CAT Previous Year Paper

Common Admission Test For Master of Business Application Post Graduation Degree

CAT 2016 Session 1

Question :- 1 – 4

Section I – Verbal Ability:-

Arrange the sentences A, B, C and D to form a logical sequence between sentences 1 and 6.

Q. 1 Amount of published information available varies widely by industry.

A. Unfortunately for the researcher, many industries do not meet these criteria, and there may be little published information available.

B. Generally, the problem the researcher will face in using published data for analysing an economically meaningful industry is that they are too broad or too arranged to fit the industry.

C. However, it is always possible to gain some important information about an industry from published sources and these sources should be aggressively pursued.

D. Larger the industry, the older it is, and the slower the rate of technological change, better is the available published information.


If a researcher starts a searching for data with this reality in mind, the uselessness of broad data will be better recognized and the tendency to give up will be avoided.






Q. 2 1. The main source of power in industrial undertaking is electricity.

A. Electricity from water also requires enormous river valley projects involving huge expenditure.


B. In contrast, electricity from atomic power stations will result in a tremendous saving in expenditure.

C. Besides, the mineral resources of the world required for generation of electricity are being rapidly depleted.

D. But the production of electricity needs huge quantities of coal.

6. The installation of atomic plants will help in meeting the shortage of these resources.






Q. 3 1. Intensity of competition in an industry is neither a matter of coincidence nor bad luck.

A. The collective strength of these forces determines the ultimate profit potential in the industry where profit potential is measured in terms of long run returns on invested capital.

B. Rather, competition in an industry is rooted in its underlying economic structure and goes well beyond the behavior of current competitors.

C. Not all industries have the same potential.

D. The state of competition in an industry depends on five basic competitive forces.

6. They differ fundamentally in their ultimate profit potential as the collective strength of the forces differ.






Q. 4 1. The New Economic Policy comprises the various policy measures and changes introduced since July 1991.

A. There is a common thread running through all these measures.

B. The objective is simple to improve the efficiency of the system.

C. The regulator mechanism involving multitude of controls has fragmented the capacity and reduced competition even in the private sector.


D. The thrust of the new policy is towards creating a more competitive environment as a means to improving the productivity and efficiency of the economy.

6. This is to be achieved by removing the banners and restrictions on the entry and growth of firms.






Questions: 5 – 7

A number of sentences are given below which, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph, Each sentence is labelled with a letter. However, One of the statement is illogically placed. Choose the illogically placed out of sentences from among the five given choices and construct a coherent paragraph from the remaining four sentences.


Q. 5 A. It is turning off the tap.

B. And with no consensus of the exit policy, the government is damned if it supports loss making units and damned if it doesn’t.

C. The private sector did the same in the past because securing legal sanction for closure was virtually impossible.

D. After years of funding the losses of public sector companies, the government is doing the unthinkable.

E. Private sector and public sector companies act in a similar fashion when in crisis.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E


Q. 6 A. Trade protocols were signed, the dollar as the medium of exchange was ignored, trade was denominated in rupees and the exchange rate between the two countries was to be fixed outside the ambit of free markets.

B. A young India, some years after independence fashioning her foreign policy of nonalignment, found it prudent to stay close to the former Soviet Union.


C. Therefore it lead to the escalation of cold war between Soviet Union and the U.S.A.

D. Once upon a time there was a super power named Soviet Union that attracted nations apprehensive of the global aspirations of the other superpower, the U.S.A.

E. One way of doing this was to evolve a bilateral relations in trade that could be called upon provide a buffer against the arm-twisting by the U.S.A.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E


Q. 7 A. I had heard that sort of thing before.

B. He said that his generation was the first to believe that it had no future.

C. A young American made earthling stopped by my house the other day to talk about some book of mine he had read.


D. He was the son of a Boston man who had died an alcoholic vagrant.

E. Alcohol had a devastating effect on this Boston based American family

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E


Question 8

Evidence has been presented that the unconscious mind, still viewed by many psychological scientists as the shadow of a ‘‘real’’ conscious mind, is identifiably more deliberate, action oriented and complex than its conscious counterpart. Furthermore researchers have proven that the mind is incredibly efficient at extracting meaning from stimuli of which one is not consciously aware. The claims above are made on conclusive experimentations in which test subjects who were allowed to sleep during a decision making process made more optimal decisions when compared to the subjects who were given the exact same amount of information but were not allowed to sleep, leading researchers to believe that rationality comes on the way of making a rational decision. Researchers explain that while the conscious mind can only follow strict rules, unconscious mind can handle and integrate a larger amount of information, explaining why it can make better decisions. Even more surprising than this unconscious mind’s ability is that the mental processes that drive such decision making are necessarily minimal and unsophisticated and do not require humongous amount of calories to make us arrive at the best decision whereas using conscious mind for complex decisions burns up a lot of energy, setting in fatigue, forcing the conscious mind to give up and leading to subconscious decisions. Overall, researchers agree that there is no need to have sleepless night pondering over a complex issue to resolve it when it can actually be solved more efficiently by snoring the night away.


Q. 8 The purpose of the passage is to:

A. highlight the differences among psychologists regarding the importance of the unconscious mind in making complex decisions.

B. contrast and compare the workings of the rationality with that of deliberate, action oriented and complex decision making processes.

C. prove by citing results of experiments that one decision making process is better than the other.

D. show that unconscious mind is not that undependable as previously thought.

E. ascertain that using conscious and unconscious minds together yield second-to-none judgments.


Question 9

French cuisine is highly regarded all over the world. Yet in Paris there are more American restaurants selling burgers and fries (which many people now class as junk food) than there are in any other European capital city. Obviously the French are very fond of junk food, and are not too proud to eat it. 


Q. 9 Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s contention?

A. There are also a larger number of Lebanese restaurants in Paris than there are in

other European capital cities

B. French Cordon Bleu cuisine is very expensive

C. The number of French tourists eating in New York burger restaurants is very low

D. Junk food is actually has high nutritional value when eaten in moderation

E. There are an unusually large number of American tourists in Paris who eat at burger joints


Question 10

In research designed to investigate the possibility of animals developing friendship with other, unrelated, members of their species, a group of 29 chimpanzees were reared together for 15 years. At the end of that time the chimps were presented with two options for obtaining food: press a lever and feed themselves, or press another identical lever and feed themselves, and at the same time deliver food to the chimp next door. (The chimps were able to see each other). The researchers found that the chimps were no more likely to choose the lever that fed a neighbour. The researchers concluded that the chimps had no concept of friendship. However, one critic has suggested that the animals were in an artificial environment from which little can be concluded, and that, at the least, the test ought to have involved the animals being able to touch. 


Q. 10 What role do the parts in boldface play in the argument above?

A. The first is a position that the critic opposes. The second is a position that the critic supports.


B. The first is an observation that supports the researcher’s position. The second is an observation that opposes the researcher’s position.


C. The first is a finding on which the researchers base their conclusion. The second is a suggestion that might cast doubt on that finding.

D. The first is an observation that supports the critic’s conclusion. The second is the critic’s conclusion.


E. The first is part of the evidence that the critic disputes. The second is a suggestion that the researchers do not accept.



Questions: 11 – 16

Reading Comprehension:

A conservation problem equally as important as that of soil erosion is the loss of soil fertility. Most agriculture was originally supported by the natural fertility of the soil; and, in areas in which soils were deep and rich in minerals, farming could be carried on for many years without the return of any nutrients to the soil other than those supplied through the natural breakdown of plant and animal wastes. In river basins, such as that of the Nile, annual flooding deposited a rich layer of silt over the soil, thus restoring its fertility. In areas of active volcanism, such as Hawaii, soil fertility has been renewed by the periodic deposition of volcanic ash. In other areas, however, natural fertility has been quickly exhausted. This is true of most forest soils, particularly those in the humid tropics. Because continued cropping in such areas caused a rapid decline in fertility and therefore in crop yields, fertility could be restored only by abandoning the areas and allowing the natural forest vegetation to return. Over a period of time, the soil surface would be rejuvenated by parent materials, new circulation channels would form deep in the soil, and the deposition of forest debris would restore minerals to the topsoil. Primitive agriculture in such forests was of shifting nature: areas were cleared of trees and the woody material burned to add ash to the soil; after a few years of farming, the plots would be abandoned and new sites cleared. As long as populations were sparse in relation to the area of forestland, such agricultural methods did little harm. They could not, however, support dense populations or produce large quantities of surplus foods. Starting with the most easily depleted soils, which were also the easiest to farm, the practice of using various fertilizers was developed. The earliest fertilizers were organic manures, but later, larger yields were obtained by adding balanced combinations of those nutrients (e.g. potassium, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium) that crop plants require in greatest quantity. Because high yields are essential, most modern agriculture depends upon the continued addition of chemical fertilizers to the soil. Usually these substances are added in mineral form, but nitrogen is often added as urea, an organic compound. Early in agricultural history, it was found that the practice of growing the same crop year after year in a particular plot of ground not only caused undesirable changes in the physical structure of the soil, but also drained the soil of its nutrients. The practice of crop rotation was discovered to be a useful way to maintain the condition of the soil, and also to prevent the build-up of those insects and other plant pests that are attracted to a particular kind of crop. In rotation systems, a grain crop is often grown the first year, followed by a leafy vegetable crop in the second year, and pasture crop in the third. The last usually contains legumes (e.g. clover, alfalfa), because such plants can restore nitrogen to the soil through the action of bacteria that live in nodules on their roots. In irrigation agriculture, in which water is brought in to supply the needs of crops in an area with insufficient rainfall, a particular soil-management problem that develops is the salinization (concentration of salts) of the surface soil. This most commonly results from inadequate drainage of the irrigated land; because the water cannot flow freely, it evaporates, and the salts dissolved in the water are left on the surface of the soil. Even though the water does not contain a large concentration of dissolved salts, the accumulation over the years can be significant enough to make the soil unsuitable for crop production. Effective drainage solves the problem; in many cases, drainage canals must be constructed, and drainage tiles must be laid beneath the surface of the soil. Drainage also requires the availability of an excess of water to flush the salts from the surface soil. In certain heavy soils with poor drainage, this problem can be quite severe; for example, large areas of formerly irrigated land in the Indus basin, in the Tigris-Euphrates region, in the Nile Basin, and in the Western United States, have been seriously damaged by salinization.




Q. 11 The areas most prone to salinization are

A. those irrigated with well-water.

B. those in which crop rotation is not practiced.

C. sub-tropical forests.

D. flat land irrigated from reservoirs.


Q. 12 The most appropriate title to his passage is

A. Problems of soil erosion

B. Agriculture in Volcanic islands.

C. The importance of chemical fertilizers.

D. Causes of and remedies of soil-infertility.


Q. 13 Natural fertility exhausts most quickly in

A. river valley lands

B. humid tropical forests

C. volcanic areas

D. lands near urban areas


Q. 14 The factor that can restore fertility to the soil not mentioned in the passage is

A. alluvium brought by rivers

B. bacterial action

C. fertilizer fixation through lightning

D. organic manure


Q. 15 Crop rotation helps to

I. increase the farmer’s seasonal income.

II. preserve soil condition.

III. desalinate the soil.

IV. destroy pests

A. I, II, III & IV

B. I, II & IV only.

C. II & IV only

D. II, III & IV only


Q. 16 One of the characteristics of agricultural land in Nile basin is

A. it contains a lot of bacteria.

B. it consists of heavy soil with poor drainage properties.

C. the Nile water contains an excess of salts.

D. it contains nutritive minerals.


Questions: 17 – 21


Scientism has left humanity in our technical mastery of inanimate nature, but improvised us in our quest for an answer to the riddle of the universe and of our existence in it. Scientism has done worse than that with respect to our status as social beings, that is, to our life with our fellow human beings. The quest for the technical mastery of social life, comparable to our mastery over nature, did not find scientism at a loss for an answer: reason suggested that physical nature and social life were fundamentally alike and therefore proposed identical methods for their domination. Since reason in the form of causality reveals itself most plainly in nature, nature became the model for the social world and the natural sciences the image of what the social sciences one day would be. According to scientism, there was only one truth, the truth of science, and by knowing it, humanity would know all. This was, however, a fallacious argument, its universal acceptance initiated an intellectual movement and a political technique which retarded, rather than furthered, human mastery of the social world. The analogy between the natural and social worlds is mistaken for two reasons. On the one hand human action is unable to model the social world with the same degree of technical perfection that is possible in the natural world. On the other hand, the very notion that physical nature is the embodiment of reason from which the analogy between natural and social worlds derives, is invalidated by modern scientific thought itself. Physical nature, as seen by the practitioner of science consists of a multitude of isolated facts over which human action has complete control. We know that water boils at a temperature of 212 degrees Fahrenheit and, by exposing water to this temperature, we can make it boil at will. All practical knowledge of physical nature and all control over it are essentially of the same kind. Scientism proposed that the same kind of knowledge and of control held true for the social world. The search for a single cause, in the social sciences, was but a faithful copy of the method of the physical sciences. Yet in the social sphere, the logical coherence of the natural sciences finds no adequate object and there is no single cause by the creation of which one can create a certain effect at will. Any single cause in the social sphere can entail an indefinite number of different effects, and the same effect can spring from an indefinite number of different effects, and the same effect can spring from an indefinite number of different causes.



Q. 17 The author’s attitude towards the application of scientism to the social sciences is best described as one of

A. committed scrutiny

B. dismissal

C. criticism

D. approval


Q. 18 According to the author, causes and effects in the social world are

A. unrelated to each other

B. difficult to identify or predict.

C. subject to manipulation at will.

D. reducible to a single cause for each effect.


Q. 19 Which of the following statements about scientism is best supported by the passage?

A. Scientism provides the basis for mastery of the social world

B. Scientism is only superficially concerned with cause-and – effect relationships

C. Scientism is poorly suited to explain social behaviour

D. Scientism is no longer applicable to the study of the natural sciences.


Q. 20 As is used in the passage, the term ‘scientism’ can best be defined as

A. belief that the methods of the physical sciences can be applied to all fields of enquiry.

B. faith that human beings can master their own physical limitations.

C. desire to keep the social sciences separate from the physical sciences

D. opinion that scientists must take moral responsibility for their actions


Q. 21 In the passage, the author is most concerned with doing which of the following?

A. Upholding the primacy of reason over superstition

B. Attacking a particular approach to the social sciences

C. Describing a method for achieving control over human social behaviour

D. Demonstration the superiority of the social sciences over the natural sciences


Questions: 22 – 25


From a vantage point in space, an observer could see that the Earth is engaged in a variety of motions. First, there is its rotation on its own axis, causing the alternation of day and night. This rotation, however, is not altogether steady. Primarily because of the moon’s gravitational action, the Earth‘s axis wobbles like that of an ill-spun top. In this motion, called ‘precession’, the North and South Poles each traces out the base of a cone in space, completing a circle every 25,800 years, In addition, as the Sun and the Moon change their positions with respect to the Earth, their changing gravitational effects result in a slight ‘nodding’ of the earth’s axis, called ‘mutation’, which is superimposed on precession. The Earth completes one of these ‘nods’ every 18.6 years. The earth also, of course, revolves around the Sun, in a 6-million mile journey that takes 365.25 days. The shape of this orbit is an ellipse, but it is not the center of the Earth that follows the elliptical path. Earth and Moon behave like an asymmetrical dumb-bell, and it is the center of mass of this dumb-bell that traces the ellipse around the sun. The center of the Earth-Moon mass lies about 3000 miles away from the center of the Earth, and the Earth thus moves in an S-curve that crosses and uncrosses its orbital path. Then too, the Earth accompanies the sun in the sun’s movements: 

first, through its local star cloud, and second, in a great sweep around the hub of its galaxy, the Milky Way that takes 200 million years to complete. 



Q. 22 The passage is most likely directed towards an audience of

A. geologists.

B. astronauts.

C. meteorologists interested in weather prediction.

D. person with little technical knowledge of astronomy.


Q. 23 Which of the following best describes the main subject of the passage?

A. The various types of the Earth’s motions

B. Past changes in the Earth’s position

C. The moon gravitational effect on the earth

D. Oddities of the Earth’s rotation of its axis.


Q. 24 The passage indicates that a single cycle of which of the following motions is completed in the shortest period of time?

A. Mutation.

B. Precession.

C. The Earth’s rotation on its axis.

D. The movement of the dumb-bell formed by the center of mass of Earth-Moon.


Q. 25 Which of the following techniques does the author use in order to make the descriptions of motion clear?

I. Comparison with familiar objects.

II. Reference of geometric forms.

III. Allusions to the works of other authors.

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only


Questions: 26 – 29


The connective tissues are heterogeneous group of tissues derived from the mesenchyme, a meshwork of stellate cells that develop in the middle layer of the early embryo. They have the general function of maintaining the structural integrity of organs, and providing cohesion and internal support for the body as a whole. The connective tissues include several types of fibrous tissue that vary only in their density and cellularity, as well as more specialized variants ranging from adipose tissue through cartilage to bone. The cells that are responsible for the specific function of an organ are referred to as it parenchyma, while the delicate fibrous meshwork that blinds the cells together into functional units, the fibrous partitions or septa that enclose aggregations of functional units, and the dense fibrous capsule that encloses the whole organ, collectively make up its connective-tissue framework, or stroma. Blood vessels, both large and small, course through connective tissues, which is therefore closely associated with the nourishment of tissues and organs throughout the body. All nutrient materials and waste products exchanged between the organs and the blood must traverse perivascular spaces occupied by connective tissue. One of the important functions of the connective – tissue cells is to maintain conditions in the extracellular spaces that favour this exchange. Some organs are suspended from the wall of a body cavity by thin sheets of connective tissues called mesenteries; others are embedded in adipose tissue a form of a connective tissue in which the cells are specialized for the synthesis and storage of energy-rich reserves of fat, or lipid. The entire body is supported from within by a skeleton composed of bone, a type of connective tissue endowed with great resistance to stress owing to its highly ordered, laminated structure and to its hardness, which results from deposition of mineral salts in its fibres and amorphous matrix. The individual bones of the skeleton are held firmly together by ligaments, and muscles are attached to bone by tendons, both of which are examples of dense connective tissue in which many fibre bundles are associated in parallel array to provide great tensile strength. At joints, the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with cartilage, a connective tissue with an abundant intercellular substance that gives it a firm consistency well adopted to permit smooth gliding movements between the opposed surfaces. The synovial membrane, which lines the margins of the joint cavity and lubricates and nourishes the joint surfaces, is also a form of connective tissue.



Q. 26 The passage has most probably been taken from a book on

A. neurology

B. nutrition

C. physiology

D. calisthenics


Q. 27 Mesenteries are

A. adipose tissue in which some organs are embedded.

B. referred to as parenchyma, and are responsible for specific functions of an organ.

C. thin sheets from which some organs are suspended.

D. cells through which blood flows.


Q. 28 Through perivascular spaces exchange takes place between

A. blood and organs.

B. cells and embryo.

C. nutrients and waste products.

D. septa and stroma.


Q. 29 Some instances of connective tissues are

I. Cartilage

II. Stroma

III. Lipid

IV. Synovia

A. I, II, III & IV

B. I, III & IV only

C. I, II, & IV only

D. I and II only


Questions: 30 – 34


Emile Durkheim, the first person to be formally recognized as a sociologist and the most scientific of the pioneers, conducted a study that stands as a research model for sociologists today. His investigation of suicide was, in fact, the first sociological study to use statistics. In suicide (1964, originally published in 1897) Durkheim documented his contention that some aspects of human behaviour – even something as allegedly individualistic as suicide – can be explained without reference to individuals. Like all of Durkheim’s work, suicide must be viewed within the context of his concern for social integration. Durkheim wanted to see if suicide rates within a social entity (for example, a group, organization, or society) are related to the degree to which individuals are socially involved (integrated and regulated). Durkheim describes three types of suicide: egoistic, anomic, and altruistic. Egoistic suicide is promoted when individuals do not have sufficient social ties. Since single (never married) adults, for example, are not heavily involved with the family life, they are more likely to commit suicide than are married adults. Altruistic suicide on the other hand, is more likely to occur when social integration is too strong. The ritual suicide of Hindu widows on their husbands’ funeral pyres is one example. Military personnel, trained to lay down their lives for their country, provide another illustration. Durkheim’s third type of suicide – anomic suicide increases when the social regulation of individuals is disrupted. For example, suicide rates increase during economic depressions. People who suddenly find themselves without a job or without hope of finding one are more prone to kill themselves. Suicides may also increase during period of prosperity. People may loosen their social ties by taking new jobs, moving to new communities, or finding new mates. Using data from the government population reports of several countries (much of it from the French Government Statistical Office), Durkheim found strong support for his line reasoning. Suicide rates were higher among single than married people, among military personnel than civilians, among divorced than married people, and among people involved in nationwide economic crises. It is important to realize that Durkheim’s primary interest was not in the empirical (observations) indicators he used such as suicide rates among military personnel, married people, and so forth. Rather, Durkheim used the following indicators to support several of his contentions: (1) Social behaviour can be explained by social rather than psychological factors; (2) suicide is affected by the degree of integration and regulation within social entities; and (3) Since society can be studied scientifically, sociology is worthy of recognition in the academic world. Durkheim was successful on all three counts. 



Q. 30 In his study of suicide Durkheim’s main purpose was

A. to document that suicide can be explained without reference to the individual.

B. to provide an explanation of the variation in the rate of suicide across societies.

C. to categorize various types of suicides.

D. to document that social behavior can be explained by social rather than psychological factors.


Q. 31 Single adults not heavily involved with family life are more likely to commit suicide. Durkheim categorized this as

A. anomic suicide.

B. altruistic suicide.

C. egoistic suicide.

D. Both (b) and (c)


Q. 32 According to Durkheim, suicide rates within a social entity can be explained in terms of

A. absence of social ties.

B. disruption of social regulation.

C. nature of social integration

D. All of the above.


Q. 33 Basing himself on his own indicators. Durkheim was

A. right on some counts, not others.

B. vindicated on all counts.

C. wrong but did not realize that he was right.

D. substantially correct but formally wrong.


Q. 34 To support his contentions, Durkheim relied on the following indicators

A. social behaviour is explicable predominantly through social factors.

B. suicide is contingent upon the degree of regulation and interaction.

C. recognizing sociology is to acknowledge that society is susceptible to scientific investigation.


D. All of the above.


Questions: 35 – 38

Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answerkey from one or two people who already possess the same. These people are called his/her “sources”. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer keys obtained from both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the source’s answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key. The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.



Q. 35 Which one among the following must have two sources?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 36 How many people (excluding the mastermind) needed to make answer keys before C could make his answer key?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5


Q. 37 Both G and H were sources to

A. F

B. B

C. I

D. None of the nine


Q. 38 Which of the following statements is true?

A. C introduced the wrong answer to question 27.

B. E introduced the wrong answer to question 46.

C. F introduced the wrong answer to question 14.

D. H introduced the wrong answer to question 46.


Questions: 39 – 42

The table below gives information about four different crops, their different quality categories and the regions where they are cultivated. Based on the information given in the table answer the questions given below 


Q. 39 How many regions produce medium qualities of Crop-1 or Crop-2 and also produce low quality of Crop-3 or Crop-4?

A. R4

B. R9

C. R8

D. R13


Q. 40 Which of the following statements is true?

A. All medium quality Crop-2 producing regions are also high quality Crop-3 producing regions.

B. All high quality Crop-1 producing regions are also medium and low Crop-4 producing regions. 

C. There are exactly five Crop-3 producing regions, which also produce Crop-4 but not Crop-2.

D. Some Crop-3, producing regions produce Crop-1, and high quality Crop-2.


Q. 41 How many low quality Crop-1 producing regions are either high quality Crop-4 producing regions or medium quality Crop-3 producing regions?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 42 How many high quality Crop 4 producing regions are there?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 9

D. 11


Questions: 43 – 46

A study was conducted to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.


Q. 43 Three of the following four pairs of countries have identical levels of dissimilarity. Which pair is the odd one out?

A. Malaysia & China

B. China & Thailand

C. Thailand & Japan

D. Japan & Malaysia


Q. 44 Which amongst the following countries is most dissimilar to India?

A. China

B. Japan

C. Malaysia

D. Thailand


Q. 45 Which of the following countries is least dissimilar to India?

A. China

B. Japan

C. Malaysia

D. Thailand


Q. 46 Which of the following pairs of countries are most dissimilar?

A. China & Japan

B. India & China

C. Malaysia & Japan

D. Thailand & Japan


Questions: 47 – 50

Purana and Naya are two brands of kitchen mixer-grinders available in the local market. Purana is an old brand that was introduced in 1990, while Naya was introduced in 1997. For both these brands, 20% of the mixer-grinders bought in a particular year are disposed off as junk exactly two years later. It is known that 10 Purana mixer-grinders were disposed off in 1997. The following figures show the number of Purana and Naya mixer-grinders in operation from 1995 to 2000, as at the end of the year.


Q. 47 How many Naya mixer-grinders were disposed off by the end of 2000?

A. 20

B. 124

C. 50

D. 74


Q. 48 How many Naya mixer-grinders were purchased in 1999?

A. 6

B. 10

C. 16

D. 17


Q. 49 How many Purana mixer-grinders were purchased in 1999?

A. 20

B. 24

C. 30

D. Cannot be determined


Q. 50 How many Purana mixer-grinders were disposed off in 2000?

A. 16

B. 20

C. 24

D. Cannot be determined


Questions: 51 – 54

The year was 2006. All six teams in Pool A of World Cup hockey, play each other exactly once. Each win earns a team three points, a draw earns one point and a loss earns zero points. The two teams with the highest points qualify for the semi-finals. In case of a tie, the team with the highest goal difference (Goal For – Goals Against) qualifies. In the opening match, Spain lost to Germany. After the second round (after each team played two matches), the pool table looked as shown below and no match was a draw. In the third round, Spain played Pakistan, Argentina played Germany, and New Zealand played South Africa. All the third round matches were drawn. The following are some results from the fourth and fifth round matches. (a) Spain won both the fourth and fifth round matches. (b) Both Argentina and Germany won their fifth round matches by 3 goals to 0. (c) Pakistan won both the fourth and fifth round matches by 1 goal to 0.


Q. 51 Which one of the following statements is true about matches played in the first two rounds?

A. Pakistan beat South Africa by 2 goals to 1.

B. Argentina beat Pakistan by 1 goal to 0.

C. Germany beat Pakistan by 2 goals to 1.

D. Germany beat Spain by 2 goals to 1.


Q. 52 Which one of the following statements is true about matches played in the first two rounds?

A. Germany beat New Zealand by 1 goal to 0.

B. Spain beat New Zealand by 4 goals to 0.

C. Spain beat South Africa by 2 goals to 0.

D. Germany beat South Africa by 2 goals to 1.


Q. 53 If Pakistan qualified as one of the two teams from Pool A, which was the other team that qualified?

A. Argentina

B. Germany

C. Spain

D. Cannot be determined


Q. 54 Which team finished at the top of the pool after five rounds of matches?

A. Argentina

B. Germany

C. Spain

D. Cannot be determined


Questions: 55 – 58 

Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies – A, B, C and D. Each of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and Steel, in no particular order. At the time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs.100. Venkat purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30%, and 40% from the stock of companies A, B, C and D, respectively. Returns arc defined as the change in the value of the stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result, the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or the Auto industry, the returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a half times that of the initially expected returns. For the remaining two companies, which did not announce extraordinarily good results, the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected.



Q. 55 What is the minimum average return Venkat would have earned during the year?

A. 30%

B. 31.25%

C. 32.5%

D. Cannot be determined


Q. 56 If Venkat earned a 35% return on average during the year, then which of these statements would necessarily be true?

I. Company A belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.

II. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.

III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.

IV. Company D did not announce extraordinarily good results.

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and IV only

D. II and IV only


Q. 57 If Venkat earned a 38.75% return on average during the year, then which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true?

I. Company C belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.

II. Company D belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.

III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.

IV. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and IV only

D. II and IV only


Q. 58 If Company C belonged to the Cement or the IT industry and did announce extraordinarily good results, then which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true?

I. Venkat earned not more than 36.25% return on average.

II. Venkat earned not less than 33.75% return on average.

III. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company A announced extraordinarily good results.

IV. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company B

A. I and II only

B. II and IV only

C. II and III only

D. III and IV only


Questions: 59 – 62

The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention lo host the 2096 Olympics. The eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each member representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in IOC. In any round of voting, the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated. The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event. A member is allowed to east votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined. (Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities (s)he voted for in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting). A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city (s)he represents is in contention in that round of voting. As long as the member is eligible, (s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round of voting. The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the maximum and minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that were cast in those rounds. It is also known that: All those who voted for London and Paris in round 1, continued to vote for the same cities in subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well. Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beijing or Paris in round 2. The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was 1. 50% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Paris in round 3. 


Q. 59 What percentage of members from among those who voted for New York in round I, voted for Beijing in round 2?

A. 33.33

B. 50

C. 66067

D. 75


Q. 60 What is the number of votes cast for Paris in round 1?

A. 16

B. 18

C. 22

D. 24


Q. 61 What percentage of members from among those who voted for Beijing in round 2 and were eligible to vote in round 3, voted for London?

A. 33.33

B. 38.10

C. 50

D. 66067


Q. 62 Which of the following statements must be true?

a. IOC member from New York must have voted for Paris in round 2.

b. IOC member from Beijing voted for London in round 3.

A. a

B. b

C. Both

D. None


Questions: 63 – 66

The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and Profitable Ltd. are disguised in the table as A, B, C and D, in no particular order. Further, it is known that: In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest market share. Aggressive Ltd.’s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.’s by Rs. 5 million.


Q. 63 What can be said regarding the following two statements?

Statement 1: Profitable Ltd. has the lowest share in MP market.

Statement 2: Honest Ltd.’s total revenue is more than Profitable Ltd.

A. If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily true.

B. If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily false.

C. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true.

D. Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is true.


Q. 64 What can be said regarding the following two statements?

Statement 1: Aggressive Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from MP.

Statement 2: Honest Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from Bihar.

A. If Statement 2 is true then Statement 1 is necessarily false.

B. If Statement 1 is false then Statement 2 is necessarily true.

C. If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily true.

D. None of the above.


Q. 65 What can be said regarding the following two statements?

Statement 1: Honest Ltd. has the highest share in the UP market.

Statement 2: Aggressive Ltd. has the highest share in the Bihar market.

A. Both statements could be true.

B. At least one of the statements must be true.

C. At most one of the statements is true.

D. None of the above


Q. 66 If Profitable Ltd.’s lowest revenue is from UP, then which of the following is true?

A. Truthful Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from MP.

B. Truthful Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from Bihar.

C. Truthful Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from UP.

D. No definite conclusion is possible.


Q. 67 Direction for questions: Answer the questions based on the following information. In a locality, there are five small cities: A, B, C, D and E. The distances of these cities from each other are as follows. AB = 2 km; AC = 2km; AD > 2 km; AE > 3 km; BC = 2 km; BD = 4 km; BE = 3 km; CD = 2 km; CE = 3 km; DE > 3 km. If a ration shop is to be set up within 3 km of each city, how many ration shops will be required?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 68 A cube of side 12 cm is painted red on all the faces and then cut into smaller cubes, each of side 3 cm. What is the total number of smaller cubes having none of their faces painted? 

A. 4

B. 8

C. 16

D. 24


Q. 69 If ABCD is a square and BCE is an equilateral triangle, what is the measure of ∠DEC? 

A. 15°

B. 30°

C. 20°

D. 45°


Q. 70 Instead of a metre scale, a cloth merchant uses a 120 cm scale while buying, but uses an 80 cm scale while selling the same cloth. If he offers a discount of 20% on cash payment, what is his overall profit percentage?

A. 20%

B. 25%

C. 40%

D. 15%


Q. 71 From a circular sheet of paper with a radius 20 cm, four circles of radius 5 cm each are cut out. What is the ratio of the uncut to the cut portion?

A. 1:3

B. 4:1

C. 3:1

D. 4:3


Q. 72 A wooden box (open at the top) of thickness 0.5 cm, length 21 cm, width 11 cm and height 6 cm is painted on the inside. The expenses of painting are Rs. 70. What is the rate of painting per square centimetres?

A. Re. 0.7

B. Re. 0.5

C. Re. 0.1

D. Re. 0.2


Q. 73 A, S, M and D are functions of x and y, and they are defined as follows.

A(x, y) = x + y; S(x, y) = x – y;

M(x, y) = xy; D(x, y) = x / y , y ≠ 0;

What is the value of M(M(A(M(x, y), S(y, x)), x), A(y, x)) for x = 2, y = 3?

A. 60

B. 140

C. 25

D. 70


Q. 74 The cost of diamond varies directly as the square of its weight. Once, this diamond broke into four pieces with weights in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4. When the pieces were sold, the merchant got Rs. 70,000 less. Find the original price of the diamond.

A. Rs. 1.4 lakh

B. Rs. 2 lakh

C. Rs. 1 lakh

D. Rs. 2.1 lakh


Q. 75 If n is any odd number greater than 1, then n(n2 – 1) is

A. divisible by 96 always

B. divisible by 48 always

C. divisible by 24 always

D. None of these


Q. 76 The figure shows a circle of diameter AB and radius 6.5 cm.

If chord CA is 5 cm long, find the area of ΔABC.

A. 78

B. 30

C. 45

D. 75

Q. 77 A watch dealer incurs an expense of Rs. 150 for producing every watch. He also incurs an additional expenditure of Rs. 30,000, which is independent of the number of watches produced. If he is able to sell a watch during the season, he sells it for Rs. 250. If he fails to do so, he has to sell each watch for Rs. 100. If he is able to sell only 1,200 out of 1,500 watches he has made in the season, then he has made a profit of

A. Rs. 90,000

B. Rs. 75,000

C. Rs. 45,000

D. Rs. 60,000


Q. 78 Once I had been to the post office to buy five-rupee, two rupee and one-rupee stamps. I paid the clerk Rs. 20, and since he had no change, he gave me three more one-rupee stamps. If the number of stamps of each type that I had ordered initially was more than one, what was the total number of stamps that I bought?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 16

D. 7


Q. 79 In ΔABC, ∠B is a right angle, AC = 6 cm, and D is the midpoint of AC. The length of BD is 

A. 1.5

B. 2

C. 3

D. 6


Q. 80 A salesman enters the quantity sold and the price into the computer. Both the numbers are two-digit numbers. But, by mistake, both the numbers were entered with their digits interchanged. The total sales value remained the same, i.e. Rs. 1,148, but the inventory reduced by 54. What is the actual price per piece?

A. Rs. 82

B. Rs. 41

C. Rs. 6

D. Rs. 28


Q. 81 In a locality, two-thirds of the people have cable TV, one-fifth have VCR, and one-tenth have both. What is the fraction of people having either cable -TV or VCR?

A. 19/30

B. 2/3

C. 17/30

D. 23/30


Q. 82 Given the quadratic equation x² – (A – 3)x – (A – 2), for what value of A will the sum of the squares of the roots be zero?

A. -2

B. 3

C. 6

D. None


Q. 83 If a₁ = 1 and aₙ₊₁ – 3aₙ + 2 = 4n for every positive integer n, then a₁₀₀ equals

A. 3⁹⁹ – 200

B. 3⁹⁹ + 200

C. 3¹⁰⁰ – 200

D. 3¹⁰⁰ + 200


Q. 84 In a mile race, Akshay can be given a start of 128 m by Bhairav. If Bhairav can give Chinmay a start of 4 m in a 100 m dash, then who out of Akshay and Chinmay will win a race of one and half miles, and what will be the final lead given by the winner to the loser? (One mile is 1,600 m.)

A. Akshay, 1/12 mile

B. Chinmay, 1/32 mile

C. Akshay, 1/24 mile

D. Chinmay, 1/16 mile


Q. 85 Two liquids A and B are in the ratio 5 : 1 in container 1 and 1 : 3 in container 2. In what ratio should the contents of the two containers be mixed so as to obtain a mixture of A and B in the ratio 1 : 1?

A. 2:3

B. 4:3

C. 3:2

D. 3:4


Q. 86 A man travels three-fifths of a distance AB at a speed 3a, and the remaining at a speed 2b. If he goes from B to A and return at a speed 5c in the same time, then

A. 1/a + 1/b = 1/c

B. a + b = c

C. 1/a + 1/b = 2/c

D. None of these


Q. 87 There are five machines A, B C, D and E situated on a straight line at distances of 10 metres, 20 metres, 30 metres, 40 metres and 50 metres respectively from the origin of the line. A robot is stationed at the origin of the line. The robot serves the machines with raw material whenever a machine becomes idle. All the raw material is located at the origin. The robot is in an idle state at the origin at the beginning of a day. As soon as one or more machines become idle, they send messages to the robot-station and the robot starts and serves all the machines from which it received messages. If a message is received at the station while the robot is away from it, the robot takes notice of the message only when it returns to the station. While moving, it serves the machines in the sequence in which they are encountered, and then returns to the origin. If any messages are pending at the station when it returns, it repeats the process again. Otherwise, it remains idle at the origin till the next message(s) is received. Suppose on a certain day, machines A and D have sent the first two messages to the origin at the beginning of the first second, and C has sent a message at the beginning of the 5th second and B at the beginning of the 6th second, and E at the beginning of the 10th second. How much distance in metres has the robot travelled since the beginning of the day, when it notices the message of E? Assume that the speed of movement of the robot is 10 metres per second.

A. 140

B. 80

C. 340

D. 360


Q. 88 Out of two-thirds of the total number of basketball matches, a team has won 17 matches and lost 3 of them. What is the maximum number of matches that the team can lose and still win more than three fourths of the total number of matches, if it is true that no match can end in a tie?

A. 4

B. 2

C. 6

D. 3


Q. 89 What value of x satisfy x²/³ + x¹/³ – 2 ≤ 0?

A. –8 ≤ x ≤ 1

B. –1 ≤ x ≤ 8

C. 1 < x < 8

D. 1 ≤ x ≤ 8

E. –8 ≤ x ≤ 8


Q. 90 The points of intersection of three lines 2X + 3Y – 5 = 0, 5X – 7Y + 2 = 0 and 9X – 5Y – 4= 0 

A. form a triangle

B. are on lines perpendicular to each other

C. are on lines parallel to each other

D. are coincident


Q. 91 A man has 9 friends: 4 boys and 5 girls. In how many ways can he invite them, if there have to be exactly 3 girls in the invitees?

A. 150

B. 160

C. 180

D. 200


Q. 92 In a watch, the minute hand crosses the hour hand for the third time exactly after every 3 hr 18 min and 15 s of watch time. What is the time gained or lost by this watch in one day? 

A. 14 min 10s lost

B. 13 min 50s lost

C. 13 min 20s gained

D. 14 min 40s gained


Q. 93 I sold two watches for Rs. 300 each, one at the loss of 10% and the other at the profit of 10%. What is the percentage of loss(–) or profit(+) that resulted from the transaction? 

A. (+)10

B. (–)1

C. (+)1

D. (–)10


Questions: 94 – 95

A series S1 of five positive integers is such that the third term is half the first term`and the fifth term is 20 more than the first term. In series S2, the nth term defined as the difference between the (n+1) term and the nth term of series S1, is an arithmetic progression with a common difference of 30.



Q. 94 Second term of S2 is

A. 50

B. 60

C. 70

D. None of these


Q. 95 What is the average value of the terms of series S1?

A. 60

B. 70

C. 80

D. None of these


Q. 96 If log₁₀x – log₁₀√x = 2 logₓ10, then a possible value of x is given by

A. 10

B. 1/100

C. 1/1000

D. None of these


Q. 97 What is the sum of all two-digit numbers that give a remainder of 3 when they are divided by 7?

A. 666

B. 676

C. 683

D. 777


Q. 98 There are 12 towns grouped into four zones with three towns per zone. It is intended to connect the towns with telephone lines such that every two towns are connected with three direct lines if they belong to the same zone, and with only one direct line otherwise. How many direct telephone lines are required?

A. 72

B. 90

C. 96

D. 144


Q. 99 If both a and b belong to the set {1, 2, 3, 4}, then the number of equations of the form ax² + bx + 1 = 0 having real roots is

A. 5

B. 7

C. 9

D. 11


Q. 100 If three positive real numbers x, y, z satisfy y – x = z – y and xyz = 4, then what is the minimum possible value of y?

A. 21/3

B. 22/3

C. 21/4

D. 23/4



Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer B C A B E C E E C C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer D D B C C B C B C A
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer B D A C C C C A C A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer C D B D B C D C B C
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C B C A B C B C D B
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer D B D D A B C B D D
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer D A B C C C A B A A
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer C C D C C B B A C B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer B D C D D C A A A D
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B B B D C B B B B B

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