Vidhyarthi Darpan, Author at Vidhyarthi Darpan

CDS(I) Exam 2016 General Knowledge Previous Year Paper

CDS(I) Exam 2016

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

प्रश्न 1. हृद्वाहिका रोग और अतिरक्तदाब के खतरों का सामना कर रहे व्यक्तियों के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक अच्छा कोलेस्टेरॉल’ माना जाता है ?

(a) उच्च-घनत्व लिपोप्रोटीन (HDL)

(b) निम्न-घनत्व लिपोप्रोटीन (LDL) –

(d) वसीय-अम्ल है

प्रश्न 2. विटामिन और रोग के निम्नलिखित युग्मों में कौन सा/से सही सुमेलित है/हैं ?

1. विटामिन A : रिकेट्स

2. विटामिन B : बेरी-बेरी

3. विटामिन C : स्कर्वी

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिये :

(a) केवल 2

(b) केवल 2 और 3

(d) 1, 2 और 3

प्रश्न 3. किसी पिण्ड के संवेग परिवर्तन की दर किसके बराबर होती है ?

(a) परिणामी ऊर्जा

(b) परिणामी शक्ति

(d) परिणामी आवेग

प्रश्न 4. किसी गर्म आतप दिवस के पश्चात् लोग छतों पर जल छिड़कते हैं, क्योंकि :

(a) जल छत के आस-पास की वायु की ऊष्मा को तुरंत अवशोषित करने में सहायक है।

(b) जल की विशिष्ट ऊष्मा-धारिता निम्नतर होती

(d) जल की वाष्पीकरण की गुप्त ऊष्मा अधिक होती है।

प्रश्न 5. नीचे दिये गये भारत के मानचित्र पर विचार कीजिये :

ऊपर दिये गये मानचित्र में अंकित क्षेत्र निम्नलिखित में से किस एक नकदी फसल के उत्पादन के लिए जाने जाते हैं ?

(a) कपास

(b) मूंगफली

(d) तंबाकू

प्रश्न 6. हिमालय की पीर पंजाल पर्वतमाला किसका भाग है ?

(a) शिवालिक

(b) पार हिमालय

(d) निम्न हिमालय

प्रश्न 7. भारत की लैटेराइट मृदाओं के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

1. लैटेराइट मृदाएं सामान्यत: लाल रंग की होती हैं

2. लैटेराइट मृदाओं में नाइट्रोजन और पोटाश की प्रचुरता होती है।

3. लैटेराइट मृदाएं राजस्थान और उत्तर प्रदेश में सुविकसित हैं

4. इस मृदा में टैपियोका और काजू की उपज अच्छी होती है

ऊपर दिये गये कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं ?

(a) केवल 1

(b) 2,3 और 4

(d) 1,2 और 4

प्रश्न 8. भूमध्यसागरीय और मानसून जलवायु के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसा/से सही है/

1. भूमध्यसागरीय जलवायु में वर्षण शीतकाल में होता है, जबकि मानसून जलवायु में यह अधिकतर ग्रीष्मकाल में होता है ।

2. भूमध्यसागरीय जलवायु में, मानसून जलवायु की अपेक्षा, तापमान का वार्षिक परिसर अधिक होता है

3. दोनों ही जलवायुओं में वर्षा ऋतु और शुष्क ऋतु होती है नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1

(b) केवल 2 और 3

(d) 1, 2 और 3

प्रश्न 9. प्रेशर कुकरों का हैंडल प्लास्टिक का बना होता है, क्योंकि इसको ऊष्मा का कुचालक बनाया जाना चाहिए। इसमें कौनसा प्लास्टिक प्रयुक्त होता है, जो कि प्रथम मानव-निर्मित प्लास्टिक है ?

(a) पॉलिथीन

(b) टैरीलीन

(d) बेकेलाइट

प्रश्न 10. मेथिल आइसोसायनेट गैस, जिसके कारण दिसंबर 1984 में भोपाल में आपदा हुई थी, यूनियन कार्बाइड फैक्टरी में किसके उत्पादन के लिए प्रयुक्त होती थी ?

(a) रंजक (डाई)

(b) अपमार्जक (डिटर्जेंट)

(d) पीड़कनाशी

प्रश्न 11. पादपों और प्राणियों में प्रवर्धन के लिए जननद्रव्य (जर्मप्लाज्म) की आवश्यकता होती है। जननद्रव्य क्या होता है ?

1. आनुवंशिक संसाधन

2. प्रजनन के लिए बीज या तंतु

3. अंड और शुक्राणु आधान

4. किसी जनन कोशिका का निर्धारण जोन

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1

(b) 1, 2 और 3

(d) 2 और 4

प्रश्न 12. डेंगू विषाणु किसके द्वारा रोगी के रक्त में पाट्टकाणु गणना को कम करने के लिए जाना जाता है ?

1. अस्थि मज्जा में पट्टिकाणुओं के उत्पादन की प्रक्रिया में व्यतिकरण कर

2. एन्डोथीलियल कोशिकाओं में संक्रमण कर

3. पट्टिकाणुओं के साथ बंधकर

4. आंत्र में पट्टिकाणुओं का संचय कर नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1 और 2

(b) केवल 1 और 3

(d) 1, 2 और 3

प्रश्न 13. यांत्रिक ऊर्जा की SI इकाई क्या है ?

(a) जूल

(b) वाट

(d) जूल-सेकण्ड

प्रश्न 14. दो निकाय तापीय साम्य में कहे जाते हैं, यदि और केवल यदि :

(a) उनके विभिन्न तापमानों पर होने पर भी उनके बीच ऊष्मा प्रवाह हो सकता हो ।

(b) उनके विभिन्न तापमानों पर होने पर भी उनके बीच ऊष्मा प्रवाह नहीं हो सकता हो

(d) उनके तापमान थोड़े भिन्न हों

प्रश्न 15. ‘जर्मन सिल्वर’ का उपयोग सजावटी वस्तुओं, मुद्रा धातु, आभूषणों आदि के बनाने में होता है। इसको यह नाम देने का कारण क्या है ? .

(a) यह ताम्र की मिश्र धातु है और इसमें चाँदी एक घटक के रूप में होती है

(b) चाँदी का उपयोग सर्वप्रथम जर्मनों ने किया

(d) यह चाँदी की मिश्रधातु है

प्रश्न 16. पादपों में स्टिगमैस्टेरॉल, अर्गोस्टेरॉल, साइटोस्टेरॉल आदि जैसे विभिन्न स्टेरॉल होते हैं, जो कॉलेस्टेरॉल से अति निकट सादृश्य रखते हैं। ये पादप स्टेरॉल क्या कहलाते हैं ?

(a) फाइटोस्टेरॉल

(b) कैल्सिफेरॉल

(d) ल्यूमिस्टेरॉल

प्रश्न 17. ब्रह्मपुत्र और सतलुज नदियों पर अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सहयोग के अंतर्गत निम्नलिखित में से किस एक देश के साथ भारत ने समझौता-ज्ञापन पर हस्ताक्षर किये हैं ?

(a) पाकिस्तान

(b) चीन

(d) नेपाल

प्रश्न 18. भारत में निम्नलिखित रेलवे क्षेत्रों (जोन) में से किस एक का मुख्यालय, माध्य समुद्र तल से अधिकतम । ऊँचाई पर स्थित है ?

(a) पूर्व-मध्य रेलवे

(b) दक्षिण-पूर्व रेलवे

(d) पश्चिम-मध्य रेलवे

प्रश्न 19. स्टैलैक्टाइट और स्टैलैग्माइट किसके अभिलक्षण हैं ? ।

(a) हिमनदीय स्थलाकृति

(b) ज्वालामुखीय स्थलाकृति

(d) नदीय स्थलाकृति

प्रश्न 20. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक, दिए गए ग्रहों को, उनके आमाप (व्यास) के बढ़ते हुए क्रम में, सही अनुक्रम है ? ”

(a) मंगल – शुक्र – पृथ्वी – बुध — यूरेनस

(b) बुध – मंगल – शुक्र – पृथ्वी — यूरेनस

(d) शुक्र – बुध – मंगल – पृथ्वी — यूरेनस

प्रश्न 21. कृत्रिम वीर्यसेचन (AI) प्रक्रिया में, निम्नलिखित में से किसको/किसको, स्त्री के गर्भाशय में प्रविष्ट कराया जाता है ?

(a) केवल अंड

(b) निषेचित अंड

(d) अंड और शुक्राणु

प्रश्न 22. आनुवंशिकत: रूपांतरित (GM) फसलों में रूपांतरित आनुवंशिक पदार्थ किसके कारण होते हैं ?

1. नये DNA का आगमन

2. विद्यमान DNA का निष्कासन

3. RNA का आगमन

4. नए विशेषकों का आगमन

नीचे दिये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1 और 2

(b) 1, 2 और 3

(d) 1, 2 और 4

प्रश्न 23. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसा एक सही है ? ध्वनि का वेग :

(a) माध्यम की प्रकृति पर निर्भर नहीं करता

(b) गैसों में अधिकतम और द्रवों में न्यूनतम होता है

(d) ठोसों में अधिकतम और गैसों में न्यूनतम होता है

प्रश्न 24. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसा एक सही नहीं है ?

(a) गैसों में ध्वनि तरंगों की प्रकृति अनुदैर्घ्य होती है।

(b) 20 Hz से कम आवृत्ति की ध्वनि तरंगें पराश्रव्य तरंगें कहलाती हैं।

(d) उच्च श्रव्य आवृत्तियों वाली ध्वनि तरंगें तीक्ष्ण होती हैं।

प्रश्न 25. निम्नलिखित विटामिनों में से कौनसा एक, रक्त के स्कंदन में कार्य करता है ?

(a) विटामिन A

(b) विटामिन B

(d) विटामिन K

प्रश्न 26. विटामिन B₁₂, की कमी प्रणाशी अरक्तता का कारक है। जंतु विटामिन B₁₂ का संश्लेषण नहीं कर सकते। मानवों को अपना सारा विटामिन B₁₂, अपने आहार से ही प्राप्त करना होता है। विटामिन B₁₂ में कौन सा संकलन धातु आयन होता है ?

(a) Mg²⁺ (मैग्नीशियम आयन)

(b) Fe²⁺ (लोह आयन)

(d) Zn²⁺ (जिंक आयन)

प्रश्न 27. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : .

1. भारत में अधिकांश कोयला और फेरस खनिज समूह विंध्य के दक्षिण में प्रायद्वीपीय में मिलते हैं

2. प्रायद्वीपीय भारत कभी उस अधि-महाद्वीप का अंश था, जिसमें ऑस्ट्रेलिया, अंटार्कटिका, अफ्रीका और दक्षिण अमरीका सम्मिलित थे ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में कौन सा/से सही है/हैं ?

(a) केवल 1

(b) केवल 2

(d) न तो 1, न ही 2

प्रश्न 28. ‘महात्मा गाँधी राष्ट्रीय समुद्री उद्यान’ कहाँ अवस्थित है ?

(a) पिरोट न द्वीप

(b) रामेश्वरम

(d) पोर्ट ब्लेयर

प्रश्न 29. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं ?

1. सामान्यतः 3 जनवरी को होने वाले रविनीच पर पृथ्वी सूर्य के निकटतम होती है

2. सामान्यतः 4 जुलाई को होने वाले रविनीच पर पृथ्वी सूर्य से सबसे अधिक दूर होती है

3. सामान्यतः 4 जुलाई को होने वाले सूर्योच्च पर पृथ्वी सूर्य से सबसे अधिक दूर होती है ।

4. सामान्यतः 3 जनवरी को होने वाले सूर्योच्च पर पृथ्वी सूर्य के निकटतम होती है

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1

(b) 2 और 4

(d) 1 और 2

प्रश्न 30. निम्नलिखित द्वीपों में से कौनसा एक, ज्वालामुखी मूल का है ?

(a) रीयूनियन द्वीप

(b) अंडमान और निकोबार द्वीपसमूह

(d) मालदीव

प्रश्न 31. ग्लूकोस ऊर्जा का एक स्रोत है। ग्लूकोस निम्नलिखित में से किस प्रकार का अणु है ?

(a) कार्बोहाइड्रेट

(b) प्रोटीन

(d) न्यूक्लीक अम्ल

प्रश्न 32. कोशिका का जीवित अंश जीवद्रव्य (प्रोटोप्लाज्म) कहलाता है। यह किससे बना होता है ?

(a) केवल कोशिकाद्रव्य (साइटोप्लाज्म)

(b) कोशिकाद्रव्य और केंद्रकद्रव्य

(d) कोशिकाद्रव्य, केंद्रकद्रव्य और अन्य कोशिकांग

प्रश्न 33. अपने किस योगदान के लिए नॉर्मन बोरलॉग ने नोबेल पुरस्कार जीता ?

1. अत्यधिक उपज वाली फसलों का विकास ।

2. सिंचाई की आधारिक संरचनाओं का आधुनिकीकरण।

3. संश्लेषित उर्वरकों और पीड़क नाशियों का आरंभ।

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1

(b) केवल 2

(d) 1, 2 और 3

प्रश्न 34. किसी निकटदृष्टिता (मायोपिया) से ग्रस्त व्यक्ति को -1.25 डाइऑप्टर पॉवर है। उसके लेंस की फोकस दूरी और स्वरूप क्या है ?

(a) 50 cm और उत्तल लेंस

(b) 80 cm और उत्तल लेंस

(d) 80 cm और अवतल लेंस

प्रश्न 35. 100g द्रव्यमान का कोई बर्फ का टुकड़ा 0 °C पर रखा गया है। 0 °C पर पिघलने के लिए इसे कितनी ऊष्मा मात्रा आवश्यक होगी ? (बर्फ के पिघलने की गुप्त ऊष्मा का मान 333.6 J/g लीजिए):

(a) 750.6J

(b) 83.4 J

(d) 3.336J

प्रश्न 36. निम्नलिखित हॉर्मोनों में किस एक में पैप्टाइड शृंखला होती है ?

(a) ऑक्सीटॉसिन

(b) कॉर्टिकोट्रॉपिन

(d) कॉर्टिसोन

प्रश्न 37. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक, रासायनिक परिवर्तन का उदाहरण है ?

(a) कागज का जलना

(b) नर्म लोहे का चुंबकित होना

(d) जल से बर्फ के घनों का बनना

प्रश्न 38. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक, दीर्घकालीन समुद्र तल परिवर्तन का कारण है ?

(a) वायुमंडलीय विक्षोभ

(b) समुद्री जल घनत्व में परिवर्तन

(d) बर्फ-चादरों का पिघलना

प्रश्न 39. ब्रह्मपुत्र नदी की निम्नलिखित सहायक नदियों पर विचार कीजिए :

1. लोहित

2. तीस्ता

3. सुबंसिरी

4. संकोष

उपर्युक्त नदियों को पश्चिम से पूर्व की ओर क्रमबद्ध

(a) 2-4-3-1

(b) 2-3-4-1

(d) 3-1-2-4

प्रश्न 40. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक, दक्षिणी गोलार्ध में पवन का अपनी बाई ओर विक्षेपित होने का कारण है ?

(a) उत्तरी और दक्षिणी गोलार्द्ध की जल मात्राओं में भिन्नता

(b) ताप और दाब विभिन्नताएं

(d) पृथ्वी का घूर्णन

प्रश्न 41. किसी चक्रवात-अक्षि पर क्या होता है ?

(a) अप्रसामान्य उच्च ताप और निम्नतम दाब

(b) अप्रसामान्य निम्न ताप और दाब

(d) घना मेघ-आच्छादन और निम्न दाब

प्रश्न 42. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं ?

1. अम्लीय वर्षा चूना-पत्थर से बनी इमारतों से अभिक्रिया करती है।

2. सल्फर युक्त कोयले का दहन अम्लीय वर्षा में भागी हो सकता है

3. प्रदूषण के नियंत्रण के लिए सुपोषण एक प्रभावी युक्ति है

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1 और 2

(b) केवल 2 और 3

(d) 1, 2 और 3

प्रश्न 43. दंड चुंबक के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसा एक सही है ?

(a) किसी दंड चुंबक के उत्तरी ध्रुव का ध्रुव-प्राबल्य उसके दक्षिणी ध्रुव के ध्रुव-प्राबल्य की अपेक्षा अधिक होता है

(b) जब किसी दंड चुंबक को उसके अक्ष के अनुलंब काटा जाता है, तो उसके उत्तरी और दक्षिणी ध्रुव पृथक हो जाते हैं

(d) किसी दंड चुंबक के ध्रुव परिमाण में असमान और प्रकृति में विपरीत होते हैं

प्रश्न 44. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसा एक सही नहीं है ?

(a) हाइड्रोजन एक तत्व है

(b) हाइड्रोजन सबसे हल्का तत्व है

(d) हाइड्रोजन और ऑक्सीजन एक विस्फोटक मिश्रण बनाते हैं

प्रश्न 45. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसा एक सही नहीं है ?

(a) विभिन्न तत्वों के परमाणुओं की द्रव्यमान संख्या समान हो सकती हैं

(b) किसी तत्व के परमाणुओं की द्रव्यमान संख्या भिन्न-भिन्न हो सकती हैं

(d) किसी तत्व के सभी परमाणुओं में न्यूट्रॉनों की संख्या सदैव समान होगी

(a) 2-4-3-1

(b) 2-3-4-1

(d) 3-1-2-4

प्रश्न 46. भारत में रासायनिक उद्योग के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित ___ कथनों में से कौनसा/से सही है/हैं ? –

1. रासायनिक उद्योग भारत में प्राचीनतम उद्योगों में से एक है

2. रंजक (द्रव्य) सेक्टर रासायनिक उद्योग का एक महत्वपूर्ण खंड है

3. वस्त्र उद्योग में रंजक (द्रव्य) की सर्वाधिक खपत होती है नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1

(b) केवल 2 और 3

(d) 1, 2 और 3

प्रश्न 47. अंटार्कटिका में भारत के वैज्ञानिक और अनुसंधान मिशन के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं ?

1. अंटार्कटिका में पहला वैज्ञानिक बेस स्टेशन दक्षिण गंगोत्री था

2. दक्षिण गंगोत्री का अब पूर्ति बेस और संक्रमण शिविर के रूप में उपयोग होता है

3. मैत्री स्टेशन, वैज्ञानिक गतिविधियों के लिए पूरे – वर्ष मानव-संचालित रहता है।

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1

(b) केवल 2 और 3

(d) 1,2 और 3

प्रश्न 48. घरेलू और औद्योगिक प्रयोजनों के लिए संश्लिष्ट रबर ने प्राकृतिक रबर का स्थान ले लिया है। इसके पीछे निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक मुख्य कारण है ?

(a) प्राकृतिक रबर विभिन्न उद्योगों की बढ़ती हुई — माँग की पूर्ति करने में अक्षम है।

(b) प्राकृतिक रबर केवल उष्णकटिबंधीय देशों में ही उगाया जाता है

(d) प्राकृतिक रबर टिकाऊ नहीं होता

प्रश्न 49. कोई व्यक्ति कंक्रीट की किसी मजबूत दीवार के पास धातु की घंटी बजाता है। वह 0.38 के पश्चात् उसकी प्रतिध्वनि सुनता है। यदि ध्वनि 340 m/s की चाल से गमन करती हो, तो उस व्यक्ति से दीवार की दूरी क्या है ?

(a) 102 m

(b) 11 m

(d) 30 m

प्रश्न 50. भारत के निम्नलिखित लोकप्रिय पर्वतीय स्थानों को माध्य समुद्र तल से इसकी ऊंचाई (उच्चतम से निम्नतम) के आधार पर क्रमबद्ध कीजिये :

1. मसूरी

2. शिमला

3. ऊटी

4. दार्जिलिंग

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) 3-2-4-1

(b) 3-1-4-2

(d) 2-4-1-3

प्रश्न 51. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

1. ‘हिन्द स्वराज’ में, महात्मा गाँधी ने व्यक्ति और साथ ही समाज के लिए उत्तम जीवन की संकल्पना का निरूपण किया है

2. ‘हिन्द स्वराज’, भारत में औपनिवेशिक राज के विरुद्ध गाँधी जी के लंबे संघर्ष से प्राप्त अनभव का परिणाम था

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौनसा/से सही है/हैं ?

(a) केवल 1

(b) केवल 2

(d) न तो 1, न ही 2

प्रश्न 52. निम्नलिखित में से कौन/से संवैधानिक निकाय

1. राष्ट्रीय अनुसूचित जनजाति आयोग

2. राष्ट्रीय महिला आयोग

3. राष्ट्रीय अल्पसंख्यक आयोग

4. राष्ट्रीय मानव अधिकार आयोग

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1

(b) केवल 1, 3 और 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 और 4

प्रश्न 53. अफ्रीकी-एशियाई पुनरुत्थान विषय पर बांदुंग सम्मेलन (1955) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा कथन सही है ?

1. बांदुंग सम्मेलन इंडोनेशिया, म्यांमार (बर्मा), सीलोन (श्रीलंका), भारत और पाकिस्तान द्वारा आयोजित किया गया था, जिसमें विश्व की आधी से ज्यादा आबादी का प्रतिनिधित्व करने वाले 29 देशों ने प्रतिनिधि भेजे

2. इस सम्मेलन ने पाँचों प्रायोजकों के इस असंतोष को प्रतिबिंबित किया कि एशिया को प्रभावित करने वाले निर्णयों के विषय में उनसे परामर्श करने में पश्चिमी शक्तियों की अनिच्छा है।

3. यह सम्मेलन चीनी जनवादी गणराज्य और संयुक्त राज्य अमरीका के बीच तनाव से चिंतित था नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1 और 2

(b) केवल 2 और 3

(d) 1, 2 और 3

प्रश्न 54. निम्नलिखित में से किस पुरातत्त्वज्ञ ने पूर्व-हड़प्पा संस्कृति और परिपक्व हड़प्पा संस्कृति के बीच समानताओं को सर्वप्रथम अभिज्ञात किया ?

(a) अमलानंद घोष ।

(b) राखालदास बनर्जी

(d) सर जॉन मार्शल

प्रश्न 55. एलोरा स्थित कैलाश नाथ मंदिर और मामल्लपुरम स्थित शोर मंदिर के बीच निम्नलिखित में से कौनसी एक समानता है ?

(a) दोनों ही नागर वास्तुकला के उदाहरण हैं

(b) दोनों ही ठोस चट्टानों में से उत्कीर्ण किए गए हैं

(d) दोनों ही पल्लव राजाओं के संरक्षण में निर्मित किए गए थे

प्रश्न 56. निम्नलिखित में से किसका/किंनका राजपूत चित्रकला में चित्रण नहीं किया गया है ?

1. कृष्ण की कथाएँ

2. राग और रागिनियाँ

3. हम्जा के कार्य

4. बाबर के कार्य

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) 1, 2 और 3

(b) 2, 3 और 4

(d) केवल 4

प्रश्न 57. किस एक पंचवर्षीय योजना की उच्च प्राथमिकता, मुद्रा स्फीति को नियंत्रित करने और आर्थिक स्थिति में स्थिरता लाने की थी ?

(a) चौथी योजना (1969-74)

(b) पाँचवीं योजना (1974-79)

(d) सातवीं योजना (1985-90)

प्रश्न 58. फिलिप्स वक्र के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से कथन सत्य है/हैं ?

1. यह बेरोजगारी और मुद्रास्फीति के बीच परस्पर प्रतिलोम संबंध (ट्रेड-ऑफ) दर्शाता है

2. फिलिप्स वक्र का अधोमुखी ढलवाँ वक्र सामान्य: केवल अल्पकाल के लिए ही प्रमाणिक माना जाता है

3. दीर्घकाल में फिलिप्स वक्र को सामान्य: बेरोजगारी की त्वरण हीन मुद्रास्फीति दर (NAIRU) पर क्षैतिज समझा जाता है

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1

(b) केवल 2 और 3

(d) 1,2 और 3

प्रश्न 59. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक देश, यूरेशियाई आर्थिक संघ का सदस्य नहीं है ?

(a) बेलारूस

(b) रूस

(d) उज्बेकिस्तान

प्रश्न 60. BRICS नेताओं ने कहाँ पर हुए शिखर सम्मेलन में एक नए विकास बैंक को स्थापित करने के लिए करार पर हस्ताक्षर किए ? .

(a) नई दिल्ली, भारत (2012).

(b) डर्बन, दक्षिण अफ्रीका (2013)

(d) ऊफा, रूस (2015)

प्रश्न 61. ‘शिशु’, ‘किशोर’ और ‘तरूण’ किसकी योजनाएं हैं ?

(a) क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंकों की।

(b) माइक्रो यूनिट्स डेवलपमेंट एण्ड रीफाइनेंस एजेंसी लि. (MUDRA) की।

(d) भारतीय औद्योगिक विकास बैंक की।

प्रश्न 62. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

1. भारत के राष्ट्रपति को, लोकसभा के अध्यक्ष को नियुक्त करने और हटाने की शक्ति होगी।

2. अध्यक्ष को अपने कार्यालय के कृत्यों का निर्वहन अपने पूरे कार्यकाल के दौरान स्वयं करना होता है और वह स्टेशन से अपनी अनुपस्थिति या अपनी बीमारी के दौरान अपने कृत्यों को उपाध्यक्ष को प्रत्यायोजित नहीं कर सकता

उपर्युक्त में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं ?

(a) केवल 1

(b) केवल 2

(d) न तो 1, न ही 2

प्रश्न 63. द्वितीय प्रशासनिक सुधार आयोग (2005) किससे संबंधित था ?

(a) उत्तम शासन के लिए सांस्थानिक व्यवस्था में सुधार

(b) भारतीय दंड संहिता और आपराधिक न्याय प्रणाली में सुधार

(d) शहरी शासन और प्रबंधन के नए उपाय निकालना

प्रश्न 64. भारत के संविधान के अनुसार, प्रतिषेध रिट किस आदेश से संबंधित है ?

1. न्यायिक और न्यायिककल्प प्राधिकारी के खिलाफ दिया गया आदेश

2. अवर न्यायालय को, किसी विशिष्ट मामले में, जहाँ उसे विचार करने की अधिकारिता नहीं है. कार्यवाही करने से रोकना

3. किसी व्यक्ति को किसी सार्वजनिक पद को, जिसके लिए वह हकदार नहीं है, धारण करने से रोकना

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1 और 2

(b) केवल 2 और 3

(d) 1, 2 और 3

प्रश्न 65. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक, ‘प्रयाग प्रशस्ति’ में वर्णित समुद्रगुप्त का गुण नहीं था ? (a) तीक्ष्ण और परिष्कृत बुद्धि

(b) निपुण मूर्तिकार

(d) प्रतिभाशाली काव्य-निपुणता

प्रश्न 66. कामंदक के ‘नीतिसार’ का योगदान किस विषय में है ?

(a) तर्कशास्त्र और दर्शन

(b) गणित

(d) व्याकरण

प्रश्न 67. भास्कर का ‘लीलावती’ किस विषय का मानक मूल ग्रंथ है ?

(a) गणित

(b) शल्यविज्ञान

(d) भाषाविज्ञान

प्रश्न 68. मुख्यधारा अर्थशास्त्र में प्रयुक्त होने वाली ‘दक्षता’ की संकल्पना के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौनसे कथन सत्य हैं ?

1. दक्षता तब पाई जाती है जब उत्पादन के किसी भी संभव पुनर्गठन से किसी अन्य की स्थिति बदतर किए बिना किसी की स्थिति बेहतर न की जा सके

2. कोई अर्थव्यवस्था स्पष्ट रूप से अदक्ष है यदि यह उत्पादन संभावना फ्रंटियर (PPF) के अन्दर है

3. न्यूनतम रूप से, दक्ष अर्थव्यवस्था इसके उत्पादन संभावना फ्रंटियर (PPF) पर होती है

4. ‘परेटो दक्षता’, ‘परेटो इष्टतमता’ और ‘विनियोजी दक्षता’ सभी अनिवार्य रूप से एक ही चीज है जो ‘संसाधन विनिधान में दक्षता’ द्योतित करती है

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1 और 4

(b) केवल 1 और 3 .

(d) 1, 2, 3 और 4

प्रश्न 69. भारत-प्रशांत द्वीप सहयोग मंच (FIPIC) का प्रथम शिखर-सम्मेलन कहाँ हुआ था ?

(a) जयपुर

(b) सूवा

(d) पोर्ट मोरस्बी

प्रश्न 70. अगस्त 2015 के मास में निम्नलिखित में से किस एक द्वीप राष्ट्र में संसदीय निर्वाचन हुए ? ।

(a) मालदीव

(b) फिजी

(d) सिंगापुर

प्रश्न 71. वर्ष 2015 में निम्नलिखित में से किस एक राष्ट्र ने । कठोर आर्थिक संकट का सामना किया जिसके फलस्वरूप उसके IMF के कर्ज के भुगतान में चूक हुई ?

(a) चीन

(b) ग्रीस

(d) बेल्जियम

प्रश्न 72. निम्नलिखित में से भारत के कौन से प्रधानमंत्री अविश्वास मत से पराजित हुए ?

1. मोरारजी देसाई

2. विश्वनाथ प्रताप सिंह

3. एच.डी. देवगौड़ा

4. अटल बिहारी वाजपेयी

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) 1, 2, 3 और 4

(b) केवल 1,2 और 3

(d) केवल 1 और 4

प्रश्न 73. राज्यसभा के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं ?

1. राज्यसभा की अधिकतम अनुज्ञेय संख्या 250 है

2. राज्यसभा में, 238 सदस्य राज्यों और संघ राज्य क्षेत्रों से अप्रत्यक्ष रूप से निर्वाचित होते हैं ।

3. अखिल भारतीय सेवाओं के सर्जन जैसे मामलों में इसकी लोकसभा के साथ समान रूप से विधायी शक्तियां हैं

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1 और 2

(b) 1, 2 और 3

(d) केवल 1

प्रश्न 74. भारत के राष्ट्रपति के पद से संबंधित निम्नलिखित में से कौनसे कथन सही हैं ?

1. राष्ट्रपति को विशेष मामलों में किसी अपराधी को क्षमादान की शक्ति है ।

2. राष्ट्रपति अध्यादेश प्रख्यापित तब भी कर सकता है जब संसद सत्र में हो .

3. आपातकाल के दौरान राष्ट्रपति राज्यसभा को भंग कर सकता है

4. राष्ट्रपति को आंग्ल-भारतीय समुदाय से दो सदस्य लोकसभा में नामनिर्देशित करने की शक्ति है

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) 1 और 2

(b) केवल 1 और 4

(d) 1, 3 और 4

प्रश्न 75. गोरखनाथ के अनुयायियों को क्या कहा जाता था ?

(a) जोगी

(b) नाथ-पंथी ।

(d) सन्यासी

प्रश्न 76. सिख संघ के 12 राज्यों को क्या कहा जाता था ?

(a) मिस्ल

(b) गुरमत

(d) राखी

प्रश्न 77. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं ? –

1. समान (कॉमन) सिविल संहिता का आदर्श भारत के संविधान के अनुच्छेद 44 में उपवर्णित किया गया है

2. कुछ विषयों में, भारत में उच्च न्यायालयों को उच्चतम न्यायालय से अधिक विस्तृत शक्तियां दी गई है

3. भारत का उच्चतम न्यायालय, देश के लिए – प्रथम पूर्ण रूप से स्वतंत्र न्यायालय, भारत के संविधान के अधीन 1950 में स्थापित किया गया

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) 1, 2 और 3

(b) केवल 2 और 3

(d) केवल 3

प्रश्न 78. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा/से अंतरण भुगतान के उदाहरण हैं ?

1. बेरोजगारी भत्ता

2. वेतन का भुगतान

3. सामाजिक सुरक्षा भुगतान

4. वृद्धावस्था पेन्शन

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1 और 3

(b) केवल 1, 2 और 3

(d) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं

प्रश्न 79. एरावन देव मंदिर, जहां अगस्त 2015 में एक बड़ा बम विस्फोट हुआ था, कहाँ पर स्थित है ?

(a) सिंगापुर

(b) बैंकॉक

(d) काबुल

प्रश्न 80. निम्नलिखित में से कौन, वह प्रथम भारतीय खिलाड़ी है, जो 2015 की विश्व बैडमिंटन चैम्पियनशिप (महिला) में फाइनल में पहुँची ?

(a) ज्वाला गुट्टा

(b) साइना नेहवाल

(d) मधुमिता बिष्ट

प्रश्न 81. निम्नलिखित में से भारत के संविधान के किस एक अनुच्छेद/अनुसूची का संबंध स्वशासी जिला परिषदों से हैं-

(a) आठवीं अनुसूची

(b) अनुच्छेद 370

(d) अनुच्छेद 250

प्रश्न 82. UID / आधार कार्ड के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन से कथन सही हैं ?

1. यह भारत के सभी निवासियों के लिए पहचान का 12 अंकों का एक अनन्य रूप है

2. यह व्यक्तियों की जैवमितीय सूचना के साथ एक पहचान संख्या है

3. यह एक राष्ट्रीय पहचान और नागरिकता कार्ड है

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 2 और 3

(b) केवल 1 और 2

(d) 1, 2 और 3

प्रश्न 83. भारत के नियंत्रक-महालेखापरीक्षक (CAG) के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौनसे कथन सही हैं ?

1. CAG पद ग्रहण करने की तिथि से 6 वर्ष तक पद धारण करेगा। वह 65 वर्ष की आयु पूरी कर लेने पर, यदि ऐसा 6 वर्ष की अवधि समाप्त होने से पहले हो, पद रिक्त कर देगा

2. CAG की शक्तियां भारत के संविधान से व्युत्पन्न होती हैं

3. CAG प्रधानमंत्री और मंत्रिपरिषद् की सलाह पर भारत के राष्ट्रपति द्वारा नियुक्त एक बहु-सदस्य निकाय है

4. CAG को, सिद्ध कदाचार या अक्षमता के आधार पर, संसद के दोनों सदनों द्वारा समावेदन किए जाने पर ही, राष्ट्रपति द्वारा हटाया जा सकता है

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) 1, 2 और 4

(b) 1, 2 और 3

(d) केवल 1 और 2

प्रश्न 84. विश्व स्तर पर प्रत्येक वर्ष की मानव विकास रिपोर्ट किसके द्वारा प्रकाशित की जाती है ?

(a) WTO

(b) विश्व बैंक

(d) IMF

प्रश्न 85. गुप्त शासकों के सिक्कों के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक कथन सही है ?

(a) मुखभाग और पृष्ठभाग दोनों पर केवल राजा का चित्र और तिथि होती थी

(b) मुखभाग और पृष्ठभाग दोनों पर केवल किसी देवता की प्रतिमा और तिथि होती थी

कथानक रूढ़ि होती थी

(d) मुखभाग पर सामान्यत: राजा का चित्र और पृष्ठभाग पर हमेशा तिथि होती थी

प्रश्न 86. प्रारम्भिक भारत में अग्रहार क्या था ?

(a) ब्राह्मणों को अनुदत्त गाँव या भूमि का नाम

(b) अगर के फूलों की माला

(d) वैश्य कृषकों द्वारा बसाया हुआ गाँव या भूमि

प्रश्न 87. अनुसूचित जनजाति और अन्य पारम्परिक वनवासी (वन अधिकारों की मान्यता) अधिनियम, 2006 के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौनसे कथन सही हैं ?

1. यह अधिनियम, वनवासी अनुसूचित जनजातियों के, जिनका 25 अक्टूबर, 1980 के पूर्व से वन भूमि पर दखल है, वन अधिकारों को मान्यता प्रदान करता है

2. इस अधिनियम को कार्यान्वित करने का भार राज्य/संघ राज्यक्षेत्र सरकारों के स्तर पर होता

3. यह अधिनियम वनवासी अनुसूचित जनजातियों और अन्य पारंपरिक वनवासियों को कुछ वन अधिकारों की मान्यता देता है और उनमें निहित करता है

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1 और 2

(b) केवल 2 और 3

(d) 1, 2 और 3

प्रश्न 88. लिएंडर पेस ने US ओपन मिक्स्ड डबल टेनिस टाइटल (2015) किसकी साझेदारी में जीता ?

(a) क्रिस्टीना म्लादेनोविच

(b) फ्लेविया पेन्नेटा

(d) सानिया मिर्जा

प्रश्न 89. निम्नलिखित में से कौन, विश्व खाद्य पुरस्कार (वर्ष 2015) का विजेता है ?

(a) संजय राजाराम

(b) बलदेव सिंह ढिल्लों

(d) राजेन्द्र सिंह परोडा

प्रश्न 90. भारत के उच्चतम न्यायालय की सांविधानिक न्यायपीठ के निम्नलिखित में से किस एक निर्णय में मृत्युदंड अधिनिर्णीत करने के लिए विरलों में विरलतम’ सिद्धांत को पहली बार अधिकथित किया गया ?

(a) बचन सिंह बनाम पंजाब राज्य (1980)

(b) गोपालनचारी बनाम केरल राज्य (1980)

(d) तुकाराम बनाम महाराष्ट्र राज्य (1979)

प्रश्न 91. भारत के राष्ट्रपति के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

1. राष्ट्रपति को विशिष्ट जानकारी पाने के लिए मंत्रिपरिषद को संबोधित करने का और संदेश भेजने का अधिकार है ।

2. राष्ट्रपति विधान विषयक प्रस्थापनाओं से संबंधित जानकारी मांग सकता है

3. संघ के प्रशासन संबंधी मंत्रिपरिषद के सभी _ विनिश्चय राष्ट्रपति को संसूचित किए जाने चाहिए उपर्युक्त में से कौनसे कथन सही हैं ?

(a) केवल 1 और 3

(b) केवल 2 और 3

(d) 1,2 और 3

प्रश्न 92. निम्नलिखित में से किस एक मामले में, भारत के उच्चतम न्यायालय द्वारा, मुस्लिम स्त्री (विवाह-विच्छेद पर अधिकार संरक्षण) अधिनियम 1986 की सांविधानिक वैधता को अनुमोदित किया गया ?

(a) मुहम्मद अहमद खान बनाम शाह बानो बेगम

(b) दानियाल लतीफी बनाम भारत संघ

(d) शंकरी प्रसाद बनाम भारत संघ

प्रश्न 93. विजयनगर साम्राज्य के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा/से कथन सत्य है/हैं ?

1. राजाओं ने भगवान विरूपाक्ष की ओर से शासन करने का दावा किया

2. शासकों ने देवताओं के साथ अपनी घनिष्ठ संलग्नता इंगित करने के लिए “हिंदू सुरत्राण” उपाधि का प्रयोग किया।

3. सभी राजसी आदेशों पर कन्नड़, संस्कृत और तमिल में हस्ताक्षर किए जाते थे

4. राजसी आकृति मूर्ति अब मंदिरों में प्रदर्शित की जाती थी नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 4

(b) केवल 1 और 2

(d) 1, 2 और 4

प्रश्न 94. मध्यकालीन भारत में ‘इक्ता’ का क्या अर्थ था ?

(a) आध्यात्मिक प्रयोजन के लिए धार्मिक कार्मिकों _को सौंपी गई भूमि

(b) सैन्य अधिकारियों को समनुदेशित विभिन्न प्रादेशिक इकाइयों से प्राप्त भू-राजस्व ।

(d) जमींदार के अधिकार

प्रश्न 95. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसी एक पुस्तक अकबर के दरबार के चित्रों से सज्जित नहीं थी ?

(a) हम्ज़ानामा

(b) रज्मनामा

(d) तारीख-ए-अल्फ़ी

प्रश्न 96. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसी सार्वजनिक वस्त’ नहीं है ?

(a) बिजली

(b) राष्ट्रीय रक्षा

(d) सार्वजनिक उद्यान

प्रश्न 97. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक, द्वितीय पंचवर्षीय योजना (1956-57 से 1960-61) के उद्देश्यों में से नहीं है ?

(a) बुनियादी और भारी उद्योगों के विकास पर _ विशेष बल के साथ तेजी से औद्योगीकरण

(b) रोजगार के अवसरों का व्यापक विस्तार

(c) खाद्यान्नों में आत्मनिर्भरता प्राप्त करना तथा उद्योग और निर्यात की जरूरतों को पूरा करने के लिए कृषि उत्पादन को बढ़ाना

(d) आय और संपत्ति में असमानताओं को घटाना और आर्थिक शक्ति का अपेक्षाकृत अधिक समरूप वितरण

प्रश्न 98. राष्टीय बाल नीति. 2013. कितनी आय से नीचे के प्रत्येक व्यक्ति को बालक मानती है ?

(a) 12 वर्ष

(b) 14 वर्ष

(d) 18 वर्ष

प्रश्न 99. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक, ‘बेटी बचाओ बेटी पढ़ाओ अभियान’ का मॉनीटर किया जाने वाला लक्ष्य नहीं है ?

(a) वर्ष 2017 तक 100 बाल लिंग अनुपात (CSR) वाले जिलों में प्रत्येक विद्यालय में बालिकाओं के लिए शौचालय उपलब्ध कराना

(b) वर्ष 2020 तक माध्यमिक शिक्षा में 100 प्रतिशत बालिकाओं का नामांकन ।

(d) निर्वाचित प्रतिनिधियों/आधारिक कार्यकर्ताओं को समुदाय के हितैषियों (कम्यूनिटी चैंपियन) के रूप में प्रशिक्षित करना ताकि वे समदायों को CSR बेहतर बनाने तथा बालिकाओं के शिक्षा के संवर्धन के लिए संघटित करें

प्रश्न 100. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक, ‘राष्ट्रीय उच्चतर शिक्षा अभियान (RUSA)’ का उद्देश्य नहीं है ?

(a) निजी शिक्षा संस्थानों की समग्र गुणवत्ता को बेहतर बनाना

(b) संबंधन, शैक्षिक और परीक्षा व्यवस्थाओं में सुधार सुनिश्चित करना

(d) शोध और नवप्रवर्तनों हेतु स्वयं को समर्पित करने के लिए उच्चतर शिक्षा संस्थानों में सामर्थ्यकारी माहौल निर्मित करना

प्रश्न 101. भारत में निवारक निरोध के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसा/से सही है/हैं ?

1. निरुद्ध व्यक्ति को, भारत के संविधान के अनुच्छेद 22 के खंड (4) और (5) में उल्लिखित अधिकारों के सिवाय कोई अधिकार नहीं है ।

2. निरुद्ध व्यक्ति को निरोधादेश को इस आधार पर चुनौती देने का अधिकार है कि जब निरोधादेश पारित किया गया था, वह उससे पहले से ही जेल में था

3. निरुद्ध व्यक्ति इस आधार पर जमानत का दावा कर सकता है कि वह मैजिस्ट्रेट के किसी आदेश के बिना ही चौबीस घंटों से अधिक कारागार में रह चुका है नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1 और 2

(b) केवल 2

(d) 1, 2 और 3

प्रश्न 102. लोकसभा का कोई सदस्य सदन का सदस्य बने रहने से निरहित नहीं हो जाता, यदि वह सदस्य :

(a) जिस राजनीतिक दल से निर्वाचित होकर आया था/आयी थी, उससे स्वैच्छिक रूप से अपनी सदस्यता छोड़ देता/देती है

(b) जिस राजनीतिक दल से सदन में निर्वाचित हुआ था/हुई थी, उससे निष्कासित कर दिया गया/दी गई हो

(d) अपने राजनीतिक दल द्वारा दिए गए निदेश के विपरीत मतदान से प्रविरत रहता हो

प्रश्न 103. निम्नलिखित भाषाओं में से किस एक को, भारत के संविधान की आठवीं अनुसूची में मान्यता नहीं दी गई

(a) अंग्रेजी

(b) संस्कृत

(d) नेपाली

प्रश्न 104. हज़ारा राम मंदिर किस राज्य में था ?

(a) अवध

(b) त्रावणकोर

(d) अहोम

प्रश्न 105. दूसरी शताब्दी BC में संकल्पित लेखों के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

1. इसमें धार्मिक संस्थाओं को दिए गए उपहारों का अभिलेख है

2. वे एक व्यक्ति के कार्य के सराहनीय परिणामों का अन्य व्यक्ति में अन्यारोपण होने के विचार के बारे में बताते हैं उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौनसा/से सही है/हैं ?

(a) केवल 1

(b) केवल 2

(d) न तो 1, न ही 2

प्रश्न 106. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

1. अभिनवगुप्त ने ‘तंत्रलोक’ नामक एक व्यापक प्रबंध लिखा जो ‘कुल’ और ‘त्रिक’ तंत्रों की शिक्षाओं को व्यवस्थित रूप से प्रस्तुत करता है

2. आठवीं शताब्दी के आसपास गुजरात में हरिभद्र सूरि द्वारा लिखित ‘समरैच्चकहा’ तकनीकी रूप से कोई तांत्रिक कृति नहीं है परन्तु तांत्रिक । विचारों और प्रथाओं से शराबोर है

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौनसा/से सही है/हैं ?

(a) केवल 1

(b) केवल 2

(d) न तो 1, न ही 2

प्रश्न 107. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा/से ‘द्रव्यवत् प्रपत्र’ का/के उदाहरण है/हैं ?

1. कोष पत्र

2. क्रेडिट कार्ड

3. बचत खाते तथा अल्पावधि जमाएँ

4. खुदरा मुद्रा बाजार के म्यूचुअल फंड

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1

(b) केवल 2

(d) 1,3 और 4

प्रश्न 108. निम्नलिखित शब्दों में से कौनसा एक, अर्थशास्त्र में प्रतिरोधी संव्यवहार द्वारा जोखिम के परिहार की तकनीक के लिए प्रयुक्त होता है ?

(a) बाजार पाटना

(b) हेजिंग करना

(d) अवस्फीति करना

प्रश्न 109. वृत्त रूपक की श्रेणी में 87वाँ अकादमी अवार्ड जीतनेवाला, ‘सिटिज़नफोर’ किसके जीवन पर आधारित है ?

(a) अब्राहम लिंकन

(b) अलबर्ट आइन्सटाइन

(d) लॉरा प्वात्रा

प्रश्न 110. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक क्षेत्र उनमें से नहीं है जिन पर 2015-16 के रेल बजट में अधिक बल दिया गया है ?

(a) डिस्पोजेबल बिस्तरों की ऑनलाइन बुकिंग

(b) अधिपत्रों के निरसन हेतु रक्षा यात्रा प्रणाली

(d) जैव-शौचालय

प्रश्न 111. इंडिया पोस्ट की निम्नलिखित सेवाओं में से किस एक को स्थायी रूप से बंद कर दिया गया है ?

(a) मनी-आर्डर

(b) तार

(d) अंतर्देशीय पत्र

प्रश्न 112. ‘भारत के प्रवासी नागरिक’ की श्रेणी भारत के नागरिकता अधिनियम में संशोधन द्वारा किस वर्ष में प्रविष्ट की गई ?

(a) 1986

(b) 1992

(d) 2003

प्रश्न 113. शिक्षा का अधिकार, भारत के संविधान में मूल अधिकारों में किस संशोधन द्वारा जोड़ा गया ?

(a) संविधान (86वाँ संशोधन) अधिनियम, 2002

(b) संविधान (93वाँ संशोधन) अधिनियम, 2005

(d) संविधान (97वाँ संशोधन) अधिनियम, 2011

प्रश्न 114. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

1. रुम्मिनदेई के स्तंभ पर उत्कीर्ण लेख अशोक के _ ‘धम्म’ का सुस्पष्ट विवरण देते हैं।

2. निगलिसागर शिलालेख अशोक द्वारा कोणगमन स्तूप की यात्रा किए जाने के तथ्य का अभिलेख करता है

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौनसा/से सही है/हैं ?

(a) केवल 1

(b) केवल 2

(d) न तो 1, न ही 2

प्रश्न 115. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

1. असम प्रांत वर्ष 1911 में सृजित किया गया था

2. वर्ष 1874 में, असम के अंतर्गत के 11 जिले बंगाल की लेफ्टिनेंट गवर्नरी में से पृथक कर दिए गए और एक चीफ कमिश्नर के अधीन स्वतंत्र प्रशासन के रूप में स्थापित किए गए उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौनसा/से सही है/हैं ?

(a) केवल 1

(b) केवल 2

(d) न तो 1, न ही 2 .

प्रश्न 116. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसा/से सत्य है/हैं ?

1. फाहियान का ‘गाओसेंग फाहियान झुआन’ भारत में बौद्ध स्थलों और प्रथाओं का आद्यतम आँखों देखा चीनी विवरण था

2. यह ग्रंथ लिखते समय फाहियान सिर्फ 25 वर्ष का था

3. फाहियान के भारत आने का प्रमुख उद्देश्य उन . ग्रंथों को प्राप्त करना और वापस ले जाना था जिनमें मठ के नियम अंतर्विष्ट थे

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) 1, 2 और 3.

(b) केवल 2

(d) केवल 3

प्रश्न 117. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसे सही हैं ?

1. कराधान का भुगतान के सामर्थ्य का सिद्धांत यह मानता है कि लोग करों की जिस राशि का भुगतान करते हैं, वह उनके आय या संपत्ति के सापेक्ष होनी चाहिए

2. कराधान का हित-लाभ सिद्धांत यह बताता है कि व्यक्तियों पर कर, सरकारी कार्यक्रमों से उन्हें मिलने वाले हित-लाभ के अनुपात में लगाया जाना चाहिए

3. वर्धमान कर धनी परिवारों से कर का जितना भाग लेता है, निर्धन परिवारों से उसकी अपेक्षा अधिक भाग प्राप्त करता है

4. अप्रत्यक्ष करों का लाभ यह है कि वे अपेक्षाकृत सस्ते होते हैं और आसानी से उगाहे जाते हैं नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1 और 3

(b) केवल 2 और 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 और 4

प्रश्न 118. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसा/से असत्य है/हैं ?

1. मजदूरी बोर्ड त्रिपक्षीय स्वरूप के होते हैं, जिनमें कामगारों, नियोक्ताओं और स्वतंत्र सदस्यों में से प्रतिनिधि होते हैं। पत्रकारों और गैर-पत्रकारों के मजदूरी बोर्डों के सिवाय अन्य सभी मजदूरी बोर्ड सांविधिक स्वरूप के होते हैं

3. द्वितीय राष्ट्रीय श्रम आयोग ने मजदूरी बोर्डो की उपयोगिता के विरुद्ध अनुशंसा दी है

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1

(b) केवल 2

(d) 1, 2 और 3

प्रश्न 119. भारतीय सेना में मेजर जनरल का रैक किसके समतुल्य है ?

(a) भारतीय वायु सेना में एयर मार्शल

(b) भारतीय नौसेना में रियर एडमिरल

(d) भारतीय नौसेना में कमोडोर

प्रश्न 120. वर्तमान में प्रचलित भारतीय उपग्रहों में कोई भी :

(a) संचार उपग्रह नहीं है

(b) संचालन उपग्रह नहीं है

(d) बृहस्पति कक्षीय उपग्रह नहीं है

CDS(I) Exam 2016 General Knowledge Previous Year Paper

CDS(I) Exam 2016

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Q 1. Which one of the following is considered as ‘good cholesterol’ with reference to individuals facing the risk of cardio-vascular diseases and hypertension ?

(a) High Density Lipoprotein (HDL)

(b) Low Density Lipoprotein (LDL)

(d) Fatty acids

Q 2. Which of the following pairs of vitamin and disease is / are correctly matched ?

1. Vitamin A : Rickets

2. Vitamin B, : Beriberi

3. Vitamin C : Scurvy

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 3. The rate of change of momentum of a body is equal to the resultant :

(a) energy

(b) power

(d) impulse

Q 4. After a hot sunny day, people sprinkle water on the roof-top because :

(a) water helps air around the roof-top to absorb the heat instantly

(b) water has lower specific heat capacity

(d) water has large latent heat of vaporisation

Q 5. Consider the following map of India

The areas marked in the map given above account for the production of which one of the following cash crops ?

(a) Cotton

(b) Groundnut

(d) Tobacco

Q 6. Pir Panjal Range in the Himalayas is a part of :

(a) Shiwalik

(b) Trans Himalaya

(d) Lesser Himalaya

Q 7. Consider the following statements regarding laterite soils of India :

1. Laterite soils are generally red in colour

2. Laterite soils are rich in nitrogen and potash

3. Laterite soils are well developed in Rajasthan and UP

4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well in this soil

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Q 8. Which of the following statements regarding Mediterranean and Monsoon climate is / are correct ?

1. Precipitation in Mediterranean climate is in winter while in Monsoon climate it is mostly in summer

2. The annual range of temperature in Mediterranean climate is higher than the Monsoon climate

3. Rainy and dry seasons are found in both the climates

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 9. The handle of pressure cookers is made of plastic because it should be made non conductor of heat. The plastic used there is the first man-made plastic, which is :

(a) Polythene

(b) Terylene

(d) Bakelite

Q 10. Methyl Isocyanate gas, which was involved in the disaster in Bhopal in December 1984, was used in the Union Carbide factory for production of:

(a) Dyes

(b) Detergents

(d) Pesticides

Q 11. The Germplasm is required for the propagation of plants and animals. Germplasm is the :

1. genetic resources

2. seeds or tissues for breeding

3. egg and sperm repository

4. a germ cell’s determining zone

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

Q 12. Dengue virus is known to cause low platelet count in blood of patient by :

1. interfering in the process of platelet production in bone marrow

2. infecting endothelial cells

3. binding with platelets

4. accumulating platelets in intestine

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 13. The SI unit of mechanical power is :

(a) Joule

(b) Watt

(d) Joule-second

Q 14. Two systems are said to be in thermal equilibrium if and only if :

(a) there can be a heat flow between them even if they are at different temperatures

(b) there cannot be a heat flow between them even if they are at different temperatures (c) there is no heat flow between them

(d) their temperatures are slightly different

Q 15. ‘German silver’ is used to make decorative articles, coinage metal, ornaments etc. The name is given because :

(a) it is an alloy of copper and contains silver as one of its components

(b) Germans were the first to use silver

(d) it is an alloy of silver

Q 16. Plants contain a variety of sterols like stigmasterol, ergosterol, sitosterol etc., which very closely resemble cholesterol.

These plant sterols are referred as :

(a) Phytosterols

(b) Calciferols

(d) Lumisterols

Q 17. With which one of the following countries, India has signed an MoU under the International Cooperation on Brahmaputra and Sutlej rivers ?

(a) Pakistan

(b) China

(d) Nepal

Q 18. Headquarters of which one among the following Railway Zones in India is situated at the highest elevation from the mean sea level ?

(a) East Central Railway

(b) South Eastern Railway

(d) West Central Railway

Q 19. Stalactites and stalagmites are features of:

(a) glacial topography

(b) volcanic topography

(d) fluvial topography

Q 20. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given planets in increasing order of their size (diameter)?

(a) Mars – Venus – Earth – Mercury – Uranus

(b) Mercury – Mars – Venus – Earth – Uranus

(d) Venus – Mercury – Mars – Earth – Uranus

Q 21. In artificial insemination (AI) process, which of the following is / are introduced into the uterus of the female ?

(a) Egg only

(b) Fertilized egg

(d) Egg and sperm

Q 22. Genetically modified (GM) crops contain modified genetic material due to :

1. introduction of new DNA

2. removal of existing DNA

3. introduction of RNA

4. introduction of new traits Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) i and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Q 23. Which one of the following statements is correct ? The velocity of sound :

(a) does not depend upon the nature of media

(b) is maximum in gases and minimum in liquids

(d) is maximum in solids and minimum in gases

Q 24. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Sound waves in gases are longitudinal in nature

(b) Sound waves having frequency below 20 Hz are known as ultrasonic waves

(d) Sound waves with high audible frequencies are sharp

Q 25. Which one of the following vitamins has a role in blood clotting ?

(a) Vitamin A

(b) Vitamin B

(d) Vitamin K

Q 26. Vitamin B₁₂, deficiency causes pernicious anemia. Animals cannot synthesize vitamin B₁₂. Humans must obtain all their vitamin B₁₂,, from their diet. The complexing metal ion in vitamin B₁₂, is:

(a) Mg²⁺ (Magnesium ion)

(b) Fe²⁺ (Iron ion)

(d) Zn²⁺ (Zinc ion)

Q 27. Consider the following statements :

1. Most of the coal and the ferrous group of minerals in India occur in the peninsula, south of the Vindhyas

2. The peninsular India once formed part of the super-continent which included Australia, Antarctica, Africa and South America

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 28. The Mahatma Gandhi National Marine Park is located in :

(a) Pirotan Island

(b) Rameswaram

(d) Port Blair

Q 29. Which of the following statements is / are correct?

1. The earth is nearest to the Sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on January 3

2. The earth is farthest away from the Sun at Perihelion, which generally occurs on July 4

3. The earth is farthest away from the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on July 4

4. The earth is nearest to the Sun at Aphelion, which generally occurs on January 3

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 2

Q 30. Which one of the following islands is of volcanic origin ?

(a) Reunion island

(b) Andaman & Nicobar islands

(d) Maldives

Q 31. Glucose is a source of energy. Which one of the following types of molecule is Glucose ?

(a) Carbohydrate

(b) Protein

(d) Nucleic acid

Q 32. The living content of cell is called protoplasm. It is composed of:

(a) Cytoplasm only

(b) Cytoplasm and nucleoplasm

(d) Cytoplasm, nucleoplasm and other organelles

Q 33. Norman Borlaug won Nobel Peace Prize for his contributions in :

1. development of high-yielding crops.

2. modernization of irrigation infrastructure.

3. introduction of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 34. A myopic person has a power of -1.25 Dioptre. What is the focal length and nature of his lens ?

(a) 50 cm and convex lens

(b) 80 cm and convex lens

(d) 80 cm and concave lens

Q 35. A piece of ice, 100 g in mass is kept at 0 °C. The amount of heat it requires to melt at 0 °C is (take latent heat of melting of ice to be 333.6 J/g):

(a) 750.6 J

(b) 83.4 J

(d) 3.336 J

Q 36. Which one of the following hormones contains peptide chain?

(a) Oxytocin

(b) Corticotropin

(d) Cortisone

Q 37. Which one of the following is an example of chemical change?

(a) Burning of paper

(b) Magnetization of soft iron

(d) Preparation of ice cubes from water

Q 38. Which one of the following is the cause of long-term sea-level change?

(a) Atmospheric disturbance

(b) Change in marine water density

(d) Melting of ice sheets

Q 39. Consider the following tributaries of river Brahmaputra :

1. Lohit 2. Tista 3. Subansiri 4. Sankosh Arrange the above rivers from west to east:

(a) 2-4-3-1

(b) 2-3-4-1

(d) 3-1-2-4

Q 40. Which one of the following is the reason due to which the wind in the southern hemisphere is deflected towards its left ?

(a) Difference in the water masses of northern and southern hemisphere

(b) Temperature and pressure variations

(d) Rotation of the Earth

Q 41. The ‘eye’ of the cyclone has :

(a) abnormally high temperature and lowest pressure

(b) abnormally low temperature and pressure

(d) dense cloud cover and low pressure

Q 42. Which of the following statements is / are correct?

1. Acid rain reacts with buildings made from limestone

2. Burning of sulphur containing coal can contribute to acid rain

3. Eutrophication is an effective measure to control pollution

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 43. Which one of the following statements about bar magnet is correct?

(a) The pole strength of the north-pole of a bar magnet is larger than that of the south-pole

(b) When a piece of bar magnet is bisected perpendicular to its axis, the north and south poles get separated

(d) The poles of a bar magnet are unequal in magnitude and opposite in nature

Q 44. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Hydrogen is an element

(b) Hydrogen is the lightest element

(d) Hydrogen and oxygen form an explosive mixture

Q 45. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Atoms of different elements may have same mass numbers

(b) Atoms of an element may have different mass numbers

(d) All the atoms of an element will always have same number of neutrons

Q 46. Which of the following statements regarding chemical industry in India is / are correct?

1. Chemical industry is one of the oldest industries in India

2. Dyestuff sector is one of the important segments of chemical industry

3. Textile industry accounts for the largest consumption of dyestuffs

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 47. Which of the following statements about India’s scientific and research mission in Antarctica is / are correct?

1. The first scientific base station in Antarctica was Dakshin Gangotri

2. Dakshin Gangotri is now being used as supply base and transit camp

3. The Maitri station is manned throughout the year for scientific activities

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 48. The synthetic rubber has replaced natural rubber for domestic and industrial purposes.

Which one of the following is the main reason behind that?

(a) Natural rubber is unable to meet the growing demand of different industries

(b) Natural rubber is grown in tropical countries only

(d) Natural rubber is not durable

Q 49. A person rings a metallic bell near a strong concrete wall. He hears the echo after 0.3 s. If the sound moves with a speed of 340 m/s, how far is the wall from him?

(a) 102 m

(b) 11 m

(d) 30 m

Q 50. Arrange the following popular hill stations of India in terms of their height (from highest to the lowest) from the mean sea level :

1. Mussoorie

2. Shimla

3. Ooty

4. Darjeeling

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 3-2-4-1

(b) 3-1-4-2

(d) 2-4-1-3

Q 51. Consider the following statements :

1. In Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi formulates a conception of good life for the individual as well as the society

2. Hind Swaraj was the outcome of the experience of Gandhi’s prolonged struggle against Colonial Raj in India Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) I only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 52. Which of the following is / are Constitutional Body / Bodies?

1. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

2. National Commission for Women

3. National Commission for Minorities

4. National Human Rights Commission

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) l only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q 53. Which of the following statements relating to the Bandung Conference on Afro-Asian Resurgence (1955) are correct?

1. Bandung Conference was organized by Indonesia, Myanmar (Burma), Ceylon (Sri Lanka), India, and Pakistan in which 29 countries representing more than half of the world’s population sent delegates

2. The Conference reflected the five sponsors’ dissatisfaction with what they regarded as a reluctance by the Western powers to consult with them on decisions affecting Asia

3. The Conference was concerned over tension between the People’s Republic of China and the United States Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 54. Who among the following archaeologists was the first to identify similarities between a pre-Harappan culture and the mature Harappan culture ?

(a) Amalananda Ghosh

(b) Rakhaldas Banerji

(d) Sir John Marshall

Q 55. Which one of the following is the common element between the Kailasanatha Temple at Ellora and the Shore Temple at Mamallapuram ?

(a) Both are examples of Nagara architecture

(b) Both are carved out from solid rocks

(d) Both were built under the patronage of Pallava Kings

Q 56. Which of the following is / are not depicted in the Rajput paintings?

1. The stories of Krishna

2. Ragas and Raginis

3. The deeds of Hamza

4. The deeds of Babur Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 4 only

Q 57. Which one of the Five Year Plans had a high priority to bring inflation under control and to achieve stability in the economic situation ?

(a) Fourth Plan (1969-74)

(b) Fifth Plan (1974-79)

(d) Seventh Plan (1985-90)

Q 58. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to Phillips Curve ?

1. It shows the trade-off between unemployment and inflation

2. The downward sloping curve of Phillips Curve is generally held to be valid only in the short run

3. In the long run, Phillips Curve is usually thought to be horizontal at the non-accelerating inflation rate of unemployment (NAIRU)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 59. Which one of the following nations is not a member of the Eurasian Economic Union ?

(a) Belarus

(b) Russia

(d) Uzbekistan

Q 60. BRICS leaders signed the agreement to establish a New Development Bank at the summit held in :

(a) New Delhi, India (2012)

(b) Durban, South Africa (2013)

(d) Ufa, Russia (2015)

Q 61. Shishu, Kishor and Tarun are the schemes bf:

(a) Regional Rural Banks.

(b) Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd. (MUDRA).

(d) Industrial Development Bank of India.

Q 62. Consider the following statements :

1. The President of India shall have the power to appoint and remove the Speaker of Lok Sabha

2. The Speaker has to discharge the functions of his office himself throughout his term and cannot delegate his functions to the Deputy Speaker during his absence from the station or during his illness

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 63. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005) was concerned with :

(a) reforms in institutional arrangements for good governance

(b) reforms in the Indian Penal Code and the Criminal Justice System

(d) devising new measures for urban governance and management

Q 64. As per the Constitution of India, the Writ of Prohibition relates to an order :

1. issued against judicial and quasi judicial authority

2. to prohibit an inferior Court from proceeding in a particular case where it has no jurisdiction to try

3. to restrain a person from holding a public office to which he is not entitled

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 65. Which one among the following was not an attribute of Samudragupta described in Prayag Prashasti?

(a) Sharp and polished intellect

(b) Accomplished sculptor

(d) Poetical talent of a genius

Q 66. Kamandaka’s Nitisara is a contribution to :

(a) Logic and Philosophy

(b) Mathematics

(d) Grammar

Q 67. The Lilavati of Bhaskara is a standard text on:

(a) Mathematics

(b) Surgery

(d) Linguistics

Q 68. Which of the following statement(s) are true with respect to the concept of ‘EFFICIENCY’ as used in mainstream economics?

1. Efficiency occurs when no possible reorganisation of production can make anyone better off without making someone else worse off

2. An economy is clearly inefficient if it is inside the Production Possibility Frontier (PPF)

3. At a minimum, an efficient economy is on its Production Possibility Frontier (PPF)

4. The terms such as ‘Pareto Efficiency’, Pareto Optimality’ and ‘Allocative Efficiency’ are all essentially one and the same which denote ‘efficiency in resource allocation’

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q 69. The first summit of the Forum for India Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) was held in :

(a) Jaipur

(b) Suva

(d) Port Moresby

Q 70. Which one of the following island nations went for Parliamentary elections in the month of August 2015 ?

(a) Maldives

(b) Fiji

(d) Singapore

Q 71. Which one of the following nations has faced a severe economic crisis in the year 2015 resulting in default in repayment of IMF loan?

(a) China

(b) Greece

(d) Belgium

Q 72. Who among the following Prime Ministers of India were defeated by a vote of No Confidence ?

1. Morarji Desai

2. Viswanath Pratap Singh

3. H.D. Deve Gowda

4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Q 73. Which of the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha is / are correct?

1. The maximum permissible strength of Rajya Sabha is 250

2. In Rajya Sabha, 238 members are elected indirectly from the States and Union Territories

3. It shares legislative powers equally with Lok Sabha in matters such as creation of All India Services

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 only

Q 74. Which of the following statements relating to the office of the President of India are correct?

1. The President has the power to grant pardon to a criminal in special cases

2. The President can promulgate ordinances even when the Parliament is in session

3. The President can dissolve the Rajya Sabha during emergency

4. The President has the power to nominate two members in the Lok Sabha from the Anglo Indian community

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Q 75. The followers of Gorakhnath were called :

(a) Jogis

(b) Nath-Panthis

(d) Sanyasis

Q 76. What were the 12 states of the Sikh confederacy called ?

(a) Misl

(b) Gurmata

(d) Rakhi

Q 77. Which of the statements given below is / are correct ?

1. The ideal of a common civil code is set forth in Article 44 of the Constitution of India

2. In certain respects, the High Courts in India have been given more extensive powers than the Supreme Court

3. The Supreme Court of India, the first fully independent Court for the country, was set up under the Constitution of India in 1950

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Q 78. Which of the following is / are the example(s) of Transfer Payment(s)?

1. Unemployment Allowance

2. Payment of Salary

3. Social Security Payments

4. Old age Pension

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) None of the above

Q 79. The Erawan shrine, which witnessed a major bomb blast in August 2015, is located at :

(a) Singapore

(b) Bangkok

(d) Kabul

Q 80. Who among the following is the first Indian sportsperson to reach the finals in the World Badminton Championship (Women) in 2015?

(a) Jwala Gutta

(b) Saina Nehwal

(d) Madhumita Bisht

Q 81. Which one of the following Articles / Schedules in the Constitution of India deals with Autonomous District Councils ?

(a) Eighth Schedule

(b) Article 370

(d) Article 250

Q 82. Which of the following statements with regard to UID / Aadhar Card are correct?

1. It is a 12 digit unique form of identification for all residents of India

2. It is an identity number along with the biometric information of the individuals

3. It is a national identity and citizenship card

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 83. Which of the following statements about the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) are correct?

1. The CAG will hold office for a period of six years from the date he assumes the office. He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 65 years, if earlier than the expiry of the 6 year term

2. The powers of CAG are derived from the Constitution of India

3. The CAG is a multi-member body appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers

4. The CAG may be removed by the President only on an address from both Houses of Parliament, on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2 only

Q 84. Human Development Report for each year at global level is published by :

(a) WTO

(b) World Bank

(d) IMF

Q 85. Which one among the following statements about the coins of the Gupta rulers is correct?

(a) The obverse and reverse, both, had only the king’s portrait and date

(b) The obverse and reverse, both, had only an image of a deity and date

(d) The obverse generally had king’s portrait and reverse always had a date

Q 86. The agrahara in early India was:

(a) the name of a village or land granted to Brahmins

(b) the garland of flowers of Agar

(d) land or village settled by Vaishya farmers

Q 87. Which of the following statements relating to the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 are correct?

1. The Act recognizes forest rights of forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes who have been occupying the forest land before October 25, 1980

2. The onus of implementation of the Act lies at the level of the State / UT Governments

3. The Act seeks to recognize and vest certain forest rights in the forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 88. Leander Paes won the US Open Mixed Doubles Tennis Title (2015) partnering with :

(a) Kristina Mladenovic

(b) Flavia Pennetta

(d) Sania Mirza

Q 89. Who among the following is the winner of the World Food Prize (year 2015)?

(a) Sanjaya Rajaram

(b) Baldev Singh Dhillon

(d) Rajendra Singh Paroda

Q 90. In which one of the following judgments of the Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court of India, the ‘rarest of rare principle in the award of death penalty was first laid down?

(a) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980)

(b) Gopalanachari v. State of Kerala (1980)

(d) Tukaram v. State of Maharashtra (1979)

Q 91. Consider the following statements about the President of India:

1. The President has the right to address and send message to the Council of Ministers to elicit specific information

2. The President can call for information relating to proposals for legislation

3. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to administration of the Union must be communicated to the President Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 92. In which one of the following cases, the Constitutional validity of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights of Divorce) Act 1986, was upheld by the Supreme Court of India ?

(a) Muhammad Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum

(b) Danial Latifi v. Union of India

(d) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India

Q 93. Which of the following statements about the Vijayanagara Empire is / are true?

1. The kings claimed to rule on behalf of the God Virupaksha

2. Rulers used the title “Hindu Suratrana” to indicate their close links with Gods

3. All royal orders were signed in Kannada, Sanskrit and Tamil

4. Royal portrait sculpture was now displayed in temples Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 4 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Q 94. Iqta in medieval India meant:

(a) land assigned to religious personnel for spiritual purposes

(b) land revenue from different territorial units assigned to army officers

(d) the rights of the zamindar

Q 95. Which one of the following books was not illustrated with paintings in Akbar’s court?

(a) Hamzanama

(b) Razmnama

(d) Tarikh-i-Alfi

Q 96. Which of the following is not a ‘Public Good’?

(a) Electricity

(b) National Defence

(d) Public Parks

Q 97. Which one of the following is not among the aims of the Second Five Year Plan (1956-57 to 1960-61) ?

(a) Rapid industrialization with particular emphasis on the development of basic and heavy industries

(b) Large expansion of employment opportunities

(c) Achieve self-sufficiency in food grains and increase agricultural production to meet the requirements of industry and exports

(d) Reduction of inequalities in income and wealth and a more even distribution of economic power

Q 98. The National Policy for Children, 2013 recognizes every person as a child below the age of:

(a) 12 years

(b) 14 years

(d) 18 years

Q 99. Which one of the following is not a monitorable target of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Abhiyan?

(a) Provide girls’ toilet in every school in 100 Child Sex Ratio (CSR) districts by the year 2017 )

(b) 100 percent girls’ enrolment in secondary education by the year 2020

(c) Promote a protective environment for girl children through implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO)Act, 2012

(d) Train Elected Representatives / Grassroot functionaries as Community Champions to mobilize communities to improve CSR and promote girl’s education

Q 100. Which one of the following is not an objective of the Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)?

(a) Improve the overall quality of private educational institutions

(b) Ensure reforms in the affiliation, academic and examination systems

(d) Create an enabling atmosphere in the higher educational institutions to devote themselves to research and innovations

Q 101. Which of the following statements with regard to preventive detention in India is / are correct ?

1. The detenue has no rights other than those mentioned in clauses (4) and (5) of Article 22 of Constitution of India

2. The detenue has a right to challenge the detention order on the ground that he was already in jail when the detention order was passed

3. The detenue can claim bail on the ground that he has been in prison beyond twenty-four hours without an order of the magistrate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 102. A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to continue as a Member of the House if the Member :

(a) voluntarily gives up his / her membership of the political party from which he/she was elected

(b) is expelled by the political party from which he / she had been elected to the House

(d) abstains from voting contrary to the direction by his/her political party

Q 103. Which one of the following languages is not recognized in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India ?

(a) English

(b) Sanskrit

(d) Nepali

Q 104. Which kingdom did the temple of Hazara Rama belong to ?

(a) Avadh

(b) Travancore

(d) Ahom

Q 105. Consider the following statements about votive inscriptions in the second century BC:

1. They record gifts made to religious institutions

2. They tell us about the idea of transference of the meritorious results of the action of one person to another person

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 106. Consider the following statements :

1. Abhinavagupta wrote a comprehensive treatise called the Tantraloka which systematically presents the teachings of the Kula and Trika systems

2. The Samaraichchakaha by Haribhadra Suri written in Gujarat around the eighth century is technically not a tantric work but is saturated with tantric ideas and practices Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 107. Which of the following is/are example(s) of ‘Near Money’ ?

1. Treasury Bill

2. Credit Card

3. Savings accounts and small time deposits

4. Retail money market mutual funds Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Q 108. Which one of the following terms is used in Economics to denote a technique for avoiding a risk by making a counteracting transaction ?

(a) Dumping

(b) Hedging

(d) Deflating

Q 109. ‘Citizenfour’, the 87th Academy Award winner in the category of documentary feature, is based on the life of:

(a) Abraham Lincoln

(b) Albert Einstein

(d) Laura Poitras

Q 110. Which one of the following is not a thrust area in the Railway Budget 2015-16 ?

(a) Online booking of disposable bed rolls

(b) Defence Travel System to eliminate Warrants

(d) Bio-toilets

Q 111. Which one of the following services of India Post has permanently been discontinued ?

(a) Money Order

(b) Telegram

(d) Inland Letter

Q 112. The category of ‘Overseas Citizens of India’ was entered in the Citizenship Act of India through an amendment in the year :

(a) 1986

(b) 1992

(d) 2003

Q 113. The Right to Education was added to the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India through the :

(a) Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002

(b) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act, 2005

(d) Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011

Q 114. Consider the following statements :

1. The inscriptions on the pillar at Rummindei give vivid details of Ashoka’s Dhamma 2. The Nigalisagar inscription records the fact of Ashoka having visited the Konagamana stupa

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 115. Consider the following statements :

1. The province of Assam was created in the year 1911

2. Eleven districts comprising Assam were separated from the Lieutenant Governorship of Bengal and established as an independent administration under a Chief Commissioner in the year 1874 Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) l only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 116. Which of the following statements is / are true ?

1. Faxian’s Gaoseng Faxian Zhuan was the earliest first-hand Chinese account of Buddhist sites and practices in India

2. Faxian was only 25 years old at the time of writing the text

3. Faxian’s main aim in coming to India was to obtain and take back texts containing monastic rules

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Q 117. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Ability to pay principle of taxation holds that the amount of taxes people pay should relate to their income or wealth

2. The Benefit Principle of taxation states that individuals should be taxed in proportion to the benefit they receive from Government programmes

3. A progressive tax takes a larger share of tax from poor families than it does from rich families

4. Indirect taxes have the advantage of being cheaper and easier to collect Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q 118. Which of the following statement(s) is /are false?

1. Wage Boards are tripartite in nature, with representatives from workers, employers and independent members

2. Except for the Wage Boards for Journalists and Non-Journalists, all the other wage boards are statutory in nature

3. Second National Commission on Labour has recommended against the utility of wage boards

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 119. The rank of Major General in Indian Army is equivalent to :

(a) Air Marshal in Indian Air Force

(b) Rear Admiral in Indian Navy

(d) Commodore in Indian Navy

Q 120. Among the currently operational Indian Satellites, there is no

(a) Communication satellite

(b) Navigation satellite

(d) Jupiter orbiter satellite

Social Science 10th Previous Year Question Paper 2017 (CBSE)

Social Science

SET-I

Section – A

Q. 1. Name the writer of the book ‘Hind Swaraj’.

Answer: The book ‘Hind Swaraj’ was written by Mahatma Gandhi.

Q. 2. Name the river-related to National Waterways No. 2.

Answer:National Waterways No. 2 is related to the river ‘Brahmaputra’.

Q. 3. Explain any one difference between a pressure group and a political party.

Answer:

Pressure Group	Political Party
They have a specific interest and work for the collective interest of their members Eg. Railway employee association, Teacher’s association. They do not directly control or share political powers.	They have a broad programme that covers many aspects of national interest.
Their membership is limited.	The membership of political parties is broad.

Q. 4. Explain the meaning of democracy.

Answer:Democracy is a form of government in which the supreme power is vested in the people and the representatives of the people are elected by the voters on the basis of adult franchise.

Q. 5. Name any one political party of India which grew out of a movement.

Answer:The political party of India that grew out of movement is ‘Asom Gana Parishad.’

Q. 6. How does the use of money make it easier to exchange things ? Give an example.

Answer:Money makes exchanging things easier as:

It is in the form of authorised paper currency which gives the guarantee of the mentioned price to the owner.
It has general acceptability.
Its price remains constant compared to other commodities.
It can be stored easily and doesn’t need much space.

Q. 7. Give an example of a violation of the consumer’s right to choose.

Q. 8. How is the maximum retail price printed on packets beneficial for you?

Answer:Through printed Maximum Retail Price (MRP) on the packets or products, consumers get to know that they do not have to pay prices more than the printed price. Then, the shopkeeper cannot cheat the consumers by overcharging them.

Q. 9. Describe any three economic hardships faced by Europe in the 1830s.

Describe any three problems faced by the French in the sphere of education in Vietnam.

Answer:Economic hardships faced by Europe in 1830s were:

Increase in population.
Unemployment, migration and price rise.
Stiff competition in the market.
Bad condition of peasants. (Any three)

The French faced the following problems in the sphere of education in Vietnam:

(i) After receiving western education, the Vietnamese might question colonial domination as it was done by Indians in India under British rule. They would become aware of the western democracies and would put forward various demands before the French government,

(ii) Educated Vietnamese might demand various white-collar jobs or better-paid jobs such as the jobs of teachers, policemen, etc. which were being done by the French citizens called colons living in Vietnam. Thus, there was opposition from the French citizens to give education to the Vietnamese.

(iii) The elites in Vietnam were under the powerful influence of the Chinese culture. It was necessary for the French to counter this influence too.

Q. 10. Why did Gandhiji decide to withdraw the ‘Non-Cooperation Movement’ in February 1922? Explain any three reasons.

Answer:Causes of withdrawal of Non-Cooperation Movement are as follows:

Some activists of the Non-Cooperation Movement set a police station on fire at Chauri-Chaura (Gorakhpur), Uttar Pradesh in which 21 policemen were burnt alive.
Gandhiji felt that people of India were not ready for a nation-wide movement of mass struggle and felt that he should withdraw the movement.
Moreover, many members of the Indian National Congress felt that the Non-Cooperation Movement was tiresome and unnecessary since they wanted to contest the election.

Q. 11. Evaluate the role of business classes in the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement.’

Answer: The role of business classes in the Civil Disobedience Movement is as follows:

Keen on expanding their business, the business classes supported Civil Disobedience Movement and Protested against colonial policies that restricted business activities. They wanted protection against the import of foreign goods and a rupee sterling foreign exchange ratio that would discourage imports.
To organise business classes against colonial policies, they formed the Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920 and the Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) in 1927.
The business community interpreted Swaraj in their own way. They came to see Swaraj at the time when the colonial restriction on business would no longer exist and the trade industry would flourish without constraint.

Q. 12. Describe any three characteristics of Durg- Bastar-Chandrapur Iron ore belt in India.

Answer:The characteristics of Durg-Bastar- Chardrapur Iron-ore belt in India are as follows:

The Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt of high-grade hematite iron ore. This high-quality iron ore is suitable for steel-making.
The steel made from this ore is used to produce automobiles, railway equipment and in the defence sector.
Half of the iron ore is exported to Japan and South Korea from the Vishakhapatnam port as building a new steel plant is a very costly affair.

Q. 13. Analyse the role of the manufacturing sector in the economic development of India.

Answer:Contribution of the Manufacturing sector to the national economy:

Creation of alternative employment: Manufacturing reduces dependence on agriculture by providing alternative employment opportunities in the factory.
Better standard of living: The industrial labourers and other employees get higher wages and enjoy a higher standard of living compared to landless agricultural labourers.
Support to agricultural production: Increase in use of fertilizers, pesticides, plastics, electricity and diesel in agriculture has been possible due to the growth and competitiveness of the manufacturing industries.
In the present day world of territorial specialization, our industry needs to be more efficient and competitive Our goods must be at par with those of other countries in the international market This will fetch foreign exchange and increase national wealth. (Any three)

Q. 14. Examine with example the role of means of transport and communication in making our life prosperous and comfortable.

Answer:Transportation and communication have made our life prosperous and comfortable in the following ways:

(i) Because of transport, raw materials reach the factory and finished products reach to consumers. The pace of development of a country depends upon the production of goods and services as well as their movement over time. Therefore, efficient means of transport are a prerequisite for fast development.

(ii) Apart from transport, the ease and mode of communications, like mobiles, internet, and Wi-Fi makes a seamless flow of information possible.

(iii) Today, India is well-linked with the rest of the world despite its vast size, diversity and linguistic and socio¬cultural plurality. Railways, airways, waterways, newspaper, radio, television, cinema and internet etc., have been contributing to its socio-economic progress in many ways. The trade from local to international level has added to the vitality of its economy. It has enriched our life and has substantially added to growing amenities and facilities for the comforts of life.

Q. 15. Analyse the role of popular struggles in the development of democracy.

Answer:Democracy evolves through popular struggles. It is possible that some significant decisions may take place through consensus and may not involve and conflict at all. But that would be an exception. Defining moments of democracy usually involve conflict between those groups who have exercised power and those who aspire for a share in power. These moments come when the country is going through a transition to democracy, expansion of democracy or deepening of democracy.

(i) Democratic conflict is resolved through mass mobilization. Sometimes it is possible that the conflict is resolved by using the existing institutions like the parliament or the judiciary. But when there is a deep dispute, very often these institutions themselves get involved in the dispute. The resolution has to come from outside, from the people.

(ii) These contacts and mobilizations are based on new political organisations. True; there is an element of spontaneity in all such historic moments. But the spontaneous public participation becomes effective with the help of organized politics. There can be many agencies of organized politics. These include political parties, pressure groups and movement groups.

Q. 16. How do pressure groups and movements strengthen democracy? Explain.

Answer:Pressure groups and movements exert influence on politics in the following ways:

(i) Information campaigns, organising meetings, file petitions: Pressure groups carry out information campaigns, organise meetings and file petitions to attract public attention and gain support for their activities. They influence the media to attract more attention to their issues.

(ii) Protest activities: Pressure groups organise protest activities like strikes, demonstrations or disrupting government’s programmes. Such tactics are employed by worker’s organisations, employees’ associations and most of the movement groups in order to force the government to take note of their demand.

(iii) Lobbying: Business groups employ professional lobbyists or sponsor expensive advertisements. They participate in official bodies and committees that offer advice to the government.

(iv) Take a political stand on major issues: Pressure groups and movements do not directly take part in party politics but try to exert influence on political parties by taking a political stand on different issues. They have their own political ideology and political position on major issues.

Thus, the pressure groups and the movements exert influence on politics in different ways in a democracy. (Any three)

Q. 17. On the basis of which values will it be a fair expectation that democracy should produce a harmonious social life? Explain.

Answer:The basic values of democracy which provide fair expectation that democracy will produce harmonious social life are:

(a) Social Equality, (b) Freedom, (c) Justice, (d) Economic justification, (e) Political freedom, civil and fundamental rights.

Moreover, the following can be understood.

Democracy is a form of government in which the supreme power is vested in the people and the representatives of the people are elected by the voters on the basis of adult franchise.
It promotes equality among citizens.
It looks after the interest of the people.
It allows accommodation of social diversity.

Q. 18. Explain any three loan activities of banks in India.

Answer: Activities of banks in India who are involved in providing loan:

Banks provide loans for various economic activities.
Banks intermediate between those who have surplus funds and those who are in need of these funds.
Banks offer very less interest on deposits than what they demand on loans.

Q. 19. How do Multinational Corporations (MNCs) interlink production across countries? Explain with examples.

Answer:Multinational Corporations (MNCs) interlink their production across countries in various ways:

(i) A multinational corporation (MNC) is usually a large company that owns and controls the production in more than one nation. MNCs set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can easily get cheap labour and other resources. This is done to minimise the cost of production end to maximise the profit.

(ii) The MNCs not only sell its finished products globally, but more importantly, the goods and services are produced globally.

(iii) The production process is divided into small parts and spread out across the globe.

(iv) The most common route for MNC investments is to buy local companies and then to expand production.

For example: Cargill Foods, a very large American MNC had bought over an Indian company Parakh foods which had their large marketing network in various parts of India and also has a good reputation. With this advantage, Cargill is now the largest producer of edible oil in India.

(v) Also, MNCs control production by placing orders around the world with a large number of small producers of items, like garments, footwears, sports items, etc. Then MNC sells these products under its brand name.

(vi) As a result, production of MNCs in widely dispersed location is getting interlinked.

Q. 20. Analyse the importance of the tree-tier judicial machinery under Consumer Protection Act (COPRA), 1986 for redressal of consumer disputes.

Q. 21. “The first clear expression of nationalism came with the ‘French Revolution’ in 1789.” Examine the statement.

Examine the reasons that forced America to withdraw from the Vietnam war.

Answer:It is true that “the first clear expression of nationalism came with the ‘French revolution’ in 1789″.

(i) Till 1789, France was a full-fledged territorial state under the rule of an absolute monarch.

The political and constitutional changes that came during the rise of the French Revolution, led to the transfer of sovereignty from monarchy to the body of French citizen.

(ii) The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would hence forth constitute the nation and shape its destiny.

From the beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various measures and practices that could create a sense of collective identity, and a feeling of nationalism among the French people. The community was enjoying equal rights under the constitution.

(iii) A new French flag, the tri-colour, was chosen to replace the former royal standard. The Estates General was deleted by the body of active citizens and renamed as National Assembly. New hymns were composed, oaths were taken and martyrs were commemorated, all in the name of nation.

(iv) Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation.

The revolutionaries further declared that they would help other people of Europe to become free nations. When the news of the events of France reached different cities of Europe, students and other members of educated middle classes began setting up Jacobin Clubs. Their activities and campaigns prepared the way for the French armies which moved into Holland, Belgium, Switzerland and much of Italy in 1790s.

Thus, with the outbreak of revolutionary wars, nationalism spread in the entire Europe.

Reasons of withdrawal of armed forces from the Vietnam War (The USA War in Vietnam: 1967-January 1974) are as follows:

(i) The phase of struggle with US was brutal as it widely used chemical weapons-Napalm, Agent orange and phosphorus bombs. Besides soldiers, a large number of civilians died in this war.

(ii) The US media and films played a major role in both supporting as well as criticising the war.

(iii) Hollywood made films in support of the war. Such as, John Wayne’s Green Berets (1968).

Writers such as Mary Me Carthy and actors like Jane Fonda even visited North Vietnam and praised their heroic defence of the country.

(iv) The prolongation of the war created strong reactions, even within the U.S. It was clear that the US had failed to achieve its main objective i.e, the Vietnamese resistance had not been crushed, the support of the Vietnamese people for the US action had not been won.

(v) The US war in Vietnam was the most unpopular in history. It was condemned by people all over the world including the United States.

Vietnam soon emerged as a united country. The defeat of the greatest military power in the world by the people of a very small country in Asia was an event of great significance in the history of the contemporary world.

Q. 22. How did the Colonial Government repress the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement Explain?

Answer: The ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’ boycotted foreign cloth and picketed liquor shops. Peasants refused to pay revenue and taxes, village officials resigned. The Colonial Government repressed the members participating in movement.

In many places, forest people violated forest laws by going into reserved forests to collect wood and graze cattle. Worried by the developments, the colonial government began arresting the Congress leader one by one. This lead to violent clashes in many places.
Abdul Gaffar Khan, a devout disciple was arrested in April 1930. Many people were killed who protested it.
When Mahatma Gandhi was arrested, industrial workers of Sholapur attacked police posts, municipal buildings, law courts and railway stations.
British government was worried and frightened by this development of movement and it followed a policy of brutal repression.
Peaceful Satyagrahis were attacked, women and children were beaten and about one lac people were arrested.

Q. 23. Why is it necessary to conserve mineral resources? Explain any four ways to conserve mineral resources.

Answer:Minerals require millions of year to form. These are non-renewable resources and their stock is limited. Continuous extraction of minerals raises the cost of extraction as they have to be dug from greater depths. Minerals may also be low in quality.

A concerted effort has to be made in order to use our mineral resources in a planned and sustainable manner.
Use of substitutes in order to save minerals should be encouraged.
Improved technologies need to be constantly evolved to allow the use of low-grade ores at low costs.
Recycling of minerals using scrap metals and other substitutes are some steps in conserving our mineral resources for the future.

Q. 24. Analyse the role of chemical industries in the Indian economy.

Answer:The chemical industry in India is diversifying and growing fast. It contributes approximately percent to 3% of GDP. It is the third-largest in Asia and occupies twelfth plate in the world in terms of its size. It comprises both large and small scale manufacturing units. Rapid growth has been recorded in both inorganic and organic sectors. Inorganic chemicals include sulphuric acid, nitric acid, alkalies, soda ash and caustic soda. These industries are widely spread over the country.

Organic chemicals include petrochemicals, which are used for manufacturing of synthetic fibres, synthetic rubber, plastics, dye-stuffs, drugs and pharmaceuticals. Organic chemical plants are located near oil refineries and petrochemical plants.

The chemical industry has its own largest consumers. Basic chemicals undergo processing for the further production of other chemicals that are used for industrial application, agriculture or directly for consumer markets.

Q. 25. Describe any five characteristics of democracy.

Answer:The main characteristics of democracy vary in a wide selection of ways.

Democracy is a form of government in which the rulers are elected by the people.
In a democracy, the final decision of making power must rest with those representatives, elected by people or citizen.
Democracy must be based on a free and fair election, where those who are currently in power have a fair chance of losing.
In a democracy, each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value.
A democratic government rules within limits set by constitutional law and citizens’ right.

Q. 26. “It is very difficult to reform politics through legal ways.” Evaluate the statement.

Answer:We agree that it is very difficult to reform politics through legal ways. It is very tempting to think of legal ways of reforming politics, to think of new laws to ban undesirable things, but this temptation needs to be resisted. No doubt, the law has an important role to play in political reform. Carefully devised changes in law can help discourage wrong political practices and encourage good ones. But legal constitutional changes by themselves cannot overcome challenges to democracy. This is like the rule of cricket. A change in rules for LBW decisions helped to reduce negative batting tactics. But the improvement is possible mainly by combined efforts by the players, coaches and administrators. Similarly, democratic reforms are to be carried out mainly by political activists, parties, movements and politically conscious citizens.

Q. 27. Analyse any five positive effects of globalisation on the Indian economy.

Answer:The visible impacts of globalisation on Indian economy can be described in the following ways:

(i) There is a wide choice of goods and services in the market.

For e.g., The latest models of digital cameras, mobile phones and television made by the leading manufacturers of the world are available in the markets. These products are affordable as well as within reach of the people.

(ii) Several improvements in the transportation technology has made much faster delivery of goods across long distances possible and that too on lower rates.

(iii) The improvement in information and telecommunication technology is even more remarkable. The invention and use of the computer, internet, mobile phone, fax, etc., have made contact with each other around the world quite easy.

(iv) New jobs have been created in industries where MNCs have invested such as electronics, fast foods, cell phones etc.

(v) Some Indian companies have become multinational by themselves due to globalisation, such as Tata Motors (automobiles), Ranbaxy (Medicines), Infosys (Computer and Information Technology) and L & T (construction).

Q. 28. What is liberalisation? Describe any four effects of liberalisation on the Indian economy.

Answer:The liberalisation of the economy means to free the trade from direct or physical controls imposed by the government.

The four effects of liberalisation on the Indian economy are:

Competition would improve the performance of producers within the country.
Barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large extent. This meant that goods could be imported and exported easily.
Foreign companies could set up factories and offices to boost up production.
It allows making decisions freely.
The competition would improve the performance of producers within the country since they have to improve their quality.

Q. 29. Three features A, B and C are marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked on the map:

A. The city is associated with the Jallianwala Bagh incident.

B. The place where the Indian National Congress session (1927) was held.

C. The place where Gandhiji violated them salt Law.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Q29

Answer:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Q29.1

Q. 30. On the given political outline map of India locate and label the following features with appropriate symbols:

A. Narora – Nuclear Power Plant.

B. Tuticorin – Major Sea Port.

C. Bhilai – Iron and Steel Plant.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Q30

Answer:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Q30.1

SET – II

Q. 1.What is the meaning of ‘Begar’?

Answer: Begar was a system of forced labour in parts of India. In times, when India was a colony, peasants had to do ‘begar’ and work at landlord’s farms without any payments.

Q. 2.Name the best variety of iron-ore found in India.

Answer:‘Magnetite’ is the finest iron ore with a very high content of iron up to 70%.

Q. 3.Why is there overwhelming support to democracy all over the world? Explain one reason.

Answer:Today, over a hundred countries of the world claim and practice democratic politics, because it provides equality among citizens and improve the quality of decision making.

Q. 13.Why are we not able to perform to our full potential in the production of iron and steel in India? Explain any three reasons.

Answer:Today with 32.8 million tonnes of steel production, India ranks 9th among the world crude steel producers. It is the largest producer of sponge iron. In spite of the large production of steel, per capita consumption per annum is only 32 Kg. India’s export of steel is 2.25% of the global steel trade. Though India has many advantages for the development of this industry, which includes low cost of iron ore, high-grade raw material in proximity, cheap labour and vast growth potential in the home market. Yet we are not able to perform to our full potential largely due to:

High cost and limited availability of cooking coal.
Lower productivity of labour.
Irregular supply of energy.
Poor infrastructure.

Q. 14.“Tourism industry in India has grown substantially over the last three decades.” Support the statement.

Answer:The main reasons for the growth of tourism industry in India over the last three decades are:

Over 2.6 million tourists visit India every year and this number is increasing every year. It contributes to nearly 21,828 crore rupees as foreign exchange. More than 15 million people are directly engaged in the tourism industry.
It has pleasing weather conditions throughout the year for the tourists in comparison to western countries.
Foreign tourists visit India for heritage, medical, economic, culture, business, adventure tourism, etc.
It had made access easier in the North-Eastern states and interior parts of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttranchal.
It has become easier nowadays to transport valuable goods, life-saving drugs, perishable commodities, mail, etc., to distant places in a short time.

Thus, it plays an important role in popularising world-class monuments around the world which enhances Indian tourism and contributes to its economy.

Q. 15.How is social diversity accommodated in a democracy? Explain with examples.

Answer:It is a fair expectation that democracy should produce a harmonious social life. Democracy must fulfil two conditions in order to achieve social harmony even though there is social diversity.

(i) It is necessary to understand that democracy is not simply ruled by majority opinion. The majority always needs to work with the minority so that, the possibility of tensions, becoming explosive or violent reduces. The majority and minority opinions are not permanent.

(ii) It is also necessary that the rule of the majority does not become the rule of the majority community in terms of religion or race or linguistic group. Rule of the majority means that in case of every decision or every election, different persons and groups may and should form a majority.

Q. 22.How was the sense of collective belonging developed during the freedom movement? Explain.

Answer:Nationalism spread in India when people began to believe that they were all part of the same nation when they discovered some unity that bound them together. This sense of collective belonging came partly through the experience of united struggle. It was in the 20th century, with the growth of nationalism that the identity of India came to be visually associated with the image of Bharat Mata, created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.

In 1870, he wrote “Vande Matram” as a hymn to the motherland.

Ideas of nationalism also developed through a movement to revive Indian folkore.

Nationalist began recording folk tales sung by bards and they toured villages to gather folk song and legends. As the national movement developed, nationalist leaders became mdre and more aware of such icons and symbols in unifying people and inspiring in them a feeling of nationalism. In 1921, Gandhiji had designed the swaraj flag.

It was a tricolour (red, green and white) and had a spinning wheel in the centre. Carrying this flag, holding it aloft, during marches became a symbol of defiance.

Another means of creating a feeling of nationalism was through a reinterpretation of history. Indians began looking into the past to discover India’s great achievements. They wrote about the glorious developments in ancient times when art and architecture, science and mathematics, religion and culture, law and philosophy had flourished and decline in these areas began when India was colonised.

Q. 23.“The advancement of international trade of a country is an index of its economic development.” Justify the statement.

Answer:“Advancement of international trade of a country is an index of economic development”.

The statement can be justified through the following point:

As no country is self-sufficient in all resources, it cannot survive without international trade.
If the balance of international trade is favourable in a country, it will be able to earn more foreign exchange.
International trade encourages a country to develop secondary and tertiary sectors for exporting those goods which can fetch more foreign exchange.
A country’s economic development and prosperity can be gauged by the health of its international trade.
A country can earn a large amount of foreign exchange through international trade. India exports approximately 7500 commodities to about 190 countries and imports about 6000 commodities from 140 countries. India exported commodities worth the US $ 318.2 billion in 2014. And India’s share in export is increasing every year.

Q. 26.Suggest any five effective measures to reform political parties.

Answer:Following are the five effective measures to reform political parties:

A law should be made to regulate the internal affairs of political parties.
It should be made compulsory for political parties to maintain a register of its members.
It should be made mandatory for political parties to give a minimum number of tickets (about 1/3rd) to its woman candidates.
There should be a quota for the woman in the decision making bodies of the parties.
The government should give parties money to support their election expenses in kind, for example, petrol, paper, phone bill, etc.

SET- III

Q. 1.What is meant by Satyagraha?

Answer:Satyagraha is a non-violent method of mass agitation against the oppressor. The idea of Satyagraha emphasised the power of truth.

Q. 2. Where do minerals occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks?

Answer:In igneous and metamorphic rocks, minerals are formed due to effects of heat and pressure when magma or lava cools. Minerals in these rocks are present in cracks and joints. There are various type of minerals found in these rocks like tin, copper, zinc, lead, diamond etc.

Q. 3. Explain the meaning of transparency in democracy.

Answer:In democracy, every citizen has the right and the means to examine the process of decision making. This is known as transparency.

Q. 13. “Minerals are unevenly distributed in India.” Support the statement with examples.

Answer:“Minerals are unevenly distributed in India.” Following examples are:

Minerals in Deccan: The peninsular rocks contain most of the reserves of coal, metallic mineral, mica, and many other non-metallic minerals.
Minerals in western and eastern regions of India: Sedimentary rocks of the western and eastern part of India i.e., Gujarat and Assam have most of the petroleum deposits.
Minerals in Rajasthan: Rajasthan with the rock systems of the peninsular has reserves of many non-ferrous minerals.
Minerals in North India: The vast alluvial plains of North India are almost devoid of economic minerals. These variations exist largely because of the differences in the geological structure, processes and time involved in the formation of minerals.

Q. 14. Evaluate any three features of ‘Golden Quadrilateral’ Super Highways.

Answer:The three features of ‘Golden Quadrilateral’ Super Highways are:

It is a broad network of six lanes of superhighways including North-South Corridor and East-West Corridor. It is a major road development project that connects Delhi- Kolkata-Chennai-Mumbai.
Delhi National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) is implementing this gigantic project. With the Quadrilateral road network, the movement of trade has become easy from one comer to other comers in India.
This road network is connected to 10 major ports, namely Kandla, Nhava-Sheva, Mormugao, Tuticorin, Chennai and Ennore, Vishakhapatnam, Paradeep, Haldia and Mumbai.

Q. 15. Analyse the role of opposition political parties in a democracy.

Answer:Opposition political parties play an important role in democracy. They play both positive and negative roles.

Positive Role:

They ensure that political party, in power, does not, abuse or misuse its power.
It exposes the weaknesses of the ruling party.
It keeps a close vigil on the bills and expenditure of the government.

Negative Role:

It targets the government and aims at the lodging and discrediting the government for all the ills and troubles that people face.
Through stalling the proceedings of the parliament, dharmas and gheravs, it curtails the progress of the country.
Sometimes, opposition party opposes every decision of the ruling party whether it is in the favour of the nation or not.

Q. 22. Explain the measures taken by Gandhiji to eliminate the problem of untouchability.

Answer:The measures taken by Gandhiji to eliminate the problem of untouchability were:

He said that swaraj would not come for a hundred years if untouchability was not eliminated.
Gandhiji himself cleaned toilets to dignify the work of a sweeper.
Gandhiji persuaded the upper caste to change their heart and give up ‘sin of untouchability’.
He organised satyagraha to secure their entry into temples, access to public wells, tanks, roads and public schools.
He signed the Poona Pact in September 1932 with Dr. B. R. Ambedkar through which some seats were reserved for the depressed classes in the provincial and central legislative council.

Q. 23. Examine any five factors affecting the location of industries in India.

Answer: Maximisation of profit which also implies cost minimisation is the most important goal in their choice of a particular place for the location of industries. Some factors influencing the same are:

Proximity to markets: Areas or regions having high purchasing power provide large market, therefore, luxury items producing industries are located in these regions.
Availability of raw material: Raw material used by industries should be cheap and easy to transport. Industries based on cheap, bulky and weight losing material (ores) are located close to the sources of raw material. Such as steel, sugar, and cement industries.
Availability of labour: Some types of manufacturing requires skilled labour there-fore IT industries
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are located near urban-educational centres where skilled labours are easily available.
Access to sources of energy: Industries which use more power are located near energy supplying sources such as the aluminium industry.
Transportation and communication facilities: Speedy and efficient transport facilities reduce the cost of transport. Therefore, industries are attracted to regions which have good transport facilities.
Government policy: Governments adopt ‘regional policies’ to promote ‘balanced’ economic development and hence set up industries in backward and tribal areas. (Any five)

Q. 26. “No party system is ideal for all countries and in all situations.” Analyse the statement.

Answer:‘No party system is ideal for all countries and in all situations’.

This statement can be justified as follows:

All countries and democracies have different social situations, economic achievements and culture and thus different political situations leading to different party systems.
Party system is not anything that a country can choose. It evolves gradually and slowly depending on the situations in the country.
Party system depends on the country’s social and regional differences, its history of politics and elections system.
India has evolved a multiparty system because its regional and geographical differences are not easily absolved by even two parties.
But not all countries have such diversity and so may not need multiparty systems. In such countries, a two-party system may be enough for the representation of various communities. Thus, no party system is ideal for all countries and in all situations.

Maths 10th Previous Year Question Paper 2015 (CBSE)

Maths

SET-I

Section – A

Q.1. If the quadratic equation px²– 2√5px + 15 = 0 has two equal roots, then find the value of p.

Answer. The given quadratic equation can be written as px²– 2√5px + 15 = 0

a = p, b = -2√5p, c = 15

For equal roots, D = 0

D = b² – 4ac

0 = (– 2√5p)² – 4 ×p × 15

0 = 4 ×5p² – 60p

0 = 20p² – 60p

p = 60p / 20p = 3

∴ p = 3

Q.2. In Figure 1, a tower AB is 20 m high and BC, its shadow on the ground, is 20-√3 m long. Find the Sun’s altitude.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-1

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-12

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-13

Q.3. Two different dices are tossed together. Find the probability that the product of the two numbers on the top of the dice is 6.

Answer. Total outcomes = 6ⁿ = 6² = 36

Possible outcomes having the product of the two numbers on the top of the dice as 6 are (3 × 2, 2 × 3, 6 × 1, 1 × 6), i.e., 4

P(Product of two numbers is 6) = 4/36 = 1/9

Q.4. In Figure 2, PQ is a chord of a circle with centre O and PT is a tangent. If ∠QPT = 60°, find ∠PRQ.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-2

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-15

Section – B

Q.5. In Figure 3, two tangents RQ and RP are drawn from an external point R to the circle with centre O. If ∠PRQ = 120°, then prove that OR = PR + RQ.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-3

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-16

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Q.6. In Figure 4, a triangle ABC is drawn to circumscribe a circle of radius 3 cm, such that the segments BD and DC are respectively of lengths 6 cm and 9 cm. If the area of ∆ABC is 54 cm2, then find the lengths of sides AB and AC.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-4

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-18

Q.7. Solve the following quadratic equation for x: 4x² + 4bx -(a² – b²) = 0

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-19

Q.8. In an AP, if S₅+ S7 = 167 and S₁₀ = 235, then find the AP, where S_n denotes the sum of its first n terms.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-20

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Q.9. The points A(4,7), B(p,3) and C(7,3) are the vertices of a right triangle, right-angled at B. Find the value of p.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-22

Q.10. Find the relation between x and y if the points A(x, y), B(-5, 7) and C(-4, 5) are collinear.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-23

Section – C

Q.11. The 14th term of an AP is twice its 8th term. If its 6th term is -8, then find the sum of its first 20 terms.

Answer.

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cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-25

Q.12. Solve for x:

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-26

Q.13. The angle of elevation of an aeroplane from a point A on the ground is 60°. After a flight of 15 seconds, the angle of elevation changes to 30°. If the aeroplane is flying at a constant height of 1500 √3 m, find the speed of the plane in km/hr.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-27

Q.14. If the coordinates of points A and B are (-2, -2) and (2, -4) respectively, find the coordinates of P such that AP = 3/5 AB, where P lies on the line segment AB.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-28

Q.15. The probability of selecting a red ball at random from a jar that contains only red, blue and orange balls is 1/4. The probability of selecting a blue ball at random from the same jar is 1/3 . If the jar contains 10 orange balls, find the total number of balls in the jar.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-29

Q.16. Find the area of the minor segment of a circle of radius 14 cm, when its central angle is 60°. Also find the area of the corresponding major segment. [Use π = 22/7 ]

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-30

Q.17. Due to sudden floods, some welfare associations jointly requested the government to get 100 tents fixed immediately and offered to contribute 50% of the cost. If the lower part of each tent is of the form of a cylinder of diameter 4.2 m and height 4 m with the conical upper part of same diameter but of height 2.8 m, and the canvas to be used costs Rs 100 per sq. m, find the amount, the associations will have to pay. [Use π = 22/7 ] What values are shown by these associations?

Answer.

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Q.18. A hemispherical bowl of internal diameter 36 cm contains liquid. This liquid is filled into 72 cylindrical bottles of diameter 6 cm. Find the height of each bottle, if 10% liquid is wasted in this transfer.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-33

Q.19. A cubical block of side 10 cm is surmounted by a hemisphere. What is the largest diameter that the hemisphere can have? Find the cost of painting the total surface area of the solid so formed, at the rate of Rs 5 per 100 sq. cm. [Use π = 3.14]

Answer. Let the side of cuboidal block (a) = 10cm

Let the radius of hemisphere be r

Side of cube = Diameter of hemisphere

Largest possible diameter of hemisphere = 10cm

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-35

Q.20. 504 cones, each of diameter 3.5 cm and height 3 cm, are melted and recast into a metallic sphere. Find the diameter of the sphere and hence find its surface area. [Use π = 22/7 ]

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-36

Section – D

Q.21. The diagonal of a rectangular field is 16 metres more than the shorter side. If the longer side is 14 metres more than the shorter side, then find the lengths of the sides of the field.

Answer.

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Q.22. Find the 60th term of the AP 8,10,12,…, if it has a total of 60 terms and hence find the sum of its last 10 terms.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-67

Q.23. A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 54 km and then travels a . distance of 63 km at an average speed of 6 km/h more than the first speed. If it takes 3 hours to complete the total journey, what is its first speed?

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-39

Q.24. Prove that the lengths of the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.

Answer. Given : Let circle be with centre O and P be a point outside circle PQ and PR are two tangents to circle intersecting at point Q and R respectively

To Prove : Lengths of tangents are equal i.e. PQ = PR

Construction: Join OQ, OR and OP

Proof: As PQ is a tangent OQ⊥PQ [Tangent at any point of circle is perpendicular to the radius through point of contact]

So, ∠OQP = 90°

Hence ΔOQP is right triangle.

Q.25. Prove that the tangent drawn at the mid-point of an arc of a circle is parallel to the chord joining the end points of the arc.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-40

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Q.26. Construct a ∆ABC in which AB = 6 cm, ∠A = 30° and ∠B = 60°. Construct another ∆AB’C’ similar to ∆ABC with base AB’ = 8 cm.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-42

Q.27. At a point A, 20 metres above the level of water in a lake, the angle of elevation of a cloud is 30°. The angle of depression of the reflection of the cloud in the lake, at A is 60°. Find the distance of the cloud from A.

Answer.

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cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-44

Q.28. A card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled deck of playing cards. Find the probability that the card drawn is

(i) a card of spade or an ace. (ii) a black king.

(iii) neither a jack nor a king. (iv) either a king or a queen.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-45

Q.29. Find the values of k so. that the area of the triangle with vertices (1, -1), (-4, 2k) and (-k, -5) is 24 sq. units.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-46

Q.30. In Figure 5, PQRS is a square lawn with side PQ = 42 metres. Two circular flower beds are there on the sides PS and QR with centre at O, the intersection of its diagonals. Find the total area of the two flower beds (shaded parts).

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Answer.

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Q.31. From each end of a solid metal cylinder, metal was scooped out in hemispherical form of same diameter. The height of the cylinder is 10 cm and its base is of radius 4.2 cm. The rest of the cylinder is melted and converted into a cylindrical wire of 1.4 cm thickness. Find the length of the wire. [Use π = 22/7 ]

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-49

SET II

Q.10. If A(4, 3), B(-l, y) and C(3, 4) are the vertices of a right triangle ABC, right-angled at A, then find the value of y.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-50

Q.18. All the vertices of a rhombus lie on a circle. Find the area of the rhombus, if the area of the circle is 1256 cm2. [Use π= 3.14]

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-51

Q.19. Solve for x:

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-52

Q.20. The 16th term of an AP is five times its third term. If its 10th term is 41, then find the sum of its first fifteen terms.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-53

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-54

Q.28. A bus travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 75 km and then travels a distance of 90 km at an average speed of 10 km/h more than the first speed. If it takes 3 hours to complete the total journey, find its first speed.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-55

Q.29. Prove that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the I point of contact.

Answer. Given : Let circle be with centre O and P be a point outside circle PQ and PR are two tangents to circle intersecting at point Q and R respectively

To Prove : Lengths of tangents are equal i.e. PQ = PR

Construction: Join OQ, OR and OP

Proof: As PQ is a tangent OQ⊥PQ [Tangent at any point of circle is perpendicular to the radius through point of contact]

So, ∠OQP = 90°

Hence ΔOQP is right triangle

Q.30. Construct a right triangle ABC with AB = 6 cm, BC = 8 cm and ∠B = 90°. Draw BD, the perpendicular from B on AC. Draw the circle through B, C and D and construct the tangents from A to this circle.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-delhi-2014-16

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-delhi-2014-17

Q.31. Find the values of k so that the area of the triangle with vertices (k + 1, 1), (4, -3) and (7, -k) is 6 sq. units.

Answer.A(k + 1, 1), B(4, -3) and C(7, -k)

Area of ΔABC = ½ [x₁ (y₂ – y₃) + x₂ (y₃ – y₁) + x₃ (y₁ – y₂)]

6 = ½ [(k+1)(-3 + k) + 4(-k-1) + 7(1+3)]

12 = [-3k + k² -3 + k-4k-4 + 28]

12 = [ k² -6k + 21]

⇒ k² -6k + 21-12 ⇒ k² -6k + 9

⇒ k² -3k -3k + 9 ⇒ k(k-3)-3(k-3) = 0

⇒ k-3 = 0 ⇒ k-3 = 0

⇒ k = 3 ⇒ k = 3

Solving get k = 3

SET III

Q.10. Solve the following quadratic equation for x: x² – 2ax – (4b² – a²) = 0

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-58

Q.18. The 13th term of an AP is four times its 3rd term. If its fifth term is 16, then find the sum of its first ten terms.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-59

Q.19. Find the coordinates of a point P on the line segment joining A(1, 2) and B(6, 7) such that AP=2/5 AB.

Answer.

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Q.20. A bag contains, white, black and red balls only. A ball is drawn at random from the bag. If the probability of getting a white ball is 3/10 and that of a black ball is 2/5, then find the probability of getting a red ball. If the bag contains 20 black balls, then find the total number of balls in the bag.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-62

Q.28. A truck covers a distance of 150 km at a certain average speed and then covers another 200 km at an average speed which is 20 km per hour more than the first speed. If the truck covers the total distance in 5 hours, find the first speed of the truck.

Answer.

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Q .29. Arithmetic Progressions, 12,19,… has 50 terms. Find its last term. Hence find the sum of its last 15 terms.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-65

Q.30. Construct a triangle ABC in which AB = 5 cm, BC = 6 cm and ∠ABC = 60°. Now construct another triangle whose sides are 5/7 times the corresponding sides of ∆ABC.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2011-21

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Q.31. Find the values of k for which the points A(k + 1, 2k), B(3k, 2k + 3) and C(5k – 1, 5k) are collinear.

Answer.

Maths 10th Previous Year Question Paper 2016 (CBSE)

Maths

SET-I

Section – A

Q.1. In Fig. 1, PQ is a tangent at a point C to a circle with centre O. If AB is a diameter and ∠CAB = 30°. Find ∠PCA.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-1

Answer.

∠ACB = 90° …………..[Angle in the semi-circle

In ΔABC, ∠CAB + ∠ACB + ∠CBA = 180°

30° + 90° + ∠CBA = 180°

∠CBA = 180° – 30° – 90° = 60° [Angle-sum-property of a Δ]

∠PCA = ∠CBA ………….[Angle in the alternate Segment]

∴ ∠PCA = 60°

Q. 2. For what value of k will k + 9, 2k – 1 and 2k + 7 are the consecutive terms of an A.P.?

Answer. As we know, a₂ – a₁ = a₃ -a₂

2k -1-(k+9) = 2k +7 – (2k -1)

2k -1- k – 9 = 2k +7 – 2k + 1

k – 10 = 8

∴ k = 8 + 10 = 18

Q 3. A ladder, leaning against a wall, makes an angle of 60° with the horizontal. If the foot of the ladder is 2.5 m away from the wall, find the length of the ladder.

Answer.

Let AC be the ladder

Cos60° = AB/AC

½ = 2.5/AC

∴ Length of ladder, AC = 5cm

Q. 4. A card is drawn at random from a well shuffled pack of 52 playing cards. Find the probability of getting neither a red card nor a queen.

Answer.

S = 52

P (neither a red card nor a queen)

= 1 – P(red card or a queen)

= 1- [(26+4-2)/52] [red cards = 26, Queen = 4, Red queen = 2]

= 1 – 28/52 = 24/52 = 6/13

Section-B

Q. 5. If -5 is a root of the quadratic equation 2×2+ px – 15 = 0 and the quadratic equation p(x2 + x) + k = 0 has equal roots, find the value of k.

Answer. 2x² + px – 15 = 0

Since (-5) is a root of the given equation

∴ 2(-5)² + p(-5) – 15 = 0

= 2(25) – 5p – 15 = 0

= 50 – 15 = 5p

= 35 = 5p

= p = 7 ——(i)

p(x²+x) + k ⇨ px² + px + k = 0

Here, a = p, b = p, c = k

D = 0 (Roots are equal)

b² – 4ac = 0 , (p)² – 4(p)k = 0

(7)² – 4(7)k = 0

49 – 28k = 0

∴ k = 49/28 = 7/4

Q. 6. Let P and Q be the points of trisection of the line segment joining the points A (2, -2) and B (-7, 4) such that P is nearer to A. Find the coordinates of P and Q.

Answer.

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Q. 7. In Fig. 2, a quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle, with centre O, in such a way that the sides AB, BC, CD and DA touch the circle at the points P, Q, R and S respectively. Prove that: AB + CD = BC + DA.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-2

Answer.

AP = AS

BP = BQ

CR = CQ

DR = DS

[∴ Tangents drawn from an external point are equal in length]

By adding (i) to (iv)

(AP + BP) + (CR + DR) = AS + BQ + CQ + DS

AB + CD = (BQ + CQ) + (AS + DS)

∴ AB + CD = BC + AD (Hence Proved)

Q. 8. Prove that the points (3, 0), (6, 4) and (-1, 3) are the vertices of a right angled isosceles triangle.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-23

Q. 9. The 4th term of an A.P. is zero. Prove that the 25th term of the A.P. is three times its 11th term.

Answer. Let 1st term = a, Common difference = d

a₄ = 0 ⇒ a + 3d ⇒ a = -3d …………(i)

a₂₅ = a + 24d ⇒ -3d + 24d = 21d ….[From (i)

3(a₁₁) = 3(a + 10d) ⇒ 3(-3d + 10d) =21d ….[From (i)

From above, a₂₅ = 3(a₁₁) (Hence proved)

Q. 10. In Fig. 3, from an external point P, two tangents PT and PS are drawn to a circle with centre O and radius r. If OP = 2r, show that ∠OTS = ∠OST = 30°.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-3

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-26

Section – C

Q 11. In Fig. 4, O is the centre of a circle such that diameter AB = 13 cm and AC = 12 cm. BC is joined. Find the area of the shaded region. (Take π = 3.14)

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-4

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-27

Q 12. In Fig. 5, a tent is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a conical top of same diameter. If the height and diameter of cylindrical part are 2.1 m and 3 m respectively and the slant height of conical part is 2.8 m, find the cost of canvas needed to make the tent if the canvas is available at the rate of Rs 500/sq. metre. (Use π = 22/7 )

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-5

Answer.

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Q 13. If the point P(x, y) is equidistant from the points A (a + b,b – a) and B(a -b,a + b), prove that bx = ay.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-30

Q 14. In Fig. 6, find the area of the shaded region, enclosed between two concentric circles of radii 7 cm and 14 cm where ∠AOC = 40°. (Use π= 22/7 )

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-6

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-31

Q 15. If the ratio of the sum of first n terms of two A.P’s is (7n + 1) : (4n + 27), find the ratio of their mth terms.

Answer.

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Q 16. Solve for x:

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-7

Answer.

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Q 17. A conical vessel, with bash radius 5 cm and height 24 cm, is full of water. This water is emptied into a cylindrical vessel of base radius 10 cm. Find the height to which the water will rise in the cylindrical vessel. (Use π= 22/7)

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-35

Q 18. A sphere of diameter 12 cm, is dropped in a right circular cylindrical vessel, partly filled with water. If the sphere is completely submerged in water, the water level in the cylindrical vessel rises by 3 (5/9) cm. Find the diameter of the cylindrical vessel.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-36

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-37

Q 19. A man standing on the deck of a ship, which is 10 m above water level, observes the angle of elevation of the top of a hill as 60° and the angle of depression of the base of the hill as 30°. Find the distance of the hill from the ship and the height of the hill.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-38

Q 20. Three different coins are tossed together. Find the probability of getting (i) exactly two heads (ii) at least two heads (ii) at least two tails.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-39

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-40

Section – D

Q 21. Due to heavy floods in a State, thousands were rendered homeless. 50 schools collectively offered to the State Government to provide place and the canvas for 1,500 tents to be fixed by the Government and decided to share the whole expenditure equally. The lower part of each tent is cylindrical of base radius 2.8 m and height 3.5 m, with conical upper part of same base radius but of height 2.1 m. If the canvas used to make the tents costs Rs 120 per sq. m, find the amount shared by each school to set up the tents. What value is generated by the above problem? (Use π= 22/7)

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-41

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-42

Q 22. Prove that the lengths of the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.

Answer. Given : Let circle be with centre O and P be a point outside circle PQ and PR are two tangents to circle intersecting at point Q and R respectively

To Prove : Lengths of tangents are equal i.e. PQ = PR

Construction: Join OQ, OR and OP

Proof: As PQ is a tangent OQ⊥PQ [Tangent at any point of circle is perpendicular to the radius through point of contact]

So, ∠OQP = 90°

Hence ΔOQP is right triangle

Q. 23. Draw a circle of radius 4 cm. Draw two tangents to the circle inclined at an angle of 60° to each other.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2013-16

Q 24. In Fig. 7, two equal circles, with centres O and O’, touch each other at X. OO’ produced meets the circle with centre O’ at A. AC is tangent to the circle with centre O, at the point C. O’D is perpendicular to AC. Find the value of DO’/CO.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-8

Answer. Given: two equal circles, with centres O and O’, touch each other at point X. OO’ is produced to meet the circle with centre O’ at A. AC is tangent to the circle with centre O, at the point C. O’D is perpendicular to AC.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-43

Q 25. Solve for x:

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-9

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-44

Q 26. The angle of elevation of the top Q of a vertical tower PQ from a point X on the ground is 60°. From a point Y, 40 m vertically above X, the angle of elevation of the top Q of tower is 45°. Find the height of the tower PQ and the distance PX. (Use √3= 1.73)

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-45

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-46

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-47

Q 27. The houses in a row are numbered consecutively from 1 to 49. Show that there exists a value of X such that sum of numbers of houses preceding the house numbered X is equal to sum of the numbers of houses following X.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-48

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-49

Q 28. In Fig. 8, the vertices of ∆ABC are A(4, 6), B(l, 5) and C(7, 2). A line segment DE is drawn to intersect the sides AB and AC at D and E respectively such that AD/AB= AE/AC= 1/3 .Calculate the area of ∆ADE and Calculate the area compare it with area of ∆ABC.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-10

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-50

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-51

Q 29. A number x is selected at random from the numbers 1, 2, 3 and 4. Another number y is selected at random from the numbers 1, 4, 9 and 16. Find the probability that the product of x and y is less than 16.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-52

Q 30. In Fig. 9, is shown a sector OAP of a circle with centre O, containing ∠θ. AB is perpendicular to the radius OA and meets OP produced at B. Prove that the perimeter of shaded region is r :

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-11

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-12

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-53

Q 31. A motor boat whose speed is 24 km/h in still water takes 1 hr more to go 32 km upstream than to return downstream to the same spot. Find the speed of the stream.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-54

SET II

Q 10.Solve for x:

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-13

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-55

Q 18. The digits of a positive number of three digits are in A.P. and their sum is 15. The number obtained by reversing the digits is 594 less than the original number. Find the number.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-56

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-57

Q 19. If the roots of the quadratic equation (a – b)x² + (b – c)x + (c – a) = 0 are equal, prove that 2a = b + c.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-58

Q 20. From a pack of 52 playing cards, Jacks, Queens and Kings of red colour are removed. From the remaining, a card is drawn at random. Find the probability that drawn card is: (i) a black King (ii) a card of red colour (iii) a card of black colour

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-59

Q 28. Draw an isosceles ∆ABC in which BC = 5.5 cm and altitude AL = 3 cm. Then construct another triangle whose sides are 3/4 of the corresponding sides of ∆ABC.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-60

Q 29. Prove that the tangent drawn at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.

Answer. Given: XY is a tangent at point P to the circle with centre O.

To prove: OP⏊XY

Construction: Take a point Q on XY other than P and join OQ.

Proof: If point Q lies inside the circle, then XY will become a secant and not a tangent to the circle.

∴ OQ > OP

This happen with every point on the line XY except the point P.

OP is the shortest of all the distances of the point O to the points of XY

∴ OP⏊XY

Q 30. As observed from the top of a lighthouse, 100 m high above sea level, the angles of depression of a ship, sailing directly towards it, changes from 30° to 60°. Find the distance travelled by the ship during the period of observation. (Use √3 = 1.73)

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-61

Q 31. A rectangular park is to be designed whose breadth is 3 m less than its length. Its area is to be 4 square metres more than the area of a park that has already been made in the shape of an isosceles triangle with its base as the breadth of the rectangular park and of altitude 12 m. Find the length and breadth of the rectangular park.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-62

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-63

SET III

Q 10. Solve for x:

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-14

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-64

Q 18. There are 100 cards in a bag on which numbers from 1 to 100 are written. A card is taken out from the bag at random. Find the probability that the number on the selected card (i) is divisible by 9 and is a perfect square (ii) is a prime number greater than 80.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-65

Q 19. Three consecutive natural numbers are such that the square of the middle number exceeds the difference of the squares of the other two by 60. Find the numbers.

Answer. Let three consecutive natural numbers are x, x+1,x+2

According to the question, (x+1)² -[(x+2)² –x² ] = 60

⇒ x²+1+2x -[x²+4+4x –x² ] = 60

⇒ x²+ 1 + 2x – x²– 4 – 4x + x² = 60

⇒ x²– 2x – 63 = 0

⇒ x²– 9x +7x – 63 = 0

⇒ x(x –9) + 7(x – 9) = 0

⇒ (x –9)(x + 7) = 0

⇒ x –9 = 0 , x = 9

⇒ x + 7 = 0 , x = -7

Natural No’s can not be -ve, ∴ x = 9

∴ Numbers are 9, 10, 11

Q 20. The sums of first n terms of three arithmetic progressions are S₁, S₂ and S₃ respectively. The first term of each A.P. is 1 and their common differences are 1, 2 and 3 respectively. Prove that S₁+ S₃ = 2S₂.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-67

Q 28. Two pipes running together can fill a tank in 11 (1/9) minutes. If one pipe takes 5 minutes more than the other to fill the tank separately, find the time in which each pipe would fill the tank separately.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-68

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-69

Q 29. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is observed to be 60°. From a point 40 m vertically above the first point of observation, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is 30°. Find the height of the tower and its horizontal distance from the point of observation.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-70

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-71

Q 30. Draw a triangle with sides 5 cm, 6 cm and 7 cm. Then draw another triangle whose sides are 4/5 of the corresponding sides of first triangle.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-maths-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-72

Q 31. A number x is selected at random from the numbers 1, 4, 9, 16 and another number y is selected at random from the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4. Find the probability that the value of xy is more than 16.

Answer. x can be any one of 1,4,9, or 16, i.e. 4 ways y can be any one of 1,2,3 or 4 ways

Total number of cases of xy = 4×4 = 16 ways

Number of cases, where product is more than 16

(9,2)(9,3)(9,4)(16,2)(16,3)(16,4) i.e. 6 ways

9×2 = 18 9×3 = 27

9×4 = 36 16×2 = 32

16×3 = 48 16×4 = 64

{18,27,36,32,48,64}

∴ Required Probability = 6/16 = 3/8

CDS(I) Exam 2016 English Previous Year Paper

CDS(I) 2016 English

SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT

Directions for the following 20 (twenty) items :

Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No improvement” response will be signified by the letter (d).

Q 1. The police accused him for theft.

(a) with

(b) in

(d) No improvement

Q 2. He wanted that I left immediately.

(a) I may leave

(b) me to leave

(d) No improvement

Q 3. This is to certify that I know Mr. J. Mathews since 1970.

(a) am knowing

(b) had known

(d) No improvement

Q 4. They took away everything that belonged to him.

(a) that had been belonging

(b) that belong

(d) No improvement

Q 5. It was the mother of the girl of whose voice I had recognised.

(a) whose voice

(b) the voice of who

(d) No improvement

Q 6. The Executive Council is consisted of ten members

(a) consists of

(b) comprises of

(d) No improvement.

Q 7.The maid was laying the table for dinner.

(a) setting up

(b) lying

(d) No improvement

Q 8. We have so arranged the matters and one of us is always on duty.

(a) that one of us

(b) so that one of us

(d) No improvement

Q 9. Hardly have we got into the forest when it began to rain.

(a) Hardly we got

(b) We had hardly got

(d) No improvement

Q 10. Each time he felt tired he lied down.

(a) lies

(b) lays

(d) No improvement

Q 11. Though it was raining, but I went out.

(a) but yet I

(b) 1

(d) No improvement

Q 12. There is no chance of success unless you do not work hard.

(a) unless you work

(b) until your working

(d) No improvement

Q 13. She has grown too old to do little work.

(a) some

(b) any

(d) No improvement

Q 14. No one enjoys to deceive his family.

(a) deceiving

(b) for deceiving

(d) No improvement

Q 15. Have you ever saw the flower of a pumpkin plant?

(a) see

(b) seeing

(d) No improvement

Q 16. It is an ancient, historical place and it once belongs to the Pandavas.

(a) belonged

(b) belonging

(d) No improvement

Q 17. Since we were knowing the correct route, we did not worry at all.

(a) knew

(b) have known

(d) No improvement

Q 18. Our country can progress when only people work hard.

(a) when people only work hard

(b) when people work hard only

(d) No improvement

Q 19. Wake me up when father will come.

(a) comes

(b) will have come

(d) No improvement

Q 20. Do take an umbrella with you lest you do not get wet.

(a) lest you should get wet

(b) lest you should not get wet

(d) No improvement

ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

Directions for the following 15 (fifteen) items :

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Q 21. that it would affect the investigation process (P) / they refused (Q)/ of these raids saying (R)/ to divulge the venues(S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) PQRS

(b) SRPQ

(d) RPQS

Q 22. that he already has (P) / buying things (Q) / that rich man (R) / goes on (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) PSQR

(b) RSQP

(d) RPQS

Q 23. the police commissioner rushed (P) / the crowd (Q) / to control (R) / the police force (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) QRSP

(b) PQRS

(d) RSPQ

Q 24. my brother (P) / to attend his friend’s wedding (Q) / is going to Chennai (R) / tomorrow (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) PSQR

(b) QPSR

(d) PRSQ

Q 25. quickly (P) / he gave orders (Q) / to catch the thief (R) / to his men (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) SPRQ

(b) QSRP

(d) RSPP

Q 26. to give a definition(P) / if I were (Q) / I would begin (R) / like this (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) QPRS

(b) PQRS

(d) RSPQ

Q 27. deserve all honour in society (P) / in doing their job well (Q) / men of conscience who take pride (R) / whatever its nature (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) RQSP

(b) QRPS

(d) SPQR

Q 28. while some live (P) / to eat and drink (Q) / many do not have enough (R) / in luxury (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) PSRQ

(b) PRSQ

(d) RISP

Q 29. I believed then / that no matter (P) / one should always find some time for exercise (Q) / and I believe even now (R) / the amount of work one has (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) PROS

(b) PSRQ

(d) RPSQ

Q 30. I wonder (P) / whenever I decide to go to the cinema (Q) / with my scooter (R) / why I always have trouble (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) QSPR

(b) QRSP

(d) PRSO

Q 31. The bird-catcher / by means of snares (P) / knew all the birds of the forest (Q) / by the hundred (R) / and was accustomed to capturing the winged creatures (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) QPSR

(b) QSRP

(d) PROS

Q 32. Man is / a biological being (P) / his physical and material needs (Q) / confined to (R) / not merely

The proper sequence should be

(a) RSPQ

(b) SRP

(d) SPRQ

Q 33. A gang of robbers / while they were fast asleep (P) / entered the village (Q) / and stole the property of the villagers (R) / at night (S)

The proper sequence should be

(a) QSRP

(b) SQPR

(d) QPSR

Q 34. The opposition members (P) / the ruling of the Speaker (Q) / to protest against (R) /of the Parliament. (S) / walked out

The proper sequence should be

(a) SPQR

(b) QRPS

(d) SRQP

Q 35. When / (P) / a boy saved her (P) / by a speeding car (R) / at the risk of his life (S) /a little girl was about to be run over

The proper sequence should be

(a) SPRO

(b) RSQP

(d) QPSR

ORDERING OF SENTENCES

Directions for the following 10 (ten) items :

In the following items each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentence are given in the beginning as Sl and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

Q 36. S1 : Once upon a time there was a king who had a wonderfully nice garden.

S6: In the trees lived a nightingale that sang so sweetly that all who passed by stood still and listened.

P : In the middle of the garden there was a lovely forest with tall trees and deep lakes.

Q : In this garden were to be seen the most wonderful flowers with silver bells tied to them.

R: The garden was so large that even the gardener himself did not know where it began and where it ended.

S: These bells always sounded so that nobody should pass by without noticing the flowers.

The proper sequence should be

(a) QPRS

(b) SPQR

(d) QPSR

Q 37. S1 : One of the first things the learning of a new language teaches you is that language comes from the region of the unconscious.

S6: The test of how much you know is : how much can you say without having to think how you are going . : to say it ?

P: What is often meant by “thinking in a language” is really the ability to use it without thinking about it.

Q: We grown-up people have to filter it through our minds – a much more laborious process.

R: That is why children learn a new language so effortlessly: it comes straight from their instincts.

S : But we cannot say that we know a language, or know what we have studied of it, until we can use it instinctively.

The proper sequence should be

(a) SQRP

(b) RPSQ

(d) RQSP

Q 38. S1 : For seventeen years she led a sheltered life in the convent.

S6: Two years later she left the Loreto Convent where she had spent many happy and useful years.

P: Her heart went out to the people living there.

Q : In 1946 she asked for permission to work in the slums.

R: Then one day, while she was returning from an errand, she saw the slums of Calcutta.

S : She felt she had found her second vocation, her real calling.

The proper sequence should be

(a) PRSQ

(b) RPSQ

(d) QRPS

Q 39. SI : Good memory is so common that we regard a man who does not possess it as eccentric.

S6: She wheeled away the perambu lator, picturing to herself his terror when he would come out and find the baby gone.

P:I have heard of a father who, having offered to take the baby out in a perambulator, was tempted by the sunny morning to pause on his journey and slip into a public house for a glass of beer.

Q: A little later, his wife had to do some shopping which took her past the public house where to her horror, she discovered her sleeping baby.

R: Leaving the perambulator outside, he disappeared into the drink shop.

S : Indignant at her husband’s behaviour, she decided to teach him a lesson.

The proper sequence should be

(a) PQRS

(b) PRQS

(d) PQSR

Q 40. Sl : Human ways of life have steadily changed.

S6: Even if we try to do nothing, we cannot prevent change.

P: Ancient Egypt – Greece – the Roman Empire – the Dark Ages and the Middle Ages – the Renaissance – the age of modern science and of modern nations one has succeeded the other; the history has never stood still.

Q : About ten thousand years ago, man I lived entirely by hunting

R: A settled civilized life only began when agriculture was discovered.

S : From that time to this, civilization has always been changing.

The proper sequence should be

(a) QRSP

(b) QPSR

(d) PRSQ

Q 41. Sl : In our youth we are apt to think that applause and publicity constitute success.

S6: So let us be initiated into the mysteries of maturity and be taught how to resist and spurn the lure of hollow shows.

P : The man who values the applause more than his own effort has not outgrown his youth.

Q : It is our achievement or work which wins lasting rewards.

R : But these are only the trappings, the ephemeral illusions.

S : One should concentrate on one’s work knowing that applause will come unsought.

The proper sequence should be

(a) SRQP

(b) PSRQ

(d) RQPS

Q 42. S1: My office sent an urgent email asking me to return.

S6: It was evening before I could sit and write to my parents that I would be joining them soon.

P: I immediately replied requesting a few days of grace as I had to book the return passage, pack and attend sundry matters before winding up my establishment here.

Q : On the way, I went to the laundry and made sure I would get my clothes in time.

R : Then I rushed to the bank, collected all my money and made reserva tions for my return journey.

S : From the shop next to it, I bought a couple of trunks to dump my books and other odd articles so that I could send them away in advance.

The proper sequence should be

(a) PQRS

(b) PRQS

(d) PSRQ

Q 43. S1: Wordsworth knew the behaviour of owls in the night better than most of us know the ways of black birds in day time.

S6: His great poetry owes much to the night.

P : Out of school there were no restrictions on the hours he kept.

Q : No poet ever had happier school days.

R : He would skate by the light of the stars, snare woodcocks at dead of night, watch the sunrise after a long ramble.

S: Throughout life he was an inveterate walker by night.

The proper sequence should be

(a) Q P R S

(b) P SQR

(d) SQPR

Q 44. Sl : Science has already conferred an immense boon on mankind by the growth of medicine.

S6: The general death rate in 1948 (10.8) was the lowest ever recorded up to that date.

P : It has continued ever since and is still continuing

Q : In the eighteenth century people expected most of their children to die before they were grown up.

R : In 1920 the infant mortality rate in England and Wales was 80 per thousand; in 1948 it was 34 per thousand.

S : Improvement began at the start of the nineteenth century, chiefly owing to vaccination.

The proper sequence should be

(a) PQRS

(b) RPQS

(d) PRQS

Q 45. SI : The young traveller gazed out into the dismal country with a face of mingled repulsion and interest.

S6: He quickly restored it to his secret pocket.

P: At intervals he drew from his pocket a bulky letter to which he referred, and on the margins of which he scribbled some notes.

R : From the back of his waist he produced something which one would hardly have expected to find in the possession of so mild mannered a man.

Q : It was a navy revolver of the largest size.

S : As he turned it slantwise to the light, the glint upon the rims of the copper shells within the drum showed that it was fully loaded.

The proper sequence should be

(a) RPQS

(b) QSPR

(d) PQSR

FILL IN THE BLANK

Directions for the following 10 (ten) items :

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words are given after each sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q 46. The mounting pressure was so over whelming that he ultimately to her _________ wish.

(a) yielded in

(b) gave in

(d) agreed in

Q 47. Authority _________ when it is not supported by the moral purity of its user.

(a) prevails

(b) entails

(d) waits

Q 48. In a developing country like India some industries will have to be brought within public_________ and control, for other wise rapid growth of the economy may be impossible.

(a) perspective

(b) hegemony

(d) ownership

Q 49. Gandhiji conceived of the idea of channelizing the powerful currents of the united mass movement so as to give the utmost impetus to the national for independence.

(a) struggle

(b) conflict

(d) march

Q 50. Because of his _________habits, he could not save much money.

(a) extravagant

(b) frugal

(d) bad

Q 51. Socrates was _________ of spreading discontent among young men of Athens and of trying to destroy their faith in the old gods.

(a) rebuked

(b) disparaged

(d) demonised

Q 52. The robbers fell _________ amongst themselves over the sharing of the loot.

(a) out

(b) through

(d) across

Q 54. Speeding and blocking are traffic offences which lead to _________ accidents.

(a) troublesome

(b) final

(d) gruesome

Q 53. A really sophisticated person would never be _________ enough to think that he is always right.

(a) reverent

(b) naive

(d) humble

Q 55. Creative people are often _________ with their own uniqueness.

(a) obsessed

(b) deranged

(d) dissatisfied

SELECTING WORDS

Directions for the following 20 (twenty) items :

In the following passage at certain points you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage. Choose the best word out of the three. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word on your Answer Sheet. Examples K and L have been solved for you.

The K was in the school in Simla. L was home sick.

K. (a) boy (b) horse (c) dog

L. (a) She (b) It (c) He

Explanation : Out of the list given in item K, only, ‘boy’ is the correct answer because usually, a boy, and not a horse or a dog, attends school. So ‘(a)’ is to be marked on the Answer Sheet for item K. A boy is usually referred to as “he’, so for item L, (c)’ is the correct answer. Notice that to solve the first item K you have to read the rest of the sentence and then see what fits best.

I was engaged in many activities and I wanted a proper reconciliation between my activity and thought. Thought without (56) is undeveloped thought. Action action without (57) is folly. Of course we (58) act on some impulse or (59) urge. If suddenly you throw (60) no brick at me and my (61) goes up in front to (62) myself, it is an automatic, (63) action and not a result (64) deliberate thought. Our living is (65) by a series of automatic (66) from morning till night. Anything (67) do outside that common range of (68) however, has to be (69) by some measure of thinking. (70) more action and thought are (71) and integrated, the more effective (72) become and the happier you (73). There will then be no (74) between a wish to do something and (75) to act.

Q 56. (a) wish (b) action (c) idea

Q 57. (a) thought (b) wish (c) idea

Q 58. (a) never (b) belatedly (c) sometimes

Q 59. (a) peaceful (b) uncontrollable (c) indisputable

Q 60. (a) no (b) an (c) a

Q 61. (a) hand (b) wrist (c) finger

Q 62. (a)stimulate myself it is an automatic (b)rescue (c)protect

Q 63. (a)uncontrollable action (b) instinctive(c)impulsive

Q 64. (a)to deliberate thought our living is (b) in (c)of

Q 65. (a)made by a series (b)conditioned (c)developed

Q 66. (a)thoughts from morning till night anything (b)actions (c)wishes

Q 67. (a)we do outside that (b) I (c) they

Q 68. (a)thoughts however has to be (b)ideas (c)actions

Q 69. (a)proceeded by some measure (b) preceded (c)followed

Q 70. (a)some more action and thought are (b) If (c) The

Q 71. (a)developed and integrated the (b) allied (c) hostile

Q 72. (a) they become and the happier you (b)thoughts (c)we

Q 73. (a)appear There will then (b) develop (c)grow

Q 74. (a) reconciliation become and the happier you (b) conflict (c)inflict

Q 75. (a)inability to act (b) probability (c)plausibility

SPOTTING ERRORS

Directions for the following 15 (fifteen) items :

Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q 76. (a) This hardly won freedom /(b) should not be lost /(c) so soon/(d) No error.

Q 77.(a) I tried to meet the person /(b) whom you said /(c) was looking for me /(d) No error.

Q 78.(a) We looked after the thief, /(b) but he was nowhere /(c) to be found /(d) No error.

Q 79. (a) I hoped that the train /(b) will arrive on time, /(c) but it did not. /(d) No error.

Q 80.(a) Their all belongings /(b) were lost /(c)in the fire. /(d)No error.

Q 81.(a)He was in the temper /(b) and refused /(c)to discuss the matter again. /(d) No error.

Q 82.(a) The decorations in your house /(b)are similar /(c) to his house./(d) No error.

Q 83.(a) Despite of the increase in air fares, /(b) most people still prefer /(c) to travel by plane./(d) No error.

Q 84 .(a) He told the boys that /(b) bif they worked hard, /(c)they will surely passs. /(d) Noerror.

Q 85. (a) I shall write /(b) to you /(c) when I shall reach Chennai./(d)No error.

Q 86. (a) Neither of these two documents /(b)support your claim /(c)on the property./(d) No error.

Q 87.(a) He is school teacher, /(b)but all his sons /(c) are doctors. /(d)No error.

Q 88.(a) His grandfather /(b)had told to smoke /(c) was a bad habit. /(d) No error.

Q 89.(a) My book, which /(b)I gave it to you yesterday,/(c)is very interesting./(d) Noerror.

Q 90.(a) I am entirely agreeing with you, /(b)but I regret ,/(c) I can’t help you. /(d)No error.

COMPREHENSION

Directions for the 21 (twenty one) items which follow :

In this section you have six short passages. After each passage, you will find some questions based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

Passage 1

To avoid the various foolish opinions to which mankind is prone, no superhuman brain is required. A few simple rules will keep you, not from all errors, but from silly errors.

If the matter is one that can be settled by observation, make the observation yourself. Aristotle could have avoided the mistake of thinking that women have fewer teeth than men, by the simple device of asking Mrs. Aristotle to keep her mouth open while he counted. Thinking that you know, when in fact you do not, is a bad mistake to which we are all prone. I believe myself that hedgehogs eat black beetles, because I have been told that they do; but if I were writing a book on the habits of hedgehogs, I should not commit myself until I had seen one enjoying this diet. Aristotle, however, was less cautious. Ancient and medieval writers knew all about unicorns and salamanders; not one of them thought it necessary to avoid dogmatic statements about them because he had never seen one of them.

Q 91. The writer believes that

(a) most people could avoid making foolish mistakes if they were clever

(b) through observation we could avoid making many mistakes

(d) All errors are caused by our own error in thinking

Q 92. With reference to the passage, which one of the following is the correct statement ?

(a) Aristotle was able to avoid the mistake of thinking that women have fewer teeth than men

(b) Aristotle thought women have fewer teeth than men

(d) Aristotle may have thought that women have fewer teeth because he never had a wife

Q 93. The writer says that if he was writing a book on hedgehogs

(a) he would maintain that they eat black beetles because he had been told so

(b) he would first observe their eating habits

(d) he would make the statement that they ate black beetles and later verify it

Q 94. The writer is of the opinion that

(a) unicorns and salamanders were observed by ancient and medieval writers but were unknown to modern writers

(b) ancient and medieval writers wrote authoritatively about unicorns and salamanders though they had never seen them

(d) only those who had observed the habits of unicorns and salamanders wrote about them

Q 95. A ‘dogmatic statement’ in the context means a statement which is

(a) convincing

(b) proved

(d) doubtful

Passage 2

Since I had nothing better to do, I decided to go to the market to buy a few handkerchiefs, the old ones had done vanishing trick. On the way I met an old friend of mine and I took him to a nearby restaurant for tea and snacks. Afterwards I went to the shop and selected a dozen handkerchiefs. I pulled out my purse to make the payment, and discovered that it was empty; I then realized that it was not my purse, it was a different purse altogether. How that happened is still a source of wonder to me and I refuse to believe that it was the work of my good old friend, for it was his purse that I held in my hand.

Q 96. The man could not buy the handkerchiefs because

(a) he did not like the handkerchiefs

(b) his friend did not allow him to buy them

(d) he had no money in the purse

Q 97. When he tried to take out the purse, he discovered that

(a) it was not there

(b) it was lost

(d) it was his friend’s purse

Passage 3

A profound terror, increased still by the darkness, the silence and his waking images, froze his heart within him. He almost felt his hair stand on end, when by straining his eyes to their utmost, he perceived through the shadows two faint yellow lights. At first he attributed these lights to the reflection of his own pupils, but soon the vivid brilliance of the night aided him gradually to distinguish the objects around him in the cave, and he beheld a huge animal lying but two steps from him.

Q 98. The opening of the passage suggests that

(a) darkness, silence and waking images added to his already being in pro found terror

(b) a profound terror increased the waking images in his frozen heart

(d) a profound terror was caused in him by the silence and darkness of the night

Q 99. When he perceived through the shadows two faint lights,

(a) he experienced a great strain

(b) he felt his hair stand upright

(d) his pupils dilated

Q 100. The person in the story the person was frightened by darkness and silence

(a) imagined that he saw an animal

(b) could not recognize the animal

(d) expected to see the animal

Passage 4

We are tempted to assume that technological progress is real progress and that material success is the criterion of civilization. If the Eastern people become fascinated by machines and techniques and use them, as Western nations do, to build huge industrial organizations and large military establishments, they will get involved in power politics and drift into the danger of death. Scientific and technological civilization brings great opportunities and great rewards but also great risks and temptations. Science and technology are neither good nor bad. They are not to be tabooed but tamed and assigned their proper place. They become dangerous only if they become idols.

Q 101. According to the author, people think that real progress lies in

(a) material success and technological growth

(b) imitating Western nations

(d) taking risks and facing temptations

Q 102. According to the author, science and technology should be

(a) tabooed and eliminated from life

(b) used in a controlled and careful manner

(d) made compulsory in education

Q 103. From the passage one gathers that the Eastern people must

(a) appreciate scientific achievements

(b) build huge industrial organizations

(d) be fascinated by machines

Q 104. According to the author, science and technology are

(a) totally harmless

(b) extremely dangerous

(d) useful, if they are not worshipped blindly

Passage 5

It is not luck but labour that makes men. Luck, says an American writer, is ever waiting for something to turn up; labour with keen eyes and strong will always turns up something. Luck lies in bed and wishes the postman would bring him news of a legacy; labour turns out at six and with busy pen and ringing hammer lays the foundation of competence. Luck whines, labour watches. Luck relies on chance; labour on character. Luck slips downwards to self-indulgence; labour strides upwards and aspires to independence. The conviction, therefore, is extending that diligence is the mother of good luck; in other words, that a man’s success in life will be proportionate to his efforts, to his industry, to his attention to small things.

Q 105. Which one of the following statements sums up the meaning of the passage ?

(a) Luck waits without exertion but labour exerts without waiting

(b) Luck waits and complains without working while labour achieves success although it complains

(d) Luck is self-indulgent but labour is selfless

Q 106. Which one of the following statements is true about the passage ?

(a) Luck is necessary for success

(b) Success depends on hard work and attention to details

(d) Success is exactly proportionate to hard work only

Q 107.“ ___________labour turns out at six and with busy pen and ringing hammer lays the foundation of competence.” This statement means

(a) hard work of all kinds makes people efficient and skilled

(b) the labour lays the foundation of the building

(d) there is no worker who works so hard as the labourer who begins his day at six in the morning

Passage 6

The avowed purpose of the exact sciences is to establish complete intellectual control over experience in terms of precise rules which can be formally set out and empirically tested. Could that ideal be fully achieved, all truth and all error could henceforth be ascribed to an exact theory of the universe, while we who accept this theory would be relieved of any occasion for exercising our personal judgement. We should only have to follow the rules faithfully. Classical mechanics approaches this ideal so closely that it is often thought to have achieved it. But this leaves out of account the element of personal judgement involved in applying the formulae of mechanics to the facts of experience.

Q 108. The purpose of the exact sciences is to

(a) form opinions about our experience

(b) formulate principles which will help us to exercise our personal judgement

(d) make formal and testable rules which can help verify experience

Q 109. An exact theory of the universe is

(a) not desirable

(b) improbable

(d) yet to be made

Q 110. In exact sciences

(a) personal judgements are set aside in favour of a mechanical theory

(b) one does not find answers to all questions and problems

(d) one interprets the universe according to one’s wish

Q 111. Classical mechanics

(a) has formulated precise rules based on experience Cape

(b) has gained intellectual control over the world

(d) just falls short of achieving intel lectual control over experience

SYNONYMS

Directions for the following 9 (nine) items :

Each item in this section consists of a word in capital letters followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.

Q 112. AMBIGUOUS

(a) contrasting

(b) connivance

(d) wilful

Q 113. ELUCIDATE

(a) clarify

(b) calculate

(d) update

Q 114. MONOTONOUS

(a) dreary

(b) dreadful

(d) monologue

Q 115. KINDLE

(a) make fun of

(b) excite

(d) kind-hearted

Q 116. PALATIAL

(a) very clean

(b) very special

(d) magnificent

Q 117. TACTFUL

(a) diplomatic

(b) indifferent

(d) deceitful

Q 118. VORACIOUS

(a) very bad

(b) insatiable

(d) malicious

Q 119. STRICTURE

(a) strictness

(b) stinging

(d) censure

Q 120. OBEISANCE

(a) homage

(b) pilgrimage

(d) obligation

Author: Vidhyarthi Darpan

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