are proponents of dependency theory of development ? 

Choose from the code below :

I. Ragnar Nurkse II. Andre Gunther Frank

III. Raul Prebisch IV. John Kenneth Galbraith

Codes :

A. I, II and III are correct.

B. II and III are correct

C. II, III and IV are correct.

D. III and IV are correct.

 

Q. 29 What is true for neo-classical growth models ?

I. Rate of interest and profit are flexible.

II. Capital is heterogeneous.

III. Perfect competition prevails.

IV. Capital and labour are substitutable.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

A. Only I, II and III are true.

B. Only II and III are true.

C. Only I, III and IV are true.

D. All the above are true.

 

Q. 30 Choose the top three trading partners of India in 2013-14 :

I. UAE II. Korea

III. China IV. USA

Choose the correct answer from codes given below :

Codes :

A. I, II, III

B. II, III, IV

C. I, III, IV

D. II, I, IV

 

Q. 31 Of the following, which combination of two deficits is most significant for the Indian economy ?

A. Fiscal deficit and Revenue deficit

B. Revenue deficit and Primary deficit

C. Budget deficit and Fiscal deficit

D. Current Account deficit and Fiscal deficit

 

Q. 32 Of the following, which sector witnessed the highest growth rate in year 2013-14 ?

A. Agriculture, forestry and fishery

B. Mining and quarrying

C. Manufacturing

D. Construction

 

Q. 33 Who has advocated the concept of PURA (Providing Urban Amenities in Rural Areas) for our country ?

A. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

B. Manmohan Singh

C. Charan Singh

D. None of the above

 

Q. 34 ECOMARC is a symbol related to

A. Export Goods

B. Import Goods

C. Goods Safe for Environment

D. Best Quality Goods

 

Q. 35 Arrange following countries as per their HDI rank in the descending order (on the basis of 2013, UNDP Report on Human Development) :

1. Vietnam 2. China

3. India 4. Sri Lanka

A. 4,2,1,3

B. 2,1,4,3

C. 2,4,3,1

D. 1,2,3,4

 

Q. 36 Consider the following export groups from India for the year 2013-14 :

1. Agri. and allied products

2. Engineering goods

3. Gems and Jewellery

4. Textile and Readymade Garments

Arrange them in descending order of magnitude as a percent to total exports.

A. 2,1,4,3

B. 2,1,3,4

C. 4,2,1,3

D. 3,4,2,1

 

Q. 37 Techniques used to encourage the production and consumption of goods that generate positive externalities are referred to as

A. Tax incentives and vouchers

B. Fees and fines

C. Taxes and charges

D. Special assessment

 

Q. 38 Which of the canons of taxations have been propounded by Adam Smith ?

A. Economy, Elasticity, Simplicity and Sufficiency

B. Equity, Certainty, Convenience and Economy

C. Certainty, Convenience, Economy and Elasticity

D. Economy, Coordination, Convenience and Expediency

 

Q. 39 Displacement effect explained in Peacock-Wiseman hypothesis implies :

A. An upward displacement of public expenditure according to higher economic growth

B. The movement from older level of public expenditure and taxation to a newer and

higher level

C. Public expenditure increases at steady rate and reaches higher level

D. Government undertakes more and more newer activities and hence public

expenditure rises steeply upwards

 

Q. 40 The most important characteristic of a federation is :

A. Perfect match between the functions and resources of the Central and State

Governments

B. Non-correspondence between the functions and resources of the Central and State

Governments

C. Centre’s supremacy over the States

D. None of the above

 

Q. 41 Fiscal consolidation at the Centre can be achieved by :

A. Rationalization of major subsidies alone

B. Reducing the defence expenditure only

C. Raising the tax-GDP ratio and rationalisation of subsidies

D. Minimising the Central assistance to the States

 

Q. 42 Arrange the following Reports in chronological order :

I. Direct Taxes Enquiry Committee, Final Report

II. Final Report on Rationalising and Simplifications of the Tax Structure

III. Indian Tax Reforms – Report of a Survey

IV. Taxation Enquiry Commission

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. IV, III, II, I

B. I, II, III, IV

C. III, I, IV, II

D. II, III, I, IV

 

Q. 43 Identify correctly the taxes in State List (List – II) of the Constitution of India :

I. Taxes on mineral rights

II. Taxes on luxuries

III. Rates of stamp duty in respect of bills of exchange, cheques and promissory notes

IV. Excise duties on tobacco

Choose the right answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

A. I and III are correct.

B. I and II are correct.

C. I, III and IV are correct.

D. II, III and IV are correct.

 

Q. 44 Lump sum grant means :

A. A grant whose amount is sufficient to meet the expenditure.

B. A matching and conditional grant.

C. Grant given for a special purpose and it can be utilised only for that purpose.

D. A grant whose amount is not dependent on any matching effort of the recipient.

 

Q. 45 Geometric mean of Laspeyre’s and Paasche’s indices provides :

A. Marshall-Edgeworth Index

B. Bowley’s Index

C. Fisher’s Index

D. Kelley’s Index

 

Q. 46 Assertion (A) : Moving averages method can be used to estimate trend in time series.

Reasoning (R) : Moving averages is a device to smoothen the fluctuations in time series.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is a correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

D. (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect.

 

Q. 47 Which one of the following denotes the power of the Test ? [α is probability of Type I error and β is probability of Type II error]

A. α

B. β

C. 1 – α

D. 1 – β

 

Q. 48 In a frequency distribution the standard deviation of which is 15.8, the value of median is more than mean by 4, what will be its coefficient of skewness ?

A. – 0.76

B. + 0.76

C. – 0.86

D. + 0.86

 

Q. 49 Three coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability that they will fall 2 heads and 1 tail ?

A. 1/2

B. 1/4

C. 3/4

D. 3/8

 

Q. 50 In a frequency distribution if each item is multiplied by 5, the coefficient of variation will remain

A. unchanged

B. will be multiplied by 5

C. will be multiplied by 25

D. will be multiplied by 1/5

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer A A A D D A B C C D
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer C C D A C D C B A D
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer C B D B A B B B C C
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer D A A C A B A B B B
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C A B D C A D A D A

UGC NET 2014 Dec Commerce Paper 2 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2014 Dec Commerce Paper 2

Q. 1 The responsibility of the organization to the workers includes :

(i) The payment of fair wages

(ii) Arrangement of proper training and education of the workers

(iii) The installation of an efficient grievance handling system

(iv) Welfare of family members

(v) The provision of the best possible working conditions

Identify the correct combination :

A. (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)

B. (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

C. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

D. (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)

 

Q. 2 Match the items of List – I with List – II :

List – I List – II

a. Industries Development Regulation Act i. 1947

b. Import and Export Control Act ii. 1948

c. Foreign Exchange Management Act iii. 1951

d. Factories Act iv. 1999

Identify the correct combination :

Codes : 

A. a–>i, b—>iii, c—>iv, d—,ii

B. a–>iii, b—>i, c—>ii, d—,iv

C. a–>iii, b—>i, c—>iv, d—,ii

D. a–>iii, b—>iv, c—>ii, d—,i

 

Q. 3 Which among the following is not a correct sequential combination ?

A. Macro Environment → Economic Environment → National Income → Pattern of

Income Distribution

B. Business Environment → Internal Environment → Business Ethics → Payment of Fair Wages

C. Business Environment → External Environment → Micro Environment → Suppliers

D. Macro Environment → External Environment → Customers → Prospects of Business Development

 

Q. 4 Which among the following is not a correct combination ?

A. Industrial Policy – 1948

B. Industrial Policy Statement – 1977

C. Industrial Policy Statement – 1980

D. Industrial Policy Statement – 1991

 

Q. 5 Statement – I : The industrial policy of the Government of India is aimed at increasing the tempo of industrial development.

Statement – II : After the New Industrial Policy – 1991, the Balance of Trade for India has always been positive.

Codes :

A. Statement (I) is correct, but (II) is incorrect.

B. Statement (II) is correct, but (I) is incorrect.

C. Both Statements (I) and (II) are correct.

D. Both Statements (I) and (II) are incorrect.

 

Q. 6 Current Ratio 2.5, Liquid Ratio 1.5 and Working Capital `Rs. 60,000. What is Current Assets ?

A. Rs. 60,000.

B. Rs. 80,000.

C. Rs. 1,00,000.

D. Rs. 1,20,000.

 

Q. 7 X, Y, Z are sharing profits in the ratio of 6 : 5 : 3. A is admitted into partnership for 1/8th share. The sacrificing ratio of X, Y and Z is

A. Equal

B. 6:5 :3

C. 5/14, 4/14, 5/14

D. 4 : 5 : 5

 

Q. 8 Accounting information given by a company :

Total assets turnover 3 times

Net profit margin 10%

Total assets ` 1,00,000

The net profit is

A. Rs. 10,000

B. Rs. 15,000

C. Rs. 25,000

D. Rs. 30,000

 

Q. 9 “Make sufficient provisions for future losses, but do not anticipate future profits.” This statement is in accordance to the concept of :

A. Matching

B. Objectivity

C. Conservatism

D. Materiality

 

Q. 10 When a firm is dissolved, profit or loss on realisation is shared by the partners

A. Equal

B. In the ratio of their capital balances

C. In the profit sharing ratio

D. In the ratio laid down in Garner Vs. Murray

 

Q. 11 The inverse relationship between variations in the price and quantity demanded is not due to

A. Income Effects

B. Substitution Effects

C. Future Expectations

D. Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility

 

Q. 12 Consumer is said to be in equilibrium, maximizing his total utility, when

A. the marginal utilities of the two goods consumed are equal.

B. the proportions of the marginal utilities and respective prices are equal.

C. the consumer gets full satisfaction from the consumption.

D. the consumer feels satisfied with his expenditure on the various goods

 

Q. 13 Match the items of the following two lists and suggest the correct code :

List – I List – II

a. Zero Income Elasticity i. Substitute goods

b. Unit Cross Elasticity ii. Complementary goods

c. Positive Cross Elasticity iii. Indifferent goods

d. Negative Cross Elasticity iv. Independent goods

Choose the correct option :

A. a—>iii, b—>ii, c—>i, d —–>iv

B. a—>ii, b—>iii, c—>iv, d —–>i

C. a—>iii, b—>iv, c—>i, d —–>ii

D. a—>iv, b—>i, c—>ii, d —–>iii

 

Q. 14 Statement (A) : The isoquant curves are drawn convex to the origin due to diminishing technical rate of substitution.

Statement (B) : The lesser the convexity of the isoquant curve the greater the possibility of the complementarity of the two inputs.

Codes :

A. Statements (A) and (B) both are correct.

B. Statement (A) is correct but (B) is incorrect.

C. Statement (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.

D. Statements (A) and (B) both are incorrect.

 

Q. 15 Match the items of the List – I with those of List – II and suggest the correct code :

List – I List – II

a. Constant average cost over a range of output i. Economic capacity

b. Average cost becomes constant momentarily ii. Reserve capacity

c. Normal average cost is a U-shaped curve iii. Production and Managerialscosts effects

d. Modern Long-run average cost is L-shape iv. Economies and Diseconomies

Codes :

A. a—>i, b—->ii, c—>iii, d —-iv

B. a—>ii, b—->iii, c—>iv, d —-i

C. a—>iii, b—->iv, c—>i, d —-i

D. a—>ii, b—->i, c—>iv, d —-iii

 

Q. 16 Which one of the following is not probability sampling method ?

A. Simple Random Sampling

B. Cluster Sampling

C. Judgemental Sampling

D. Systematic Sampling

 

Q. 17 The research carried out to expand the knowledge of a particular field is known as

A. Applied research

B. Qualitative research

C. Quantitative research

D. Basic research

 

Q. 18 In univariate data analysis t-test is used when the data are in the form of

A. Metric data with one sample

B. Non-metric data

C. Non-metric data with independent variable

D. Metric data with independent two sample

 

Q. 19 To show the trend for a variable, which one of the presentation method is used ?

A. Histogram

B. Frequency polygon

C. Line graph

D. Scatter graph

 

Q. 20 Which one of the following objectives is not the objective of secondary data collection ?

A. Identify the problem

B. Test the hypotheses of the relevant present problem

C. Better define the problem

D. Interpret primary data more insightfully

 

Q. 21 The structure of an organisation in which there is separation of ownership and

management is called 

A. Sole proprietorship

B. Partnership

C. Company

D. Cooperative society 21

 

Q. 22 When a person transacts with a company on matters which is beyond the power of the company, the person will be governed by the Doctrine of

A. Management by Exception

B. Constructive Notice

C. Indoor Management

D. Self Management

 

Q. 23 Assertion (A) : MBO is effective way of planning and organizing the work.

Reason (R) : Employees participate in setting the objectives.

Codes :

A. Both (A) and (R) are true.

B. Both (A) and (R) are false

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is correct

 

Q. 24 The appropriate sequence of the formation of a company are in the following order :

A. Promotion, commencement of business and incorporation

B. Promotion, incorporation, capital subscription and commencement of business

C. Capital subscription, promotion, incorporation and commencement of business

D. Incorporation, capital subscription, commencement of business and promotion

 

Q. 25 Delegation of authority makes the size of the organization :

A. Smaller organization

B. Larger organization

C. Very big organization

D. It does not affect the size of the organization

 

Q. 26 Managerial Grid suggests the following as the best leader behaviour :

A. High structure and high consideration

B. Low structure and low consideration

C. High concern both for production and people

D. Low concern both for production and people

 

Q. 27 Marketing strategy development is also known as

A. Marketing Control

B. Marketing Exercise

C. Marketing Planning

D. Situation Analysis

 

Q. 28 For most people, the purchase of cheese for daily use can be described as a

A. Completely novel buy

B. Modified re-buy

C. Routine re-buy

D. High involvement product

 

Q. 29 The promotion mix of a company consists of these –

A. Marketing communication, promotion decisions

B. Personal selling, product objectives

C. Advertising, personal selling, sales promotion , publicity and public relations

D. Consumer psychology, buyers motives, brand equity

 

Q. 30 Rational buying motives that determine purchase decisions are mostly based on

A. Price factor

B. Psychological factors

C. Quality of product

D. Advertisement

 

Q. 31 Statement – I : Capital structure refers to composition of long-term funds.

Statement – II : These include equity share capital, preference share capital, debentures, all debts and all reserves.

A. Both Statements I and II are correct.

B. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

C. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

D. Both statements are incorrect.

 

Q. 32 Match the items of the following two lists and suggest the correct code :

List – I List – II

a. Pay-back Rate of Return i. Discounted Cash Flow Technique

b. Internal Rate of Return ii. Compounded values of investments

and returns

c. Benefit Cost Ratio iii. Crude method for project evaluation

d. Net Terminal Value Method iv. Varying sized projects evaluation

Codes :

A. a—>ii, b—>iii, c—->i, d—-iv

B. a—>iii, b—>i, c—->iv, d—-ii

C. a—>i, b—>iv, c—->ii, d—-iii

D. a—>iv, b—>ii, c—->iii, d—-i

 

Q. 33 Match the items of the following two lists and suggest the correct code :

List – I List – II

a. Realised yield method i. Cost of equity share capital

b. Taxation ii. Cost of equity capital

c. Cost of total capital employed iii. Cost of debt capital

d. Dividend growth is a consideration iv. Weighted cost of capital

A. a—>iv, b—>iii, c—->ii, d—i

B. a—>ii, b—>vi, c—->i, d—iii

C. a—>ii, b—>iii, c—->iv, d—i

D. a—>i, b—>ii, c—->iii d—iv

 

Q. 34 Cash Flow Management involves :

I. Lock-box system

II. Marketable securities

III. Playing the float

IV. Concentration Bank Account

A. I, II and III only

B. II, III and IV only

C. I, III and IV only

D. I, II and IV only

 

Q. 35 Dividend capitalisation model was developed by

A. Ezra Solomon

B. Myron J. Gordon

C. James E. Walter

D. Merton H. Miller and Franco Modigliani

 

Q. 36 The process of narrowing a large number of candidates to a smaller field is called

A. Rushing

B. Recruitment

C. Selection

D. Enrollment

 

Q. 37 According to which theory, people are motivated to the extent to which they expect that their actions will help in achievement of goals ?

A. Vroom’s Vector Valence Theory

B. Need Theory

C. Z Theory

D. X Theory

 

Q. 38 Match the items of List – I with List – II and select the correct code :

List – I List – II

a. Getting Effective Leadership in theIndustrial Organizationi. Dale Yoder

b. The Nature of Leadership,Organization an Managementii. Alford and Beatty

c. Industrial Management iii. Douglas McGregor

d. Personnel Management iv. Chester I. Bernard

Codes :

A. a—>i, b—>ii, c—-> iii, d —->iv

B. a—>iii, b—>iv, c—->ii, d —->i

C. a—>iii, b—>iv, c—-> ii, d —->i

D. a—>iv, b—>iii, c—-> ii, d —->i

 

Q. 39 Match the items of List – I with List – II :

List – I List – II

a. AITUC i. Indian National Congress

b. BMS ii. Socialists

c. INTUC iii. Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh

d. CITU iv. Communist Party of India

Identify the correct combination :

Codes :

A. a—>iv, b—>iii, c—ii, d –>i

B. a—>iv, b—>i, c—ii, d –>iii

C. a—>iv, b—>iii, c—i, d –>ii

D. a—>iv, b—>i, c—iii, d –>ii

 

Q. 40 The main characteristics of Weber’s bureaucracy are :

A. Specialization

B. Hierarchy of authority

C. System of rules

D. All of the above

 

Q. 41 Match the items of List – I with List – II :

List – I List – II

a. RBI Nationalization i. 1964

b. Imperial Bank Nationalization ii. 1949

c. Nationalization of 14 Commercial Banks iii. 1955

d. Establishment of IDBI iv. 1969

Identify the correct combination :

Codes :

A. a—> i, b —>ii, c—->iii, d —>iv

B. a—>ii, b —>iii, c—->i, d —>iv

C. a—> iii, b —>ii, c—->iv, d —>i

D. a—> ii, b —>iii, c—->iv, d —>i

 

Q. 42 As per the RBI Act, 1934, the following functions are described as the functions of a Central Bank :

(i) Banking functions

(ii) Advisory functions

(iii) Supervisory functions

(iv) Promotional functions

Identify the correct combination :

A. (i), (iii) and (iv)

B. (i), (ii) and (iv)

C. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

D. Only (i) and (iii)

 

Q. 43 Phishing is an attempt to acquire :

A. Loan from unauthorized firms

B. Sensitive information such as username, password, etc.

C. Personal information from banks

D. None of the above

 

Q. 44 What is Call Money ?

A. Money borrowed or lent for a day or overnight.

B. Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 3 days.

C. Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 7days.

D. Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 14 days.

Q. 45 The Regulatory Authority of Regional Rural Banks is

A. NABARD

B. Central Government

C. state Government

D. Sponsor Bank

 

Q. 46 Which of the following is not ensured to the consumer in the globalization ?

A. Lower prices

B. Better selection

C. Clear origin of goods and services

D. Improved services

 

Q. 47 In international trade which of the following is a non-tariff trade barrier ?

A. Quotas

B. Import bans

C. Export controls

D. Anti dumping laws

 

Q. 48 Match the items of List – I with items in List – II and select a correct code :

List – I List – II

a. Current Account i. Official Capital

b. Capital Account ii. Reserves from foreign countries

c. Unilateral Payments iii. Reparations

d. Official Statement Account iv. Visible Exports and Imports

A. a—>i, b—>iii ,c—>ii ,d—>iv

B. a—>iv, b—>i,c—>ii,d—>iii

C. a—>iv, b—>i,c—>iii,d—>ii

D. a—>iii, b—>ii ,c—>i ,d—>iv

 

Q. 49 Match the items of List – I with the items in List – II and select a correct code :

List – I List – II

a. Vishesh Krishi Upaj Yojana i. Scheme intended to reduce difficultiesof exporters

b. EPCG ii. Duty Entitlement Pass Book

c. DFRC iii. To boost exports of fruits, vegetables,flowers, minor forest produce etc.

d. DEPB iv. Relating to import of duty free fuel

A. a—> iv, b—> i, c—> ii ,d—> iii.

B. a—> iv, b—>iii., c—> i ,d—> ii

C. a—> iii, b—>.iv, c—>iii ,d—>i

D. a—> iii,b—>i,c—>.iv,d—> ii

 

Q. 50 Which of the following is not the agency of World Bank ?

A. MIGA

B. ICSID

C. ADB

D. IDA

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer A C D D A C B D C C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer C B C B D C D D C B
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer C B A B B C C C C B
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B B C C B C A B C D
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer D A B A A C B C D C
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