CAT 2014




Quantitative Aptitude

40 Questions



28 Questions



32 Questions



Q. 1 If ABCD is a square and BCE is an equilateral triangle, what is the measure of ∠DEC?

A. 15°

B. 30°

C. 20°

D. 45°


Q. 2 Instead of a meter scale, a cloth merchant uses a 120 cm scale while buying, but uses an 80 cm scale while selling the same cloth. What is his overall profit percentage?

A. 50%

B. 25%

C. 40%

D. 15%


Q. 3 From a circular sheet of paper with a radius 20 cm, four circles of radius 5 cm each are cut out. What is the ratio of the uncut to the cut portion?

A. 1 : 3

B. 4 : 1

C. 3 : 1

D. 4 : 3


Q. 4 The cost of diamond varies directly as the square of its weight. Once, this diamond broke into four pieces with weights in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4. When the pieces were sold, the merchant got Rs. 70,000 less. Find the original price of the diamond.

A. Rs. 1.4 lakh

B. Rs. 2 lakh

C. Rs. 1 lakh

D. Rs. 2.1 lakh


Q. 5 The question is followed by two statements, I and II.

If x, y and z are real numbers, is z – x even or odd?

I. xyz is odd.

II. xy + yz + zx is even.

Mark the answer as.

A. if the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.

B. if the question can be answered with the help of statement II, alone.

C. if both statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.

D. if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.


Questions: 6 – 9

Answer the questions based on following data.

The pages of a book are numbered 0, 1, 2 … upto M, M>0. There are four categories of instructions that direct a person in positioning the book at a page. The instruction types and their meanings are :

1. NEW : Position the book at page No. 1

2. END : Position the book at page No. 0

3. ONWARD, n :From the current page move forward by n pages; if, in this process, page number M is reached, stop at M.

4. REGRESS, n : From the current page, move backward by n pages; if in this process, page number 0 is reached, stop at page number 0.

In each of the following questions, you will find a sequence of instructions formed from the above categories. In each case, let n1 be the page number before the instructions are executed and n2 be the page number at which the book is positioned after the instructions are executed.


Q. 6 ONWARD, 25 ; REGRESS, 10. which of the following statements is true?

A. n1=n2 if M=10 and n1=0

B. M=20 provided n1>0

C. n1>30 provided M=900

D. n1=37 provided M=25


Q. 7 REGRESS, 5; ONWARD, 5. Which of the following statements is true about the above set of instructions?

A. n1=n2 provided n1 ≥ 5

B. n1=n2 provided n1>0

C. n2=5 provided M>0

D. n1>n2 provided M>0


Q. 8 ONWARD, 10; ONWARD, 10. Which of the following statements about the above instructions is true?

A. n2-n1=20 only if n1=0

B. n2-n1=20 if M>20 and n1=1

C. n2-n1=10 if M=21 and n1=0

D. n2>n1 if M>0


Q. 9 ONWARD, 5; REGRESS, 4. Which of the following statements about the above instructions is true?

A. n2=n1+4 Provided 1<n1<7

B. n2=n1 provided M<6

C. n2=n1+1 provided M-n1>5

D. n2-n1< 0 provided M>0


Q. 10 A circle is inscribed in a given square and another circle is circumscribed about the square. What is the ratio of the area of the inscribed circle to that of the circumscribed circle?

A. 2 : 3

B. 3 : 4

C. 1 : 4

D. 1 : 2


Q. 11 If y = f(x) and f(x) = (1-x) / (1 + x), which of the following is true?

A. f(2x) = f(x) – 1

B. x = f(2y)-1

C. f(1/x) = f(x)

D. x = f(y)


Questions: 12 – 15

Directions for questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The HR Manager of the IT company recently scanned employees training results of various exams into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves the space blank. The scanner output reads as follows:

In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2, and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Navdeep’s GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6. Some additional facts are also known about the students’ grades. These are Vipul obtained the same grade in C Language as Amanpreet obtained in Java and

Analysis. Fazal obtained the same grade in Analysis as Utkarsh did in C Language.

Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.


Q. 12 What grade did Preeti obtain in Testing?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 13 In Project Management, Tara could have received the same grade as

A. Ismet

B. Hari

C. Jagdeep

D. Manab


Q. 14 In Analysis, Gowri’s grade point was higher than that obtained by

A. Fazal

B. Hari

C. Navdeep

D. Rahul


Q. 15 What grade did Utkarsh obtain in Java?

A. B

B. C

C. D

D. F


Questions: 16 – 18

Answer the questions based on following data.

A dealer deals only in colour TVs and VCRs. He wants to spend up to Rs.12 lakhs to buy 100 pieces. He can purchase a colour TV at Rs.10,000 and a VCR at Rs.15,000. He can sell a colour TV at Rs.12,000 and a VCR at Rs.17,500. His objective is to maximize profits. Assume that he can sell all the items that he stocks.


Q. 16 For the maximum profit, the number of colour TVs and VCRs that he should respectively stock are

A. 80, 20

B. 20, 80

C. 60, 40

D. None of these


Q. 17 If the dealer would have managed to get an additional space to stock 20 more items, then for maximizing profit, the ratio of number of VCRs and number of TVs that he should stock is

A. 7 : 3

B. 0

C. 1 : 2

D. None of these


Q. 18 The maximum profit, in rupees lakh, the dealer can earn from his original stock if he can sell a colour TV at Rs. 12200 and VCR at Rs.18300 is

A. 2.64

B. 2.49

C. 2.72

D. 2.87


Questions: 19 – 22

Directions for questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The data points in the figure below represent monthly income and expenditure data of individual members following families. For these questions, savings is defined as

Savings = Income – Expenditure


Q. 19 Which family has the lowest average income?

A. Abhijeet

B. Baljeet

C. Camaljeet

D. Damanjeet


Q. 20 Which family has the highest average expenditure?

A. Abhijeet

B. Baljeet

C. Camaljeet

D. Damanjeet


Q. 21 Which family has the lowest average savings?

A. Abhijeet

B. Baljeet

C. Camaljeet

D. Damanjeet


Q. 22 The highest amount of savings accrues to a member of which family?

A. Abhijeet

B. Baljeet

C. Camaljeet

D. Damanjeet


Q. 23 In a Tennis Open tournament 71 persons have signed up for elimination rounds. All players are to be paired up for the first round, but because 71 is an odd number one player gets a bye, which promotes him to the second round, without actually playing in the first round. The pairing continues on the next round, with a bye to any player left over. If the schedule is planned so that a minimum number of matches are required to determine the champion, the number of matches which must be played is

A. 71

B. 70

C. 69

D. 36


Q. 24 There are ten 50 paise coins placed on a table. Six of these show tails four show heads. A coin is chosen at random and flipped over (not tossed). This operation is performed seven times. One of the coins is then covered. Of the remaining nine coins, five show tails and four show heads. The covered coin shows

A. a head

B. a tail

C. more likely a head

D. more likely a tail


Q. 25 From each of the two given numbers, half the smaller number is subtracted. Of the resulting numbers the larger one is three times as large as the smaller. What is the ratio of the two numbers?

A. 2 : 1

B. 3 : 1

C. 3 : 2

D. None


Q. 26 Three identical cones with base radius r are placed on their bases so that each is touching the other two. The radius of the circle drawn through their vertices is

A. smaller than r.

B. equal to r

C. larger than r

D. depends on the height of the cones.


Q. 27 The line AB is 6 metres in length and is tangent to the inner one of the

two concentric circles at point C. It is known that the radii of the two circles are integers.

The radius of the outer circle is

A. 5 meters

B. 4 meters

C. 6 meters

D. 3 meters


Questions: 28 – 31

Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

The following table shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2012 to year 2016) to produce a particular product:

The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2016 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2016 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year 2017, answer the following questions.


Q. 28 What is the approximate cost per unit in rupees, if the company produces and sells 1400 units in the year 2017?

A. 104

B. 107

C. 110

D. 114


Q. 29 What is the minimum number of units that the company needs to produce and sell to avoid any loss?

A. 313

B. 350

C. 384

D. 747


Q. 30 If the company reduces the price by 5%, it can produce and sell as many units as it desires. How many units the company should produce to maximize its profit?

A. 1400

B. 1600

C. 1800

D. 2000 2000


Q. 31 Given that the company cannot sell more than 1700 units, and it will have to reduce the price by Rs.5 for all units, if it wants to sell more than 1400 units, what is the maximum profit, in rupees, that the company can earn?

A. 25400

B. 24400

C. 31400

D. 32900


Questions: 32 – 33

Use the following information for next two questions: A function f(x) is said to be even if f(-x)=f(x), and odd if f(-x) = -f(x). Thus, for example, the function given by f(x) = x2 is even, while the function given by f(x) = x3 is odd. Using this definition,

answer the following questions.


Q. 32 The function given by f(x) = |x|³

A. even

B. odd

C. neither

D. both


Q. 33 The sum of two odd functions

A. is always an even function

B. is always an odd function

C. is sometimes odd and sometimes even

D. may be neither odd nor even


Q. 34 A five digit number is formed using digits 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9 without repeating any one of them. What is the sum of all such possible numbers?

A. 6666600

B. 6666660

C. 6666666

D. None


Q. 35 A box contains 6 red balls, 7 green balls and 5 blue balls. Each ball is of a different size. The probability that the red ball selected is the smallest red ball, is

A. 1/18

B. 1/3

C. 1/6

D. 2/3


Q. 36 ABC forms an equilateral triangle in which B is 2 km from A. A person starts walking from B in a direction parallel to AC and stops when he reaches a point D directly east of C. He, then, reverses direction and walks till he reaches a point E directly south of C. Then D is

A. 3 km east and 1 km north of A

B. 3 km east and 3 km north of A

C. 3 km east and 1 km south of A

D. 3 km west and 3 km north of A


Q. 37 A lead cuboid of 8 inches in length, 11 inches in breadth, and 2 inches thick was melted and resolidified into the form of a rod of 8 inches diameter. The length of such a rod, in inches, is nearest to

A. 3

B. 3.5

C. 4

D. 4.5


Questions: 38 – 41

Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the information from an airline about their passengers (pax) in particular sectors is given below:

The proportion of males and the proportion of vegetarian pax are given below. The airline has a total of 800 passengers, 80% of whom are in the Mumbai – Delhi sector and rest are equally divided between Mumbai – Hyderabad and Mumbai – Bangalore.


Q. 38 What is the percentage of male pax in the Mumbai – Delhi sector?

A. 40

B. 45

C. 50

D. 60


Q. 39 In Mumbai – Bangalore, twenty five per cent of the vegetarians are male. What is the difference between the number of female vegetarians and male non-vegetarians?

A. less than 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. 16


Q. 40 What is the percentage of vegetarian pax in Mumbai – Bangalore?

A. 40

B. 45

C. 50

D. 60


Q. 41 What is the percentage of vegetarian pax in Mumbai – Bangalore? 40 45 50 60 41. In the Mumbai – Delhi sector, 50% of the pax are vegetarian males. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Except vegetarian males, all other groups have same number of pax.

B. Except non-vegetarian males, all other groups have same number of pax.

C. Except vegetarian females, all other groups have same number of pax.

D. None of these.


Questions: 42 – 43

Use the following information: Eighty five people went to a lottery shop where they could bet on the DhanLaksmi, Rajshri, and Gauri lotteries. It was known that 20 of them took all three ets, and 55 of them took at least two of the three bets. Each bet cost Re. 1, and the total receipt of the lottery shop was Rs. 145.


Q. 42 How many people did not try any of the bets?

A. 5

B. 10

C. 15

D. 20


Q. 43 How many people took exactly one bet?

A. 5

B. 10

C. 15

D. 20


Q. 44 John bought five toffees and ten chocolates together for forty rupees. Subsequently, he returned one toffee and got two chocolates in exchange. The price of an chocolate would be

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 45 Let aᵥ₊₁= 2 aᵥ + 1 (ᵥ = 0,1,2,….) and a₀ = 0 . Then v₁₀ nearest to

A. 1023

B. 2047

C. 4095

D. 8195


Q. 46 Suppose you have a currency, named Rubble, in three denominations: 1 Rubble, 10 Rubbles and 50 Rubbles. In how many ways can you pay a bill of 95 Rubbles?

A. 15

B. 16

C. 18

D. 19


Q. 47 Consider four-digit numbers for which the first two digits are equal and the last two digits are also equal. How many such numbers are perfect squares?

A. 3

B. 2

C. 4

D. 1


Q. 48 The price of Coffee (in rupees per kilogram) is 100 + 0.10n, on the nth day of 2007 (n = 1, 2, …, 100), and then remains constant. On the other hand, the price of Ooty tea (in rupees per kilogram) is 89 + 0.15n, on the nth day of 2007 (n = 1, 2, …, 365). On which date in 2007 will the prices of coffee and tea be equal?

A. May 21

B. April 11

C. May 20

D. April 10


Q. 49 Two circles with centres P and Q cut each other at two distinct points A and B. The circles have the same radii and neither P nor Q falls within the intersection of the circles. What is the smallest range that includes all possible values of the angle AQP in degrees?

A. Between 0 and 90

B. Between 0 and 30

C. Between 0 and 60

D. Between 0 and 75


Q. 50 A quadratic function ƒ(x) attains a maximum of 3 at x = 1. The value of the function at x = 0 is 1. What is the value ƒ(x) at x = 10?

A. –119

B. –159

C. –110

D. –180


Questions: 51 – 54

Answer the questions below on the basis of the following passage.

More selective than most chemical pesticides in that they ordinarily destroy only unwanted species, biocontrol. agents (such as insects, fungi, and viruses) eat, infect, or parasitize targeted plant or animal pests. However, biocontrol agents can negatively affect nontarget species by, for example, competing with them for resources: a biocontrol agent might reduce the benefits conferred by a desirable animal species by consuming a plant on which the animal prefers to lay its eggs. Another example of indirect negative consequcnces occurred in England when a virus introduced to control rabbits reduced the amount of open ground (because large rabbit populations reduce the ground cover), in turn reducing underground ant nests and triggering the extinction of a blue butterfly that had depended on the nests to shelter its offspring. The paucity of known extinctions or disruptions resulting from indirect interactions may reflect not the infrequency of such mishaps but rather the failure to look for or to detect them: most organisms likely to be adversely affected by indirect interactions are of little or no known commercial value and the events linking a biocontrol agent with an adverse effect are often unclear. Moreover, determining the potential risks of biocontrol agents before they are used is difficult, especially when a nonnative agent is introduced, because, unlike a chemical pesticide, a biocontrol agent may adapt in unpredictable ways. so that it can feed on or otherwise harm new hosts.


Q. 51The passage is primarily concerned with

A. explaining why until recently scientists failed to recognize the risks presented by biocontrol agents.

B. emphasizing that biocontrol agents and chemical pesticides have more similarties than differences.

C. suggesting that only certain biocontrol agents should be used to control plant or animal pasts.

D. arguing that biocontrol agents involve risks, some of which may not be readily discerned.


Q. 52 The passage suggests that the author would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about the use of biocontrol agents?

A. Biocontrol agent should be used only in cases where chemical pesticides have proven ineffective or overly dangerous.

B. Extinctions and disruptions resulting from the use of biocontrol agents are likely to have increasingly severe commercial consequences.

C. The use of biocontrol agents does not require regulation as stringent as that required by the use of chemical pesticides.

D. The risks of using native biocontrol agents may be easier to predict than the risks of using nonnative biocontrol agents.


Q. 53 Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as an indirect effect of using a biocontrol agent?

A. Reduction of the commercial value of a desirable animal species

B. An unintended proliferation of a nontarget animal species

C. An unforeseen mutation in a target species

D. Diminution of the positive effects conferred by a nontarget animal species.


Q. 54 The example presented by the author in highlight text most clearly serves to illustrate

A. a situation in which a species is less vulnerable to biocontrol agents than it would have been to chemical pesticides.

B. a way in which the introduction of a biocontrol agent can affect a nontarget species.

C. a nonnative agent’s adapting in an unpredictable way that results in damage to a new host.

D. The contention that biocontrol agents can harm nontarget species by competing with them for resources


Q. 55 Arrange sentences A, B, C and D between sentences 1 and 6 to form a logical sequence of six sentences.

1. Buddhism is a way to salvation.

A. But Buddhism is more severely analytical.

B. In the Christian tradition there is also a concern for the fate of human society conceived as a whole, rather than merely as a sum or network of individuals.

C. Salvation is a property, or achievement of individuals.

D. Not only does it dissolve society into individuals, the individual in turn is dissolved into component parts and instants, a stream of events.

6. In modern terminology, Buddhist doctrine is reductionist.






Q. 56 Arrange sentences A, B, C and D between sentences 1 and 6 to form a logical sequence of six sentences.

1. The problem of improving Indian agriculture is both a sociological and an administrative one.

A. It also appears that there is a direct relationship between the size of a state and development.

B. The issues of Indian development, and the problem of India’s agricultural sector, will remain with us long into the next century.

C. Without improving Indian agriculture, no liberalisation and delicensing will be able to help India.

D. At the end of the day, there has to be a ferment and movement of life and action in the vast segment of rural India.

6. When it starts marching, India will fly.






Questions: 57 – 58

Hidden Island is an obscure island which is inhabited by two types of people: the ‘Yes‘ type and the ‘No‘ type. Native of type ‘Yes‘ ask only questions the right answer to which is ‘Yes‘ while those of type ‘No‘ ask only questions the right answer to which is ‘No’. For ex., The ‘Yes‘ type will ask questions like “Is 2 plus 2 equal to 4?” while the ‘No‘ type will ask questions like “Is 2 plus 2 equal to five?” The following questions are based on your visit to the Hidden Island.


Q. 57 If an islander asks, “Do I belong to the ‘No‘ type, which of the following is correct?

A. He is a ‘No‘.

B. He is a ‘Yes‘.

C. It is impossible for him to have asked such a question.

D. His type cannot be identified.


Q. 58 Aman and Mohan are brothers from the Island. Mohan asks you, “Is at least one of us brothers of type ‘No’”? You can conclude that

A. Aman is ‘NO‘, Mohan is ‘Yes‘

B. both are ‘Yes‘.

C. Aman is ‘Yes‘, Mohan is ‘No‘.

D. both are ‘No‘.


Q. 59 Arrange sentences A, B, C and D between sentences 1 and 6 to form a logical sequence of six sentences.

1. Good literary magazines have always been good because of their editors.

A. Furthermore, to edit by committee, as it were, would prevent any magazine from finding its own identity.

B. The more quirky and idiosyncratic they have been, the better the magazine is, at least as a general rule.

C. But the number of editors one can have for a magazine should also be determined by the number of contributions to it.

D. To have four editors for an issue that contains only seven contributions, it is a bit silly to start with.

6. However, in spite of this anomaly, the magazine does acquire merit in its attempt to give a comprehensive view of the Indian literary scene as it is today.






Questions: 60 – 63

Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the statements given below: Following questions are about 6 project reports of different heights from 6 different students and of 6 different colors displayed on a cupboard.

(i) There are three Project Reports on each side of the aisle.

(ii) These six Project Reports are labeled as Piyush, Qadar, Richa, Sandesh, Tanvi and Urvashi.

(iii) The Project Reports are of different colours, namely, Red, Blue, Green, Orange, Yellow and White.

(iv) The Project Reports are of different heights.

(v) Tanvi, the tallest Project Report, is exactly opposite to the Red coloured Project Report.

(vi) The shortest Project Report is exactly opposite to the Green coloured Project Report.

(vii) Urvsahi, the Orange coloured Project Report, is located between Piyush and Sandesh.

(viii) Richa, the Yellow coloured Project Report, is exactly opposite to Piyush.

(ix) Qadar, the Green coloured Project Report, is exactly opposite to Urvashi.

(x) Piyush, the White coloured Project Report, is taller than Richa, but shorter than Sandesh and Qadar.


Q. 60 What is the colour of the Project Report diagonally opposite to the Yellow coloured Project Report?

A. White

B. Blue

C. Green

D. Red

E. none of these


Q. 61 Which is the second tallest Project Report?

A. Piyush

B. Sandesh

C. Qadar

D. Richa

E. Can’t determine


Q. 62 What is the colour of the tallest Project Report?

A. Red

B. Blue

C. Green

D. none of these


Q. 63 What is the color of the report named Richa?

A. Red

B. Blue

C. Green

D. Yellow


Q. 64 In the following question, a part of a sentence is left blank. Choose from among the four options given below the question, the one which would best fill the blanks.

When we call others dogmatic, what we really object to is ___.

A. their giving the dog a bad name

B. their holding beliefs that are different from our own

C. the extremism that goes along with it

D. the subversion of whatever they actually believe in concomitantly


Q. 65 Science, because people engage in it, is a socially embedded activity. It progresses by hunch, vision, and intuition. Much of its change through time does not record a closer approach to absolute truth, but the alternation of the cultural contexts that influence it so strongly. Facts are not pure and unsullied bits of information— culture influences what we see and how we see it. Theories, moreover, are not inexorable inductions from facts. The most creative theories are often imaginative visions imposed upon facts; the source of imagination is also strongly cultural. The author implies that those who rely on scientific results should

A. realize that science relies on imagination to approach absolute truth

B. insist on pure and unsullied facts rather than on theories

C. understand that theories are frequently strict inductions from facts

D. consider the cultural biases of scientists


Q. 66 Baking for winter holidays is tradition that may have a sound medical basis. In midwinter, when days are short, many people suffer from a specific type of seasonal depression caused by lack of sunlight. Carbohydrates, both sugars and starches, boost the brain‘s levels of serotonin, a neurotransmitter that improve the mood. In this respect, carbohydrates act on the brain in the same way as some antidepressants. Thus, eating holiday cookies may provide an effective form of self-prescribed medication. Which one of the following can be properly inferred from the passage?

A. Seasonal depression is one of the most easily treated forms of depression.

B. Lack of sunlight lowers the level of serotonin in the brain.

C. People are more likely to be depressed in midwinter than at other times of the year.

D. Some antidepressants act by changing the brain‘s level of serotonin.


Questions: 67 – 70

Answer the questions below on the basis of the following passage.

When views can freely flourish in the marketplace of ideas, individuals are afforded the advantage of deciding what notions and concepts to question, support or reject. On June 8, 1789, James Madison introduced in the House of Representatives an amendment to the Constitution: ―The people shall not be deprived or abridged of their right to speak, to write, or to publish their sentiments; and the freedom of the press, as one of the great bulwarks of liberty, shall be inviolable.ǁ This commitment to a free press is a principle Americans hold firmly, because they view it as a necessary ingredient for a properly functioning political process and a critical component of a free society. Yet, since the time of America‘s founding, the politicized nature of the press has not fundamentally changed.

While conservatives and liberals alike claim that today‘s mainstream media is biased, opinionated, and devoid of objectivity and balanced analysis, American newspapers at the time of this nation‘s birth were all partisan, believing that their responsibility was not to report news, but to convey, without apology, a particular political position. Perhaps the high point of partisan newspapers was in New York during the 1920‘s, when the city had over a dozen daily papers, each geared toward a particular ethnic and political niche; people selected the paper that made the most sense of the world to them. Despite the naysayers who warn that the lack of objectivity and fair-mindedness is corrosive to society, partisan journalism can be good journalism. It produces plenty of excellent reporting and analysis and is the norm in many nations. Two centuries ago, newspapers subsidized by Andrew Jackson’s Democrats and Henry Clay’s Whigs were dependable supporters of their parties. Today‘s newspapers claim that they too are only giving their readership what it wants. Legally, the Supreme Court has tried since 1919 to clarify how free the press is. Over time, older laws that allowed publications to be punished for libel, obscenity, sedition, and publishing inflammatory material have given way to more expansive rights to publish. The First Amendment protections offered to journalists have evolved to a broader interpretation of freedom of the press. During the 1960‘s and 1970‘s, journalists exposed the government‘s mismanagement of the Vietnam War, and their investigative reporting eventually brought about the resignation of President Nixon. By the end of the twentieth century, the Constitution‘s protections were broadly held to cover the content of all papers, from the highly regarded New York Times to tabloids such as The National Enquirer.


Q. 67 According to the author, which of the following is true about partisan journalism throughout American history?

A. It has had a limited impact on the political process.

B. Its lack of objectivity is detrimental.

C. It has played an important role in reliably informing individuals from diverse cultural backgrounds.

D. It has essentially been the status quo since America‘s founding.


Q. 68 Which of the following statements about American newspapers is supported by information contained in the passage?

A. America‘s newspapers in 1789 resembled those of today in form and content.

B. The character of the press has matured since the time of America‘s founding.

C. In recent years, the press has become biased in regard to its political reporting.

D. Early American journalists did not necessarily provide a balanced analysis of events.


Q. 69 The author of the passage would disagree with which of the following statements?

A. The legal understanding of press freedoms has shifted over time.

B. Over time, the First Amendment protections offered to the press have become absolute.

C. America‘s legal evolution has given way to a more liberal understanding of press freedom.

D. First Amendment press rights today protect a broad section of the newspaper industry.


Q. 70 All of the following are examples of limitations the courts have placed on freedom of the press,


A. articles deemed maliciously defamatory of individuals

B. articles viewed as offensive to society‘s views of decency

C. articles that comment negatively on a political affiliation

D. articles clearly dangerous to national security


Q. 71 Street crime can be averted through regulations mandating the lighting of streetlights during daytime. As daytime visibility is worse in nations farther from the equator, so obviously such regulations would be more successful in averting crime there. Actually, the only nations that have adopted such regulations are farther from the equator than the continental United States. Which of the following conclusions could be most properly drawn from the information given above?

A. Bystanders in the continental United States who were near lit streetlights during the day would be just as likely to become victims of a crime as would bystanders who were not near lit streetlights.

B. Inadequate daytime visibility is the single most important factor in street crime in numerous nations that are located farther from the equator than is the continental United States.

C. In nations that have daytime streetlight regulations, the percentage of street crime that happens in the daytime is greater than in the continental United States.

D. Daytime streetlight regulations would probably do less to avert street crime in the continental United States than they do in the nations that have the regulations.


Q. 72 During the construction of the Quebec Bridge in 1907, the bridge’s designer, Theodore Cooper, received word that the suspended span being built out from the bridge’s cantilever was deflecting downward by a fraction of an inch (2.54 centimeters). Before he could telegraph to freeze the project, the whole cantilever arm broke off and plunged, along with seven dozen workers, into the St. Lawrence River. It was the worst bridge construction disaster in history. As a direct result of the inquiry that followed, the engineering “rules of thumb” by which thousands of bridges had been built around the world went down with the Quebec Bridge. Twentieth-century bridge engineers would thereafter depend on far more rigorous applications of mathematical analysis. Which one of the following statements can be properly inferred from the passage?

A. Prior to 1907 the mathematical analysis incorporated in engineering rules of thumb was insufficient to completely assure the safety of bridges under construction.

B. Cooper’s absence from the Quebec Bridge construction site resulted in the breaking off of the cantilever.

C. Nineteenth-century bridge engineers relied on their rules of thumb because analytical methods were inadequate to solve their design problems.

D. Only a more rigorous application of mathematical analysis to the design of the Quebec Bridge could have prevented its collapse.


Q. 73 Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.

There are many and good reasons why women have left little in the way of literary monuments, especially poetry. The main reason is education, or more specifically the lack of it in most women‘s lives until well into the twentieth century. In the light of this, what is surprising is not that so few women wrote poetry, but that any women wrote poetry at all. When a woman who had never been to grammar school, never learnt Latin and did not know the rules of syntax, let alone of prosody, set herself to writing lines that rhymed, she was imitating an art that, admire it though she might, she did not understand — a male art, a male tradition. This meant she generally produced poetry that was at best imperfect, at worst, frankly bad.


A. The reason why women haven‘t created literary monuments is because until recently they were not educated. In this case, the only option for an uneducated woman was to plagiarize in order to show herself as superior.

B. The lack of education is the biggest reason for women‘s lack of achievements in the literary sphere. In the absence of the knowledge of basics, she would see the male creations as ‘ideal‘ and try to copy them.

C. The lack of education is the biggest reason for women‘s lack of achievements in the literary sphere. Feeling inferior to educated men, they would imitate them in every area including literature.

D. The lack of education is the biggest reason for women‘s lack of achievements in the literary sphere. It suited men well since in such a scenario the women had no choice but to imitate the men.


Questions: 74 – 77

Recently, Rajesh visited the local casino where he came across a new card game. Two players, using a normal deck of 52 playing cards, play this game. One player is called the ‘dealer‘ and the other is called the ‘player‘. First, the player picks a card at random from the deck. This is called the base card. The amount in rupees equal to the face value of the base card is called the base amount. The face values of ace, king, queen and jack are ten. For other cards the face value is the number on the card. Once the ‘player‘ picks a card from the deck, the ‘dealer‘ pays him the base amount. Then the ‘dealer‘ picks a card from the deck and this card is called the top card. If the top card is of the same suit as the base card, the ‘player‘ pays twice the base amount to the ‘dealer‘. If the top card is of the same colour as the base card (but not the same suit), then the ‘player‘ pays the base amount to the ‘dealer‘. If the top card happens to be of a different colour than the base card, the ‘dealer‘ pays the base amount to the ‘player‘. Rajesh played the game four times. First time he picked eight of clubs and the ‘dealer‘ picked queen of clubs. Second time, he picked ten of hearts and the ‘dealer‘ picked two of spades. Next time, Rajesh picked six of diamonds and the ‘dealer‘ picked ace of hearts. Lastly, he picked eight of spades and the ‘dealer‘ picked jack of spades. Answer the following questions based on these four games.


Q. 74 If Rajesh stopped playing the game when his gain would be maximized, the gain in Rs. Would have been

A. 12

B. 20

C. 16

D. 4


Q. 75 The initial money Rajesh had (before the beginning of the game sessions) was Rs. X. At no point did he have to borrow any money. What is the minimum possible value of X?

A. 16

B. 8

C. 100

D. 24


Q. 76 If the final amount of money that Rajesh had with him was Rs. 100, what was the initial amount he had with him?

A. 120

B. 8

C. 4

D. 96


Q. 77 If Rajesh stopped playing the game when his loss would be maximumm, the loss in Rs. Would have been

A. -12

B. -20

C. -8

D. -4


Questions: 78 – 80

Answer the questions below on the basis of the following passage.

The communities of ants are sometimes very large, numbering even up to 500, individuals: and it is a lesson to us that no one has ever yet seen quarrel between any two ants belonging to the same community. On the other hand, it must be admitted that they are in hostility not only with most other insects, including ants of different species, but even with those of the same species if belonging to different communities. I have over and over again introduced ants from one of my nests into another nest of the same species; and they were invariably attacked, seized by a leg or an antenna, and dragged out. It is evident, therefore, that the ants of each community all recognize one another, which is very remarkable. But more than this, I several times divided a nest into two halves and found that even after separation of a year and nine months they recognize one another and were perfectly friendly, while they at once attacked ants from a different nest, although of the same species.

It has been suggested that the ant of each nest have some sign or password by which they recognize one another. To test this I made some of them insensible, first I tried chloroform; but this was fatal to them, and I did not consider the test satisfactory. I decided therefore to intoxicate them. This was less easy than I had expected. None of my ants would voluntarily degrade themselves by getting drunk. However, I got over the difficulty by putting them into whisky for a few moments. I took fifty specimens – – twenty five percent from one nest and twenty five percent from another made them dead drunk, market each with a spot of paint, and put them on a table close to where other ants from one the nests were feeding.

The table was surrounded as usual with a moat of water to prevent them from straying. The ants, which were feeding, soon noticed those, which I had made drunk. They seemed quite astonished to find their comrades in such a disgraceful condition, and as much at a loss to know what to do with their drunkards as we were. After a while, however, they carried them all away; the strangers they took to the edge of the moat and dropped into the water, while they bore their friends home into the nest, where by degrees they slept off the effects of the spirits. Thus it is evident that they know their friends even when incapable of giving any sign or password.


Q. 78 Attitudes of ants towards strangers of the same species may be categorized as

A. indifferent

B. curious

C. hostile

D. passive


Q. 79 The author’s anecdotes of the inebriated ants would support all the following inductions except the statement that

(I) ants take unwillingly to intoxicants

(II) ants aid comrades in distress

(III) ants have invariable recognition of their community members

(IV) ants recognize their comrades by a mysterious password.

A. I and II

B. I and III

C. Only III and IV

D. only IV


Q. 80 According to the passage, chloroform was less successful than alcohol for inhibiting communication because of

(I) its expense

(II) its unpredictable side effects

(III) its unavailability

(IV) its fatality

A. I and II

B. I and III

C. Only III and IV

D. only IV


Q. 81  All of the following sentences A, B, C and D are taken from a same passage and jumbled up. but one of them is incoherent. Find the incoherent statement.

A. Reliance Industries (RIL), India‘s largest company, saw its earnings before interest and taxes jump 15 per cent from the first quarter to the second, though net profits grew at a far more modest 2.6 per cent.

B. Part of the reason for this was a sharp, 8 per cent-plus fall in its refining margins, down from $8.40 per barrel in Q1 to $7.70 per barrel in Q2.

C. For RIL, refining and selling oil and making petrochemicals are not new. Investors understand these businesses and value them realistically.

D. This fall happened because the Asian demand — and, therefore, pricing — of lighter fuels like diesel and petrol was under pressure, possibly because most major emerging economies are growing slower than they were before.

Incoherent statement is:

A. A.

B. B.

C. C.

D. D.


Q. 82 All of the following sentences A, B, C and D are taken from a same passage and jumbled up. but one of them is incoherent. Find the incoherent statement.

Sachin did not ask for this honour.

A. There are consolation prizes which console, and some which char the soul.

B. I am not suggesting we write a condolence letter, but sympathy is certainly due to Sachin.

C. Membership of Parliament is a handsome freebie for Sachin Tendulkar

D. Nomination to the Rajya Sabha is a pretty desultory substitute for someone who has been promised the Bharat Ratna.

Delhi‘s politicians, ever eager to climb a bandwagon, led the clamour for Sachin‘s elevation to jewel of India after he got his 99th international hundred.

Incoherent statement is:

A. A.

B. B.

C. C.

D. D.


Q. 83 Education Secretary: Too many adults lack sufficient skills for job advancement because of the cost of higher education. Businesses should partner with educators to create curricula that are tailored to the needs of these people, thus increasing the likelihood that the cost of enrollment will be a safe investment.

Union Leader: What good is altering the curricula if students simply do not have the funds to enroll or the time to attend? What we need are more generous educational grants targeted to working adults, and more flexible work hours for working students. Both the education secretary and the union leader make the point that … ?

A. the cost of higher education for many adults is prohibitively high

B. many adult students do not have the time to attend courses in higher education

C. the cost of higher education is unfairly high

D. many adult students will not attend classes in higher education unless they are convinced that doing so will be a good investment.


Q. 84 In a political system with only two major parties, the entrance of a third-party candidate into an election race damages the chances of only one of the two major candidates. The third-party candidate always attracts some of the voters who might otherwise have voted for one of the two major candidates, but not voters who support the other candidate. Since a third-party candidacy affects the two major candidates unequally, for reasons neither of them has any control over, the practice is unfair and should not be allowed. If the factual information in the passage above is true, which of the following can be most reliably inferred from it?

A. If the political platform of the third party is a compromise position between that of the two major parties, the third party will draw its voters equally from the two major parties.

B. If, before the emergence of a third party, voters were divided equally between the two major parties, neither of the major parties is likely to capture much more than onehalf of the vote.

C. A third-party candidate will not capture the votes of new voters who have never voted for candidates of either of the two major parties.

D. The political stance of a third party will be more radical than that of either of the two major parties.


Q. 85 It is the powerful compound capsaicin that makes a chili pepper hot; “a single drop that has no taste and odor is capable of detection” by humans at one part per million.

A. a single drop that has no taste and odor is capable of detection

B. a single drop is detectable, though without taste and odor

C. a single tasteless and odorless drop can be detected

D. single tasteless and odorless drops are capable of detection


Q. 86 Old, longstanding firms concentrate on protecting what they have already amassed. Consequently, they rarely innovate and often underestimate what consequences innovation by other companies will have. The best example of one such defensive strategy is the fact that ___.

Which of the following best completes the passage?

A. electronics and mass-produced gears eliminated the traditional market for pocket watches, clearing the way for marketing them as elegant, old-fashioned luxury items.

B. an extremely popular prefabricated house was introduced by a company that, several years before, had failed miserably with its product line of glass houses.

C. a once-leading maker of buggy whips responds to the new availability of stick shifts by attempting to make better buggy whips.

D. smoking pipes, originally designed for use by typically older, more traditional smokers of tobacco, are now bought mostly by young smokers of scented or flavored herbal blends.


Q. 87 Arrange the sentences A, B, C and D in a proper sequence so as to make a coherent paragraph.

A. After several routine elections there comes a ‘critical’ election which redefines the basic pattern of political loyalties, redraws political geography and opens up political space.

B. In psephological jargon, they call it realignment.

C. Rather, since 1989, there have been a series of semi-critical elections.

D. On a strict definition, none of the recent Indian elections qualifies as a critical election.






Q. 88  Arrange the sentences A, B, C and D in a proper sequence so as to make a coherent paragraph.

A. Trivial pursuits marketed by the Congress, is a game imported from Italy.

B. The idea is to create an imaginary saviour in times of crisis so that the party doesn’t fall flat on its collective face.

C. Closest contenders are Mani Shankar Aiyar, who still hears His Master’s Voice and V. George, who is frustrated by the fact that his political future remains Sonia and yet so far.

D. The current champion is Arjun for whom all roads lead to Rome, or in this case, 10 Janpath.






Questions: 89 – 92

Directions for questions: Answer the questions based on the following

information. A and B are two sets (e.g. A = Mothers, B = Women). C = A . B =>The elements that could belong to both the sets (e.g. women who are mothers) is given by the set C = A . B. D = A ∪ B =>The elements which could belong to either A or B, or both, is indicated by the set D = A ∪ B.

∅ => A set that does not contain any elements is known as a null set represented by ∅ (e.g. if none of the women in the set B is a mother, then C = A .B is a null set, or C = ∅ ).

Let ‘V‘ signify the set of all vertebrates,

‘M‘ the set of all mammals,

‘D‘ dogs,

‘F‘ fish

‘A‘ alsatian and

‘P‘, a dog named Pluto.


Q. 89 Given that X = M.D is such that X = D. Which of the following is true?

A. All dogs are mammals

B. Some dogs are mammals

C. X = ∅

D. All mammals are dogs


Q. 90 If Y = F . (D . V) is not a null set, it implies that

A. all fish are vertebrates

B. all dogs are vertebrates

C. some fish are dogs

D. None of these


Q. 91 If Z = (P . D) ∪M, then

A. the elements of Z consist of Pluto, the dog, or any other mammal

B. Z implies any dog or mammal

C. Z implies Pluto or any dog that is a mammal

D. Z is a null set


Q. 92 If P . A = ∅ and P ∪ A = D, then which of the following is true?

A. Pluto and alsatians are dogs

B. Pluto is an alsatian

C. Pluto is not an alsatian

D. D is a null set


Questions: 93 – 95

Read each of the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Atmospheric jet streams were discovered towards the end of World War II by U.S. bomber pilots over Japan and by German reconnaissance aircraft over the Mediterranean. The World Meteorological Organization defines a jet stream as a strong, narrow air current that is concentrated along nearly horizontal axis in the upper troposphere or stratosphere (10 to 50km altitude), characterized by wind motions that produce strong vertical lateral shearing action and featuring one of more velocity maximum. Normally a jet stream is thousands of kilometers long, hundreds of kilometers wide and several kilometers deep. The vertical wind shear is of the order of 5 to 10 m/sec per kilometer, and the lateral shear is of the order of 5 m/sec per 100 km. An arbitrary lower limit of 30m/sec is assigned to the speed of the wind along the axis of a jet stream. With abundant radio-sonic data now available over the Northern Hemisphere it is possible to map the jet streams in the upper troposphere (near 10 to 12 km) in their daily occurrence and variation and to forecast them reasonably well with numerical prediction techniques. Upper-air information from the Southern Hemisphere is still sparse. Constant-level balloons (the so-called GHOST balloons) and satellite information on temperature structure and characteristic cloud formations in the atmosphere are serving to close the data on the global jet stream distribution. The strongest winds known in jet streams have been encountered over Japan, where speeds up to 500 km/hr (close to 300 knots) occur. A persistent band of strong winds occurs during the winter season over this region, flowing from the southwest and leading tropical air northern India into juxtaposition with polar and arctic air from Siberia. A similar region of confluence of air masses with vastly different temperatures exists over the central and eastern United States, leading to a maximum frequency of occurrence of jet streams during winter and spring.


Q. 93 An atmospheric jet stream is

A. a rare phenomenon.

B. three dimensional.

C. concentrated in the northern hemisphere.

D. more common in summer.


Q. 94 Detailed studies of atmospheric streams have been made over

A. South Africa

B. Europe

C. Australia

D. Antarctica


Q. 95 The atmospheric jet stream consists of

A. cumulous clouds bearing saturated moisture.

B. debris caused by meteorites.

C. air currents.

D. effluents from speeding aircraft.


Q. 96 Some decisions will be fairly obvious — ‘no-brainers‘. Your bank account is low, but you have a two week vacation coming up and you want to get away to some place warm to relax with your family. Will you accept your in-laws‘ offer of free use of their Florida beachfront condo? Sure. You like your employer and feel ready to move forward in your career. Will you step in for your boss for three weeks while she attends a professional development course? Of course.

Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

A. Some decisions are obvious under certain circumstances. You may, for example, readily accept a relative‘s offer of free holiday accommodation. Or step in for your boss when she is away.

B. Some decisions are no-brainers. You need not think when making them. Examples are condo offers from in-law and job offers from bosses when your bank account is low or boss is away.

C. Easy decisions are called ‘no-brainers‘ because they do not require any cerebral activity. Examples such as accepting free holiday accommodation abound in our lives.

D. Accepting an offer from in-laws when you are short on funds and want a holiday is a no-brainer. Another no-brainer is taking the boss‘s job when she is away.


Questions: 97 – 100

Direction for questions: Answer the questions based on the following information.

A series S₁ of five positive integers is such that the third term is half the first term and the fifth term is 20 more than the first term. In series S₂, the nth term defined as the difference between the (n+1) term and the nth term of series S₁, is an arithmetic progression with a common difference of 30.


Q. 97 First term of S₁ is

A. 80

B. 90

C. 100

D. 120


Q. 98 What is the difference between second and fourth terms of S₁?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 30

D. 60


Q. 99 What is the average value of the terms of series S₁?

A. 60

B. 70

C. 80

D. Average is not an integer


Q. 100 What is the sum of series S₂?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 30

D. 40



Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer A A C C A A A B C D
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer D A D B C C B A C D
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer D A A A A C A B C D
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer A A B A C B B B D A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer D C C B A A D C C B
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer D D D B B D C A B D
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer E B D B D D D D B C
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer D A B A B D C C D D
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C C A C C C A B A C
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer A C B B C A C A C B

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