Imagine this: you have written the best article on an interesting topic which you want to share with the world. You posted on your blog post. It’s been a few days, with no comments or shares, or feedback from readers. What is going wrong? What is amiss, you wonder.
It is when SEO comes into the limelight. Search Engine Optimization is a process of introducing a sleek change for enhancing the web search so that the content with the most traffic shows up in searches.
Now how do you increase organic (unpaid, natural audience) traffic on your website? Read on to know how SEO can help you achieve this!
What is SEO?
SEO or search engine optimization is a vital factor that affects how and what the audience search for content. SEO gives a boost to your reach by adding additional traffic to your website. It is with the help of proper implementation of SEO that you can gain higher ground on search engine ranking and land on the first page of Google Search!
Role of Keyword Research
Keywords are, in simple terms, what terms, words or phrases people search on any search engine (mostly it’s Google). Essentially the user looks for the most manageable word. The higher the occurrence of SEO keywords, the more will be the reach. However, the content you are putting in public should be relevant to the target audience. The addition of useless, distractive, out-of-context keywords can hamper the interests of the audience. For this, you need to get into their mind and ask questions like what exactly do I want & where can I find it?
How to increase traffic on site using SEO?
Though you can find plenty of tips and tricks elsewhere, the below mentioned are basic methods to increase organic traffic by optimizing the search engine.
Site speed
Time is precious for everyone – be it a working professional or a researcher or an eager, impatient kid who wants to learn about cricket pitch. Therefore, the speed at which a site opens is crucial for the user. Mostly, if it takes more than 2 seconds to present the material, people’s interest vanishes. Likewise, people don’t fancy the small circular loading signs on any image. Visuals are as important as the content. Few things you can do to avoid (or at least reduce) this are:
Optimize picture quality. Reducing the image pixels and size by 30-40% makes the site function faster.
Store cache data to smoothen the user experience by permitting faster loads due to previous encounters.
Remove unnecessary elements and plugins not-in-use to prevent overloading of the website.
Make your site secured using HTTPS://
Google takes stringent control of unauthorized websites. An extra ‘s’ stands for ‘secure.’ Its presence in your website HTML goes a long way in guarding user and website confidentiality. Factually, Google gives a red warning against the un-secured sites, leading to a turn-away from potential users. HTTPS (HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure) ensures private experience and protects from third-party attacks & interference. You need to get an SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) certificate from your hosting website to implement HTTPS.
Moreover, Google recognizes SSL certifies websites as one of the minute factors that affect SEO ranking. Even Google Analytics prefers HTTPS driven site that also preserves referral data. After all, when you’re generating or transferring vital data, you need to take the utmost precautions.
Engage with your audience
It cannot be emphasized enough. Conversations and connections are what motivates others to check out something. The longer the user stays (or genuinely absorbs the content), the more acknowledgment your site will gain in Google’s eyes (SEO ranking, in this case). According to Google Analytics, the time spent on each website affects the bounce rate. Bounce rate is defined as the percentage of single-page sessions or how long the user spent on your site without any interaction. About 30% bounce rate is deemed healthy.
Be mindful that people visit those sites repeatedly where they found quality and valuable content. Hence, your priority ought to be creating beneficial content. Add creative images, posters, flow charts, infographics for immediate understanding of the matter. Write concise sentences and use simple language. For better perception, use pointers, and bullets.
Be specific about the product.
The needs of your end audience differ in different instances. For example, if your site deals with selling motorbike; some people like a red, motorbike with max power and high fuel capacity, while some prefer golden with a digital odometer. What sounds better? ‘Bike for sale!’ or ‘Red Hero Honda for sale.’?
Keywords are directed predominantly towards what exactly users are searching. Short (One or two words) keywords have numerous competitors whereas 5-6 pertinent terms (known as long-tail keywords) have comparatively low competitors and high chances of showing up on the first page. It will pull organic, genuine viewers.
Think like a visitor – Ask Questions
Get into the mind of your target audience. If your niche lies in food marketing like a restaurant, ask yourself – what is trending currently in food blogs? How to made Kaju-katli from scratch? What ingredients are surfacing for the best recipes in the prevailing weather? and so on. You will be surprised what search engine history consists of. Most of them start with How, What, Where, and When. If you put forth audience-driven questions and provide answers for the same, Google Analytics notices and features an appropriate part of your article.
User-friendly (mobile)
Today, most of the business happens on mobile phones. We squander an extraordinary time on mobiles. It is why the handling and performance of sites need to be mobile-friendly. The website should be adept to mold itself according to the device such as mobile, tablets, desktop, etc. The responsiveness and compatibility ratio of sites need to align with mobile functions. Like the screen size, fonts, clickable ads, links (internal & external), website speed, etc. should adjust with the device.
You can check devices adaptability using Google’s Mobile-Friendly Test. Just paste the URL of the website, see the score, and make changes accordingly.
Write concise meta-description
Meta-description is what you observe right below each search result. It indicates a summary of the search result. This fragment describes the essence of your page. Depiction of meta-data should be well-researched with targeted keywords to assist in SEO.
The character limit for meta-description is 275. Try to accommodate your summary within this. Your description should be direct, relevant, captivating, engaging, and short.
Visual treat – Use images & videos
Adding tutorial, explanatory, or educational videos on your site is a plus. Since 55% of the audience searches for video content, you need to focus on delivering what users mostly demand. If you are a video publishing website, you need to optimize your editing, scrutinizing, and posting video content. By focusing on prominent factors such as thumbnail quality, duration, proper keywords in title and description, and most important – Quality Content, you en-captivate the user’s attention.
Back links
Back-links are links directed to another article/post internally in your post. It generates a series of associated posts related to the content at hand. Back links are a great way to earn audience confidence as more sites reference or cite your articles, Google gets the impression of “worth-reading” and the popularity of the article. This way, your site ranking enhances on the search engine. It is, therefore, imperative to connect to similar niche websites to grow your reach.
Conclusion
SEO is easy provided you know the basics of SEO and a little of human psychology. Now when you know the fundamentals of SEO, go on, and start working on it!
Are you lost about what to do next? Do you lose motivation, sometimes? Goal setting is an important factor that drives us. We set goals for health, for money, for career, even for self-development. We all have desires to be different, to live a life worth living.
Planning your future starts with visualizing it. For that, we require a map to follow. The process of setting a goal helps us to choose where we want to go in life. By knowing precisely what we want to achieve, we know where need to concentrate our efforts.
Read on to learn what exactly goal setting is and why it is important!
Why one needs to set goals?
It’s simple: to live a life on your terms. Goal-setting fixes our focus from useless, distractive things towards meaningful growth. It sets a course of self-development. It encourages us to push our limits and attain the impossible, which after fulfilling we get to know that it wasn’t so hard, after all! It lets us explore ourselves, acquire knowledge, organize & prioritize our needs, manage time well, and use resources so that we can make the best out of our life.
Goal setting is essential because it clears our vision; helps us differentiates what’s relevant and what’s a distraction. It acts as a constant reminder of living our life, not just go with the flow. It motivates and builds self-confidence.
Steps in Goal-Setting
Following are 5 steps of goal setting first described by Lars-Eric Unestahl of Sweden.
1) Recognition of the goal: Be aware of your previous failures. List all the things that didn’t work out and those that did. Contemplate what exactly went wrong, the methods used, goal timeline, etc. It helps in self-introspection and establishes a baseline for forming realistic and achievable goals by the person.
2) Make a list of possible goals: Expand your mind. Make a list of goals you want to accomplish. No matter how small, insignificant, non-reachable it may seem, jot down everything. This step determines the extent of all feasible goals – goals which have a low or high probability of conquering.
3) Goal analysis: Now that you have created a repository of goals, arrange them in order of their possibility and attainability. Assess each objective and classify them based on how much time and effort it’ll consume, forming a hierarchy.
4) Selection of goal: Evaluate the hierarchy of possible goals and select one prominent goal that suits you best. The guidelines for selection are that they should be
As difficult as possible but reachable. The motive is to be guilty of being hard rather than too easy to push your comfort zone.
Organized in order of priorities if similar goals exist.
Connected to one’s performance, hard work, and commitment, not on passive things like pride, jealousy, competitiveness.
Focused on improving activity, not only for the sake of maintaining or re-treating it, and
Measurable
5) Goal formulation: After a fitting goal selection, it should be well-analyzed and constructed according to the following factors;
It must have self-paced items
It should be expressed constructively (no destructive or negative affirmations)
It should be relevant for the individual (not influenced by what others ‘expect’ from you)
It should have an optimal probability where you can justify why each goal is achievable
Believing it can happen. (no doubts about outcomes with controlled factors)
Results can be observed clearly
Goal-setting isn’t overnight planning and execution. It needs days of in-depth research of your wants and aspirations. When we are mindful of the above process, we see our career finding a place in our life.
Types of Goals
Goals are individual specific. People set goals every day – ‘I will learn this recipe today.’ ‘I finish work before midnight.’ ‘I will lose weight before my brother’s wedding.’ and so on. As a human, we have different requirements at different frontiers of life. Focusing on only one goal can lead to the failure of others.
Some of the goals people set for themselves are listed below. The priority of each aim relies on the individual’s intention and needs.
Physical goals
These goals concern your physical health and physical well-being. Any activity affects your mind and body. It increases our longevity. If you want to lose that extra fat, want glowing flawless skin, and a body free of ailments; if you want to improve your lifestyle, you need to set these goals and work for them.
Career Goals
What kind of life you desire, where do you want to be 5 years from now, what will the future be like for you, what skills you’ll learn, and to what extent you are willing to go for your dream job; all these questions are dealt with when you set career goals.
Monetary Goals
Financial planning is the fuel for your money-related goals. What kind of house do you fancy? What kind of car do you want to drive? Where do you want to go for vacation? What education do you want to fund for your children? The answer to all these depends on your financial planning and performance.
Self-Development Goals
Set goals for improvement and self-development. Set goals for improving self-image and self-esteem. Spiritually active people tend to perform better compared to those who are confused and lost. It is a human’s learning ability that makes self-development an advantage.
Just for Fun Goals
Joy and enjoyment have their place in our life. Set goals of how you want to spend your time, what cities you want to visit, what entertainment you like. Learning a new art form or pursuing new hobbies can also become a part of your goal.
Collective Goals
Collective goals are set for community betterment. It is an act of selflessness. As a member of humankind, you are responsible to return to society than you receive from it. These goals, also called social goals are measured by what you contribute to society.
SMART Goals
Goals become easy when you have well-thought planning. A useful tool to make your plan impactful and powerful is SMART – a mnemonic to guide you in your journey. The details of what it is and how to implement are given below:
S – Specific
Be specific about what you want. Decide and prioritize what exactly your needs are. Focus on details, what things you can gain from a particular goal. For example, you want to buy a car. Will a vehicle not leveling with your wish, do? You require a specific model, color, interior, features, price, etc. To assure specificity, your goal should answer the 5 “W’s.”
WHAT – What do I want to accomplish?
WHY – The concrete reason to select that goal
WHO – Who is directly involved?
WHERE – Where can I find resources, guidance, materials?
WHICH – Catalog the limitations & how to overcome them
M – Measurable
The second word focuses on the measurability of your goal. You need to quantify the aspects of the goal. Keep track of your enhancements and progress in the process. Analyze what parts need extra attention. Record your achievements. The best way is to ask yourself: How much? How many? & How will I know when to stop?
A – Attainable
The third term focuses on setting a pragmatic goal. Identify goals that are attainable practically. If you see the real world, all the things have a practical purpose to exist. Learn skills, improve abilities, gain a financial capacity to reach them. A logical goal answers all the Hows – How will I start? How can I use my resources? How can I make changes to step ahead?
R – Relevant
Choose a goal that is relevant to your being. It ought to be immensely productive and directly benefit you. It should be managed according to the present demand. Doing unnecessary research for simple tasks wastes energy. Ask yourself: Is this worthwhile? Is this the right time? Is he/she the right person?
T – Time-bound
The final element is time management. Your goal should fulfill in the stipulated time. Time is a priceless commodity for you. Set deadlines. Avoid procrastination. Time should be managed at your pace and comfort. Although, do not get swayed by temporary pleasures. Based on the time, a goal can be long term (5-10 years) or short term (hourly, weekly, monthly, daily).
Conclusion
Setting a goal may seem cumbersome and probably frighten you a bit. But a goal gives a clearer view of your wants. The intensity of the aim depends on the person. We must keep reviewing our goals and adjust them to fulfill our meaningful purpose in life. Following a strict regime and a constant pump of motivation is a must.
The marketing world consists of plenty of brands. Each of them projecting their product in unique ways to build their presence in the ever-growing market. Campus ambassadors are undergraduate students appointed by a concerned company or brand to increase their brand value at a college/university level. You might wonder how a regular college-goer becomes the face of the brand.
In this article, you will get all the information regarding Campus Ambassadors and the journey to be one! Read on.
Who are Campus Ambassadors?
Campus ambassadors are the face and voice of a particular company. It is a no-brainer that to reach a large audience, a company needs to have broad networking. It is necessary to build a valuable presence in the competitive world. For this, the company takes services of youngsters from college/university. They hire and appoint ambassadors to represent their company on the campus. These ambassadors are the connecting link between the college and the company.
Skills Required
Being a Campus Ambassador, you should possess discreet skills that make you stand out from the crowd. While you will learn new skills in the training process, the pre-requisites are as follows:
Technical skills
In-depth knowledge about the brand
Digital Strategist
Affiliate Marketing
Digital Marketing
Networking Talent
Personal skills
Leadership traits
Teamwork
Efficient public speaking
Commitment
Time management
Versatility
Approachable and friendly nature
Reliability
Critical thinking
Logical reasoning
Responsibilities
The prime duties of the Campus Ambassador are:
1) Organize informational workshops, seminars, practical sessions, brand campaigns, etc.
2) Feedback accumulation from peers and teaching faculty
3) Analyse and respond to queries posed by fellow students
4) Creative and functional approach to problems; problem-solver
5) Use digital marketing skills to promote the product online
6) Advertise different products in brand collaborations.
7) Recruit useful assistants and keep track of works
8) Conduct outreach programs, surveys, and interactive polls
9) Engage with like-minded students to intensify reach
Do you get paid to be a campus ambassador?
Of course! Being a Campus Ambassador is a full-time job with a well-paid salary. An average salary of a Campus Ambassador in India is 2.2 LPA, while the monthly salaries vary from Rs. 3,000 to Rs. 10,000. Along with definitive pay, they also get a monthly stipend plus attractive incentives, gift vouchers, occasion-specific customized merchandise, gift cards/goodies, and cash rewards. Even though some companies acquire students temporarily, the perks are the same for everyone.
Above all, students earn recommendations and endorsements on their resumes that unquestionably helps in the long run.
How are Campus Ambassadors recruited?
1) Through online job sites (Indeed, Intern Shala, Naukri.com, LinkedIn, etc.): In this tech-savvy era, finding jobs is not difficult. There are many sites where companies put forth vacancies for Campus Ambassadors. Brands post opportunities stating their specifications for the job. Interested candidates can apply online by uploading the resume and set of qualifications. Recruiters view the resumes and select those which cater to their brand virtue and connect with the person by email or phone call. After the telephonic interview, if matching with company requisites, they hire them.
Students can opt for CA internships as well. Internships, unlike regular jobs, may be paid or unpaid that usually lasts for a few weeks to a few months. Beginners should gain a little sneak-peak into the corporate world by applying for this. The process is the same as for the job – Apply, get seen by recruiter, contact, telephonic interview, hire.
2) Through Referral: Referral, in the CA context, means endorsing a student based on its previous achievements by a professional working in a similar sphere. A company can directly recommend and hire a student provisionally. The company associates may keenly scrutinize the performance of the candidate on several factors for a few days or weeks. If it concurs with company needs, the student is hired permanently after primary formalities.
3) Through CA Programs: Students seek companies that suit their interests. Regular career fairs and information sessions/seminars are held in the college to provide insights and opportunities to young people. In this way, companies gain recognition and help in brand expansion. Sometimes, they also sponsor cultural activities and advertise their product to ignite interest in students. Campus Ambassador Program is another way company get in touch with enthusiastic students. Most of them require filling an online form of the company, followed by shortlisting of candidates. Selected candidates receive a call for the “telephonic interview.” If the profile and personality matched with the company’s goals, he/she will receive a confirmation email. Thus, a person sets foot into a new arena!
Some of the programs you can join are:
1) Campus ambassadors at Coding Ninjas
2) HackerEarth Student Ambassador
3) OnePlus Student Ambassador
4) TechGig Campus Ambassador Program
5) GeeksForGeeks Campus Ambassador
CA Student Selection Criterion
The first impression is indeed the last. The striking qualities that earn immediate attention of the recruiter are
Excellent communication skills
How you speak has more impact than what you converse in the interview. If persuasion is your forte, you are halfway there. In advertising a product, intercommunication plays the most significant role. A confident, expressive person is an asset to the company.
Is socially active
To keep at pace with the tech-ridden world, one needs to stay updated on social trends. A socially active person with consistent followers/friends in various social media platforms (Facebook, Instagram, Twitter) will aid in extending the outreach of the company. Again, a plus point.
Active participation in college events
Getting involved in public activities only enhances personal skills. Since Ambassador is all about making connections & convictions and promoting products, having numerous links pays. Also, it shows organization skills, teamwork, passion, and seriousness towards a task.
Learner
Campus Ambassador is about grasping the basics and implementing them creatively. A learner is self-motivated and driven for excellence. They are enthusiastic about life, in general. Companies need such kind of lively personalities.
Campus Ambassador Interview Questions
Job-based Questions
About our company and products, do you know ?
How would you attract the target audience towards a product?
How do you handle marketing and promotions?
What social media do you use frequently? How would you use social platforms for brand promotion?
In this field, Do you have previous experience of working?
Why do you want to join the company?
Personal Questions
Tell me about yourself/introduce yourself.
What are your hobbies and interests?
What are your strengths and weaknesses?
What clubs have you joined in the college?
How do you handle stressful situations? Give an instance.
How would you persuade adamant clients?
How would you manage academics and brand promotions? / How would you accommodate product promotion in your daily routine?
Apart from this, one needs a positive attitude and calm composure to ace in the interview.
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 1 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when a mirror is placed on the right side of the figure.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Option A. is the mirror image of the question figure.
∴ The correct answer is option A.
Q. 2 In a certain code language, ‘EARTH’ is coded as ‘8201815’. How will ‘ORBIT’ be coded as in that language?
A. 18172372
B. 20921815
C. 37681026
D. 17113912
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Similarly,
∴ The correct answer is option B.
Q. 3 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and sixth term is related to the fifth term.
72 : 14 :: 87 : ? :: 96 : 54
A. 56
B. 52
C. 29
D. 15
Answer: A.
Explanation:
7×2 = 14
9×6 = 54
Similarly,
8×7 = 56
∴ The correct answer is option A.
Q. 4 Select the option that depicts how the given transparent sheet of paper would appear if it is folded at the dotted line.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
The sheet will be appear as,
∴ The correct answer is option C.
Q. 5 How many rectangles are there in the given figure?
A. 15
B. 17
C. 11
D. 13
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Number of rectangles in EFHG = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6
Number of rectangles in ABCD = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 = 10
1 rectangle is IJKL.
So, total rectangles = 6 + 10 + 1 = 17
∴ The correct answer is option B.
Q. 6 In the given Venn diagram, the ‘rectangle’ represents ‘engineers’, the ‘circle’ represents ‘managers’, and the ‘triangle’ represents ‘married’. The numbers given in the diagram represent the number of persons in that particular category.
How many people are married but are NOT engineers?
A. 29
B. 16
C. 70
D. 13
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Number of people are married but are NOT engineers = 13 + 16 = 29
∴ The correct answer is option A.
Q. 7 In a certain code language, ‘JUPITER’ is written as ‘ JVOJSFR ‘. How will ‘NEPTUNE’be written as in that language?
A. NDPSVME
B. NGOUTOE
C. NFOUTOE
D. NFOSTOE
Answer: C.
Explanation:
J = J
U + 1 = V
P – 1 = O
I + 1 = J
T – 1 = S
E + 1 = F
R = R
Similarly,
N = N
E +1 = F
P – 1 = O
T + 1 = U
U – 1 = T
N + 1 = O
E = E
‘NEPTUNE’ is written as ‘NFOUTOE’.
∴ The correct answer is option C.
Q. 8 A product was marked for sale with a label price, which is at 20% discount on the printed price. At the time of sale, the shopkeeper gave an additional 10% discount on the label price. If a customer bought the product at ₹468, then what is the printed price of the product?
If, P + R × T − Q + S ÷ U , then how is P it related to the mother of U?
A. Maternal grandmother
B. Mother
C. Paternal grandmother
D. Aunt
Answer: D.
Explanation:
In the diagram, Circle shows the female, square shows the male, vertical lines show the generation, single horizontal line shows the brother/sister and double horizontal lines show the couple.
From the diagram,
Mother of ‘U’ is aunt of the ‘P’.
Q. 10 Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order (according to population).
Q. 11 Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words. Dentist : Doctor
A. Line : Circle
B. Algebra : Geometry
C. Chemistry : Science
D. Biology : Astrology
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Dentist come under the doctor similarly,
Chemistry come under the chemistry.
∴ The correct answer is option C.
Q. 12 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct? 121 + 11 − 42 × 6 ÷ 7 = 83
A. −and÷
B. +and÷
C. ÷and×
D. ×and−
Answer: C.
Explanation:
121 + 11 − 42 × 6 ÷ 7 = 83
From the option C,
121 + 11 − 42 ÷ 1/6 × 7 = 83
121 + 11 − 42 ÷ 6 × 7 = 83
121 + 11 − 49 = 83
83 = 83
∴ The correct answer is option C.
Q. 13 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is not allowed).
Answer: A.
Explanation:
The question figure is shown by red line
∴ The correct answer is option A.
Q. 14 Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
In the each figure, pentagon and arrow rotate 180° in each step and figure are also rotate 90° in anti clock direction so, Next step,
∴ The correct answer is option C.
Q. 15 Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-pair that is different.
A. 10 : 123
B. 17 : 290
C. 14 : 227
D. 11 : 146
Answer: B.
Explanation:
In 10 : 123,
(10 + 1)2 + 2
= 121 + 2 = 123
In 17 : 290,
(17 + 1)2 + 2
= 324 – 34 = 290
In 14 : 227,
(14 + 1)2 + 2
= 225 + 2 = 227
In 11 : 146,
(11 + 1)2 + 2
= 144 + 2 = 146
∴ The correct answer is option B.
Q. 16 Select the option in which the number set shares the same relationship as that shared by the given number set. (17, 24, 45)
A. (18, 23, 46)
B. (19, 26, 34)
C. (15, 20, 43)
D. (12, 19, 40)
Answer: D.
Explanation:
In (17, 24, 45),
17 + 7 = 24 + 21 = 45
Similarly,
From (12, 19, 40),
12 + 7 = 19 + 21 = 40
∴ The correct answer is option D.
Q. 17 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement(s).
Statements:
All singers are dancers.
No dancer is a plumber.
Conclusions:
I. No plumber is a singer.
II. Some singers are plumbers.
III. Some dancers are singers.
A. Only conclusion I follow.
B. Only conclusions II and III follow.
C. Only conclusions I and III follow.
D. Only conclusion II follows.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
From the Venn diagram,
Only conclusions I and III follow.
∴ The correct answer is option C.
Q. 18 Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
1537, 1539, 1543, ?, 1557, 1567
A. 1553
B. 1550
C. 1546
D. 1549
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The series follows pattern as,
1537 + 2 = 1539
1539 + 4 = 1543
1543 + 6 = 1549
1549 + 8 = 1557
1567 + 10 = 1577
∴ The correct answer is option D.
Q. 19 Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd word.
A. Hyderabad
B. Aurangabad
C. Chennai
D. Gangtok
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Except option B, remaining all are capitals.
Q. 20 Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
DAG, FCI, ? , JGM, LIO
A. GDJ
B. IFL
C. HKE
D. HEK
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The series follows pattern as,
(D + 2)(A + 2)(G + 2) = FCI
(F + 2)(C + 2)(I + 2) = HEK
(H + 2)(E + 2)(K + 2) = JGM
(J + 2)(G + 2)(M + 2) = LIO
∴ The correct answer is option D.
Q. 21 ‘Wheat’ is related to ‘Bread’ in the same way as ‘Sugarcane’ is related to ‘………………’
A. Jaggery
B. Mayonnaise
C. Grass
D. Ketchup
Answer: A.
Explanation:
‘Bread’ made by ‘Wheat’ similary,
‘Jaggery’ Made by ‘Sugarcane’.
∴ The correct answer is option A.
Q. 22 Four Letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster.
A. FGL
B. ABF
C. IJN
D. MNR
Answer: A.
Explanation:
F + 1 = G + 5 = L
A + 1 = B + 4 = F
I + 1 = J + 4 = N
M + 1 = N + 4 = R
So, option A. is odd.
∴ The correct answer is option A.
Q. 23 Select the letter that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
A, E, J, ?, W
A. R
B. P
C. S
D. Q
Answer: B.
Explanation:
The series follows pattern as,
A + 4 = E
E + 5 = J
J + 6 = P
P + 7 = W
∴ The correct answer is option B.
Q. 24 Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Select the symbol that will be on the face opposite to the one showing ‘ = ’.
A. $
B. #
C. %
D. *
Answer: A.
Explanation:
From last 2 figures,
‘%’ = ‘%’
‘$’ = ‘=’
‘*’ = ‘+’
Opposite face of ‘=’ = ‘$’
∴ The correct answer is option A.
Q. 25 Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.
A. 64
B. 96
C. 82
D. 74
Answer: D.
Explanation:
4 + 6 = 10
10 + (6 + 4 = 10) = 20
20 + (10 + 4 = 14) = 34
34 + (14 + 4 = 18) =52
52 + (18 + 4 = 22) = 74
74 + (22 + 4 = 26) = 100
100 + (26 + 4 = 30) = 130
∴ The correct answer is option D.
General Awareness
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 26 Four multi-storied illegal constructions – Jain Coral Cove, H20 Holy Faith, Alfa Serene and Golden Kayaloram – were razed to the ground in January 2020 following Supreme Court instructions. In which state did this happen?
A. Karnataka
B. Goa
C. Kerala
D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: C.
Q. 27 Name the company that has acquired an online travel portal Yatra Online Inc., for an enterprise value of $337.8 million, in an all-stock transaction.
A. Make my trip.com
B. Trivago
C. Ebix Inc.
D. Trip Advisor
Answer: C.
Q. 28 Which of the following is an INCORRECT sequence of Mughal rulers?
A. Jahangir, Shah Jahan, Aurangzeb
B. Akbar, Shah Jahan, Jahangir
C. Babur, Humayun, Akbar
D. Akbar, Jahangir, Shah Jahan
Answer: B.
Q. 29 The recently revoked ‘Article 370’ is associated with which of these states of India?
A. Assam
B. Sikkim
C. Nagaland
D. Kashmir
Answer: D.
Q. 30 Bhavai and Kalbelia as traditional dance forms, owe their genesis to which Indian state?
A. Punjab
B. Rajasthan
C. Assam
D. Odisha
Answer: B.
Q. 31 Iranian Major General Qasem Soleimani was recently (2020) assassinated by the US military in ______.
A. United Arab Emirates
B. Iraq
C. Saudi Arabia
D. Pakistan
Answer: B.
Q. 32 Who is the only scientist in the world to have won the Nobel prize in Chemistry twice?
A. Linus Carl Pauling
B. Roger D. Kornberg
C. Madame Curie
D. Frederick Sanger
Answer: D.
Q. 33 The American scientist Edwin Hubble’s name is associated with which of these theories?
A. Lattice Gauge Theory
B. Quantum Chromodynamics Theory
C. Partial Coherence of Light Theory
D. The Big Bang Theory
Answer: D.
Q. 34 The city of Vijayawada lies on the banks of which of these rivers?
A. Mahanadi
B. Tapti
C. Krishna
D. Godavari
Answer: C.
Q. 35 Only one Indian batsman has scored a triple century in test cricket other than Virender Sehwag. Name this batsman.
A. Ajinkya Rahane
B. Rohit Sharma
C. Shikhar Dhawan
D. Karun Nair
Answer: D.
Q. 36 What is the name of the phenomena in physics and astronomy which involves the splitting of a spectral line into two or more components of slightly different frequency when the light source is placed in a magnetic field?
A. Lumen Effect
B. Alpenglow Effect
C. Zeeman Effect
D. Raman Effect
Answer: C.
Q. 37 When does the entire earth experience equal days and nights?
A. Day of winter solstice
B. Day of summer solstice
C. At orbital plane
D. Day of equinox
Answer: D.
Q. 38 Who among the following is the current (January 2020) Governor of Kerala?
A. Arif Mohammed Khan
B. Satya Pal Mallik
C. Lalji Tandon
D. B.D. Mishra
Answer: A.
Q. 39 Name the two Indian actors who shared the National Best Actor Award (Male) in the 66th National Film Awards 2019.
A. Ayushmann Khurrana and Vicky Kaushal
B. Ranbir Kapoor and Akshay Kumar
C. Nana Patekar and Mohanlal
D. Amitabh Bachchan and Ranbir Kapoor
Answer: A.
Q. 40 Former union minister and former Karnataka CM, D.V. Sadananda Gowda is a cabinet minister in the current central cabinet (February-2020). What is his portfolio?
A. Law and Justice
B. Chemicals and Fertilizers
C. Public Distribution
D. Tribal Affairs
Answer: B.
Q. 41 Who among the following is known as the ‘father of Muslim renaissance’ in Bengal?
A. Sir Sayed Ahmed Khan
B. Ameer Ali
C. Nawab Abdul Latif Khan
D. Nawab Salimullah Khan
Answer: C.
Q. 42 Name the author of the 2019 released book – ‘The Scent of God’.
A. Nayantara Sehgal
B. Githa Hariharan
C. Saikat Majumdar
D. Himanjali Sankar
Answer: C.
Q. 43 What is the name of the phenomena (driven by the scattering of light) in which mountain tops acquire a rosy or orange hue around sunrise and sunset?
A. Brillouin scattering
B. Circle of confusion
C. Alpenglow
D. Barrel distortion
Answer: C.
Q. 44 How many members did the International Monetary Fund (IMF) have as of January 2020?
A. 164
B. 174
C. 189
D. 182
Answer: C.
Q. 45 The 3rd Khelo India Youth Games 2020 is hosted by which Indian state?
A. Assam
B. Kerala
C. Karnataka
D. Punjab
Answer: A.
Q. 46 From which of the following states does 2019 Padma Vibhushan winner, Teejan Bai hail?
A. Chhattisgarh
B. Gujarat
C. Odisha
D. Telangana
Answer: A.
Q. 47 Which of these is the energy conversion that happens in the process called photosynthesis?
A. Potential energy to chemical energy
B. Light energy to chemical energy
C. Heat energy to chemical energy
D. Heat energy to light energy
Answer: B.
Q. 48 Who was the then Governor-General of British India, when ‘Sati Pratha’ became illegal and punishable?
A. Lord Cornwallis
B. Lord Wellesley
C. Lord William Bentinck
D. Warren Hastings
Answer: C.
Q. 49 Which of the following is an Indian Research Station in the Antarctica Region?
A. Orcadas
B. Maitri
C. Hope Bay
D. Mawson
Answer: B.
Q. 50 Who is the author of the delightful and anecdotal history of Indian cricket titled – ‘A Corner of a Foreign Field: The Indian History of a British Sport’?
A. Sanjay Singh
B. Ramachandra Guha
C. Bipin Chandra
D. Romila Thapar
Answer: B.
Quantitative Aptitude
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 51 The given table represents the production of different types of motorcycles (in thousands)over a period of six years. Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows.
During 2015, the production of which type of motorcycle was more than 25% of the total production of all types of motorcycles in 2017?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Total production of all types of motorcycles in 2017 = 80 + 96 + 100 + 104 = 380
25% of the total production of all types of motorcycles in 2017 = 380×25/100 = 95
During 2015, the production of D. type of motorcycle was more than 25% of the total production of all types of motorcycles in 2017
Q. 52 The average age of a number of persons in a group was calculated as 35 years, which was 2.5 years more than the correct average as there was an error in recording the age of two persons as 38.5 years and 40 years instead of 29 years and 22 years respectively. The number of persons in the group was:
A. 11
B. 12
C. 15
D. 13
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Let the number of persons be x.
Wrong average = 35
Total age for wrong average = 35x
Correct average = 35 – 2.5 = 32.5
Total age for correct average = 32.5x
Correct age of two persons = 29 + 22 = 51
Wrong age of two persons = 38.5 + 40 = 78.5
Difference = 78.5- 51
35x – 32.5x = 27.5
x = 27.5/2.5 = 11
Q. 53 If sec θ + tan θ = p, 0∘ < θ < 90∘, then (p2 −1) /(p2 +1) is equal to:
A. cosec θ
B. sin θ
C. cos θ
D. 2 cosec θ
Answer: B.
Explanation:
sec θ + tan θ = p
(sec θ + tan θ)2 = p2 —(1)
(p2 −1) /(p2 +1)
From eq(1),
Q. 54 The chords AB and CD of a circle intersect at E. IfAE = 12 cm, BE = 20.25 cm and CE = 3 DE,thenthe length (in cm) of CE is:
A. 27
B. 25.5
C. 18
D. 28.5
Answer: A.
Explanation:
By the property,
AE × EB. = DE × CE
12 × 20.25 = DE × 3DE
243 = 3DE2
DE2 = 81
DE = 9 cm
CE = 3DE = 3 × 9 = 27 cm
Q. 55 If x + y + z = 3, and x2 + y2 + z2 = 101, then what is the value of √(x3 + y3 + z3 − 3xyz)?
Q. 56 If 12x2 − 21x + 1 = 0, then what is the value of 9x2 + (16x2) −1?
A. 429/8
B. 465/16
C. 417/16
D. 453/8
Answer: C.
Explanation:
12x2 − 21x + 1 = 0
Divide by 4x,
3x − 21/4 + 1/4x = 0
3x + 1/4x = 21/4
On taking square,
(3x + 1/4x)2 = (21/4)2
9x2 + 1/16x2 + 2.3x.1/4x = 441/16
9x2 + 1/16x2 = 441/16 -3/4
9x2 + 1/16x2 = 417/16
Q. 57 A sum of ₹ x was divided between A, B, C and D in the ratio ⅓ :1/5 :1/6 :1/9. If the difference between the shares of B. and D. is ₹832, then the value of x is:
A. ₹7,592
B. ₹7,384
C. ₹7,696
D. ₹7,488
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Ratio of A, B, C and D =⅓ :1/5 :1/6 :1/9 = 30 : 18 : 15 : 10
Let the share of A, B, C. and D. be 30p, 18p, 15p and 10p.
The difference between the shares of B. and D. = 832
18p – 10p = 832
p = 832/8 = 104
x = 30p + 18p + 15p + 10p = 73p
x = 73×104 = Rs.7592
Q. 58 The area of a field in the shape of a regular hexagon is 2400√3m2. The cost of fencing the field at ₹16.80/metre is:
A. ₹4,536
B. ₹3,024
C. ₹4,032
D. ₹3,528
Answer: C.
E
xplanation:
Area of a hexagon = (3√3 a2 )/2
a= side
2400√3 = (3√3 a2 )/2
a2 = 1600
a = 40 m
Perimeter = 6a = 6×40 = 240 m
The cost of fencing the field = 240×16.8 = Rs.4032
Q. 59 Places A and B are 144 km apart. Two cars start simultaneously, one from A and the other from B If they move in the same direction, they meet after 12 hours, but if they move towards each other they meet after 9/8hours. The speed (in km/h)of the car moving at a faster speed, is:
A. 70
B. 72
C. 60
D. 64
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Speed of faster car = v1
Speed of slower car = v2
Case I: Cars travel in same direction
144 km distance covered in 12 hours so,
Relative speed = v1 – v2
v1 – v2 = 144/12 = 12 —(1)
Case II: Cars in opposite direction
144 km distance covered in 9/8 hours so,
Relative speed = v1 + v2
v1 + v2 =144/ 9/8= 128 —(2),
From eq(1) and (2),
2v1 = 12 + 128
v1 = 140/2 = 70 km/hr
The speed of faster car is 70 km/hr.
Q. 60 A, B and C donate 8%, 7% and 9%,of their salaries, respectively to a charitable trust. The salaries of A and B are same and the difference between their donations is ₹259. The total donation of A and B is ₹1,185 more than that of C. The total donation of A and C is what percentage of the total salaries of A, B and C? (Correct to one decimal place)
A. 6.2%
B. 5.8%
C. 6.4%
D. 7.1%
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Let the salaries of A, B and C be x, x, y.
Donation of A, B and C = 0.08x, 0.07x and 0.09z
Difference between donations of A and B = 259
0.08x – 0.07x = 259
x = 259/0.01 = 25900
Total donation of A and B = donation of A + 1185
0.08x + 0.07x = 0.09z + 1185
0.15x = 0.09z + 1185
0.09z = 0.15×25900 – 1185 = 2700
z = 2700/0.09 = 30000
Total donation of A and C = 0.08x + 0.09z
=0.08×25900 + 2700 = 2072 + 2700 = 4772
Total salaries of A, B and C = 25900 + 25900 +30000 = 81800
Required percentage = 4772/81800× 100 = 5.8%
Q. 61 Four men and 6 women can complete a certain piece of work in 5 days whereas three men and 4 women can complete it in 7 days.How many men should assist 25 women to complete 2 ½ times the same work in 5 days?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Total work = number of (man\woman)
Four men and 6 women can complete a certain piece of work in 5 days whereas three men and 4 women can complete it in 7 days so,
(4m + 6w) ×5 = (3m + 4w) × 7
20m + 30w = 21m + 28w
m = 2w
Now,
Work = 2½ times the same work
Work = 5/2× same work
(m/w)× 5 = 5/2 ×(4m+6w)× 5
w× 5 = 5/2 ×(4×2w+6w)× 5
w× 5 = 5/2 ×14w× 5
w = 35
So need for worker = 25w + 10w
Number of man = 10 m/2 = 5 man
Q. 62 In △ABC, ∠B = 72∘ and ∠C = 44∘. Side BC is produced to D. The bisectors of ∠B and ∠ACD meet at E. What is the measure of ∠BEC ?
A. 58∘
B. 46∘
C. 32∘
D. 36∘
Answer: C.
Explanation:
In △ABC,
∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180°
∠A = 180 − 72 − 44 = 64°
By angle bisector property,
∠BEC = ∠A / 2
∠BEC = 64° / 2 = 32°
Q. 63 In △ABC, AC = 8.4cm and BC = 14cm. P is a point on AB. such that CP= 11.2 cm and ∠ACP = ∠B. What is the length (in cm) of BP?
A. 4.12
B. 2.8
C. 3.78
D. 3.6
Answer: C.
Explanation:
ΔACP ~ ΔABC
∵ ∠ACP = ∠B ( A is common and )
BP = AB. – AP = 10.5 – 6.72 = 3.78 cm
Q. 64 If 2x2 + y2 + 8z2 − 2 2xy + 4 2yz − 8zx = (Ax + y + Bz)2 , then the value of (A2 + B2 − AB) is:
Q. 65 How many numbers are there from 200 to 800 which are neither divisible by 5 nor by 7?
A. 407
B. 410
C. 413
D. 411
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Total numbers = (800 – 200) + 1 = 601
Number of terms which divide by 5
l = 800
a = 200
Common difference(d) = 5
l = a + (n-1)d
800 = 200 + (n – 1)5
n-1 = 120
n = 121
Number of terms which divide by 7
l = 798
a = 203
Common difference(d) = 7
l = a + (n-1)d
798 = 203 + (n – 1)7
n-1 = 85
n = 86
Number of terms which divide by 5 and 7
l = 770
a = 210
Common difference(d) = 35
l = a + (n-1)d
770 = 210 + (n – 1)35
n-1 = 16
n = 17
Number of terms which divide by either 5 or 7 = 121 + 86 – 17 = 190 Number of terms which divide by neither 5 nor 7 = 601 – 190 = 411
Q. 66 The value of is:
A. 17/8
B. 8/3
C. 16/170
D. 2/17
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Instructions
The given table represents the production of different types of motorcycles (in thousands) over a period of six years. Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows.
Q. 67 What is the percentage increase in the total production of all types of motorcycles from 2014 to 2018?
A. 14 3/7
B. 17 1/3
C. 16 2/3
D. 14 2/7
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Total production of all types of motorcycles in 2014 = 84 + 87 + 89 + 100 = 360 Total production of all types of motorcycles in 2018 = 98 + 92 + 110 + 120 = 420 = 420−360/360 × 100 = 60/360 × 100 =16 ⅔.
Q. 68 By what percentage is the total production of type A. motorcycles over six years, less than the total production of all types of motorcycles in 2013 and 2016?
A. 32.2
B. 32.8
C. 31.6
D. 30.5
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Total production of type A. motorcycles over six years = 95+ 84 + 85 + 89 + 80 + 98 = 531
total production of all types of motorcycles in 2013 and 2016 = 95+ 98 + 104 + 103 + 89 + 88 + 92 + 95 = 764
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 69 Two circles of radii 7 cm and 5 cm intersect each other at A. and B, and the distance between their centers is 10 cm. The length (in cm) of the common chord AB is:
A. (3√66 )/5
B. (4√66)/5
C. (2√74)/ 5
D. (3√74)/ 5
Answer: B.
Explanation:
AP = 5 cm
AQ = 7 cm
PQ = 10 cm
Let the CQ be x. So,
PC = 10 – x cm
△ACQ is right angle triangle so,
(AQ)2 = (AC)2 + (CQ)2
(7)2 = (AC)2 + (x)2
(AC)2 = 49 − (x)2 —(1)
△APC is right angle triangle so,
(AP)2 = (AC)2 + (PC)2
(5)2 = (AC)2 + (10 − x)2
(AC)2 = 25 − (10 − x)2 —(2)
From eq(1) and (2)
49 − (x)2 = 25 − (10 − x)2
24 − (x)2 = −(10 − x)2
(x)2 = 24 + 100 + x2 − 20x
20x = 124
x = 124/20 = 6.2 cm
From eq(1),
(AC)2 = 49 − (6.2)2
(AC)2 = 49 − 38.44
(AC)2 = 10.56 = 1056/100 = 264/25
AC = (2√66)/5
The common chord AB = 2 ×(2√66)/5 = (4√66)/5
Q. 70 If the selling price of an article is 8% more than the cost price and the discount offered is 10% on the marked price of the article, then what is the ratio of the cost price to the marked price?
A. 5 : 6
B. 8 : 9
C. 3 : 4
D. 4 : 5
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Profit = 8%
Let the cost price be Rs.100.
Selling price = 108
Discount on marked price = 10% so,
selling price = 100 – 10 = 90%
90% = 108
Marked price(100%) =108/ 90 ×100 = Rs.120
Ratio of the cost price to the marked price = 100 : 120 = 5 : 6
Q. 71 The given table represents the production of different types of motorcycles (in thousands) over a period of six years. Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows.
What is the ratio of the total number of motorcycles of type B. produced in 2016 and 2018 to the total number of motorcycles of type D. produced in 2013, 2015 and 2016?
A. 1 : 2
B. 3 : 4
C. 3 : 5
D. 2 : 3
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Total number of motorcycles of type B. produced in 2016 and 2018 = 88 + 92 = 180
Total number of motorcycles of type D. produced in 2013, 2015 and 2016 = 103 + 102 + 95 = 300
Ratio of the total number of motorcycles of type B. produced in 2016 and 2018 to the total number of motorcycles of type D. produced in 2013, 2015 and 2016 = 180 : 300 = 3:5
Q. 72 A sum of ₹8,000 invested at 10% p.a. amounts to ₹9,261 in a certain time, interest compounded half-yearly. What will be the compound interest (in ₹) on the same sum for the same time at double the earlier rate of interest, when interest is compounded annually?
A. ₹2,520
B. ₹2,480
C. ₹2,560
D. ₹2,500
Answer: C.
Explanation:
for half yearly,
rate(r) = 10/2 = 5
p = 8000
Amount = 9261
Amount = p(1 + r/100 )t
9261 = 8000(1 +5/100 )t
(9261)/(8000) =(105/100 )t
(21/20)3 =(21/20 )t
t = 3 years
Time = 3/2 years
Now,
r1 = 2r = 2 ×10= 20
Compound interest = p(1 + r/100 )t − p
= 8000(1 +20/100 )3/2 − 8000
= 8000×6/5×(6/5)1/2 − 8000
= 10560 – 8000 = Rs.2560
Q. 73 A sells an article to B. at a loss of 20%, B sells it to C at a profit of 12.5% and sells it to D at a loss of 8%. If D buys it for ₹248.40, then what is the difference between the loss incurred by A and C?
A. ₹36.80
B. ₹38.40
C. ₹42.60
D. ₹39.20
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Cost price for D = 248.40
Loss for C = 8%
Cost price for C = 248.40 × 100/92 = 270
Loss of C = 270 – 248.4 = 21.6
Selling price for B = Rs. 270
Profit = 12.5%
Cost price for B = 270 ×100/112.5 = 240
Selling price for A = Rs. 240
Loss = 20%
Cost price for A = 240 × 100/80= 300
Loss for A = 300 – 240 = 60
Difference between the loss incurred by A and C = 60 – 21.6 = Rs. 38.4
Q. 74 If 7 cos2 θ + 3 sin2θ = 6, 0∘ < θ < 90∘ , then the value of (cot2 2θ+sec2 2θ)/(tan2 2θ−sin2 2θ) is:
A. 52/27
B. 26/15
C. 28/27
D. 49/45
Answer: A.
Explanation:
7 cos2θ + 3 sin2θ = 6
7(1 − sin2θ) + 3 sin2θ = 6 .
7 −7 sin2θ + 3 sin2θ = 6
4 sin2θ = 1
sin θ = ½
( For 0∘ < θ < 90∘ ,)
θ = 30∘
Q. 75 The value of [(cos 9∘+ sin 81∘)(sec 9∘ + cosec 81∘)]/(2sin63∘ + 1+ 2 sin27∘)is:
A. ½
B. 4/3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: B.
Explanation:
English Comprehension
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 76 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Being a millionaire, he is leading a ______ life.
A. expensive
B. conducive
C. destitute
D. luxurious
Answer: D.
Q. 77 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Sparse
A. Costly
B. Tranquil
C. Scanty
D. Abundant
Answer: D.
Q. 78 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.
Did the problems you had to face discourage you?
A. Are you being discouraged by the problems you had to face?
B. Have you been discouraged by the problems you have to face?
C. Are you discouraged by the problems you had to face?
D. Were you discouraged by the problems you had to face?
Answer: D.
Q. 79 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
One who is preoccupied with his own interests
A. Egoist
B. Pessimist
C. Atheist
D. Optimist
Answer: A.
Q. 80 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
A. Upon returning from his travels, he was forced to live in a house where his large family lived.
B. Vaikom Muhammad Basheer was a Malayalam fiction writer from Vaikom in Kerala.
C. The household was always noisy and full of chaos, no place for a writer surely!
D. Apart from family members, myriads of domestic animals also treated the house as their own.
A. BCAD
B. BCDA
C. BADC
D. BDCA
Answer: C.
Q. 81 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
A. Ignorance
B. Influence
C. Itinerent
D. Impeach
Answer: C.
Instructions
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Comprehension:
Milton Hershey returned to the village where he had been born, in the heart of dairy country. He opened his chocolate manufacturing plant (1)______ 1905. With access to all the fresh milk he (2)______, he began producing the finest milk chocolate. The plant (3)______ opened in a small Pennsylvania village is today the (4)______ chocolate factory in the world. The confections created here are (5)______ around the world.
Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 1.
A. to
B. at
C. in
D. on
Answer: C.
Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 2.
A. considered
B. kneaded
C. distributed
D. needed
Answer: D.
Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 3.
A. that
B. when
C. who
D. what
Answer: A.
Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 4.
A. large
B. most largest
C. largest
D. larger
Answer: C.
Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 5.
A. choices
B. favourites
C. collections
D. selections
Answer: B.
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 87 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Children under five years are ______ from passport biometrics.
A. acquitted
B. exempted
C. escaped
D. allowed
Answer: B.
Q. 88 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
A. geometrical figure with eight sides
A. Octagon
B. Pentagon
C. Hexagon
D. Heptagon
Answer: A.
Q. 89 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Bring to light
A. Reveal clearly
B. Cheer someone
C. Praise in public
D. Brighten up
Answer: A.
Q. 90 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Fury
A. Sin
B. Risk
C. Anger
D. Crime
Answer: C.
Q. 91 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Hold water
A. To be fickle
B. To be busy
C. To be valid
D. To be deep
Answer: C.
Instructions
Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution’.
Q. 92 Your advice will benefit to me.
A. benefit from me
B. benefit me
C. No substitution
D. benefit for me
Answer: B.
Q. 93 Where you left your bag yesterday?
A. No substitution
B. Where did you left
C. Where were you leaving
D. Where did you leave
Answer: D.
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 94 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Friendship
A. Enmity
B. Amity
C. Slavery
D. Arrogance
Answer: A.
Q. 95 Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.
The lawyer said to me, “There is no proof of your involvement in this case.”
A. The lawyer told that there is no proof of my involvement in that case.
B. The lawyer told me that there was no proof of my involvement in that case.
C. The lawyer told me that there is no proof of your involvement in this case.
D. The lawyer said me that there was no proof of my involvement in this case.
Answer: B.
Instructions
In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.
Q. 96 I am believing you have submitted all the necessary documents.
A. I am believing
B. necessary documents
C. you have submitted
D. all the
Answer: A.
Q. 97 No sooner did we receive your message when we heaved a sigh of relief.
A. did we receive
B. a sigh of relief
C. your message
D. when we heaved
Answer: D.
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 98 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
A. Even the most ill-equipped laboratory would have been better than their shed.
B. Thus, they did not allow any difficulties to come in their way.
C. But their mind was set upon the discovery of radium.
D. The Curies had to work in extreme poverty.
A. DACB
B. ABCD
C. ADBC
D. DBCA
Answer: A.
Q. 99 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 1 Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
Answer: B.
Q. 2 Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Select the symbol that will be on the face opposite to the one showing ‘@’.
A. #
B. !
C. &
D. <
Answer: A.
Q. 3 Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words. Turmeric : Spices
A. Fig : Cashew Nuts
B. Nutmeg : Chilli Flakes
C. Dates : Dry Fruits
D. Apricot : Pear
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Turmeric is the spices.
Similarly,
Dates are the dry fruits.
∴ The correct answer is option C.
Q. 4 In the given Venn diagram, ‘Group A’ represents those who can speak ‘English’, ‘Group B’ represents those who can speak ‘Hindi’, and ‘Group C’ represents those who can speak ‘Marathi’. The numbers given in the diagram represent the number of persons in that particular category.
How many persons can speak exactly two languages?
A. 12
B. 3
C. 21
D. 18
Answer: D.
Q. 5 Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
AOS, CQU, ? , GUY, IWA.
A. ESW
B. GSW
C. FSX
D. DRV
Answer: A.
Explanation:
The series follows as pattern,
(A + 2)(O + 2)(S + 2) = CQU
(C + 2)(Q + 2)(U + 2) = ESW
(E + 2)(S + 2)(W + 2) = GUY
(G + 2)(U + 2)(Y + 2) = IWA.
∴ The correct answer is option A.
Q. 6 Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 4, 25, 121, ? , 529, 961
A. 361
B. 289
C. 256
D. 324
Answer: B.
Explanation:
The series follows as pattern,
(2)2 = 4
(5)2= 25
(11)2= 121
(17)2= 289
(23)2 = 529
(29)2 = 961
∴The correct answer is option B.
Q. 7 In a certain code language, ‘GUM is coded as ‘49441169’. How will ‘WAX’ be coded as in that language?
A. 5291576
B. 8412525
C. 3611121
D. 2891400
Answer: A.
Explanation:
G(7) =72 = 49
U(21) =(21)2= 441
M(13) =(13)2= 169
Similarly,
W(23) =(23)2= 529
A(1) =(1)2= 1
X(24) =(24)2= 576
‘WAX’ is coded as ‘5291576’.
∴ The correct answer is option A.
Q. 8 Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.
A. 27
B. 28
C. 29
D. 25
Answer: B.
Q. 9 Select the letter that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. W, Q, ?, H, E, C.
A. N
B. L
C. K
D. M
Answer: B.
Explanation:
W – 6 = Q
Q – 5 = L
L – 4 = H
H – 3 = E
E – 2 = C.
∴ The correct answer is option B.
Q. 10 Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it
A. 446
B. 444
C. 4126
D. 464
Answer: D.
Q. 11 Product A is costlier than product B by ₹2. If the price of product A is increased by two times the price of product B, the new price of product A becomes ₹17. What is the price of product B?
A. ₹5
B. ₹7
C. ₹3
D. ₹6
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Let the price of product A be x, so the price of product B = x – 2.
According to the question,
x + 2(x-2) = 17, solving this we get,
x + 2x – 4 = 17,
3x = 17 + 4
3x = 21, x = 7
Price of Product A. = Rs. 7, so Price of Product B. = 7 – 2 = Rs 5.
Q. 12 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when a mirror is placed on the right of the figure.
Answer: D.
Q. 13 How many triangles are there in the given figure?
A. 12
B. 10
C. 11
D. 9
Answer: C.
Q. 14 Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Micron
2. Metre
3. Mile
4. Millimetre
5. Kilometre
6. Centimetre
A. 1-4-6-2-3-5
B. 1-4-6-2-5-3
C. 4-6-2-5-1-3
D. 4-6-2-5-3-1
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Arrangement of the words in a logical and meaningful order
Q. 15 ‘Grapes’ is related to ‘Fruit’ in the same way as ‘Pepper’ is related to ‘…………….’
A. Cereals
B. Spices
C. Pulses
D. Dry Fruits
Answer: B.
Explanation:
‘Grapes’ is related to ‘Fruit’ in the same way as ‘Pepper’ is related to ‘spices’
∴ The correct answer is option B.
Q. 16 In a certain code language, PYTHON’ is written as ‘LMFRWN’. How will ‘RHYTHM’ be written asin that language?
A. MFRWFX
B. NFRWFS
C. KFRWFP
D. MFRWFT
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Similarly,
∴ The correct answer is option C.
Q. 17 Select the option whois related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 6 : 252 :: 5 : ?
A. 175
B. 150
C. 125
D. 225
Answer: B.
Explanation:
(6)3 + (6)2 = 216 + 36 = 252
(5)3 + (5)2 = 125 + 25 = 150
∴The correct answer is option B.
Q. 18 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is not allowed).
Answer: A.
Q. 19 Fourletter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster.
A. HFE
B. HVG
C. GMF
D. DVR
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Except option A, remaining all have only consonant letters.
∴ The correct answer is option A.
Q. 20 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements:
1. All cars are trucks.
2. Some buses are cars.
Conclusions:
I. All cars are buses.
II. Some buses are trucks.
III. All trucks are buses.
A. Only conclusions II and III follow.
B. Only conclusions I and III follow.
C. Only conclusion I follows.
D. Only conclusion II follows.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
From Venn diagram,
Only conclusion II follows.
∴ The correct answer is option D.
Q. 21 A + B means ‘B. is the sister of A’:
A − B means ‘A. is the father of B’:
A × B means ‘B. is the son of A’;
A ÷ B means ‘B. is the husband of A’.
If E ÷ F − H + J × G + D, then how is D. related to H?
A. Father
B. Niece
C. Uncle
D. Aunt
Answer: B.
Explanation:
In the diagram, square shows the males, circle shows the females, vertical lines shows the generation, single horizontal lines shows the brother/sister and double horizontal lines shows the couples.
From the diagram,
D. is the niece of the H
Q. 22Select the option that depicts how the given transparent sheet of paper would appear if it is folded at the dotted line.
Answer: D.
Q. 23 Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd word.
A. Rajkot
B. Ahmedabad
C. Surat
D. Jhalrapatan
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Except the option D, remaining all are cities of Gujarat state.
∴ The correct answer is option D.
Q. 24 Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-pair that is different from the rest.
A. 6-174
B. 8-138
C. 5-155
D. 11-143
Answer: B.
Explanation:
174 is divisible by 6.
155 is divisible by 5.
143 is divisible by 11.
But,
138 is not divisible by 8.
∴ The correct answer is option B.
Q. 25 Which two digits should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
32 ÷ 6 + 26 − 13 × 6 = 54
A. 3 and 1
B. 3 and 6
C. 6 and 2
D. 2 and 3
Answer: C.
Explanation:
32 ÷ 6 + 26 − 13 × 6 = 54
From the option C,
On interchanging,
36 ÷ 2 + 62 − 13 × 2 = 54
18 + 62 − 26 = 54
54 = 54
∴ The correct answer is option C.
General Awareness
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 26 Which of the following is NOT a twin city of India?
A. Hubli and Dharwad
B. Cuttack and Bhubaneswar
C. Ahmedabad and Gandhinagar
D. Thrissur and Thiruvalla
Answer: D.
Q. 27 Who is the first Indian to bag two International hat-tricks in cricket?
A. Virat Kohli
B. Kedar Jadhav
C. Rohit Sharma
D. Kuldeep Yadav
Answer: D.
Q. 28 Who chaired the sixth meeting of the Island Development Agency in New Delhi in January 2020?
A. Narendra Modi
B. Nirmala Sitharaman
C. Nitin Gadkari
D. Amit Shah
Answer: D.
Q. 29 In which state did the second phase of Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI) 2.0 begin in January 2020?
A. Kerala
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Punjab
D. Bihar
Answer: B
Q. 30 Who was chosen as foreign secretary of India in January 2020?
A. Harsh Vardhan Shringla
B. Nirupama Rao
C. Ranjan Mathai
D. Vijay Keshav Gokhale
Answer: A.
Q. 31 Which city of India is known as ‘The Athens of the East’?
A. Patna
B. Allahabad
C. Kochi
D. Madurai
Answer: D.
Q. 32 In which city was the Jhanda Satyagraha or Flag Satyagraha of 1923 held?
A. Bombay
B. Nagpur
C. Calcutta
D. Ahmedabad
Answer: B.
Q. 33 Which part of the body is responsible for the manufacture of red blood cells?
A. Heart
B. Brain
C. Lungs
D. Bone marrow
Answer: D.
Q. 34 Which pillar inscriptions have recorded the achievements of Samudra Gupta, who was known as the ‘Napoleon of India’ for his conquests?
A. Allahabad Pillar
B. Iron Pillar
C. Vijaya Stambha
D. Sun Pillar
Answer: A.
Q. 35 Who was appointed as Managing Director of the International Monetary Fund in October, 2019?
A. Rodrigo Rato
B. Christine Lagarde
C. Kristalina Georgieva
D. Dominique Strauss-Kahn
Answer: C.
Q. 36 Which of the following is NOT a nationalised bank?
A. United Bank of India
B. State Bank of India
C. Punjab National Bank
D. Punjab and Sind Bank
Answer: B.
Q. 37 Jellyfish are an example of which type of phylum?
A. Phylum -Porifera
B. Phylum -Protozoa
C. Phylum -Ctenophora
D. Phylum – Cnidaria
Answer: D.
Q. 38 In which period was the legendary Victoria Terminus station (currently Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus), Mumbai built?
A. 1933 to 1943
B. 1911 to 1921
C. 1843 to 1853
D. 1878 to 1888
Answer: D.
Q. 39 Which Tennis star will have a Swiss coin minted in his/her honour?
A. Rafael Nadal
B. Novak Djokovic
C. Serena Williams
D. Roger Federer
Answer: D.
Q. 40 In the sequence of planets in the solar system, which planet comes in between Mars and Saturn?
A. Uranus
B. Venus
C. Jupiter
D. Mercury
Answer: C.
Q. 41 In which state has the Jawara Dance, a dance form to celebrate wealth, originated?
A. Rajasthan
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Gujarat
D. Kerala
Answer: B.
Q. 42 Which Union Minister of Home Affairs released a book titled Karmayodha Granth in New Delhi?
A. P Chidambaram
B. Amit Shah
C. Sushilkumar Shinde
D. Rajnath Singh
Answer: B.
Q. 43 Which city in India is world renowned for one of the most traditional embroidery styles, Chikankari?
A. Ahmedabad
B. Hyderabad
C. Udaipur
D. Lucknow
Answer: D.
Q. 44 John Maynard Keynes, best known for his economic theories (Keynesian economics), hailed from which country?
A. England
B. Australia
C. Denmark
D. Sweden
Answer: A.
Q. 45 Georg Simon Ohm in whose honour we have the famous Ohm’s Law, hailed from which country?
A. Russia
B. Spain
C. Poland
D. Germany
Answer: D.
Q. 46 Who was the first Governor of Madhya Pradesh?
A. BD. Sharma
B. GP Singh
C. NN Wanchu
D. Dr. Sitaramayya
Answer: D.
Q. 47 Freedom fighter Sucheta Kripalani, became the first woman chief minister of which state?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Gujarat
D. Rajasthan
Answer: B.
Q. 48 Methane is a colourless, odourless, non-toxic but flammable gas. What is its common name?
A. Laughing gas
B. Heating gas
C. Blue vitriol
D. Marsh gas
Answer: D.
Q. 49 The development of a fruit without fertilization is called ______.
A. Parthenocarpy
B. Gametogamy
C. Hybridogenesis
D. Apomixis
Answer: A.
Q. 50 Which US based Indian topped the Forbes India’s ‘20 people to watch in the 2020s’ list?
A. Prashant Kishor
B. Hasan Minhaj
C. Mahua Moitra
D. Dushyant Chautala
Answer: B.
Quantitative Aptitude
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 51 The time taken by a boat to travel 13 km downstream is the same as time taken by it to travel 7 km upstream. If the speed of the stream is 3 km/h, then how much time (in hours) will it take to travel a distance of 44.8 km in still water?
A. 412/25
B. 53/5
C. 52/5
D. 413/25
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Speed of the stream = 3 km/h
Let the speed of the boat be v.
Speed in downstream = 3 + v
Speed in upstream = v – 3
Time = distance/speed
According to the question,
The time taken by a boat to travel 13 km downstream = time taken by boat to travel 7 km upstream
13/(3 + v) = 7/(v – 3)
13v – 39 = 21 + 7v
6v = 60
v = 10 km/h
Speed of boat = 10 km/h
The time taken by a boat to travel a distance of 44.8 km in still water = 44.8/10 = 112/25 = 412/25hr
Q. 52 The given table represents the revenue (in ₹ crores) of a company from the sale of four products A. B. C. and D. in 6 years. Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows.
The number of years in which the revenue of the company from the sale of product D. is more than the average revenue from the sale of product A. over six years, is:
A. 4
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The number of years in which the revenue of the company from the sale of product D. is more than the average revenue from the sale of product A. over six years = 2
(In the year 2013 and 2014)
Q. 53 In △PQR, ∠Q = 85∘ and ∠R = 65∘. Points S and T are on the sides PQ and PR, respectively such that ∠STR = 95∘, and the ratio of the QR and ST is 9 : 5. If PQ = 21.6 cm, then the length of PT is:
A. 10.5 cm
B. 9.6 cm
C. 12 cm
D. 9 cm
Answer: C.
Explanation:
∠PTS + ∠STR = 180∘
∠PTS = 180∘ − 95∘ = 85∘
△PTS is similar to △PQR So,
( ∠P is common and ∠PTS = ∠SQR )
ST / QR = PT/PQ
(QR : ST = 9 : 5 and PQ = 21.6 cm)
5 / 9 = PT/21.6
21.6 × 5 = PT × 9
PT = 108/9 = 12 cm
∴ The length of PT is 12 cm.
Q. 54 If 30x2 − 15x + 1 = 0, then what is the value of 25x2 + (36x2) −1?
A. 9/2
B. 6 ¼
C. 65/12
D. 55/12
Answer: D.
Explanation:
30x2 − 15x + 1 = 0
Dividing by x,
30x − 15 + 1/x = 0
5x − 15/6 + 1/6x =
5x + 1/6x = 5/2
taking square both side,
(5x + 1/6x)2 = (5/2)2
25x2 + 1/36x2 + 2 × 5x × 1/6x = 25/4
25x2 + 1/36x2 = 25/4 – 5/3
25x2 + 1/36x2 = 55/12
Q. 55 The income of A is 60% less than that of B, and the expenditure of A is equal to 60%of B’s expenditure. If A’s income is equal to 70% of B’s expenditure, then what is the ratio of the savings of A and B?
A. 3 : 8
B. 5 : 9
C. 4 : 7
D. 2 : 15
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Let the income of B be 100.
Income of A = 100×40/100 = 40
A’s income is equal to 70% of B’s expenditure so,
40 = 70% of B’s expenditure
Expenditure of B = 40/70×100 = 400/7
Saving of B = 100 – 400/7 = 300/7
The expenditure of A is equal to 60%of B’s expenditure so,
Expenditure of A = 60% of B’s expenditure
Expenditure of A = 60× 400/(7×100) = 240/7
Saving of A. = 40 – 240/7 = 40/7
The ratio of the savings of A and B = 40/7 : 300/7 = 2 : 15
Q. 56 The value of is:
A. 1 ⅘
B. 1 9/10
C. 3 ⅘
D. 9 ½
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Q. 57 A cylindrical vessel of radius 30 cm and height 42 cm is full of water. Its contents are emptied into a rectangular tub of length 75 cm and breadth 44 cm. The height (in cm) to which the water rises in the tub is: (Take π = 22/7)
A. 36
B. 30
C. 40
D. 45
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Volume of the cylindrical vessel = πr2h = 22/7 × 302 × 42 = 118800
If we replace the water from the cylindrical vessel to rectangular tub then volume should be equal of the cylindrical vessel rectangular tub.
Volume of the cylindrical vessel = Volume of rectangular tub
118800 = length ×breadth × height
118800 = 75 × 44 × height
Height = 118800/3300 = 36 cm
Q. 58 The given table represents the revenue (in ₹ crores) of a company from the sale of four products A B C and D in 6 years. Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows.
The total revenue of the company from the sale of products B, C and D in 2014 is what percentage of the total revenue from the sale of products C and D in 6 years?
A. 18
B. 25
C. 28
D. 20
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Total revenue of the company from the sale of products B, C and D in 2014 = 92 + 96 + 92 = 280
Total revenue from the sale of products C. and D. in 6 years = 82 + 76 + 98 + 102 + 96 + 92 + 88 +93 + 93 + 97 + 103 + 102 = 1120
Required percentage =280/1120 ×100 = 25%
Q. 59 If 7 sin2 θ − cos2 θ + 2 sin θ = 2, 0∘ < θ < 90∘, then the value of (sec 2θ+cot 2θ)/(cosec 2θ+tan 2θ) is:
A. (2√3+1)/ 3
B. 1
C. ⅕ (1+2√3)
D. ⅖ (1+√3)
Answer: C.
Explanation:
7 sin2 θ − cos2 θ + 2 sin θ = 2
⇒ 7 sin2θ − cos2 θ + 2 sin θ − 2 = 0
⇒ 7 sin2θ − (1 − sin2θ) +2 sin θ − 2 = 0
⇒ 8 sin2 θ + 2 sin θ − 3 = 0
⇒ 8 sin2θ + 6 sin θ − 4 sin θ − 3 = 0
⇒ 2 sin θ(4 sin θ + 3) − 1(4 sin θ + 3) = 0
⇒ (2 sin θ − 1)(4 sin θ + 3) = 0
0∘ < θ < 90∘
For ,
2 sin θ − 1=0
θ = sin-1(1/2)
θ = 30°
(sec 2×30°+cot 2×30°)/(cosec 2×30°+tan 2×30°)
Q. 60 The ratio of boys and girls in a group is 7 : 6. If 4 more boys join the group and 3 girls leave the group, then the ratio of boys to girls becomes 4 : 3. What is the total number of boys and girls initially in the group?
A. 117
B. 78
C. 91
D. 104
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The ratio of boys and girls in a group is 7 : 6.
Let the boys be 7x and girls be 6x.
When 4 more boys join the group and 3 girls leave the group, then the ratio of boys to girls = 4 : 3
(7x+4)/(6x−3) = 4/3
21x + 12 = 24x -12
3x = 24
x = 8
Initially boys and girls = 7x + 6x = 13x = 13×8 = 104
Q. 61 The difference in compound interest on a certain sum at 10% p.a. for one year, when the interest is compounded half yearly and yearly, is ₹88.80. What is the simple interest on the same sum for 1⅔ years at the same rate?
A. ₹5,916
B. ₹5,986
C. ₹5,980
D. ₹5,920
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Principal = p
Rate(r) = 10%
Time(t) = 1 year
compound interest = p(1 + r/100)t − p
When interest is calculated yearly = p(1 + 10/100) − p = p × (110/100) − p
When interest is calculated half yearly,
Rate(r) = 10/2 = 5%
Time(t) = 1×2 = 2
Interest = p(1 + 5/100)2 – p = p(105/100)2 – p
Difference of interest = 88.80
p × (105/100) × (105/100) − p − p × (110/100) + p = 88.80
p × 1.05 × 105 − p × 110 = 8880
110.25p – 110p = 8880
p = 8880/.25 = 35520
Simple interest for 1⅔ years,
t =1⅔ = 5/3 years
Interest =prt/100 = (35520 ×10 ×5/3)/100
= Rs.5920
Q. 62 The expression 3 sec2 θ tan2 θ + tan6 θ − sec6θ is equal to:
Q. 63 One-third of goods are sold at a 15% profit. 25% of the goods are sold at a 20% profit and the rest at a 20% loss. If the total profit of ₹138.50 is earned on the whole transaction, then the value(in ₹) of the goods is:
A. ₹8,587
B. ₹8,030
C. ₹7,756
D. ₹8,310
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Let the total goods be 300
One third, means 100 goods are sold at 15℅ profit
25℅ means 75 goods are sold at 20℅ profit
The rest, means 125 goods are 20℅ loss
Let the price of each good be Re. 1
So, now calculating the profit and loss amounts:
For 100 goods, profit is 15℅ = Rs. 115
For 75 goods, profit is 20℅ = Rs. 90
For 125 goods, loss is 20℅ = Rs. 100
So, total amount of the selling price= Rs. 305
Total cost price = Rs.300
So, the profit = Selling price- cost price = Rs. 305-300 = Rs.5
Now equating it to the real values:
Rs. 5 is the profit when the total amount of goods is Rs 300.
Rs. 138.50 is the profit when total amount of goods is= (300/5)*138.5 = Rs. 8310
∴ The value of the goods is Rs. 8310.
Q. 64 The given table represents the revenue (in ₹ crores) of a company from the sale of four products A B C and D in 6 years. Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows.
What is the ratio of the total revenue of the company in 2014 from the sale of all the four products to the total revenue from the sale of product C in 2014 to 2017?
A. 14 : 23
B. 18 : 19
C. 7 : 10
D. 7 : 9
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Total revenue of the company in 2014 from the sale = 80 + 92 + 96 + 92 = 360
The total revenue from the sale of product C. in 2014 to 2017 = 96 + 88 + 93 + 103 = 380
The ratio of the total revenue of the company in 2014 from the sale of all the four products to the total revenue from the sale of product C. in 2014 to 2017 = 360 : 380
= 18 : 19
Q. 65 If the 6-digit numbers x35624 and 1257y4 are divisible by 11 and 12, respectively, then what is the value of (5x – 2y ) ?
A. 26
B. 12
C. 10
D. 13
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Divisibility rule of 11,
The sum of of alternative digit are equal so,
x + 5 + 2 = 3 + 6 + 4
x = 6
Divisibility rule of 12,
The number should be divisible by 3 and 4.
For the divisible by 4,
last 2 digits of the number should by divisible by 4 so possible value of y =
Value of (5x – 2y ) = 5 × 6 − 2 × 2 = 30 – 4 = 26
Q. 66 If a + b + c = 7 and ab + bc + ca = -6, then the value of a3 + b3 + c3-3abc is:
A. 469
B. 472
C. 463
D. 479
Answer: A.
Explanation:
We know that,
a3 + b3 + c3 − 3abc = (a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2 − (ab + bc + ac))
a + b + c = 7
Squaring both sides,
(a + b + c)2 = 49
a2 + b2 + c2 + 2(ab + bc + ac) = 49
a2 + b2 + c2 = 49 + 12 = 61
a3 + b3 + c3 − 3abc = (a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2 − (ab + bc + ac))
= 7(61 – (-6)) = 7× 67 = 469
Q. 67 The given table represents the revenue (in ₹ crores) of a company from the sale of four products A, B, C and D in 6 years. Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows.
By what percentage is the total revenue of the company from the sale of products A, B and D in 2012 and 2013 more than the total revenue from the sale of product B in 2013 to 2016? (Correct to one decimal place)
A. 44.5
B. 31.2
C. 43.6
D. 45.4
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Total revenue of the company from the sale of products A, B. and D. in 2012 and 2013 = 98 + 74 + 74 + 94 + 96 + 102 = 538 Total revenue from the sale of product B. in 2013 to 2016 = 96 + 92 + 84 + 98 = 370
Required percentage =(538−370)/370 × 100 = 45.4%
Q. 68 A and B, working together, can complete a work in d days. Working alone, A takes (8 + d) days and B. takes (18 + d) days to complete the same work. A work for 4 days. The remaining work will be completed by B alone, in:
A. 24 days
B. 16 days
C. 18 days
D. 20 days
Answer: A.
Explanation:
To find the time when A and B,
working together = √(moredaystakenbyA × moredaystakenbyB )
d = 12
Time taken by A to complete the work = (8 + d) = 8 + 12 = 20
Time taken by B to complete the work = (18 + d) = 18 + 12 = 30 Let the total work be 60.
(LCM of 20 and 30 is 60.)
Efficiency of A = 60/20 = 3
Efficiency of B = 60/30 = 2
Work done by A in 4 days = efficiency 3× 4 = 12days
Remaining work = 60 – 12 = 48
Time taken by B to complete the remaining work = 48/2 = 24 days
The remaining work will be completed by B alone, in 24 days.
Q. 69 Two chords AB and CD of a circle are produced to intersect each other at a point P outside the circle. If AB = 7 cm, BP = 4.2 cm and PD = 2.8 cm, then the length of CD is:
A. 12 cm
B. 14.6 cm
C. 15.8 cm
D. 14 cm
Answer: D.
Explanation:
AB = 7 cm, BP = 4.2 cm and PD = 2.8 cm
By the property,
PA×PB = PC× PD
(PA = AB + BP = 7 + 4.2 = 11.2 cm)
11.2 × 4.2 = PC × 2.8
PC = 16.8 cm
CD = PC – PD = 16.8 – 2.8 = 14 cm
Q. 70 The value of{tan2θ – sin2θ}{2 + tan2θ + cot2θ} is:
A. cosec6θ
B. cos4θ
C. sin6θ
D. sec4θ
Answer: C.
Explanation:
{tan2θ – sin2θ}{2 + tan2θ + cot2θ}
={tan2θ – sin2θ}{1 + tan2θ + 1 + cot2θ}
={tan2θ – sin2θ}{sec2θ + cosec2θ}
={tan2θ – sin2θ}{1/cos2θ +1/sin2θ}
={(tan2θ – sin2θ)(sin2θ cos2θ)}{cos2θ + sin2θ}
= (tan2θ – sin2θ)(sin2θcos2θ)
= sin4θ – sin4θ cos2θ
= sin4θ(1 – cos2θ) = sin4θ sin2θ = sin6θ
Q. 71 In ΔABC, D and E are the points on sides AC and BC, respectively, such that DE is parallel to AB. F is a point on CE such that DF ⊥ CE. If CE = 6 cm, and CF = 2.5 cm, then BC is equal to:
A. 14.4 cm
B. 15.6 cm
C. 14 cm
D. 12 cm
Answer: A.
Q. 72 The marked price of an article is ₹740. After two successive discounts of 15% and x %,it is sold for ₹566.10. What is the value of x ?
A. 12
B. 5
C. 10
D. 20
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Q. 73 The average weight of some students in a class was 58.4 kg. When 5 students having the average weight 62.8 kg joined the class, the average weight of all students in the class increased by 0.55 kg. The number of students initially in the class, were:
A. 30
B. 35
C. 25
D. 40
Answer: B.
Explanation:
The average weight of some students in a class = 58.4 kg
Let the total number of students be n.
Total weight of n students = 58.4n kg
The average weight of 5 students = 62.8 kg
Total weight of 5 students = 62.8 × 5 = 314 kg
The average weight of (n + 5) students = 58.4 + 0.55 = 58.95 kg
Total weight of (n + 5) students = 58.95(n + 5) kg
Total weight of n students + Total weight of 5 students = 58.95(n + 5)
58.4n + 314 = 58.95(n + 5)
58.4n + 314 = 58.95n + 294.75
0.55n = 19.25
n = 1925/55 = 35
∴ 35 students were initially in the class.
Q. 74 PRT is a tangent to a circle with centre O, at the point R on it. Diameter SQ of the circle is produced to meet the tangent at P and QRis joined. If ∠QRP = 280, then the measure of ∠SPR is:
A. 290
B. 340
C. 620
D. 320
Answer: B.
Explanation:
∠QRP = 280
∠ORP = 900 (radius to tangent through PT of contact)
∠QRO = ∠ORP – ∠QRP
∠QRO = 900 – 280 = 620
Now,
∠QRO = ∠OQR
(∵ OQ = OR(radius))
∠OQR = 620
∠RQP + ∠OQR = 1800
∠RQP = 1800 – 620 = 1180
In the ΔOPR,
∠SPR + ∠RQP + ∠QRP = 1800
∠SPR = 1800 – 1180 – 280 = 340
Q. 75 If P ={x4 – 8x}/{x3 – x2 – 2x}, Q ={x2 + 2x + 1}/{x2 – 4x – 5} and R ={2x2 + 4x + 8}{x – 5}, then (P×Q) ÷ R is equal to:
A. ½
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: A.
Explanation:
English Comprehension
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 76 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
A reward is a ______ which motivates a person to achieve excellence in his field.
A. memorial
B. collection
C. recognition
D. monument
Answer: C.
Q. 77 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given Idiom.
The bee’s knees
A. Observant
B. Extraordinary
C. Problematic
D. Foolish
Answer: B.
Q. 78 Select the correctly spelt word.
A. Embarasment
B. Encouragement
C. Comotion
D. Conscinteous
Answer: B.
Q. 79 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Obsolete
A. Rigid
B. Remote
C. Outdated
D. Recent
Answer: D.
Instructions
Select the word which means the same as the given group of words.
Q. 80 A. sudden rush of a large number of frightened people or animals.
A. Lunacy
B. Recluse
C. Stampede
D. Scapegoat
Answer: C.
Q. 81 One who loads and unloads ships.
A. Spinster
B. Stevedore
C. Rustic
D. Captain
Answer: B.
Instructions
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Comprehension:
Discipline is doing any work with rules and regulations. It is (1)______ misunderstood as a restriction to freedom but it makes our life organized. Discipline is a (2)______ for students
and people in different professions. A. disciplined person always (3)______ in each and every field of life. Disciplined people (4)______ a disciplined society and a powerful nation. Discipline should not be (5)______ upon the people, rather it should come from within.
Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option for blank number (1)
A. happily
B. usually
C. proudly
D. slowly
Answer: B.
Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option for blank number (2)
A. virtue
B. curse
C. dream
D. disadvantage
Answer: A.
Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option for blank number (3)
A. successful
B. success
C. succeeds
D. succeed
Answer: C.
Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option for blank number (4)
A. made
B. makes
C. had made
D. make
Answer: D.
Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option for blank number (5)
A. adorned
B. imposed
C. curbed
D. reposed
Answer: B.
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 87 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
A. They can then purchase them on subsidized rates with additional loan facilities.
B. It will import technologically advanced medical instruments and provide them to entrepreneurs.
C. The Indian Government has announced certain facilities in the budget session.
D. This will help in strengthening the economic condition of entrepreneurs.
A. CBAD.
B. CADB.
C. BDCA.
D. DCAB.
Answer: A.
Q. 88 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Acknowledgement
A. Confirmation
B. Elimination
C. Compensation
D. Confusion
Answer: A.
Q. 89 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
A. This is because of its aroma, flavour and variety in the market.
B. Thus, it leads to poor health and mental disorders among children.
C. Children as well as teenagers are tempted towards junk food.
D. It has no or negligible nutritional value and high content of sugar and salt.
A. BCDA.
B. CADB.
C. CDAB.
D. ACDB.
Answer: B.
Q. 90 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.
When I reached the cinema hall, the movie had already began.
A. already began
B. the movie had
C. the cinema hall
D. When I reached
Answer: A.
Q. 91 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
The government should take stringent steps against terrorists and foil their ______ designs.
A. conducive
B. benevolent
C. malicious
D. exemplary
Answer: C.
Q. 92 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
To throw a fit
A. Caution someone about fitness
B. Become unconscious
C. Faint and fall down
D. Express extreme anger
Answer: D.
Q. 93 Select the correctly spelt word.
A. Rehersal
B. Employeed
C. Seperable
D. Veterinary
Answer: D.
Q. 94 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Prodigal
A. Humble
B. Trivial
C. Arrogant
D. Extravagant
Answer: D.
Q. 95 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.
His elder sister taught him English.
A. He has been taught English by his elder sister.
B. He was taught English by his elder sister.
C. He is being taught English by his elder sister.
D. His elder sister is taught English by him.
Answer: B.
Q. 96 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.
The mathematical calculation of this problem is easy than a previous one.
A. easiest than the
B. No Improvement
C. easy than the
D. easier than the
Answer: D.
Q. 97 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.
Those who follow a healthy routine is likely enjoying good health.
A. is likely enjoying
B. good health
C. Those who follow
D. a healthy routine
Answer: A.
Q. 98 Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.
The teacher said to me, “You have not submitted the assignment.”
A. The teacher said to me that I have not submitted the assignment.
B. The teacher said me that I had not submitted the assignment.
C. The teacher told to me that I have not submitted that assignment.
D. The teacher told me that I had not submitted the assignment.
Answer: D.
Q. 99 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. No effort has been made by the Indian cricket team to cash off on its vibrant image in the World Cup.
A. to cash in on
B. for cash through in
C. to cash up on
D. for cashing off on
Answer: A.
Q. 100 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 1 Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
Answer: A.
Explanation: next figure,
∴ The correct answer is option A.
Q. 2 Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Select the odd word.
A. Righteousness
B. Virtue
C. Conduct
D. Probity
Answer: C.
Explanation: Except ‘conduct’ remaining all have the same meaning.
∴ The correct answer is option C.
Q. 3 How many triangles are present in the given figure?
A. 26
B. 28
C. 22
D. 30
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Number of triangles in ABFE = 10
Number of triangles in EFCD = 10
And 2 triangles are AFD and CEB
Total number of triangle = 10 + 10 + 2 = 22
∴ The correct answer is option C.
Q. 4 Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.
A. 200
B. 196
C. 199
D. 169
Answer: C.
Explanation:
(7)2 + 4 = 49 + 4 = 53
(11)2 + 6 = 121 + 6 = 127
(14)2 + 3 = 196 + 3 = 199
∴ The correct answer is option C.
Q. 5 In a certain code language, LARVAE is coded as 3-1-9-4-1-5. How will INSECT be coded as in that language?
A. 9-4-8-4-6-7
B. 3-4-8-2-6-8
C. 9-4-8-2-6-7
D. 9-5-10-5-3-2
Answer: D.
Explanation:
L(12) = 1 + 2 = 3
A(1) = 1
R(18) = 1 + 8 = 9
V(22) = 2 + 2 = 4
A(1) = 1
E(5)= 5
Similarly,
I(9)= 9
N(14) = 1 + 4 = 5
S(19) = 1 + 9 = 10
E(5) = 5
C(3)= 3
T(20) = 2 + 0 = 2
‘INSECT’ is coded as 9-5-10-5-3-2.
∴ The correct answer is option D.
Q. 6 Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. DAC, GWH,JSM, MOR, ?
A. QKV
B. PKW
C. QJW
D. PJV
Answer: B.
Explanation:
So, next letter cluster = PKW
∴ The correct answer is option B.
Q. 7 Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 17, 20, 15, 22, 13, ?
A. 2
B. 22
C. 4
D. 24
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The series follows as pattern,
17 + 3 = 20
20 – 5 = 15
15 + 7 = 22
22 – 9 = 13
13 + 11 = 24
∴ The correct answer is option D.
Q. 8 Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers in the given set. (109, 114, 139)
A. (419, 424, 439)
B. (268, 302, 237)
C. (579, 534, 549)
D. (313, 318, 343)
Answer: D.
Explanation:
In (109, 114, 139),
109 + 5 = 114
114 + 52 = 114 + 25 = 139
Similarly,
In (313, 318, 343),
313 + 5 = 318
318 + 52 = 318 + 25 = 343
∴ The correct answer is option D.
Q. 9 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
225 + 5 × 3 ÷ 5 − 7 = 133
A. −and×
B. +and÷
C. +and×
D. −and÷
Answer: B.
Explanation:
225 + 5 × 3 ÷ 5 − 7 = 133
From the option B,
225 ÷ 5 × 3 + 5 − 7 = 133
45 × 3 + 5 − 7 = 133
135 + 5 − 7 = 133
133 =133
∴ The correct answer is option B.
Q. 10 The given Venn diagram represents artists in a circus:
The triangle represents clowns, the circle represents acrobats, the rectangle represents males and the square represents ringmasters. The numbers given in the diagram represent the number of persons in that particular category.
How many male clowns are also ringmasters, but NOT acrobats?
A. 15
B. 5
C. 17
D. 11
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Number of male clowns which are ringmasters, but NOT acrobats = 17
∴ The correct answer is option C.
Q. 11 Arsh is Shivam’s father and Dhruvis the son of Bimla. Eshwar is the father ofArsh. If Shivam is the brother of Dhruv, how is Bimla related to Eshwar?
A. Wife
B. Daughter-in-law
C. Mother
D. Sister-in-law
Answer: B.
Explanation:
In the diagram, the square and circle shows the male and females respectively. Vertical lines show the son/father, horizontal line sow the brother/sister and double horizontal lines show the couple.
From the diagram,
Bimla is daughter-in-law of Eshwar.
Q. 12 Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words. Hive : Bee
A. Burrow : Hare
B. Sty : Dog
C. Eyrie : Bear
D. Stable : Cow
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Bee lives in hive similarly,
Hare lives in burrow.
∴ The correct answer is option A.
Q. 13 Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs, to balance the following equation.
(12 * 7 * 6) * 13 * 6
A. ×, −, ÷, =
B. ÷, −, =, ×
C. −, ÷, ×, =
D. ×, =, ÷, −
Answer: A.
Explanation:
(12 * 7 * 6) * 13 * 6
From the option A,
(12×7− 6)÷ 13 = 6
78÷ 13 = 6
6 = 6
∴ The correct answer is option A.
Q. 14 In a certain code language, STRAIGHT is written as TSARGITH. How will THURSDAY be written as in that language?
A. UHTDRSYA
B. HTRUDSYA
C. HTRUDSAY
D. AYSDURTH
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Similarly,
∴ The correct answer is option B.
Q. 15 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The following answer figure contains question figure,
∴ The correct answer is option D.
Q. 16 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements:
1. Some cars are rockets.
2. All rockets are engines.
Conclusions:
I. Some engines are rockets.
II. Some engines are cars.
A. Neither conclusion I norII follows.
B. Only conclusion II follows.
C. Only conclusion I follows.
D. Both conclusions I and II follow.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
From the Venn diagram,
Both conclusions I and II follow.
∴ The correct answer is option D.
Q. 17 Arrange the following words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary.
1. Gemlike
2. Geminate
3. Gemmier
4. Geminal
5. Gemini
A. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
B. 3, 5, 4, 1, 2
C. 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
D. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Word according to English dictionary,
Geminal, Geminate, Gemini, Gemlike, Gemmier
∴ The correct answer is option D.
Q. 18 Which of the option figures is the exact mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held at the right side?
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Mirror image =
∴ The correct answer is option A.
Q. 19 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.
Jackal : Howl:: Rain : ?
A. Hustle
B. Thunder
C. Patter
D. Drops
Answer: C.
Explanation:
As howl is related to the jackal similarly, patter is related to the rain.
∴ The correct answer is option C.
Q. 20 Select the set of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given letter series will complete the series.
_swws_wwws_swwww_sss
A. w, s, w, s
B. w, s, s, s
C. w, w, s, s
D. w, s, s, w
Answer: B.
Explanation:
w/s/ww/ss/www/sss/wwww/ssss
∴ The correct answer is option B.
Q. 21 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster.
A. YXW
B. FGH
C. NML
D. TSR
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Except ‘FGH’ remaining all letter-clusters are in decreasing order.
∴ The correct answer is option B.
Q. 22 Select the box that CANNOT be formed by folding the given unfolded box.
Answer: B.
Explanation:
From the unfolded box,
Opposite side of a = c
Opposite side of f = d
Opposite side of b = e
∴ The correct answer is option B.
Q. 23 A recent survey of married couples in Indian metro cities showed that 20% of the couples have only one child, 45% of the remaining couples have two children, and the rest of the couples have three or more children. What is the percentage of couples with three or more children?
A. 56%
B. 44%
C. 42%
D. 35%
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Let the total couple be 100.
Couple with one child = 20
Remaining couples = 100 – 20 = 80
Couple with two child = 45% of the remaining = (80×45) /100 = 36
Couples with three or more children = 80 – 36 = 44%
Q. 24 The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded?
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Look of the paper when unfolded –
∴ The correct answer is option B.
Q. 25 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the sixth number is related to the fifth number.
52 : 221 :: 20 : ? :: 64 : 272
A. 85
B. 84
C. 255
D. 170
Answer: A.
Explanation:
52×4 + 52/4 = 208 + 13 = 221
64 ×4 + 64/4= 256 + 16 = 272
Similarly,
20×4 + 20/4 = 80 + 5 = 85
∴ The correct answer is option A.
General Awareness
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 26 The ________ lake in Gujarat was an artificial reservoir built during the rule of the Mauryas.
A. Pushkar
B. Sudarshana
C. Loktak
D. Lonar
Answer: B.
Q. 27 _________ was the capital of Magadha before the 4th century BCE.
A. Varanasi
B. Mathura
C. Rajagaha
D. Pataliputra
Answer: C.
Q. 28 Which of the following is NOT a folk dance belonging to the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
A. Hafiza
B. Dhumal
C. Dangi
D. Rouf
Answer: C.
Q. 29 Lt. General _______ took charge as the Chief of Army Staff on 31 December 2019.
A. Bipin Rawat
B. Manoj Mukund Naravane
C. Ravendra Pal Singh
D. Anil Chauhan
Answer: B.
Q. 30 The Harshacharita is a biography of Harshavardhana, the ruler of Kannauj, composed in Sanskrit by his court poet, _______.
A. Jinsena
B. Dandin
C. Kamban
D. Banabhatta
Answer: D.
Q. 31 In biological terms, _______ is a relationship between two organisms in which one organism benefits and the other is unaffected.
A. Amensalism
B. Commensalism
C. Parasitism
D. Mutualism
Answer: B.
Q. 32 The 14th Dalai Lama resides in _______.
A. Shillong
B. Kalimpong
C. Dharamsala
D. Gangtok
Answer: C.
Q. 33 According to the United Nations’ World Economic Situation and Prospects Report, 2019, the Indian economy is expected to expand by _____ in 2020.
A. 7.1%
B. 7.6%
C. 7.8%
D. 7.2%
Answer: A.
Q. 34 In the 4th century BCE, the capital of Magadha was shifted to ________.
A. Panipat
B. Varanasi
C. Mathura
D. Pataliputra
Answer: D.
Q. 35 Article 17 of the Constitution of India deals with the abolition of ________.
A. untouchability
B. slavery
C. titles
D. sati
Answer: A.
Q. 36 In April 2019, scientists in ________ produced the world’s first 3D. printed heart using human tissue.
A. Croatia
B. Kenya
C. Ethiopia
D. Israel
Answer: D.
Q. 37 The Vedic Civilization in India flourished along the river__________.
A. Tapi
B. Narmada
C. Saraswati
D. Godavari
Answer: C.
Q. 38 _______ expansion makes the Eiffel Tower taller during summers.
A. Thermal
B. Chemical
C. Gravitational
D. Gradient
Answer: A.
Q. 39 King Harshavardhana ascended the throne of Thaneshwar and Kannauj on the death of his brother, ________.
A. Rajyavardhana
B. Suryavardhana
C. Indravardhana
D. Chandravardhana
Answer: A.
Q. 40 Who was the President of the World Bank Group as of January, 2020?
A. Paul Wolfowitz
B. David Malpass
C. Robert Zoellick
D. Jim Yong Kim
Answer: B.
Q. 41 Who among the following is an Indian Olympic archer and Padma Shri winner?
A. Bajrang Punia
B. Balbir Singh Dosanjh
C. Limba Ram
D. Kidambi Srikanth
Answer: C.
Q. 42 In May 2019, the International Monetary Fund agreed to bail out ________ with a fund of $6 billion.
A. India
B. Bangladesh
C. Nepal
D. Pakistan
Answer: D.
Q. 43 Planetary scientists call the thin gaseous envelope around the Moon as the _______.
A. lunar exosphere
B. lunar thermosphere
C. lunar stratosphere
D. lunar endosphere
Answer: A.
Q. 44 The major component of modern Olympic gold medals is ________.
A. Gold
B. Silver
C. Copper
D. Bronze
Answer: B.
Q. 45 The Gol Gumbad (Gumbaz) of ________ is the mausoleum of Muhammad Adil Shah.
A. Bijapur
B. Allahabad
C. Delhi
D. Agra
Answer: A.
Q. 46 Private ownership of the means of production is a feature of a _______ economy.
A. dual
B. mixed
C. socialist
D. capitalist
Answer: D.
Q. 47 Xerophthalmia is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin ________.
A. D
B. C
C. A
D. K
Answer: C.
Q. 48 The Biraja Temple, the Rajarani Temple and the Samaleswari Temple are all located in ________.
A. Kerala
B. Assam
C. Odisha
D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: C.
Q. 49 Which Article of the Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex and place of birth?
A. Article 19
B. Article 23
C. Article 25
D. Article 15
Answer: D.
Q. 50 Asia’s largest wholesale spice market is located in _______.
A. Bengaluru
B. Ahmedabad
C. Kolkata
D. Delhi
Answer: D.
Quantitative Aptitude
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 51 In △ABC, ∠A = 90∘, M is the midpoint of BC and D is a point on BC such that AD ⊥ BC. If AB = 7 cm and AC = 24cm, then AD : AM is equal to:
A. 32 : 43
B. 24 : 25
C. 336 : 625
D. 168 : 275
Answer: C.
Explanation:
By triplet 7-24-25,
BC = 25 cm
M is the midpoint of BC so,
BM = BC /2
BM = 25/2 = 12.5 cm
By property,
AM = BM = 12.5 cm
AD ⊥ BC so,
BC × AD = AC × AB
25 ×AD = 7 × 24
AD = 168/25 = 6.72
AD : AM = 6.72 : 12.5 = 336 : 625
Q. 52 On simplification, is equal to:
A. 4
B. 1
C. ½
D. ¼
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Q. 53 If 5x + 1/3x = 4, then what is the value of 9x2 + 1/25x2?
A. 174/125
B. 119/25
C. 144/125
D. 114/25
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Q. 54 The given table represents the number of computers sold by four dealers A, B, C and D during the first six months of 2016. Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows.
The total number of computers sold by dealer A. during February to June is what percentage more than the total number of computers sold by all the dealers in June? (Correct to one decimal place)
A. 25.3
B. 21.2
C. 24.4
D. 17.5
Answer: B.
Explanation:
The total number of computers sold by dealer A. during February to June = 94 + 85 + 108 + 98 + 95 = 480 Total number of computers sold by all the dealers in June = 95 + 108 + 102 + 91 = 396
Q. 55 The average of twelve numbers is 45.5. The average of the first four numbers is 41.5 and that of the next five numbers is 48. The 10th number is 4 more than the 11th number and 9 more than the 12th number. What is the average of the 10th and 11th numbers?
A. 47
B. 47.8
C. 46
D. 46.6
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The average of 12 numbers = 45.5
Sum of 12 numbers = average × numbers = 45.5 × 12= 546
The average of the first four numbers = 41.5
Sum of first four numbers = 41.5×4 = 166
The average of next five numbers = 48
Sum of next five numbers = 48×5 = 240
Sum of the first 9 numbers = sum of first four numbers + sum of next five numbers = 166 + 240 = 406 10th number = 4 + 11th number —(1)
10th number = 9 + 12th number —(2)
Sum of the first 9 numbers +10th number + 11th number + 12th number = 546 406 + 10th number + 10th number – 4 + 10th number – 9 = 546
3×10th number = 546 – 406 + 4 + 9
3×10th number = 153
10th number = 51
From eq(1),
11th number = 10th number – 4 = 51 – 4 = 47
12th number = 10th number – 9 = 51 – 9 = 42
The average of the 10th and 12th numbers ={51 + 47 + 42}/{3} = 140/3 = 46.6
Q. 56 The value of (tan 300 cosec 600 +tan 600 sec 300) / (sin2 300 +4 cot2 450 −sec2 600) is:
A. 2/3
B. 32/99
C. 8/3
D. 32/3
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Q. 57 Sonu saves 15% of her income. If her income increases by 20% and she still saves the same amount as before, then what is the percentage increase in her expenditure? (correct to one decimal place)
A. 23.5
B. 22.8
C. 23.8
D. 242
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Let the initial income of Sonu be Rs.100.
saving = 15%
Expenditure = 100 – 15 = 85%
Saving = 100 -85 = Rs.15
Expenditure = 85% of 100 = Rs.85
Income after increment = 100 ×120/100= Rs.120
Saving = 15
Expenditure = 120 – 15 = 105
Increment in expenditure = 105 – 85 = Rs.20
Percentage Increment in expenditure =20/85×100 = 23.52%
Q. 58 When 732 is divided by a positive integer x, the remainder is 12. How many values of x are there?
A. 19
B. 18
C. 20
D. 16
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Number which fully divide by a positive integer x = number – remainder = 732 -12 = 720
We combine these factors which are more than 12 and maximum 720 because the remainder is 12. Combination lees than 13 = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12
Number of combination lees than 13 = 10
Number of values of x = 30 – 10 = 20
Q. 59 The circumference of the base of a conical tent is 66 m.If the height of the tent is 36 m, what is the area (in m2 ) of the canvas used in making the tent?(Take π = 22/7 )
A. 1237.5
B. 1171.5
C. 1254
D. 1155
Answer: A.
Explanation:
The circumference of the base of a conical tent = 66 m
2πr = 66
r =(66×7)/(2×22) = 21/2 m
h = 36 m
l =√(r2+h2)
l =√((21/2)2+362) = √(441/4+1296) = 75/2=37.5
Area of canvas = πrl= 22/7×21/2×37.5=1237.5 sqm
Q. 60 If a + b + c = 11, ab + bc + ca = 3 and abc = —135, then what is the value of a3 + b3 + c3?
A. 827
B. 929
C. 823
D. 925
Answer: A.
Explanation:
a3 + b3 + c3
=> (a + b + c)[(a + b + c)2 − 3(ab + bc + ac)] + 3abc
=> (11)[(11)2 − 3(3)] + 3 × (−135)
=>(11)[112] − 405
=> 1132 – 405 = 827
Q. 61 In △ABC, AB = AC. A circle drawn through B touches AC at D and intersect AB at P. If D is the mid point of AC and AP 2.5 cm, then AB is equal to:
A. 9 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 7.5 cm
D. 12.5 cm
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Given D is midpoint of AC so,
AD= AC/2
But also given AC = AB
AD= AB/2 = —-(1)
AD is a tangent and APB is a secant. So the tangent secant theorem can be applied, AD2 = AP × AB
(AB/2 )2 = 2.5 × AB
AB2/4 = 2.5 × AB
AB = 10 cm
Q. 62 If 5 sin2θ + 14 cos θ = 13,0∘ < θ < 90∘, then what is the value of (sec θ+cot θ)/(cosec θ+tan θ)?
A. 40/29
B. 32/27
C. 21/28
D. 9/8
Answer : A.
Explanation:
5 sin2 θ +14 cos θ = 13
5 (1-cos2 θ) +14 cos θ = 13
−5cos2θ + 14 cos θ = 8
5cos2θ − 10 cos θ − 4 cos θ + 8 = 0
5cosθ(cos θ − 2) − 4 (cos θ − 2) = 0
(5cosθ − 4)(cos θ − 2) = 0
(cos θ − 2) (it is not possible)
For 0∘ < θ < 90∘
(5cosθ − 4) = 0
cosθ = ⅘
by triplet 3-4-5,
sin θ = ⅗
Now
Q. 63 The value of is:
A. 8 ½
B. 24
C. 25 ½
D. 26
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Q. 64 If 2x + 1, x + 2, 2 and 5 are in proportion, then what is the mean proportional between 3.5(1 – x) and 8(1 + x)?
A. 5.5
B. 5.25
C. 4.25
D. 4.5
Answer: B.
Explanation:
2x + 1, x + 2, 2 and 5 are in proportion. So,
(2x+1)/(x+2) =2/5
(2x + 1) ×5 = (x + 2) × 2
10x + 5 = 2x + 4
8x = -1
x = -1/8
Mean proportional between 3.5(1 – x) and 8(1 + x)
Numbers = 3.5(1 + 1/8) and 8(1 -1/8) = 31.5/8 and 7
Mean proportional =√(31.5/8 × 7) =√27.5625 = 5.25
Q. 65 ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral in which AB = 16.5 cm, BC = x cm, CD = 11 cm, AD = 19.8 cm, and BD is bisected by AC at O. What is the value of x ?
A. 12.8 cm
B. 12.4 cm
C. 13.2 cm
D. 13.8 cm
Answer: C.
Explanation:
ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral in which AB = 16.5 cm
BC = x cm
CD = 11 cm
AD = 19.8 cm
By the property,
AB⋅BC = AD⋅DC
16.5 × x = 19.8 × 11
16.5 × x = 217.8
x = 217.8/16.5 = 13.2 cm
Q. 66 In △ABC, ∠B = 68∘ and ∠C = 32∘. Sides AB and AC are produced to points D and E, respectively. The bisectors of ∠DBC and ∠BCE meet at F. What is the measure of ∠BFC?
A. 39∘
B. 65∘
C. 55∘
D. 50∘
Answer: D.
Explanation:
From the angle bisector property,
∠BFC = 90° − ∠A/2
In △ABC ,
∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180°
∠A = 180° − 32° − 68° = 80°
∠BFC = 90° − 80°/2
∠BFC = 50°
Q. 67 A trader allows a discount of 18% on the marked price of an article. How much percentage above the cost price must he mark it so as to get a profit of 6.6%?
A. 30
B. 24
C. 28
D. 25
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Let the cost price be Rs.100.
Profit = 6.6% = 6.6
Selling price = 100 + 6.6 = Rs.106.6
Discount = 18%
Let the marked price be 100%
Selling price = 100 – 18 = 82%
106.6 = 82%
100%(marked price) =106.6/82 × 100 = 130
Percentage above the cost price must he mark =(130−100)/100 ×100 = 30%
Q. 68 The given table represents the number of computers sold by four dealers A, B, C and D during the first six months of 2016. Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows.
The total number of computers sold by dealer B. in April, May and June is what percentage of the total number of computers sold by all the dealers in February and April?
A. 48 5/7
B. 43 6/7
C. 38 3/8
D. 50 7/8
Answer: C.
Explanation:
The total number of computers sold by dealer B. in April, May and June = 97 + 102 + 108 = 307
The total number of computers sold by all the dealers in February and April = 94 + 96 + 104 + 106 + 108 + 97 + 99 + 96 = 800
Required percentage =307/800×100=38 3/8%
Q. 69 A boat can go 3 km upstream and 5 km downstream in 55 minutes. It can also go 4 km upstream and 9 km downstream in 1 hour 25 minutes. In how much time(in hours) will it go 43.2 km downstream?
A. 3.6
B. 4.4
C. 5.4
D. 4.8
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Let the speed of stream be u and speed of boat be v.
Speed in upstream = v – u
Speed in downstream = v + u
A boat can go 3 km upstream and 5 km downstream in 55 minutes so,
3/(v−u) + 5/(v+u) =1+ 25/60
Boat can go 4 km upstream and 9 km downstream in 1 hour 25 minutes
4/(v−u) + 9/(v+u) =55/60
4/(v−u) + 9/(v+u) =85/60
1/(v−u) = x
1/(v+u) = y
3x + 5y = 11/12 ………….(1)
4x + 9y = 17/12 …………(2)
eq(1) multiply by 4 and eq(2) multiply by 3,
12x + 20y = 44/12 ………….(3)
12x + 27y = 51/12 …………(4)
From eq (3) and (4),
7y =7/12
y=1/12
From eq(1),
3x + 5(1/12) = 11/12
3x = 6/12
x = ⅙
1/(v−u) = ⅙
v-u = 6 ………….(5)
1/(v+u) = 1/12
v+u = 12 ………….(6)
Speed in downstream = u + v = 12 km/hr
Time taken by boat = 43.6/12 = 3.63 hr
Q. 70 What is the compound interest on a sum of ₹12,000 for 2⅝ years at 8% p.a., when the interest is compounded annually? (nearest to a rupee)
A. ₹2,642
B. ₹2,697
C. ₹2,712
D. ₹2,654
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Time =2⅝ years = 2 + ⅝years
We find the interest for the first 5/8 year by simple interest
Simple interest =prt /100
p = 12000
r = 8%
Simple interest =(12000×8×⅝ )/100 = 600
Now,
p = 12000 + 600 = 12600
Compound interest = p(1 + r/100)t − p
= 12600 (1 + 8/100)2− 12600
=12600 × 108/100 ×108/100 – 12600
= 14696.64 – 12600 = 2096.64 ≈ Rs.2097
Total interest = 2097 + 600 = Rs.2697
Q. 71 If sec θ − tan θ = x/y (0 < x <y) and 0∘ < θ < 90∘, then sin θ is equal to:
A. (x2 +y2) / (y2 −x2)
B. (x2 +y2) / 2xy
C. (y2 −x2) / (x2 +y2)
D. 2xy / (x2 +y2)
Answer: C.
Explanation:
sec θ − tan θ = x/y —(1)
1/(sec θ − tan θ) = y/x
sec2θ − tan2θ/(sec θ − tan θ) = y/x
(sec θ − tan θ)(sec θ + tan θ)/(sec θ − tan θ) = y/x
(sec θ + tan θ) = y/x —(2)
From eq(1) and (2),
(sec θ – tan θ)+(sec θ + tan θ) = x/y + y/x
2 sec θ = (x2+y2)/ xy
sec θ = x2+y2 / 2xy
cos θ = 2xy / x2+y2
Base = 2xy
Hypotenuses = {x2 + y2}
By Pythagoras,
(p)2 + (2xy)2 = (x2 + y2 )2
(p)2 = x4 + y4 + 2x2y2 – 4x2y2
(p)2 = x4 + y4 – 2x2y2
(p)2 = (x2 – y2)2
p = x2 – y2 = y2– x2
sin θ = p/h =(y2– x2)/(x2 + y2)
Q. 72 A person buys 5 tables and 9 chairs for ₹15,400. Hesells the tables at 10% profit and chairs at 20% profit. If his total profit on selling all the tables and chairs is ₹2,080, what is the cost price of 3 chairs?
A. ₹1,800
B. ₹1,740
C. ₹1,860
D. ₹1,890
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Let the price of 9 chairs be x.
Price of 5 tables = 15400 – x
He sells the tables at 10% profit and chairs at 20% profit.
Total profit = 2080
(15400 – x) (10/100) + x(20/100) = 2080
15400 – x + 2x = 20800
x = 5400
Price of 9 chairs = 5400
Price of 3 chairs = 5400/3 = Rs.1800
Instructions
The given table represents the number of computers sold by four dealers A, B, C and D during the first six months of 2016. Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows.
Q. 73 The number of months, in which the number of computers sold by dealer B. was less than the average number of computers sold by dealer C. over six months, was:
A. 4
B. 3
C. 5
D. 2
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Average number of computers sold by dealer C over six months = total number of computer/6 =(95+104+100+99+100+102)/6 = 600/6 =100
The number of months, in which the number of computers sold by dealer B was less than the average number of computers sold by dealer C over six months, was 4(January, feb, march, April)
Q. 74 What is the ratio of the total number of computers sold by dealer A. in February, April and May to the total number of computers sold by dealer D. in March, May and June?
A. 10 : 9
B. 6 : 5
C. 15 : 13
D. 20 : 27
Answer: A.
Explanation:
The total number of computers sold by dealer A. in February, April and May = 94 + 108 + 98 = 300
The total number of computers sold by dealer D. in March, May and June = 90 + 89 + 91 = 270
Ratio of the total number of computers sold by dealer A. in February, April and May to the total number of computers sold by dealer D. in March, May and June = 300 : 270
= 10 : 9
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 75 A can complete a certain work in 30 days. B. is 25% more efficient than A and C is 20% more efficient than B They all worked together for 3 days. B alone will complete the remaining work in:
A. 18 days
B. 12 days
C. 20 days
D. 15 days
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Let the efficiency of A. be x.
Efficiency of B. = 25% more efficient than A = 1.25x
Efficiency of C = 20% more efficient than B = 1.25x × 120/100= 1.5x
Efficiency ratio of A, B and C = x: 1.25x : 1.5x = 4 : 5 : 6
Total work = efficiency×time = 4×30 = 120 units
3 days work = (4 + 5 + 6)×3 =15× 3 = 45 units
Remaining work = 120 – 45 = 75 units
Time taken to complete work by B. = 75/5 = 15 days
English Comprehension
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 76 Select the correct active form of the given sentence.
This beautiful story was written by Maya.
A. Maya was writing this beautiful story.
B. Maya writes this beautiful story.
C. Maya is writing this beautiful story.
D. Maya wrote this beautiful story.
Answer: D.
Q. 77 Select the wrongly spelt word.
A. Compromise
B. Consumation
C. Competence
D. Chronology
Answer: B.
Q. 78 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Back to square one
A. Draw a square
B. Neglect something
C. Move ahead
D. Come to the original point
Answer: D.
Q. 79 Select the wrongly spelt word.
A. Turmoil
B. Tresure
C. Truthful
D. Tamarind
Answer: B.
Q. 80 Select the antonym of the given word.
LIBERTY
A. Independence
B. Deliverance
C. Convenience
D. Dependence
Answer: D.
Q. 81 Select the most appropriate word to substitute the underlined word of the given sentence. If substitution is not required select ‘No improvement’.
To fight on the battlefield for the sake of one’s country needs a great strongness.
A. the greatest strongness
B. a lots of strength
C. No improvement
D. great courage
Answer: D.
Instructions
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Comprehension:
‘A stitch in time saves nine’. This wise saying suggests that an (1)______ action taken on time to rectify an error rules (2)______ the possibility of accumulation of such errors and future (3)______ . Wisdom therefore lies in correcting the error as soon as it is (4)______. There is no point-in allowing the (5)______ to grow and then take hasty actions to set things right.
Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 1
A. superficial
B. wrong
C. appropriate
D. opposite
Answer: C.
Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 2
A. in
B. at
C. out
D. for
Answer: C.
Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 3
A. qualities
B. facilities
C. damages
D. advantages
Answer: C.
Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 4
A. discovered
B. managed
C. proposed
D. invented
Answer: A.
Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 5
A. parody
B. remedy
C. malady
D. melody
Answer: C.
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 87 Select one word for the following group of words.
Open refusal to obey orders
A. Defiance
B. Compliance
C. Obedience
D. Adherence
Answer: A.
Q. 88 Select the synonym of the given word.
PREVENT
A. Construct
B. Provoke
C. Allow
D. Avert
Answer: D.
Q. 89 Select one word for the following group of words.
Morals that govern one’s behavior
A. Intuition
B. Attitude
C. Psychology
D. Ethics
Answer: D.
Q. 90 Select the antonym of the given word.
BROAD
A. Long
B. Narrow
C. Wide
D. Large
Answer: B.
Instructions
Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.
Q. 91
A. Eventually, she overcame adversities and achieved success.
B. She engaged herself in ‘earn while you learn’, finance scheme in her college.
C. She needed financial support to complete her graduation.
D. Rama was a very poor girl.
A. ADCB
B. ABCD
C. DCBA
D. CBDA
Answer: C.
Q. 92
A. “We are going to the market,” declared Reetu and Geetu.
B. “Where are you going?” the father asked.
C. “Take your umbrella, it is going to rain,” the mother said.
D. “Yes, definitely. We will,” replied the two.
A. ABDC.
B. DCAB.
C. BCDA.
D. BACD.
Answer: D.
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 93 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. The boy which stole the money was caught by the police.
A. was caught
B. stole the money
C. by the police
D. The boy which
Answer: D.
Q. 94 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Dead heat
A. A. strong heat wave
B. Strong opposition to one’s ideas
C. A deadly blast of hot air
D. Close contest that ends in a tie
Answer: D.
Q. 95 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error.
Saraswati college has maintained its reputation as one of the best colleges in the country.
A. Saraswati college has maintained
B. one of the best college
C. in the country
D. its reputation as
Answer: B.
Q. 96 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
She ______ on paying the bill at the restaurant.
A. offered
B. suggested
C. insisted
D. requested
Answer: C.
Q. 97 Select the most appropriate segment to substitute the underlined segment of the given sentence. If substitution is not required select ‘no improvement’.
The animal resembled with a cat.
A. No improvement
B. resembled by
C. resembled
D. resembled to
Answer: C.
Q. 98 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
The groom stood before the ______ for the wedding ceremony at the church.
A. alter
B. atlas
C. altar
D. attic
Answer: C.
Q. 99 Select the correct direct form of the given sentence.
The teacher commanded the students not to shout.
A. The teacher said to the student, “You should not shout.”
B. The teacher told to the students, “You must not shout.”
C. The teacher said to the students, “Don’t shout.”
D. The teacher says to the students, “Do not shout.”
Answer: C
Q. 100 Select the synonym of the given word.
REVERE
A. Repeat
B. Respect
C. Condemn
D. Enjoy
Answer: B.
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