CA CPT December 2013
Session – I
Part A – Fundamentals of Accounting
Q. 1 If nothing is given in the financial statements about the three accounting assumptions then it is to be treated as it
A. Is assumed that it is not followed
B. Is assumed to be followed
C. Is assumed to be followed to some extent
D. None of the above
Q. 2 The proprietor of the business is treated as creditor for the capital introduced by him due to concept.
A. Money measurement
B. Cost
C. Entity
D. Dual aspect
Q. 3 Accounting has universal application in Recording _____and events for have adequate information:
A. Transaction
B. Accounting standards
C. Accounting policies
D. Accounting conventions
Q. 4 An Asset purchased for Rs.60,000 and paid Rs.10,000 and remaining amount is payable in installments. This effect leads to ______
A. Both assets & Liabilities increased by Rs.50,000
B. Both assets & Liabilities Decreased by Rs.50,000
C. Assets Increased by Rs.10,000 & Liabilities Decreased by Rs.10,000
D. Assets Increased by Rs.50,000 & Liabilities Decreased by Rs.50,000
Q. 5 Renewal fee of patents is a ____ expenditure.
A. Capital
B. Revenue
C. Deffered revenue
D. Development
Q. 6 A Bill is Discounted Rs.10,000. Where is it shown at the time of preparation of balance sheet?
A. Liability side of balance sheet
B. Assets side of balance sheet
C. Foot note to Balance sheet
D. Debit side of profit & loss A/c
Q. 7 Expenditure spend for Increasing the cinema hall seats is called_____
A. Capital expenditure
B. Revenue expenditure
C. Deferred revenue expenditure
D. None of the above
Q. 8 Which accounting concept specifies the practice of crediting closing stock to the trading account?
A. Cost
B. Realisation
C. Going concern
D. Matching
Q. 9 Goods purchased costing Rs.60,000 and cash paid Rs.45,000 after receipt of a cash discount Rs.9,000. What is the percentage of trade discount got___
A. 15%
B. 10%
C. 7 1/2 %
D. 25%
Q. 10 _____ is prepared to ascertain the arithmetical accuracy of posting & balancing of accounts.
A. Cash book
B. Journal
C. Trial Balance
D. Bank Reconciliation statement
Q. 11 Consistency with reference to application of accounting procedures means:
A. All companies in the same Industry should use identical accounting procedures
B. Income & assets have not been overstated
C. Accounting methods & procedures shall be followed uniform basis year after year
D. Any accounting method can be followed as per convenience
Q. 12 Salaries paid Rs.4,500 is shown on credit side of Trail Balance. The Debit side of Trial Balance will be ______
A. Short by Rs.4,500
B. Excess by Rs.4,500
C. Short by Rs.9,000
D. Excess by Rs.9,000
Q. 13 Wages paid Rs.2,500 for Installation of new machinery wrongly debited to wages A/c instead of machinery A/c. It is an error of ____
A. Omission
B. Commission
C. Principle
D. Clerical errors
Q. 14 Petty cash book is used to record ____
A. Expenses for postage and conveyance
B. Purchase of Raw material
C. Paid salaries
D. None of the above
Q. 15 Rectification of errors are first entered in:
A. Journal proper
B. Subsidiary books
C. Trial balance
D. Ledger
Q. 16 Which Accounts are used to prepare Bank Reconciliation statement?
A. Cash column & Bank statement
B. Bank column & Bank Statement
C. Cash column & Bank Balance
D. None of the above
Q. 17 On 31-03-13 balance of Cash book is Rs.7,074 (Credit), balance as per bank statement is Rs.3,159 (Debit). On scrutiny it was found that, it was due to cheques issued but not yet presented. Bank balance on 31-03-13 to be shown in Balance sheet is _____
A. Bank O.D. Rs.3,159
B. Cash at Bank Rs.7,074
C. Bank O.D. Rs.7,074
D. Cash at Bank Rs.3,159
Q. 18 The credit balance as per pass book of ‘X’ was Rs.65,000. Cheques issued but not paid Rs.75,800. Cheques deposited by one of the customers of bank but wrongly credited in ‘X’ A/c Rs.20,600. The balance as per cash book is _____
A. Rs.31.400 Debit
B. Rs.31,400 Overdraft
C. Rs.1,20,000 Debit
D. Rs. 10,400 Overdraft
Q. 19 The opening stock is overstated by Rs.10,000 and closing stock is understated by Rs.15,000. The impact on the net profit of the current year is
A. Rs.5,000 overstated
B. Rs.25,000 overstated
C. Rs. 5,000 understated
D. Rs.25,000 understated
Q. 20 Net realizable value is _______
A. Estimated selling price
B. Estimated cost price plus marketing cost
C. Estimated selling price less cost incurred in order to make sale
D. Estimated selling price plus cost incurred in order to make sale
Q. 21 The value of inventory as on Apr.04 is Rs.1,60,000. The following transactions takes place during Apl.01 to Apl.04. The value of stock sold is Rs.40,000. The mode of sale is as follows:-
i) The damaged goods are sold for Rs.15,000, Sold at 25% below cost. ii) The remaining goods are sold at cost plus 25%. The value of stock as on 31st March is (Damaged goods valued at NRV) ______
A. Rs.2,00,000
B. Rs.1,95,000
C. Rs.2,05,000
D. None of the above
Q. 22 Where a machine produces products of uniform size, the method of depreciation to be applied ______
A. Machine Hour method
B. Annuity method
C. Sinking fund method
D. Production units
Q. 23 Which of the following is the meaning for the entry recorded in the machinery A/c?
| Dr | Machinery A/c Cr | ||||
| Date | Particulars | Rs. | Date | Particulars | Rs. |
| 31-3-13 | By P & L A/c | 5000 | |||
A. Portion of sale of machinery transferred to Profit & Loss A/c
B. Machinery of Rs.5,000 sold
C. Machinery of Rs.5,000 purchased
D. Loss on sale of machinery transferred to P &L A/C
Q. 24 Provision for depreciation A/c is created by debiting to
A. Machinery A/c
B. Profit & Loss A/c
C. Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c
D. None of these
Q. 25 If depreciation is charged at a fixed rate, then depreciation in SLM method, when compared to WDV is
A. Equal in the first year & Less in subsequent years
B. Less in the first year & More in subsequent years
C. Equal in the first year & More in subsequent years
D. More in the first year & Less in subsequent years
Q. 26 For a depreciable asset, obsolescence is due to
A. Passage of time
B. Wear & Tear
C. Technological Changes
D. None of the above
Q. 27 ______ method is used when repairs and Maintenance goes on increase.
A. SLM method
B. WDV method
C. Machine hours method
D. Production units method
Q. 28 Fixed assets are held by business for _____
A. Converting into cash
B. Generating revenue
C. Resale
D. None of the above
Q. 29 Change in the capital A/c of proprietor may occur due to ______
A. Profit earned
B. Loss incurred
C. Capital Introduced
D. All of the above
Q. 30 The manager earned a commission of Rs.25,000, which is based on 10% of Net Profit. If sales is Rs. 3,50,000 is more than purchases. No opening & closing stock. Find Direct & Indirect expenses?
A. Rs.75,000
B. Rs.1,00,000
C. Rs.2,50,000
D. Not attainable
Q. 31 Which of the following are current assets?
1) Accounts receivable
2) Salaries paid-in-advance
3) Bank Loan for 3 years
4) Preliminary expenses
A. 1 & 2
B. 2 & 3
C. 3 & 4
D. All of the above
Q. 32 On 31-3-13, prepaid expenses A/c (2012-13) shows a closing balance of Rs.5,000. It means:
A. Expenses transferred from previous years for Accounting in current year
B. Expenses transferred to next year for Accounting in that year only
C. Expenses transferred to next year for accounting in that (or) future year
D. Expenses to be transferred to P & L A/c of current year.
Q. 33 In Profit & Loss a/c, Selling & Distribution expenses does not include______
A. Commission on sale
B. Packing expenses
C. Legal expenses
D. Advertisement expenses
Q. 34 Which of the following are not miscellaneous expenses?
A. Preliminary expenses
B. Amount spent for research & development
C. Brokerage on Issue of shares & Debentures
D. Goodwill yet to be written off
Q. 35 Which of the following is false?
A. Assets can be arranged in the order of their liquidity
B. Balance sheet can be prepared vertically
C. Intangible asset is not an asset
D. None of these
Q. 36 Given : profit Rs.20,000, capital Rs. 1,00,000 and liabilities Rs. 50,000 then assets will be:
A. Rs. 1,70,000
B. Rs.1,30,000
C. Rs. 70,000
D. Rs. 30,000
Q. 37 A & B have started a Joint Venture for purchase & Sale of garments. Initial capital contribution was Rs.25,000 & Rs.50,000. There is no written agreement about share of P & L among them. They purchased garments worth Rs.50,000 & sold for Rs.75,000, the profit to be shared among them is
A. Rs.8,333 & Rs.16,667
B. Rs.10,000 & Rs.15,000
C. Rs.12,500 & Rs.12,500
D. Rs.20,000 & Rs.5,000
Q. 38 On 1st April, Mr.A sold goods of Rs.10,000 to B and drew a bill for 3 months. Mr. A discounted the bill with bank at 15%. Amount of discount will be?
A. Rs. 125
B. Rs.250
C. Rs.375
D. None
Q. 39 In Joint Venture the minimum number of coventureres is :
A. 2
B. 5
C. 7
D. 4
Q. 40 Retirement of a Bill means _____
A. Discounting a Bill
B. Dishonour of a bill
C. Renewal of a bill
D. Payment made before due date
Q. 41 If the goods sent on approval, two vehicles of Rs.55,000 each, are recorded as Rs.75,000 each, then the cost of goods lying with customers is
A. Rs.1,10,000
B. Rs.55,000
C. Rs.75,000
D. Rs.1,50,000
Q. 42 What are the options available to the holder of a bill in the bills of exchange (Besides retaining the bill, till the due date)?
A. Discount with bank
B. Sent to bank for collection
C. Endorse it to his creditor
D. All of these
Q. 43 Which of the following is true?
A. Co-venturers always share profits equally
B. Number of Co-venturers can never be more than two
C. Relation between co-Venturers is principal and Agent
D. Co-ventures may provide funds
Q. 44 Delcredere commission 10% is to be calculated on Rs.1,00,000 of cash sales and on Rs.50,000 of credit sales, then the commission will be
A. Rs.10,000
B. Rs.15,000
C. Rs.5,000
D. None of the above
Q. 45 Karthik and Dhoni entered into Joint venture, sharing profits & Losses in the Ratio of 2:1. Karthik purchased goods Rs.2,00,000 and entitled to 1% commission on purchases. Dhoni sold goods for Rs.2,50,000 and entitled to get a commission 5% on sales. The profit on venture will be _____
A. Rs.35,500
B. Rs.34,000
C. Rs.36,000
D. Rs.38,000
Q. 46 Overriding commission is a commission, that is____
A. Calculated on gross sales
B. Calculated on credit sales
C. Allowed for selling goods above invoice price
D. None of the above
Q. 47 Which of the following should be valued compulsory at the time of admission of a partner______
A. Goodwill
B. Plant & machinery
C. Land & Buildings
D. Furniture & fillings
Q. 48 A & B are equal partners. They admitted ‘C’ for 7 1 th share. The new Ratio of A & B is
A. 4/7, 1/7
B. 3/7, 3/7
C. 6/7, 1/7
D. 1/7, 4/7
Q. 49 C & D are the partners of a firm, who share profits & losses in the ratio of 5:3. D is entitled to get 5% commission. The net profit of the year is Rs.33,600 before charging such commission. Find the share of the profits of C & D.
A. C 20,000 & D 12,000
B. C 19,950 & D 11,970
C. C 21,000 & D 12,600
D. C 21,600 & D 12,000
Q. 50 In which method, Joint life policy premium paid is treated as an expense and not as an asset?
A. Ordinary expense method
B. Surrender value method
C. Joint life policy reserve method
D. None of the above
Q. 51 Preference shares can be redeemed, unless they are
A. Partly paid
B. Fully paid
C. Transferred
D. Re-Issued
Q. 52 Underwriting commission will not be paid onshares taken by
A. Promoters
B. Employees
C. Directors
D. All of these
Q. 53 Debentures are shown under the heading ____
A. Secured Loans
B. Reserves & surplus
C. Capital Reserve
D. Current liabilities
Q. 54 A LTD before commencing business, can i issue the shares at discount?
A. Possible
B. Not possible
C. Possible with the permission of stock exchange
D. Possible With the approval of shareholders and with the permission of Government.
Q. 55 In Balance sheet ______ is not shown
A. Authorised Capital
B. Un-issued capital
C. Subscribed capital
D. Paid-up capital
Q. 56 Which of the following is not correct for debentures Issue?
A. They can be issued for cash
B. They can be issued for consideration other than cash
C. A company can buy its own debentures
D. Can be issued in lieu of dividend
Q. 57 Which is not a feature of company:
A. Separate legal entity
B. Perpetual existence
C. Incorporated Association
D. No separation between management & Ownership
Q. 58 A company issued shares for 5,000 but applications are received for 7,500 shares. Mr. X applied for 600 shares. How many shares he will get & how much amount is transferred to allotment money, where application money is Rs.3 per share?
A. 400 shares & Rs.600
B. 600 shares & Rs.600
C. 500 shares & Rs.300
D. None of the above
Q. 59 Ram Ltd. has issued 15% Debentures of Rs.20,00,000 at a Discount of 10% on April, 2012. The company pays interest half yearly on June 30th & Dec 31st every year. On March 31s , 2013. The amount shown as interest accrued is ______
A. Rs.2,25,000
B. Rs.75,000
C. Rs.3,00,000
D. Rs.1,50,000
Q. 60 Uma, being a holder of 1000 shares of Rs.20 each issued at a discount of 10% per share. She did not pay the allotment money of Rs.4 per share and first call of Rs.8 per share. At the time of forfeiture, the discount on the shares must be_____
A. Credited Rs.2,000
B. Debited Rs.2,000
C. Credited Rs.1,000
D. None of these
Part B – Mercantile Laws
Q. 61 In case of unenforceable contract with some technical defect, then the parties _____:
A. Can sue
B. Cannot sue
C. Should be considered as illegal
D. None of the above
Q. 62 An Advertisement for sale of an old Flat which is published in leading newspaper. This kind of offer is _____
A. Specific Offer
B. Continuing Offer
C. Open Offer
D. General Offer
Q. 63 There is no binding contract in case of ____ as one’s offer cannot be construed as acceptance by the other.
A. Cross Offer
B. Standing Offer
C. Counter Offer
D. Special Offer
Q. 64 A offers B to supply Books at Rs.100 each Book. B accepts the same with condition of 10% discount. It is _____
A. Counter Offer
B. Cross Offer
C. Specific Offer
D. General Offer
Q. 65 In case of counter offer is made, the original offer stands _____
A. Rejected
B. Accepted Automatically
C. Accepted with modifications and variations
D. None
Q. 66 _____ Contracts are also known as Contracts with executed consideration
A. Unilateral
B. Completed
C. Bilateral
D. Executory
Q. 67 Which of the following is not an exception to the rule “No Consideration, No Contract”?
A. Love & affection
B. Compensation for past Voluntary
C. Contract of agency
D. None of the above
Q. 68 G paid Rs.1,00,000 to H to influence the head of the Government Organisation in order to provide him some employment. On his failure to provide the job, G sued H for recovery of the amount. Which of the following is correct?
A. G can recover the amount of Rs.10,000.
B. G can recover the amount of Rs.10,000 with interest.
C. G can file a suit.
D. G cannot recover the amount.
Q. 69 A stronger party is able to dominate the will of the weaker party, then it is known as _____
A. Undue influence
B. Coercion
C. Mistake
D. All of the above
Q. 70 Karthik is the coach of Sachin a minor, who joined for Hockey coaching. The Fees is 10,000. The Contract is _____
A. Void Agreement
B. Contingent Contract
C. Quasi Contract
D. Wagering Agreement
Q. 71 A, B, C are partners. They promised to give 60,000 to D. If C dies, who will Perform the Contract?
A. A, B
B. A, B and C’s legal representatives
C. A, B do not perform
D. None of the above
Q. 72 X & Y entered into an agreement to buy an imported car for Rs.30,000. Later on they cancelled the agreement. This is known as ___
A. Rescission
B. Remission
C. Alteration
D. Novation
Q. 73 A holds a house on lease. After that he buys the house and became owner. The contract is discharged by _____
A. Rescission
B. Merger
C. Waiver
D. Remission
Q. 74 A contract entered between promisor and promisee becomes impossible to perform due to destruction of subject matter. In this case __
A. Promisee is entitled for compensation
B. Contract continues to be valid
C. Contract becomes void
D. None of the above
Q. 75 Which of the following Damages are punishment in nature?
A. Vindictive Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Special Damages
D. Ordinary Damages
Q. 76 _______ is a game of chance.
A. Conditional Contract
B. Contingent Contract
C. Wagering Agreement
D. Quasi Contract
Q. 77 A stipulation in a contract of sale with reference to the goods which may be ____
A. Fair price
B. Lawful price
C. Condition (or) warranty
D. Delivery
Q. 78 Under the sale of goods act 1930, the seller in a contract of sale transfers the ______ in goods to the buyer for a price.
A. Possession
B. Control
C. Rights
D. Property
Q. 79 If the goods completely perish before contract of sale, the contract becomes.
A. Valid
B. Void
C. Voidable
D. Unenforceable
Q. 80 When a person sells the goods by infringing the copyright or trademark of the others, there is breach of an implied _______
A. Condition as to title
B. Condition as to description
C. Condition as to merchantability
D. None of these
Q. 81 Conditions which are presumed by law to be present in a contract are ______
A. Express Conditions
B. Implied Conditions
C. Qualified Conditions
D. Unqualified Conditions
Q. 82 The Doctrine of Caveat Emptor applies to the sale where ______
A. The Buyer Expressly informed the seller the particular purpose for which the goods are being bought
B. Sale under a Patent or Trade Name
C. When the good is of merchantable quality and the buyer has examined the good.
D. None of the above
Q. 83 Seller sends the goods to the buyer at larger (or) smaller quantity than ordered quantity. The option to the buyer is _____
A. Reject the whole quantity
B. Accepts the whole quantity
C. Accept (or) Reject the whole quantity
D. All of the above
Q. 84 The Goods are damaged after Sale. The Risk is to be borne by ______
A. Buyer only
B. Seller only
C. Both (a) & (b)
D. None of the above
Q. 85 Q sells 100 tones of rice to P at Rs.50,000 per tone. P makes the full payment and says that he will take the goods on next week. Before P could take the goods, the goods are destroyed. The loss will be borne by _____
A. P
B. Q
C. Both P & Q equally
D. None
Q. 86 Right of general lien cannot be exercised by __
A. Factor
B. Banker
C. Auctioneer
D. All of these
Q. 87 Under Indian partnership act 1932, the Partnership can be formed between ____
A. One Indian & Two Foreigners
B. One major person and one unsound mind person
C. Convicts undergoing Imprisonment
D. None of the above
Q. 88 The Mode of determining the existence of partnership is ___
A. Real relation between them
B. Sharing of profits
C. Business is to carried on by all (or) any of them acting for all
D. All of the above
Q. 89 Each partner in a firm is in the position of ____
A. Only agent
B. Only principal
C. Agent as well as principal
D. Neither agent nor principal
Q. 90 Which of the following is a form in which all the partners are signed?
A. Pronote
B. Partnership Deed
C. MOA
D. None
Q. 91 Dormant partner is also known as ____
A. Sleeping Partner
B. Active partner
C. Nominal Partner
D. Sub – Partner
Q. 92 In which of the following, the partnership duration is not fixed?
A. Particular Partnership
B. Partnership at will
C. Fixed term partnership
D. None of these
Q. 93 As per the agreement, profits should be shared equally but loss shall be borne by one partner. Then the partnership agreement is _____
A. Lawful
B. Illegal
C. Void
D. Voidable
Q. 94 Which of the following is within the scope of implied authority of a partner in a partnership firm?
A. Enter into partnership on behalf of the firm
B. Admit any liability in a suit or proceeding against the firm
C. Acquire immovable property on behalf of the firm
D. Purchasing & selling goods, in which the firm deals
Q. 95 The liability of newly admitted partner arise from ____
A. The Date of his admission
B. As per agreement
C. For the pre-existing debts of the firm
D. All of the above
Q. 96 Robert is a sleeping partner in a firm. He detected a wrong in the accounts of the firm. So he wants to check the complete accounts of the firm. But the other partners objected it. Can the objection made by the other partners is correct or not?
A. Void, their objection is wrong
B. Valid, they can object
C. Valid, they have the right not to give the accounts to the sleeping partner
D. None of the above
Q. 97 The status of a partner making advances to the firm in addition to his capital, then he is _____
A. A Partner of the firm
B. Employee of the Firm
C. Creditor of the firm
D. All of the above
Q. 98 The Un-registered firm does not have a _____
A. Right to file a suit on third party
B. Right to acquire property
C. Right to Transfer property
D. All of the above
Q. 99 For Dissolution of a firm, partners may apply to the court on the ground of _______ a)r b) c)
A. Insanity of partner
B. Misconduct of Partner
C. Perpetual Losses in Business
D. All of the above
Q. 100 The mode of dissolution of firm under Indian partnership Act 1932 is_____
A. Illustrative
B. Inclusive
C. Exhaustive
D. None of the above
Session – II
Part A – General Economics
Q. 101 What does “Price mechanism” exists.
A. Capitalist economy
B. Socialist economy
C. Both type of economies
D. None of the above
Q. 102 Socialist economy is also known as ____ economy
A. Mixed
B. Planned
C. Capitalist
D. None of the above
Q. 103 Positive science only explains _____
A. What it is?
B. What ought to be?
C. What is right or wrong?
D. None of the above
Q. 104 Economics which is concerned with welfare propositions is called.
A. Socialistic economics
B. Capitalistic economics
C. Positive economics
D. Normative economics
Q. 105 In which among the following systems the “Right to property” exists
A. Mixed
B. Capitalist
C. Socialist
D. Traditional
Q. 106 When total utility is increases at a diminishing rate, then marginal utility is ______
A. Diminishing
B. Zero
C. Maximum
D. one
Q. 107 The cross elasticity of demand between two perfect substitutes will be
A. Zero
B. Infinity
C. Very high
D. Very low
Q. 108 The shape of IC for complementary goods is
A. Straight line
B. L- Shaped
C. Convex to the origin
D. Circular
Q. 109 A Higher IC shows ______
A. A Higher level of satisfaction
B. A Higher level of Income
C. A Higher level of production
D. None of the above
Q. 110 The Demand for factors of production is ___ Demand
A. Fundamental
B. Derived
C. Market
D. Joint
Q. 111 The Price of a tiffin box is Rs. 100 per unit and the quantity demanded in a market is 1,25,000 units . Company increased the price to Rs.125 per unit due to this increase in price quantity demanded decreases to 1,00,000 units. What will be price elasticity of demand ______
A. 1.25
B. 0.80
C. 1.00
D. None
Q. 112 Under which of the following forms of market structure does a firm has very considerable control over the price of its product?
A. Monopoly
B. Perfect competition
C. Monopolistic competition
D. Oligopoly
Q. 113 The price of a commodity decreases from 10 to 8 and the quantity demanded of it increases from 25 to 30 units .Then the coefficient of price elasticity will be _____
A. 1
B. -1
C. 1.5
D. -1.5
Q. 114 What is the elasticity between midpoint & upper extreme point of a straight line continuous demand curve?
A. Infinite
B. Zero
C. >1
D. <1
Q. 115 The concept ‘Returns to scale’ is related with __________
A. Very short period
B. Short period
C. Long period
D. None of the above
Q. 116 In a Cobb – Douglas production function, two inputs are _______
A. Land and Labour
B. Capital and Labour
C. Capital and Entrepreneur
D. Entrepreneur and land
Q. 117 From which of the following the concept of consumer’s surplus has been derived
A. Law of diminishing marginal utility
B. Law of demand
C. Law of supply
D. Indifference curve analysis
Q. 118 The Price line / Budget line of a consumer is
A. Parallel to x-axis
B. Parallel to Y- axis
C. Straight line joining two axis
D. None of the above
Q. 119 Production function is
A. Purely technical relationship between input & output
B. Purely economic relationship between input & output
C. Both (a) & (b)
D. None of these
Q. 120 Which statement among below is correct in reference to AFC?
A. Never becomes zero
B. Curve never touch x-axis
C. Curve never touch y-axis
D. All of these
Q. 121 Innovation theory of entrepreneur is propounded by
A. Prof knight
B. Schumpeter
C. Max weber
D. Peter Ducker
Q. 122 In a perfectly competitive markets , if MR is greater than MC then a firm should
A. Increase its production
B. Decrease its production
C. Increase in sales
D. Decrease in sales
Q. 123 Kinked demand curve is related to
A. Oligopoly
B. Monopsony
C. Monopoly
D. Monopolistic competition
Q. 124 In long-run a monopolist always earn ___ profits
A. Normal
B. Abnormal
C. Zero profit
D. Loss
Q. 125 If a seller obtains Rs.3,000 after selling 50 units and Rs.3,100 after selling 52 units then MR will be
A. 59.62
B. 50.00
C. 60.00
D. 59.80
Q. 126 Objectives of price discrimination in international market is
A. To capture foreign markets
B. To dispose of surplus stock
C. To earn maximum profit
D. All of the above
Q. 127 Who is responsible for collecting & presenting statistics in India
A. ISI
B. CSO
C. ICAER
D. NCERT
Q. 128 Value added method is used to measure________
A. National Income
B. Domestic Income
C. Gross Income
D. Personal Income
Q. 129 Direct taxes are ________ in nature
A. Progressive
B. Regressive
C. Proportionate
D. Digressive
Q. 130 Land development bank provide loans for a period of______
A. One year
B. Two to five years
C. Five to seven years
D. Fifteen to twenty years
Q. 131 Which of the following is the largest contribution of GDP in India.
A. Agriculture
B. Tourism
C. Industries
D. Service
Q. 132 National Income differs from Net National Product at market price by the amount of
A. Net indirect taxes
B. National debt interest
C. Subsidies
D. Current transfers from the rest of the world
Q. 133 The production method of calculating national income is also known as _______
A. Value added method
B. Income method
C. Expenditure method
D. None of the above
Q. 134 Which of the following type land tenure system were prevailed in India at the time independence?
A. Zamindari System
B. Mahalwari System
C. Ryotwari System
D. All of the above
Q. 135 Censes of population is done in India at an interval of ________
A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 15 years
D. None of the above
Q. 136 Which index is used to measure inequality of income and wealth?
A. Gini index
B. Price index
C. Both (a) & (b)
D. None of the above
Q. 137 Fiscal deficit can be reduced by_____
A. Increasing subsidy
B. Restrict privatization
C. Reprioritize planning scheme
D. Reduction of tax revenue
Q. 138 When price rise because of growing factor prices then that inflation is called as
A. Deflation
B. Demand full inflation
C. Stagflation
D. Cost push inflation
Q. 139 Under strategic sale method disinvestment price is fixed on ________
A. Prevailing price
B. Estimated rate
C. Pre-determined rate
D. Market based rate
Q. 140 Which of the following is not a component of demand pull inflation
A. An increase in the government expenditure with no change in tax rate
B. A downward shift of saving function
C. A rise in money wage rate
D. An upward shift of investment function
Q. 141 Convertibility of rupee means _________
A. Determine its own exchange rate in international market
B. Conversion of rupee into various Foreign currencies
C. Transfer of funds in international market
D. None of the above
Q. 142 Globalization means__________
A. Creation of global trading blocks
B. Dismantling trade barriers
C. Introducing single currency in the world
D. None of the above
Q. 143 Fiscal policy means
A. Policy related to money matter
B. Policy related to income and expenditure of the government
C. Policy related to disbursement of funds to state government
D. Policy related to foreign trade matters
Q. 144 The term disinvestment is more popularly used
A. Where a holding company sells shares of a subsidiary company
B. Where a investment company off loads its holding
C. Where central / State government sells its holding of public sector companies
D. None of the above
Q. 145 One major proposal of new industrial policy (1991) was
A. Impose restriction on technical know-how for one year
B. All types of industries have been made licensed
C. NRI’S will not be allowed for capital investment in India
D. Facility of direct foreign investment up to 51% in high priority industries
Q. 146 Bad and doubtful debts of scheduled commercial banks are known as _______
A. Non-performing Assets
B. Withdrawals of assets
C. Non-recoverable Assets
D. None of the above
Q. 147 The portion of total deposits which a commercial bank has to keep with itself in liquid assets is known as_____
A. CRR
B. SLR
C. Repo Rate
D. Reverse Repo Rate
Q. 148 Which of the following is not controlled by RBI
A. Cash deposit ratio
B. Cash reserve ratio
C. SLR
D. SDR
Q. 149 The rate at which discounting of bills of first class is done by RBI is called
A. Repo rate
B. Bank rate
C. Prime lending rate
D. None of the above
Q. 150 Which of the following is a qualitative method of credit control?
A. Bank rate
B. Open market operations
C. Variation in the reserve requirement
D. Regulation of consumer credit
Part B – Quantitative Aptitude
Q. 151 The ratio of numbers is 1:2:3 and sum of their squares is 504 then the numbers are
A. 6,12,18
B. 3,6,9
C. 4,8,12
D. 5,10,15
Q. 152 If ∛a + ∛b + ∛c = 0, then find the value of ((a+b+c)/3)³
A. 9abc
B. 1/9abc
C. abc
D. 1/abc
Q. 153 Find value of
A. 0
B. -1
C. 1
D. 3
Q. 154 Find the value of Log₄ 9 .Log₃ 2 =
A. 3
B. 9
C. 2
D. 1
Q. 155 Divide 80 into two parts so that their products is maximum, then the numbers are
A. 15,65
B. 25,55
C. 35,45
D. 40,40
Q. 156 If the equations kx + 2y = 5 , 3x + y = 1 has no solution then the value of k is
A. 5
B. 2/3
C. 6
D. 3/2
Q. 157 If b² – 4ac is a perfect square but not equal to zero then the roots of the equation ax² + bx + c = 0 are
A. Real and equal
B. Real, irrational and equal
C. Real, rational and unequal
D. Imaginary
Q. 158 If kx – 4 = (k -1)x which of the following is true
A. x = -5
B. x = -4
C. x = -3
D. x = 4
Q. 159 The solution of the inequality 8x + 6 < 12x + 14 is
A. (-2, 2)
B. (-2, 0)
C. (2, α)
D. (-2, α)
Q. 160 In what time will a sum of money double itself at 6.25% p.a simple interest
A. 5 Yrs
B. 8 Yrs
C. 12yrs
D. 16Yrs
Q. 161 What principal will amount to Rs.370 in 6 years at 8% p.a at simple interest
A. Rs.210
B. Rs.250
C. Rs.310
D. Rs.350
Q. 162 The difference between and C.I & S.I at 7% p.a for 2 years is Rs. 29.4. then principal is
A. Rs.5,000
B. Rs.5,500
C. Rs.6,000
D. Rs.6,500
Q. 163 How many different words can be formed with the letters of the word “LIBERTY”
A. 4050
B. 5040
C. 5400
D. 4500
Q. 164 In how many ways can a family consist of 3 children have different birthdays in a leap year
A. 366 x 365 x 364
B. ³⁶⁶C₃
C. ³⁶⁵C₃
D. ³⁶⁶C₃ – 3
Q. 165 If ¹⁵C₃ᵣ ¹⁵C₃ᵣ₊₃ = then r =
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Q. 166 An AP has 13 terms whose sum is 143. The third term is 5, then first term is
A. 4
B. 7
C. 9
D. 2
Q. 167 G.M of a, b, c, d is 3 then G.M of 1/a, 1/b, 1/c, 1/d is
A. 1/3
B. 3
C. 1/81
D. 81
Q. 168 Of the 200 candidates who were interviewed for a position at call center, 100 had a two wheeler, 70 had a credit card and 140 had a mobile phone. 40 of them had both a two wheeler and a credit card, 30 had both a credit card and mobile phone, 60 had both a two wheeler and a mobile phone and 10 had all the three. How many candidates had none of them?
A. 0
B. 20
C. 10
D. 18 x²
Q. 169 f(x) = (a – xⁿ)¹⁄ⁿ, a > 0 and n is positive integer then f[f(x)] =
A. x
B. a
C. x¹⁄ⁿ
D. a¹⁄ⁿ
Q. 170 If f(x) = x² – 25/(x – 5) then f(5) =
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. undefined
Q. 171 Which of the following is true?
A. a = 1, l = 2
B. a = 2, l = 3
C. a = -2, l = -1
D. a =-2, l = 3
Q. 172
A. 0
B. ∞
C. -∞
D. does not exist
Q. 173 The points on the curve y = x³ – x² – x + 1. Where the tangent is parallel to x-axis are
A. (1, 0) (-1/3, 32/27)
B. (1, 0) (1, 0)
C. (-1/3, 32/27) (0, 0)
D. (0, 0) (1, 0)
Q. 174 A seller makes an offer of selling certain articles that can be described by the equation x=25-2y where x is price per unit and y denotes the no. of units. The cost price of the article is Rs.10 per unit. The maximum quantity that can be offered in a single deal to avoid loss is
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
Q. 175 ∫a^(2x) dx =
A. 2x² log a/2
B. 2 ax^(2x)/ log a
C. a^(2x)/(2 log a)
D. None
Q. 176 The pair of averages whose value can be determined graphically?
A. Mean & Median
B. Mode & Mean
C. Mode & Median
D. None of the above
Q. 177 The difference between upper limit and lower limit of a class is called:
A. Class Interval
B. Class boundaries
C. Mid – value
D. Frequency
Q. 178 If the class intervals are 10 -14, 15 -19, 20 -24,… Then the first class boundaries are :
A. 9.5 – 14.5
B. 10 – 15
C. 9 – 15
D. 10.5 – 15.5
Q. 179 If Arithmetic Mean = (8+4)/2, then Variance is :
A. 2
B. 6
C. 1
D. 4
Q. 180 Coefficient of mean deviation about mean for the first 9 natural numbers is :
A. 200/9
B. 80
C. 400/9
D. 50
Q. 181 Mean =5, S.D = 2.6, Median = 5, Q.D = 1.5 then Coefficient of Q.D is :
A. 35
B. 39
C. 30
D. 32
Q. 182 The difference between maximum and minimum value of the data is known as :
A. Range
B. Size
C. Width
D. Class
Q. 183 Price and Demand is example for :
A. No correlation
B. Positive correlation
C. Negative correlation
D. None of these
Q. 184 Determine the coefficient of correlation between x and y series Sum of product deviation of x and y series from mean = 122
| # | X- Series | Y-Series |
| Number of items | 15 | 15 |
| Arithmetic mean | 25 | 18 |
| Sum of Square of deviation of mean | 136 | 138 |
A. -0.89
B. 0.89
C. 0.69
D. -0.69
Q. 185 If r = + 1 or – 1 then the two regression lines _______
A. Have 30° angle between them
B. Have 45° angle between them
C. Coincide
D. Perpendicular to each other
Q. 186 If mean of X and Y variables is 20 and 40 respectively and the regression coefficient Y on X is 1.608 then the regression line of Y on X is :
A. Y = 1.608 X + 7.84
B. Y = 1.56 X + 4.84
C. Y = 1.608 X + 4.84
D. Y = 1.56 X + 7.84
Q. 187 Two coins are tossed simultaneously then the probability of getting exactly one head is
A. 3/4
B. 2/3
C. 1/4
D. 1/2
Q. 188 The probability that a cricket team winning a match at Kanpur is 2/5 and losing a match at Delhi is 1/7. What is the probability of the team winning at least one match?
A. 1/35
B. 32/35
C. 18/35
D. 17/35
Q. 189 Find the expected value of the following probability distribution
| X | -20 | -10 | 30 | 75 | 80 |
| P(x) | 3/20 | 1/5 | 1/2 | 1/10 | 1/20 |
A. 20.5
B. 21.5
C. 22.5
D. 24.5
Q. 190 If P (A) = 0.45, P (B) = 0.35, P (A and B) = 0.25 then P(A/B)=
A. 1.4
B. 1.8
C. 0.714
D. 0.556
Q. 191 In normal distribution mean ,median and mode are
A. Equal
B. Not equal
C. Zero
D. None of the above
Q. 192 In a certain Poisson frequency distribution, the probability corresponding to two successes is half of the probability corresponding to three successes. The mean of the distribution is
A. 6
B. 12
C. 3
D. 2.95
Q. 193 If the points of inflexion of a normal curve are 6 and 14 then standard deviation is
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Q. 194 There are 75 students in a class and their average marks is 50 and S.D of marks is 5. Number of students who have secured more than 60 marks (Given that area under the normal curve for z = 2 is 0.4772) is ______
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 195 Which of the following is non-probability sampling?
A. Systematic sampling
B. Quota sampling
C. Cluster sampling
D. Stratified sampling
Q. 196 Sample in which the number of units is less than _____ is called a small sample
A. 100
B. 75
C. 50
D. 30
Q. 197 Standard deviation of a sampling distribution is known as:
A. Standard Error
B. Sampling Error
C. Probable Error
D. Mean Deviation
Q. 198 What is the formula for calculating the deflated index
A. Current value/(Price index of current year) x 100
B. Current value/(Price index of last year) x 100
C. Current value/(Price index of current year)
D. Current value/(Price index of last year)
Q. 199 The index number for the year 2012 taking 2011 as base using simple average of price relatives method from the data given below is:
| Commodity | A | B | C | D | E |
| Price in 2011 | 115 | 108 | 95 | 80 | 90 |
| Price in 2012 | 125 | 117 | 108 | 95 | 95 |
A. 112
B. 117
C. 120
D. 111
Q. 200 An index time series is a list of ____ numbers for two or more periods of time.
A. Index
B. absolute
C. Relative
D. None
| Answer Sheet | ||||||||||
| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | B | C | A | A | B | C | A | D | B | C |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | C | C | C | A | A | B | C | B | D | C |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | B | D | D | B | C | C | B | B | D | B |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | A | C | C | D | C | A | C | C | A | D |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | A | D | D | B | A | C | A | B | B | A |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | B | D | A | B | B | D | D | A | B | A |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | B | D | A | A | A | A | D | D | A | C |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | B | A | B | C | A | C | C | D | B | A |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | B | C | C | A | A | C | A | D | C | B |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | A | B | A | D | B | A | C | A | D | B |
| Question | 101 | 102 | 103 | 104 | 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 | 110 |
| Answer | A | B | A | D | B | C | B | B | A | B |
| Question | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| Answer | C | A | B | C | C | B | A | C | A | D |
| Question | 121 | 122 | 123 | 124 | 125 | 126 | 127 | 128 | 129 | 130 |
| Answer | B | A | A | B | B | D | B | A | A | D |
| Question | 131 | 132 | 133 | 134 | 135 | 136 | 137 | 138 | 139 | 140 |
| Answer | D | A | A | D | B | A | C | D | D | C |
| Question | 141 | 142 | 143 | 144 | 145 | 146 | 147 | 148 | 149 | 150 |
| Answer | B | B | B | C | D | A | B | A | B | D |
| Question | 151 | 152 | 153 | 154 | 155 | 156 | 157 | 158 | 159 | 160 |
| Answer | A | C | C | D | D | C | C | D | D | D |
| Question | 161 | 162 | 163 | 164 | 165 | 166 | 167 | 168 | 169 | 170 |
| Answer | B | C | B | A | B | D | A | C | A | C |
| Question | 171 | 172 | 173 | 174 | 175 | 176 | 177 | 178 | 179 | 180 |
| Answer | B | D | A | B | D | C | A | A | D | C |
| Question | 181 | 182 | 183 | 184 | 185 | 186 | 187 | 188 | 189 | 190 |
| Answer | C | A | C | B | C | A | B | B | B | C |
| Question | 191 | 192 | 193 | 194 | 195 | 196 | 197 | 198 | 199 | 200 |
| Answer | A | A | A | B | B | D | A | C | D | A |
