Science 10th Previous Year Question Paper 2015 (CBSE)

SCIENCE

SET I

Section – A

Q. 1. Write title number of covalent bonds in the molecule of ethane.

Answer.

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Q. 2. Name the life process of an organism that helps in the growth of its population.

Answer. Reproduction is the process that helps in the growth of population of an organism.

 

Q. 3. What will be the amount of energy available to the organisms of the 2nd trophic level of a food chain, if the energy available at the first trophic level is 10,000 joules?

Answer. According to 10% law, only 10% of energy entering a particular trophic level of organisms is available for transfer to the next higher trophic level.

If energy in the 1st trophic level is 10000 J.

Then, energy in 2nd trophic level = 10% of 10000 J = 10/100 x 10000 J = 1000 Joules

 

Q. 4. The absolute refractive indices of glass and water are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. If the speed of light is 2 x 108 m/s, calculate the speed of light in (i) vacuum, (ii) water.

Answer.

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Q. 5. List -two main causes of the pollution of water of the river Ganga. State how pollution and contamination of river water prove harmful for the health of the people of neighbouring areas.

Answer. Two main cause of the pollution of water of the river Ganga :

(i) Disposal of industrial effluents into tire river.

(ii) Human activities like bathing, washing, immersion of ashes; etc.

Pollution and contamination of river wafer has led to various harmful effects on health of people in neighbouring areas who use river water for domestic or drinking purposes. It has led to various types of water borne diseases such as typhoid or cholera. Also human and industrial activities have lead to contamination of marine life which can be hazardous for consumption.

 

Q. 6. What is biodiversity? What will happen if biodiversity of an area is not preserved? Mention one effect of it.

Answer. Biodiversity is the diversity of life in an area. It is the number and range of variety of species of life forms in an area.

The loss of biodiversity of an area will lead to the loss of ecological stability of the eco- system. It can result in environment disasters such as floods, forest fires, etc.

 

Q. 7. List two tests for experimentally distinguishing between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid and describe how these tests are performed.

Answer. Test-1—Litmus Test. Take 2 strips of blue litmus paper. Place a drop each of alcohol and carboxylic acid on these strips separately. The blue litmus paper turns red in the case of carboxylic acid and remains unaffected in the case of alcohol.

Test-2—Sodium hydrogen carbonate Test /Sodium carbonate Test. A pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate or sodium carbonate is added to both alcohol and a carboxylic acid separately. If brisk effervescence with the evolution of a colourless gas is observed, it ! indicates the presence of carboxylic acid whereas no effervescence is seen in case of an alcohol.

 

Q. 8. Draw the electron-dot structure for ethyne. A mixture of ethyne and oxygen is burnt for welding. In your opinion, why cannot we use a mixture of ethyne and air for this purpose?

Answer. In pure oxygen, ethyne undergoes complete combustion and high temperature suitable for welding is attained. Whereas air contains less percentage/amount of oxygen which results in incomplete combustion of ethyne and the temperature required for the welding is not attained. Hence we cannot use a mixture of ethyne and air for this purpose.

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Q. 9. Two elements ‘P’ and ‘Q’ belong to the same period of the modern periodic table and are in Group-1 and Group-2 respectively. Compare their following characteristics in tabular form:

(a) The number of electrons in their atoms

(b) The sizes of their atoms

(c) Their metallic characters

(d) Their tendencies to lose electrons

(e) The formula of their oxides

(f) The formula of their chlorides

Answer.

Characteristics P Q
(a) No. of electrons in their atoms Less than Q31119 More than P41220  (any one pair)
(b) Size of the atom Bigger Smaller
(c) Metallic character More metallic Less metallic
(d) Tendency to lose electrons More Less
(e) Formula of their oxides P2O QO
(f) Formula of their chlorides PCl QCl2

 

Q. 10. Taking the example of an element of atomic number 16, explain how the electronic configuration of the atom of an element relates to its position in the modern periodic table and how valency of an element is calculated on the basis of its atomic number.

Answer. Atomic number of the element = 16 Electronic configuration = K L M = 2, 8, 6

Since this element has 3 shells, the period number will be 3 as period number is equal to the number of shells that start filling up in it.

No. of valence electrons = 6

The group number will be 10 + 6 = 16

The valency of an element is determined by the number of valence electrons present in the outermost shell.

Valency of the element will be = 8 – valence electrons = 8-6 = 2

 

Q. 11. List six specific characteristics of sexual reproduction.

Answer. Characteristics of sexual reproduction are:

  1. In sexual reproduction, two parents are involved (male and female).
  2. The new organism produced is genetically different from both parents.
  3. During gamete formation meiosis occurs. After fertilisation all divisions are mitotic.
  4. Sexual reproduction helps in evolution.
  5. Fertilisation of gametes leads to zygote formation. This zygote grows and develops to form a new organism.
  6. Humans, fish, dogs, hens, cats, cows, horses, deer, rabbit, lions and tigers all reproduce by the method of sexual reproduction. Most of the flowering plants also reproduce by sexual reproduction.

 

Q. 12. What are chromosomes? Explain how in sexually reproducing organisms the number of chromosomes in the progeny is maintained.

Answer. Chromosomes are thread-like structures made up of DNA and proteins. They are found in the nucleus at the time of cell division.

During gamete formation meiosis occurs and the original number of chromosomes becomes half. Hence, when two gametes combine the zygote formed contains the full set of chromosomes and the original number of chromosomes gets restored in the progeny.

 

Q. 13. List four points of significance of reproductive health in a society. Name any two areas related to reproductive health which have improved over the past 50 years in our country.

Answer. The significance of reproductive health of society are:

  1. Regular medication and check-ups have led to development of reproductive health.Healthy mothers give birth to healthy children.
  2. Reproductive health should be maintained in order to prevent sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
  3. Family planning by using various contraceptives enables a couple to decide on the number of children they want to have and when to have them. If a couple has less number of children they can provide good food, clothes and education to each child. So a small family is a happy family.
  4.  Having fewer children also keeps the mother in good health. This will reduce the cases of maternal mortality as well as new born mortality.

Areas which have improved:

  1. Better family planning has led to reduction in family size and better economic stability.
  2. Decrease in STD cases due to more awareness and wider use of contraceptives.

 

Q. 14. Explain with an example for each, how the following provides evidences in favour of evolution in organisms: (a) Homologous organs (b) Analogous organs (c) Fossils

Answer.

(a) Homologous organs : Homologous organs are defined as the organs of different animals that are having a similar structure but differ in their functions. The structure of the two different animals resemble but the functions of their organs vary.

(b) Analogous organs : Analogous organs are defined as the organs of different animals that are having different structure but perform the same functions.

(c) Fossils : Fossils are the preserved remains, or traces of remains, of ancient organisms. Fossils are not the remains of the organism itself! They are rocks.

 

Q. 15. Explain the following:

(a) Speciation (b) Natural Selection

Answer. 

(a) Speciation : Speciation is a process within evolution that leads to the formation of new, distinct species that are reproductively isolated from one another.

Anagenesis, or ‘phyletic evolution’, occurs when evolution acts to create new species, which are distinct from their ancestors, along a single lineage, through gradual changes in physical or genetic traits. In this instance, there is no split in the phylogenetic tree. Conversely, ‘speciation’ or cladogenesis arises from a splitting event, where a parent species is split into two distinct species, often as the result of geographic isolation or another driving force involving the separation of populations.

(b) Natural Selection : Natural selection can be defined as the process through which species adapt to their environment in order to survive. Natural selection occurs when traits that predispose organisms to survive in an environment are passed from parents to their offspring.

  • Organisms that are unable to adapt to changes in the environment are unlikely to survive or reproduce.
  • Those that can adapt are much more likely not just to survive, but also to thrive and reproduce.
  • As offspring are born, they will have the advantageous genetic traits passed on from their parents.
  • As a result, the species will change over time.
  • Why? Because offspring will develop traits or characteristics that predispose them to do well in their natural environment.

 

Q. 16. If the image formed by a mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always erect and diminished, what type of mirror is it? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. Where and why do we generally use this type of mirror?

Answer. Convex mirror always forms an erect, virtual and diminished image for all positions of the object placed in front of it.

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Uses:

1. Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles to see the traffic at the rear side (or back side) because —

              (i) a convex mirror always produces an erect image of the object;

              (ii) the image formed in a convex mirror is highly diminished due to which a convex mirror gives a wide field of view.

2. Big convex mirrors are used as ‘shop security mirrors’. By installing a big convex mirror at a strategic point in the shop, the shop owner can keep an eye on the customer to look for thieves and shoplifters among them as convex mirrors always form a virtual, diminished and erect image.

 

Q. 17. What is meant by scattering of light? Use this phenomenon to explain why the clear sky appears blue or the sun appears reddish at sunrise.

Answer. Scattering of light is the phenomenon to throw light in various random directions. Light is scattered when it falls on various types of suspended particles in its path. The colour of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particles in the atmosphere.

— The larger particles of dust and water droplets present in the atmosphere scatter the light of longer wavelengths due to which the scattered light appears white.

— The extremely minute particles such as air molecules present in the atmosphere scatter mainly blue light present in the white sunlight.

Colour of the sky appears blue. The molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere have a size smaller than the wavelength of visible light. So these particles scatter more effectively the light rays of shorter wavelength at the blue end than light of longer wavelength at the red end. When the scattered blue light enters our eyes, it gives us the feeling of a blue sky.

Colour of the sun appears red at sunrise and sunset. The sun at sunrise and sunset is very near to the horizon, and near the horizon most of the blue light of shorter wave-lengths is scattered away by the particles in the atmosphere. Therefore, the light that reaches our eyes is of longer wavelengths that gives rise to the reddish appearance of the sun.

 

Q. 18. Differentiate between biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances with the help of one example each. List two changes in habit that people must adopt to dispose non- biodegradable waste, for saving the environment.

Answer. Difference between biodegradable substances and non-biodegradable substances. See Q. 2, 2011 (II Outside Delhi).

Habits for disposing non-biodegradable waste:

  1. Disposal of wastes after separating them into biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes in separate dustbins and treating wastes properly before dumping in landfills.
  2. Encourage the use of gunny bags, jute bags and paper bags in place of polythene/ plastic bags.
  3. Recycle the plastic and glass objects after use.

 

Q. 19. Both soap and detergent are some type of salts. What is the difference between them? Describe in brief the cleansing action of soap. Why do soaps not form lather in hard water? List two problems that arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps

Answer.

A soap is the sodium or potassium salt of a long chain carboxylic acid.

Example : C17H35 COO Na+              Sodium stearate

                   C15H31 COO Na+              Sodium palmitate

A detergent is ammonium or sulphonate salt of a long chain carboxylic acid.

Example : CH3 – (CH2)11 – C6H4 – SO3 Na+

                    CH3 – (CH2)10 – CH2 – SO4 Na+

Cleansing Action of Soaps :Most of the dirt is oily in nature and oil does not dissolve in water. The molecule of soap constitutes sodium or potassium salts of long-chain carboxylic acids. In the case of soaps, the carbon chain dissolves in oil and the ionic end dissolves in water. Thus, the soap molecules form structures called micelles. In micelles, one end is towards the oil droplet and the other end which is the ionic faces outside. Therefore, it forms an emulsion in water and helps in dissolving the dirt when we wash our clothes.

Soap is a kind of molecule in which both the ends have different properties.

  • Hydrophilic end
  • Hydrophobic end

The first one is the hydrophilic end which dissolves water and is attracted to it whereas the second one is the hydrophobic end that is dissolved in hydrocarbons and is water repulsive in nature. If on the surface of the water, soap is present then the hydrophobic tail which is not soluble in water will align along the water surface.

Soaps don’t form lather in hard water

Soap is sodium or potassium salt of certain long chain fatty acids such as stearic acid, palmitic acid, oleic acid etc. When hard water is treated with soap solution, Ca2+and Mg2+ ions present in hard water react with the anions of fatty acids present in the soap to form a scum (curdy white precipitate).

Ca2+(aq) + 2C17H35COO(aq)   →  (C17H35COO)2 Ca ↓

Mg2+(aq) + 2C17H35COO(aq)   →  (C17H35COO)2 Mg ↓

Soap will not produce a lather with hard water until all the calcium and magnesium ions have been precipitated as stearates. Hard water thus wastes soap.

Problems that arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps:

  1. Detergents are non-biodegradable, i.e., they cannot be decomposed organisms and hence cause water pollution in lakes and rivers.
  2. Detergents can also cause skin problems.

 

Q. 20. (a) Name the human male reproductive organ that produces sperms and also secretes a hormone. Write the functions of the secreted hormone.

(b) Name the parts of the human female reproductive system where

(i) fertilisation takes place,

(ii) implantation of the fertilised egg occurs.

Explain how the embryo gets nourishment inside the mother’s -body.

Answer. (a) Testis produces sperms and secretes male hormone—testosterone.

Function of testosterone hormone is to control the development of male sex organs and male features such as deeper voice, moustaches, body hair, etc. All these changes caused by testosterone are associated with male puberty which the boys attains at an age of 13 to 14 years. It also controls the formation of male gamete, i.e., sperm.

(b) (i) Fertilisation takes place in fallopian tube (oviduct).

(ii) Implantation of the fertilised egg occurs in the uterus.

Nourishment of embryo. After fertilisation, zygote is formed which develops into an embryo. The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta. This is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue. On the mother’s side are blood spaces, which surround the villi. This provides a large surface area for glucose and oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo. In this way, embryo gets its nutrition.

 

Q. 21. How do Mendel’s experiments show that the

(a) traits may be dominant or recessive,

(b) traits are inherited independently?

Answer. Mendel’s experiments show that the

(a) Traits may be dominant or recessive. When Mendel cross-bred plants of two different traits of character, a tall pea plant (TT) and a dwarf pea plant (tt) to get a progeny ( F1 generation), all F1 plants were tall. Only the dominant trait was visible in this generation. But when plants of F1 generation were self bred then the two traits of character got separated in the plants of F2 generation. All plants obtained in the F2 generation were not tall. One-fourth of the F2 plants were short.

Appearance of tall characters in both the F1 and F2 generations shows that it is a dominant character. Whereas the absence of dwarf character in F1 generation and its reappearance in F2 generation shows dwarfness is the recessive character.

(b) Traits are inherited independently. Mendel cross-bred pea plants showing two different characteristics, rather than just one. When he cross-bred pea plants of round green seeds with wrinkled yellow seeds, he got F1 generation with all such seeds which were Gametes yellow and round. So, it was concluded that round and yellow character of seeds were dominant traits in the pea plant. On selfing of F1 progeny, different types of F2 progeny were obtained.

So traits of two different characters were inherited independent of each other and made new combination characteristics independent of their previous combinations.

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Q. 22. What is meant by power of a lens? Define its S.I. unit. You have two lenses A and B of focal lengths +10 cm and 10 cm respectively. State the nature and power of each lens.Which of the two lenses will form a virtual and magnified image of an object placed 8 cm from the lens? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer.

Answer.

Power of the lens is known as the inverse of the focal length of the lens measured in meter(m).

S.I unit of power = Dioptre (D)

Power of lense = 1/ focal length in meter.

The lense used is a convex lens because the focal length is a positive value.

Lens A: FA = +10 cm = +10/100 = 0.1 m

    PA = 1/FA = 1/+0.1 = +10 D

The power of a convex lens is positive therefore, lens A is a convex lens.

Lens B: FB = -10 cm = -10/100 = 0.1 m

    PB = 1/FB = 1/-0.1 = -10 D

The power of a concave lens is negative therefore, lens B is a concave lens.

When an object is placed at 8 cm (i.e., between the optical centre and principal focus) only convex lens will form the virtual and magnified image.

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Therefore, lens A will form a virtual and magnified image of the object placed 8 cm from it. When the object is placed between the optical centre and the focus: (i.e., between O and F) the image formed is behind the object (on the same side), virtual, erect and magnified.

 

Q. 23. One half of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm is covered with a black paper. Can such a lens produce an image of a complete object placed at a distance of 30 cm from the lens? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer.

A 4 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 15 cm. Find nature, position and size of the image.

Answer. (i) Yes. If a convex lens of focal length 10 cm is covered one half with a black paper, it can produce an image of the complete object between F2 and 2F2. The rays of light coming from the object get refracted by the upper half of the lens. The image formed will be real, inverted and diminished.

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Q. 24. Write the importance of ciliary muscles in the human eye. Name the defect of vision that arises due to gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles in old age. What type of lenses are required by the persons suffering from this defect to see the objects clearly? Akshay, sitting in the last row in his class, could not see clearly the words written on the blackboard. When the teacher noticed it, he announced if any student sitting in the front row could volunteer to exchange his seat with Akshay. Salman immediately agreed to exchange his seat with Akshay. He could now see the words written on the blackboard clearly. The teacher thought it fit to send the message to Akshay’s parents advising them to get his eyesight checked.

In the context of the above event, answer the following questions:

(a) Which defect of vision is Akshay suffering from? Which type of lens is used to correct this defect?

(b) State the values displayed by the teacher and Salman.

(c) In your opinion, in what way can Akshay express his gratitude towards the teacher and Salman?

Answer. Importance of ciliary muscles. The focal length of eye lens can be changed by changing its shape by the action of ciliary muscles. Ciliary muscles modify the curvature of the eye lens to enable the eye to focus objects at varying distances.

In old age, ciliary muscles become weak and the eye lens become inflexible. As a result, the eye loses its power of accommodation. Because of this, an old person cannot see the nearby objects clearly. This leads to the defect called presbyopia.

Bifocal lenses are required by the persons suffering from presbyopia in which upper part consists of a concave lens for distant vision and the lower part consists of a convex lens used to see nearby objects.

(a) Akshay is suffering from myopia or near sightedness. Myopia is corrected by using spectacles containing concave lenses. The concave lens used for correcting myopia should be of such a focal length that it produces a virtual image of the distant object (lying at infinity) at the far point of the myopic eye.

(b) • The teacher is concerned about the health of the student.

• Salman is very helpful and caring.

(c) Akshay should express his gratitude towards his teacher as well as his friend Salman by getting his eyesight checked and by also following their values in his own life.

SECTION B

Q. 25. What do we observe on pouring acetic acid on red and blue litmus papers?

(A) Red litmus remains red and blue litmus turns red.

(B) Red litmus turns blue and blue litmus remains blue.

(C) Red litmus turns blue and blue litmus turns red.

(D) Red litmus becomes colourless and blue litmus remains blue.

Answer. (A)

 

Q. 26. While preparing soap a small quantity of common salt is generally added to the reaction mixture of vegetable oil and sodium hydroxide. Which one of the following may be the purpose of adding common salt?

(A) To reduce the basic nature of the soap

(B) To make the soap neutral

(C) To enhance the cleansing power of the soap

(D) To favour the precipitation of the soap

Answer. (D)

 

Q. 27. A student takes about 4 mL of distilled water in four test tubes marked P, Q, R and S. He then dissolves in each test tube an equal amount of one salt in one test tube, namely sodium sulphate in P, potassium sulphate in Q, calcium sulphate in R and magnesium sulphate in S. After that he adds an equal amount of soap solution in each test tube. On shaking each of these test tubes well, he observes a good amount of lather (foam) in the test tubes marked

(A) P and Q (B) Q and R (C) P, Q and S (D) P, R and S

Answer. (A)

 

Q. 28. A student was asked to observe and identify the various parts of an embryo of a red kidney bean seed. He identified the parts and listed them as under:

I. Tegtnen II. Testa III. Cotyledon IV. Radicle V. Plumule

The correctly identified parts among these are:

(A) I, II and III (B) II, III and IV (C) III, IV and V (D) I, III, IV and V

Answer. (C)

 

Q. 29. Given below is the list of vegetables available in the market. Select from these the two vegetables having homologous structures: Potato, sweet potato, ginger, radish, tomato, carrot, okra (Lady’s finger)

(A) Potato and sweet potato (B) Radish and carrot

(C) Okra and sweet potato (D) Potato and tomato

Answer. (B)

 

Q. 30. A student obtains a sharp image of the distant window (W) of the school laboratory on the screen (S) using the given concave mirror (M) to determine its focal length. Which of the following distances should he measure to get the focal length of the mirror?

(A) MW (B) MS

(C) SW (D) MW-MS

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Answer. (B)

 

Q. 31. A student used a device (X) to obtain/focus the image of a well illuminated distant building on a screen (S) as shown below in the diagram. Select the correct statement about the device (X).

(A) This device is a concave lens of focal length 8 cm.

(B) This device is a convex mirror of focal length 8 cm.

(C) This device is a convex lens of focal length 4 cm.

(D) This device is a convex lens of focal length 8 cm.

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Answer. (D)

 

Q. 32. A student traces the path of a ray of light through a rectangular glass slab for the different values of angle of incidence. He observes all possible precautions at each step of the experiment. At the end of the experiment, on analysing the measurements, which of the following conclusions is he likely to draw?

(A) ∠z = ∠e < ∠r (B) ∠z < ∠e < ∠r (C) ∠z > ∠e > ∠r (D)∠z = ∠e > ∠r

Answer. (D)

 

Q. 33. A student traces the path of a ray of light through a triangular glass prism for different values of angle of incidence. On analyzing the ray diagrams, which one of the following conclusions is he likely to draw?

(A) The emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray.

(B) The emergent ray bends at an angle to the direction of the incident ray.

(C) The emergent ray and the refracted ray are at right angles to each other.

(D) The emergent ray is perpendicular to the incident ray.

Answer. (B)

 

Q. 34. When you add sodium hydrogen carbonate to acetic acid in a test tube, a gas liberates immediately with a brisk effervescence. Name this gas. Describe the method of testing this gas.

Answer. When sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to acetic acid in a test tube, then a brisk effervescence is observed due to the liberation of CO2 gas which is colourless and odourless.

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Q. 35. Students were asked to observe the permanent slides showing different stages of budding in yeast under high power of a microscope.

(a) Which adjustment screw (coarse/fine) were you asked to move to focus the slides ?

(b) Draw three diagrams in correct sequence showing budding in yeast.

Answer. (a) A fine adjustment screw is moved to focus the slides.

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Q. 36. A 4 cm tall object is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens. The distance of the object from the optical centre of the lens is 12 cm and its sharp image is formed at a distance of 24 cm from it on a screen on the other side of the lens. If the object is now moved a little away from the lens, in which way (towards the lens or away from the lens) will he have to move the screen to get a sharp image of the object on it again? How will the magnification of the image be affected?

Answer. (a) The screen should be moved towards the lens to get a sharp image of the object again. (b) Magnification of the image decreases on moving the object away from the lens.

SET II

SECTION A

Q. 1. Write the number of covalent bonds in the molecule of propane, C3H8.

Answer.

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Q. 2. Where is DNA found in a cell?

Answer. DNA is found in the nucleus of the cell.

 

Q. 3. The first trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant. Why?

Answer. The first trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant because green plants have a mechanism for trapping solar energy with the help of their green pigment called chlorophyll and convert it into chemical energy which is stored as carbohydrates in the plant for the use of the next tropic level.

 

Q. 5. We often observe domestic waste decomposing in the by lanes of our homes. List four ways to make the residents aware that the improper disposal of wastes is harmful to the environment and also for their own health.

Answer. The various ways to make residents aware of the harmful effects of improper disposal of wastes are as follows:

  1. By putting posters and hoardings.
  2. By distributing pamphlets to the residents.
  3. By conducting meetings of residents, welfare society, etc.
  4. By advertisements through TV/radio/cable operators, etc.
    Through all these mediums we can make the residents aware of how such waste serves as a breeding ground for mosquitoes, releases harmful gases, reduces soil fertility, etc.

 

Q. 6. List any two advantages associated with water stored in the ground.

Answer. Advantages of underground water:

  1. The water stored in the ground does not evaporate.
  2. The water stored in the ground does not promote breeding of mosquitoes.

 

Q. 7. What is meant by homologous series of carbon compounds? Classify the following carbon compounds into two homologous series and name them.

C3H4 C4H6, C4H8, C5H8, C5H10

Answer. A homologous series is a group of organic compounds having similar structure and similar chemical properties in which the successive compounds differ by CH2 group.

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Q. 9. The elements 4Be, 12Mg and 20Ca, each having two valence electrons in their valence shells, are in periods 2, 3 and 4 respectively of the modern periodic table. Answer the following questions associated with these elements, giving reason in each case:

(a) In which group should they be?

(b) Which one of them is least reactive?

(c) Which one of them has the largest atomic size?

Answer.

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(a) They all belong to 2nd group of the periodic table as all the elements have two valence electrons in their valence shell.

(b) Be is least reactive as it contains the least number of shells (i.e., 2). The tendency of an atom to lose electrons on moving down in a group increases as valence electrons move more and more away from the nucleus and nuclear charge on valence electrons decreases.

(c) Ca has the largest atomic size as it has the maximum number of shells.

 

Q. 11. List three distinguishing features between sexual and asexual types of reproduction, in tabular form.

Answer.  Difference between Sexual and Asexual types of reproductions

Sexual Reproduction Asexual Reproduction
Two parents are involved One parent is involved
Characteristics of both parents are inherited Characteristics of only one parent are inherited
It requires the formation of gametes It doesn’t require the formation of gametes
Special organs for reproduction are required. Special organs for reproduction are not required
Examples – Mangoes, coconut, Hibiscus etc. Examples – Potato, Jasmine, Rose, Yeast, Bryophyllum etc

 

Q. 14. A pea plant with blue colour flower denoted by BB is crossbred with a pea plant with white flower denoted by ww.

(a) What is the expected colour of the flowers in their F4 progeny?

(b) What will be the percentage of plants bearing white flower in F2 generation, when the flowers of F4 plants were selfed?

(c) State the expected ratio of the genotype BB and Bw in the F2 progeny.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-22

 

Q. 18. What is an ecosystem? List its two main components. We do not clean natural ponds or lakes but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Why is it so? Explain.

Answer. An ecosystem is a self-contained unit of living things (plants, animals and decomposers) and their non-living environment (soil, air and water). An ecosystem needs only the input of sunlight energy for its functioning.

Ecosystem is made up of two main components:

(i) Abiotic component meaning non-living component.

(ii) Biotic component meaning living component.

An aquarium is an artificial ecosystem. It needs to be cleaned regularly because it has – stagnant water and no decomposers. Therefore the dead parts and excrete of the organisms of the aquarium are not decomposed and would never be returned to their original pool. The accumulation of these wastes can be dangerous for the living organisms in the aquarium.

 

Q. 19. What are fossils? How are they formed? Described in brief two methods of determining the age of fossils. State any one role of fossils in the study of the process of evolution.

Answer. 

Fossils : fossils are the remains of organisms found in the earth’s strata (rock layers). These organisms have, in some way, been protected from the bacterial action that degrades carbon-based organisms.

Fossils are created through sudden disruptions, like earthquakes. They can also be formed through steadier processes, like exposure to the (extreme) elements.

In most cases, the environment plays a direct role, as a preservative, in whether an organism will become a fossil.

The ideal environment is silty, with moving sediment that can cover the organism. The floors of oceans, lakes, and deep ponds are prime spots for fossilization.

Imagine a sick dinosaur pulling itself to a lake for a drink. It dies. The body falls in and sinks to the bottom. The lake’s motion deposits mud and sand on the animal.

Over time, the soft tissues dissolve, and the mineral-rich sediment fills the gaps. Years pass and the minerals harden around the bones, creating a petrified structure we’ve come to know as fossils.

  • The age of the fossils can be determined by the following way:

1. Radiometric dating :In this method, the age of the fossil can be determined by tracing the radioactive elements present in the rocks and examining it chemically.

2. Relative dating :The fossils are found in the sedimentary rocks in the form of layers accumulated over large span of time. So, using this fact, the geologist find the age of fossils in the way that the fossil found at the bottom of those layers are found to be older than that found above those.

3. Fossils have a significant role in evolution as they help in creating evolutionary relationships with the earlier organisms and the present day organisms.

 

SET III

Q. 1. Write the number of covalent bonds in the molecule of butane, C4H10.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-23

 

Q. 2. Name two simple organisms having the ability of regeneration.

Answer. Two simple organisms having the ability of regeneration are Planaria and Hydra.

 

Q. 3. Which of the following are always at the second trophic level of food chains? Carnivores, Auto trophs, Herbivores

Answer. Herbivores are always at the second trophic level of food chains.

 

Q. 4. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray corresponding to an incident ray of light parallel to the principal axis of a convex mirror and show the angle of incidence and angle of reflection on it.

Answer. 

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-delhi-2014-1

Q. 5. Why is sustainable management of natural resources necessary? Out of the two reuse and recycle which, in your opinion, is better to practise? Give reason.

Answer. Sustainable management is management that encourages the judicious use of natural resources to meet the current basic human needs while preserving the resources for the needs of future generations.

Reuse is a better practise than recycle as recyling requires a large amount of energy and money. In this strategy, we are encouraged to use things again and again instead of throwing them away with no expense of energy. Reuse also does not cause pollution. Example, plastic bottles of jams and pickles can be reused for storing things in the kitchen.

 

Q. 7. Write the name and general formula of a chain of hydrocarbons in which an addition reaction with hydrogen is possible. State the essential condition for an addition reaction. Stating this condition, write a chemical equation giving the name of the reactant and the product of the reaction.

Answer. Addition of hydrogen is possible in Alkenes CnH2n and Alkynes CnH2n-2

  • Addition reaction of unsaturated hydrocarbons occurs in the presence of catalysts such as nickel (Ni) or palladium (Pd) or platinum (Pt) to form saturated hydrocarbons.
  • Example, Ethene reacts with hydrogen when heated in the presence of nickel catalyst to form ethane.
    cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-24

 

Q. 9. Given below are some elements of the modern periodic table. Atomic number of the element is given in the parentheses: A(4), B(9), C(14), D(19), E(20)

(a) Select the element that has one electron in the outermost shell. Also write the electronic configuration of this element.

(b) Which two elements amongst these belong to the same group? Give reason for your answer.

(c) Which two elements amongst these belong to the same period? Which one of the two has bigger atomic radius?

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-25

(a) D has 1 electron in the-outermost shell. Atomic no. = 19, Elec. Configuration = 2, 8, 8,1

(b) A and E belong to the same group, i.e., 2nd group of the periodic table as both have same number of valence electrons (i.e., 2) in their outermost shell.

(c) A & B and D &’E belong to the same period as they have the same no. of valence shells. A and B have 2 shells thus belong to 2nd period of the periodic table.

D and E have 4 shells thus belong to 4th period of the periodic table.

A has the bigger atomic radius among A and B and D has the bigger atomic radius among D and E as atomic size decreases on moving from left to right in a period (or atomic size decreases as the atomic number increases in a period).

 

Q. 12. List four categories of contraceptive methods. State in brief two advantages of adopting such preventive methods.

Answer.  The contraceptive methods can be broadly classified into the following categories:

1. Natural method: It involves avoiding the chances of meeting of sperms and ovum. In this method, the sexual act is avoided from day 10th to 17th of the menstrual cycle because, during this period, ovulation is expected and therefore, the chances of fertilization are very high.

2. Barrier method: In this method, the fertilization of ovum and sperm is prevented with the help of barriers. Barriers are available for both males and females. Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber that are used to cover penis in males and vagina in females.

3. Oral contraceptives: In this method, tablets or drugs are taken orally. These contain small doses of hormones that prevent the release of eggs and thus fertilization cannot occur.

4. Implants and surgical methods: Contraceptive devices such as the loop or Copper-T are placed in the uterus to prevent pregnancy. Some surgical methods can also be used to block the gamete transfer. It includes the blocking of vas deferens to prevent the transfer of sperms known as vasectomy. Similarly, fallopian tubes of the female can be blocked so that the egg will not reach the uterus known as tubectomy.

Advantages of adopting such preventive methods:

  1. Contraceptive methods are used to prevent the spread of sexually transmitted diseases like syphilis, AIDS, etc.
  2. Contraceptives prevent unwanted and frequent pregnancies. If a couple has less number of children, they can provide good clothes, good food and a good education to each child. This will make the parents as well as children happy.

 

Q. 17. An object of height 5 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave lens of focal length 10 cm. If the distance of the object from the optical centre is 20 cm, determine the position, nature and size of the image formed using the lens formula.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-26

Science 10th Previous Year Question Paper 2016 (CBSE)

Science

SET I

Section – A

Q. 1. Write the name and structure of an alcohol with three carbon atoms in its molecule.

Answer. Name of an alcohol: Propanol

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-1

 

Q. 2. What happens when a mature spirogyra filament attains considerable length?

Answer. When a mature spirogyra filament attains considerable length, it breaks up into smaller fragments or pieces, and each fragment grows into a new filament or individual.

 

Q. 3.  The depletion of the ozone layer is a cause of concern. Why?

Answer. The depletion of the ozone layer is a cause of concern because ozone shields the surface of the earth from harmful ultraviolet radiations coming from the Sun. These radiations are very harmful and can cause skin cancer and other health problems in human beings. Moreover, ozone protects the ecosystem from damage.

 

Q. 4. Name the type of mirrors used in the design of solar furnaces. Explain how high temperature is achieved by this device.

Answer. Concave mirrors are used in the design of solar furnaces. When a solar furnace is placed at the focus of a large concave mirror (called reflector), it focuses a parallel beam of light on the furnace, as a result a temperature is achieved after some time.

 

Q. 5. “What was Chipko Andolan”? How did this Andolan ultimately benefit the local people and the environment?

Answer. Chipko Movement. Chipko Movement is an example of the contribution of common people towards the conservation of forests. The Chipko Movement also called ‘Hug the tree’ movement originated from an incident in a remote village called ‘Reni’ in Garhwal (Himalayas), where the people of this village clasped the tree trunks with their arms to protect them from being cut down by a contractor’s workers. The people acted this way because they knew that this mass deforestation would spoil their healthy environment. The forest trees were thus saved.

The Chipko Movement quickly spread across all the communities and helped in the conservation of forests and thus helped in safeguarding the environment.

 

Q. 6. “Burning of fossil fuels results in global warming”. Give reasons to justify this statement.

Answer. When fossil fuels (coal and petroleum based fuels like petrol, diesel etc.) are burnt, they produce C02, CO, water vapours, S02, oxides of nitrogen.

Though C02 is not a poisonous gas but it is a greenhouse gas which traps the sun’s heat energy falling on the earth. The burning of more and more of fossil fuels is increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere causing increased greenhouse effect leading to global warming.

 

Q. 7. Write chemical equation of the reaction of ethanoic acid with the following:

(a) Sodium; (b) Sodium hydroxide; (c) Ethanol

Write the name of one main product of each reaction.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-2

 

Q. 8. An aldehyde as well as a ketone can be represented by the same molecular formula, say C3H6O. Write their; language of science.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-3

They are called isomers because both have the same molecular formula but different structural formulas (having different functional groups).

 

Q. 9. An element ‘X’ belongs to the 3rd period and group 16 of the Modern Periodic Table.

(a) Determine the number of valence electrons and the valency of ‘X’.

(b) Molecular formula of the compound when ‘X’ reacts with hydrogen and write its electron dot structure.

(c) Name the element ‘X’ and state whether it is metallic or non-metallic.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-4
cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-5

 

Q. 10. An element ‘X! has mass number 35 and number of neutrons 18. Write atomic number and electronic configuration of ‘X’. Also write group number, period number and valency of ‘X’. 

Answer. ‘X’

Mass number 5= 35 No. of neutrons = 18

Atomic number of X = Mass number – Number of neutrons = 35 – 18 = 17

K L M

Thus, electronic configuration of X = 2, 8, 7

Group number = 17th    Period number = 3rd

Valency = 8-7 = 1

 

Q. 11. Define reproduction. How does it help in providing stability to the population of species?

Answer. The production of new organisms from the existing organisms of the same species is known as reproduction. It is essential for the survival of a species on earth. It helps in replacing the lost section of the population due to death and various other causes.

  • Populations of organisms live in well defined places called niches in the ecosystem using their ability to reproduce.
  • Reproduction involves DNA copying which is the source of information for making proteins thereby controlling body design.
  • These body designs allow the organism to use a particular niche for the stability of the population of a species.
  • Minor variations may also lead to the stability of the species.

 

Q. 12. Explain the term “Regeneration” as used in relation to reproduction of organisms. Describe briefly how regeneration is carried out in multicellular organisms like Hydra.

Answer. Regeneration is a mode of asexual reproduction in some organisms. The process of getting back a full organism from its body parts is called regeneration. The simple multicellular animals like hydra and planaria show regeneration.

Regeneration in hydra:

  • If the body of hydra gets cut into a number of pieces, then each body piece can regenerate into a complete hydra by growing all the missing parts.
  • The regeneration of an organism from its cut body part occurs by the process of growth and development.
  • The cells of cut body parts divide rapidly to make a ball of cells.
  • The cells then become specialised to form different types of tissues which again form various organs and body parts.

 

Q. 13. (a) List two reasons for the appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual reproduction.

(b)

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-6

(i) Name the part marked ‘A’ in the diagram.

(ii) How does ‘A’ reach part ‘B’?

(iii) State the importance of part ‘C.

(iv) What happens to the part marked ‘D’ after fertilization is over?

Answer. (a) The appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual reproduction is due to the following reasons:

(i) Sexual reproduction takes place by the combination of two germ cells produced by two different individuals. Fusion of the male and female gametes.

(ii) Each time zygote is formed by the new combination of variants.

(b) (i) A => Pollen grains .

(ii) Pollen grains, i.e., ‘A’ reach part ‘B’, i.e., stigma of the carpel by the process of pollination.

Pollination is carried out by insects (like bees, butterfuly, etc.), birds, wind, water, etc.

(in) ‘C’ => Pollen tube Pollen tube grows downward through the style towards the female gamete in the ovary. Pollen tube helps the male gamete reach the egg or ovule (female gamete).

(iv) ‘D’ => Fertilised egg or Zygote . The fertilized egg (or zygote) divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule.

 

Q. 14. How does Mendel’s experiment show that traits are inherited independently?

Answer. Gregor Mendel conducted a different series of experiments on the pea plant that helped to deduce the basis of the hereditary rules in living organisms. He worked on how the traits or characters can be passed from one generation to the other. He studied the inheritance pattern in the common pea plant, Pisum sativum. He selected seven pairs of contrasting characters which were present in the parent plants. The plants selected by Mendel were pure breeding pea plants and they showed one form of a trait after fertilization. 

During the experiment, Mendel then crossed these pure breeding lines of the pea plants. When two pairs of contrasting characters were selected during cross, it was known as the dihybrid cross. The dihybrid cross was allowed to fertilize. Mendel selected pea plants with dihybrid seed characteristics such as yellow colored and round seeds and green colored wrinkled seeds. The plants with yellow colored round seeds were crossed with plants with green colored wrinkled seeds. After the cross in the F2 generation, the offspring obtained were with both the parental traits and with two recombinant phenotypes such as yellow round and green wrinkled and another recombinant phenotype with green round and yellow wrinkled. Thus, in the F2 generation all the characters were inherited and the characters were round yellow, round green, wrinkled yellow and wrinkled green.

The obtained traits or characteristics of the phenotypes obtained in the F2 generations indicates original parental combinations are separated which in the process gets inherited independently by the offspring in the next generations.

Note:Mendel selected seven pairs of contrasting characters which he used to experiment with for the inheritance of characteristics in the offspring. In a dihybrid cross, Mendel selected two pairs of contrasting characters and they were crossed. The resultant cross showed the segregation of the traits of both the parents which indicated that the traits were inherited independently. 

 

Q. 15. “Two areas of study namely ‘evolution’ and ‘classification’ are interlinked”. Justify this statement.

Answer. Classification of organisms is based on relative similarities and differences in their internal and external structures. Similarities among organisms will allow us to group them and study the groups and classify them. Some basic characteristics will be shared by most organisms. The more characteristics the two species will have in common, the more closely they are related. The more closely they are related, the more recently they have had a common ancestor. So we can say that classification of a species is in fact a reflection of their evolutionary relationship.

 

Q. 16. The image of an object formed by a mirror is real, inverted and is of magnification -1. If the image is at a distance of 40 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed? Where would the image be if the object is moved 20 cm towards the mirror? State reason and also draw ray diagram for the new position of the object to justify your answer.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-7

 

Q. 17. Describe an activity to show that the colours of white light splitted by a glass prism can be recombined to get white light by another identical glass prism. Also draw a ray- diagram to show the recombination of the spectrum of white light.

Answer. i) When a glass prism is used to obtain a spectrum of sunlight, a second identical prism in an inverted position is kept with respect to the first position.

ii) The inverted second prism will allow all the colours of the spectrum to recombine.

iii) Thus a beam of white light will emerge from the other side of the second prism.

Recombination of the spectrum of white light is as shown below:

 

Q. 18. The activities of man had adverse effects on ail forms of living organisms in the biosphere. Unlimited exploitation of nature by man disturbed the delicate ecological balance between the living and nonliving components of the biosphere. The unfavorable conditions created by man himself threatened the survival not only of himself but also the entire living organisms on the mother earth. One of your classmates is an active member of ‘Eco-club’ of your school which is creating environmental awareness amongst the school students, spreading the same in the society and also working hard for preventing environmental degradation cf the surroundings.

(a) Why is it necessary to conserve our environment?

(b) State the importance of green and blue dust-bins in the safe disposal of the household waste.

(c) List two values exhibited by your classmate who is an active member of Eco-clubof your school.

Answer. (a) It is necessary to conserve our environment because of the following reasons:

(i) To save natural resources like air, water and soil from pollution which are essential for our survival.

(ii) To maintain ecological balance in nature.

(iii) The environment provides us fresh air to breathe, a number of useful products such as wood, paper, medicines, etc. The ozone layer of the environment also protects us from harmful ultraviolet radiations from the sun.

(b) Green dustbins are used for biodegradable wastes, and Blue dustbins are used for non-biodegradable wastes.

Importance of two types of dustbins:

(i) Disposal of wastes after separating them into biodegradable and non- biodegradable wastes in separate dustbins and treating wastes properly before dumping in landfills.

(ii) Segregation of biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes occur without wasting time and energy.

(c) Values: Cooperative spirit, concern about environment, civic sense, sensitive human being.

 

Q. 19. A carbon compound ‘P’ on heating with excess cone. H2S04 forms another carbon compound ‘Q’ which on addition of hydrogen in the presence of nickel catalyst forms a saturated carbon compound ‘R’. One molecule of ‘R’ on combustion, forms two molecules of carbon dioxide and three molecules of water. Identify P, Q and R and write chemical equations for the reactions involved.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-8

 

Q. 20. What is placenta? Describe its structure. State its functions in case of a pregnant human female.

Answer. Placenta. It is a special tissue that helps human embryo in obtaining nutrition from mother’s blood. It serves as a link between the mother’s body and the baby.

Structure and function. After fertilisation, zygote is formed which develops into an embryo. The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta. This is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains thousands of villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue, on the mother’s side are blood spaces, which surround the villi. This provides a large surface area for glucose, nutrients and oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo. In this way, embryo gets its nutrition. The wastes produced by the foetus are also removed through the placenta. It also functions as an endocrine gland and secretes hormones necessary for maintaining pregnancy.

 

Q. 21. Define evolution. How does it occur? Describe how fossils provide us evidences in support of evolution.

Answer. Evolution. Evolution is the sequence of gradual changes which take place in the primitive organisms over millions of years in which new species are produced.

How it occurs? 

  • It is through the constant process of evolution taking place in the organisms since the origin of life that such an enormous variety of plants and animals have come to exist on this earth at present.
  • There is an inbuilt tendency to variation during reproduction due to errors in DNA copying and as a result of sexual reproduction.

Relationship between fossils and evolution:

  • Fossils are the remains of impressions of dead plants or animals which died millions of years ago. The study of fossils helps us to know about the evolution of species. Fossils tell us how new species are developed from the old. Fossils provide evidence of evolution by revealing characteristics of past organisms and the changes that have occurred m these organisms to give rise to present organisms Therefore, fossils have an importance in deciding evolutionary relationship.
  • For example, a fossil called Archaeopteryx has feathered wings like birds but teeth and tail like reptiles hence suggesting that birds and reptiles had a common ancestor.

 

Q. 22. It is desired to obtain an erect image of an object, using concave mirror of focal length of 12 cm.

(i) What should be the range of distance of an object placed in front of the mirror?

(ii) Will the image be smaller or larger than the object? Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in this case.

(iii) Where will the image of this object be, if it is placed 24 cm in front of the mirror?

Draw a ray diagram for this situation also to justify your answer.

Show the positions of the pole, the principal focus and the centre of curvature in the above ray diagrams.

Answer. In a concave mirror an erect image w ill be obtained when the object is placed between pole and focus ; of the mirror.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-9

Focal length, f = 12 cm

(i) Therefore, the range of object distance is between 0 cm to <12 cm (from zero to less than 12 cm).

(ii) Image formed wall be magnified, i.e., larger than the object.

(iii) If the object is placed at 24 cm in from of the mirror, it means that object is placed at 2f, i.e., at the centre of curvature (at C) of the mirror.

The real, inverted and same size (of the object) image will also be formed at 24 cm.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-10

 

Q. 23.(a) Define optical centre of a spherical lens.

(b) A divergent lens has a focal length of 20 cm. At what distance should an object of height 4 cm from the optical centre of the lens be placed so that its image is formed 10 cm away from the lens. Find the size of the image also.

(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in above situation.

Answer. (a) Optical centre of the lens. It is a point within the lens that lies on the principal axis through which avay of light passes undeflected.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-11

 

Q. 24. What is atmospheric refraction? Use this phenomenon to explain the following natural events.

(a) Twinkling of stars (b) Advanced sun-rise and delayed sun-set

Draw diagrams to illustrate your answers.

Answer. Atmospheric refraction. The refraction of light caused by the earth’s atmosphere having air layers of varying optical densities is called atmospheric refraction.

(a) Twinkling of stars. 

The twinkling of a star is due to atmospheric refraction of starlight. 

The starlight, on entering the earth’s atmosphere, undergoes refraction continuously before it reaches the earth. 

The atmospheric refraction occurs in a medium of gradually changing refractive index. 

Since the atmosphere bends starlight towards the normal, the apparent position of the star is slightly different from its actual position. 

The star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual position when viewed near the horizon 

Since the stars are very distant, they approximate point-sized sources of light. As the path of rays of light coming from the star goes on varying slightly, the apparent position of the star fluctuates and the amount of starlight entering eye flickers -the star sometimes appear brighter and sometimes fainter ,which is twinkling effect.

(b) Advanced sun-rise and delayed sun-set. 

The Sun is visible to us about 2 minutes before the actual sunrise, and about 2 minutes after the actual sunset because of atmospheric refraction. By actual sunrise, we mean the actual crossing of the horizon by the Sun. The time difference between actual sunset and the apparent sunset is about 2 minutes. The apparent flattening of the Sun’s disc at sunrise and sunset is also due to the same phenomenon. 

SCATTERING OF LIGHT 

It is the phenomena of change in direction of light on striking an obstacle like an atom, a molecule a dust particle water droplet etc.

It is also due to atmospheric refraction that we can still see the sun for about 2 minutes even after the sun has set below the horizon. At sunset, the apparent position of the sun is visible to us and not the actual position because of the bending of light rays effect.

So, the time from sunrise to sunset is lengthened by about 2 + 2 = 4 minutes because of atmospheric refraction.

SECTION B

Q. 25. A student puts a drop of reaction mixture of a saponification reaction first on a blue litmus paper and then on a red litmus paper. He may observe that:

(a) There is no change in the blue litmus paper and the red litmus paper turns white.

(b) There is no change in the red litmus paper and the blue litmus paper turns red.

(c) There is no change in the blue litmus paper and the red litmus paper turns blue.

(d) No change in colour is observed in both the litmus papers.

Answer. (c)

 

Q. 26. For preparing soap in the laboratory we require an oil and a base. Which of the following combination of an oil and a base would be best suited for the preparation of soap?

(a) Castor oil and calcium hydroxide (b) Turpentine oil and sodium hydroxide

(c) Castor oil and sodium hydroxide (d) Mustard oil and calcium hydroxide

Answer. (c)

 

Q. 27. In the neighborhood of your school, hard water required for an experiment is not available. Select from the following groups of salts available in your school, a group each member of which, if dissolved in distilled water, will make it hard:

(a) Sodium chloride, calcium chloride (b) Potassium chloride, sodium chloride

(c) Sodium chloride, magnesium chloride (d) Calcium chloride, magnesium chloride

Answer. (d)

 

Q. 28. A student while observing an embryo of a pea seed in the laboratory listed various parts of the embryo as given below:

On examining the list the teacher remarked that only three parts are correct.

Select three correct parts from the following list: 1

(a) Testa, Radicle, Cotyledon (b) Tegmen, Radicle, Micropyle

(c) Cotyledon, Plumule, Testa (d) Radicle, Cotyledon, Plumule

Answer. (d)

 

Q.29. If you are asked to select a group of two vegetables, out of the following, having homologous structures which one would you select?

(a) Carrot and radish (b) Potato and sweet potato

(c) Potato and tomato (d) Lady finger and potato

Answer. (a)

 

Q. 30. To determine the approximate value of the focal length of a given concave mirror, you focus the image of a distant object formed by the mirror on a screen. The image obtained on the screen, as compared to the object is always:

(a) Laterally inverted and diminished (b) Inverted and diminished

(c) Erect and diminished (d) Erect and highly diminished

Answer. (b)

 

Q. 31. Suppose you have focused on a screen the image of candle flame placed at the farthest end of the laboratory table using a convex lens. If your teacher suggests you to focus the parallel rays of the Sun, reaching your laboratory table, on the same screen, what you are expected to do is to move the:

(a) lens slightly towards the screen (b) lens slightly away from the screen

(c) lens slightly towards the Sun (d) lens and screen both towards the Sun

Answer. (a)

 

Q. 32. In your laboratory you trace the path of light rays through a glass slab for different values of angle of incidence (∠i) and in each case measure the values of the corresponding angle of refraction (∠r) and angle of emergence (∠e). On the basis of your observations your correct conclusion is:

(a) ∠i is more than ∠r, but nearly equal to Ze

(b) ∠i is less than ∠r, but nearly equal to ∠e

(c) ∠i is more than ∠e, but nearly equal to ∠r

(d) ∠i is less than ∠e, but nearly equal to ∠r

Answer. (a)

 

Q. 33. In the following ray diagram the correctly marked angles are:

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-12

(a) ∠i and ∠e (b) ∠A and ∠D

(c) ∠i, ∠e and ∠D (d) ∠r, ∠A and ∠D

Answer. (d)

 

Q. 34. A student adds a spoon full of powdered sodium hydrogen carbonate to a flask containing ethanoic acid. List two main observations, he must note in his note book, about the reaction that takes place. Also write chemical equation for the reaction.

Answer. When sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to a flask containing ethanoic acid, then

  • brisk effervescence will be formed because of CO2 gas escaping from the reaction mixture.
  • evolution of colourless and odourless gas. Some amount of heat is evolved during the reaction.
    cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-13

 

Q. 35. A student is observing a permanent slide showing sequentially the different stages of asexual reproduction taking place in yeast. Name this process and draw diagrams of what he observes in a proper sequence.

Answer. The process of reproduction in yeast is budding.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-14

 

Q. 36. An object of height 2.5 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm from the optical centre ‘O’ of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Draw a ray diagram to find the position and size of the image formed. Mark optical centre ‘O’, principal focus F and height of the image on the diagram.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-15

SET II

SECTION A

Q. 1. Write the name and structure of an alcohol with four carbon atoms in its molecule.

Answer. Name of an alcohol: Butanol

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-16

Q. 2. What are those organisms called which bear both the sex organs in the same individual? Give one example of such organism.

Answer. Organisms having both the sex organs in the same individual are called Hermaphrodite. Example, Earthworm.

 

Q. 3. Write one negative effect, on the environment, of affluent life style of few persons of a society.

Answer.

  • Excessive use of air conditioners which is a part of affluent lifestyle emits a lot of heat in the atmosphere.
  • Excessive use of packaging materials which are mostly made up of non- biodegradable material are not environment friendly.
  • Excessive use of petrol in vehicles also causes pollution.
    Thus, affluent lifestyle results in the generation of excessive waste materials.

 

Q. 4. “The magnification produced by a spherical mirror is -3”. List four information’s you obtain from this statement about the mirror/image.

Answer. Magnification produced by a spherical mirror, m = -3

  •  image is 3 times magnified than the object.
  • image is inverted (as m has negative sign).
  •  image is real.
  • nature of the mirror is concave.

 

Q. 5. Forests are “biodiversity hot spots”. Justify this statement.

Answer. Forests are ‘biodiversity hot spots’. The measure of the biodiversity of an area is the number of species found there. Since in a forest there is a wide range of different life forms (bacteria, fungi, fern, flowering plants, nematodes, insects, birds, reptiles and so on) it can be termed a ‘biodiversity hotspot’. One of the main aims of conservation is to try and preserve the biodiversity we have inherited.

 

Q. 6. What is water harvesting? How can this technique help in the conservation of water?

Answer. Water harvesting is a conservation technique of capturing rain water when it falls and run off and taking measures to keep the water clean.

The main purpose of water harvesting is not to hold rain water on the surface of the earth but to make rain water percolate under the ground so as to recharge ‘groundwater’. This in turn reduces dependency on rainfall for irrigation.

 

Q. 7. On dropping a small piece of sodium in a test tube containing carbon compound ‘X’ , with molecular formula C2H6O, a brisk effervescence is observed and a gas ‘Y’ is produced. On bringing a burning splinter at the mouth of the test tube the gas evolved burns with a pop sound. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Also write the chemical equation for the reaction. Write the name and structure of the product formed, when you heat ‘X’ with excess cone, sulphuric acid.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-17

 

Q. 10. Three elements ‘X’, ‘Y’ and 71 have atomic numbers 7, 8 and 9 respectively.

(a) State their positions (Group number and period number both) in the Modern Periodic Table.

(b) Arrange these elements in the decreasing order of their atomic radii.

(c) Write the formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ combines with ‘Z’.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-18

 

Q. 12. In the context of reproduction of species state the main difference between fission and fragmentation. Also give one example of each.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-19

 

Q. 15. With the help of an example justify the following statement:

“A trait may be inherited, but may not be expressed.”

Answer. In Mendel’s experiment with pea plants, when he cross-bed a tall pea plant with a short plea plant, he found that the first generation (F1) was of only tall plants. In the F1 progeny, no short plants were obtained. Flow ever, in the F2 generation, both tall and short plants were obtained in the ratio 3 :1 respectively. In the F2 generation, both traits — tallness and shortness were inherited where the tall character was the dominant trait and short character was the recessive trait.

Conclusion. Reappearance of dwarf character in F2 generation proves that the dwarf trait was inherited but not expressed in the F2 generation.

 

Q. 16. The image of an object formed by a lens is of magnification -1. If the distance between the object and its image is 60 cm, what is the focal length of the lens? If the object is moved 20 cm towards the lens, where would the image be formed? State reason and also draw a ray diagram in support of your answer.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-20

 

Q. 19. (a) Define focal length of a spherical lens.

(b) A divergent lens has a focal length of 30 cm. At what distance should an object of height 5 cm from the optical centre of the lens be placed so that its image is formed 15 cm away from the lens? Find the size of the image also.

(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in the above situation.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-21

SET III

SECTION A

Q. 1. Write the name and structure of an aldehyde with four carbon atoms in its molecule.

Answer. Name of an aldehyde : Butanal

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-22

Q. 2. List two functions of ovary of human female reproductive system.

Answer. Two functions of ovary:

  1. To produce female gamete ovum.
  2. To secrete female hormones estrogen and progestrone.

 

Q. 3. In a food chain of frog, grass, insect and snake, assign trophic level of frog.

Answer. Food chain. Grass —> insect —> frog —> snake

Frog belongs to 3rd trophic level.

 

Q. 4. The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to air are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively. If speed of light in glass is 2 x 108 m/s, find the speed of light in water.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-23

 

Q. 5. List four stakeholders which may be helpful in the conservation of forests.

Answer. Four stakeholders which may be helpful in the conservation of forests:

  1. The people who live in and around the forest and are dependent to some extent on forest products for their live hood.
  2. The forest department of the Government which owns the forest land and controls the resources from the forest.
  3. The industrialists who use various forest products as raw materials for their factories.
  4. The forest and wildlife activists who want to conserve the forests and see the forests in their original condition (pristine form).

 

Q. 6. The construction of large dams lead to social and environmental problems. List two problems of each category.

Answer. 

The construction of large dams leads to social and environmental problem.list two problem of each category

Social problem: Already poor tribals gets affected the most, loss of land, livelihood, home, property etc.

2. Not enough cash compensation offered by the government to the tribal groups, hence no source for balancing their livelihood.

Environmental problem: Ecosystem gets disturbed due to unannounced construction of dams.

2.Rate of deposition of sediments of sediments gets reduced and rate of erosion remains constant hence resulting in reduced water tables, less deposition of sediments in deltas etc

 

Q. 7. The position of eight elements in the Modern Periodic Table is given below where atomic numbers of elements are given in the parenthesis.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-24

(i) Write the electronic configuration of Ca.

(ii) Predict the number of valence electrons in Rb.

(iii) What is the number of shells in Sr?

(iv) Predict whether K is a metal or a non-metal.

(u) Which one of these elements has the largest atom in size?

(vi) Arrange Be, Ca, Mg and Rb in the increasing order of the size of their respective atoms.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-25

 

Q. 8. Write three different chemical reactions showing the conversion of ethanoic acid to sodium ethanoate. Write a balanced chemical equation in each case. Write the name of the reactants and the products other than ethanoic acid and sodium ethanoate in each case.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-26

 

Q. 9. An element ‘X’ belongs to the 3rd period and group 13 of the Modern Periodic Table.

(a) Determine the valence electrons and the valency of ‘X’.

(b) Molecular formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ reacts with an element ‘Y’ (atomic number = 8).

(c) Write the name and formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ combines with chlorine.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-27

 

Q. 17. The image formed by a spherical mirror is real, inverted and is of magnification -2. If the image is at a distance of 30 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed? Find the focal length of the mirror. List two characteristics of the image formed if the object is moved 10 cm towards the mirror.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-28

 

Q. 24. (a) Define focal length of a divergent lens.

(b) A divergent lens of focal length 30 cm forms the image of an object of size 6 cm on the same side as the object at a distance of 15 cm from its optical centre. Use lens formula to determine the distance of the object from the lens and the size of the image formed.

(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in the above situation.

Answer.

(a)

  • The principal focus of a diverging lens is a point on its principal axis from which light rays, originally parallel to the axis appear to diverge after passing through the diverging (concave) lens.
  •  The distance between pole and principal focus of a diverging lens is called the focal length. In the given diagram OF is the focal length.
    cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-29
cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-30

Science 10th Previous Year Question Paper 2017 (CBSE)

Science

SET I

Section – A

Q 1.Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and the 3rd member of the homologous series whose first member is methane. 

Answer:

Ethane – C2H6

Propane – C3H8

 

Q 2.When a cell reproduces, what happens to its DNA? 

Answer:

During the process of reproduction, the transmission of DNA from parents to offspring takes place. Before reproduction, DNA is replicated, which means two copies of DNA are produced. When the cell divides, the two copies are distributed equally between the two daughter cells so that a similar amount and type of DNA is transferred from the parent cell to the daughter cells. It maintains the consistency in the amount and type of DNA in the living organism of a particular species.

 

Q 3. In the following food chain, 100J of energy is available to the lion. How much energy was available to the producer? 

Plant → Dear → Lion

Answer:

Plant → Dear → Lion

According to 10% law,

10% of x = 100

x = 1000 J in deer.

10% of y = 1000

y = 10,000 J in Plant.

 

Q 4. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. List four characteristics (nature, position, etc.) of the image formed by the lens. 

Answer:

Given: u = -30 cm, f = -15 cm. (for concave lens)

We know that,

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q4
CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q4.1

Characteristics of image:

  • The image is formed at a distance of 10 cm from the concave lens on the left side.
  • Image formed is virtual.
  • Image formed is erect.
  • The size of the image formed is diminished.

 

Q 5.State two advantages of conserving

(i) forests, and

(ii) wildlife. 

Answer:

(i) Advantages of conserving forest:

  • It supports life, purifies air.
  • Holds the soils and thus prevents the soil erosion.

(ii) Advantage of conserving wildlife:

  • Balances ecology and biodiversity.
  • Provides important things to sustain life.

 

Q 6. Explain two main advantages associated with water harvesting at the community level. 

Answer:

Two advantages associated with water harvesting at community level are:

  • Water harvesting is an ideal solution to water problems in areas having inadequate water resources.
  • It improves the quality of water and helps in raising the groundwater level.

 

Q 7. Write the structural formula of ethanol. What happens when it is heated with excess cones? H2SO4 at 443 K? Write the chemical equation for the reaction stating the role of cone. H2SO4 in this reaction. 

Answer:

Structural formula of ethanol is: CH3CH2OH

When ethanol is heated with excess of conc. H2SO4 at 443K it results in the dehydration of ethanol to give ethene.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q7

Role of conc. H2SO4: Conc. H2SO4 acts as a dehydrating agent which removes water from the ethanol.

 

Q 8. Distinguish between esterification and saponification reaction with the help of the chemical equations for each. State one use of each (i) esters, and (ii) saponification process. 

Answer:

Esterification is opposite of saponification. In esterification:

RCOOH + R’OH → RCOOR’ + H2O

Whereas in saponification:

RCOOR’ + NaOH → RCOONa + R’OH

(i) Uses of Esters : Esters are used in making perfumes.

(ii) Uses of saponification reaction: Used in making soaps and soap products on a large scale.

 

Q 9. Write the number of periods and groups in the Modem Periodic Table. How does the metallic character of elements vary on moving

(i) from left to right in a period, and

(ii) down a group ? Give reason to justify your answer. 

Answer:

In the modem periodic table, there are 18 vertical columns known as Groups and 7 horizontal rows known as Periods.

Metallic character: It is defined as the tendency of an atom to lose electrons.

(i) Across the period i.e., from left to right, metallic character decreases.

(ii) Down the group i.e., from top to bottom, metallic character increases.

Reason: Across the period, the effective nuclear charge increases, thus decreasing its atomic radius. This favours the electronegativity and therefore the tendency ‘ to lose electrons is low. This accounts for the decrease in the metallic character. As we move down the group, the number of shells keep on increasing and therefore the atomic size increases and electronegativity decreases. This enhances the ability to lose electrons and therefore the metallic character increases.

 

Q 10. Na, Mg and Al are the elements of the 3rd period of the Modern Periodic Table having group number 1, 2 and 13 respectively. Which one of these elements has the (a) highest valency, (b) largest atomic radius, and (c) maximum chemical reactivity ? Justify your answer stating the reason for each. 

Answer:

Sodium (Na), At. number 11, 2, 8, 1

Magnesium (Mg), At. number 12, 2, 8, 2

Aluminium (Al), At. number 13, 2, 8, 3

(a) The element having the highest valency is Al, as it has 3 valence electrons.

(b) The element with the largest atomic radius is Na as left to right atomic radius decreases.

(c) The element with maximum chemical reactivity is Na as metallic character decreases left to right.

 

Q 11. Reproduction is one of the most important characteristics of living beings. Give three reasons in support of the statement. 

Answer:

Reproduction is an energy-consuming process which is not essential for the survival of an individual. But it is highly essential for all the living beings because of the following reasons:

  • Reproduction helps in increasing the number of members of a population.
  • By replacing the dead members with the new ones, it minimizes the risk of extinction of a species.
  • It brings about variations in species, thus, leading to their evolution.

 

Q 12. What is vegetative propagation ? State two advantages and two disadvantages of this method. 

Answer:

Vegetative propagation is a mode of asexual reproduction in which new plants are obtained from vegetative parts of the plants such as shoots or stem for the propagation of new plants.

Two advantages of vegetative propagation are:

  • Plants which do not produce seeds are propagated by this method.
  • Vegetative propagation is a cheaper, easier and rapid method of propagation in plants than growing plants from their seeds. Plants grow very slowly and take 4 to 7 years to develop flowers when grown with their seeds.

Two disadvantages of vegetative propagation are:

  • As there is no genetic variation, there is no chance of development of new and better varieties.
  • The vegetatively propagated plants are more prone to diseases that are specific to the species.

 

Q 13. List three techniques that have been developed to prevent pregnancy. Which one of these techniques is not meant for males ? How does the use of these techniques have a direct impact on the health and prosperity of a family? 

Answer:

Three techniques that have been developed to prevent pregnancy are:

  1. Mechanical Methods: Include condoms, diaphragm, IUCDs, etc.
  2. Chemical Methods : Include oral contraceptive pills, spermicide.
  3. Surgical Method: Includes vasectomy and tubectomy.
    The chemical methods are not meant for males.

The use of such contraceptive methods have various benefits, such as:

  1. Large size of families have a negative impact on the economic status of the family.
  2. Having pregnancies at quick successions reduces mother’s health and vitality. Use of contraceptive devices thus, effects the maternal health status.
  3. Some contraceptive devices (such as condoms) are also helpful in preventing sexually transmitted diseases.

 

Q 14. How did Mendel explain.that it is possible that a trait is inherited but not expressed in an organism? 

Answer:

Some traits that are inherited may not express themselves. Such hidden traits are known as recessive traits. Mendel explained this phenomenon with the help of a monohybrid cross. In a monohybrid cross performed by Mendel, tall plant was crossed with a dwarf plant which produced all tall plants in F1 progeny.

However, when these F1 tall plants were crossed with each other, both tall and dwarf pea plants were obtained in F2 generation. Reappearance of the dwarf pea plants in F2 generation proves that the dwarf trait was inherited but not expressed in F1 generation.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q14

So, dwarfness traits of plants (pea plant) were not lost but are suppressed in the F1 generation and thus reappears in F2 generation.

 

Q 15. “Evolution and classification of organisms are interlinked”. Give reasons to justify this statement. 

Answer:

Classification refers to the grouping and naming of organisms based on the similarities and difference in their characters. Classification is done on the basis of ancestral characteristics and derived characteristics. So as we move from simple life forms to the complex organisms, we are actually tracing the path of evolution. All life forms on earth have progressively changed during evolution. So the hierarchy develops during classification which throws the light on the evolutionary relationship among organisms. Common ancestors can also be predicted with the help of classification.

 

Q 16. If the image formed by a lens for all positions of an object placed in front of it is always erect and diminished, what is the nature of this lens? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. If the numerical value of the power of this lens is 10 D, what is its focal length in the Cartesian system ? 

Answer:

It is a concave lens (diverging lens).

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q16

 

Q 17. State the cause of dispersion of white light by a glass prism. How did Newton, using two identical glass prisms show that white light is made of seven colours ? Draw a ray diagram to show the path of a narrow beam of white light, through a combination of two identical prisms arranged together in inverted position with respect to each other, when it is allowed to fall obliquely on one of the faces of the first prism of the combination. 

Answer:

When a beam of white light enters a prism, it gets refracted at point and splits into its seven constituent colours. This splitting of the white light occurs because of different angles of bending for each colour and this different angles of bending occurs because different components of light have different refractive indices when passing through the glass prism.

Firstly, Newton made white light to fall on a prism, this cause dispersion of white light into seven colours. Newton then placed an inverted prism in the path of a colour band of seven colours. Only a beam of white ‘ light comes out from the second prism. So, Newton concluded that white light comprises of seven component colours.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q17

 

Q 18. (a) Water is an elixir of life, a very important natural resource. Your science teacher wants you to prepare a plan for a formative assessment activity, “How to save water, the vital natural resource”. Write any two ways that you will suggest to bring awareness in your neighbourhood, on how to save water.

(b) Name and explain any one way by which the underground water table does not go down further. 

Answer:

(a) Water is one of the most precious natural resources that has varied importance in our lives. It is an essential component of the human body, and is used almost everywhere in our day to day activities such as cooking, washing, farming etc. It is an indispensable part of our lives, without which life on earth is not possible. However, the amount of freshwater available for sustaining life is very less, so it is very important to save water by the following ways:

  • Turning off the taps during brushing, washing clothes/utensils etc., and use of buckets instead of showers for bathing.
  • Reusing of water by storing water after washing fruits and vegetables for watering plants and cleaning cars.

(b) The underground water table can be recharged through rainwater harvesting. Rainwater harvesting is a process by which rain water is collected and stored for the purpose of recharging the ground water or for future use like for irrigation and agriculture. In India, rainwater harvesting is an old tradition which is followed till now in many parts of India. For example, bawris are traditional architectural rainwater harvesters that were built for collecting water in the state of Rajasthan.

There are two ways of rainwater harvesting:

  • Surface runoff harvesting: In urban areas, rainwater that flows away from the surface can be collected and used for various purposes.
  • Rooftop rainwater harvesting: The rainwater on the roofs of the buildings is collected through canals that drains the water into ground reservoirs. This stored water is later utilised.

 

Q 19. Why are certain compounds called hydrocarbons? Write the general formula for homologous series of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes and also draw the structure of the first member of each series. Write the name of the reaction that converts alkenes into alkanes and also write a chemical equation to show the necessary conditions for the reaction to occur. 

Answer:

Compounds consisting of carbon and hydrogen are known as hydrocarbons.

1. Saturated hydrocarbons: Alkanes (CnH2n+2) are the compounds of carbon which have single bond.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q19

2. Unsaturated hydrocarbons: The compounds of carbon having double bonds are alkene (CnH2n) and those having triple bonds are alkyne (CnH2n-2).

The reaction which converts unsaturated hydrocarbons to saturated hydrocarbons i.e., alkenes to alkane is known as hydrogenation reaction. It is used to obtain ghee from oil.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q19.1

 

Q 20. (a) Write the functions of each of the following parts in a human female reproductive system:

(i) Ovary

(ii) Uterus

(iii) Fallopian tube

(b) Write the structure and functions of the placenta in a human female. 

Answer:

(a) (i) Functions of the Ovary:

  • It produces female gametes (ova).
  • It secretes female sex hormones

(ii) Functions of Uterus:

  • It supports and nourishes the developing foetus.
  • It expands according to the growth of the baby.

(iii) Functions of Fallopian tubes:

  • They carry eggs from the ovary to the uterus.
  • They act as the site for fertilisation.

(b) The placenta is the connecting link between the mother’s body and the baby. It is a disc embedded in the uterine wall. This special tissue contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue. The mother’s end of the placenta has blood spaces, which surrounds the villi. Placenta functions as a site of exchange of materials between the blood of the mother to the baby. The developing embryo generates certain waste substances that are also removed through placenta. Thus, the placenta serves as the nutritive, respiratory and excretory organ of the foetus.

 

Q 21. With the help of one example for each, distinguish between the acquired traits and the inherited traits. Why are the traits/ experiences acquired during the entire lifetime of an individual not inherited in the next generation? Explain the reason for this fact with an example. 

Answer:

S.No.Acquired traitsInherited traits
1.Those traits that are developed by the individual during his lifetime.Those traits which are present in an in­dividual since birth.
2.They are a result of changes in non-reproductive issues.They are a result of changes in the DNA.
3.They cannot be passed on to the progeny,       e.g., pierced ear, large muscle size etc.They are transmit­ted in the progeny, e.g., colour of eyes, skin or hair.

Traits can be passed on to the next generation only when they have some direct effect on the genes. The traits acquired during the lifetime of an individual cannot be inherited as they do not affect the genetic makeup of an organism. In fact, these traits develop due to the use and disuse of organs or due to the direct effect of the environment. Thus, they are not passed on to the next generation. For example, a wrestler develops large muscles because of his training programme, it does not mean that his offspring will necessarily have large muscles. Similarly, if a lady pierces her nose, the children produced to her will not have pierced nose by birth.

 

Q 22. Analyse the following observation table showing a variation of image-distance (v) with object-distance (u) in case of a convex lens and answer the questions that follow without doing any calculations:

S.No.Object-Distance u (cm)Image-Distance v (cm)
1.-100+ 25
2.-60+ 30
3.-40+ 40
4.-30+ 60
5.-25+ 100
6.-15+ 120

(a) What is the focal length of the convex lens ? Give a reason to justify your answer.

(b) Write the serial number of the observation which is not correct. On what basis have you arrived at this conclusion?

(c) Select an appropriate scale and draw a ray diagram for the observation at S. No. 2. Also, find the approximate value of magnification. 

Answer:

(a) From observation 3, the radius of curvature of the lens is 40 cm as distance of object and the distance of the image is the same.

Focal length, f = R/2 = 40/2 = 20 cm.

(b) S. No. 6 is not correct, as for this observation the object distance is between focus and pole and in such cases, the image formed is always virtual, but in this case real image is forming as the image distance is positive, hence, v should be negative

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q22

 

Q 23. (a) If the image formed by a mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always diminished, erect and virtual, state the type of the mirror and also draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. Write one use such mirrors are put to and why.

(b) Define the radius of curvature of spherical mirrors. Find the nature and focal length of a spherical mirror whose radius of curvature is + 24 cm. 

Answer:

(a) The type of the mirror is a convex mirror. (diverging mirror)

The ray diagram is shown below:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q23

Use of convex mirror: Convex mirror is used as rearview mirror in vehicles as it always produces a virtual, erect and diminished image of an object. So, images of vehicles over a wide area can be seen easily in it.

(b) Radius of curvature: The distance between the centre of curvature and pole of a spherical mirror is called radius of curvature.

R = +24 cm

f = R/2 = 24/2 = +12 cm

The mirror is convex mirror.

 

Q 24. (a) A student suffering from myopia is not able to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m. List two possible reasons due to which this defect of vision may have arisen. With the help of ray diagrams, explain

(i) Why the student is unable to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m from his eyes.

(ii) The type of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision and how this defect is corrected by the use of this lens.

(b) If, in this case, the numerical value of the focal length of the corrective lens is 5 m, find the power of the lens as per the new Cartesian sign convention. 

Answer:

(a) Two possible reasons due to which this defect of vision may have arisen are:

1. Increase in curvature of the lens.

2. Elongation of the eyeball.

(i) A myopic eye has its far point nearer than infinity. It forms the image of a distant object in front of the retina as shown below:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q24

Image is formed in front of Retina

In the given case, student’s far point is 5 m. So, image of the object placed beyond 5 m from his eyes is formed in front of the retina and object appears blurred. That is why the student is unable to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m from his eye.

(ii) Since a concave lens has an ability to diverge the incoming rays. Therefore, it is used to correct this defect of vision. The image is formed at the retina by the use of a concave lens of suitable power as shown.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q24.1

Section – B

Q 25. When you add a few drops of acetic acid to a test-tube containing sodium bicarbonate powder, which one of the following is your observation? 

(a) No reaction takes place.

(b) A colourless gas with the pungent smell is released with brisk effervescence.

(c) A brown coloured gas is released with brisk effervescence.

(d) Formation of bubbles of a colourless and odourless gas.

(d) Formation of bubbles of a colourless and odourless gas. 

 

Q 26. While studying the saponification reaction, what do you observe when you mix an equal amount of colourless vegetable oil and 20% aqueous solution of NaOH in a beaker? 

(a) The colour of the mixture has become dark brown.

(b) A brisk effervescence is taking place in the beaker.

(c) The outer surface of the beaker has become hot.

(d) The outer surface of the beaker has become cold.

Answer:

(c) The outer surface of the beaker has become hot.

 

Q 27. A student requires hard water for an experiment in his laboratory which is not available in the neighbouring area. In the laboratory, there are some salts, which when dissolved in distilled water can convert it into hard water. Select from the following groups of salts, a group, each salt of which when dissolved in distilled water will make it hard. 

(a) Sodium chloride, Potassium chloride

(b) Sodium sulphate, Potassium sulphate

(c) Sodium sulphate, Calcium sulphate

(d) Calcium sulphate, Calcium chloride

Answer:

(d) Calcium sulphate, Calcium chloride

 

Q 28. To perform an experiment to identify the different parts of an embryo of a dicot seed, first of all you require a dicot seed. Select dicot seeds from the following group. 

Wheat, Gram, Maize, Pea, Barley, Groundnut

(a) Wheat, Gram and Pea

(b) Gram, Pea and Ground-nut

(c) Maize, Pea and Barley

(d) Gram, Maize and Ground-nut

Answer:

(b) Gram, Pea and Ground-nut

 

Q 29. The following vegetables are kept in a basket:

Potato, Tomato, Radish, Brinjal, Carrot, Bottle-gourd

Which two of these vegetables correctly represent the homologous structures? 

(a) Carrot and Tomato

(b) Potato and Brinjal

(c) Radish and Carrot

(d) Radish and Bottle-gourd

Answer:

(c) Radish and Carrot

 

Q 30. Study the given ray diagrams and select the correct statement from the following: 

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q30

(a) Device X is a concave mirror and device Y is a convex lens, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively.

(b) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 10 cm and 25 cm respectively.

(c) Device X is a concave lens and device Y is a convex mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively.

(d) Device X is a convex lens arid device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively.

Answer:

(d) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively.

 

Q 31. A student obtains a blurred image of a distant object on a screen using a convex lens. To obtain a distinct image on the screen he should move the lens. 

(a) away from the screen

(b) towards the screen

(c) to a position very far away from the screen.

(d) either towards or away from the screen depending upon the position of the object.

Answer:

(d) either towards or away from the screen depending upon the position of the object.

 

Q 32. A student very cautiously traces the path of a ray through a glass slab for different values of the angle of incidence (∠i). He then measures the corresponding values of the angle of refraction (∠r) and the angle of emergence (∠e) for every value of the angle of incidence. On analysing these measurements of angles, his conclusion would be: 

(a) ∠i > ∠r > ∠e

(b) ∠i = ∠e > ∠r

(c) ∠i < ∠r < ∠e

(d) ∠i = ∠e < ∠r

Answer:

(b) ∠i = ∠e > ∠r

 

Q 33. Study the following ray diagram

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q33

In this diagram, the angle of incidence, the angle of emergence and the angle of deviation respectively have been represented by 

(a) y, p, z

(b) x, q, z

(c) p, y, z

(d) p, z, y

Answer:

(c) p, y, z

 

Q 34. Mention the essential material (chemicals) to prepare soap in the laboratory. Describe in brief the test of determining the nature (acidic/alkaline) of the reaction mixture of saponification reaction. 

Answer:

The essential chemicals required to prepare soap in the laboratory are oil and sodium hydroxide solutions. In order to determine the nature of the reaction mixture of saponification reaction, we dip red litmus paper into it which will turn blue after a while indicating that it is a basic mixture.

 

Q 35. Draw in sequence (showing the four stages), the process of binary fission in Amoeba. 

Answer:

Binary Fission in Amoeba is the asexual type of reproduction in which the organism splits directly into two equal¬sized offsprings, each with a copy of the parent’s genetic material.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q35

 

Q 36. A student focuses the image of a candle flame, placed at about 2 m from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm, on a screen. After that, he moves gradually the flame towards the lens and each time focuses its image on the screen. 

  1. In which direction does he move the lens to focus the flame on the screen?
  2. What happens to the size of the image of the flame formed on the screen?
  3. What difference is seen in the intensity (brightness) of the image of the flame on the screen?
  4. What is seen on the screen when the flame is very close (at about 5 cm) to the lens?

Answer:

  1. He moves the lens away from the screen to focus on the image.
  2. Size of the image increases.
  3. The intensity of the image decreases as the flame moves towards the lens.
  4. Nothing can be seen as the image formed is virtual.

SET II

Q 1. Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and 3rd member of the homologous series whose first member is ethene. 

Answer:

1. Propene: C3H6

2. Butene: C4H8

 

Q 2. Newly formed DNA copies may not be identical at times. Give one reason. 

Answer:

During the process of replication of DNA, most of the base sequences in the new copies are identical to those in the parent DNA. However, some changes can occur either due to mutation or due to minor errors during the replication process. Thus, the newly formed DNA copies may not be identical at times.

 

Q 3.In the following food chain, plants provide 500 J of energy to rats. How much energy will be available to hawks from snakes?

Plants → Rats → Snakes → Hawks 

Answer:

500 J of energy is available to the rats thus according to 10% law, 50 J energy will be available to snakes and 5 J energy will be available to hawk.

 

Q 4. An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. List four characteristics (nature, position, etc.) of the image formed by the lens. 

Answer:

Given, u = -15 cm, f = 20 cm

1/f = 1/v – 1/u

1/20 = 1/v + 1/15

1/v = 1/20 – 1/15

v = -60 cm

Four characteristics of the image formed by the lens are:

  • Virtual
  • Erect
  • At a distance of 60 cm on the same side of the lens as the object
  • Enlarged or magnified image.

 

Q 5.Why is an equitable distribution of resources essential in a society? List two forces which are against such distribution. 

Answer:

Equitable distribution of resources is when every individual gets an equal right to access all the available resources and is benefited directly or indirectly. It also avoids the division of society to an extent.

The main forces which work against equitable distribution:

  • Lack of natural resources.
  • Excessive consumption by the rich.
  • Profit motive of people exploiting resources.
  • Corruption. (Any two)

 

Q 6. Why must we conserve our forests? List two factors responsible for causing deforestation. 

Answer:

We must conserve forests because we derive countless benefits such as food, timber etc. from them and they are an important component of our ecosystem. Factors that contribute to deforestation are as follows:

  1. Large scale development projects have contributed to the loss of forests.
  2. Forests are cleared on a large scale to meet the growing needs of industrialisation, especially fuelwood and for other forest products and minerals.
  3. Mining has also contributed to deforestation.
  4. With the increase in population and growing demand for commercial crops and the need for more and more land for agriculture, has to lead to deforestation.
  5. Growing urbanisation, trees are cut to establish cities, to lay down infrastructure.

 

Q 9. What happens when (write a chemical equation in each case)

(a) ethanol is burnt in the air?

(b) ethanol is heated with an excess cone. H2SO4 at 443 K?

(c) a piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol? 

Answer:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set II Q9

 

Q 10. Explain an esterification reaction with the help of a chemical equation. Describe an activity to show esterification. 

Answer:

The reaction of carboxylic acid with alcohol forms an ester. This process of formation of ester is called esterification.

CH3COOH + CH3CH2OH → CH3COOCH2CH3 + H2O

Activity:

  1. Take 1 ml of ethanol and 1 ml of glacial acetic acid in a boiling tube and mix the contents well.
  2. Add a few drops of conc. H2SO4 to it.
  3. Warm the contents on a water bath for a few minutes.
  4. Now pour the solution in a beaker containing 20-50 mL of water.
  5. A sweet fruity smell indicating the formation of an ester is observed.

 

Q 11. With the help of two suitable examples, explain why certain experiences and traits earned by people during their lifetime are not passed on to their next generations. When can such traits be passed on? 

Answer:

The experiences and qualifications that a person earns during their lifetime are examples of acquired traits. These traits are not inherited, they do riot affect the genetic makeup. They are developed due to the direct affect of the environment. Thus they are not passed to the next generation. Piercing of ears or large sized muscles of the wrestler are not carried by the next generation. Traits can only be passed on to the next generation only when they have some direct effect on the genes. For example, mutation is caused in the germ cells of a person due to exposure to some harmful radiations, it is likely that the mutation will be passed on to the subsequent generations.

 

Q 14. Describe reproduction by spores in Rhizopus. 

Answer:

Rhizopus is a fungus that reproduces by spore formation. The fungal hyphae gives rise to a globular structure known as sporangium. The sporangium gives rise to several spores by repetitive division of its nucleus. Each nucleus gets surrounded by a part of cytoplasm and thus develops into a spore. These spores then mature inside the sporangium. Once they are fully mature, the sporangium bursts to release these spores in the environment. Since the spores disperse through air, they can land on various sites. These sites may be favourable or unfavourable. During unfavourable conditions, these spores are protected by a tough coat. Once favourable conditions return, they germinate and grow into new hyphae.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set II Q14

 

Q 16. Draw ray diagrams to show the formation of three times magnified (a) real, and (b) virtual image of an object by a converging lens. Mark the positions of O, F and 2F in each diagram. 

Answer:

(a) For real image: To get a three-times magnified image, the object is placed between F1 & 2F1

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set II Q16

(b) For virtual image: To get a three-times magnified image, the object is placed between the F1 and optical centre O.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set II Q16.1

 

Q 17. What is the dispersion of white light? State its cause. Draw a ray diagram to show the dispersion of white light by a glass prism. 

Answer:

The phenomenon of splitting of white light into its seven constituent colours, when it passes through a glass prism, is called the dispersion of light.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set II Q17

When a beam of white light enters a prism, it gets refracted at point and splits into its seven constituent colours i.e.r violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red i.e., VIBGYOR. This splitting of light rays occurs because of the different angles of bending for each colour and this different angles of bending occurs because different components of light have different refractive indices or speed of different colours is different in glass when passing through the glass prism. When a beam of sunlight is allowed to fall on one of the rectangular surfaces of the glass prism, we obtain a coloured spectrum with red and violet colour at its extremes.

SET III

Q 1. Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and 3rd member of the homologous series where the first member is ethyne. 

Answer:

1. CH3C = CH (propyne), n = 3

2. CH3CH2C = CH (Butyne), n = 4

 

Q 2.Why is variation important for a species? 

Answer:

Variation is necessary for the survival of species as variation makes species more adapted to survive with the change environmental conditions. The vari? t species are more adapted to changing the environment. Therefore, they can survive better and reproduce to pass the genes to the offsprings.

 

Q 3. In the following food chain, 20,000 J of energy was available to the plants. How much energy would be available to man in this chain?

Plants → Sheep → Man 

Answer:

In the given food chain, according to 10% law,

Plants(20,000J) → Sheep(2000J) → Man(200J)

Amount of energy available to the man is 200 J.

 

Q 5. You being an environmentalist are interested in contributing to the conservation of natural resources. List four activities that you can do on your own. 

Answer:

We can bring the following activities in practice to conserve the natural resources:

  1. We can reuse and recycle the paper products so that cutting of trees could be reduced.
  2. We can reduce the consumption of water by avoiding its wastage in our day to day activities.
  3. We can also adopt water harvesting like rainwater harvesting.
  4. We can reduce the consumption of fossil fuels by using public transport, carpool and switching off vehicles at signals.

 

Q 6. Why are coal and petroleum categorised as natural resources ? Give a reason as to why they should be used judiciously. 

Answer:

Natural resources are those living and non-living sources available in our environment which are exploited to meet the human requirements. Since coal and petroleum are actually the fossils of the dead plants and animals respectively, hence considered as natural resources.

Both coal and petroleum are used as important sources of energy since long time. Both these fossil fuels were formed millions of years ago from the degradation of biomass. Since these fossil fuels are non-renewable in nature and they have limited reserves, therefore they must be used judiciously, otherwise they will get exhausted very soon.

 

Q 9. What is periodicity in properties of elements with reference to the Modem Periodic Table? Why do all the elements of the same group have similar properties? How does the tendency of elements to gain electrons change as we move from left to right in a period ? State the reason of this change. 

Answer:

The occurrence of the elements with similar properties after certain regular intervals when they are arranged in increasing order of atomic number is called periodicity. The periodic repetition of the properties is due to the recurrence of similar valence shell configuration after regular interval.

The elements in a group have same valence electrons thus similar chemical properties. In a period, the tendency to gain electrons increases from left to right. This tendency increases because the hold of the nucleus on the outermost electrons becomes weak thus it becomes easy to eject the electron.

 

Q 10. Write the electronic configuration of two elements X and Y whose atomic numbers are 20 and 17 respectively. Write the molecular formula of the compound formed when element X reacts with element Y. Draw the electron-dot structure of the product and also state the nature of the bond formed between both the elements. 

Answer:

X = 20; 2, 8, 8, 2

Y = 17; 2, 8, 7

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set III Q10

The nature of the bond will be ionic.

 

Q 12. What is an organic evolution ? It cannot be equated with progress. Explain with the help of a suitable example. 

Answer:

Organic evolution refers to the gradual changes that occur in living organisms over time. It is the result of change in the genetic makeup of the organism due to mutation and other sources of variations. „ The favourable mutations are accepted by nature and provide the organism an adaptive advantage, leading to its evolution. Evolution cannot always be equated to progress because it does not always lead to the formation of a new species. In fact, most of the time, it leads to the generation of diversity. One species does not necessarily get eliminated to give rise to new ones in prevailing environments. Also, the newly formed species may have complex organisations because of evolution but it cannot be considered better than the earlier species. Many older and simpler designs still survive in nature. For example, bacteria are one of the simplest life forms on earth and still they can survive in the most adverse conditions, such as hot springs, deep sea thermal vents etc. Therefore, having more complex body designs does not make any species superior to others.

 

Q 13. List the two types of reproduction. Which one of the two is responsible for bringing in more variations in its progeny and how? 

Answer:

Reproduction methods are of two types: Sexual and Asexual. Out of these, sexual reproduction brings more variation in organisms. In sexual reproduction fusion of male and female gametes from different organisms occurs. Since the fusion of gametes come from two different individuals, the offspring exhibit more diversity of characters. Also during gamete formation, meiosis occurs which brings new combinations of genes. Both these factors lead to more variations in the progeny.

 

Q 16. “A lens can form a magnified erect image as well as magnified inverted image of an object placed in front of it.” State the nature of this lens and draw ray diagrams to justify the above statement. Mark the positions of O, F and 2F in the diagram.

Answer:

Convex/Converging lens.

Two ray diagrams are drawn to show it-

(a) When object is placed between O and F1, the image formed is magnified, Virtual and erect.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set III Q16

(b) When object is placed between F and 2F, the image formed is magnified and inverted.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set III Q16.1

Q 17. What is “dispersion of white light”? Draw a labelled diagram to illustrate the recombination of the spectrum of white light. Why is it essential that the two prisms used for the purpose should be identical and placed in an inverted position with respect to each other? 

Answer:

The phenomenon of splitting of white light into its constituent colours on passing through a prism is known as the dispersion of white light. This splitting of the light rays occurs because of the different angles of bending for each colour and this different angles of bending occurs because different component of light faces different refractive index (or speed of different colours is different) when passing through the glass prism.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set III Q17

It is essential that the two prisms used for the purpose should be identical and placed in an inverted position with respect to each other so that the second prism completely nullifies the dispersion caused by the first prism and we get pure white light.

Social Science 10th Previous Year Question Paper 2016 (CBSE)

SOCIAL SCIENCE

SET-I

Q.1. Who remarked “when France sneezes the rest of Europe catches cold”.

Answer. Duke Metternich

 Or

Who were called colons in Vietnam?

Answer. French citizens living in Vietnam were known as colons.

 

Q.2. Why should the use of cattle cake as fuel be discouraged?

Answer. Using dung cake or cattle cake as fuel is being discouraged because it consumes most valuable manure which could be used in agriculture.

 

Q.3. Distinguish between pressure groups and political parties by stating any one point of distinction.

Answer. Pressure groups do not aim to directly control or share political power but political parties directly control and share political power.

 

Q.4. Why did India adopt multi-party system?

Answer. India adopted multi-party system because:

  1. India is a large country and has social and geographical diversities.
  2. It is easy to absorb different diversities in a multi-party system.

 

Q.5. Name any two sectional interest groups.

Answer. Trade Unions and Professional bodies like lawyers, teachers etc.

 

Q.6. Why do MNCs set up their offices and factories in those regions where they get cheap labour and other resources?

Answer. MNCs set up offices and factories for products in regions where they can get cheap labour and other resources so that (i) the cost of production is low and (ii) the MNCs can earn greater profits.

 

Q.7. If any damage is done to a consumer by a trader, under which consumer right one can move to consumer court to get compensation?

Answer. Right to seek redressal. The consumers can seek redressal against trade practices of exploitation and have the right to fair settlement of the genuine grievances.

 

.Q.8. Why is the supervision of the functioning of formal sources of loans necessary?

Answer. Supervision of the functioning of formal sources of loans is necessary because banks have to submit information to the RBI on how much they are lending, to whom they are lending and at what interest rate etc.

 

Q.9. “The decade of 1830 had brought great economic hardship in Europe.” Support the statement with arguments.

Answer. The decade of 1830s was known as great economic hardship in Europe because of the following reasons:

  1. Europe had come under the grip of large-scale unemployment. In most of the countries there were more seekers of jobs than employment.
  2.  Cities had become overcrowded and slums had emerged as population from the rural areas migrated to the cities.
  3. Small producers in towns were often faced with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-made goods from England where industrialization was more advanced specially in the field of textile production.
  4.  In those regions of Europe, where aristocracy still enjoyed power, peasants struggled under the burden of feudal dues and obligations. The rise of food prices and bad harvests added to their hardships.

Or

“The Ho Chi Minh Trail became advantageous to Vietnamese in the war against U.S.” Support the statement with arguments.

Answer. “The Ho-Chi-Minh Trail became advantageous to Vietnamese in the war against U.S.”

  1. The trail symbolizes how the Vietnamese used their limited resources to great advantage.
  2. The trail, an immense network of footpaths and roads was used to transport men and material from North to South.
  3. It was improved in late 1950s and from 1967 about 20,000 North Vietnamese troops came south each month. The trail had support bases and hospitals along the way.
  4. Mostly supplies were carried by women porters on their backs or on their bicycles.
  5. The U.S regularly bombed this trail to disrupt supplies but efforts to destroy this important supply line by intensive bombing failed because they were rebuilt very quickly.

 

Q.10. What type of flag was designed during the ‘Swadeshi Movement’ in Bengal? Explain its main features.

Answer. During the ‘Swadeshi Movement’ in Bengal, a tricolour flag—red, green and yellow was designed. It had eight lotuses representing the eight provinces of British India.

It had a crescent moon, representing Hindus and Muslims.

 

Q.11. “The plantation workers in Assam had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the notion of Swaraj”. Support the statement with arguments.

Answer. “The plantation workers in Assam had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the notion of Swaraj”

  1. For plantation workers in Assam, freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed.
  2. Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859 plantation workers were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission.
  3. Swaraj meant retaining a link with the village from which they had come.
  4. When they heard of the Non-cooperation Movement, thousands of workers defied the authorities, left the plantations and headed home.
  5. They believed that Gandhi Raj was coming and everyone would be given land in their own village.

 

Q.12. Classify industries on the basis of source of raw material. How are they different from each other?

Answer. On the basis of sources of raw material industries are classified as:

(i) Agro based industries; (ii) Mineral based industries

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-social-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-1

 

Q.13. ‘Consumption of energy in all forms has been rising all over the country. There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development and energy saving.’ Suggest and explain any three measures to solve this binning problem.

Answer. Every sector of the national economy—agriculture, industry, transport, (commercial and domestic), needs greater inputs of energy.

With increasing population and changing lifestyles energy consumption is increasing very fast. We are not self sufficient in energy according to demands. Therefore we have to adopt a cautious approach for the judicious use of our limited resources. Conservation of energy should be done at all levels.

Three measures to reduce consumption of energy in all forms:

  1. We can do our bit by using public transport systems instead of individual vehicles.
  2. Switching off electricity when not in use.
  3. Using power saving devices or using non-conventional sources of energy such as solar energy, wind energy etc.
  4. Checking the power equipments regularly can help in saving of energy.

 

Q.14. Suggest any three steps to minimise the environmental degradation caused by the industrial development in India.

Answer. Steps to minimize the environmental degradation caused by industrial development in India are: –

  1. Minimizing use of water for processing by reusing and recycling in two or more successive stages. Harvesting of rain water to meet water requirements of industries and other domestic purposes.
  2. Treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in rivers and ponds.
  3.  Particulate matter in the air can be reduced by fitting smoke to factories with electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers and inertial separators. Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of coal in factories.
  4. Machinery and equipment’s can be fitted with silencers to prevent noise pollution.

 

Q.15. What is meant by regional political party? State the conditions required to be recognised as a ‘regional political party’.

Answer. A regional party is a party that is present in only some states. Regional parties or State parties need not be regional in their ideology. They have state identity as they are present only in some states. Some of these parties are all India parties that happen to have succeeded only in states. Example, Samajwadi Party, Rashtriya Janta Dal.

Conditions required for a party to be recognized as a regional political party:

  1. A party that secures at least six percent of the total votes in an election to the legislative assembly of a state.
  2. Wins at least two seats in the legislative assembly.

 

Q.16. What are public interest pressure groups? Describe their functioning.

Answer. Public Interest Groups are those that promote collective rather than selective interests. Their functioning is as follows:

  1. It aims to help groups other than their own members.
  2. They represent some common interest that needs to be defended.
  3. The members of the organization may not benefit from the cause that the organization represents.

For example, a group fighting against bonded labour fights not for itself but for those who are suffering under such bondage. E.g., BAMCEF.

 

Q.17. Which three challenges do you feel are being faced by political parties in India? Give your opinion.

Answer. There are four major areas where the working of political parties faces challenge: 

Lack of internal democracy.

1.All over the world, there is a tendency of political parties towards the concentration of power in one or few leaders at the top.

2.Parties do not keep membership register.

3.They do not conduct internal elections regularly.

4.Ordinary members of the party do not have sufficient information as to what happens inside the party.

No Transparency.

1.Since most political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures for their functioning, these are very few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party.

2.Those who happen to be the leaders are in a position of unfair advantage to famous people close to them or even their family member.

3.In many parties, the top positions are always controlled by members of one family.

Money and Muscle Power

1.Since parties are focussed only on winning elections, they tend to use short cuts to win elections.

2.They tend to nominate those candidates who have or can raise a lot of money.

3.Rich people and companies who give funds to the parties tend to have influence on the policies and decisions of the party.

 

Q.18. “Deposits with the banks are beneficial to the depositors as well as to the nation”. Examine the statement.

Answer.

Benefit of deposits to the depositors:

  1. Bank accepts the deposits and pays interest to the depositor.
  2.  Banks help people save their money and keep their money in safe custody of the bank.
  3. People can withdraw the money as and when they require.
  4.  Banks also grant loans to people for a variety of purposes.

Benefit of deposits to the Nation:

  1. Banks use the major proportion of the deposit to extend loans.
  2. There is a huge demand for loans for various economic activities. In times of need, business houses and industries can borrow money from the banks.
  3. Banks mediate between those who have surplus funds and those who are in need of these funds. Thus, it helps in the economic development of the Nation.

 

Q.19. Why had the Indian government put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investments after independence? Analyse the reasons.

Answer. The Indian Government removed these barriers because:

  1. Liberalization of trade and investment policies allows Indian producers to compete with producers around the globe leading to an improvement in performance and quality of products.
  2.  After the barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large
    extent, goods could be imported and exported easily and also foreign companies could set up factories and offices in India. This has led to an increase in trade with different countries.
  3.  Businesses are allowed to make decisions freely about what they wish to import or export due to the liberal policies of the government.
  4.  Doors of investment opened up for MNCs. They have been investing large sums of money in India and have been seeking to earn large profits.

 

Q.20. “Rules and regulations are required for the protection of the consumers in the market place.” Justify the statement with arguments.

Answer. Rules and regulations are required for consumers’ protection because:

1. Sellers usually don’t accept responsibility for the sold products if there is any defect. For example, if a consumer who bought a utensil complains about the defect, then the seller may just ask the consumer to go to another shop.

2. Exploitation of consumers can happen in different ways like use of faulty weights. For example, a trader can weigh less good than what he is supposed to.

3. Consumers can be sold adulterated good purposefully. For example, adding colour to spices and then selling them.

4. If producers are few and consumers are many, producers can exploit lack of competition. For example, big companies can sell the product at any price they want because consumers don’t have a choice.

5. False information can be advertised on media to attract buyers. For example, a company selling baby milk powder advertised for a long time that it was better than mother’s milk.

 

Q.21. “Napoleon had destroyed democracy in France but in the administrative field he had incorporated revolutionary principles in order to make the whole system more rational and efficient.” Analyse the statement with arguments.

Answer.  “Napoleon had destroyed democracy in France but in administrative field he had incorporated revolutionary principles in order to make the whole systems more rational and efficient.”

(a) All privileges based on birth were removed.

(b) Established equality before law.

(c) Right to property was given.

(d) Simplified administrative divisions.

(e) Feudal system was abolished and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.

(f) Guild restrictions were removed.

(g) Transport and communication systems were improved.

Or

“The peace negotiations in Geneva followed the division of Vietnam that set in motion a series of events that turned Vietnam into a battle field.” Analyse the statement with arguments.

Answer. The peace negotiations in Geneva followed the division of Vietnam that set in motion a series of events that turned Vietnam into a battle field.”

  1. In the peace negotiations in Geneva that followed the French defeat, the Vietnamese were persuaded to accept the division of the country, i.e., North and South.
  2. The division set in motion a series of events that turned Vietnam into a battlefield bringing death and destruction to its people as well as the environment.
  3. The Bao Dai regime was soon overthrown by a coup led by Ngo Dinh Diem. Diem built a repressive and authoritarian government.
  4. Anyone who opposed him was called a Communist and was jailed and killed.
  5. With the help of Ho Chi Minh government in North, the NLF fought for the unification of the country. The U.S watched this alliance with fear. Worried about the communist gaining power, it decided to intervene decisively sending in troops and arms.

 

Q.22. Why did Mahatma Gandhiji decide to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain.

Answer. Mahatma Gandhi decided to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement because:

  1. Worried by the development of Civil Disobedience Movement the colonial government began arresting the Congress leaders one by one.
  2. This led to violent clashes in many places.
  3. When Abdul Ghaffar khan, a devout disciple of Mahatma Gandhi was arrested in April 1930, angry crowds demonstrated in the streets of Peshawar, facing armoured cars and police firing. Many were killed.
  4. A month later, when Mahatma Gandhi was arrested industrial workers in Sholapur attacked the police force, municipal buildings, law courts, railway stations and all other structures that symbolized British rule.
  5. A frightened government responded with the policy of brutal repression. The peaceful satyagrahis were attacked, women and children were beaten and about 1 lakh people were arrested.

 

Q.23. Explain the importance of conservation of minerals. Highlight any three measures to conserve them.

Answer. Reasons for Conservation: 

(i) The strong dependence of industry and agriculture upon minerals. 

(ii) The process of mineral formation is slow. 

(iii) They are non-renewable. 

Methods to conserve: 

(i) Minerals should be used in a planned and sustainable manner. 

(ii) Improved technology needs to be constantly evolved to allow use of low grade ore at low cost. 

(iii) Recycling of metals using scrap metals. 

(iv) Wastage in the mining and processing should be minimised.

 

Q.24. “Roadways still have an edge over railways in India.” Support the statement with arguments.

Answer. Roadways score over railways:

  1. Construction of roads is easier and cheaper as compared to railways.
  2. Roads provide door to door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much . lower as compared to railways which generally leave the people and goods at the
    destined railway stations.
  3. Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slope and, as such, can traverse through mountainous terrain. But railways cannot negotiate steep gradients.
  4.  Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over short distances.
  5. Road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of transport. They provide links between railway stations, airports and sea ports.
  6. They link agricultural farms with markets and industries, thus linking rural and urban
    areas.

 

Q.25. Describe the popular struggle of Bolivia.

Answer. Popular struggle of Bolivia

  1. People’s struggle against privatisation of water in Bolivia power that struggles are integral part of democracy.
  2. The world Bank pressurised the government to give up its control of municipal water supply. The government sold these rights to a multinational company which increased the price of water by four times. Many people received monthly water bill of ?1,000 in a country where average income is around ?5,000 a month.
  3. In January 2000, a new alliance of labour human rights and community leaders organised a successful gone day strike.
  4. The government agreed to negotiate and the strike was called off.
  5. The police resorted to brutal regression when the agitations started in February followed in April and the government imposed martial law.
  6. But the power of people forced the officials of the MNC to flee the city and made the government concede to all the demand of the protestors.
  7. The contract with MNC was cancelled and the water supply was restored with the municipality at old rates.
    This popular struggle came to be known as ‘Bolivia’s Water Cool’.

 

Q.26. “Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy”. Analyse the statement with examples.

Answer. “Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy” in the following ways:

  1. Without political parties democracies cannot exist. If we do not have political parties, every candidate in elections will be independent.
  2. No one will be able to make any promises to the people about any major policy changes.
  3. The government may be formed but its utility will remain uncertain.
  4. Elected representatives will be accountable to their constituency, for what they do in their locality but no one will be responsible for how the country will run.
  5. As societies become large and complex they also needed some agencies to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government, that’s why political parties are needed.

 

Q.27. How can the formal sector loans be made beneficial for poor farmers and workers? Suggest any five measures.

Answer. Formal sector loans can be made beneficial for poor farmers and workers in the following ways:

  1. Create greater awareness among farmers about formal sector loans.
  2. Process of providing loans should be made easier. It should be simple, fast and timely.
  3. More number of Nationalized Banks/cooperative banks should be opened in. rural sectors. Banks and cooperatives should increase facility of providing loans so that dependence on informal sources of credit reduces.
  4. The benefits of loans should be extended to poor farmers and small scale industries,
  5. While formal sector loans need to expand, it is also necessary that everyone receives these loans. It is important that formal credit is distributed more equally so that the poor can benefit from cheaper loans.

 

Q.28. Describe the impact of globalisation on Indian economy with examples.

Answer. Impact of Globalisation on the Indian Economy:

  1. Greater competition among producers (both local and foreign), has been advantageous to consumers, particularly the well-off section. There is greater choice before the consumers who now enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products.
  2. Globalisation has led to a higher standard of living especially in urban areas.
  3. MNCs have increased their investments in India in industries such as electronics, automobiles, cellphones, soft drinks, fast food, banking services etc. leading to more job opportunities in these industries and services.
  4.  Globalisation has enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as MNCs themselves like Tata Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy, Asian Paints, etc.
  5.  Globalisation has also created new opportunities for companies providing services particularly those involving IT (Information Technology). For example, call centres.
  6. Local companies supply raw materials to foreign industries and have prospered. However, for a large number of producers and workers the impact has not been uniform, and globalisation has posed major challenges.

 

Q.29. Three features A, B and C are marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map:

A. The place where cotton mill workers organised Satyagraha.

B. The place related to the calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement.

C. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-social-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-2

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-social-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-3

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q.No. 29:

(29.1) Name the city where cotton mill workers organised Satyagraha.

(29.2) Name the place related to the calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement.

(29.3) Where was the Indian Nation Congress Session held in December 1920?

Answer. (29.1) Ahmedabad (29.2) Chauri Chaura (29.3) Nagpur

 

Q.30. On the given political outline map, of India, locate and label the following with appropriate symbols:

A. Oil Field—Digboi

B. Iron and Steel Plant—Bhilai

C. Major Sea Port—Kochi

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-social-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-4

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q.No. 30:

(30.1) In which state is Digboi oil field located?

(30.2) Name the state where Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant is located.

(3Q.3) Name the Southernmost major sea port located on the eastern coast of India.

Answer. (30.1) Assam (30.2) Chattisgarh (30.3) Tuticorin

 

SET II

Q.1. Who was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles in January 1871?

Answer. Kaiser William I of Prussia was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles in January 1871.

Or

What was the main aim of the Scholar Revolt of 1868?

Answer. The main aim of Scholar Revolt of 1868 was to oppose French control and expansion of Christianity.

 

Q.2. How are ‘Gobar gas plants’ beneficial to the farmers?

Answer. “Gobar Gas Plants” are beneficial to the farmers in the form of energy and improved quality of manure.

 

Q.8. Prove with an argument that there is a great need to expand formal sources of credit in rural India.

Answer. There is great need to expand formal sources of credit in rural India because:

  1. There is no organisation that supervises the credit activities of lenders in the informal sector. They lend at whatever interest rate they choose.
  2. No one can stop rural money-lenders from using unfair means to get their money back.

 

Q.17. “Democracy accommodates social diversities.” Support the statement with examples.

Answer. “Democracy accommodates social diversities” in the following ways:

  1. Democracies develop a procedure to conduct their competition. This reduces the possibility of these tensions becoming explosive or violent.
  2.  No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups. But we can certainly learn to respect these differences and can evolve mechanism to negotiate these differences.
    Example, Belgium has successfully negotiated differences among ethnic population. This reduces the possibility of tensions.
  3.  Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is thus a definite plus point of democratic regimes.

 

Q.18. Explain by giving examples that Multinational Corporations (MNCs) are spreading their productions in different ways.

Answer. 

Multinational Corporations are spreading their productions in different ways :  (i) By setting up partnership with local companies.  (ii) By placing orders with local companies. For example, garments, footwear, sports items, etc.  (iii) By closely competing with the local companies.  (iv) By buying local companies. To take an example, Cargill Foods, a very large American MNC has bought over smaller Indian companies such as Parakh foods. Parakh Food had built a large marketing network in various parts of India, where its brand was well-reputed.

 

Q.19. ‘Credit has its own unique role for development’. Justify the statement with arguments.

Answer. 

1. Credit facilities that are extended to the people indirectly play an important role in the development aspect of the country.The credit facilities extended by formal sources (banks and cooperatives) need to expand and it is also necessary that everyone receives them

2. The high rates of interest charged by the informal sector restrict the income of people and often push them into a state of the debt trap. People in rural areas majorly depend on sources of informal credit for agricultural purposes involving costs on equipment and other resources.

3. Credit at low rates of interest, as opposed to informal sources, would lead to high incomes and increase the financial ability of the people. This would help them in growing crops, do business and set up small-scale industries or trade in goods which would eventually contribute to the healthy development of the country.

NOTE – Credit (loan) refers to the agreement wherein the lender provides the borrower with money or goods and services with a promise of repayment in future.

 

Q.22. Why did Mahatma Gandhi relaunch the Civil Disobedience Movement with great apprehension? Explain.

Answer. Mahatma Gandhi entered into a pact with Irwin on 5 March, 1931.

  1.  By this Gandhi-Irwin Pact, Gandhiji committed to participate in a Round Table Conference in London and the government agreed to release the political prisoners.
  2. In December 1931, Gandhiji went to London for the conference, but the negotiations broke dowrn and he returned disappointed.
  3.  Back in India, he discovered that the government had begun a new cycle of repressive measures.
  4. Abdul Ghaffar Khan and Jawaharlal Nehru were both in jail and the Congress had been declared illegal.
  5.  A series of measures hacj been imposed to prevent meetings, demonstrations and boycotts. Thus, with great apprehension Gandhiji relaunched the Civil Disobedience Movement.

 

Q.23. Explain any five major problems faced by road transport in India.

Answer. Problems faced by road transportation:

  1. The road network is inadequate in proportion to the volume of traffic and passengers.
  2. About half of the roads are unmetalled which makes them useless during rainy season.
  3. The National Highways are inadequate and lack roadside amenities.
  4. The roadways are highly congested in cities.
  5. Most of the bridges and culverts are old and narrow.

 

Q.25. Suggest and explain any five measures to reform political parties.

Answer.

  1. Law to regulate the internal affairs of political parties like maintaining a register of its members, to follow its own constitution, to have independent authority, to act as judge in case of party dispute, to hold open elections to the highest post.
  2.  It should be mandatory for political parties to give one-third tickets to women candidates.
    Also there should be quota for women on the decision-making bodies of the party.
  3.  There should be state funding of elections. The government should give money to parties to support their election expenses in kind (petrol, paper, telephone etc.) or in cash on the basis of votes secured by the party in the previous election.
  4.  People can put pressure on political parties in various ways through petitions, publicity in media and agitations.
  5. Ordinary citizens, pressure groups and movements and the media can play an important role in this. Ordinary citizens can reform politics if they take part directly and join political parties.

SET III

Q.1. Who was proclaimed the King of United Italy in 1861?

Answer. Victor Emmanuel-II

Or

Who led the ‘Scholar Revolt’ in Vietnam in 1868?

Answer. The “Scholar Revolt” in Vietnam in 1868 was led by officials at the imperial court.

 

Q.2. Why has aluminium metal great importance?

Answer. Aluminium metal has great importance because:

  1. It combines the strength of metals such as iron with extreme lightness.
  2. It has good conductivity and great malleability.

 

Q.8. Why are most of the poor households deprived from the formal sector of loans?

Answer. Most of the poor households are deprived from the formal sector loans because of lack of proper documents and absence of collateral.

 

Q.17. Analyse the three components of a political party.

Answer. The three components of a political party are as follows:

  1. The leaders. A political party consists of leaders, who contest elections and if they win the elections, they perform the administrative jobs.
  2.  The active members. They are the ones who work actively for the party. They are the assistants of the leaders and implement the plans and ideologies of the political party. (in) The followers. They are the ardent followers of the parties and their leaders and support them in the elections.

 

Q.18. How are consumers exploited in the market place? Explain.

Answer. Consumers are being exploited in the following manner:

  1. Sale of adulterated goods, i.e. adding something inferior to the product being sold.
  2. Misleading advertisements, i.e. advertisements falsely claiming a product or service to be of superior quality, grade or standard. eloping countries needs mostly takes the form of general, vague and mostly unforceable clauses. The system responds insufficiently to the diverse needs of developing countries which differ enormously regarding their economic power, production structure, and institutional capacity.
  3.  Use of false weights and measures leading to underweight.

 

Q.19. “The consumer movement arose out of dissatisfaction of the consumers”. Justify the statement with arguments.

Answer. The consumer movement actually arose out of dissatisfaction of the consumers:

  1. Many unfair practices were practised by the sellers.
  2. No legal system was available to the consumers to protect them from exploitation in the marketplace.
  3. Moreover, it was presumed that it was the responsibility of consumers to be careful while buying a commodity or service.
  4. A major step taken by the Indian government in this regard was the enactment of the Consumer Protection Act 1986, popularly known as COPRA.

 

Q.22. How did the Civil Disobedience Movement come into force in various parts of the country? Explain with examples.

Answer. Civil Disobedience Movement came into force in various parts of the country:

  1. Gandhiji led the salt march from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi with his followers starting the Civil Disobedience Movement.
  2.  Thousands in different parts of the country broke the salt law, manufactured salt and demonstrated in front of government salt factories.
  3. In the countryside, the rich Patidars of Gujarat and Jats of Uttar Pradesh were active in the movement. As rich communities were very hard hit by the trade depression and falling prices, they became enthusiastic supporters of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
  4.  As the depression continued and cash invoice dwindled, the small tenants found it difficult to pay the rent. They wanted the unpaid rent to the landlords to be remitted and thus they joined the movement.
  5.  Merchants and industrialists supported the movement by giving financial assistance and also by refusing to buy and sell the imported goods.
  6.  The industrial working class of Nagpur region also participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement. Railway workers, dock workers, mineral of Chota Nagpur etc. participated in protest rallies and boycott campaigns .

 

Q.23. Classify communication services into two categories? Explain main features of each.

Answer. Two types of means of communication are—A. Personal communication,’ B. Mass communication.

A. Features of Personal communication:

  1.  It is the communication between two or more persons at personal level.
  2. The Indian postal network handles parcels as well as personal written communication.
  3.  It includes cards and envelops, posts and telegraph, email etc.
  4. Telephone services like STD, ISD provide easy and comfortable network to a large number of people.

A. Features of Mass communication:

  1.  It is communication through which one can communicate with several people at the same time.
  2. It provides entertainment and creates awareness among people about various National programmes and policies.
  3.  It includes print media like newspapers, magazines, books etc. and electronic media like radio, television etc.

 

Q.25. “Democracy stands much superior in promoting dignity and freedom of the citizens”. Justify the statement.

Answer. Examples to illustrate that dignity and freedom of citizens are best guaranteed in a democracy:

  1. Dignity of women. Democracy recognises dignity of women as a necessary ingredient of society. The one way to ensure that women related problems get adequate attention is’+o have more women as elected representatives. To achieve this, it is legally binding to have a fair proportion of women in the elected bodies. Panchayati Raj in India has reserved one-third seats in local government bodies for women. In March 2010, the Women’s Reservation Bill was passed in the Rajya Sabha ensuring 33% reservation for women in Parliament and State legislative bodies.
  2.  Democracy has strengthened the claims of disadvantaged and discriminated castes. When governments are formed, political parties usually take care that representatives of different castes and tribes find a place in it. Some political parties are known to favour some castes. Democracy provides for equal status and opportunities for all castes.
  3. Democracy transforms people from the status of a subject into that of a citizen. A democracy is concerned with ensuring that people will have the right to choose their rulers and people will have control over the rulers. Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision-making that affects them all.
  4. A citizen has the right and the means to examine the process of decision-making. There is transparency in a democracy like India. In October 2005, the Right to Information (RTI) law was passed which ensures all its citizens the right to get all the information about the functions of the government departments. In a democracy, people also have the right to complain about its functioning.

Social Science 10th Previous Year Question Paper 2015 (CBSE)

SOCIAL SCIENCE

SET-I

Q.  1. What was the main aim of the French revolutionaries?

Answer. The main aim of the French revolutionaries was to create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. They proclaimed that it was the people who would constitute the nation and shape its  decisions.

Or

What is the meaning of concentration camps?

Answer. Concentration camps are prisons where people are detained and tortured without due process of law.

 

Q.  2. How do minerals occur in sedimentary rocks?

Answer. In sedimentary rocks a numbers of minerals occur in beds or layers. They have been formed as a result of deposition, accumulation and concentration in horizontal strata. For example, coal, iron ore.

 

Q. 3. What was the main aim of the popular movement of April 2006, in Nepal?

Answer. Aim of popular movement of April 2006 in Nepal:

  1. Restoring democracy.
  2. Regaining popular control over the government from the King.

 

Q. 4. How can you say that democracies are based on political equality?

Answer. Democracies are based on political equality as individuals have equal weight in electing representatives.

 

Q. 5. Why do political parties involve partisanship?

Answer. Partisanship is marked by a tendency to take a side and inability to take a balanced view, on an issue. Parties reflect fundamental political divisions in a society. Parties are a part of the society and they involve partisanship.

 

Q. 6. What is meant by double coincidence of wants?

Answer. Double coincidence of wants means when both parties have agreed to sell and buy each other’s commodities.

 

Q. 7. Suppose your parents want to purchase Gold jewellery along with you; then which logo will you look for on the jewellery?

Answer. Hallmark, is the logo to look for while purchasing Gold jewellery.

 

Q. 8. How does money act as a medium of exchange?

Answer. Money acts as a medium of exchange as it acts as an intermediate in the exchange process and transactions. A person holding money can easily exchange it for any commodity or services that he or she might want.

 

Q. 9. How did nationalism develop through culture in Europe? Explain.

Answer. Culture, music, dance and religion played an important role in the growth of nationalism.

  1. Culture. Role of culture was important in creating the idea of the nation. Art, poetry, music etc. helped in developing and expressing nationalist feelings. Romanticism was a cultural movement that led to the development of nationalist sentiment. Romantic artists and poets criticized the glorification of reason and science and instead focussed on emotions and intuition.
  2. Language. Language too played an important role in developing nationalist sentiments. After Russian occupation, the Polish language was forced out of schools and Russian language was imposed everywhere. In 1831, an armed rebellion against Russian rule took place which was ultimately crushed. Following this, many members of the clergy in Poland began to use language as a weapon of national resistance.
  3. Music and Dance. Romantics such as the German philosopher Herder claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people—das volk. It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation was popularised.

Or

How did Paul Bernard argue in favour of economic development of Vietnam? Explain.

Answer. Paul Bernard was an influential writer and policy-maker who strongly believed that the

purpose of acquiring colonies was to make profits.

  1. According to him, the development of economy will raise the standard of people and people would buy more goods. The market would consequently expand, leading to better profit for French business.
  2. According to Bernard, there were several barriers to economic growth in Vietnam, such as large population, low agricultural productivity and extensive indebtedness amongst the peasants.
  3. To reduce the poverty and increase agricultural productivity, it was necessary to carry out land reforms.
  4. Industrialisation was also essential for creating more jobs as agriculture was not likely to ensure sufficient employment opportunities.

 

Q. 10. Describe the main features of ‘Poona Pact’.

Answer. The Poona Pact:

  1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, who organised the dalits into the Depressed Classes Association in 1930 demanded separate electorates for dalits in the Second Round Table Conference organised in London.
  2.  When British accepted this demand in the name of Communal Award, Gandhiji started a fast into death. He believed that separate electorates for dalits would slow down the process of their integration into the society.
  3. Ambedkar and Gandhi came to an agreement with Ambedkar accepting Gandhis position and the result was the Poona Pact of September, 1932.
    — It gave the depressed classes (later to be known as Schedule castes) reserved seats in provincial and central legislative councils.
    — But, they were to be voted in by the general electorate.

 

Q. 11. How did ‘Salt March’ become an effective tool of resistance against colonalism? Explain.

Answer. Mahatma Gandhi found in salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation.

  1. On 31st January, 1930 he sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands, one of which was the demand to abolish Salt Tax.
  2. Salt was one of the most essential food items consumed by the rich and poor alike and a tax on it was considered an oppression on the people by the British Government,
  3.  Mahatma Gandhi’s letter was an ultimatum and if his demands were not fulfilled by March 11, he had threatened to launch a civil disobedience campaign.
  4. So, Mahatma Gandhi started his famous Salt March accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi.
  5. On 6th April, he reached Dandi, and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing salt by boiling sea water. This marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

 

Q. 12. Explain the importance of railways as the principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India.

Answer.

  1. Railways are the principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India, as they link different parts of the country.
  2.  They carry huge loads and bulky goods to long distances.
  3. Railways make it possible to conduct multiple activities like business, tourism, pilgrimage along with goods transportation over longer distances.
  4. Railways have been a great integrating force for the nation, for more than 150 years now,
  5. They have been helpful in binding the economic life of the country and also promoted cultural fusion.
  6.  They have accelerated the development of the industry and agriculture.

 

Q. 13. Why the ‘Chhotanagpur Plateau Region’ has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries? Analyse the reasons.

Answer. Chhotanagpur Plateau has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries because of the relative advantages this region has for the development of this industry like:

  1.  Low cost of iron ore which is mined here.
  2. High grade raw materials in close proximity.
  3. Availability of cheap labour.
  4. Vast growth potential in the home market.
  5. Availability of power because this region has many thermal and hydel power plants.
  6. Liberalisation and FDI have also given boost to the industry with efforts of private enterpreneurs.

 

Q. 14. How can solar energy solve the energy problem to some extent in India? Give your opinion.

Answer. Reasons:

  1. India is a tropical country and gets abundant sunshine.
  2.  It has enormous possibilities of tapping solar energy.
  3. It is an inexhaustible source of energy which is freely available in nature.
  4.  It is a cheaper source of energy and is fast becoming popular in rural and remote areas.
  5.  Photovaltic technology is available which converts sunlight directly into electricity.
  6. Because of its abundant and free availability in all parts of India in addition to its eco friendly nature, solar energy is called the energy of future.

Also use of solar energy will minimise the dependence of rural households on firewood. It will contribute to environmental conservation and reduce pressure on conventional sources of energy.

 

Q. 15. “Dynastic succession is one of the most serious challenges before the political parties.” Analyse the statement.

Answer. Most political parties do not practise open and transparent procedures for their functioning. So there are very few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party. Those who happen to be the leaders are in a position of unfair advantage as they favour people close to them or even their family members.

In many parties in India, we see a trend of dynastic succession. The top positions are always controlled by members of a particular family, which is unfair to other members of the party, and bad for democracy. This is so because people who do not have adequate experience or popular support come to occupy positions of power.

More than loyalty to party principles and policies, personal loyalty to the leader becomes more important. This tendency is seen all over the world, even in older democracies.

 

Q. 16. How is democracy accountable and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens? Analyse.

Answer. A democracy is concerned with ensuring that people have the right to choose their rulers and have control over the rulers.

— Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision making in a democracy.

— Democracy ensures that decision-making is based on norms and procedures. A citizen has the right anti the means to examine the process of decision-making. Thus democracy entails transparency.

— For a democracy to produce an accountable, responsive and legitimate government, it must ensure the following:

  1. Regular, free and fair elections.
  2. Open public debate on major policies and legislations. .
  3. Citizens’ right to be informed about government policies.
  4.  A government free from corruption.

 

Q. 17. “A challenge is an opportunity for progress.” Support the statement with your arguments.

Answer. A challenge is not just any problem. Only those difficulties are a ‘challenge’ which are significant and can be overcome and therefore carry within them an opportunity for progress. Democracy is the dominant form of government in the contemporary world. It does not face a particular challenger, but the promise of democracy is far from realised anywhere in the world. Democracy as a whole faces certain challenges.

Legal constitutional changes by themselves cannot help to overcome challenges to democracy—like economic inequality, unemployment, illiteracy, caste, gender discrimination. Democratic reforms can be carried out by political activities, parties, movements and politically conscious citizens, in order to realise the opportunity in a challenge, in order to overcome it an go up to a higher level.

 

Q. 18. Why is modern currency accepted as a medium of exchange without any use of its own? Find out the reason.

Answer. Modem forms of money currency in India include paper notes and coins which are known as Rupees and Paise.

  1. It is accepted as a medium of exchange because the currency is authorised by the Government of India.
  2. In India, the Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government. As per Indian law, no other individual or organisation is allowed to issue currency.
  3.  The law legalises the use of the rupee as a medium of payment that cannot be refused in settling transactions in India.
  4. No individual in India can legally refuse a payment made in rupees.
    Therefore, the rupee is widely accepted as a medium of exchange.

 

Q. 19. “Foreign trade integrates the markets in different countries.” Support the statement with arguments.

Answer. 

  1.  Foreign trade creates opportunities for producers to reach beyond domestic markets.
    Producers can compete in markets located in other countries of the world. Similarly for the buyers, import of goods from another country leads to expanding choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced. Buyers can thus choose from a wide range of products to suit their individual tastes.
  1. With the opening of trade, goods travel from one market to another. Choice of goods in the market rises. Prices of similar goods in two markets tend to become equal, and producers in the two countries now closely compete against each other even though they are separated by thousands of miles.
    Foreign trade, thus, results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in different countries.
    For example., There are endless number of footwear brands available in the Indian market. A consumer who is aware of international trends can choose between a local brand like Bata, Lakhani and international brands like Adidas, Nike, Reebok etc.

 

Q. 20. Explain with an example how you can use the right to seek redressal.

Answer. Right to seek redressal:

  1. The consumers can seek redressal against trade practices of exploitation and have the right to fair settlement of the genuine grievances.
  2.  He has a right to get compensation from a manufacturer/trader if he is harmed. The consumer can seek redressal through Consumer Courts functioning at district, state and national levels.
    Example: Mahesh sent a money order to his village for his mother’s medical treatment. The money did not reach his mother at the time when she needed it and reached months later. Mahesh, thus filed a case in the district level consumer court to seek redressal.

Q. 21. Describe any five steps taken by the French Revolutionaries to create a sense of collective identity among the French people.

Answer. The first clear-cut expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789. In 1789, France was under the rule of an absolute monarch.

When the revolutionaries came to power in France, they were determined to create a new sense of unity and nationhood. For this, they emphasized the concept of France being the father land (La Patrie) for all French people, who were from now on addressed as citizens (citoyen). They were given the tricolour flag, the three colours representing liberty*; equality and fraternity.

French revolutionaries introduced various other measures such as:

  1. The Estate General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly.
  2.  New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated all in the name of the nation.
  3.  A centralized administrative system was put in place and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory.
  4.  Internal customs, duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted.
  5.  Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation. .
  6. They further declared that it was the mission and the destiny of the French nation to liberate the people of Europe from despotism and help them to become nations.

Or

Describe any five steps taken by the French for the development of the ‘Mekong Delta Region’.

Answer. Steps taken by the French for the development of the ‘Mekong Delta Region’:

  1. Colonies were considered essential to supply natural resources and other essential goods. Like other western nations, France also thought that it was the mission of the advanced’ European countries to bring benefits of civilization to backward people.
  2. The colonial economy in Vietnam was primarily based on rice cultivation and rubber
    plantations owned by the French and a small Vietnamese elite. The French built canals and drained lands in the Mekong Delta to increase rice cultivation. A vast system of irrigation was built which led to great expansion in rice production and gradually Vietnam became the third largest exporter of rice in the world.
  3. Rail and port facilities were set up to support and service this sector.
  4.  Indentured Vietnamese labour was widely used in the rubber plantations, French did little to industrialise the economy.
  5. in the rural areas landlordism spread and standard of living declined.

 

Q. 22. Explain the attitude of the Indian merchants and the industrialists towards the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’.

Answer. Role of merchants and the industrialists in the Civil Disobedience Movement:

  1. Merchants reacted against colonial policies that restricted business activities.
  2. They wanted protection against import of foreign goods and wanted a rupee-sterling foreign exchange ratio that would discourage imports.
  3. Industrialsits formed the Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920.
  4.  They formed the Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries ‘ (FJCCl) in 1927.
  5.  Thev refused to sell or buy imported goods. They gave financial assistance and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement.
  6.  Industrialists like G.D. Birla and Pursnottamdas Thakurdas attacked colonial control over the Indian economy.

 

Q. 23. What is the manufacturing sector? Why is it considered the backbone of development? Interpret the reason.

Answer. Production of goods in large quantities after processing from raw materials to more valuable products is called manufacturing.

Manufacturing belongs to the secondary’ sector in which the primary’ materials are processed and converted into finished goods. The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.

Importance of manufacturing industries for development in India:

  1. It helps in modernising agriculture, which is the base of our economy.
  2.  It reduces heavy dependence on agricultural income by providing jobs in non- agricultural sectors.
  3.  Industrial development is necessary for eradication of poverty and unemployment because people get jobs and generate more income.
  4.  Export of manufactured goods expands trade and brings in much needed foreign exchange.
  5. Industries bring riches faster to a nation because manufacturing changes raw materials into finished goods of a higher value, so industrial development brings prosperity to the country.

 

Q. 24. Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? Assess the importance of its different forms. 

Answer. Coal is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India.

Four types of coal and their characteristics:

(a) Anthracite. 1. It is the highest quality hard coal;

2. It contains more than 80% carbon content. It gives less smoke.

(b) Bituminous. 1. It is the most popular coal in commercial use and has 60-80% carbon content;

2. Metallurgical coal is high grade bituminous coal and is of special value for smelting iron in blast furnaces.

(c) Lignite. 1. IHs a low grade brown coal;

2. It is soft with high moisture content. The main lignite reserve is Neyveli in Tamil Nadu.

(d) Peat. 1. It has a low carbon and high moisture content;

2. It has low heating capacity and gives lot of smoke on burning.

 

Q. 25. What is meant by a political party? Describe the three components of a political party.

Answer. Political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and to hold power in the government. They agree on some policies to promote collective good. They seek to implement those policies by winning popular support through elections. Thus political parties tend to fill political offices and exercise political power.

Answer. Components of a political party are: (1) The leaders, (2) active members and (3) the followers.

  1. The leaders are recruited and trained by parties. They are made ministers to run the government. The big policy decisions are taken by the political executives that come from the political parties.
  2.  Parties have lakhs of members and activists spread over the country. Many of the pressure groups are the extensions of political parties among different sections of society. But since most of the members belong to a party, they go by the direction of the party leadership, irrespective of their personal opinion.
  3. The followers are the ordinary citizens, who believe in the policies of their respective party and give popular support through elections. Often the opinions of the followers crystallise on the lines parties take.

 

Q. 26. Suggest any five effective measures to reform political parties.

Answer. See Q. 26, 2011 (I Delhi).

 

Q. 27. How do banks play an important role in the economy of India? Explain.

Answer.

  1. Banks help people to save their money and keep their money in safe custody. To ensure safety of their money, people deposit their money with banks. Banks accept deposits and pay interest on deposits. People have the provision to withdraw their money as and when they require.
  2. Banks also grant loans to people for a variety of purposes. In times of need individuals, business houses and industries can borrow money from the banks.
  3. Credit provided by banks is crucial for the country’s growth and economic
    development. Credit is needed for all kinds of economic activities, to set up business, buy cars, houses, etc.
  4. Banks also help people in obtaining cheap and affordable loans. This can help people to grow crops, do business, set up small-scale industries or trade in goods and also help indirectly in the country’s development. They should do so, so that relatively poor people do not have to depend on informal sources of credit (money-lenders).

 

Q. 28. “Globalisation and greater competition among producers has been advantageous consumers.” Support the statement with examples.

Answer.

  1.  Greater competition among producers (both local and foreign) has been advantageous to consumers, particularly the well-off section. Rich people enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products and enjoy a higher standard of living.
  2. MNCs have increased their investments in India over the past 20 years in industries such as cell phones, automobiles, electronics, soft drinks, fast food and services such as banking thereby providing consumers with a vast variety of products.
  3. New jobs have been created in all these industries and services, thereby increasing purchasing power of individuals.
  4. Top Indian companies have benefitted from the increased competition. They have invested in newer technology and production methods indirectly benefitting the consumers.
  5.  Consumers today, enjoy much higher standards of living than was possible earlier.

 

Q. 29. Three features A, B and C are marked on the given political outline map of India.

Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map:

A. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.

B. The place associated with the Peasant’s Satyagraha.

C. The place related to calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-social-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-1

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-social-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-2

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q.  No. 29.

(29.1) Name the place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in Dec., 1920.

(29.2) Name the place associated with the movement of Indigo Planters.

(29.3) Name the place related to the Satyagraha of peasants in Gujarat.

Answer. (29.1) Nagpur (29.2) Champaran (29.3) Kheda

 

Q. 30 (30.1) Two features A and B are marked on the given political outline map of India.

Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map:

A. Iron-orb mines B. Terminal Station of East-West Corridor

(30.2) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label the following:

(i) Vishakhapatnam—Software Technology Park

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-social-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-3

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-social-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-4

Note: Tite foil Giving questions are for the VISUALLY IMPAIRED CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Q.  No. 30.

(30.1) In which state are Bailadila Iron-ore mines located?

(30.2) Name the Western Terminal Station of East-West Corridor.

(30.3) Name the well known Software Technology Park located in Karnataka State.

Answer. (30.1) Chhattisgarh (30.2) Porbandar (30.3) Bangalore or Mysore

 

SET II

Q. 2. Why has the ‘National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council’ been set up?

Answer. The trend of growth rate in the manufacturing sector over the last decade has been around 7% per annum. The desired growth rate over the next decade is 12%. The NMCC has been set up to improve productivity with government policy intervention and efforts by Industry.

 

Q. 3. What is the guiding philosophy of Bhartiya Janata Party?

Answer. The source of inspiration of Bharatiya Janata Party is the ancient Indian culture and values. Cultural nationalism (Hindutva) is an important element in its conception of Indian nationhood and politics.

 

Q. 6. What is meant by trade barrier?

Answer. Barriers or restrictions that are imposed by the government on free import and export activities are called trade barriers. Tax on imports is an example of a trade barrier because it increases the price of imported commodities. The government can use a trade barrier like ‘tax’ to increase or decrease (regulate) foreign trade and to decide what kind of goods and how much of what should come into the country.

 

Q. 10. Describe the spread of Non-Cooperation Movement in the countryside.

Answer. The Non-cooperation movement spread to the countryside also.

It drew into the struggles of peasants and tribals from different parts of India.

  1. In Awadh, the peasants’ movement ied by Baba Ramchandra was against talukdars and landlords who demanded extremely high rents and a variety of other cesses from the peasants. Peasants were forced to work in landlords’ farms without any payment (begar). Peasants had no security of tenure, thus being regularly evicted so that they could acquire no right over the leased land. The demands of the peasants were— reduction of revenue, abolition of begar and social boycott of oppressive landlords.
  2. In the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh a militant guerrilla movement spread in the early 1920s against the closure of forest areas by the colonial government, preventing people from entering the forests to graze their cattle, or to collect fuelwood and fruits. They felt that their traditional rights were being denied.
  3. For plantation workers in Assam, freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed. It meant retaining a link with the village from which they had come.

Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers were not permitted to leave tea gardens without permission. In fact the permission was hardly granted. When they heard of the Non-Cooperation Movement, thousands of workers defied the authorities and left for their homes.

 

Q. 12. Describe any three features of waterways in India,

Answer.

  1. Waterways are the cheapest means of transport.
  2.  Waterways are a fuel efficient and environment friendly mode of transport.
  3. They are most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods.
  4.  India’s trade with foreign countries if carried from the ports located along the coast, and more than 95% of the’country’s trade volume is moved by the sea.

 

Q. 15. How do money and muscle power play an important role in elections?

Answer. Political parties need to face and overcome the growing challenge of Money and Muscle power during elections in order to remain effective instruments of democracy.
Since parties are focussed only on winning elections, they tend to use shortcuts to win elections, for example, like booth-rigging, distribution of food, money, alcohol, etc. to the poor voters to get their votes. Political parties tend to nominate those candidates who have or can raise lots of money. Rich people and companies who give funds to the parties tend to have influence on the policies and decisions of the party. These days, parties are supporting criminals who can win elections. This is a major cause of concern to the democrats all over the world who are worried about the increasing role of rich people and big companies in democratic politics.

 

Q. 22. Explain any five major problems posed by the First World War in India.

Answer. The outbreak of the First World War had created a new economic and political situation in India:

  1. Tire increased defence expenditure was financed by war loans and by raising tax rates, custom duties, etc. There was tremendous price rise during the war years. Between 1913 and 1918, the prices had almost doubled. People, particularly common people, were lacing extreme hardships.
  2. Forced recruitment in the army caused widespread anger in the villages. .
  3. The failure of crops in many parts of India had created food shortages, leading to the added misery of the people.
  4. In addition to this, there was the outbreak of the great influenza epidemic. Millions of people perished due to influenza and starvation.
  5. The nationalist movement grew stronger during the war years. A large number of Muslims were drawn into the anti-British struggle during the war. The defence of the ‘Caliphate’ (Khilafat) became an important question for Muslims. Peasant movements during war period also had helped the nationalist movement to grow stronger.

 

Q. 23. Why was the cotton textile industry concentrated in the cotton growing belt in the early years? Explain.

Answer. In the early years, the cotton growing belt was primarily concentrated in Maharashtra and Gujarat.

  1. Availability of raw cotton was abundant and cheap here because these are the traditional cotton growing states.
  2. Moist climate in these coastal states also helped in the development of cotton textile industry because humid conditions are required for weaving the cloth, else the yam breaks.
  3. Well developed transportation system and accessible port facilities in Maharashtra and Gujarat led to their concentration there.
  4. Proximity to the market was yet another factor as cotton clothes were ideal and comfortable to wear in these warm and humid states.
  5. Cheap labour was also abundantly available.

 

Q. 26. “The democracy has been evolved through struggles and movements all over the world.” Support the statement with examples.

Answer.

  1. Democracy has evolved through struggles and movements all over the world. The struggles in Poland, Nepal and Bolivia all relate to establishing and restoring democracy. The struggled in these countries is a reminder that popular struggles are integral to the working of democracy.
  2. The role of popular struggle does not come to an end with the establishment of democracy. Democracy involves conflict of interests and viewpoints. These views are expressed in organised ways through which ordinary citizens can play a role in democracy.
  3. In a democracy, several different kinds of organisations work behind any big struggle. These organisations influence the decisions in a democracy either by creating parties, contesting elections and forming government. They promote the interest and viewpoints of citizens in a democracy through interest groups or pressure groups.
  4. Democracy evolves through popular struggle. Some major decisions may take place through consensus. But some decisions involve conflict between the groups who have exercised power and those who aspire to share power. Here the popular struggle helps in the expansion of democracy.

SET III

Q. 2. Why was the Haldia sea-port set up?

Answer. Haldia sea-port was set up as a subsidiary port, in order to relieve growing pressure on the Kolkata port.

 

Q. 3. What is meant by ‘transparency’?

Answer. In a democracy, every citizen has the right and means to examine the process of decision making. This is known as transparency.

 

Q. 6. Why was the Consumer Protection Act enacted by the Indian Parliament?

Answer. The Consumer Protection Act was enacted by the Indian parliament in 1986 to protect the consumers from unfair trade practices and retain interest of consumers.

 

Q. 10. Describe any three major problems faced by the peasants of Awadh in the days of Non-Cooperation Movement.

Answer. The movement of Awadh peasants was led by:

  1. The peasants’ movement Baba Ramchandra was against talukdars and landlords who demanded extremely high rents and a variety of other cesses from the peasants.
  2. Peasants were forced to work in landlords’ farms without any payment (begar). Peasants had no security of tenure, thus being regularly evicted so that they could acquire no right over the leased land.
  3. The demands of the peasants were: reduction of revenue, abolition of begar and social boycott of oppressive landlords.

 

Q. 12. Describe the significance of tourism as a trade in India.

Answer.

  1. With increase in the number of foreign tourists visiting India, we earned foreign exchange worth ?21,828 crore in 2004 which is further increasing year by year making tourism an important trade.
  2. Over 2.6 million foreign tourists visit India every year for appreciating our heritage, our culture, for medical purposes or for business purposes, etc.
  3. Over 15 million people are directly engaged in the tourism industry.
  4. Tourism promotes national integration, provides support to local handicrafts and cultural pursuits.
  5. Tourism also helps in the development of international understanding about our culture and heritage.
  6.  Rajasthan, Goa, Jammu & Kashmir and temple towns of south India are the most popular tourist destinations. These states earn huge sums of money from tourism trade.

 

Q. 15. “There is an overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world.” Support the statement.

Answer. Over a hundred countries of the world today claim and practice some kind of democratic politics.

— They have formal constitutions, hold elections, have parties and they guarantee rights of citizens. Thus, in most countries, the democracy produces a government that is accountable to the citizens and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens.

— No society7 can fully and permanently resolve conflict among different groups. But we can learn to respect these differences and evolve mechanisms to negotiate them. Democracy is best suited as it develops a procedure to conduct competitions. Belgium is a successful example of negotiating difference among ethnic population.

— Passion for respect and freedom is the basis of democracy and has been achieved in various degrees in various democracies.

— The support for democracy is overwhelming all over the world and is evident from South Asia, where the support exists in countries with democratic as well as undemocratic regimes.

— People wish to be ruled by representatives elected by them, as a democratic government is people’s own government and makes them believe that it is suitable for their country as it is a legitimate government.

 

Q. 22. How did the ‘Non-Cooperation Movement’ spread in cities across the country? Explain its effects on the economic front.

Answer. In the cities, the Non-Cooperation Movement started with middle class participation.

  1. Thousands of students left government-controlled schools and colleges. Headmasters and teachers resigned and. lawyers gave up their legal practices.
  2.  The Council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras.
  3. Foreign goods and foreign cloth was boycotted. Traders and merchants also refused to trade in foreign goods.

The economic sphere was affected by the Non-Cooperation Movement.

  1. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops were picketed and foreign doth was burnt. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921-1922. Its value dropped from Rs 102 crores to Rs 57 erores.
  2. Many merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade. (Hi) People began discarding imported clothes and wearing Indian ones.
  3. The production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up. Use of khadi was popularised.

 

Q. 23. Explain the pro-active approach adopted by the National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) for preserving the natural environment and resources.

Answer. NTPC is taking the following measures in places where it is setting up power plants to preserve natural environment and resources:

  1. Optimum utilization of equipment by adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment.
  2. Minimizing waste generation by maximizing ash utilization.
  3.  Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance. .
  4. Reducing environmental pollution through ash pond management, ash water recycling system and liquid waste management.
  5. Ecological monitoring,, reviews and online data base management for all its power stations.

 

Q. 26. Why do we feel that democracy is a better form of government than any other form? Explain.

Answer. Democracy is a better form of government than any other form because:

  1. It is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation. Thus the necessary delay in implementation.
  2. Decisions are acceptable to people and are more effective.
  3. A citizen has the right and the means to examine the process of decision-making. There is transparency in a democracy.
  4.  Democratic government is a legitimate government, people’s own government.
  5. Ability to handle differences, decisions and conflicts is a positive point of democratic regimes.
  6. Democracy has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity.

Social Science 10th Previous Year Question Paper 2017 (CBSE)

Social Science

SET-I

Section – A

Q. 1. Name the writer of the book ‘Hind Swaraj’. 

Answer: The book ‘Hind Swaraj’ was written by Mahatma Gandhi.

 

Q. 2. Name the river-related to National Waterways No. 2. 

Answer:National Waterways No. 2 is related to the river ‘Brahmaputra’.

 

Q. 3. Explain any one difference between a pressure group and a political party. 

Answer:

Pressure Group Political Party
They have a specific interest and work for the collective interest of their members Eg. Railway employee association, Teacher’s association. They do not directly control or share political powers. They have a broad programme that covers many aspects of national interest.
Their membership is limited. The membership of political parties is broad.

 

Q. 4. Explain the meaning of democracy. 

Answer:Democracy is a form of government in which the supreme power is vested in the people and the representatives of the people are elected by the voters on the basis of adult franchise.

 

Q. 5. Name any one political party of India which grew out of a movement. 

Answer:The political party of India that grew out of movement is ‘Asom Gana Parishad.’

 

Q. 6. How does the use of money make it easier to exchange things ? Give an example. 

Answer:Money makes exchanging things easier as:

  • It is in the form of authorised paper currency which gives the guarantee of the mentioned price to the owner.
  • It has general acceptability.
  • Its price remains constant compared to other commodities.
  • It can be stored easily and doesn’t need much space.

 

Q. 7. Give an example of a violation of the consumer’s right to choose. 

 

Q. 8. How is the maximum retail price printed on packets beneficial for you? 

Answer:Through printed Maximum Retail Price (MRP) on the packets or products, consumers get to know that they do not have to pay prices more than the printed price. Then, the shopkeeper cannot cheat the consumers by overcharging them.

 

Q. 9. Describe any three economic hardships faced by Europe in the 1830s. 

OR

Describe any three problems faced by the French in the sphere of education in Vietnam.

Answer:Economic hardships faced by Europe in 1830s were:

  • Increase in population.
  • Unemployment, migration and price rise.
  • Stiff competition in the market.
  • Bad condition of peasants. (Any three)

OR

The French faced the following problems in the sphere of education in Vietnam:

(i) After receiving western education, the Vietnamese might question colonial domination as it was done by Indians in India under British rule. They would become aware of the western democracies and would put forward various demands before the French government,

(ii) Educated Vietnamese might demand various white-collar jobs or better-paid jobs such as the jobs of teachers, policemen, etc. which were being done by the French citizens called colons living in Vietnam. Thus, there was opposition from the French citizens to give education to the Vietnamese.

(iii) The elites in Vietnam were under the powerful influence of the Chinese culture. It was necessary for the French to counter this influence too.

 

Q. 10. Why did Gandhiji decide to withdraw the ‘Non-Cooperation Movement’ in February 1922? Explain any three reasons. 

Answer:Causes of withdrawal of Non-Cooperation Movement are as follows:

  • Some activists of the Non-Cooperation Movement set a police station on fire at Chauri-Chaura (Gorakhpur), Uttar Pradesh in which 21 policemen were burnt alive.
  • Gandhiji felt that people of India were not ready for a nation-wide movement of mass struggle and felt that he should withdraw the movement.
  • Moreover, many members of the Indian National Congress felt that the Non-Cooperation Movement was tiresome and unnecessary since they wanted to contest the election.

 

Q. 11. Evaluate the role of business classes in the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement.’ 

Answer: The role of business classes in the Civil Disobedience Movement is as follows:

  • Keen on expanding their business, the business classes supported Civil Disobedience Movement and Protested against colonial policies that restricted business activities. They wanted protection against the import of foreign goods and a rupee sterling foreign exchange ratio that would discourage imports.
  • To organise business classes against colonial policies, they formed the Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920 and the Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) in 1927.
  • The business community interpreted Swaraj in their own way. They came to see Swaraj at the time when the colonial restriction on business would no longer exist and the trade industry would flourish without constraint.

 

Q. 12. Describe any three characteristics of Durg- Bastar-Chandrapur Iron ore belt in India. 

Answer:The characteristics of Durg-Bastar- Chardrapur Iron-ore belt in India are as follows:

  • The Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt of high-grade hematite iron ore. This high-quality iron ore is suitable for steel-making.
  • The steel made from this ore is used to produce automobiles, railway equipment and in the defence sector.
  • Half of the iron ore is exported to Japan and South Korea from the Vishakhapatnam port as building a new steel plant is a very costly affair.

 

Q. 13. Analyse the role of the manufacturing sector in the economic development of India. 

Answer:Contribution of the Manufacturing sector to the national economy:

  • Creation of alternative employment: Manufacturing reduces dependence on agriculture by providing alternative employment opportunities in the factory.
  • Better standard of living: The industrial labourers and other employees get higher wages and enjoy a higher standard of living compared to landless agricultural labourers.
  • Support to agricultural production: Increase in use of fertilizers, pesticides, plastics, electricity and diesel in agriculture has been possible due to the growth and competitiveness of the manufacturing industries.
  • In the present day world of territorial specialization, our industry needs to be more efficient and competitive Our goods must be at par with those of other countries in the international market This will fetch foreign exchange and increase national wealth. (Any three)

 

Q. 14. Examine with example the role of means of transport and communication in making our life prosperous and comfortable. 

Answer:Transportation and communication have made our life prosperous and comfortable in the following ways:

(i) Because of transport, raw materials reach the factory and finished products reach to consumers. The pace of development of a country depends upon the production of goods and services as well as their movement over time. Therefore, efficient means of transport are a prerequisite for fast development.

(ii) Apart from transport, the ease and mode of communications, like mobiles, internet, and Wi-Fi makes a seamless flow of information possible.

(iii) Today, India is well-linked with the rest of the world despite its vast size, diversity and linguistic and socio¬cultural plurality. Railways, airways, waterways, newspaper, radio, television, cinema and internet etc., have been contributing to its socio-economic progress in many ways. The trade from local to international level has added to the vitality of its economy. It has enriched our life and has substantially added to growing amenities and facilities for the comforts of life.

 

Q. 15. Analyse the role of popular struggles in the development of democracy. 

Answer:Democracy evolves through popular struggles. It is possible that some significant decisions may take place through consensus and may not involve and conflict at all. But that would be an exception. Defining moments of democracy usually involve conflict between those groups who have exercised power and those who aspire for a share in power. These moments come when the country is going through a transition to democracy, expansion of democracy or deepening of democracy.

(i) Democratic conflict is resolved through mass mobilization. Sometimes it is possible that the conflict is resolved by using the existing institutions like the parliament or the judiciary. But when there is a deep dispute, very often these institutions themselves get involved in the dispute. The resolution has to come from outside, from the people.

(ii) These contacts and mobilizations are based on new political organisations. True; there is an element of spontaneity in all such historic moments. But the spontaneous public participation becomes effective with the help of organized politics. There can be many agencies of organized politics. These include political parties, pressure groups and movement groups.

 

Q. 16. How do pressure groups and movements strengthen democracy? Explain. 

Answer:Pressure groups and movements exert influence on politics in the following ways:

(i) Information campaigns, organising meetings, file petitions: Pressure groups carry out information campaigns, organise meetings and file petitions to attract public attention and gain support for their activities. They influence the media to attract more attention to their issues.

(ii) Protest activities: Pressure groups organise protest activities like strikes, demonstrations or disrupting government’s programmes. Such tactics are employed by worker’s organisations, employees’ associations and most of the movement groups in order to force the government to take note of their demand.

(iii) Lobbying: Business groups employ professional lobbyists or sponsor expensive advertisements. They participate in official bodies and committees that offer advice to the government.

(iv) Take a political stand on major issues: Pressure groups and movements do not directly take part in party politics but try to exert influence on political parties by taking a political stand on different issues. They have their own political ideology and political position on major issues.

Thus, the pressure groups and the movements exert influence on politics in different ways in a democracy. (Any three)

 

Q. 17. On the basis of which values will it be a fair expectation that democracy should produce a harmonious social life? Explain. 

Answer:The basic values of democracy which provide fair expectation that democracy will produce harmonious social life are:

(a) Social Equality, (b) Freedom, (c) Justice, (d) Economic justification, (e) Political freedom, civil and fundamental rights.

Moreover, the following can be understood.

  • Democracy is a form of government in which the supreme power is vested in the people and the representatives of the people are elected by the voters on the basis of adult franchise.
  • It promotes equality among citizens.
  • It looks after the interest of the people.
  • It allows accommodation of social diversity.

 

Q. 18. Explain any three loan activities of banks in India. 

Answer: Activities of banks in India who are involved in providing loan:

  • Banks provide loans for various economic activities.
  • Banks intermediate between those who have surplus funds and those who are in need of these funds.
  • Banks offer very less interest on deposits than what they demand on loans.

 

Q. 19. How do Multinational Corporations (MNCs) interlink production across countries? Explain with examples. 

Answer:Multinational Corporations (MNCs) interlink their production across countries in various ways:

(i) A multinational corporation (MNC) is usually a large company that owns and controls the production in more than one nation. MNCs set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can easily get cheap labour and other resources. This is done to minimise the cost of production end to maximise the profit.

(ii) The MNCs not only sell its finished products globally, but more importantly, the goods and services are produced globally.

(iii) The production process is divided into small parts and spread out across the globe.

(iv) The most common route for MNC investments is to buy local companies and then to expand production.

For example: Cargill Foods, a very large American MNC had bought over an Indian company Parakh foods which had their large marketing network in various parts of India and also has a good reputation. With this advantage, Cargill is now the largest producer of edible oil in India.

(v) Also, MNCs control production by placing orders around the world with a large number of small producers of items, like garments, footwears, sports items, etc. Then MNC sells these products under its brand name.

(vi) As a result, production of MNCs in widely dispersed location is getting interlinked.

 

Q. 20. Analyse the importance of the tree-tier judicial machinery under Consumer Protection Act (COPRA), 1986 for redressal of consumer disputes. 

 

Q. 21. “The first clear expression of nationalism came with the ‘French Revolution’ in 1789.” Examine the statement. 

OR

Examine the reasons that forced America to withdraw from the Vietnam war.

Answer:It is true that “the first clear expression of nationalism came with the ‘French revolution’ in 1789″.

(i) Till 1789, France was a full-fledged territorial state under the rule of an absolute monarch.

The political and constitutional changes that came during the rise of the French Revolution, led to the transfer of sovereignty from monarchy to the body of French citizen.

(ii) The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would hence forth constitute the nation and shape its destiny.

From the beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various measures and practices that could create a sense of collective identity, and a feeling of nationalism among the French people. The community was enjoying equal rights under the constitution.

(iii) A new French flag, the tri-colour, was chosen to replace the former royal standard. The Estates General was deleted by the body of active citizens and renamed as National Assembly. New hymns were composed, oaths were taken and martyrs were commemorated, all in the name of nation.

(iv) Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation.

The revolutionaries further declared that they would help other people of Europe to become free nations. When the news of the events of France reached different cities of Europe, students and other members of educated middle classes began setting up Jacobin Clubs. Their activities and campaigns prepared the way for the French armies which moved into Holland, Belgium, Switzerland and much of Italy in 1790s.

Thus, with the outbreak of revolutionary wars, nationalism spread in the entire Europe.

OR

Reasons of withdrawal of armed forces from the Vietnam War (The USA War in Vietnam: 1967-January 1974) are as follows:

(i) The phase of struggle with US was brutal as it widely used chemical weapons-Napalm, Agent orange and phosphorus bombs. Besides soldiers, a large number of civilians died in this war.

(ii) The US media and films played a major role in both supporting as well as criticising the war.

(iii) Hollywood made films in support of the war. Such as, John Wayne’s Green Berets (1968).

Writers such as Mary Me Carthy and actors like Jane Fonda even visited North Vietnam and praised their heroic defence of the country.

(iv) The prolongation of the war created strong reactions, even within the U.S. It was clear that the US had failed to achieve its main objective i.e, the Vietnamese resistance had not been crushed, the support of the Vietnamese people for the US action had not been won.

(v) The US war in Vietnam was the most unpopular in history. It was condemned by people all over the world including the United States.

Vietnam soon emerged as a united country. The defeat of the greatest military power in the world by the people of a very small country in Asia was an event of great significance in the history of the contemporary world.

 

Q. 22. How did the Colonial Government repress the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement Explain? 

Answer: The ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’ boycotted foreign cloth and picketed liquor shops. Peasants refused to pay revenue and taxes, village officials resigned. The Colonial Government repressed the members participating in movement.

  • In many places, forest people violated forest laws by going into reserved forests to collect wood and graze cattle. Worried by the developments, the colonial government began arresting the Congress leader one by one. This lead to violent clashes in many places.
  • Abdul Gaffar Khan, a devout disciple was arrested in April 1930. Many people were killed who protested it.
  • When Mahatma Gandhi was arrested, industrial workers of Sholapur attacked police posts, municipal buildings, law courts and railway stations.
  • British government was worried and frightened by this development of movement and it followed a policy of brutal repression.
  • Peaceful Satyagrahis were attacked, women and children were beaten and about one lac people were arrested.

 

Q. 23. Why is it necessary to conserve mineral resources? Explain any four ways to conserve mineral resources. 

Answer:Minerals require millions of year to form. These are non-renewable resources and their stock is limited. Continuous extraction of minerals raises the cost of extraction as they have to be dug from greater depths. Minerals may also be low in quality.

  • A concerted effort has to be made in order to use our mineral resources in a planned and sustainable manner.
  • Use of substitutes in order to save minerals should be encouraged.
  • Improved technologies need to be constantly evolved to allow the use of low-grade ores at low costs.
  • Recycling of minerals using scrap metals and other substitutes are some steps in conserving our mineral resources for the future.

 

Q. 24. Analyse the role of chemical industries in the Indian economy. 

Answer:The chemical industry in India is diversifying and growing fast. It contributes approximately percent to 3% of GDP. It is the third-largest in Asia and occupies twelfth plate in the world in terms of its size. It comprises both large and small scale manufacturing units. Rapid growth has been recorded in both inorganic and organic sectors. Inorganic chemicals include sulphuric acid, nitric acid, alkalies, soda ash and caustic soda. These industries are widely spread over the country.

Organic chemicals include petrochemicals, which are used for manufacturing of synthetic fibres, synthetic rubber, plastics, dye-stuffs, drugs and pharmaceuticals. Organic chemical plants are located near oil refineries and petrochemical plants.

The chemical industry has its own largest consumers. Basic chemicals undergo processing for the further production of other chemicals that are used for industrial application, agriculture or directly for consumer markets.

 

Q. 25. Describe any five characteristics of democracy. 

Answer:The main characteristics of democracy vary in a wide selection of ways.

  • Democracy is a form of government in which the rulers are elected by the people.
  • In a democracy, the final decision of making power must rest with those representatives, elected by people or citizen.
  • Democracy must be based on a free and fair election, where those who are currently in power have a fair chance of losing.
  • In a democracy, each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value.
  • A democratic government rules within limits set by constitutional law and citizens’ right.

 

Q. 26. “It is very difficult to reform politics through legal ways.” Evaluate the statement. 

Answer:We agree that it is very difficult to reform politics through legal ways. It is very tempting to think of legal ways of reforming politics, to think of new laws to ban undesirable things, but this temptation needs to be resisted. No doubt, the law has an important role to play in political reform. Carefully devised changes in law can help discourage wrong political practices and encourage good ones. But legal constitutional changes by themselves cannot overcome challenges to democracy. This is like the rule of cricket. A change in rules for LBW decisions helped to reduce negative batting tactics. But the improvement is possible mainly by combined efforts by the players, coaches and administrators. Similarly, democratic reforms are to be carried out mainly by political activists, parties, movements and politically conscious citizens.

 

Q. 27. Analyse any five positive effects of globalisation on the Indian economy. 

Answer:The visible impacts of globalisation on Indian economy can be described in the following ways:

(i) There is a wide choice of goods and services in the market.

For e.g., The latest models of digital cameras, mobile phones and television made by the leading manufacturers of the world are available in the markets. These products are affordable as well as within reach of the people.

(ii) Several improvements in the transportation technology has made much faster delivery of goods across long distances possible and that too on lower rates.

(iii) The improvement in information and telecommunication technology is even more remarkable. The invention and use of the computer, internet, mobile phone, fax, etc., have made contact with each other around the world quite easy.

(iv) New jobs have been created in industries where MNCs have invested such as electronics, fast foods, cell phones etc.

(v) Some Indian companies have become multinational by themselves due to globalisation, such as Tata Motors (automobiles), Ranbaxy (Medicines), Infosys (Computer and Information Technology) and L & T (construction).

 

Q. 28. What is liberalisation? Describe any four effects of liberalisation on the Indian economy. 

Answer:The liberalisation of the economy means to free the trade from direct or physical controls imposed by the government.

The four effects of liberalisation on the Indian economy are:

  • Competition would improve the performance of producers within the country.
  • Barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large extent. This meant that goods could be imported and exported easily.
  • Foreign companies could set up factories and offices to boost up production.
  • It allows making decisions freely.
  • The competition would improve the performance of producers within the country since they have to improve their quality.

 

Q. 29. Three features A, B and C are marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked on the map: 

A. The city is associated with the Jallianwala Bagh incident.

B. The place where the Indian National Congress session (1927) was held.

C. The place where Gandhiji violated them salt Law.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Q29

Answer:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Q29.1

 

Q. 30. On the given political outline map of India locate and label the following features with appropriate symbols: 

A. Narora – Nuclear Power Plant.

B. Tuticorin – Major Sea Port.

C. Bhilai – Iron and Steel Plant.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Q30

Answer:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Q30.1

 

SET – II

Q. 1.What is the meaning of ‘Begar’? 

Answer: Begar was a system of forced labour in parts of India. In times, when India was a colony, peasants had to do ‘begar’ and work at landlord’s farms without any payments.

 

Q. 2.Name the best variety of iron-ore found in India. 

Answer:‘Magnetite’ is the finest iron ore with a very high content of iron up to 70%.

 

Q. 3.Why is there overwhelming support to democracy all over the world? Explain one reason. 

Answer:Today, over a hundred countries of the world claim and practice democratic politics, because it provides equality among citizens and improve the quality of decision making.

 

Q. 13.Why are we not able to perform to our full potential in the production of iron and steel in India? Explain any three reasons. 

Answer:Today with 32.8 million tonnes of steel production, India ranks 9th among the world crude steel producers. It is the largest producer of sponge iron. In spite of the large production of steel, per capita consumption per annum is only 32 Kg. India’s export of steel is 2.25% of the global steel trade. Though India has many advantages for the development of this industry, which includes low cost of iron ore, high-grade raw material in proximity, cheap labour and vast growth potential in the home market. Yet we are not able to perform to our full potential largely due to:

  • High cost and limited availability of cooking coal.
  • Lower productivity of labour.
  • Irregular supply of energy.
  • Poor infrastructure.

 

Q. 14.“Tourism industry in India has grown substantially over the last three decades.” Support the statement. 

Answer:The main reasons for the growth of tourism industry in India over the last three decades are:

  • Over 2.6 million tourists visit India every year and this number is increasing every year. It contributes to nearly 21,828 crore rupees as foreign exchange. More than 15 million people are directly engaged in the tourism industry.
  • It has pleasing weather conditions throughout the year for the tourists in comparison to western countries.
  • Foreign tourists visit India for heritage, medical, economic, culture, business, adventure tourism, etc.
  • It had made access easier in the North-Eastern states and interior parts of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttranchal.
  • It has become easier nowadays to transport valuable goods, life-saving drugs, perishable commodities, mail, etc., to distant places in a short time.

Thus, it plays an important role in popularising world-class monuments around the world which enhances Indian tourism and contributes to its economy.

 

Q. 15.How is social diversity accommodated in a democracy? Explain with examples. 

Answer:It is a fair expectation that democracy should produce a harmonious social life. Democracy must fulfil two conditions in order to achieve social harmony even though there is social diversity.

(i) It is necessary to understand that democracy is not simply ruled by majority opinion. The majority always needs to work with the minority so that, the possibility of tensions, becoming explosive or violent reduces. The majority and minority opinions are not permanent.

(ii) It is also necessary that the rule of the majority does not become the rule of the majority community in terms of religion or race or linguistic group. Rule of the majority means that in case of every decision or every election, different persons and groups may and should form a majority.

 

Q. 22.How was the sense of collective belonging developed during the freedom movement? Explain. 

Answer:Nationalism spread in India when people began to believe that they were all part of the same nation when they discovered some unity that bound them together. This sense of collective belonging came partly through the experience of united struggle. It was in the 20th century, with the growth of nationalism that the identity of India came to be visually associated with the image of Bharat Mata, created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.

In 1870, he wrote “Vande Matram” as a hymn to the motherland.

Ideas of nationalism also developed through a movement to revive Indian folkore.

Nationalist began recording folk tales sung by bards and they toured villages to gather folk song and legends. As the national movement developed, nationalist leaders became mdre and more aware of such icons and symbols in unifying people and inspiring in them a feeling of nationalism. In 1921, Gandhiji had designed the swaraj flag.

It was a tricolour (red, green and white) and had a spinning wheel in the centre. Carrying this flag, holding it aloft, during marches became a symbol of defiance.

Another means of creating a feeling of nationalism was through a reinterpretation of history. Indians began looking into the past to discover India’s great achievements. They wrote about the glorious developments in ancient times when art and architecture, science and mathematics, religion and culture, law and philosophy had flourished and decline in these areas began when India was colonised.

 

Q. 23.“The advancement of international trade of a country is an index of its economic development.” Justify the statement. 

Answer:“Advancement of international trade of a country is an index of economic development”.

The statement can be justified through the following point:

  • As no country is self-sufficient in all resources, it cannot survive without international trade.
  • If the balance of international trade is favourable in a country, it will be able to earn more foreign exchange.
  • International trade encourages a country to develop secondary and tertiary sectors for exporting those goods which can fetch more foreign exchange.
  • A country’s economic development and prosperity can be gauged by the health of its international trade.
  • A country can earn a large amount of foreign exchange through international trade. India exports approximately 7500 commodities to about 190 countries and imports about 6000 commodities from 140 countries. India exported commodities worth the US $ 318.2 billion in 2014. And India’s share in export is increasing every year.

 

Q. 26.Suggest any five effective measures to reform political parties. 

Answer:Following are the five effective measures to reform political parties:

  • A law should be made to regulate the internal affairs of political parties.
  • It should be made compulsory for political parties to maintain a register of its members.
  • It should be made mandatory for political parties to give a minimum number of tickets (about 1/3rd) to its woman candidates.
  • There should be a quota for the woman in the decision making bodies of the parties.
  • The government should give parties money to support their election expenses in kind, for example, petrol, paper, phone bill, etc.

SET- III

Q. 1.What is meant by Satyagraha? 

Answer:Satyagraha is a non-violent method of mass agitation against the oppressor. The idea of Satyagraha emphasised the power of truth.

 

Q. 2. Where do minerals occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks? 

Answer:In igneous and metamorphic rocks, minerals are formed due to effects of heat and pressure when magma or lava cools. Minerals in these rocks are present in cracks and joints. There are various type of minerals found in these rocks like tin, copper, zinc, lead, diamond etc.

 

Q. 3. Explain the meaning of transparency in democracy. 

Answer:In democracy, every citizen has the right and the means to examine the process of decision making. This is known as transparency.

 

Q. 13. “Minerals are unevenly distributed in India.” Support the statement with examples. 

Answer:“Minerals are unevenly distributed in India.” Following examples are:

  • Minerals in Deccan: The peninsular rocks contain most of the reserves of coal, metallic mineral, mica, and many other non-metallic minerals.
  • Minerals in western and eastern regions of India: Sedimentary rocks of the western and eastern part of India i.e., Gujarat and Assam have most of the petroleum deposits.
  • Minerals in Rajasthan: Rajasthan with the rock systems of the peninsular has reserves of many non-ferrous minerals.
  • Minerals in North India: The vast alluvial plains of North India are almost devoid of economic minerals. These variations exist largely because of the differences in the geological structure, processes and time involved in the formation of minerals.

 

Q. 14. Evaluate any three features of ‘Golden Quadrilateral’ Super Highways. 

Answer:The three features of ‘Golden Quadrilateral’ Super Highways are:

  • It is a broad network of six lanes of superhighways including North-South Corridor and East-West Corridor. It is a major road development project that connects Delhi- Kolkata-Chennai-Mumbai.
  • Delhi National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) is implementing this gigantic project. With the Quadrilateral road network, the movement of trade has become easy from one comer to other comers in India.
  • This road network is connected to 10 major ports, namely Kandla, Nhava-Sheva, Mormugao, Tuticorin, Chennai and Ennore, Vishakhapatnam, Paradeep, Haldia and Mumbai.

 

Q. 15. Analyse the role of opposition political parties in a democracy. 

Answer:Opposition political parties play an important role in democracy. They play both positive and negative roles.

Positive Role:

  • They ensure that political party, in power, does not, abuse or misuse its power.
  • It exposes the weaknesses of the ruling party.
  • It keeps a close vigil on the bills and expenditure of the government.

Negative Role:

  • It targets the government and aims at the lodging and discrediting the government for all the ills and troubles that people face.
  • Through stalling the proceedings of the parliament, dharmas and gheravs, it curtails the progress of the country.
  • Sometimes, opposition party opposes every decision of the ruling party whether it is in the favour of the nation or not.

 

Q. 22. Explain the measures taken by Gandhiji to eliminate the problem of untouchability. 

Answer:The measures taken by Gandhiji to eliminate the problem of untouchability were:

  • He said that swaraj would not come for a hundred years if untouchability was not eliminated.
  • Gandhiji himself cleaned toilets to dignify the work of a sweeper.
  • Gandhiji persuaded the upper caste to change their heart and give up ‘sin of untouchability’.
  • He organised satyagraha to secure their entry into temples, access to public wells, tanks, roads and public schools.
  • He signed the Poona Pact in September 1932 with Dr. B. R. Ambedkar through which some seats were reserved for the depressed classes in the provincial and central legislative council.

 

Q. 23. Examine any five factors affecting the location of industries in India. 

Answer: Maximisation of profit which also implies cost minimisation is the most important goal in their choice of a particular place for the location of industries. Some factors influencing the same are:

  • Proximity to markets: Areas or regions having high purchasing power provide large market, therefore, luxury items producing industries are located in these regions.
  • Availability of raw material: Raw material used by industries should be cheap and easy to transport. Industries based on cheap, bulky and weight losing material (ores) are located close to the sources of raw material. Such as steel, sugar, and cement industries.
  • Availability of labour: Some types of manufacturing requires skilled labour there-fore IT industries 
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  • are located near urban-educational centres where skilled labours are easily available.
  • Access to sources of energy: Industries which use more power are located near energy supplying sources such as the aluminium industry.
  • Transportation and communication facilities: Speedy and efficient transport facilities reduce the cost of transport. Therefore, industries are attracted to regions which have good transport facilities.
  • Government policy: Governments adopt ‘regional policies’ to promote ‘balanced’ economic development and hence set up industries in backward and tribal areas. (Any five)

 

Q. 26. “No party system is ideal for all countries and in all situations.” Analyse the statement. 

Answer:‘No party system is ideal for all countries and in all situations’.

This statement can be justified as follows:

  • All countries and democracies have different social situations, economic achievements and culture and thus different political situations leading to different party systems.
  • Party system is not anything that a country can choose. It evolves gradually and slowly depending on the situations in the country.
  • Party system depends on the country’s social and regional differences, its history of politics and elections system.
  • India has evolved a multiparty system because its regional and geographical differences are not easily absolved by even two parties.
  • But not all countries have such diversity and so may not need multiparty systems. In such countries, a two-party system may be enough for the representation of various communities. Thus, no party system is ideal for all countries and in all situations.
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