Commerce - Page 2 of 4 - Vidhyarthi Darpan

CA CPT Previous Year Paper December 2014

CA CPT DECEMBER 2014

Session – I

Part A – Fundamentals of Accounting

Q. 1 In Income measurement & recognition of assets & liabilities which of the following concepts goes together?

A. Periodicity, Accrual, matching

B. Cost, Accrual, matching

C. Going concern, cost, Realization

D. Going concern, Periodicity, Reliability

Q. 2 _______________is root cause for financial accounting?

A. Stewardship accounting

B. Social accounting

C. Management accounting

D. Human resource accounting.

Q. 3 Gyan received Rs.5,000 in advance but he credited to sale account. Which of the following concept he did not follow?

A. Accrual

B. Conservatism

C. Consistency

D. Going concern

Q. 4 Change in Accounting estimate means:

A. Certain parameters estimate in earlier and re-estimates in the current period

B. Certain parameters estimate in earlier and actual results achieved during current year

C. Certain parameters re-estimated during the current period and actual result achieved during the previous period

D. Both (a) & (b)

Q. 5 Interpretation means

A. Explanation of meaning and significance of the data in Financial Statements.

B. Concerned with preparation and presentation of classified data

C. Systematic analysis of recorded data

D. Methodical classification of data given in Financial Statements.

Q. 6 A trader purchased goods for Rs. 25,00,000, of these 70% of goods were sold during the year. At the end of 31st December 2009, the market value of such goods were Rs.5,00,000. But the trader recorded in his books for Rs.7,50,000. Which of the following concept is violated.

A. Money measurement

B. Conservatism

C. Consistency

D. None of these

Q. 7 Matching the following :

A. a – iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-I

B. a-ii, b-iv, c-I, d-iii

C. a-ii, b-iii, c-I, d-iv

D. a-iii, b-iv, c-I, d-ii

Q. 8 Which of the following is wrong?

A. All real and personal accounts are transferred to balance sheet

B. Nominal accounts are transferred to P & Laccount

C. Each account is opened separately in ledger

D. Rent is a personal account, outstanding rent is nominal account

Q. 9 Agreement of Trial balance isnot a _____________ proof of accuracy

A. Submissive

B. Inclusive

C. Exhaustive

D. Conclusive

Q. 10 Capital- Rs. 2,00,000 Interest paid- Rs. 2310

Debtors- Rs. 15,200 Discount allowed- Rs. 820

Creditors-Rs.12,960 Discount received-Rs. 1030

Purchases- Rs. 92,670 Rent – Rs. 14,670 Sales- Rs. 1,16,850 Loan – Rs. 12,060

Opening stock – Rs. 56,000

Sales returns – Rs. 27,430

Debit Total of Trial Balance will be

A. Rs. 2,09,000

B. Rs. 2,09,100

C. Rs. 2,10,000

D. None of these

Q. 11 In Journal Entries which pertain to outstanding entries, prepaid entries, depreciation entries are called:

A. Adjustment Entries

B. Rectification Entries

C. Transfer Entries

D. closing Entries

Q. 12 A building worth Rs.35 lakhs was purchased and it was dismantled with Rs.1 lakh and it was decided to build as shopping mall. The cost of construction of building was Rs.50,00,000 and inauguration expenses of Rs.50,000. The amount of capital expenditure is

A. Rs. 86,00,000

B. Rs. 86,50,000

C. Rs. 85,50,000

D. Rs. 85,00,000

Q. 13 Which of the following is not a difference between provision & contingent liability

A. A provision meets the recognition criteria where as contingent liability fails to meet the same

B. Provision is a present liability of uncertain amount where as contingent liability is

possible bligation which arises from past events

C. Provision can’t be measured where as contingent liability is absolutely measured

D. None of the above

Q. 14 In a three column cash book the discount columns are:

A. Totalled but not adjusted

B. Totalled and adjusted

C. Totalled but not balanced

D. None of the above

Q. 15 After rectification of the following errors, effect on Net profit will be:

i) A cheque dishonoured Rs.3,100 debited to discount A/c

ii) Sales book (undercast) short by Rs.23,000

iii) A customer returned goods of value of Rs.1,200, included in stock but not recorded

A. Increased by Rs. 24,900

B. Decreased by Rs. 24,900

C. Increased by Rs. 23,700

D. No change

Q. 16 The following are the errors committed while the entries are posted in ledger.

1) Errors of Principle

2) Errors of commission.

3) Errors of Partial omission

4) Errors of complete omission.

A. 1,2,3,4

B. 2,3,4

C. 1,2,4

D. 1,3,4

Q. 17 Cash Book O.D. Balance Rs. 2,000. It was found that cheques of Rs. 100, Rs. 150, Rs. 175 which are issued but not presented till the date and the cheque of Rs. 600 deposited but have not been cleared, then O.D. Balance as per pass book is:

A. Rs. 2150

B. Rs. 2175

C. Rs. 1475

D. Rs. 1925

Q. 18 Bank Balance O.D. as per pass book Rs. 26,500.Calculate balance as per cash book is:

1) Cheques deposited for Rs. 4700 but not collected

2) Cheques issued for Rs. 11,000 but notpresented

3) Bill discounted and dishonoured Rs. 4000, and Bank paid noting charges Rs. 200

A. Rs.28600 O.D

B. Rs.16000 O.D

C. Rs.24000 O.D

D. Rs.28500 O.D

Q. 19 Which method is exception to non-historical cost methods

A. Adjusted selling price

B. Latest purchase price

C. Standard Cost

D. Weighted average

Q. 20 Cost of physical inventory on 15-04-2014 was Rs.3,00,000. Sales amounting to Rs.1,00,000 and purchases worth Rs.50,000 were made between 31-03-2014 to 15-4-2014. Goods are sold at 20% profit on sales. Value of Inventory as on 31-3-2014 is

A. Rs. 3,50,000

B. Rs. 2,70,000

C. Rs. 3,00,000

D. Rs. 3,30,000

Q. 21 Average stock Rs. 14,000, closing stock is Rs. 3,000 more than the opening stock, then closing tock is__________

A. Rs. 15,500

B. Rs. 15,000

C. Rs. 12,200

D. Rs. 12,000

Questions: 22 – 23

Q. 22 Which method of valuation is adopted in above table:

A. FIFO

B. LIFO

C. Weighted average

D. None of these

Q. 23 Closing stock from above adopted method is

A. Units 200 amount Rs. 2300

B. Units 200 amount Rs. 2000

C. Units 200 amount Rs. 2,600

D. None of these

Q. 24 Rohan Ltd is in the business of extracting coal from mines. It should charge depreciation as per method.

A. Sinking fund

B. Annuity

C. Production units

D. Depletion method

Q. 25 Cost of machine is Rs.1,00,000 Scrap value Rs. 10,000 and life is 4 years. What will be the amount of depreciation in 3rd year according to sum of years digits method:

A. Rs.40,000

B. Rs.27,000

C. Rs.9,000

D. Rs.18,000

Q. 26 A Trader followed WDV method of depreciation, the book value of Asset after 4 years is 24% of original cost. Find rate of depreciation.

A. 24%

B. 26%

C. 32 %

D. 30%

Q. 27 Loss on sale of machinery is credited to account.

A. Machinery A/c

B. Purchase A/c

C. Profit & Loss A/c

D. None of these

Q. 28 A machine purchased for Rs. 2,50,000 on 1.1.2010. It can produce 30,000 units during its useful life, its estimated scrap value is Rs. 10,000. The pattern of production over the next 4 years is as follows 2010 – 6250 units, 2011- 2275 units, 2012-12,000 units, 2013-3452 units, the WDV of the machine after 3rd year will be

A. Rs. 85,800

B. Rs. 1,54,200

C. Rs. 58,158

D. Rs. 1,91,816

Q. 29 The assets which were earlier revalued upward and now revalued downward, to the extent of earlier upward revaluation amount should be.

A. Credited to Revaluation Reserve A/c

B. Debited to Revaluation Reserve A/c

C. Credited to P&L A/c

D. Debited to P&L A/c

Q. 30 From the following information find the amount to be debited to P & L A/c for the period ending 31-03-2014.

Provision for doubtful debts – Rs. 800 (on01-04-2013)

Debtors on 31-03-2014 – Rs. 40,000

Bad debts – Rs. 2,000

Bad debts to be written off and provision for doubtful debts is to be created @ 5% on debtors

A. Rs. 3100

B. Rs. 4000

C. Rs. 3200

D. Rs. 3900

Q. 31 Opening Stock Rs.30,000,

Cost of goods available for sale Rs. 1,60,000,

Sales were Rs. 1,60,000.

Gross profit on sales is 30%

Calculate closing stock.

A. Nil

B. Rs. 48,000

C. Rs. 98,000

D. None of the above

Q. 32 By products are generally valued at when the cost of by products is not directly traceable.

A. Cost of main products

B. N.R.V.

C. Cost of main product or N.R.V. whichever is lower

D. None of these

Q. 33 The purpose of Accommodation bill

A. To facilitate trade transmission

B. To finance the actual purchases& sales

C. When both parties are in need of funds

D. None of these

Q. 34 A draws a bill for Rs. 20,000 on ‘B’. ‘B’ Accepts for 2 months. After 1 month ‘B’ paid the bill amount @9%. Journal entry in the Books of ‘B’ will be

A. Bank A/c Dr. 20,000 To Bills payable A/c 20,000

B. Bank A/c Dr. 20,000 To Bills payable A/c 19,850 To Discount A/c 150

C. Bills payable A/c Dr. 20,000 To Bank A/c 20,000

D. Bills payable A/c Dr. 20,000 To Discount A/c 150 To Bank A/c 19,850

Q. 35 Promissory note features

1) Must be stamped

2) Payee must sign

3) Conditional undertaking

4) Certain amount

5) Not transferable to bearer

A. 1, 2, 3, 4

B. 1, 4, 5

C. All of the above

D. None of these

Q. 36 In the absence of agreement, the loss of goods in consignee godown is borne by

A. Consignor

B. Consignee

C. Both a & b

D. Insurance Company

Q. 37 Goods sent on consignment for Rs.50,000. During transit 1/10th of goods were destroyed by fire. Again 1/9th of goods received by consignee were destroyed by fire in godown. Half of the original goods were sold for Rs.30,000. Freight & insurance paid by consignor Rs.2,500 and Rs.1500 respectively.

Calculate closing Stock.

A. Rs.24,000

B. Rs.21,600

C. Rs.20,000

D. Rs.16,200

Q. 38 Yogam consigned cost of goods of Rs. 1,00,000 at an invoice price of 20% above cost. Consignee is entitled to 5% commission on sales up to Invoice price, 20% on sales which exceeds invoice price, 2% delcredre commission on credit sales. He sold 25% of goods for cash for Rs. 40,000 and 50% of goods on credit for Rs. 70,000, 10% of goods taken by consignee. Calculatecommission?

A. Rs. 10,500

B. Rs.9900

C. Rs.10,200

D. None of these

Q. 39 In case of Joint Venture business, method of Accounting to be followed and decided by

A. Separate Act for J.V.

B. Accounting Standard

C. Co-venturer as per their convenience

D. ICAI

Q. 40 In case of purchase of machinery in joint venture through joint bank A/c, while separate set of books is maintained. Which of the following is the correct entry:

A. Debit machinery, creditjoint bank A/c

B. Debit machinery, credit joint venture A/c

C. Debit Joint venture, credit joint bankA/c

D. Debit Joint venture A/c, Credit machinery A/c

Q. 41 ‘A’ and ‘B’ enter into a joint venture business ‘A’ purchased goods worth Rs. 30,000 and ‘B’ sold for Rs. 40,000. ‘A’ is entitled to 1% commission on purchases and ‘B’ is entitled to 5% commission on sales. The profit on venture to be shared by A & B is (The profit sharing ratio is 2:1)

A. Rs. 4000 : Rs. 2000

B. Rs. 5133 : Rs. 2567

C. Rs. 5000 : Rs. 2500

D. Rs. 4200 : Rs. 2100

Q. 42 In Case of insufficient profits i.e., profits less than interest on capital then the profits are distributed in :

A. Profit sharing ratio

B. Capital ratio

C. Not distributed

D. None of these

Q. 43 A, B & C are partners sharing profit & losses in the ratio 5: 3 : 2. B retires firm. Value of goodwill is Rs. 1,20,000. Goodwill is to be raised. Show theeffect.

A. Revaluation account will be credited

B. C’s capital account will be credited by Rs. 36,000

C. Rs. 1,20,000 will be credited to all partners capitalaccount

D. None of these

Q. 44 A, B are partners sharing profit & losses in the ratio of 5 : 3. ‘C’ admitted as a new partner for 1/5th share and his capital is Rs. 1,20,000 & goodwill Rs. 60,000 Capitals of A, B & C were Rs/-

A. 3,00,000 : 1,20,000 : 1,80,000

B. 3,00,000 : 1,80,000 : 1,20,000

C. 3,00,000 : 1,80,000 : 1,80,000

D. 3,00,000 : 1,20,000 : 1,20,000

Q. 45 At the time of admission the unrecorded investments Rs. 30,000 should be treated, the adjustment entry will be

A. Unrecorded investment A/c Dr. 30,000 To Revaluation 30,000

B. Revaluation A/c Dr. 30,000 To Unrecorded Investment A/c 30,000

C. Partners capital A/c Dr. 30,000 To unrecorded Investment A/c 30,000

D. Unrecorded Investment A/c Dr. 30,000 To Partners capital A/c 30,000

Q. 46 Kapur and sharma are partners in partnership firm. Calculate the interest on drawings of kapur and sharma @ 10% p.a. for the year ending on 31st December 2013. Kapur withdrew Rs. 2,000/- per month in the beginning where as sharma withdrew same amount at the end of every month

A. Kapur Rs. 2,400, sharma Rs. 2,400

B. Kapur Rs. 1,100, sharma Rs. 1,300

C. Kapur Rs. 1,200, sharma Rs. 1,200

D. Kapur Rs. 1,300, sharma Rs. 1,100

Q. 47 Neeraj & Gopi are partners with Rs.5,00,000 capital each. They admitted champak for 1/4th share with Rs.8,00,000 capital. The P & L A/c credit balance is Rs.4,00,000. Find the amount of hidden goodwill

A. Rs.10,00,000

B. Rs.12,00,000

C. Rs.8,00,000

D. Rs.16,00,000

Q. 48 Angola & Bangola sharing profits 2 : 3, Mangola joined the firm. Angola gave 1/3rd of his share, Bangola gave 1/4th of his share. What is new profit sharing ratio?

A. 17:27:37

B. 16:27:17

C. 17:27:17

D. None of the sev

Q. 49 When goodwill is withdrawn by the partners _____________ account is credited.

A. Cash

B. Partners capital A/c

C. Partners loan a/c

D. Goodwill A/c

Q. 50 A & B are in partnership sharing profits & losses in the proportion of 3:1 respectively. On 1-

4-2013, they admitted ‘c’ into partnership on the following terms.

i) ‘C’ is to purchase 1/3rd of the goodwill for Rs.2000/- by paying cash

ii) future profits & losses are to be shared by A, B & C equally Set out the entry to the above arrangement in the firm journal

A. Cash/Bank A/c Dr. 2,000 To ‘A’ s capital A/c 2,000

B. Cash/Bank A/c Dr. 2,000 ‘B’ s capital A/c Dr. 500 To ‘A’s capital A/c 2,500

C. Cash/Bank A/c Dr. 2000 To Goodwill A/c 2,000

D. Cash/Bank A/c Dr. 2000 To ‘A’s capital A/ 1500 To ‘B’s capital A/ 500

Q. 51 The maximum number of partners is mentioned in

A. Companies Act

B. Partnership Act

C. Limited Partnership Act

D. None of these

Q. 52 When goods sent on approval, buyer become owner of goods when:

A. When he accepts the goods

B. When the time of approval was over

C. When he done any act in respect of getting possession of goods

D. All of these

Q. 53 ‘A’ sent some goods costing Rs.3500 at a profit of 25% on sale to ‘B’ on sale or return basis. ‘B’returned goods costing Rs. 800. At the end of accounting period on 31st December 2011 the remaining goods were neither returned nor approved by him. Closing stock on approval basis to be shown in the balance sheet will be

A. Rs. 2000

B. Rs. 2700

C. Rs. 2700 less 25% of Rs. 2700

D. Rs. 3500

Q. 54 As per companies Act 1956 application money more than ________________ % of nominal value of the share and as per SEBI guidelines application money atleast % of issue price

A. 5 %, 25%

B. 25%, 25%

C. 5%, 5%

D. 25%, 5%

Q. 55 MAR Ltd forfeited 300 shares of Rs. 10/- each fully called up for non payment of final call money of Rs.4/- per share. These shares are subsequently reissued for Rs.12 per share as fully paid up. What amount should be transferred to capital reserve account.

A. Rs. 2,400

B. Rs. 3,000

C. Rs. 1,800

D. Rs. 3,600

Q. 56 A company has a subscribed capital of Rs. 80,00,000 in shares of Rs. 100 each. There are no calls in arrears till the final call. The payment on final call was received for 77,500 shares. The mount of calls in arrears Rs. 67,500. Then the amount of final call is

A. Rs. 25

B. Rs. 27

C. Rs. 20

D. Rs. 65.20

Q. 57 Zebra Ltd invites applications for 50,000 shares for which 2/- per share is payable on application. Applications received for 80,000 shares and 70,000 shares are allotted on prorate basis. How much application money will be adjusted to allotment, when Mr. Lion who has allotted 200 shares.

A. Rs. 100

B. Rs. 160

C. Rs. 240

D. Rs. 80

Q. 58 Ajay Ltd decides to redeem 10,000 preference shares of Rs. 10/- each at 10% premium. Balance in P & L A/c is Rs. 65,000 and securities premium A/c is Rs. 5,000. You are required to calculate the minimum number of equity shares at the rate of Rs. 10/- each at 20% discount

A. 3125

B. 5625

C. 5000

D. None of these

Q. 59 Unless otherwise stated preference shares always deemed to:

A. Cumulative, Participating, Convertible

B. Cumulative, Non-Participating, Nonconvertible

C. Non-Cumulative, Participating, Non- Convertible

D. Non-Cumulative, Non-Participating, Convertible

Q. 60 When the debentures are issued as collateral security for a loan then such debenture holders are entitled to

A. Interest on the amount of loan

B. Interest on the amount of debenture

C. No Interest amount

D. Either (a) or (b)

Part B – Mercantile Laws

Q. 61 A Void Contract is _________

A. An agreement which is not enforceable bylaw

B. A Contract which ceases to be enforceable by law

C. An agreement which is voidable at the option of promisee

D. An agreement which is voidable at the option of promisor

Q. 62 Which of the following is not correct?

A. Offer must not be conditional

B. Acceptance may be given in anymanner

C. Acceptance must be absolute

D. Communication of offer is an essentialelement

Q. 63 Original offer is rejected when there is _____________

A. Standing offer

B. Cross offer

C. Counter offer

D. None of the above

Q. 64 A person advertised in newspaper to sell his old car. Then the offer is _________

A. General offer

B. Specific offer

C. Continuing offer

D. None of the above

Q. 65 Which of the following is true?

A. There can be a stranger to Contract

B. There can be a stranger to consideration

C. There can be both stranger to consideration and stranger to Contract

D. None of the above

Q. 66 If in a Contract both legal and illegal part exists, the legal part is separable from illegal part, then the legal part is _________

A. Valid

B. Void

C. Voidable

D. Illegal

Q. 67 A promise to pay time barreddebt must be ______

A. An oral promise

B. An implied promise

C. In writing and signed by debtor or his authorized agent

D. None of the above

Q. 68 Maheswari promises to give Raman 1kg of opium if he destroys property of Nikhil. In this case _____

A. There is unlawful consideration

B. There is unlawful object

C. There is unlawful consideration and object is partly unlawful

D. Both consideration and object are unlawful

Q. 69 For the necessaries supplied to a minor, the amount can be recovered from ____________

A. Minor’s personally

B. Minor’s estate

C. Minor’s Guardian

D. Minor is not at all liable

Q. 70 Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. In matters of fraud, intention to defraudis essential

B. Where consent to a Contract is obtained by misrepresentation, Contract is voidable

C. A unilateral mistake renders agreement void

D. Mistake of foreign law is equal to mistake of fact

Q. 71 told B that he gives Rs. 500 if it rains and B told to give like amount if it does not rain. The agreement is ________________

A. Contingent Contract

B. Wagering agreement

C. Future Contract

D. None of the above

Q. 72 Quasi Contractual liabilities leadto ___________

A. Prevention of unjust enrichment

B. Counter Offer

C. Cross Offer

D. Specific Offer

Q. 73 A person finds goods belonging to another person in a public place. In such a case, the finder

A. Becomes owner of the goods

B. Does not become owner of the goods, but can use them

C. Is under duty to trace the owner and return the goods to him

D. Can sell them with out taking any effort to trace the owner

Q. 74 Amar promises to paint a picture for Rambabu. Here, the promise must be performed by Amar himself, because

A. It is of mercantile nature

B. It is based on personal skill of Amar

C. Cannot be performed by his legal representatives

D. Can be rescinded by the promisee

Q. 75 If no time is specified for performance of a Contract, it must be performed with in a reasonable time. “ Reasonable time” means ___

A. Which seems reasonable to thepromisor

B. Which seems reasonable to thepromisee

C. Which is determined as reasonableby a third party

D. Which is reasonable under the facts and circumstances of the case

Q. 76 If the time is the essence of Contract and it is not performed with in specified time, then

A. The Contract cannot be performed later on

B. The promisor can compel the promisee to accept the performance later on

C. The Contract becomes voidable at the option of promisee

D. The Contract becomes voidable at the option of promisor

Q. 77 Ram, Lal and Shyam jointly promise to pay Mohan Rs. 30,000. Shyam paid the whole amount to Mohan. If Ram and Lal are solvent, Sham can recover __________

A. Rs. 50,000 from Lal

B. Rs. 30,000 from Ram

C. Rs. 20,000 from Lal

D. Rs. 10,000 each from Ram and Lal

Q. 78 In case of reciprocal promises, which is not applicable?

A. They can perform simultaneously

B. They cannot perform simultaneously

C. They can be fixed by the parties to the Contract

D. As depending upon the nature of the Contract

Q. 79 Novation means:

A. Alteration in the terms of the Contract

B. Rescission of the Contract

C. Substitution of an existing Contract with a new one

D. Remission of performance ofContract

Q. 80 In case of Anticipatory breach of Contract, remedies to the aggrieved party are _________

A. Rescind the Contract and immediately claim damages

B. Can wait till the due date

C. Either a) or b)

D. None of the above

Q. 81 Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Ordinary damages are recoverable

B. Special damages are recoverable only if both the parties knew about them

C. Indirect damages are not recoverable

D. None of the above

Q. 82 Which of the following delivery is valid in delivery of goods?

A. Actual

B. Symbolic

C. Constructive

D. All of the above

Q. 83 Which of the following is not an essential element of a Contract of sale?

A. Existence of essential elements of a validContract

B. Payment of price at the time ofContract

C. Subject matter of Contractmust be goods

D. There should be two parties i.e. seller and buyer

Q. 84 In case of sale of specific goods in a deliverable state, the property in goods passes to the buyer when _________

A. Contract in entered

B. Payment is made by the buyer

C. Goods are delivered and payment is made

D. Goods are delivered to buyer

Q. 85 When the seller delivers goods to buyer on sale on approval basis, the property in goods transfer to buyer, when __________

A. Buyer signifies his approval

B. Buyer does any act by adopting transaction

C. Buyer retains goods beyond stipulated period

D. All of the above

Q. 86 Which of the following statements is correct in relation to ascertainment of price of goods?

A. Price of goods must be fixed in the Contract of sale

B. Where the parties agreed that the price of goods has to be fixed by third party, and if the third party fails to fix the price, the agreement is void

C. If the price is not fixed by any manner, seller is not entitled to any price

D. None of the above

Q. 87 The doctrine of caveat emptor is applicable where ___________

A. There is no implied warranty or condition as to the quality or fitness of goods

B. The buyer discloses to the seller the particular purpose for which goods are required

C. Goods are bought by sample as well as description

D. The seller sells the goods by making fraud and the buyer believes it

Q. 88 Which of the following is not correct in relation to hire purchase?

A. The property in goods passes to hirer along with its possession

B. The hirer is deemed to be a bailee till the payment of last installment

C. The hirer can terminate the Contract by returning the goods

D. The hirer cannot transfer anytitle

Q. 89 Right of lien is lost for the seller, when __________

A. Goods are delivered to thecarrier

B. Buyer or his agent obtains possession of goods lawfully

C. Seller waives his right of lien

D. In all the above cases

Q. 90 The compulsory dissolution of a firm will arise in case of ____________

A. On the death of majority of partners

B. On the insolvency of all partners

C. In case of continuous losses

D. In case of dead lock of management

Q. 91 When a new partner is admitted into the firm, the consent should be obtained by __________

A. All partners

B. Majority of partners

C. Partner with maximum capital contribution

D. With the permission of Registrar of firms

Q. 92 A sold to B stolen car of C. C claim the car from B. Which of the following is correct:

A. B is bonafied buyer so he will not return the car to C

B. C has no remedy

C. Nemo dat quod non habet is applicable

D. Nemo dat quod non habet is not applicable

Q. 93 Which of the following is not effected due to Non-registration of a firm?

A. Suit by third party

B. Official receiver’s right to recover the property of insolvent partner

C. Partner’s right to suit for dissolution of firm

D. All of the above

Q. 94 Which of the following is not applicable in relation to an agreement by minor?

A. An agreement by or with a minor isvoidable

B. An agreement with a minor is void

C. A minor cannot ratify an agreement on attaining the age of majority

D. A minor can plead minority

Q. 95 The partner can be expelled by ___________

A. All the partners

B. Majority of partners

C. Active partners

D. None of these

Q. 96 Which of the following is beyond the implied authority of the partner?

A. Opening Bank Account in his name on behalf of firm

B. Purchase immovable property for the firm

C. Settling disputes referring to arbitration

D. All of the above

Q. 97 Sharing of profits is not ____________ evidence

A. Inclusive

B. exclusive

C. confirmative

D. conclusive

Q. 98 On which of the following grounds, court may dissolve a firm at the suit of a partner?

A. A partner willfully commits breach of agreement on regular basis

B. where a firm constituted for a fixed term and that term is expired

C. Where a partner dies

D. When a minor is admitted in to partnership

Q. 99 When a partnership is not registered, a partnership firm is

A. Deemed to be an illegal association and is allowed to carry on business

B. Allowed to carry on business, subject to payment of penalty

C. Allowed to carry on business, subject to certain disabilities

D. Allowed to continue the business

Q. 100 Which of the following is false in relation to partnership:

A. Partnership is formed by status not by Agreement

B. Partnership is for Profit

C. Partnership must by carried on by all or any of them acting for all

D. Minimum Two person

Session – II

Part A – General Economics

Q. 101 Production Possibilities curve is also known as ___________

A. Transformation curve

B. Demand Curve

C. Supply Curve

D. Indifference Curve

Q. 102 Who has defined Economics as “Science which deals with wealth”

A. J.B.Say

B. Adam Smith

C. Canon

D. A.C.Pigou

Q. 103 Which of the following is not feature of capitalistic economy?

A. Right to private property

B. Restriction on consumer’s right to choose

C. Profit motive

D. Freedom of enterprise

Q. 104 The term mixed economy denotes

A. Co-existence of consumer and producer’s goods industries in the economy

B. Co existence of private & public sectors in the economy

C. Co existence of urban & rural sectors in the economy

D. Co existence of large & small industries sectors in the economy

Q. 105 Which statement is true about law of demand:

A. Price rises; Demand rises

B. Price falls; Demand falls

C. Price falls; demand rises

D. Income falls; demand rises

Q. 106 Which of the following is not a determinantof demand:

A. Income of the consumers

B. Price of related goods

C. Quantity Supplied of a commodity

D. Consumer’s Taste & Preferences

Q. 107 Generally when income of a consumer increases he goes for superior goods, leading to fall in demand for inferior goods. It means income elasticity of demand is _______________

A. Less than one

B. Negative

C. Zero

D. Unitary

Q. 108 A demand curve parallel to y-axisimplies

A. Ep=0

B. Ep=1

C. Ep<1

D. Ep>1

Q. 109 Which one of the following is not a characteristic of land

A. A Free gift of nature

B. Its supply is fixed

C. An active factor of production

D. It has Different Uses

Q. 110 An entrepreneur undertakes which of the following functions

A. Initiating a business and resource coordination

B. Risk or uncertainity bearing

C. Innovation

D. All of the following

Q. 111 With a view to increase his production Hari Haran a manufacturer of shoes, increases all the factors of production in his unit by 100%. But at the end of year he finds that instead of an increase of 100%, his production has increased by only 80%. Which law of returns to scale is operating in this case _____________

A. Increasing returns to scale

B. Decreasing returns to scale

C. Constant returns to scale

D. None of the above

Q. 112 Marginal Cost changes due tochange in ______________ Cost

A. Variable

B. Fixed

C. Total

D. Average

Q. 113 A firm produces 10 units of commodity at an average total cost of Rs.200 and with a fixed cost of Rs.500. Find out component of average variable cost in total cost.

A. Rs.300

B. Rs.200

C. Rs.150

D. Rs.100

Q. 114 Average total cost to firm is Rs. 600 when it produces 10 units of output and Rs. 640 when the output is 11 units. The MC of the 11th unit is

A. 40

B. 540

C. 840

D. 1040

Q. 115 The demand curve of an oligopolist is:

A. Determinate

B. Indeterminate

C. Circular

D. Vertical

Q. 116 Selling outlay is an essential part of which of the following market situation

A. Monopolistic Competition

B. Perfect Competition

C. Monopoly

D. Pure Competition

Q. 117 Kinky demand curve model explains the market situation known as __________

A. Pure Oligopoly

B. Collusive oligopoly

C. Differentiated Oligopoly

D. Price rigidity

Q. 118 The distinction between a single firm & an Industry vanishes in which of the following market condition

A. Monopoly

B. Perfect competition

C. Monopolistic competition

D. Imperfect competition

Q. 119 For price discrimination to be successful, the elasticity of demand for the commodity in the two markets, should be:

A. Same

B. different

C. Constant

D. Zero

Q. 120 Abnormal profits exists in the long run only under ___________

A. Monopoly

B. Perfect competition

C. Monopolistic competition

D. Oligopoly

Q. 121 One of the essential conditions of Perfect competition is _____________

A. Product differentiation

B. Many sellers and few buyers

C. Only one price for identical goods at any onetime

D. Multiplicity of prices for identical products at any one time

Q. 122 A firm will close down in the short period, if AR is less than

A. AVC

B. AC

C. MC

D. None of these

Q. 123 The basic reason of considering the Indian Economy as under developed economy is:

A. Wide spread of poverty

B. High growth of population

C. High income inequalities

D. All of these

Q. 124 Tourism is an the example of

A. Primary Sector

B. Secondary Sector

C. Tertiary Sector

D. None of the above

Q. 125 Food Corporation of India (FCI) is the Nodal Agency for which of the following activities relating to food management in the country?

A. Procurement

B. Distribution

C. Storage

D. All of the above

Q. 126 The annual growth rate of industrial sector has remained at ___________ % over 11th plan period

A. 8.2

B. 7.4

C. 8.9

D. 6.8

Q. 127 Since adoption of economic liberalisation the share of agriculture in India’s GDP is ____________

A. Constant

B. Increasing

C. Decreasing

D. None of these

Q. 128 Direct taxes being progressive in nature, it is help to

A. Reduce inequality

B. Reduce poverty

C. Reduce price

D. Reduce poverty and prices

Q. 129 ____________ has highest Literacy rate in India

A. U.P

B. Rajasthan

C. Kerala

D. Haryana

Q. 130 Which state has the highest urbanpopulation

A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Maharastra

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Rajasthan

Q. 131 In rural areas in India, the nature of unemployment is _________

A. Disguised Unemployment

B. Seasonal Unemployment

C. Both a) and b)

D. Voluntary Unemployment

Q. 132 Which of the following poverty eradication scheme is presently operational in India?

A. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme

B. Ajeevika

C. Swarn Jayanthi ShahariRojgar Yojana

D. All of these

Q. 133 Which of the following is the Correct definition of Micro enterprise according to micro, small and medium enterprise development(MSMED) Act 2006?

A. Upto Rs. 20 lakh investment

B. Upto Rs. 25 lakh investment

C. Upto Rs. 30 lakh investment

D. Upto Rs. 35 lakh investment

Q. 134 In 2003 _____________ was passed to reduce the Gross Fiscal fiscal deficit by 0.5% of GDP in each financial year.

A. FRBM Act

B. FERA

C. FEMA

D. FEPA

Q. 135 Adverse balance of payments can be corrected through

A. Devaluation of currency

B. Import Substitution

C. Vigorous exports

D. All of these

Q. 136 Stagflation is

A. Inflation with recession

B. Inflation with growth

C. Deflation with growth

D. Deflation followed with inflation

Q. 137 Which of the following measures can be used for curbing inflation

A. Monetary measures

B. Fiscal measures

C. Investment Controls

D. All of these

Q. 138 Trend of continuous rising prices of factors of production is known as ______________

A. Demand pull inflation

B. Cost push inflation

C. Stagflation

D. Hyperinflation

Q. 139 Petroleum, Oil and Lubricants (POL) constitutes around _______________ % of India’s imports bill

A. 32

B. 35

C. 37

D. 39

Q. 140 Plant load factor, a measure of operational efficiency of a thermal plant varies across the regions in India. In which of the following regions it has been lowest in the year 2012-13.

A. Eastern

B. Western

C. Central

D. Southern

Q. 141 Which of the following was not immediate cause of 1991 economic crisis

A. Rapid growth of population

B. Severe inflation

C. Expanding Fiscal deficit

D. Rising current account deficit

Q. 142 ________________ means integrating the global economy with the world economy

A. Globalisation

B. Privalisation

C. Disinvestment

D. Liberalisation

Q. 143 As a consequence of economic reforms, the MRTP Act 1969 was replaced by competition Act in year __________________

A. 2001

B. 2002

C. 2003

D. 2004

Q. 144 R.B.I Nationalised in ___________________

A. 1949

B. 1969

C. 1935

D. 1991

Q. 145 Which of the following is not the function of R.B.I

A. Banker’s Bank

B. Issue of currency

C. Regulation of Foreign Trade

D. Custodian of Forex Reserves

Q. 146 Which one of the following statement defines the term Reverse Repo Rate?

A. The Rate at which commercial banks borrow money from RBI

B. The Rate at which RBI borrowsfrom other banks

C. The Rate at which commercialbanks borrow from each other

D. None of these

Q. 147 Monetary policy in India is regulated by

A. Ministry of finance

B. RBI

C. Planning Commission

D. SEBI

Q. 148 Which of the following bank enforces the provisions of foreign exchange management act in India?

A. Central Bank of India

B. State Bank of India

C. ICICI

D. Reserve bank of India

Q. 149 Which of the following is not a quantitative method of credit control

A. Bank Rate policy

B. Open market operations

C. The Repo Rate

D. Consumer credit regulation

Q. 150 Traditionally money has been defined on the basis of its functional aspects. Which one of the following falls under this category

A. Medium of exchange

B. Measure of value

C. A Store of value

D. all of the above

Part B – Quantitative Aptitude

Q. 151 If x : y = 2: 3 then (5x+2y): (3x-y) =

A. 19:3

B. 16:3

C. 7:2

D. 7:3

Q. 152 If P is 25% less than Q and R is 20% higher than Q the Ratio of R and P

A. 5:8

B. 8:5

C. 5:3

D. 3:5

Q. 153 A person has assets worth Rs.1,48,200. He wish to divide it amongst his wife, son and daughter in the ratio 3:2:1 respectively. From this assets the share of his son will be

A. Rs.74,100

B. Rs.37,050

C. Rs.49,400

D. Rs.24,700

Q. 154 The value of given figure is

A. y

B. -1

C. 1

D. None of these

Q. 155 If (25)^150 = (25x)^50 then the value of x will be

A. 5^3

B. 5^4

C. 5^2

D. 5

Q. 156 If x^2 +y^2 =7xy then for given figure will be

A. log x + log y

B. 1/2 (log x + log y)

C. 1/3 (log x + log y)

D. 1/3 (log x . log y)

Q. 157 then xyz + 1 = ?

A. 2xy

B. 2zx

C. 2yz

D. 2

Q. 158 The roots of equation y^3 + y^2 –y -1 =0are

A. 1,1,-1

B. -1,-1,1

C. 1,1,1

D. None of these

Q. 159 The distance from the origin to the point of intersection of the two straight lines 3x-2y=6 and 3x+2y=18 is

A. 2 units

B. 3 units

C. 4 units

D. 5 units

Q. 160 The lines 3x-4y+5=0, 7x-8y+5=0 and 4x+5y- 45=0 are:

A. Concurrent

B. Parallel

C. Not concurrent

D. None of these

Q. 161 The common area of graph of linear inequalities 7x+9y≤63; x+y≥1; 0 ≤ x ≤ 6 and 0 ≤ y ≤ 6 has been given below

A. BCDB and DEFD

B. Unbounded

C. HFGH

D. ABDFHKA

Q. 162 If a sum triples in 15 yrs at Simple rate of interest then the rate of interest per annum will be

A. 13.0%

B. 13.3%

C. 13.5%

D. 18%

Q. 163 The Partners A & B together lent Rs. 3903 at 4% p.a interest compounded annually. After a span of 7 years, A gets the same amount as B gets after 9 years. The share of A in the sum of Rs.3903/- would have been

A. Rs.1875

B. Rs.2280

C. Rs.2028

D. Rs.2820

Q. 164 How much amount is required to be invested every year as to accumulate Rs. 6,00,000 at the end of 10th year, if interest is compounded annually at 10% rate of interest?

[Given : (1.1)^10 = 2.59374]

A. Rs.37,467

B. Rs.37,476

C. Rs.37,647

D. Rs.37,674

Q. 165 If 6 times the no. of permutations of n items taken 3 at a time is equal to 7 times the no. of permutations of (n-1) items taken 3 at a time then thevalue of n will be

A. 7

B. 9

C. 13

D. 21

Q. 166 then the value of x will be :

A. 999

B. 998

C. 997

D. None of these

Q. 167 The value of 1^3 + 2^3 + 3^3 + ………. + m^3 is equal to:

d. None of these

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 168 The sum of the given infinite GP is equal to:

A. 1.95

B. 1.5

C. 1.75

D. None of these

Q. 169 The sum of m terms of the series is 1 + 11 + 111 + …….. is equal to:

A. 1/81 [10^(m+1) – 9m – 10]

B. 1/27 [10^(m+1) – 9m – 10]

C. [10^(m+1) – 9m – 10]

D. None of these

Q. 170 If A={1,2,3} and B={4,6,7} then the relation R={(2,4) (3,6)} is

A. A function from A to B

B. A function from B to A

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. Not a function

Q. 171 The range of the relation {(1,0) (2,0) (3,0) (4,0) (0,0)} is

A. {1,2,3,4,0}

B. {0}

C. {1,2,3,4}

D. None of these

Q. 172 In a class of 50 students 35 opted for Maths, 37 opted for commerce. The number of such students who opted for both maths and commerce is

A. 13

B. 15

C. 22

D. 28

Q. 173 Find the value of the given figure

A. 1/3

B. ∞

C. -∞

D. None of these

Q. 174 If y = a.e^(nx) + b.e^(-nx) then d2y/dx2 is equal to

A. n^(2) y

B. -n^(2) y

C. ny

D. None of these

Q. 175 The given figure is equal to

A. 5

B. 5/2

C. 1

D. None of these

Q. 176 “The less than Ogive” is a:

A. U – shaped curve

B. J – shaped curve

C. S – shaped curve

D. Bell – shaped curve

Q. 177 To draw Histogram the frequency distribution should be:

A. Inclusive type

B. Exclusive type

C. Inclusive and Exclusive type

D. None of the above

Q. 178 The following data is given related to the marks of group of students How many students have got marks less than 50% ?

Marks	No. of Students
More than 70%	7
More than 60%	18
More than 50%	40
More than 40%	60
More than 30%	75
More than 20%	100

A. 60

B. 82

C. 40

D. 53

Q. 179 There were 200 employees in an office in which 150 were married. Total male employees were 160 out of which 120 were married. What was the number of female unmarried employees?

A. 30

B. 10

C. 40

D. 50

Q. 180 The mean of the following data is 6. Find the value of P:

X:	2	4	6	10	P+5
Y:	3	2	3	1	2

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 7

Q. 181 Which of the following statements is true?

A. Median is based on all observations

B. The Mode is the mid value

C. The Median is the 2nd Quartile

D. The Mode is the 5th decile

Q. 182 The formula for range of middle 50% items of a series is:

A. Q3 – Q1

B. Q3 – Q2

C. Q2 – Q1

D. (Q3 – Q2)/2

Q. 183 What will be the probable value of mean deviation? when Q3 =40 and Q1 =15

A. 17.50

B. 18.75

C. 15.00

D. None of the above

Q. 184 When each individual gets the exactly opposite rank by the two judges, then the rank correlation will be _____________

A. -1

B. 0

C. +1

D. +1/2

Q. 185 Two regression lines for a bivariate data are 2x-5y+6=0 and 5x-4y+3=0. Then the coefficient correlation shall be ________________

A. -(2√2)/5

B. 2/5

C. +(2√2)/5

D. (√2)/5

Q. 186 The equations two lines of regression for x & y are 5x = 22 + y and 64x = 24 + 45y, then the value of regression coefficient of y on x will be ______________

A. 5

B. 1/5

C. 64/45

D. 45/64

Q. 187 If the mean of two variables x & y are 3 and 1 respectively. Then the equation of two regression lines are _______________

A. 5x+7y-22=0 & 6x+2y-20=0

B. 5x+7y-22=0 & 6x+2y+20=0

C. 5x+7y+22=0 & 6x+2y-20=0

D. 5x+7y+22=0 & 6x+2y+20=0

Q. 188 For any two events A₁ ,A₂ Let P(A₁) = ⅔ P(A₂) = ⅜ P(A₁⋂A₂)¼ then A₁ ,A₂ are:

A. Mutually Exclusive But not independent events

B. Mutually Exclusive and independent events

C. Independent but not MutuallyExclusive

D. None of these

Q. 189 If a pair of dice is thrown what is the probability of occurring neither 7 nor 11?

A. 1/6

B. 1/8

C. 2/9

D. 7/9

Q. 190 An urn contains 2 red and 1 green balls, another urn contains 2 red and 2 green balls. An urn was selected at random and then a ball was drawn from it. If it was found to be red then the probability that it has been drawn from first urn is

A. 4/7

B. 3/7

C. 2/3

D. 7/12

Q. 191 If a variate X has, Mean > variance, then its distribution will be:

A. Binomial

B. Poisson

C. Normal

D. t-distribution

Q. 192 Mean & variance of a binomial variate are 4 and respectively then P(x≥1) will be:

A. 728/729

B. 1/729

C. 723/729

D. None of these

Q. 193 5000 students were appeared in an examination. The mean of marks was 39.5 with standard deviation 12.5 marks. Assuming the distribution to be normal, find the number of students recorded more than 60% marks. [Given when Z = 1.64 area of normal curve = 0.4494]

A. 1000

B. 505

C. 253

D. 2227

Q. 194 Method used to test the human blood is called in statistical terminology ________

A. Census investigation

B. Blood investigation

C. Sample investigation

D. None of these

Q. 195 parameter may be defined as a characteristic of a population based on______

A. Sample units

B. All the units

C. Few units

D. Any of the above

Q. 196 If it is known that the 95% LCL and UCL to population mean are 48.04 and 51.96 respectively. If the sample size is 100, what will be the value of population SD?

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. 12.5

Q. 197 Circular test is satisfied by which index number?

A. Laspayere’s

B. Paasahe’s

C. Fisher’s

D. None of the above

Q. 198 Fisher’s Index number is _______________ of Laspayere’s and Paasehe’s Index numbers

A. A.M

B. G.M

C. H.M

D. None of these

Q. 199 Which of the following statement is true?

A. Paasche’s index number is based on base year quantity

B. Fisher’s index satisfies the circular test

C. Arithmetic mean is the most appropriate average for constructing the index number

D. Splicing means constructing one continuous series from two different indices on the basis of common base

Q. 200 Monthly salary of on employee was Rs.10,000 in the year 2000 and it was increase to Rs.20,000 in the year 2013 while the consumer price index number is 240 in year 2013 with the base year 2000, what should be his salary in comparison of consumer price index in the year 2013?

A. 2,000

B. 16,000

C. 24,000

D. None of these

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	A	A	D	A	B	D	D	D	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	A	C	C	A	B	B	A	D	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	A	C	D	D	D	A	A	B	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	B	C	D	B	A	D	A	C	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	B	B	B	A	D	A	B	A	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	D	B	A	C	B	B	C	B	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	A	C	A	B	A	C	D	B	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	A	C	B	D	C	D	B	C	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	D	D	B	A	D	B	A	A	D	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	C	D	A	B	D	D	A	C	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	A	B	B	C	C	B	A	C	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	A	C	D	B	A	D	A	B	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	C	A	D	C	D	B	C	A	C	B
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	C	D	B	A	D	A	D	B	C	A
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	A	A	B	A	C	B	B	D	D	D
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	B	B	C	C	B	B	C	B	D	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	D	B	C	C	D	A	C	B	A	D
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	B	C	A	A	B	C	B	A	B	D
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	C	A	C	A	C	C	A	C	D	A
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	A	A	C	C	B	B	D	B	D	C

CA CPT Previous Year Paper June 2014

CA CPT JUNE 2014

Session – I

Part A – Fundamentals of Accounting

Q. 1 Which accounting concept satisfy the valuation criteria ______

A. Going concern, Realisation, Cost

B. Going concern, Cost, Dual aspect

C. Cost, Dual aspect, Conservatism

D. Realisation, Conservatism, Going concern

Q. 2 A trader has made a sale of Rs.75,500 out of which cash sales amounted to Rs.25,500. He showed trade receivables on 31-3-2014 at Rs.25,500. Which concept is followed by him?

A. Going concern

B. cost

C. accrual

D. Money measurement

Q. 3 In which of the following cases, accounting estimates are needed?

A. Employs benefit schemes

B. Impairment of losses

C. Inventory obsolescence

D. All of the above

Q. 4 Deewali advance given to an employee is ___

A. Revenue Expenditure

B. Capital Expenditure

C. Deferred Revenue Expenditure

D. Not an Expenditure

Q. 5 The debit balance in the bank columns of cash book indicates _______

A. Total amount withdrawn from bank

B. Total amount deposited in bank

C. Cash at bank

D. Bank overdraft

Q. 6 At the end of the accounting year nominal accounts are _______

A. Balanced and transferred to the P & L A/c

B. Not balanced and transferred to P & L A/c

C. Not balanced and transferred to balance sheet

D. Balanced and transferred to balance sheet

Q. 7 Trial balance is a statement which shows ___________ of all accounts.

A. Debit or Credit balances

B. Balances and Totals

C. Positive and Negative balances

D. Opening and Closing balances

Q. 8 A contingent asset is ________

A. Usually disclosed in the financial statements

B. Usually disclosed in the notes to accounts

C. Usually disclosed in the reports of approving authority

D. Not disclosed anywhere

Q. 9 All the following statements are correct except

A. Trial balance is a statement and not an account

B. Trial balance is prepared at the end of the financial year

C. Trial balance is not a concluding evidence that there are no error

D. Trial balance is tallied if a transaction is posted twice in the ledger

Q. 10 A firm has reported a profit of Rs.1,47,000 for the year ended 31-3-2014 after taking into consideration the following items.

(i) The cost of an asset Rs.23,000 has been taken as an expense

(ii) The firm anticipated a profit of Rs.12,000 on the sale of an old furniture

(iii) Salary of Rs.7,000 outstanding for the year has not been taken into account.

(iv) An asset of Rs.85,000 was purchased for Rs.75,000 and was recorded in the books at Rs.85,000.

What is the correct amount of profit to be reported in the books?

A. Rs.1,47,000

B. Rs. 1,51,000

C. Rs.1,63,000

D. Rs.1,41,000

Q. 11 The process of recording financial data upto trial balance is_______

A. Book keeping

B. Classifying

C. Summarising

D. Analising

Q. 12 Rohit carrying on real estate business sold a piece of land for Rs.4,00,00,000 (cost Rs.3,50,00,000) then the type of receipt is ______ nature and profit on sale is _______

A. Capital & transferred to capital reserve

B. Revenue & transferred to P & L a/c

C. Capital & transferred to P & L a/c

D. Revenue & transferred to general reserve

Q. 13 Which of the following statements is false

A. Reserve is an appropriation of profits

B. Provision for tax still not paid is a reserve

C. Capital reserve is created out of capital profits

D. Reserve is a type of capital & revenue

Q. 14 The credit balance as per cash book is Rs.15,000. Cheques amounting to Rs.2,750 were deposited in bank but not yet collected. Cheques of Rs.4,000 were issued, but not yet presented for payment. A dividend of Rs.250 was collected and a premium of Rs.1,500 was paid by bank understanding instructions. The balance as per Pass Book will be ________

A. Rs.15,000 Dr.

B. Rs. 17,750 Cr.

C. Rs.16,000 Dr.

D. Rs.14,250 Cr

Q. 15 On 27-03-14 four cheques of Rs.16,000, Rs.14,000, Rs.32,000, and Rs.23,000 were deposited in bank, out of which cheque of Rs.16,000 only was collected upto 31st March. Two cheques of Rs.23,000 and Rs.32,000 were collected on 4th April. An other cheque was not signed properly and was returned. What are the items to be taken in the B.R.S?

A. Rs.14,000, Rs.32,000, Rs.23,000

B. Rs.14,000, Rs.32,000, Rs.23,000, Rs.16,000

C. Rs.32,000, Rs.23,000

D. Rs.14,000

Q. 16 _____ is a non-historical cost method and is also called as Retail inventory method.

A. LIFO method

B. Adjusted selling price method

C. Average price method

D. Standard price method

Q. 17 A trader has credited certain items of sales on approval aggregating Rs.60,000 to Sales Account. Of these, goods of the value of Rs. 16,000 have been returned and taken into Inventories at cost Rs.8,000 though the record of return was omitted in the accounts. In respect of another parcel of Rs.12,000 cost being Rs.6,000 the period of approval did not expire on the closing date. Cost of goods lying with customers should be

A. Rs.12,000.

B. Rs.54,000

C. Rs.6,000.

D. None of the above

Q. 18 Physical verification of inventory was done on 23rd June. The value of inventory was Rs.4,80,000. Following transactions took place between 23rd June and 30th June:

1. Out of goods sent on consignment, goods costing Rs. 24,000 were unsold.

2. Purchases of Rs.40,000 were made, out of which goods worth Rs.16,000 were delivered on 5th July.

3. Sales were Rs.1,36,000, which include goods worth Rs.32,000 sent on approval. Half of these goods were returned before 30th June, but no intimation is available regarding the remaining goods. Goods are sold at cost plus 25%. However, goods costing Rs.24,000 had been sold for Rs.12,000.

You want to determine the value of inventory on 30th June. You start with physical inventory on 23rd June Cost of Normal Sales = _______.

A. 73,600

B. 80,000

C. 1,08,800

D. 99,200

Q. 19 S Ltd. follows perpetual inventory system. On March 31 of every year, the company undertakes physical Inventory verification. On March 31, 2011, the value of Inventories as per the records differed from the value as per the physical Inventory. On scrutiny, the following differences were noticed: Goods purchased for Rs.10,000 were received and included in the physical Inventory but no entry was ade in the books. Goods costing Rs.30,000 were sold and entered in the books but the Inventory is yet to be delivered. Goods worth Rs.5,000 are returned to the suppliers but is omitted to be recorded. If the inventory is valued in the books at Rs.1,50,000, the value of the physical inventory is

A. Rs.1,11,000

B. Rs.1,89,000

C. Rs.1,85,000

D. Rs.1,59,000.

Q. 20 Consider the following for Alpha Co. for the year 2009-10:

Cost of goods available for sale Rs.1,00,000

Total Sales Rs.80,000

Opening inventory of goods Rs.20,000

Gross profit margin 25%

Closing inventory of goods for the year 2009-10 was

A. Rs.80,000

B. Rs.80,000

C. Rs.40,000

D. Rs.36,000

Q. 21 The amount of depreciation charged under Annuity method _______

A. Remains Fixed for all the years

B. Decreases every year

C. Increases every year

D. Recalculated every year

Q. 22 The cost of an Asset is Rs.1,20,000. The scrap value will be 25% at end of 10 years. If straight line method of depreciation is followed, the rate of depreciation is ______

A. 10%

B. 9%

C. 8.5%

D. 7.5%

Q. 23 M/S Daga & Co. installed a machinery on 01-01-2007 at a cost of Rs.5,00,000. Useful life of the machine is estimated at 10 years. Depreciation is charged under straight line method. In December, 2013, they found that the machine became obsolete and could not be used. It was sold for Rs.50,000. There will be_______

A. Capital loss of Rs.1,50,000

B. Revenue loss of Rs.1,00,000

C. Capital loss of Rs.1,00,000

D. Capital loss of Rs.1,00,000

Q. 24 Depreciation fund given in the balance sheet is _________

A. Credited to old partners in their old profit sharing ratio

B. Debited to old partners in their old profit sharing ratio

C. Debited to old partners in their old profit sharing ratio

D. not transferred to anywhere

Q. 25 Which of the following statements is/are false?

I. The term ‘depreciation’, ‘depletion’ and ‘amortization’ convey the same meaning.

II. Provision for depreciation A/c is debited when provision for depreciation A/c is created.

III. The main purpose of charging the profit and loss A/c with the amount of depreciation is to spread the cost of an asset over its useful life for the purpose of income determination.

A. Only I) above

B. Only II) above

C. Only III) above

D. All I) II) & III) above

Q. 26 Mukesh sold goods to Suresh at an invoice price of Rs. 6,00,000 at cost plus 25%. 1/4th of the goods are lost in transit. Insurance claim of Rs.72,000 is received. What is the amount of abnormal loss to be debited to P & L a/c?

A. Rs.1,20,000

B. Rs.48,000

C. Rs.72,000

D. Rs.1,50,000

Q. 27 Correct sequence as per the order of permanency?

(i) Trade Receivables (ii) Patents

(iii) Machinery (iv) Cash in hand

A. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

B. (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)

C. (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

D. (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)

Q. 28 The balances of M/s Nagarjuna Traders are as follows:

Capital Rs. 9,00,000; Computers Rs. 1,30,000; Machinery Rs.4,50,000; Furniture Rs.1,50,000;

Investments Rs.3,00,000; Salaries Rs.2,10,000; Sales Rs.16,00,000; Patents Rs.1,20,000;

Freight Rs.1,21,000; Purchases Rs.9,15,000; Rent Rs.28,000; Cash in hand Rs.48,000;

Bank overdraft Rs.20,000; Creditors Rs.1,00,000; Debtors Rs.1,48,000; the total of trial balance is _______

A. Rs.26,40,000

B. Rs.24,99,000

C. Rs.26,20,000

D. Rs.25,12,000

Q. 29 Neelam sold goods for Rs.40,000 on 1-5-14 on a credit of 3 months to Kamala. Out of that 40% only could be received from her estate as she became insolvent. What is the amount of bad debt?

A. Rs.30,000

B. Rs. 24,000

C. Rs.28,000

D. Rs.25,000

Q. 30 Goods costing Rs.50,000 were stolen. Insurance company accepted a claim of Rs.40,000. The appropriate journal entry is ___

A. Loss by theft a/c Dr. 50,000 To Sales a/c 50,000

B. Outstanding insurance claim a/c Dr. 40,000 Profit & Loss a/c Dr. 10,000 To Purchases a/c 50,000

C. Loss by theft a/c Dr. 40,000 To Purchases a/c 40,000

D. Profit & Loss a/c Dr. 10,000 To Purchases a/c 10,000

Q. 31 M/s Ghulati & Sons made the following sales Sold to M/s Guptha & Co. on credit 30 shirts @ Rs.180 per shirt 20 trousers @ Rs.100 per trouser Sold furniture to M/s Shewag & Co. on credit Rs.8,000 Sold to M/s Jain & Co. 50 shirts @ Rs.190 per shirt for cash Sold to M/s Cheap stores 13 overcoats @ Rs.490 per overcoat Trade discount 10%, Cash discount 2%, Sales tax 10% . The total of sales book is _____

A. Rs.13,632.30

B. Rs.22,849

C. Rs.23,828

D. Rs.14,632

Q. 32 On 1st April, 2013, Rakesh started business with Rs.1,20,000 and took a loan Rs.50,000 from Ramesh. During the year earned a profit of Rs.20,000 and introduced further capital of Rs.30,000. His drawings during the year amounted to Rs.10,000. He paid Rs.10,000 to Ramesh during the year as part payment of loan on 31st March, 2014 his total assets amounted to Rs.2,30,000. Find out the amount of outside liabilities.

A. Rs.70,000

B. Rs.80,000

C. Rs.30,000

D. Rs.40,000

Q. 33 Trial balance of a trader shows the following balances

Opening Inventory Rs.9600

Purchases less returns Rs.11850

Salaries Rs.3200

Wages Rs.750

Commission on Purchases Rs.200

Carriage outwards Rs.300

Sales Rs.24900

Closing Inventory Rs.3500

Carriage on purchases Rs.1,000

Gross profit will be

A. Rs. 5,000

B. Rs. 6500

C. Rs. 3250

D. Rs. 3200

Q. 34 Manu’s acceptance to Rishi of Rs.12,000 is retired two months before the due date at discount of 10% p.a. In the books of Rishi the journal entry will be _______

A. Cash A/c Dr. 10,800 Discount A/c Dr. 1,200 To B/R A/c 12,000

B. Manu’s A/c Dr. 10,800 Discount A/c Dr. 1,200 To B/R A/c 12,000

C. Cash A/c Dr. 11,800 Discount A/c Dr. 200 To B/R A/c 12,000

D. Manu’s A/c Dr. 11,800 Discount A/c Dr. 200 To B/R A/c 12,000

Q. 35 If the goods are sent on Sale or Return basis frequently, the trader prepares ______

A. Sale or Return Journal with 4 main columns

B. Sale or Return Journal with 2 main columns

C. Cash book

D. Sale or Return ledger

Q. 36 Which of the following is not a foreign bill?

A. A bill drawn outside India and payable in India

B. A bill drawn in India and payable outside India

C. A bill drawn by a person resident outside India and payable outside India

D. None of the above

Q. 37 When the record of transactions relating to Joint Venture are made in books of one coventurer, then the venturer records his share of investment in the joint venture by ________

A. Debiting to cash a/c

B. Crediting to cash a/c

C. Crediting to co-venturer’s personal a/c

D. No entry is required

Q. 38 In case of ______ the period of bill commences from the date of acceptance of the bill

A. Bill after date

B. Bill after sight

C. Bill at sight

D. None of the above

Q. 39 A & B entered into a joint venture. A contributed Rs.2,00,000 for goods and Rs.15,000 expenses. B supplied goods of Rs.56,000 and paid expenses of Rs.2,000. B sold the goods for Rs.4,00,000. B is allowed a commission of 10%. Profit sharing is 3:2. How much amount B has to remit to A in full settlement of account?

A. Rs.2,67,200

B. Rs.2,65,200

C. Rs.1,67,200

D. Rs.2,00,000

Q. 40 A bill receivable of Rs.2,500 is received from a customer in full settlement of Rs.2,700. On dishonor of this bill, the entry will be passed in ______

A. Purchases book

B. Bills receivable book

C. Journal proper

D. None of the above

Q. 41 In the absence of agreement between the partners, on the death of a partner, his legal representatives are entitled to ________.

A. Profits till death, JLP, Interest on capital, Revaluation profit, Goodwill

B. Profits till death, JLP, Interest on capital, Goodwill

C. Profits till death, Capital, JLP, Revaluation profit, Goodwill

D. Profits till death, Interest on capital, Goodwill

Q. 42 A & B are partners in a firm in the ratio of 5:3. C is admitted as a new partner. He gets 1/4th of A’s share and 1/5th of B’s share. The new profit sharing ratio is ______

A. 19:8:9

B. 20:15:9

C. 75:45:37

D. None of the above

Q. 43 A, B and C are partners in a firm in the ratio of 3:2:1. A retired and the firm received Rs.1,52,500 towards JLP, which is appearing in the balance sheet at Rs.1,80,000. Cash a/c is debited and JLP a/c is credited with Rs.1,52,500. What will be the treatment for the balance left in JLP a/c?

A. Credited to Partners current a/c’s in their profit sharing ratio

B. Debited to Revaluation a/c

C. Debited to Partners current a/c’s in their profit sharing ratio

D. Either (b) or (c)

Q. 44 A & B are partners in the ratio of 3:2. They admitted C as a new partner with Rs.35,000 against his capital and Rs.15,000 against goodwill. C could bring in Rs.45,000 only. What is the treatment, if the new profit sharing ratio is 1:1:1?

A. A & B will be credited by Rs.8,000 and Rs.2,000 respectively

B. A further amount of Rs.5,000 is credited to capital accounts of A & B

C. Both (a) & (b)

D. None of the above

Q. 45 Any, Tom & Bob are partners in the ratio of 2:2:1. Tom dies in Feb, 2014. They have taken life insurance policies, the premiums of which are debited to P & L a/c.

Partners Policy value Surrender value

Any 4,00,000 40,000

Tom 7,00,000 70,000

Bob 5,00,000 50,000

How much amount is paid to the legal representatives of Tom?

A. Rs.7,90,000

B. Rs.2,80,000

C. Rs.3,16,000

D. Rs.7,00,000

Q. 46 Kiran, Bittoo and Shravan are partners in a firm. Kiran withdrew Rs.5,000 in beginning of every month, where as Bittoo and Shravan withdrew Rs.2,000 and Rs.3,000 respectively at the end of every month. Calculate interest on drawings at 10% p.a. for the year ended 31st March, 2014.

A. Kiran Rs.6,000, Bittoo Rs.2,400, Shravan Rs.3,600

B. Kiran Rs.2,750, Bittoo Rs.1,300, Shravan Rs.1,950

C. Kiran Rs.3,000, Bittoo Rs.1,200 Shravan Rs.1,800

D. Kiran Rs.3,250 Bittoo Rs.1,100, Shravan Rs.1,650

Q. 47 Average profit = Rs.3,72,000

Normal rate of return = 12%

Total assets = Rs.68,00,000

Outside liabilities = Rs.42,00,000

Calculate the value of goodwill under capitalisation method.

A. Rs.5,00,000

B. Rs.5,00,000

C. Rs.7,00,000

D. Rs.8,00,000

Q. 48 Securities premium account cannot be utilized for _______:

A. Financing the redemption of preference shares

B. Issue of bonus shares

C. Financing the premium payable on redemption of preference shares

D. Writing off preliminary expenses

Q. 49 Premium on redemption of debentures is _____ a/c

A. Personal

B. nominal

C. real

D. none of the above

Q. 50 If the shares are forfeited, the share capital account is debited by ______

A. Called up value of shares

B. Paid up value of shares

C. Face value of shares

D. Issue price of shares

Q. 51 The subscribed share capital of X Ltd. is Rs.90,00,000 divided in to shares of Rs.100 each. There were no calls in arrears till the final call was made. The final call was paid on 85,000 shares. The calls in arrears was Rs.1,25,000. The final call money per share is Rs. _______

A. 25

B. 20

C. 75

D. 125

Q. 52 Preference shares of Rs.9,00,000 are redeemable by issuing 3000 shares of Rs.100 each at Rs.140. The amount to be transferred to CRR is _________

A. Rs.6,00,000

B. Rs.4,20,000

C. Rs.5,00,000

D. Rs.3,80,000

Q. 53 The directors of K Ltd. made the final call of Rs.20 per share on 15-Sep-2014, indicating the due date of payment as 30-Sep-2014. Mr. F, a holder of 8,000 shares paid the call money on 15-Nov-2014. Calculate the interest on calls in arrears.

A. Rs.800

B. Rs.1,000

C. Rs.1,200

D. Rs.1,333

Q. 54 A company took a loan of Rs.10,00,000 from ICICI bank at an interest of 15% p.a. 14% debentures of Rs.15,00,000 were issued as collateral security. The bank is entitled to get interest on _________

A. Rs.10,00,000 only

B. Rs. 15,00,000 only

C. Both (a) & (b)

D. None of the above

Q. 55 X.Ltd issued 15% , 50,000 debentures of Rs.100 each at 10% premium, which are redeemable at 20% premium after 10 years. The loss on issue of debentures to be written off every year will be ______

A. Rs.50,000

B. Rs.1,00,000

C. Rs.2,00,000

D. Rs.1,50,000

Q. 56 On 01-04-2005, 5% cumulative preference share capital is Rs.2,00,000 Equity share capital is Rs.5,00,000. During the years 2004-05 and 2005-06 the dividend declarations totaled Rs.8,000 and Rs.16,000 respectively. What is the amount of dividend paid to the equity share holders for the year 2005-06?

A. Rs.4,000

B. Rs.5,000

C. Rs.10,000

D. Rs.12,000

Q. 57 A and B are partners sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 on admission C brings Rs. 70,000 cash and Rs. 48,000 against goodwill. New profit sharing Ratio between A, B and C are 7 : 5 : 4. Find the sacrificing ratio between A : B:

A. 3:1

B. 4:7

C. 5:4

D. 2:1

Q. 58 Accounting has certain norms to be observed by the accountants in recording of transactions and preparation of financial statements. These norms reduce the vagueness and chances of misunderstanding by harmonizing the varied accounting practices. These norms are

A. Accounting regulations.

B. Accounting guidance notes.

C. Accounting standards.

D. Accounting framework

Q. 59 Which of the following is wrong for periodic inventory system:

A. It is based on physical verification

B. It is costlier method.

C. Inventory could not possible

D. None of these

Q. 60 The long term assets that have no physical existence but are rights that have value is known as

A. Current assets

B. Fixed assets

C. Intangible assets

D. Investments

Part B – Mercantile Laws

Q. 61 Under the Indian Contract Act 1872, which of the following is not an essential element of a Valid Contract?

A. Intention to create legal relationship

B. Adequacy of Consideration

C. Certainty of Terms

D. Free Consent

Q. 62 Which of the following is true?

A. Indian Contract Act is a private law

B. Law takes cognizance of rights and duties of parties

C. All illegal agreements are not void

D. None of these

Q. 63 Unenforceable contract is ________

A. Void from the beginning

B. Becomes impossible due to subsequent impossibility

C. A contract which is unenforceable due to some technical defect

D. All of the above

Q. 64 A voidable contract becomes void in case of __

A. Novation

B. Impossibility of performance

C. Restitution

D. Rescission

Q. 65 Specific offer is made:

A. To public at large

B. To public at large

C. In general news paper

D. None of these

Q. 66 An offer is open for acceptance over a period of time. This is ________

A. Cross offer

B. Counter offer

C. Standing offer

D. Implied offer

Q. 67 Communication of acceptance is complete against the acceptor, when:

A. When the letter of acceptance posted

B. When he writes the letter

C. When the letter of acceptance reaches the offeror

D. None of the above

Q. 68 Which of the following is not correct?

A. Consideration cannot be moved from third party

B. Consideration may be executed or executory

C. Consideration must be real

D. Consideration may be past also.

Q. 69 The famous case law i.e., Mohiri bibee Vs. Dharmodhas Ghosh is related to:

A. Majority of 21 years age

B. Minor’s agreement is void

C. Adequate consideration

D. All of the above

Q. 70 Which of the following is not correct?

A. The maxim “quid pro quo” means lawful consideration

B. A person entering into a contract must be major and sound mind

C. he maxim “Consensus-ad-idem” means that the parties to the contract must agree up on same thing in same sense.

D. Consent is not deemed to be free when it is vitiated by misrepresentation.

Q. 71 Which of the following is not included in the term ‘fraud’?

A. Concealment of facts in good faith

B. When the court declares it as fraudulent

C. When it is made with an intention to deceive the other party

D. Promise made without any intention to perform

Q. 72 In a contract both legal & illegal parts are there. Which of the following is correct?

A. Only legal branch is enforced

B. Contract in fully void

C. Voidable at the option of aggrieved party

D. Only illegal branch enforced

Q. 73 Shyam and Sunil are joint promisors. Promisee discharged one of the joint promisor. Then ___

A. Both of them discharged from liability

B. Promise comes to an end

C. Sunil is not discharged from liability towards Shyam

D. Sunil is discharged from liability

Q. 74 Suit for specific performance of contract can be instituted by the promisee, where _____

A. The promisor has breached the contract

B. The promisor has suffered abnormal loss

C. Damages are not an adequate remedy to promisee

D. Parties agree to go to the court for remedy

Q. 75 A teacher enters in to contract with a student to teach for the exams, but he dies before teaching. Now ____

A. Legal representatives are bound to perform

B. Becomes enforceable

C. Voidable

D. Contract comes to an end

Q. 76 In case of anticipatory breach of contract, the___

A. Contract automatically comes to an end

B. Promisor is discharged of his liability

C. Promisee has no remedy

D. Promisee can claim damages.

Q. 77 Which of the following is not true regarding Contingent contract?

A. Contingent contract depends on happening or non-happening of the future uncertain event

B. Event must be collateral to the main contract

C. Not to be calculated

D. All of the above

Q. 78 Status obligations arise:

A. In case of legal obligations

B. When the contract is made

C. Outside scope of the Indian Contract Act, 1872

D. Within the scope of the Indian Contract Act, 1872

Q. 79 Quasi-contractual obligations arise by the principle of ______

A. Equity, Justice & Good conscience

B. Restitution

C. Rescission

D. None of the above

Q. 80 Goods does not include:

A. Money and actionable claims

B. Growing Crops

C. Shares

D. None of the above

Q. 81 A contracted with B to supply materials worth Rs.10,000 for interior design. The contract between A and B is _______

A. Contract of sale

B. Contract of work

C. Contract of work & labour

D. All of the above

Q. 82 Which of the following does not come under implied warranty?

A. Undisturbed possession of buyer

B. Disclosure of dangerous nature of goods

C. Non-existence of encumbrance

D. None of the above

Q. 83 Implied condition is not treated as implied warranty when:

A. Voluntary waiver of condition

B. Contract is not separable, and buyer accepted the part of the goods

C. Condition is not excused by law

D. All of the above

Q. 84 Which of the following statements is not true?

A. In an agreement to sell, ownership will be transferred to buyer

B. In agreement to sell, loss will be with the seller

C. Both (a) & (b)

D. None of the above

Q. 85 Which of the following is not correct regarding appropriation of goods for unascertained goods?

A. The assent must be given either before or after appropriation

B. Buyer or seller can make appropriation.

C. Goods mush conform to the description

D. None of the above

Q. 86 A hire purchaser of the goods:

A. Can resale the goods

B. Cannot use the goods

C. Has an option to return the goods (or) buy it

D. None of the above

Q. 87 Sale by Mercantile agent is not valid when:

A. The buyer is acting in ordinary course of business

B. When the buyer knows that the agent has no authority to sell

C. The buyer must act in good faith

D. The possession of the goods must be with the consent of the owner

Q. 88 Which of the following rights are not available to unpaid seller against the buyer?

A. Suit for price

B. Suit for damages

C. Suit for interest

D. Stoppage of goods in transit

Q. 89 Rights of unpaid seller does not include:

A. Stoppage of goods in transit

B. Claim for price

C. Suit for interest

D. None of the above

Q. 90 Auction sale can be subject to:

A. Reserve price

B. Market price

C. Any price

D. None of the above

Q. 91 Which one of the following is the true test of partnership?

A. Mutual Agency

B. Profit sharing

C. Carrying on a business

D. Two or more persons

Q. 92 Dormant partner means______

A. Never takes part in business activities

B. Not liable for any act done by other partners

C. Will not share losses of the firm

D. Existence in partnership is invalid

Q. 93 Holding out partner is based on the principle of________

A. Protecting public interest

B. Estoppel

C. Both (a) & (b)

D. All of the above

Q. 94 A Minor in a Partnership is:

A. Personally liable

B. Having unlimited liability

C. Liable only when the firm is insolvent

D. None of the above

Q. 95 Which of the following is not a duty of a partner?

A. To indemnify for fraud

B. To indemnify for fraud

C. To share losses

D. To account for any profit earned in competition of firm

Q. 96 Which of the following is covered under implied authority of a partner?

A. Submit dispute of the firm to arbitration

B. To acquire immovable property on behalf of firm

C. Borrowing money and pledging goods of the firm as a security for the same.

D. Enter into partnership on behalf of firm.

Q. 97 Expulsion of a partner can be exercised by:

A. Majority of partners

B. Good faith

C. Express agreement

D. All of the above

Q. 98 Date of compulsory dissolution for Partnership firm is the:

A. Date of order of Court

B. Date of applying for court

C. Date when firm closes its business

D. None of the above

Q. 99 In which of the following cases, the firm is not dissolved by the order of the court?

A. Just and equitable ground

B. Persistent breach of agreement

C. Misconduct

D. Mutual agreement

Q. 100 _______________ arises obligations where no contact is originally entered:

A. Wagering contract

B. contingent contract

C. Quasi contract

D. None of the above

Session – II

Part A – General Economics

Q. 101 In inductive method, logic proceeds from __

A. General to Particular

B. Positive to normative

C. Normative to Positive

D. Particular to general.

Q. 102 Which among the following in the right formula for price elasticity of demand using Ratio Method

A. (ΔP/ΔQ)x(Q/P)

B. (ΔQ/ΔP)x(P/Q)

C. (ΔQ/ΔP)x(Q/P)

D. (ΔP/ΔQ)x(1/P)

Q. 103 In case of Straight Line demand curve meeting two axes, the Price Elasticity of demand at a point where the curve meets x-axis would be

A. 1

B. ∞

C. 0

D. >1

Q. 104 Elasticity of Supply is greater than one when

A. Proportionate change in price is greater than proportionate change in supply

B. Proportionate change in supply is greater than proportionate change in price

C. Proportionate change in supply is equal to proportionate change in price.

D. All of the above

Q. 105 “The excess of Price which he would be willing to pay rather than go without the thing over that which he actually does pay in the economic measure of his surplus satisfaction” is given by

A. Alfred Marshall

B. Lionel Robbins

C. J.R.Hicks

D. Edge Worth

Q. 106 If the quantity demanded of the good increases by 5% when the price another good increases by 20%, then the cross price elasticity of demand between two goods is ___

A. -0.25

B. 0.25

C. -4

D. 4

Q. 107 The most important function of an entrepreneur is to _______.

A. Innovate

B. Bear the sense of responsibility

C. Finance

D. Earn Profit

Q. 108 Average Cost of Producing 50 units of a Commodity is Rs.250 and fixed cost is Rs.1000. What will be the average fixed cost of producing 100 units of the Commodity?

A. 10

B. 30

C. 20

D. 5

Q. 109 Linear Homogeneous Production function is based on ____

A. Increasing Returns to Scale

B. Decreasing Returns to Scale

C. Constant Returns to Scale

D. None of these

Q. 110 Use the following data to answer following question

Output	0	1	2	3	4	5	6
Total Cost	240	330	410	480	540	610	690

(TC)

The marginal cost of the sixth unit of output is

A. 80

B. 75

C. 133

D. 450

Q. 111 Positively sloped (i.e. rising) part of long run Average Cost Curve is due to which of the following _____

A. Constant Returns to Scale

B. Increasing Returns to Scale

C. Diseconomies of Scale

D. Economics of Scale.

Q. 112 The Economy achieves ‘Productive Efficiency’ when:

A. The best quality goods are produced.

B. The highly skillful resources in the country are fully employed

C. All resources are utilized and goods & services are produced at least cost.

D. none

Q. 113 A company produces 10 units of output and incurs Rs.30 per unit of variable cost and Rs.5 per unit of fixed cost. In this case total cost is:

A. Rs.300

B. Rs.35

C. Rs.305

D. Rs.350

Q. 114 AFC curve is always _______

A. U-shaped if there is decreasing returns to scale

B. U-shaped if there is increasing returns to scale

C. Declining when output increases.

D. Intersected by M.C at its minimum point refer back

Q. 115 In case of law of variable proportions, diminishing returns occur

A. When units of a variable input are added to a fixed input and total product falls

B. When units of a variable input are added to a fixed input and marginal product falls

C. When the size of the plant is increased in the long run.

D. When the quantity of the fixed input is increased and returns to the variable input falls.

Q. 116 In Long run which of the following is true for a perfect competition

A. Industry is operating at minimum point of AC curve

B. MC is greater than MR

C. AFC is less than AVC

D. Price is less than AC

Q. 117 A market structure in which many firms sell product that are similar, but not identical

A. Monopolistic Competition

B. Monopoly

C. Perfect Competition

D. Oligopoly

Q. 118 Price discrimination will not be profitable if elasticity of demand is___ in different markets

A. Uniform

B. Different

C. less

D. zero

Q. 119 The firm in a perfectly competitive market is a “price taker”. This designation as a “price taker” is based on the assumption that:

A. The firm has some, but not complete, control over its product price

B. There are so many buyers and sellers in the market that any individual firm cannot affect market

C. Each firm produces a homogeneous product.

D. There is easy entry into or exit from the market place.

Q. 120 Kinked demand curve of the Oligopoly indicates

I) If one firm decreases price other firms also decreases the price

II) If one firm increases price other firms also increases the price

III) If one firm decreases the price other firms does not decrease the price.

IV) If one firm increases the price other firms does not increase the price

A. Only I

B. II and IV

C. I and IV

D. II and III

Q. 121 When the price of commodity is Rs.20/- quantity demand is 9 units; and when price is Rs.19, quantity demanded is 10 units. Based on this information, what is marginal revenue resulting from an increase in output from 9 units to 10 units.

A. Rs.20

B. Rs.19

C. Rs.10

D. Rs.1

Q. 122 The share of agriculture in India’s National Income has ____ over the years

A. Increased

B. Decreased

C. Remains constant

D. First decreased and then increased

Q. 123 In which year Income tax was first introduced

A. 1860

B. 1873

C. 1948

D. 1950

Q. 124 In which year Income tax was first introduced

A. GNP at market price – Depreciation = NNP market price

B. GNP at market price – NFIA = GDP market price

C. GNP at market price – Net Indirect Tax = GNP at factor cost

D. None of these

Q. 125 Which of the following statements is correct?

A. In India the tertiary sector contributes maximum to the GDP.

B. India is basically a socialist economy

C. The distribution of income and wealth in India is quite equitable

D. None of the above

Q. 126 Which of the following is a type of inflation?

A. Demand pull inflation

B. Cost push inflation

C. Stagflation

D. All of the above

Q. 127 Which of the following is not a scheme to reduce poverty in India?

A. Swaran Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY)

B. SJSRY (Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana)

C. MGNREGS (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme)

D. SGRY (Sampoorna Grameena Rojgar Yojana)

Q. 128 Which among the following pairs is mismatched?

A. National Telecom policy – 2012

B. Electricity act – 2003

C. National policy on skill & development–2009

D. Green Revolution – 1991.

Q. 129 “Partnership in excellence” programe has been launched by ministry of power to __

A. Remove the obstacle of thermal power plants.

B. Improve the generation of power

C. Improve conditions of coal mining workers

D. Encourage of public private partnership in power sector

Q. 130 Right to children to free and compulsory education Act RTE Act, 2009 has made free education for all children between the age of_

A. 5-15

B. 6-18

C. 7-20

D. 6-14

Q. 131 Which of the following item will not be included in balance of current account?

A. Balance of unilateral transfers

B. Balance of invisible items

C. Balance of trade

D. External commercial borrowings

Q. 132 If in a population of 1000 people, 400 people are in the labour force, 392 are employed, what is the unemployment rate?

A. 2%

B. 8%

C. 6%

D. 4%

Q. 133 Which of the following is the reason for increase in Birth rate in India?

A. In an agrarian economy, children are considered as assets but not burden because children help in agricultural fields

B. Marriages are almost compulsory and take place at quite young age in India

C. In India, by the age of 50 years, only 5 out of 1,000 in Indian women remain unmarried.

D. All of these

Q. 134 Department of posts has launched ___ with the aim of providing fast and reliable postal services to the consumers.

A. Logistic post

B. Project arrow

C. E-Bill post

D. Project areal

Q. 135 In which year SEZ policy was announced?

A. 1991

B. 1999

C. 2000

D. 2008

Q. 136 Special drawing rights were created in 1969 by

A. IMF

B. World Bank

C. WTO

D. RBI

Q. 137 In which of the following areas, 100% FDI was not allowed?

A. Drugs and pharmaceuticals

B. Hotels & Tourism

C. Courier Services

D. Railways

Q. 138 Which of the following is mismatch?

A. IBRD – giving short-term loans for development

B. IMF – provides finance to correct disequilibrium in balance of payments

C. RBI – controls credit in India

D. WT0 – generally forbid use of quantitative restrictions on trade.

Q. 139 Which of the following is not a part of world bank group?

A. ICSID

B. MIGA

C. IFC

D. ADB

Q. 140 Liberalisation refers to ___

A. Relaxation of previous government restrictions usually in the areas of social and

economic policies

B. Transferring the assets and service functions from public to private sectors

C. Disposal of public sector units equity in the market.

D. None of these

Q. 141 If we closely watch 39 PSUs which had been chosen for disinvestment / privatization during 1991 – 98, we can find that out of them only 3 PSUs posted losses in 1997 – 1998. These include ____.

A. Gas authority of India Ltd., Hindustan Machine tools, Bharat electrical Ltd.,

B. Hindustan cables Ltd., Hindustan copper Ltd., and Hindustan photo films manufacturing Co. Ltd.,

C. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd., Steel authority of India Ltd., Bharat Heavy Electrical Ltd.,

D. Videsh Sanchar Nigam Ltd., Shipping corporation of India, Indian electro chemical Ltd.,

Q. 142 Abolition of intermediates and tenancy reforms are both parts of _____

A. Industrial reforms in India

B. External sector reforms in India

C. Land reforms in India

D. Banking reforms in India

Q. 143 IDA is a “soft lending arm” of world bank due to_____

A. Provides interest free loans to poor countries

B. Provides loans to developing countries at lower rate of interest

C. Provides short-term loans

D. None of these

Q. 144 Nationalization of banks aimed at all of the following except:

A. Removal of control by a few

B. Provision of credit to big industries only

C. Provision of adequate credit for agriculture, small industry and export units

D. Encouragement of a new class of entrepreneur

Q. 145 Which of the following is not a function of Commercial Banks?

A. Lending of loans

B. Issue of currency

C. Agency Services

D. Receipts of Deposits

Q. 146 Which among the following functions, money serves in the dynamic sense?

A. As a store of value

B. As a medium of exchange

C. As a unit of account

D. Transforming saving into investment.

Q. 147 ____ refers to that portion of total deposits which a commercial bank has to keep with itself in the form of liquid assets.

A. CRR

B. SLR

C. bank rate

D. repo rate

Q. 148 Lending and borrowing operations of commercial banks result in ___ in the country

A. Capital formation

B. Credit creation

C. Credit control

D. None of the above

Q. 149 Narrow money excludes ______ of the public with the banks while broad money includes it

A. Demand deposits

B. Time deposits

C. Post office saving deposits

D. Currency in circulation

Q. 150 If demand increases from Rs. 30,000 to Rs. 36,000 as a result price increase from Rs. 25 to 30. Calculate price elasticity of demand by Arc Method.

A. 1

B. 0.75

C. 0.67

D. 0.25

Part B – Quantitative Aptitude

Q. 151 If log x = a+b ; log y = a-b then log(10x/y²)

A. 1-a+3b

B. a-1+3b

C. a+3b+1

D. 1-b+3a

Q. 152 choose the correct option: x= 1+log_p qr, y=1+log_q rp, z= 1+log_r pq then find 1/x + 1/y + 1/z

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. -1

Q. 153 The first, second and third month salaries of a person are in the ratio 2:4:5. The difference between the product of the salaries of the first 2 months & last 2 months is 4,80,00,000. Find the salary of the second month

A. Rs.4,000

B. Rs.6,000

C. Rs.12,000

D. Rs.8,000

Q. 154 Find the equation of the line parallel to the line joining (7,5) (2,9) and passing through (3, -4)

A. 7x – 4y + 8 = 0

B. 5y + 4x + 8 = 0

C. 7x – 4y – 8 = 0

D. 5y – 4x + 8 = 0

Q. 155 If x+5y=33 and (x+y)/(x-y)=13/3 then(x,y)

A. (4,8)

B. (8,5)

C. (4,6)

D. (16,4)

Q. 156 Which of the following graph represents the inequality x + y ≤ 6 is

d. None

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 157 Given conditions x + y ≥ 5 , x + y ≤ 5, 0 ≤ x ≤ 4 and 0 ≤ y ≥ 2 then the common region under these conditions is

A. ECDE

B. EOABCE

C. Line segment CD

D. Line segment BC

Q. 158 A certain sum of money was invested at S.I for 3 years. If it has invested at rate 7% higher, then the interest have been 882/- more, then the sum is

A. Rs.12,600

B. Rs.6,800

C. Rs.4,200

D. Rs.2,800

Q. 159 A certain sum of money double itself in 4 years at C.I. In how many years it will become 32 times to itself

A. 16 years

B. 24 years

C. 20 years

D. 12 years

Q. 160 The future value of an annuity of Rs.1,000 made annually for 5 years at the rate of interest 14% compound annually is

A. Rs.5610

B. Rs.6610

C. Rs.6160

D. Rs.5160

Q. 161 6pr = 360 then find r

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. none

Q. 162 If 5 books of English, 4 books of Tamil and 3 books of Hindi are to be arranged in a single row so that books of same language come together

A. 1,80,630

B. 1,60,830

C. 1,03,680

D. 1,30,680

Q. 163 5 Boys and 4 girls are to be seated in row. If the girls occupy even places then the no. of such arrangements

A. 288

B. 2808

C. 2008

D. 2880

Q. 164 Sum of first n terms of an A.P is 6n2+6n. Then find 4th term of series

A. 120

B. 72

C. 48

D. 24

Q. 165 In an A.P. If Sn = n²p and Sm = m²p, (m≠n) then Sp =

A. p²

B. p³

C. 2p³

D. p^4

Q. 166 If the numbers x,y,z are in G.P then the numbers x²+y², xy+yz, y²+z² are in ___

A. A.P

B. G.P

C. H.P

D. none of these

Q. 167 A = {2,3}, B={4,5}, C={5,6} then Ax(B∩C)

A. {(5,2), (5,3)}

B. {(2,5), (3,5)}

C. {(2,4), (5,3)}

D. {(3,5), (2,6)}

Q. 168 If a relation R = {(1,1), (2,2), (1,2), (2,1)} is symmetric on A = {1,2,3} then R is

A. Reflexive but not Transitive

B. Transitive but not Reflexive

C. Reflexive and Transitive

D. Neither Reflexive nor Transitive

Q. 169 f(x) =x/x-1, then f(x/y)/f(y/x)

A. x/y

B. y/x

C. -x/y

D. -y/x

Q. 170 If N is the set of all natural numbers, E is the set of all even natural numbers and f: NE defined by f(x) = 2x Ɐ x ε N then f is

A. One–one, into

B. One-one, onto

C. Many to one

D. One to many

Q. 171 value of the limit is:

A. 5/3k^(2/3)

B. 5/3(k+2)^(2/3)

C. 5/3(k+2)^(5/3)

D. none of these

Q. 172 A function f(x) is defined as

f(x) = x – 1 for x < 0

= -1/2 for x = 0

= x + 1 for x > 0 then f is

A. Continuous at x = 0

B. Discontinuous at x = 0

C. Undefined at x = 0

D. None of these

Q. 173 A function f(x) is defined as

f(x) = x+2 when x ≤1

= 5-px when x>1 then find the value of p for f(x) is continuous at x=1

A. 1

B. 2

C. -1

D. -2

Q. 174 choose the correct option:

A. 1

B. 0

C. -1

D. none

Q. 175 choose the correct option:

A. 3/2

B. 1/2

C. 0

D. 1

Q. 176 The most appropriate diagram to represent 5 year plan outlay of India in different economic sectors is

A. Pie diagram

B. Histogram

C. Line diagram

D. Frequency polygon

Q. 177 For construction of Histogram the class intervals of frequency distribution is

A. equal

B. unequal

C. Either Equal or Unequal

D. None of these

Q. 178 100 persons are divided into number of male/female and employed/ unemployed it refers to

A. Cardinal Data

B. Ordinal Data

C. Spatial Data

D. Temporal Data

Q. 179 If the fluctuations in the observed values are very small as compared to the size of the items, it is presented by

A. Z-Chart

B. Ogive chart

C. False-Base Line

D. Control Chart

Q. 180 For two numbers A.M=10 and G.M=8, then H.M=?

A. 9

B. 8.9

C. 6.4

D. none

Q. 181 The 3rd decile for the values 15, 10, 20, 25, 18, 11, 9, 12, is

A. 13

B. 10.7

C. 11

D. 11.5

Q. 182 The A.M of square of first ‘2n’ natural numbers is

A. 1/6(2n+1)(4n-1)

B. 1/6(2n-1)(4n-1)

C. 1/6(2n-1)(4n+1)

D. 1/6(2n+1)(4n+1)

Q. 183 1st quartile is 142, Semi-Inter quartile range is 18. Then median is

A. 151

B. 160

C. 178

D. none

Q. 184 Q.D is equal to ?

A. 2/3 S.D

B. 4/5 S.D

C. 5/6 S.D

D. None

Q. 185 Correlation coefficient between x and y is 1, then correlation coefficient between x-2 and (- y/2) +1 is

A. 1

B. -1

C. -1/2

D. 1/2

Q. 186 Two regression equations are x+y=6 and x+2y=10, then correlation coefficient between x and y is

A. -1/2

B. 1/2

C. -1/√2

D. 1/√2

Q. 187 Correlation coefficient between x and y is zero then two regression lines are

A. Perpendicular to each other

B. Coincide to each other

C. Parallel to each other

D. None of these

Q. 188 If 6 coins are tossed simultaneously then the probability of obtaining exactly 2 heads is

A. 1/64

B. 63/64

C. 15/64

D. none of these

Q. 189 A die is thrown twice then the probability that the sum of the numbers is divisible by 4 is

A. 1/9

B. 1/3

C. 11/36

D. 1/4

Q. 190 A random variable X takes three values -1,2,3 with the respective probabilities P(-1)= 1/3, P(2)=1/3, P(3)=1/3, then E (|X|) is

A. 3/2

B. -5/2

C. 2

D. 9/2

Q. 191 Let the distribution function of a random variable X be F(x) = P(X ≤ x) then F(5)-F(2)

A. P(2 ≤ x<5)

B. P(2<x ≤ 5)

C. P(2 ≤ x ≤ 5)

D. P(2<x<5)

Q. 192 For a Binomial distribution mean is 4 and variance is 3 then, 3rd central moment is

A. 5/2

B. 7/4

C. 3/2

D. 1/3

Q. 193 In a Normal distribution mean =2 and variance=4 then, 4th central moment is

A. 16

B. 32

C. 48

D. 64

Q. 194 A Random variables X follows uniform distribution in the interval [-3,7]. Then the mean of distribution is

A. 2

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

Q. 195 X and Y are two independent Normal variables, then the distribution of X+Y is ______

A. Normal distribution

B. t-distribution

C. Chi-Square distribution

D. F-distribution

Q. 196 Area sample is similar to

A. Quota sampling

B. Cluster Sampling

C. Judgement Sampling

D. none

Q. 197 t-test can be used only when the sample has been taken from _______population

A. Binomial

B. poisson

C. normal

D. Exponential

Q. 198 If the Expected value of an estimator is equal to the value of the parameter. Then the estimator is

A. biased

B. unbiased

C. Both (a) & (b)

D. Neither (a) nor (b)

Q. 199 Fisher ideal index number is Σp_nq₀=1180, Σp₀q₀=1170,Σp_nq_n=1064,Σp₀ q_n=1100

A. 96.73

B. 98.795

C. 98.77

D. 100.86

Q. 200 When the prices are decreased by 30% then the index number is now

A. 50

B. 60

C. 70

D. 30

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	C	D	D	C	B	A	C	D	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	B	B	A	A	B	C	A	C	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	D	B	D	B	B	B	C	B	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	A	A	C	A	D	D	B	A	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	C	D	C	C	D	A	A	A	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	A	B	A	B	A	A	C	B	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	A	C	D	B	C	C	A	B	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	A	C	C	D	D	C	C	A	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	D	C	A	A	C	B	D	D	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	A	B	D	B	C	D	A	D	C
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	B	C	B	A	B	A	A	C	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	C	C	D	C	B	A	A	A	B	C
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	C	B	A	D	A	D	D	D	B	D
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	D	A	D	B	C	A	D	A	D	A
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	B	C	A	B	B	D	B	B	B	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	A	B	D	B	B	B	C	C	C	B
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	C	D	C	B	B	B	B	C	B
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	B	B	B	B	D	A	A	B	C	C
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	B	D	B	A	B	C	A	C	D	C
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	B	C	C	A	A	B	C	B	C	C

CA CPT Previous Year Paper December 2013

CA CPT December 2013

Session – I

Part A – Fundamentals of Accounting

Q. 1 If nothing is given in the financial statements about the three accounting assumptions then it is to be treated as it

A. Is assumed that it is not followed

B. Is assumed to be followed

C. Is assumed to be followed to some extent

D. None of the above

Q. 2 The proprietor of the business is treated as creditor for the capital introduced by him due to concept.

A. Money measurement

B. Cost

C. Entity

D. Dual aspect

Q. 3 Accounting has universal application in Recording _____and events for have adequate information:

A. Transaction

B. Accounting standards

C. Accounting policies

D. Accounting conventions

Q. 4 An Asset purchased for Rs.60,000 and paid Rs.10,000 and remaining amount is payable in installments. This effect leads to ______

A. Both assets & Liabilities increased by Rs.50,000

B. Both assets & Liabilities Decreased by Rs.50,000

C. Assets Increased by Rs.10,000 & Liabilities Decreased by Rs.10,000

D. Assets Increased by Rs.50,000 & Liabilities Decreased by Rs.50,000

Q. 5 Renewal fee of patents is a ____ expenditure.

A. Capital

B. Revenue

C. Deffered revenue

D. Development

Q. 6 A Bill is Discounted Rs.10,000. Where is it shown at the time of preparation of balance sheet?

A. Liability side of balance sheet

B. Assets side of balance sheet

C. Foot note to Balance sheet

D. Debit side of profit & loss A/c

Q. 7 Expenditure spend for Increasing the cinema hall seats is called_____

A. Capital expenditure

B. Revenue expenditure

C. Deferred revenue expenditure

D. None of the above

Q. 8 Which accounting concept specifies the practice of crediting closing stock to the trading account?

A. Cost

B. Realisation

C. Going concern

D. Matching

Q. 9 Goods purchased costing Rs.60,000 and cash paid Rs.45,000 after receipt of a cash discount Rs.9,000. What is the percentage of trade discount got___

A. 15%

B. 10%

C. 7 1/2 %

D. 25%

Q. 10 _____ is prepared to ascertain the arithmetical accuracy of posting & balancing of accounts.

A. Cash book

B. Journal

C. Trial Balance

D. Bank Reconciliation statement

Q. 11 Consistency with reference to application of accounting procedures means:

A. All companies in the same Industry should use identical accounting procedures

B. Income & assets have not been overstated

C. Accounting methods & procedures shall be followed uniform basis year after year

D. Any accounting method can be followed as per convenience

Q. 12 Salaries paid Rs.4,500 is shown on credit side of Trail Balance. The Debit side of Trial Balance will be ______

A. Short by Rs.4,500

B. Excess by Rs.4,500

C. Short by Rs.9,000

D. Excess by Rs.9,000

Q. 13 Wages paid Rs.2,500 for Installation of new machinery wrongly debited to wages A/c instead of machinery A/c. It is an error of ____

A. Omission

B. Commission

C. Principle

D. Clerical errors

Q. 14 Petty cash book is used to record ____

A. Expenses for postage and conveyance

B. Purchase of Raw material

C. Paid salaries

D. None of the above

Q. 15 Rectification of errors are first entered in:

A. Journal proper

B. Subsidiary books

C. Trial balance

D. Ledger

Q. 16 Which Accounts are used to prepare Bank Reconciliation statement?

A. Cash column & Bank statement

B. Bank column & Bank Statement

C. Cash column & Bank Balance

D. None of the above

Q. 17 On 31-03-13 balance of Cash book is Rs.7,074 (Credit), balance as per bank statement is Rs.3,159 (Debit). On scrutiny it was found that, it was due to cheques issued but not yet presented. Bank balance on 31-03-13 to be shown in Balance sheet is _____

A. Bank O.D. Rs.3,159

B. Cash at Bank Rs.7,074

C. Bank O.D. Rs.7,074

D. Cash at Bank Rs.3,159

Q. 18 The credit balance as per pass book of ‘X’ was Rs.65,000. Cheques issued but not paid Rs.75,800. Cheques deposited by one of the customers of bank but wrongly credited in ‘X’ A/c Rs.20,600. The balance as per cash book is _____

A. Rs.31.400 Debit

B. Rs.31,400 Overdraft

C. Rs.1,20,000 Debit

D. Rs. 10,400 Overdraft

Q. 19 The opening stock is overstated by Rs.10,000 and closing stock is understated by Rs.15,000. The impact on the net profit of the current year is

A. Rs.5,000 overstated

B. Rs.25,000 overstated

C. Rs. 5,000 understated

D. Rs.25,000 understated

Q. 20 Net realizable value is _______

A. Estimated selling price

B. Estimated cost price plus marketing cost

C. Estimated selling price less cost incurred in order to make sale

D. Estimated selling price plus cost incurred in order to make sale

Q. 21 The value of inventory as on Apr.04 is Rs.1,60,000. The following transactions takes place during Apl.01 to Apl.04. The value of stock sold is Rs.40,000. The mode of sale is as follows:-

i) The damaged goods are sold for Rs.15,000, Sold at 25% below cost. ii) The remaining goods are sold at cost plus 25%. The value of stock as on 31st March is (Damaged goods valued at NRV) ______

A. Rs.2,00,000

B. Rs.1,95,000

C. Rs.2,05,000

D. None of the above

Q. 22 Where a machine produces products of uniform size, the method of depreciation to be applied ______

A. Machine Hour method

B. Annuity method

C. Sinking fund method

D. Production units

Q. 23 Which of the following is the meaning for the entry recorded in the machinery A/c?

Dr			Machinery A/c Cr
Date	Particulars	Rs.	Date	Particulars	Rs.
			31-3-13	By P & L A/c	5000

A. Portion of sale of machinery transferred to Profit & Loss A/c

B. Machinery of Rs.5,000 sold

C. Machinery of Rs.5,000 purchased

D. Loss on sale of machinery transferred to P &L A/C

Q. 24 Provision for depreciation A/c is created by debiting to

A. Machinery A/c

B. Profit & Loss A/c

C. Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c

D. None of these

Q. 25 If depreciation is charged at a fixed rate, then depreciation in SLM method, when compared to WDV is

A. Equal in the first year & Less in subsequent years

B. Less in the first year & More in subsequent years

C. Equal in the first year & More in subsequent years

D. More in the first year & Less in subsequent years

Q. 26 For a depreciable asset, obsolescence is due to

A. Passage of time

B. Wear & Tear

C. Technological Changes

D. None of the above

Q. 27 ______ method is used when repairs and Maintenance goes on increase.

A. SLM method

B. WDV method

C. Machine hours method

D. Production units method

Q. 28 Fixed assets are held by business for _____

A. Converting into cash

B. Generating revenue

C. Resale

D. None of the above

Q. 29 Change in the capital A/c of proprietor may occur due to ______

A. Profit earned

B. Loss incurred

C. Capital Introduced

D. All of the above

Q. 30 The manager earned a commission of Rs.25,000, which is based on 10% of Net Profit. If sales is Rs. 3,50,000 is more than purchases. No opening & closing stock. Find Direct & Indirect expenses?

A. Rs.75,000

B. Rs.1,00,000

C. Rs.2,50,000

D. Not attainable

Q. 31 Which of the following are current assets?

1) Accounts receivable

2) Salaries paid-in-advance

3) Bank Loan for 3 years

4) Preliminary expenses

A. 1 & 2

B. 2 & 3

C. 3 & 4

D. All of the above

Q. 32 On 31-3-13, prepaid expenses A/c (2012-13) shows a closing balance of Rs.5,000. It means:

A. Expenses transferred from previous years for Accounting in current year

B. Expenses transferred to next year for Accounting in that year only

C. Expenses transferred to next year for accounting in that (or) future year

D. Expenses to be transferred to P & L A/c of current year.

Q. 33 In Profit & Loss a/c, Selling & Distribution expenses does not include______

A. Commission on sale

B. Packing expenses

C. Legal expenses

D. Advertisement expenses

Q. 34 Which of the following are not miscellaneous expenses?

A. Preliminary expenses

B. Amount spent for research & development

C. Brokerage on Issue of shares & Debentures

D. Goodwill yet to be written off

Q. 35 Which of the following is false?

A. Assets can be arranged in the order of their liquidity

B. Balance sheet can be prepared vertically

C. Intangible asset is not an asset

D. None of these

Q. 36 Given : profit Rs.20,000, capital Rs. 1,00,000 and liabilities Rs. 50,000 then assets will be:

A. Rs. 1,70,000

B. Rs.1,30,000

C. Rs. 70,000

D. Rs. 30,000

Q. 37 A & B have started a Joint Venture for purchase & Sale of garments. Initial capital contribution was Rs.25,000 & Rs.50,000. There is no written agreement about share of P & L among them. They purchased garments worth Rs.50,000 & sold for Rs.75,000, the profit to be shared among them is

A. Rs.8,333 & Rs.16,667

B. Rs.10,000 & Rs.15,000

C. Rs.12,500 & Rs.12,500

D. Rs.20,000 & Rs.5,000

Q. 38 On 1st April, Mr.A sold goods of Rs.10,000 to B and drew a bill for 3 months. Mr. A discounted the bill with bank at 15%. Amount of discount will be?

A. Rs. 125

B. Rs.250

C. Rs.375

D. None

Q. 39 In Joint Venture the minimum number of coventureres is :

A. 2

B. 5

C. 7

D. 4

Q. 40 Retirement of a Bill means _____

A. Discounting a Bill

B. Dishonour of a bill

C. Renewal of a bill

D. Payment made before due date

Q. 41 If the goods sent on approval, two vehicles of Rs.55,000 each, are recorded as Rs.75,000 each, then the cost of goods lying with customers is

A. Rs.1,10,000

B. Rs.55,000

C. Rs.75,000

D. Rs.1,50,000

Q. 42 What are the options available to the holder of a bill in the bills of exchange (Besides retaining the bill, till the due date)?

A. Discount with bank

B. Sent to bank for collection

C. Endorse it to his creditor

D. All of these

Q. 43 Which of the following is true?

A. Co-venturers always share profits equally

B. Number of Co-venturers can never be more than two

C. Relation between co-Venturers is principal and Agent

D. Co-ventures may provide funds

Q. 44 Delcredere commission 10% is to be calculated on Rs.1,00,000 of cash sales and on Rs.50,000 of credit sales, then the commission will be

A. Rs.10,000

B. Rs.15,000

C. Rs.5,000

D. None of the above

Q. 45 Karthik and Dhoni entered into Joint venture, sharing profits & Losses in the Ratio of 2:1. Karthik purchased goods Rs.2,00,000 and entitled to 1% commission on purchases. Dhoni sold goods for Rs.2,50,000 and entitled to get a commission 5% on sales. The profit on venture will be _____

A. Rs.35,500

B. Rs.34,000

C. Rs.36,000

D. Rs.38,000

Q. 46 Overriding commission is a commission, that is____

A. Calculated on gross sales

B. Calculated on credit sales

C. Allowed for selling goods above invoice price

D. None of the above

Q. 47 Which of the following should be valued compulsory at the time of admission of a partner______

A. Goodwill

B. Plant & machinery

C. Land & Buildings

D. Furniture & fillings

Q. 48 A & B are equal partners. They admitted ‘C’ for 7 1 th share. The new Ratio of A & B is

A. 4/7, 1/7

B. 3/7, 3/7

C. 6/7, 1/7

D. 1/7, 4/7

Q. 49 C & D are the partners of a firm, who share profits & losses in the ratio of 5:3. D is entitled to get 5% commission. The net profit of the year is Rs.33,600 before charging such commission. Find the share of the profits of C & D.

A. C 20,000 & D 12,000

B. C 19,950 & D 11,970

C. C 21,000 & D 12,600

D. C 21,600 & D 12,000

Q. 50 In which method, Joint life policy premium paid is treated as an expense and not as an asset?

A. Ordinary expense method

B. Surrender value method

C. Joint life policy reserve method

D. None of the above

Q. 51 Preference shares can be redeemed, unless they are

A. Partly paid

B. Fully paid

C. Transferred

D. Re-Issued

Q. 52 Underwriting commission will not be paid onshares taken by

A. Promoters

B. Employees

C. Directors

D. All of these

Q. 53 Debentures are shown under the heading ____

A. Secured Loans

B. Reserves & surplus

C. Capital Reserve

D. Current liabilities

Q. 54 A LTD before commencing business, can i issue the shares at discount?

A. Possible

B. Not possible

C. Possible with the permission of stock exchange

D. Possible With the approval of shareholders and with the permission of Government.

Q. 55 In Balance sheet ______ is not shown

A. Authorised Capital

B. Un-issued capital

C. Subscribed capital

D. Paid-up capital

Q. 56 Which of the following is not correct for debentures Issue?

A. They can be issued for cash

B. They can be issued for consideration other than cash

C. A company can buy its own debentures

D. Can be issued in lieu of dividend

Q. 57 Which is not a feature of company:

A. Separate legal entity

B. Perpetual existence

C. Incorporated Association

D. No separation between management & Ownership

Q. 58 A company issued shares for 5,000 but applications are received for 7,500 shares. Mr. X applied for 600 shares. How many shares he will get & how much amount is transferred to allotment money, where application money is Rs.3 per share?

A. 400 shares & Rs.600

B. 600 shares & Rs.600

C. 500 shares & Rs.300

D. None of the above

Q. 59 Ram Ltd. has issued 15% Debentures of Rs.20,00,000 at a Discount of 10% on April, 2012. The company pays interest half yearly on June 30th & Dec 31st every year. On March 31s , 2013. The amount shown as interest accrued is ______

A. Rs.2,25,000

B. Rs.75,000

C. Rs.3,00,000

D. Rs.1,50,000

Q. 60 Uma, being a holder of 1000 shares of Rs.20 each issued at a discount of 10% per share. She did not pay the allotment money of Rs.4 per share and first call of Rs.8 per share. At the time of forfeiture, the discount on the shares must be_____

A. Credited Rs.2,000

B. Debited Rs.2,000

C. Credited Rs.1,000

D. None of these

Part B – Mercantile Laws

Q. 61 In case of unenforceable contract with some technical defect, then the parties _____:

A. Can sue

B. Cannot sue

C. Should be considered as illegal

D. None of the above

Q. 62 An Advertisement for sale of an old Flat which is published in leading newspaper. This kind of offer is _____

A. Specific Offer

B. Continuing Offer

C. Open Offer

D. General Offer

Q. 63 There is no binding contract in case of ____ as one’s offer cannot be construed as acceptance by the other.

A. Cross Offer

B. Standing Offer

C. Counter Offer

D. Special Offer

Q. 64 A offers B to supply Books at Rs.100 each Book. B accepts the same with condition of 10% discount. It is _____

A. Counter Offer

B. Cross Offer

C. Specific Offer

D. General Offer

Q. 65 In case of counter offer is made, the original offer stands _____

A. Rejected

B. Accepted Automatically

C. Accepted with modifications and variations

D. None

Q. 66 _____ Contracts are also known as Contracts with executed consideration

A. Unilateral

B. Completed

C. Bilateral

D. Executory

Q. 67 Which of the following is not an exception to the rule “No Consideration, No Contract”?

A. Love & affection

B. Compensation for past Voluntary

C. Contract of agency

D. None of the above

Q. 68 G paid Rs.1,00,000 to H to influence the head of the Government Organisation in order to provide him some employment. On his failure to provide the job, G sued H for recovery of the amount. Which of the following is correct?

A. G can recover the amount of Rs.10,000.

B. G can recover the amount of Rs.10,000 with interest.

C. G can file a suit.

D. G cannot recover the amount.

Q. 69 A stronger party is able to dominate the will of the weaker party, then it is known as _____

A. Undue influence

B. Coercion

C. Mistake

D. All of the above

Q. 70 Karthik is the coach of Sachin a minor, who joined for Hockey coaching. The Fees is 10,000. The Contract is _____

A. Void Agreement

B. Contingent Contract

C. Quasi Contract

D. Wagering Agreement

Q. 71 A, B, C are partners. They promised to give 60,000 to D. If C dies, who will Perform the Contract?

A. A, B

B. A, B and C’s legal representatives

C. A, B do not perform

D. None of the above

Q. 72 X & Y entered into an agreement to buy an imported car for Rs.30,000. Later on they cancelled the agreement. This is known as ___

A. Rescission

B. Remission

C. Alteration

D. Novation

Q. 73 A holds a house on lease. After that he buys the house and became owner. The contract is discharged by _____

A. Rescission

B. Merger

C. Waiver

D. Remission

Q. 74 A contract entered between promisor and promisee becomes impossible to perform due to destruction of subject matter. In this case __

A. Promisee is entitled for compensation

B. Contract continues to be valid

C. Contract becomes void

D. None of the above

Q. 75 Which of the following Damages are punishment in nature?

A. Vindictive Damages

B. Nominal Damages

C. Special Damages

D. Ordinary Damages

Q. 76 _______ is a game of chance.

A. Conditional Contract

B. Contingent Contract

C. Wagering Agreement

D. Quasi Contract

Q. 77 A stipulation in a contract of sale with reference to the goods which may be ____

A. Fair price

B. Lawful price

C. Condition (or) warranty

D. Delivery

Q. 78 Under the sale of goods act 1930, the seller in a contract of sale transfers the ______ in goods to the buyer for a price.

A. Possession

B. Control

C. Rights

D. Property

Q. 79 If the goods completely perish before contract of sale, the contract becomes.

A. Valid

B. Void

C. Voidable

D. Unenforceable

Q. 80 When a person sells the goods by infringing the copyright or trademark of the others, there is breach of an implied _______

A. Condition as to title

B. Condition as to description

C. Condition as to merchantability

D. None of these

Q. 81 Conditions which are presumed by law to be present in a contract are ______

A. Express Conditions

B. Implied Conditions

C. Qualified Conditions

D. Unqualified Conditions

Q. 82 The Doctrine of Caveat Emptor applies to the sale where ______

A. The Buyer Expressly informed the seller the particular purpose for which the goods are being bought

B. Sale under a Patent or Trade Name

C. When the good is of merchantable quality and the buyer has examined the good.

D. None of the above

Q. 83 Seller sends the goods to the buyer at larger (or) smaller quantity than ordered quantity. The option to the buyer is _____

A. Reject the whole quantity

B. Accepts the whole quantity

C. Accept (or) Reject the whole quantity

D. All of the above

Q. 84 The Goods are damaged after Sale. The Risk is to be borne by ______

A. Buyer only

B. Seller only

C. Both (a) & (b)

D. None of the above

Q. 85 Q sells 100 tones of rice to P at Rs.50,000 per tone. P makes the full payment and says that he will take the goods on next week. Before P could take the goods, the goods are destroyed. The loss will be borne by _____

A. P

B. Q

C. Both P & Q equally

D. None

Q. 86 Right of general lien cannot be exercised by __

A. Factor

B. Banker

C. Auctioneer

D. All of these

Q. 87 Under Indian partnership act 1932, the Partnership can be formed between ____

A. One Indian & Two Foreigners

B. One major person and one unsound mind person

C. Convicts undergoing Imprisonment

D. None of the above

Q. 88 The Mode of determining the existence of partnership is ___

A. Real relation between them

B. Sharing of profits

C. Business is to carried on by all (or) any of them acting for all

D. All of the above

Q. 89 Each partner in a firm is in the position of ____

A. Only agent

B. Only principal

C. Agent as well as principal

D. Neither agent nor principal

Q. 90 Which of the following is a form in which all the partners are signed?

A. Pronote

B. Partnership Deed

C. MOA

D. None

Q. 91 Dormant partner is also known as ____

A. Sleeping Partner

B. Active partner

C. Nominal Partner

D. Sub – Partner

Q. 92 In which of the following, the partnership duration is not fixed?

A. Particular Partnership

B. Partnership at will

C. Fixed term partnership

D. None of these

Q. 93 As per the agreement, profits should be shared equally but loss shall be borne by one partner. Then the partnership agreement is _____

A. Lawful

B. Illegal

C. Void

D. Voidable

Q. 94 Which of the following is within the scope of implied authority of a partner in a partnership firm?

A. Enter into partnership on behalf of the firm

B. Admit any liability in a suit or proceeding against the firm

C. Acquire immovable property on behalf of the firm

D. Purchasing & selling goods, in which the firm deals

Q. 95 The liability of newly admitted partner arise from ____

A. The Date of his admission

B. As per agreement

C. For the pre-existing debts of the firm

D. All of the above

Q. 96 Robert is a sleeping partner in a firm. He detected a wrong in the accounts of the firm. So he wants to check the complete accounts of the firm. But the other partners objected it. Can the objection made by the other partners is correct or not?

A. Void, their objection is wrong

B. Valid, they can object

C. Valid, they have the right not to give the accounts to the sleeping partner

D. None of the above

Q. 97 The status of a partner making advances to the firm in addition to his capital, then he is _____

A. A Partner of the firm

B. Employee of the Firm

C. Creditor of the firm

D. All of the above

Q. 98 The Un-registered firm does not have a _____

A. Right to file a suit on third party

B. Right to acquire property

C. Right to Transfer property

D. All of the above

Q. 99 For Dissolution of a firm, partners may apply to the court on the ground of _______ a)r b) c)

A. Insanity of partner

B. Misconduct of Partner

C. Perpetual Losses in Business

D. All of the above

Q. 100 The mode of dissolution of firm under Indian partnership Act 1932 is_____

A. Illustrative

B. Inclusive

C. Exhaustive

D. None of the above

Session – II

Part A – General Economics

Q. 101 What does “Price mechanism” exists.

A. Capitalist economy

B. Socialist economy

C. Both type of economies

D. None of the above

Q. 102 Socialist economy is also known as ____ economy

A. Mixed

B. Planned

C. Capitalist

D. None of the above

Q. 103 Positive science only explains _____

A. What it is?

B. What ought to be?

C. What is right or wrong?

D. None of the above

Q. 104 Economics which is concerned with welfare propositions is called.

A. Socialistic economics

B. Capitalistic economics

C. Positive economics

D. Normative economics

Q. 105 In which among the following systems the “Right to property” exists

A. Mixed

B. Capitalist

C. Socialist

D. Traditional

Q. 106 When total utility is increases at a diminishing rate, then marginal utility is ______

A. Diminishing

B. Zero

C. Maximum

D. one

Q. 107 The cross elasticity of demand between two perfect substitutes will be

A. Zero

B. Infinity

C. Very high

D. Very low

Q. 108 The shape of IC for complementary goods is

A. Straight line

B. L- Shaped

C. Convex to the origin

D. Circular

Q. 109 A Higher IC shows ______

A. A Higher level of satisfaction

B. A Higher level of Income

C. A Higher level of production

D. None of the above

Q. 110 The Demand for factors of production is ___ Demand

A. Fundamental

B. Derived

C. Market

D. Joint

Q. 111 The Price of a tiffin box is Rs. 100 per unit and the quantity demanded in a market is 1,25,000 units . Company increased the price to Rs.125 per unit due to this increase in price quantity demanded decreases to 1,00,000 units. What will be price elasticity of demand ______

A. 1.25

B. 0.80

C. 1.00

D. None

Q. 112 Under which of the following forms of market structure does a firm has very considerable control over the price of its product?

A. Monopoly

B. Perfect competition

C. Monopolistic competition

D. Oligopoly

Q. 113 The price of a commodity decreases from 10 to 8 and the quantity demanded of it increases from 25 to 30 units .Then the coefficient of price elasticity will be _____

A. 1

B. -1

C. 1.5

D. -1.5

Q. 114 What is the elasticity between midpoint & upper extreme point of a straight line continuous demand curve?

A. Infinite

B. Zero

C. >1

D. <1

Q. 115 The concept ‘Returns to scale’ is related with __________

A. Very short period

B. Short period

C. Long period

D. None of the above

Q. 116 In a Cobb – Douglas production function, two inputs are _______

A. Land and Labour

B. Capital and Labour

C. Capital and Entrepreneur

D. Entrepreneur and land

Q. 117 From which of the following the concept of consumer’s surplus has been derived

A. Law of diminishing marginal utility

B. Law of demand

C. Law of supply

D. Indifference curve analysis

Q. 118 The Price line / Budget line of a consumer is

A. Parallel to x-axis

B. Parallel to Y- axis

C. Straight line joining two axis

D. None of the above

Q. 119 Production function is

A. Purely technical relationship between input & output

B. Purely economic relationship between input & output

C. Both (a) & (b)

D. None of these

Q. 120 Which statement among below is correct in reference to AFC?

A. Never becomes zero

B. Curve never touch x-axis

C. Curve never touch y-axis

D. All of these

Q. 121 Innovation theory of entrepreneur is propounded by

A. Prof knight

B. Schumpeter

C. Max weber

D. Peter Ducker

Q. 122 In a perfectly competitive markets , if MR is greater than MC then a firm should

A. Increase its production

B. Decrease its production

C. Increase in sales

D. Decrease in sales

Q. 123 Kinked demand curve is related to

A. Oligopoly

B. Monopsony

C. Monopoly

D. Monopolistic competition

Q. 124 In long-run a monopolist always earn ___ profits

A. Normal

B. Abnormal

C. Zero profit

D. Loss

Q. 125 If a seller obtains Rs.3,000 after selling 50 units and Rs.3,100 after selling 52 units then MR will be

A. 59.62

B. 50.00

C. 60.00

D. 59.80

Q. 126 Objectives of price discrimination in international market is

A. To capture foreign markets

B. To dispose of surplus stock

C. To earn maximum profit

D. All of the above

Q. 127 Who is responsible for collecting & presenting statistics in India

A. ISI

B. CSO

C. ICAER

D. NCERT

Q. 128 Value added method is used to measure________

A. National Income

B. Domestic Income

C. Gross Income

D. Personal Income

Q. 129 Direct taxes are ________ in nature

A. Progressive

B. Regressive

C. Proportionate

D. Digressive

Q. 130 Land development bank provide loans for a period of______

A. One year

B. Two to five years

C. Five to seven years

D. Fifteen to twenty years

Q. 131 Which of the following is the largest contribution of GDP in India.

A. Agriculture

B. Tourism

C. Industries

D. Service

Q. 132 National Income differs from Net National Product at market price by the amount of

A. Net indirect taxes

B. National debt interest

C. Subsidies

D. Current transfers from the rest of the world

Q. 133 The production method of calculating national income is also known as _______

A. Value added method

B. Income method

C. Expenditure method

D. None of the above

Q. 134 Which of the following type land tenure system were prevailed in India at the time independence?

A. Zamindari System

B. Mahalwari System

C. Ryotwari System

D. All of the above

Q. 135 Censes of population is done in India at an interval of ________

A. 5 years

B. 10 years

C. 15 years

D. None of the above

Q. 136 Which index is used to measure inequality of income and wealth?

A. Gini index

B. Price index

C. Both (a) & (b)

D. None of the above

Q. 137 Fiscal deficit can be reduced by_____

A. Increasing subsidy

B. Restrict privatization

C. Reprioritize planning scheme

D. Reduction of tax revenue

Q. 138 When price rise because of growing factor prices then that inflation is called as

A. Deflation

B. Demand full inflation

C. Stagflation

D. Cost push inflation

Q. 139 Under strategic sale method disinvestment price is fixed on ________

A. Prevailing price

B. Estimated rate

C. Pre-determined rate

D. Market based rate

Q. 140 Which of the following is not a component of demand pull inflation

A. An increase in the government expenditure with no change in tax rate

B. A downward shift of saving function

C. A rise in money wage rate

D. An upward shift of investment function

Q. 141 Convertibility of rupee means _________

A. Determine its own exchange rate in international market

B. Conversion of rupee into various Foreign currencies

C. Transfer of funds in international market

D. None of the above

Q. 142 Globalization means__________

A. Creation of global trading blocks

B. Dismantling trade barriers

C. Introducing single currency in the world

D. None of the above

Q. 143 Fiscal policy means

A. Policy related to money matter

B. Policy related to income and expenditure of the government

C. Policy related to disbursement of funds to state government

D. Policy related to foreign trade matters

Q. 144 The term disinvestment is more popularly used

A. Where a holding company sells shares of a subsidiary company

B. Where a investment company off loads its holding

C. Where central / State government sells its holding of public sector companies

D. None of the above

Q. 145 One major proposal of new industrial policy (1991) was

A. Impose restriction on technical know-how for one year

B. All types of industries have been made licensed

C. NRI’S will not be allowed for capital investment in India

D. Facility of direct foreign investment up to 51% in high priority industries

Q. 146 Bad and doubtful debts of scheduled commercial banks are known as _______

A. Non-performing Assets

B. Withdrawals of assets

C. Non-recoverable Assets

D. None of the above

Q. 147 The portion of total deposits which a commercial bank has to keep with itself in liquid assets is known as_____

A. CRR

B. SLR

C. Repo Rate

D. Reverse Repo Rate

Q. 148 Which of the following is not controlled by RBI

A. Cash deposit ratio

B. Cash reserve ratio

C. SLR

D. SDR

Q. 149 The rate at which discounting of bills of first class is done by RBI is called

A. Repo rate

B. Bank rate

C. Prime lending rate

D. None of the above

Q. 150 Which of the following is a qualitative method of credit control?

A. Bank rate

B. Open market operations

C. Variation in the reserve requirement

D. Regulation of consumer credit

Part B – Quantitative Aptitude

Q. 151 The ratio of numbers is 1:2:3 and sum of their squares is 504 then the numbers are

A. 6,12,18

B. 3,6,9

C. 4,8,12

D. 5,10,15

Q. 152 If ∛a + ∛b + ∛c = 0, then find the value of ((a+b+c)/3)³

A. 9abc

B. 1/9abc

C. abc

D. 1/abc

Q. 153 Find value of

A. 0

B. -1

C. 1

D. 3

Q. 154 Find the value of Log₄ 9 .Log₃ 2 =

A. 3

B. 9

C. 2

D. 1

Q. 155 Divide 80 into two parts so that their products is maximum, then the numbers are

A. 15,65

B. 25,55

C. 35,45

D. 40,40

Q. 156 If the equations kx + 2y = 5 , 3x + y = 1 has no solution then the value of k is

A. 5

B. 2/3

C. 6

D. 3/2

Q. 157 If b² – 4ac is a perfect square but not equal to zero then the roots of the equation ax² + bx + c = 0 are

A. Real and equal

B. Real, irrational and equal

C. Real, rational and unequal

D. Imaginary

Q. 158 If kx – 4 = (k -1)x which of the following is true

A. x = -5

B. x = -4

C. x = -3

D. x = 4

Q. 159 The solution of the inequality 8x + 6 < 12x + 14 is

A. (-2, 2)

B. (-2, 0)

C. (2, α)

D. (-2, α)

Q. 160 In what time will a sum of money double itself at 6.25% p.a simple interest

A. 5 Yrs

B. 8 Yrs

C. 12yrs

D. 16Yrs

Q. 161 What principal will amount to Rs.370 in 6 years at 8% p.a at simple interest

A. Rs.210

B. Rs.250

C. Rs.310

D. Rs.350

Q. 162 The difference between and C.I & S.I at 7% p.a for 2 years is Rs. 29.4. then principal is

A. Rs.5,000

B. Rs.5,500

C. Rs.6,000

D. Rs.6,500

Q. 163 How many different words can be formed with the letters of the word “LIBERTY”

A. 4050

B. 5040

C. 5400

D. 4500

Q. 164 In how many ways can a family consist of 3 children have different birthdays in a leap year

A. 366 x 365 x 364

B. ³⁶⁶C₃

C. ³⁶⁵C₃

D. ³⁶⁶C₃ – 3

Q. 165 If ¹⁵C₃ᵣ ¹⁵C₃ᵣ₊₃ = then r =

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Q. 166 An AP has 13 terms whose sum is 143. The third term is 5, then first term is

A. 4

B. 7

C. 9

D. 2

Q. 167 G.M of a, b, c, d is 3 then G.M of 1/a, 1/b, 1/c, 1/d is

A. 1/3

B. 3

C. 1/81

D. 81

Q. 168 Of the 200 candidates who were interviewed for a position at call center, 100 had a two wheeler, 70 had a credit card and 140 had a mobile phone. 40 of them had both a two wheeler and a credit card, 30 had both a credit card and mobile phone, 60 had both a two wheeler and a mobile phone and 10 had all the three. How many candidates had none of them?

A. 0

B. 20

C. 10

D. 18 x²

Q. 169 f(x) = (a – xⁿ)¹⁄ⁿ, a > 0 and n is positive integer then f[f(x)] =

A. x

B. a

C. x¹⁄ⁿ

D. a¹⁄ⁿ

Q. 170 If f(x) = x² – 25/(x – 5) then f(5) =

A. 0

B. 1

C. 10

D. undefined

Q. 171 Which of the following is true?

A. a = 1, l = 2

B. a = 2, l = 3

C. a = -2, l = -1

D. a =-2, l = 3

Q. 172

A. 0

B. ∞

C. -∞

D. does not exist

Q. 173 The points on the curve y = x³ – x² – x + 1. Where the tangent is parallel to x-axis are

A. (1, 0) (-1/3, 32/27)

B. (1, 0) (1, 0)

C. (-1/3, 32/27) (0, 0)

D. (0, 0) (1, 0)

Q. 174 A seller makes an offer of selling certain articles that can be described by the equation x=25-2y where x is price per unit and y denotes the no. of units. The cost price of the article is Rs.10 per unit. The maximum quantity that can be offered in a single deal to avoid loss is

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

Q. 175 ∫a^(2x) dx =

A. 2x² log a/2

B. 2 ax^(2x)/ log a

C. a^(2x)/(2 log a)

D. None

Q. 176 The pair of averages whose value can be determined graphically?

A. Mean & Median

B. Mode & Mean

C. Mode & Median

D. None of the above

Q. 177 The difference between upper limit and lower limit of a class is called:

A. Class Interval

B. Class boundaries

C. Mid – value

D. Frequency

Q. 178 If the class intervals are 10 -14, 15 -19, 20 -24,… Then the first class boundaries are :

A. 9.5 – 14.5

B. 10 – 15

C. 9 – 15

D. 10.5 – 15.5

Q. 179 If Arithmetic Mean = (8+4)/2, then Variance is :

A. 2

B. 6

C. 1

D. 4

Q. 180 Coefficient of mean deviation about mean for the first 9 natural numbers is :

A. 200/9

B. 80

C. 400/9

D. 50

Q. 181 Mean =5, S.D = 2.6, Median = 5, Q.D = 1.5 then Coefficient of Q.D is :

A. 35

B. 39

C. 30

D. 32

Q. 182 The difference between maximum and minimum value of the data is known as :

A. Range

B. Size

C. Width

D. Class

Q. 183 Price and Demand is example for :

A. No correlation

B. Positive correlation

C. Negative correlation

D. None of these

Q. 184 Determine the coefficient of correlation between x and y series Sum of product deviation of x and y series from mean = 122

#	X- Series	Y-Series
Number of items	15	15
Arithmetic mean	25	18
Sum of Square of deviation of mean	136	138

A. -0.89

B. 0.89

C. 0.69

D. -0.69

Q. 185 If r = + 1 or – 1 then the two regression lines _______

A. Have 30° angle between them

B. Have 45° angle between them

C. Coincide

D. Perpendicular to each other

Q. 186 If mean of X and Y variables is 20 and 40 respectively and the regression coefficient Y on X is 1.608 then the regression line of Y on X is :

A. Y = 1.608 X + 7.84

B. Y = 1.56 X + 4.84

C. Y = 1.608 X + 4.84

D. Y = 1.56 X + 7.84

Q. 187 Two coins are tossed simultaneously then the probability of getting exactly one head is

A. 3/4

B. 2/3

C. 1/4

D. 1/2

Q. 188 The probability that a cricket team winning a match at Kanpur is 2/5 and losing a match at Delhi is 1/7. What is the probability of the team winning at least one match?

A. 1/35

B. 32/35

C. 18/35

D. 17/35

Q. 189 Find the expected value of the following probability distribution

X	-20	-10	30	75	80
P(x)	3/20	1/5	1/2	1/10	1/20

A. 20.5

B. 21.5

C. 22.5

D. 24.5

Q. 190 If P (A) = 0.45, P (B) = 0.35, P (A and B) = 0.25 then P(A/B)=

A. 1.4

B. 1.8

C. 0.714

D. 0.556

Q. 191 In normal distribution mean ,median and mode are

A. Equal

B. Not equal

C. Zero

D. None of the above

Q. 192 In a certain Poisson frequency distribution, the probability corresponding to two successes is half of the probability corresponding to three successes. The mean of the distribution is

A. 6

B. 12

C. 3

D. 2.95

Q. 193 If the points of inflexion of a normal curve are 6 and 14 then standard deviation is

A. 4

B. 8

C. 16

D. 32

Q. 194 There are 75 students in a class and their average marks is 50 and S.D of marks is 5. Number of students who have secured more than 60 marks (Given that area under the normal curve for z = 2 is 0.4772) is ______

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 195 Which of the following is non-probability sampling?

A. Systematic sampling

B. Quota sampling

C. Cluster sampling

D. Stratified sampling

Q. 196 Sample in which the number of units is less than _____ is called a small sample

A. 100

B. 75

C. 50

D. 30

Q. 197 Standard deviation of a sampling distribution is known as:

A. Standard Error

B. Sampling Error

C. Probable Error

D. Mean Deviation

Q. 198 What is the formula for calculating the deflated index

A. Current value/(Price index of current year) x 100

B. Current value/(Price index of last year) x 100

C. Current value/(Price index of current year)

D. Current value/(Price index of last year)

Q. 199 The index number for the year 2012 taking 2011 as base using simple average of price relatives method from the data given below is:

Commodity	A	B	C	D	E
Price in 2011	115	108	95	80	90
Price in 2012	125	117	108	95	95

A. 112

B. 117

C. 120

D. 111

Q. 200 An index time series is a list of ____ numbers for two or more periods of time.

A. Index

B. absolute

C. Relative

D. None

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	C	A	A	B	C	A	D	B	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	C	C	A	A	B	C	B	D	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	D	D	B	C	C	B	B	D	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	C	C	D	C	A	C	C	A	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	D	D	B	A	C	A	B	B	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	D	A	B	B	D	D	A	B	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	D	A	A	A	A	D	D	A	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	A	B	C	A	C	C	D	B	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	C	C	A	A	C	A	D	C	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	B	A	D	B	A	C	A	D	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	B	A	D	B	C	B	B	A	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	C	A	B	C	C	B	A	C	A	D
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	A	A	B	B	D	B	A	A	D
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	D	A	A	D	B	A	C	D	D	C
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	B	B	B	C	D	A	B	A	B	D
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	A	C	C	D	D	C	C	D	D	D
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	B	C	B	A	B	D	A	C	A	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	B	D	A	B	D	C	A	A	D	C
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	C	A	C	B	C	A	B	B	B	C
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	A	A	A	B	B	D	A	C	D	A

CA CPT Previous Year Paper June 2013

CA CPT JUNE 2013

Session – I

Part A – Fundamentals of Accounting

Q. 1 Which of the following is an event?

A. Purchase of goods worth Rs.4,000

B. Sale of goods worth Rs.2,000

C. Closing stock worth Rs.2,000

D. Rent paid Rs.2,000

Q. 2 Which of the following concepts shows the difference between the amount of receipt and right to receive an amount?

A. Matching Concept

B. Going concern Concept

C. Accrual Concept

D. Realisation Concept

Q. 3 Proprietor’s personal expenditure not recorded in the books of accounts due to_____

A. Materiality

B. Conservatism

C. Going concern

D. Business entity concept

Q. 4 All the enterprises should follow the same method of accounting policies for comparability of accounts due to _______________.

A. Conservatism

B. Consistency

C. Matching

D. Going concern

Q. 5 ‘A Limited’ purchased goods of Rs.10,00,000, and sold 90% of goods and remaining goods market value is Rs.90,000, and closing stock is 10%, but he recorded Rs.90,000 and not Rs.1,00,000. Which concept does he follows:

A. Materiality concept

B. Cost concept

C. Entity concept

D. Conservatism concept

Q. 6 The expenditure Rs.2,000 incurred on a trial run of newly purchased machine is_________

A. Preliminary expenses

B. Capital expenditure

C. Revenue expenditure

D. Deferred revenue expenditure

Q. 7 Proprietor used a rented building both for business purpose and as well as residence equally. The rent paid during the year for the building was Rs.1,32,000 debited to rent expenses A/c in the books of business. One month’s rent is still outstanding. Liability of the business for rent outstanding ___

A. Rs.11,000

B. Rs.12,000

C. Rs.5,500

D. Rs.6,000

Q. 8 Which of the following will not affect trial balance?

A. Purchase book was under casted by Rs.5,000

B. White wash charges Rs.10,000 were debited to building A/c

C. Cash paid to Briz Binan Rs.500 was debited to Briz Binan A/c as Rs.5,000

D. Credit sales of Rs.2,000 to P correctly recorded in sales book but not posted to P’s account

Q. 9 Which of the following is not a contingent liability?

A. Claim against enterprises not acknowledged as debt

B. Guarantee given in respect of third parties

C. Liability in respect of bills discounted

D. Penalty imposed by excise officer for violation of provisions of Central Excise Act

Q. 10 The accounting equation asset = capital + liabilities, which of the following is true. Ram has started business with 5,50,000 and has purchased goods worth 1,50,000 on credit

A. 7,00,000 = 5,50,000 + 1,50,000

B. 7,00,000 = 6,50,000 + 50,000

C. 5,50,000 = 7,00,000 – 1,50,000

D. 5,50,000 = 5,00,000 + 50,000

Q. 11 Opening and closing balances of debtors are 30,000 & 40,000 respectively. Cash collected from debtors 2,40,000. Discount allowed is 15,000 for prompt payment. Bad debts Rs.10,000. The total goods sold on credit are ________________.

A. 2,55,000

B. 2,45,000

C. 2,95,000

D. 2,75,000

Q. 12 The Piston & Rings are arranged for increasing fuel efficiency. This is a ______

A. Revenue expenditure

B. Deferred revenue expenditure

C. Capital expenditure

D. None of these

Q. 13 On scrutiny, an accountant found that

i. Bad debts recovery of Rs.500 was credited to debtors A/c wrongly

ii. Bank charges of Rs.50 were wrongly entered twice in the Cash Book.

iii. Purchase returns of Rs.100 was omitted to be entered in the book of A/c’s.

What is the impact on profit after rectification?

A. Increase Rs.650

B. Increase Rs.350

C. Decrease Rs.650

D. Decrease Rs.350

Q. 14 Which of the following is revenue expenditure?

A. Demolition & dismantling expenses

B. Carriage on machinery purchased

C. Packing charges of goods sold

D. Oil painting expenses

Q. 15 Sold old furniture valued Rs.2,000 to Sona was recorded as sales, the book value of furniture was Rs.2,500. What will be the rectifying entry?

A. Sales A/c Dr. – 2000 Suspense A/c Dr. – 500 To furniture A/c – 2500

B. Sales A/c Dr. – 2000 Loss on Sale of Furniture A/c Dr. – 500 To Furniture A/c – 2500

C. Sales A/c Dr. – 2000 Suspense A/c Dr. – 500 To Sona A/c – 2500

D. Furniture A/c Dr. – 2000 To Sona A/c – 2000

Q. 16 Goods worth Rs.10,000 were destroyed by fire and the insurance company admitted the claim of 60%. The journal entry

A. Loss by Fire a/c Dr. – Rs.10,000 To Purchase a/c – Rs.4,000 To insurance a/c – Rs.6,000

B. Loss by Fire a/c Dr. – Rs.4,000 Insurance Co. a/c Dr. – Rs.6,000 To Purchase a/c -Rs.10,000

C. Loss by Fire a/c Dr. – Rs.10,000 To Purchase a/c – Rs.6,000 To insurance Co. a/c -Rs.4,000

D. Loss by Fire a/c Dr. – Rs.6,000 Insurance Co. a/c Dr. – Rs.4,000 To Purchase a/c -Rs.10,000

Q. 17 While preparing B.R.S with balance as per cash book which of the following will not be added

A. Cheque deposited but not cleared

B. Cheque issued but not presented

C. Cheque directly deposited in bank by a customer

D. All of the above

Q.18 Overdraft balance as per Cash Book of ‘X’ Rs.20,500. Direct remittance of his customer is Rs.50,000 and ‘X’ was not aware that Rs.25,000 cheque was deposited, returned unpaid and he was yet to be informed. Balance as per Pass Book is_________

A. 4,500 Cr

B. 4,500 O.D.

C. 45,500 Cr.

D. None

Q. 19 Opening stock 400 units @ Rs.20 each. Purchases during the year 200 units @ Rs.25each. Issues – 250 units In LIFO Method, closing stock will be?

A. 8750

B. 7000

C. 7750

D. 8000

Q. 20 The dealer of construction materials due to unknown reason took physical stock of inventories on 11th April. The cost of stock was Rs.4,20,000 (including goods returned on consignment basis). The dealer received goods cost Rs.1,00,000 in March 2011 for sale on consignment basis. 20% goods have been sold in March, 60% of stock in between 1st – 10th April. Find cost of stock on 31-3-11.

A. 3,20,000

B. 4,00,000

C. 3,40,000

D. 3,60,000

Q. 21 Find closing stock value __________ (Given in figure ).

Units	Cost	Market Value
70	5000	2000
20	3000	6000
30	7000	9000

A. 4,00,000

B. 4,10,000

C. 7,30,000

D. 7,40,000

Q. 22 Cost of machinery Rs.60,000. They charged depreciation @ 20% on SLM method. In 2nd year they decided to change method and adopt WDV method @ 20%. If machine was sold for Rs.30,000 at the end of 3rd year. Calculate the amount of loss.

A. Loss 4720

B. Loss 4560

C. Loss 720

D. Loss 560

Q. 23 A machine is purchased for Rs.5,00,000. It’s estimated working life is 10,000 hours, the Scrap value is Rs.1,00,000. Anticipated pattern of working hours is given in figure (1). Depreciation for the 3rd year is_________

Year	Hours
1-2	1500
3-6	1000
7-10	750

A. 30,000

B. 37,500

C. 40,000

D. 45,000

Q. 24 On 1-4-10 machine purchased for Rs.1,00,000 and 1st October another machine purchased for Rs.50,000. Depreciation on the machinery is charged by SLM @ 10%. What is the amount that should be shown in the books at the end of 31st March 2012.

A. 1,33,500

B. 1,22,500

C. 1,42,500

D. 1,10,500

Q. 25 Goods costing Rs.5,000 will be distributed as wages for Rs.5,000. Market price is Rs.6,000. Journal entry is _______

A. Wages A/c Dr. 6000 To salary A/c 6000

B. Wages A/c Dr. 6000 To salaries A/c 6000

C. Wages A/c Dr. 5000 To purchases A/c 5000

D. Wages A/c Dr. 6000 To purchases 6000

Q. 26 X purchased goods on 90 days credit from Y of worth Rs.20,000. Y has given a trade discount of Rs.1,000 on the same. He also allowed a cash discount of Rs.500, if payment is made within 30 days. X availed cash discount and also paid the dues of Y. At the end, goods purchased from Y remained unsold and included in the stock. What is the amount of stock.

A. Rs.20,000

B. Rs.19,500

C. Rs.19,000

D. Rs.18,500

Q. 27 Goods costing Rs.4,000 having normal sales value of Rs.6,000 were destroyed by fire. The scrap value of Rs.400 was taken over by the insurance company. Insurance company accepted a final claim of Rs.2,700. What amount of loss by fire will be transferred to P & L A/c.?

A. 3,300

B. 1,300

C. 1,700

D. 900

Q. 28 Mr. A started business with a capital of Rs.10 lakhs as a cloth merchant. During the year he purchased goods worth Rs.7,10,000 and sales during the year was Rs.8,42,000. He pays shop rent of Rs.20,000 for the year 2011-12, and other expenses Rs.75,000. Closing stock at the end of the year is Rs.45,000. What is gross profit?

A. 1,02,000

B. 82,000

C. 1,77,000

D. 1,57,000

Q. 29 Calculate the amount of salary debited to P & L A/c for the year ending 31-03-13.

Salary outstanding as on 31-03-12 – Rs.25,000

Salary outstanding as on 31-03-13 – Rs.10,000

Prepaid Salary as on 31-03-12 – Rs.10,000

Salary paid in cash during the year – Rs.3,00,000

A. 3,00,000

B. 3,05,000

C. 2,95,000

D. 3,10,000

Q. 30 Opening stock – 1,50,000

Cash sales – 1,20,000

Credit sales – 2,30,000

Closing stock – Nil

Selling price – 125% of cost, then purchases =?

Opening Stock	1,50,000
Cash Sales	1,20,000
Credit Sales	2,30,000
Closing Stock	Nil

A. 1,50,000

B. 1,40,000

C. 1,30,000

D. 1,20,000

Q. 31 Bill is drawn by Mr. Mohan on Mr. Mukesh on 30th January 2012 for one month, then the due date of the bill is ___________________________.

A. 29th February, 2012

B. 2nd March, 2012

C. 3rd March, 2012

D. 4th March, 2012

Q. 32 ‘A’ has discounted 3 months bill @ 10% p.a. from bank and given credit of 11,700. On the due date, the bill was dishonoured and noting charges of Rs.50 were paid by the bank. The amount by which A’s A/c will be debited by the bank is _____________.

A. 13050

B. 12050

C. 11000

D. None

Q. 33 Which of the following is true?

A. Co-venturers always share profits equally

B. They cannot be more than two co-venturers

C. The relationship between co-venturers is Principal & Agent

D. Co-venturers may provide funds for venture

Q. 34 Which of the following are not taken into consideration while calculating closing stock

A. Insurance of warehouse

B. Carriage

C. Octroi

D. Loading expense

Q. 35 Delcredre commission will be given for _____________

A. Speedy collection of cash

B. Prompt payment of cash

C. To cover risk of bad debts

D. Sale of goods above invoice price

Q. 36 Goods sent on consignment at a cost of Rs.50,000. 1/4th lost in transit and claim received Rs.10,000. The amount of abnormal loss to be transferred to general P & L A/c is______

A. 12,500

B. 2,500

C. 10,000

D. None

Q. 37 C of Chennai sent goods costing Rs.6,00,000 to Delhi. These goods were to be sold at cost plus 33 1/3%. The consignee sent advance to the consigner as a % of sales value and A sent accordingly Rs.4,80,000. What is the percentage of such advances on sales value?

A. 75%

B. 50%

C. 60%

D. 25%

Q. 38 A & B entered into a Joint Venture to share Profit & Losses equally. A supplied goods worth Rs.7,000 and incurred expenses of Rs.300. B sold the goods for Rs.10,000 and incurred expenses of Rs.500. What is the final remittance by B to A?

A. 7,900

B. 5,200

C. 8,400

D. 8,800

Q. 39 The normal rate of return is 20%. The total capital employed is Rs.6,00,000. The average profit is Rs.1,50,000. Calculate goodwill as the basis of 3 years purchase of super profits.

A. Rs.90,000

B. Rs.1,20,000

C. Rs.1,00,000

D. Rs.60,000

Q. 40 Goods sent on sale or return basis at a cost of Rs.1 lakh. In that, 50% of goods were accepted and 30% of the goods were returned. The remaining stock was held with customers and the period not yet expired. Then closing stock will be ________

A. 1,00,000

B. 50,000

C. 20,000

D. 30,000

Q. 41 Balance in JLP A/c of partners is________

A. Total premium paid by the firm

B. Annual premium paid each year

C. Surrender Value

D. JLP amount – Surrender Value

Q. 42 ABC partners, each partner has an individual life policy of Rs.50000 on 31st August, partner ‘B’ died and the surrender value of each policy at death is Rs.2,000. Share of ‘B’ partner is (equal sharing)

A. 17000

B. 18000

C. 50000

D. 54000

Q. 43 Rohan & Sohan are partners in a firm sharing profits & losses in the ratio of 3 : 1. A partner Mohan is admitted and he brought Rs.40,000 as goodwill. New profit sharing ratio of all the partners is equal. The amount of goodwill to be shared by old partners is

A. Equally Rs.20,000 each

B. Rohan Rs.30,000 & Sohan Rs.10,000

C. Rohan Rs.40,000

D. Rohan received Rs.50,000 & Sohan paid Rs.10,000

Q. 44 A & B are sharing profits in the ratio 2 : 1 . C is admitted as a partner for 1/4th of the share of profits, 3/4th part of his share from A and 1/4th of his share from the B. The new profit sharing ratio is________

A. 2 : 1 : 1

B. 23 : 13 : 12

C. 1 : 1 : 1

D. 3 : 1 : 5

Q. 45 Which of the following are accounting policies

A. Treatment of goodwill

B. Valuation of inventories

C. Treatment of retirement benefits

D. All the above

Q. 46 A, B, C are partners sharing profits & losses equally and A paid liability of Rs.10,000 of the firm, from his private property, then the entry in the books of firm is_________

A. A’s Capital A/c Dr. 10,000 To Cash A/c 10,000

B. Liability A/c Dr. 10,000 To A’s Capital A/c 10,000

C. Liability A/c Dr. 10,000 To Cash A/c 10,000

D. A’s Capital A/c Dr. 10,000 To Liability A/c 10,000

Q. 47 Unclaimed dividend is shown under ______

A. Other current liabilities

B. Reserves & Surplus

C. Secured loans

D. Miscellaneous expenditure

Q. 48 The debenture amount Rs.2,000 issued as collateral security required the following Journal entry

A. Debit debenture A/c and credit debenture suspense A/c

B. Debit debenture suspense A/c and credit debenture A/c

C. Debit collateral security and credit debenture A/c

D. No entry is required to be passed

Q. 49 Which of the following is false with respect to debentures?

A. Companies can issue irredeemable debentures

B. Companies can issue debentures with voting rights

C. Companies can issue debentures for consideration other than cash

D. Companies can issue convertible debentures

Q. 50 A company issued 10,000 shares out of 14,000 applied. Mr. A got 300 shares on a pro-rata basis. How many shares would he have applied?

A. 420 shares

B. 300 shares

C. 380 shares

D. 500 shares

Q. 51 Tree limited forfeited 500 shares of Rs.20 each issued at 5% discount, for non payment of allotment and final call of Rs.9 and Rs.5 respectively. Amount credited to share forfeiture A/c will be

A. 3,500

B. 2,500

C. 3,000

D. 4,000

Q. 52 The directors of E limited made the final call of Rs.50 per share on 1st August 2012 indicating the last date of payment of call money to be 31st August. Mr. White holding 5000 shares paid the call money on October 15th 2012. If the company adopts table ‘A’, the amount of interest on calls-in-arrears to be paid by Mr. White would be ______________

A. 3125

B. 1562.50

C. 1875

D. 1500

Q. 53 Where is “Loss on issue of shares” shown in financial statements?

A. Contingent Liability

B. General Reserve

C. Other Non – Current Assets

D. None of these

Q. 54 600 shares allotted to Mr. X, on which Rs.100 each called up, and Rs.50 paid up were forfeited and reissued for Rs.70 each as fully paid up. Amount transferred to capital reserve A/c is

A. Rs.12,000

B. Rs.15,000

C. Rs.30,000

D. Rs.18,000

Q. 55 X Draw an accommodation bill on Y. X discounted the bill for Rs. 4,900. Profit Sharing Ratio between X and Y is 1:4. The amount of discount barne by y will be

A. 100

B. 80

C. 40

D. 20

Q. 56 A cheque issued to creditor Rs. 10,000 but recorded in the books of account for Rs. 1,000. The error will be detected at the time of Preparation of:

A. Trial Balance

B. Cash Book

C. Pass Book

D. Bank Reconciliation Statement

Q. 57 A Ltd. issued 10000 shares of Rs. 10 each. A shareholder, who holds 500 shares, paid only Rs 5. Later on his shares were forfeited. Out of forfeited Shares 400 shares reissued for Rs. 7 /- per share. Amount transferred to capital reserve will be:

A. Rs. 800

B. Rs. 1000

C. Rs. 2800

D. Rs 2000

Q. 58 If preference shares are redeemed out of the fresh issue of Equity shares; which account will be credited?

A. Capital reserve account

B. Capital redemption reserve account

C. Preference share capital account

D. Equity share capital account

Q. 59 Z Ltd. Issued 1,50,000 shares of Rs.100 each at a discount of 10%. Mr. Gopi to whom 300 shares were allotted, failed to pay the final call of Rs.30 per share and hence all the shares were forfeited. What amount is transferred to shares Forfeiture A/c ?

A. Rs.9,000

B. Rs.21,000

C. Rs.18,000

D. Rs.27,000

Q. 60 For the financial year 20011-12, the gross profit was Rs.1,75,000. During the year Carriage inward Rs.15,000, Personal expenses of proprietor Rs.75,000 and Carriage outward Rs.17,500. Bad debts for the year were Rs.12,000. The net profit earned for the year 2011-12 would be:

A. Rs.85,000

B. Rs.1,45,500

C. Rs.64,500

D. none of the above

Part B – Mercantile Laws

Q. 61 What are the essential elements of valid contract

A. Lawful Object

B. Lawful Consideration

C. Free Consent

D. All of the above

Q. 62 ______ is good in substance, but suffers from technical defects like Non – Registration.

A. Voidable Contract

B. Unenforceable Contract

C. Valid Contract

D. Illegal Contract

Q. 63 An offer is made with an intention to have negotiation from another party. This type of offer is ____

A. Invitation to offer

B. Valid offer

C. Voidable offer

D. None of these

Q. 64 M/S Law book Company offered books only to ICAI council members. This offer generally known as:

A. General offer

B. Specific offer

C. Both of the above

D. None of the above

Q. 65 Which of the following is false?

A. Consideration must move at the desire of the promisor

B. Consideration may move from promisee (or) any other person

C. Consideration may be past present or future

D. Consideration must be adequate

Q. 66 Which of the following are valid considerations?

A. Past

B. Present

C. Future

D. Past, Present & Future

Q. 67 A minor injured his left leg in a football match. He engaged a doctor for treatment of leg. The doctor’s claim for his services from minors property is ____________under Indian Contract Act 1872.

A. Valid

B. Invalid

C. Void

D. Illegal

Q. 68 An Intentional misrepresentation will amount to _____

A. Fraud

B. Coercion

C. Undue influence

D. None of these

Q. 69 Obtaining the consent on the basis of a relation subsisting between two persons where one party is able to dominate the will of another is called _______

A. Coercion

B. Undue influence

C. Fraud

D. Misrepresentation

Q. 70 Which of the following will stand under fiduciary relationship as per Indian contract Act, 1872?

A. Father and Son

B. Doctor and Patient

C. Advocate and Client

D. All of the above

Q. 71 Execution of a bond requiring employees leaving the organisation before the expiry of the term of service to pay compensation to the employee is considered as:

A. Un enforceable agreement

B. Voidable agreement

C. Valid agreement

D. Void agreement

Q. 72 As per the provisions of Indian Contract Act, 1872 the original contract need not be performed in case of _____

A. Novation

B. Alteration

C. Rescission

D. All of these

Q. 73 Change in some or all terms of the contract is ______

A. Novation

B. Alteration

C. Merger

D. Rescission

Q. 74 __________ contracts are enforceable by future events.

A. Contingent Contract

B. Quasi Contract

C. Conditional Contract

D. Wagering Contract

Q. 75 _____ arises obligations where no contract is originally entered.

A. Wagering Contract

B. Contingent Contract

C. Quasi Contract

D. None of these

Q. 76 What are the essential elements of a contract of sale?

A. At least two parties

B. Subject matter must be goods

C. Both (a) & (b)

D. None of these

Q. 77 A document issued by railway company acknowledging receipt of goods is known as __

A. Bill of lading

B. Railway Receipt

C. Dock Warrant

D. None of these

Q. 78 Giving document of title to goods is which type of delivery?

A. Symbolic

B. Constructive

C. Actual

D. None of these

Q. 79 Merchantable Quality of goods means ___

A. Goods are free from latent defects

B. Marketable at their full value

C. Goods can be used for the purpose for which they are purchased

D. All of the above

Q. 80 The keys of the warehouse where goods are stored are handed over to the buyer. It is called ____ delivery.

A. Actual

B. Symbolic

C. Constructive

D. Conditional

Q. 81 An agreement to sale in which the property of goods will be transferred to the buyer at the time where total payment is made.

A. Sale

B. Agreement to sell

C. Hire Purchase

D. Sale / Approval Basis

Q. 82 An agreement made between two parties to pay consideration in future and in execution of sale deed is known as______

A. Sale

B. Agreement to sell

C. Hire purchase

D. None

Q. 83 The implied warranties as per sale of goods act includes_____

A. Enjoyment of undisturbed possession

B. Disclosure of dangerous nature of goods

C. Quality or fitness by usage of trade

D. All of the above

Q. 84 By transferring the property, the rights and liabilities will transfer to _____

A. Buyer

B. Seller

C. Both (a) & (b)

D. None of these

Q. 85 M sold goods to B. The payment was to be done after one month. B did not make payment. The right of lien can be exercised by M When goods are____

A. Handed over to transporters.

B. Not handed over to anyone

C. Handed over to B

D. Handed over to any one

Q. 86 Unpaid sellers sell goods to the new buyer who was in possession of the goods. The new buyer____

A. Gets good title to the goods

B. Does not get good title to the goods

C. Gets good title to the goods subject to consent of original buyer

D. None of these

Q. 87 Auction Sale completes by ______

A. Fall of Hammer

B. Acceptance

C. Offer

D. None of these

Q. 88 Sharing of profits is _____________ evidence of partnership.

A. Conclusive

B. Non – Conclusive

C. Confirmative

D. Collaborative

Q. 89 A was an employee in a partnership firm with a salary of Rs.50,000 per month and he will get a share of 30% in profits if the profits of the firm exceed Rs.5 lakhs. Now ‘A’ is called _____

A. Partner of the firm

B. Not a partner of the firm

C. He cannot take share in profits

D. is not entitled to any salary

Q. 90 What is executed consideration?

A. An act in return of positive promise

B. An act in return of a proposal

C. A condition of the fulfillment of other’s promise

D. None of the above

Q. 91 The person who represents himself as a partner in a firm is called _________

A. Sleeping Partner

B. Partner by holding out

C. Sub – Partner

D. Co – Owner

Q. 92 Partnership at will means

A. No duration period is fixed

B. Dissolved at the will of the creditors

C. Dissolved at the will of the debtors

D. None of the above

Q. 93 On dissolution of a firm all assets are transferred to realization account at ____

A. Book value

B. Market value

C. Both (a) or (b)

D. None

Q. 94 Partners should attend ______ to his duties.

A. Diligently

B. Sincerely

C. Systematically

D. Efficiently

Q. 95 A, B, C were partners in a partnership firm. “A paid the liability of the firm without having authority. What the other partners will do?

A. Can ratify or disclaim the transaction

B. Can’t ratify the transaction

C. Ignore the transaction

D. None of these

Q. 96 Retiring Partner will be liable till _____

A. After Retirement

B. Before Retirement

C. Both (a) & (b)

D. None of these

Q. 97 A retiring partner is entitled to profits of the firm?

A. Up to 31st March

B. When last accounts is made up

C. up to retirement date

D. Not entitled to any profit.

Q. 98 When a partner of a firm is adjudicated as an insolvent, he ceases to be a partner as _______

A. On the date of order of adjudication

B. On the date of dissolution

C. On the date of information of insolvency

D. Decided by Indian partnership firm.

Q. 99 On which of the following grounds all or any one of the partner can apply to the court for dissolution,

A. Perpetual losses

B. Unsound mind of a partner

C. Misconduct

D. All of these

Q. 100 The loss arising out of partners insolvency shall be borne by ____________ according to Garner Vs Murray case

A. Insolvent partner’s estate will be liable

B. Solvent partners will bring cash

C. All the partners in profit & loss sharing ratio

D. Insolvent partner will not be liable

Session – II

Part A – General Economics

Q. 101 Inductive and deductive methods are complementary. This statement is _____

A. Absolutely correct

B. Partially correct

C. Absolutely wrong

D. Partially wrong

Q. 102 Free market economy driving force is____

A. Profit motive

B. Welfare of the people

C. Rising incomes and level of living

D. None of the above

Q. 103 A system of economy in which all means of production are owned and controlled by private individuals for the purpose of profit is called ______________

A. Socialistic economy

B. Capitalistic economy

C. Mixed economy

D. All of the above

Q. 104 Economics is neutral between ends said by

A. Robbins

B. Mrs.Joan Robbinson

C. Alfred Marshall

D. AC Pigou

Q. 105 In which of the following cases opportunity cost will apply.

A. Resources have alternative uses

B. Resources have limited uses

C. Resources have no uses

D. None of these

Q. 106 Goods are Perfect complementary then IC curve is _______________

A. L – shaped

B. U – shaped

C. Straight Line

D. None

Q. 107 Marshallian utility analysis is known as ___ analysis.

A. Cardinal

B. Ordinal

C. Classical

D. Historical

Q. 108 Given AR=5, Elasticity of demand =2 find MR

A. 2.5

B. -2.5

C. 1.5

D. 2.0

Q. 109 Price is fallen by 20% brings above 10% fall in quantity supplied then elasticity of supply is___

A. 2.0

B. 0.5

C. 1.0

D. 1.5

Q. 110 What will be the price elasticity if original price is Rs=5, original quantity is 8 units and changed price is Rs=6 changed quantity is 4 units?

A. 2.5

B. 2.0

C. 1.5

D. 1.0

Q. 111 The original price of commodity is Rs.500 and quantity demanded is 20 kgs. If price rises to Rs.750 and quantity demanded reduces to 15 kgs, price elasticity of demand is _____

A. 0.25

B. 0.50

C. 1.00

D. 1.50

Q. 112 If marginal rate of substitution is increasing then shape of indifference curve is _____________

A. Concave

B. Convex

C. L – shaped

D. None of these

Q. 113 Which function of money states that goods and services are measurable in terms of money?

A. Medium of Exchange

B. Unit of accounts

C. Standard of deferred payment

D. None of these

Q. 114 Direct costs are ________

A. Traceable costs

B. Indirect costs

C. Implicit costs

D. Explicit costs

Q. 115 External economies can be achieved through

A. Foreign trade only

B. Extension of transport & transport credit facility

C. Superior managerial skills

D. External assistance

Q. 116 Suppose the total cost of production of a commodity X is Rs.1,25,000 out of which implicit cost 35,000 and normal profit is 25,000. What would be the explicit cost of commodity?

A. 90,000

B. 65,000

C. 1,00,000

D. 60,000

Q. 117 Which of the following is the reason of the working of law of increasing returns?

A. Fuller utilization of fixed factor

B. Indivisibility of factor

C. Greater specialization of factor

D. All of the above

Q. 118 Which curve is downward sloping and does not touch the X – axis?

A. AVC

B. MC

C. ATC

D. AFC

Q. 119 External Diseconomies may lead to ____

A. Decrease in cost of technology

B. External Assistance

C. Increase in the price of factors of production

D. None of the above

Q. 120 The upper part of kinked demand curve is___

A. Elastic

B. Inelastic

C. Perfectly Elastic

D. Unitary Elastic

Q. 121 Under monopoly which of the following are correct

A. AR & MR both are downward sloping

B. MR lies half way between AR & Y axis

C. MR can be zero or negative

D. All of the above

Q. 122 Short run price is also known as:

A. Market price

B. Showroom price

C. Maximum retail price

D. None of these

Q. 123 Price under perfect competition is determined by _______

A. Firm

B. Industry

C. Government

D. Society

Q. 124 Non-price competition is popular in which market from?

A. Monopoly market

B. Oligopoly market

C. Monopolistic competition

D. Perfect competition

Q. 125 Which of the following measure is not related to tenency reforms?

A. Regulation of rent

B. Security of tenants

C. Conferment of ownership rights on tenants

D. Consolidation of holdings

Q. 126 Equilibrium price is where _______

A. Market supply and market demand are equal

B. Firm supply and market demand are equal

C. Firm demand and market supply are equal

D. None of these

Q. 127 Objective of RRB’s is____________.

A. Providing credit to farmers and villagers.

B. To monitor the activities of all banks in agriculture.

C. Link between rural banks.

D. To sponsor the rural development programmes of government

Q. 128 In disguised unemployment marginal productivity of labour becomes.

A. Zero

B. One

C. Infinite

D. Doubles

Q. 129 Pradhana Mantri Bharat Jodo Pariyojana is related to _______

A. Communication

B. Social integration

C. Linking of rivers

D. Highways developing

Q. 130 You are the factory owner and have given employment to 400 workers. If 10 workers are retrenched by you without loss of production then this situation be described as _____

A. Open unemployment

B. Disguised unemployment

C. Frictional unemployment

D. Seasonal unemployment

Q. 131 The difference between the GDPMP and GNPMP is _______

A. Net factor income from abroad

B. Depreciation

C. Net income

D. None of these

Q. 132 GDPFC = GDPMP – ________ + Subsidies

A. Indirect taxes

B. Depreciation

C. NFIA

D. None

Q. 133 FDI upto ________ is being allowed in defense production.

A. 26%

B. 49%

C. 74%

D. 51%

Q. 134 The difference between the value of a nation’s visible exports and visible imports is called___

A. Balance of trade

B. Balance of payments

C. Balance of current account

D. Balance of capital account

Q. 135 To reduce the value of domestic currency in terms of foreign currency is known as____

A. Appreciation

B. Devaluation

C. Depreciation

D. None of above

Q. 136 Which of the following suffer due to inflation.

A. Debtors

B. Creditors

C. Businessman

D. Owners of real assets

Q. 137 Purchasing power of money fall when

A. Price level increases

B. Price level decreases

C. Income level increases

D. Money supply falls

Q. 138 A situation when prices persistently rise because of growing factor costs is known as__

A. Demand pull inflation

B. Cost push inflation

C. Stagflation

D. Inflation

Q. 139 Which of the following is not a current account transaction?

A. Export receivable

B. Insurance

C. Dividend

D. External commercial borrowings

Q. 140 What was the primary objective of disinvestment?

A. Increase the efficiency and optimum utilization of resources in public sector units

B. Increase the share of private sector units

C. To cover government debts

D. None

Q. 141 EXIM bank was started on _____

A. 1972

B. 1988

C. 1982

D. 1998

Q. 142 Which one of the following is not an objective of RBI.

A. Economic Stability

B. Issue of currency

C. Advancing loans to public

D. Maintenance of foreign exchange reserves

Q. 143 NABARD was established under the Recommendation of ______

A. Public accounts committee

B. Shivaraman Committee

C. Narasimham Committee

D. None of the above

Q. 144 The objectives of Monetary Policy?

A. Price Stability

B. Exchange rate Stability

C. Employment Generation

D. All of these

Q. 145 Banking Ombudsman means

A. Person appointed to recover dues from defaulting borrowers

B. A person to whom customers can approach for redressal of their grievances

C. A reason appointed to settle disputes between employees and management

D. A person appointed by RBI to oversee the functioning of foreign banks

Q. 146 Control of credit by central bank

A. Issue of directives

B. Direct action

C. Moral suasion

D. All of the above

Q. 147 Indifference curve is convex slope, the reason is ____

A. Increasing Marginal rate of substitution

B. Constant Marginal rate of substitution

C. Diminishing Marginal rate of substitution

D. None of the above

Q. 148 Which of the following is not a qualitative measure of credit control

A. Rationing of credit

B. Change in cash reserve ratio

C. Publicity and notification

D. Regulation of consumer credit

Q. 149 Which is the static function of money

A. As a medium of exchange

B. As a unit of account

C. As standard of deferred payment

D. All of these

Q. 150 Bank rate means ________

A. The rate at which central bank discounts the bills of commercial banks

B. Portion of total deposit that a commercial bank has to keep with central bank

C. Rate of savings deposits

D. None of the above

Part B – Quantitative Aptitude

Q. 151 Triplicate ratio of 4 : 5 is

A. 125 : 64

B. 16 : 25

C. 64 : 125

D. 120 : 46

Q. 152 The mean proportion between 24 and 54 is __

A. 33

B. 34

C. 35

D. 36

Q. 153 If (log√x 2)^2 = logx 2 then x =

A. 16

B. 32

C. 8

D. 4

Q. 154 In the co-ordinate plane the points in order (1, 1), (4, 4), (4, 8), (1, 5) forms__________

A. Rhombus

B. Square

C. Rectangle

D. Parallelogram

Q. 155 In the co-ordinate plane, if the points (1, 3), (-2, 1) & (k, -1) are collinear then the value of ‘k’ is _______

A. 0

B. -5

C. 4

D. 7

Q. 156 If α, β are roots of x^2 + 7x +12 = 0 then the equation whose roots are (α + β)^2 &(α − β)^2 is _________

A. x^2 − 54x + 245 = 0

B. x^2−14x + 49 = 0

C. x^2 − 24x +144 = 0

D. x^2− 50x + 49 = 0

Q. 157 The union forbids the employer to employ less than 2 experienced persons (x) to each fresh person (y). This situation can be expressed as

A. x ≤ y/2

B. y ≤ x/2

C. y ≥ x/2

D. none

Q. 158 The difference between CI and SI on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Rs. 1. The sum is

A. 625

B. 630

C. 640

D. 635

Q. 159 If the sum of money when compounded annually become 1140 in 2 years and 1710 in 3 years at rate of interest

A. 30%

B. 40%

C. 50%

D. 60%

Q. 160 The total number of shake hands in a group of 10 persons to each other are________.

A. 45

B. 54

C. 90

D. 10

Q. 161 A regular polygon has 44 diagonals then the no. of sides are _______

A. 8

B. 9

C. 10

D. 11

Q. 162 In how many ways the word “ARTICLE” can be arranged in a row so that vowels occupy even places?

A. 132

B. 144

C. 72

D. 160

Q. 163 In an A.P. if Sn = 3n^2 – n and its common difference is ‘6’ then first term is ______

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

Q. 164 In an A.P. if the sum of 4th & 12th terms is ‘8’ then sum of first 15 terms is _______

A. 60

B. 120

C. 110

D. 150

Q. 165 There are ‘n’ AMs between 7 & 71 and 5th AM is 27 then ‘n’ = ______

A. 15

B. 16

C. 17

D. 18

Q. 166 In a G.P. the 6th term is 729 and the common ratio is 3 then 1st term is ____

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 7

Q. 167 If f(x) = x+2, g(x) = 7^x then gof (x)=

A. 7^x . x + 2.7^x

B. 7^x+2

C. (7^x) + 2

D. none

Q. 168 If f(x) = log (1 + x)/(1 – x) then f (2x)/(1 + x^2) =

A. f(x)

B. 2 f(x)

C. 3 f(x)

D. -f(x)

Q. 169 If A = {1, 2, 3} then the relation R={(1, 1), (2, 3), 2, 2), (3, 3), (1, 2)} on A is:

A. Reflexive

B. Symmetric

C. Transitive

D. Equi-valence

Q. 170 Evaluate the equation given in figure:

A. 1

B. 2

C. ∞

D. 0

Q. 171 Find the value of equation given in figure:

A. -3

B. 0

C. 2

D. 4

Q. 172 If y = log yx then dy/dx =

A. 1/x+log y

B. 1/x+xlog y

C. 1/1+xlog y

D. 1/y+log x

Q. 173 y = e^t and x = log t then dy/dx =

A. 1/t

B. t . e^t

C. -1/t^2

D. None of these

Q. 174 Find the value of the equation given in figure (1):

A. [log 2e]^n + 1/ n+1

B. [log 2e]^n+1/n+1 – loge/n+1

C. [log2e – log2]^n+1/n+1

D. None of these

Q. 175 ∫ 2^3x . 5^x . 3^2x dx =

A. (2^3x . 3^2x . 5^x) / log720 + c

B. (2^3x . 3^2x . 5^x) / log360 + c

C. (2^3x . 3^2x . 5^x) / log90 + c

D. (2^3x . 3^2x . 5^x) / log180 + c

Q. 176 Which of the following measures of central tendency cannot be shown by graphical method?

A. Mean

B. Median

C. Mode

D. Quartiles

Q. 177 GM of 8, 4, 2 is _______

A. 4

B. 2

C. 8

D. None

Q. 178 A pie diagram used to represent the data given in figure (1).The central angles corresponding to income and wealth tax

Source	Customer	Excise	Income Tax	Wealth Tax
Revenue in Millions	120	180	240	180

A. (90°, 120°)

B. (120°, 90°)

C. (60°, 120°)

D. (90°, 60°)

Q. 179 The average age of 15 students is 15 years. Out of these the average age of 5 students is 14 years and that of other 9 students is 16 years, then the age of 15th student is ______

A. 11 years

B. 14 years

C. 15 years

D. None of these

Q. 180 Σx^2 =3390 , n = 30, σ=7 then = ______

A. 113

B. 210

C. 8

D. None

Q. 181 If the mean of frequency distribution is 100 and coefficient of variation is 45% then standard deviation is ______

A. 45

B. 0.45

C. 0.045

D. None

Q. 182 Two variables X and Y are related as 4x + 3y = 7 then correlation between x and y is ______

A. Perfect positive

B. Perfect negative

C. Zero

D. None of these

Q. 183 If r is the Karl Pearson’s coefficient of correlation in a bivariate distribution, the two regression lines are at right angles when _

A. r = ±1

B. r = 0

C. r =± ∞

D. None

Q. 184 8x − 3y + 7 = 0, 14x − 7y + 6 = 0 are two regression equations then the correlation coefficient, r = _____

A. 0.86

B. -0.86

C. 0.45

D. -0.45

Q. 185 If r = 0.28, Cov (x,y) = 7.6, V (x) = 9 then σy =

A. 8.75

B. 9.04

C. 6.25

D. None

Q. 186 The odds that a book will be reviewed favorably by 3 independent critics are 5 to 2, 3 to 4, 4 to 3 respectively, then the probability that out of 3 critics the majority will be favorable is ______

A. 209 / 343

B. 209 / 434

C. 209 / 443

D. 209 / 350

Q. 187 Find the probability of drawing spade on each of 2 consecutive draws from a well shuffled pack of cards when the draws are without replacement.

A. 2 / 51

B. 3 / 51

C. 4 / 51

D. 5 / 51

Q. 188 A bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls. If 2 balls are drawn at random from the bag find the probability that none of them will be blue.

A. 11 / 21

B. 5 / 7

C. 10 / 21

D. 2 / 7

Q. 189 A player tosses 3 coins. He wins Rs. 5 if 3 heads appear, Rs. 3 if two heads appear, Rs. 1 if one head appear and a loss of Rs. 15 if no head appear. Find his expected gain in Rs. _______

A. 0.5

B. 0.25

C. 0.2

D. None

Q. 190 Which of the following is false in case of normal distribution.

A. It is multi model

B. mean = median = mode

C. It is symmetric

D. Total area is 1

Q. 191 If x ~ B (5, p) and p (x = 2) = 0.4362 and p (x = 3) = 0.2181 then p =

A. 3/4

B. 1/3

C. 2/3

D. 1/4

Q. 192 In a Poisson distribution

A. Mean & SD are equal

B. Mean, variance are equal

C. SD & variance are equal

D. both (a) and (b)

Q. 193 In Binomial Distribution mean is 4 and variance is 3. Find the mode?

A. 4

B. 4.25

C. 4.5

D. 4.1

Q. 194 In a normal distribution the relation between QD and SD is ______

A. 3 QD = 2 SD

B. 3 SD = 2 QD

C. 4 QD = 3 SD

D. None of these

Q. 195 99% confidence limits of population mean are ______

A. x̅ ± 1.96SE

B. x̅ ± 2.58SE

C. x̅ ± 3 SE

D. None

Q. 196 A sampling technique providing separate estimates for population means for different segments and also an overall estimate is _____

A. Stratified sampling

B. Random sampling

C. Systematic sampling

D. None of these

Q. 197 The probability of selecting a sample of size n from a population of size N by simple random sampling with replacement is ___

A. 1/N

B. 1/N^n

C. 1/Ncn

D. 1/Ncn . n!

Q. 198 Time Reversal Test is satisfied by ______

A. Fisher’s Ideal Index

B. Drobish Bowley’s Index

C. Laspeyer’s Index

D. None of these

Q. 199 Bowley’s Index Number = 150, Laspeyer’s Index = 180 then Paasche’s index number is __

A. 120

B. 30

C. 105

D. None

Q. 200 In 2005 price index was 286% with base 1995 then how much price increased in 2005 with base 1995?

A. 286%

B. 386%

C. 86%

D. 186%

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	C	D	B	D	B	D	B	D	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	C	A	C	B	B	A	A	B	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	C	C	B	C	C	B	C	C	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	B	D	A	C	B	C	C	A	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	B	D	B	D	B	A	D	B	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	B	C	A	B	D	A	D	C	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	B	A	B	D	D	A	A	B	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	D	B	A	C	C	B	A	D	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	B	D	A	B	A	A	B	B	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	A	A	A	A	B	C	A	D	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	A	B	A	A	A	A	A	B	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	A	B	A	B	B	D	D	C	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	D	A	B	C	D	A	A	A	D	B
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	A	A	A	A	B	B	A	B	D	A
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	C	B	D	B	D	C	B	D	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	D	A	D	B	D	B	A	C	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	D	B	A	A	A	B	B	B	A	A
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	C	B	B	B	B	A	A	B	A	C
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	A	B	B	A	B	A	B	C	B	A
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	B	B	A	A	B	A	B	A	A	D

THE ART AND PLAN OF CROSS EXAMINATION

THE ART AND PLAN OF CROSS EXAMINATION

BY: GAZAL BHATNAGAR,VIDHYARTHI DARPAN

Q.) WHAT DO YOU MEAN BY CROSS EXAMINATION? WHY IS IT IMPORTANT?

Ans) Cross examination is a technique that is implemented and practiced by prosecutors by the means of direct examination. It is used to enquire averse deponent in depositions and in civil and criminal trials.

Cross examination is a sharp art in which the probability of explanation of witness answers are low. Basically, used to impeach a witness in the following ways:

It reveals the witness character whether biased, prejudiced, lying or is an egotism.
Shows witness past behavior usually dismally or has been charged with a crime like deceit and lying.
Uncovers witness reputation when it comes to truth telling.

Cross examination is a type of interrogation by the opposing party of the witness that is called for testing. If a party calls a witness to provide testimony and statements in its favor, the party opposing the claim has the right to examine such a witness. Examination- in- chief occurs after cross examination which is the examination of the witness by the party being called. Both examination must relate to the relevant facts.

GOALS OF CROSS EXAMINATION:

Authenticates the evidence of the state’s witnesses.
Acquires genuine acknowledgement that are supportive to the state’s case.
Lessen the defense case by impeachment of the witness on the stand.
Minimize the defense case by impeachment of other defense witnesses through the witness on the stand.

THE TEN COMMANDMENTS WHILE CROSS EXAMINING:

Be brief.
Use short questions with plain words.
Ask only leading and suggestive questions.
Never ask a question to which you do not know the answer.
Listen to the answers given by the witness.
Do not quarrel with the witness.
Don’t let the evidence (witness) clarify.
Do not ask the witness to repeat the testimony he/she gave in-chief.
Avoid long questions.
Save the explanation for summation.

IMPORTANCE OF CROSS EXAMINATION:

Builds credibility.
Creates clarity.
Constructs cracks.
Used for confirming and evaluating the truth of a person’s testimony, to develop the testimony further and to achieve other objectives.
The aim of a cross examination is to investigate the evidence and try the reliability of a witness who has been called and given proof in-chief.
Cross examination is an effective tool which is devised for the ascertainment of truth, discredit and impeach the testimony of a witness, assist evidences that are favorable to the side of a cross examiner and provides independent proofs beneficial to the position of a cross examiner.

It is a very powerful mechanism which testifies the veracity of a witness and the accuracy or completeness of what he/she says. It is a form of intensive questioning with the expected answers hinted to in such questions itself.

The cross examination is also known as” ex-adverso”, used to expose the inaccuracies of the evidence of a particular witness.

Section 146 in the Indian Evidence Act 1872 says that a witness during cross examination, may, in addition to the questions herein before referred to, be asked any questions which tend

To test his veracity.
To find out who he is and what his place in life is.
Shaking his reputation by damaging his character whether the answer to these questions may tend to criminalize him directly or indirectly, or may expose him or tend to expose him to a fine or revocation, directly or indirectly.

Q.) GIVE A LIST OF DO’S AND DON’TS FOR AN EFFECTIVE CROSS EXAMINATION.

Ans) DO’S OF CROSS EXAMINATION:

1. Have a command on leading questions only-:

By doing so, the witness is permitted to answer only “yes” or “no”.

2. Restrictions on questions-:

Try to control the questions you ask. Use only simple and easy questions. Do not ask open ended questions, narrative generating questions, compound, and multipart questions.

3. Limit the level of flow-:

Conduct cross examination in an order and by subject matter. Always ask questions in a sequence that tells a story which is followed easily. Try to use descriptive words to highlight the significant points. Impeach the credibility of a witness before attacking the credibility of his/her testimony.

4. Restrain to the subject matter-:

Do not allow the witness to restate his straight testimony. Refuse to explore uncharted territory and use verbatim notes on the witness’s direct testimony.

5. Be polite and courteous-:

Create the impression of being friendly and fair. Do not be harsh and overbearing. This will make a pleasant courtroom atmosphere, appealing to jurors, and does not alienate them from your client.

6. Keep faith on questions that you ask-:

Have a good faith basis for questions that you ask, if challenged by your opponent and are unable to provide sufficient proof for your question.

7. Begin with major points-:

When the jury finishes listening to the direct examination then start their thought processes to be in your favor by using extensive details.

8. Wind-up the cross examination with favorable points-:

Leave strong impression and thoughts on jury while ending the case using major points.

9. Organize the case-:

If the case is well ordered, the jury will not only appreciate the lawyer but also move the case rapidly and back to work sooner.

10. Use of space in the courtroom-:

Try to maintain distance and position. It keeps the jury more alert and contributes to emphasis and effect.

DON’TS OF CROSS EXAMINATION:

1. Never argue with a witness-:

The examiner should not argue or quarrel with the witness. Overcome the situation by eliciting the answers you need or use skillful questioning for the responses.

2. Don’t answer the questions for an opposing witness-:

The examiner should never respond to the opposing party, as by doing so the control goes in the favor of the witness rather to the lawyer/examiner.

3. Never argue with the judge-:

Try to make strongest argument while being respectful towards the judge. Do not argue in front of the jury and audience as it will lead to a mortal sin against self-control. Be a loyal examiner during the case as much as you can.

4. Don’t persecute yourself by your opponent-:

The opposing counsel will try to bait you so that you may lost your control and make mistakes. Do not be tempted and baited (mostly used in depositions, courtrooms and even over phones). Stay confident and play your game without losing self-control and concentration at your client’s expense.

5. Don’t let the jury know and see that your case has been hurt by an answer-:

Never reform your demeanor, expression, and the pace of your cross examinations. If you do, you risk revealing that your case has been hurt and damaged. This time requires utmost self-control.

6. Don’t “KILL” a witness unless the jury wants him to be demolished-:

Never try to stab the bull. If the examiner plunges the sword into the body of the bull, the crowd might feel sorry for that bull.

7. Don’t cross examine if there is no impact-:

If no result, outcome, and impression appears by cross examining then announce that you have no questions. This itself will carry a big impact.

8. Don’t re-affirm points that hurt you-:

Avoid giving opportunity to the witness who has given direct testimony against you and to repeat that testimony.

9. Don’t rely on the judge to discipline the witness-:

Try to control the witness by your own. Do not call upon judge as it will lead to the weakness of courtroom. Judge should be used as a last resort.

10. Don’t be cocky and arrogant-:

Try to keep the tone in a respectful and truth-seeking manner. Ask as many killing questions as you can but do not let the jury to see you as a conceited examiner.

CLAT 2017 Previous Year Paper

CLAT 2017

Q. 1 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

We shall fail ________ we are industrious.

A. whether

B. unless

C. until

D. though

Q. 2 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

Sunita decided to set ______ some time every day for prayers.

A. up

B. aside

C. on

D. in

Q. 3 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

If they want to succeed, they ______ have to work very hard

A. ought

B. should

C. must

D. will

Q. 4 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

She stood ______ Amit, but could not utter a single word for quite some time.

A. for

B. to

C. before

D. about

Q. 5 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

The passengers were very happy _______ the friendly and warm treatment.

A. from

B. to

C. about

D. by

Q. 6 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

The doctor advised him to go ______ several medical tests.

A. through

B. about

C. under

D. into

Q. 7 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

Would anybody ______ a mother have risked her life for the baby?

A. however

B. rather

C. than

D. but

Q. 8 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option

The minister flew ______ the flooded areas in a helicopter

A. in

B. about

C. over

D. along

Q. 9 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

Kanak is endowed _______ many great qualities.

A. of

B. in

C. by

D. with

Q. 10 Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option

You have played a great role, for _______ your help I possibly would have landed myself into a problem.

A. despite

B. although

C. after

D. without

Questions: 11 – 15

Direction for Questions 11 – 15: Read the given passage carefully and choose the most appropriate option to the questions given below.

The World Trade Organisation (WTO) was created in the early 1990s as a component of the Uruguay Round negotiation. However, it could have been negotiated as part of the Tokyo Round of the 1970s, since negotiation was an attempt at a ‘constitutional reform’ of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT). Or it could have been put off to the future, as the US government wanted. What factors led to the creation of the WTO in the early 1990s? One factor was the pattern of multilateral bargaining that developed late in the Uruguay Round. Like all complex international agreements, the WTO was a product of a series of trade-offs between principal actors and groups. For the United States, which did not want a new organization, the disputed settlement part of the WTO package achieved its longstanding goal of a more effective and more legal dispute settlement system. For the Europeans, who by the 1990s had come to view GATT dispute settlement less in political terms add more as a regime of legal obligations, the WTO package was acceptable as a means to discipline the resort to unilateral measures by the United States. Countries like Canada and other middle and smaller trading partners were attracted by the expansion of a rulebased system and by the symbolic value of a trade organization, both of which inherently support the weak against the strong. The developing countries were attracted due to the provisions banning unilateral measures. Finally, and perhaps most important, many countries at the Uruguay Round came to put a higher priority on the export gains than on the import losses that the negotiation would produce, and they came to associate the WTO and a rule-based system with those gains. This reasoning – replicated in many countries – was contained in U. S. Ambassador Kantor’s defence of the WTO, and it announced to a recognition that international trade and its benefits cannot be enjoyed unless trading nations accept the discipline of a negotiated rule-based environment. A second factor in the creation of the WTO was pressure from lawyers and the legal process. The dispute settlement system of the WTO was seen as a victory of legalists but the matter went deeper than Aglasem Admission that. The GATT, and the WTO, are contract organizations based on rules, and it is inevitable that an organization creating a further rule will in turn be influenced by legal process. Robert Hudee has written of the ‘momentum of legal development’, but what is this precisely? Legal development can be defined as promotion of the technical legal values of consistency, clarity (or certainty) and effectiveness; these are values that those responsible for administering any legal system will seek to maximize. As it played out in the WTO, consistency meant integrating under one roof the whole lot of separate agreements signed under GATT auspices; clarity meant removing ambiguities about the powers of contracting parties to make certain decisions or to undertake waivers; and effectiveness meant eliminating exceptions arising out of grandfather-rights and resolving defects in dispute settlement procedures and institutional provisions. Concern for these values is inherent in any rule-based system of co-operation, since without these value rules would be meaningless in the first place, therefore, create their own incentive for fulfilment. The moment of legal development has occurred in other institutions besides the GATT, most notably in the European Union (EU). Over the past two decades the European Court of Justice (ECJ) has consistently rendered decisions that have expanded incrementally the EU’s internal market, in which the doctrine of ‘mutual recognition’ handed down in Cassis de Dijon case in 1979 was a key turning point. The court is now widely recognized as a major player in European integration, even though arguably such a strong role was not originally envisaged in the Treaty of Rome, which initiated the current European Union. One means the Court used to expand integration was the ‘teleological method of interpretation’, whereby the actions of member states were evaluated against ‘the accomplishment of the most elementary goals set forth in the Preamble to the (Rome) treaty. The teleological method represents an effort to keep current policies consistent with slated goals, and it is analogous to the effort in GATT to keep contracting party trade practices consistent with slated rules. In both cases legal concerns and procedures are an independent force for further co-operation. In the large part the WTO was an exercise in consolidation. In the context of a trade negotiation that created a near-revolutionary expansion of international trade rules, the formation of the WTO was a deeply conservative act needed to ensure that the benefits of the new rules would not be lost. The WTO was all about institutional structure and dispute settlement: these are the concerns of conservatives and not revolutionaries, that is why lawyers and legalists took the lead on these issues. The WTO codified the GATT institutional practice that had developed by custom over three decades, and it incorporated a new dispute settlement system that was necessary to keep both old and new rules from becoming a sham. Both the international structure and the dispute settlement system were necessary to preserve and enhance the integrity of the multilateral trade regime that had been built incrementally from the 1940s to the 1990s.

Q. 11 In the statement ‘… it amounted to a recognition that international trade and its benefits cannot be enjoyed unless trading nations accept the discipline of a negotiated Aglasem Admission rule-based environment’, it refers to:

A. .The export gains many countries came to associate with a rule-based system.

B. The higher priority on export gains placed by many countries at the Uruguay The higher priority on export gains placed by many countries at the Uruguay Round.

C. The provision of a rule-based system by the WTO.

D. Ambassador Kantor’s defence of the WTO.

Q. 12 What would be the closest reason why WTO was not formed in 1970s?

A. The US government did not like it.

B. Important players did not find it in their best interest to do so.

C. Lawyers did not work for the dispute settlement system.

D. The Tokyo Round negotiations was an attempt at constitutional reform

Q. 13 In the method of interpretation of the European Court of Justice:

A. Actions against member states needed to be evaluated against the said community goals.

B. Enunciation of the most elementary community goals needed to be emphasized

C. Current policies need to be consistent with stated goals.

D. Contracting party trade practices need to be consistent with stated rules.

Q. 14 According to the passage, WTO promoted the technical legal values partly Through.

A. Integrating under one roof the agreements signed under GATT.

B. Rules that create their own incentive for fulfilment.

C. Ambiguities about the powers of contracting parties to make certain decisions.

D. Grandfather-rights exceptions and defects in dispute settlement procedures

Q. 15 The most likely reason for the acceptance of the WTO package by nations was that:

A. It has the means to prevent the US from taking unilateral measures.

B. Its rule-based system leads to export gains.

C. It settles disputes more legally and more effectively

D. They recognized the need for a rule-based environment to protect the benefits of increased trade.

Q. 16 In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence

A. will allow laws on be proposed, passed, as well as repealed by voters

B. allows voters to propose, pass and to repeal laws

C. will allow voter to propose, pass, as well as to repeal laws

D. allows voters to propose to pass, and repeal laws

Q. 17 In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence

A. The mountainous regions are dotted with hundreds of monasteries, many of them chiselled from solid rock centuries ago.

B. The mountainous regions are dotted with hundreds of monasteries, many of which are chiselled from solid rock centuries ago

C. chiselled from solid rock centuries ago, the mountainous regions are dotted with many hundreds of monasteries,

D. Hundreds of monasteries, many of them chiselled from solid rock centuries ago, are dotting the mountainous regions.

Q. 18 Direction for questions 16 – 20: In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence

A. even though it sounds plausible, the weakness of the hypothesis

B. the weakness of the hypothesis which sounds plausible.

C. though the hypothesis sounds plausible, its weakness

D. though plausible, the hypothesis’ weakness

Q. 19 Direction for questions 16 – 20: In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence

A. With everyone attending not knowledgeable.

B. For everyone in attendance did not know.

C. For not everyone attending knew.

D. With everyone in attendance not knowing.

Q. 20 Direction for questions 16 – 20:

In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence

A. he other one a deficit of six, occur in Nature and contribute

B. the other with a deficit of six, occur in Nature and contribute

C. the other with a deficit of six, occurs in Nature and contributes

D. one with six occurs in Nature and contributes

Q. 21 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Bleshphemy

B. Blasphamy

C. Blasphemy

D. Blashphemy

Q. 22 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Gallows

B. Ghellows

C. Gellows

D. Ghallows

Q. 23 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Remuneration

B. Remunaration

C. Renumeration

D. Renumaration

Q. 24 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Accommedation

B. Accomadation

C. Accommodation

D. Accomedation

Q. 25 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Annulment

B. Annulmant

C. Anulment

D. Annulement

Q. 26 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Gratuitous

B. Gratuitus

C. Gratitious

D. Gratetious

Q. 27 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Hypothecation

B. Hyphothecation

C. Hypathecation

D. Hypthacation

Q. 28 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Interrogation

B. Interagation

C. Interogetion

D. Interogation

Q. 29 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Maratorium

B. Moretorium

C. Moratarium

D. Moratorium

Q. 30 Choose the correct spellings in options given below

A. Abeyance

B. Abhayence

C. Abeyence

D. Abheyance

Q. 31 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. A

B. D

C. B

D. C

Q. 32 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. A

B. B

C. D

D. C

Q. 33 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 34 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. A

B. D

C. B

D. C

Q. 35 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. A

B. D

C. C

D. B

Q. 36 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. A

B. D

C. C

D. B

Q. 37 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. C

B. A

C. B

D. D

Q. 38 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. A

B. D

C. B

D. C

Q. 39 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. C

B. B

C. D

D. A

Q. 40 Directions for questions 31 – 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part

A. C

B. A

C. B

D. D

Q. 41 Choose the most appropriate option.

Donald Trump is _____________ President of the United States.

A. 46th

B. 43rd

C. 45th

D. 44th

Q. 42 Choose the most appropriate option

With the development of Terahertz (THz) transmitter, it is expected to be faster than 5G

mobile networks by:

A. Four Times

B. Five Times

C. Two TImes

D. Ten TImes

Q. 43 Choose the most appropriate option

Among the following professors of Indian origin who has received Knighthood for the work as a co-inventor of next generation DNA Sequencing called Solexa Sequencing is?

A. P. C. Mahalanobis

B. Mehnad Saha

C. Shankar Balasubramanian

D. Satyendra Nath Bose

Q. 44 Choose the most appropriate option

Which of the following country enacted a law during August 2016 providing for the right to register the marriages of Hindus?

A. Pakistan

B. Iran

C. Saudi Arabia

D. Afghanistan

Q. 45 Choose the most appropriate option

The top destination for domestic tourists in India for the past three consecutive years has been:

A. Orissa

B. Rajasthan

C. Kerala

D. Tamil Nadu

Q. 46 Choose the most appropriate option

The Japanese Prime Minister who offered ‘sincere and everlasting condolences’ to the people of the United States for killing more than 2,400 soldiers in the attack on Pearl harbour was:

A. Hayato Ikeda

B. Kakuei Tanaka

C. Juniciro Koizumi

D. Shinzo Abe

Q. 47 Choose the most appropriate option

NASA rediscovered India’s lunar spacecraft that was lost in the space during the past eight years known as:

A. Mangalayaan – II

B. Mangalayaan – I

C. Chandrayan – II

D. Chandrayan – I

Q. 48 Choose the most appropriate option

India’s third largest trading partner during 2016 is

A. Kuwait

B. Saudi Arabia

C. Dubai

D. U.A.E.

Q. 49 Choose the most appropriate option

Who called the immigration the ‘Trojan horse of Terrorism’?

A. Theresa May, Prime Minister of U.K

B. Angela Merkel, Chancellor of Germany

C. Viktor Orban, Prime Minister of Hungary

D. Donald Trump, President of the U.S

Q. 50 Choose the most appropriate option

The first country to have announced euthanasia of a child is:

A. Belgium

B. Norway

C. Denmark

D. Finland

Q. 51 Choose the most appropriate option

The bowler who has claimed the fastest 250 wickets in Cricket test matches is:

A. Dennis Likee

B. Rangana Herath

C. Anil Kumble

D. Ravichandran Ashwin

Q. 52 Choose the most appropriate option

Volvo has launched the world’s largest bus that can carry up to:

A. 300 passengers

B. 150 passengers

C. 260 passengers

D. 320 passengers

Q. 53 Choose the most appropriate option

According to the Survey Report released by Transparency International during March 2017 on India, the most corrupt are

A. Police

B. Local Councilors

C. Business Executives

D. Government Officials

Q. 54 Choose the most appropriate option

Name the President elect of France who is likely to take the oath on 14 May 2017.

A. Emmanuel Macron

B. Marine Le Pen

C. Francois Holland

D. Francois Fillon

Q. 55 Choose the most appropriate option

The 2016 Nobel Peace Prize was won by the President of :

A. South Africa

B. United States of America

C. Sri Lanka

D. Columbia

Q. 56 Choose the most appropriate option

Japan is threatening to drag India to W.T.O on issues relating to the export of its:

A. Steel

B. Electronic Goods

C. Tea

D. Small Ships

Q. 57 Choose the most appropriate option

In terms of steel production in the world during 2015 – 2016, India stood at:

A. Second

B. Third

C. Fourth

D. Fifth

Q. 58 Choose the most appropriate option

India’s voting rights at the International Monetary Fund increased from 2.3 % to

A. 2.5%

B. 2.8%

C. 2.6%

D. 2.4%

Q. 59 Choose the most appropriate option

The first elected civilian President in Myanmar is:

A. Aung San Suu Kyi

B. Khin Ayi

C. Htin Kyaw

D. Aung San

Q. 60 Choose the most appropriate option

Prithvi Defence Vehicle is

A. The name of an amphibious Naval vessel

B. The name of a newly developed tank

C. The name of a single seated aircraft developed by HAL

D. The name of India’s Nuclear Intercepter Missile

Q. 61 Choose the most appropriate option

Which shoe company in the United States of America has won an IPR dispute against China recently for using their logo?

A. Reebok

B. Adidas

C. Nike

D. New Balance

Q. 62 Choose the most appropriate option

Who has been selected for 2016 BC Roy Award?

A. Dr. N. Bhaskaran

B. Dr. J. Rajendra

C. Dr. Jagat Ram

D. Dr. P. Raghu Ram

Q. 63 Choose the most appropriate option

The world’s first artificial intelligence lawyer, a robot, is named as:

A. IDM-LaBrain

B. Boss

C. Ross

D. Watson

Q. 64 Choose the most appropriate option

The Hubble telescope of NASA is located in

A. NASA Headquaters

B. Canada

C. Space

D. Iceland

Q. 65 Choose the most appropriate option

Which court has stayed the execution of death sentence of Kulbhushan Jadhav in May 2017?

A. International Court of Justice

B. Supreme Court of Pakistan

C. Supreme Court of India

D. International Criminal Court

Q. 66 Choose the most appropriate option

Till the end of 2016, the total number of UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites in India is:

A. 18

B. 21

C. 42

D. 35

Q. 67 Choose the most appropriate option

Highest number of open prisons in India as on 2015 are in

A. Rajasthan

B. Kerala

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Maharastra

Q. 68 Choose the most appropriate option

Among the following, who has won the maximum number of titles?

A. Gopichand

B. P. V. Sindhu

C. Saina Nehwal

D. Srikant

Q. 69 Choose the most appropriate option

How many billionaires India has lost since demonetization on November 8, 2016?

A. Two

B. Eleven

C. Eighteen

D. Eight

Q. 70 Choose the most appropriate option

Juno is the name of a:

A. Hydrogen fuelled submarine

B. Hydrogen fuelled space craft

C. Solar powered space craft

D. Atomic powered submarine

Q. 71 Choose the most appropriate option

The Union Cabinet has recently approved the setting up of a Permanent Tribunal for resolving:

A. Complaints from three services

B. Inter-state water disputes

C. Inter-state boundary disputes

D. Election disputes

Q. 72 Choose the most appropriate option

World’s longest rail tunnel is about:

A. 23 kms

B. 35 kms

C. 47 kms

D. 57 kms

Q. 73 Choose the most appropriate option

The first Commercial Court and Commercial Disputes Resolution Centre was inaugurated at

A. Visakapatinam, Andhra Pradesh

B. Mumbai, Maharastra

C. Raipur, Chattisgarh

D. Ahmedabad, Gujarat

Q. 74 Choose the most appropriate option

Solar Impulse–2 is:

A. Hybrid airplane

B. Solar powered ship

C. Impact of climate change for overall increase of 2º C a year

D. Solar powered airplane that completed the first around the world

Q. 75 Choose the most appropriate option

During 2017, which SAARC country has notified the Right to Information Act?

A. Afghanistan

B. Bhutan

C. Nepal

D. Sri Lanka

Q. 76 Choose the most appropriate option

‘World’s longest-all women Non-stop flight’ from New Delhi to San Francisco covering

14,500 kms was operated by:

A. Jet Airways

B. Air India

C. United AIrlines

D. American Airlines

Q. 77 Choose the most appropriate option

‘Scorpion kick’ is a phrase used in

A. Kung Fu

B. Kabaddi

C. Kalari Fight

D. Kick Boxing

Q. 78 Choose the most appropriate option

Which country offered asylum seekers 1,200 Euros to leave by withdrawing their application for protection?

A. Denmark

B. France

C. Germany

D. Italy

Q. 79 Choose the most appropriate option

The Happiness Index Department or a Wing has been established in the states of:

A. Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh

B. Madhya Pradesh and Goa

C. Mashya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

D. Andhra Pradesh and Sikkim

Q. 80 Choose the most appropriate option

Which of the following individuals was called a ‘deceptive actor’ by China’s foreign ministry during March 2017?

A. Narendra Modi

B. Dalai Lama

C. Donald Trump

D. Sirisena

Q. 81 Choose the most appropriate option

The World Bank had cut India’s GDP growth for 2016 – 2017 to:

A. 8%

B. 7.6%

C. 8.6%

D. 7%

Q. 82 Choose the most appropriate option

Among the following who was crowned as ‘Miss Supernational’ during 2016?

A. Srinidhi Shetty

B. Shilpa Shetty

C. Alia Bhat

D. Aishwarya Rai

Q. 83 Choose the most appropriate option

COIN, a software programme developed by J. P. Morgan supports:

A. Interpreting Commercial Documents

B. Financial Accounting

C. Robotic Surgery

D. Bitcoin

Q. 84 Choose the most appropriate option

The first country in the world to have begun shutting down the entire Frequency Modulation (FM) radio network to be replaced by Digital Audio Broadcasting is:

A. China

B. United States of America

C. Norway

D. Switzerland

Q. 85 Choose the most appropriate option

Among the following M.L.As, who was disqualified by the Governor during January 2017 under Article 192 of the Constitution for undertaking government contracts?

A. Srinivas Prasad of Karnataka

B. Jayalalithaa of Tamil Nadu

C. Uma Shankar Singh of Bihar

D. P.C. George of Kerala

Q. 86 Choose the most appropriate option

India emerged as ___________ largest holder of the U.S Government Securities at the end of 2016:

A. Twelfth

B. Twenty Eight

C. Twenty Fourth

D. Fifteenth

Q. 87 Choose the most appropriate option

The first statue of a woman in Parliament Square in England is that of:

A. Margaret Thatcher

B. Queen Elizabeth – II

C. Mother Theresa

D. Millicent Fawcett

Q. 88 Choose the most appropriate option

Which country 3D – Printed a home of 37 sq.mts?

A. Spain

B. Russia

C. South Korera

D. Taiwan

Q. 89 Choose the most appropriate option

As on 31st January 2016, the highest number of law colleges were present in:

A. Madhya Pradesh

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Maharashtra

D. Uttar Pradesh

Q. 90 Choose the most appropriate option

Immediately before Antonio Guterres was appointed the U.N Secretary General in October 2016, he was:

A. Commissioner General of UNRWA

B. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees

C. The Prime Minister of Portugueses

D. United States High Commissioner for Human Rights

Q. 91 Age of father 10 years ago was three times the age of his son. After 10 years, father’s age is twice that of his son. The ratio of their present ages is:

A. 11:7

B. 7:4

C. 9:5

D. 7:3

Q. 92 A clock was set correct at 12 O’ clock. It loses 10 minutes per hour.What will be the angle between the hour and minute hands of the clock after one hour?

A. 90º

B. 85º

C. 75º

D. 105º

Q. 93 The Banker’s discount on a sum of money for 18 months is Rs. 600 and the true discount on the same sum for 3 years is Rs. 750/-. The rate percentage is:

A. 10%

B. 20%

C. 15%

D. 12%

Q. 94 The average weight of three men ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ is 75 kgs. Another man ‘A’ joins the group and the average weight now becomes 80 kgs. If another person ‘B’ whose weight is 5 kgs more than ‘A’ replaces ‘X’, then the average weight of ‘Y’, ‘Z’, ‘A’ and ‘B’ will be 85 kgs. What is the weight of ‘X’?

A. 84 kgs.

B. 82 kgs.

C. 78 kgs.

D. 80 kgs.

Q. 95 In an office, 1/3 of the workers are Men, ½ of the men are married and 1/3 of the married men have children. If ¾ of the women are married and 2/3 of the 2/3 of the married women have children, then the part of workers without children are:

A. 11/18

B. 17/36

C. 5/18

D. 4/9

Q. 96 The difference between simple interest and compound interest at the same rate for rupees 5,000 for two years is rupees 98. The rate of interest is:

A. 14%

B. 10%

C. 10 ½ %

D. 12%

Q. 97 A vessel contains a mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 5:3 respectively. How much of the mixture must be siphoned off and replaced with water, so that the mixture may be half milk and half water?

A. 1/7

B. 1/4

C. 1/5

D. 1/3

Q. 98 Praveen has Rs. 4,662 in the form of 2, 5 and 10 rupee notes. If these notes are in the ratio of 3:5:8, the number of five rupees notes with him is:

A. 336

B. 250

C. 84

D. 210

Q. 99 ‘A’ and ‘B’ complete a work in 12 days, ‘B’ and ‘C’ in 8 days and ‘C’ and ‘A’ in 16 days. ‘A’ left after working for 3 days. In how many days more will ‘B’ and ‘C’ finish the remaining work?

A. 7 ¾

B. 6 ⅚

C. 4 ¾

D. 3 ¾

Q. 100 A train ‘X’ leaves station ‘A’ at 3 p.m and reaches station ‘B’ at 4.30 p.m., while another train ‘Y’ leaves station ‘B’ at 3.00 p.m and reaches station ‘A’ at 4.00 p.m. These two trains cross each other at:

A. 3.36 p.m.

B. 3.30 p.m

C. 3.20 p.m.

D. 3.40 p.m

Q. 101 A trader sells rice at a profit of 20% and uses weights which are 10% less than the correct weight. The total gain earned by him is:

A. 22 2/9%

B. 35%

C. 33 1/3%

D. 30%

Q. 102 Keerthi’s father gave him some money to buy books. He spent half of the money equally to buy books and entertaining his friends. Whatever amount left with him, he deposited half in his savings account and gave Rs. 5 to a poor person as charity. Finally, Keerthi was left with Rs. 20 which he returned to his father. What amount did his father give him initially?

A. Rs. 160

B. Rs. 120

C. Rs. 200

D. Rs. 100

Q. 103 Taps ‘A’ and ‘B’ can fill a tank in 37 ½ minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Both taps are opened and after some time tap ‘B’ is turned off.The tank is filled completely in exactly 30 minutes, if tap ‘B’ is turned off after:

A. 15 minutes

B. 12 minutes

C. 9 minutes

D. 10 minutes

Q. 104 A man rows to a place 45 k.ms distant and back in 12 hours. He realises that he can row 5 k.ms downstream in the same time as 3 k.ms against the stream. The velocity of the stream is:

A. 4 k.ms/hr

B. 1 k.m/hr

C. 2 k.ms/hr

D. 1.5 k.ms/hr

Q. 105 There are two urns. One contains two white balls and four red balls, the other contains three white and nine red balls. All balls are of the same shape and size. From each urn, one ball is drawn. What is the probability of getting both the balls of the same colour?

A. 1/2

B. 1/12

C. 7/12

D. 1/24

Q. 106 A boat travels upstream from A to B and back from B to A in 5 hours.The speed of the boat in still water is 8 km/hour and the speed of the current is 4 km/hour. Then, the distance from A to B is:

A. 9 kms.

B. 10 kms.

C. 12 kms

D. 15 kms

Q. 107 Two men and seven boys can do a work in 14 days. Three men and eight boys can do the same work in 11 days. Further eight men and six boys can do three times the amount of this work in:

A. 18 days

B. 30 days

C. 24 days

D. 21 days

Q. 108 A piece of cloth costs rupees 75. If the piece is four meters longer and each meter costs rupees 5 less, the cost remains unchanged. What is the length of the piece?

A. 12 meters

B. 8 meters

C. 10 meters

D. 6 meters

Q. 109 A can do a piece of work in 8 days and B alone can do the same work in 10 days. A and B agreed to do the work together for Rs. 720. With the help of C, they finished the work in 4 days. How much C is to be paid?

A. Rs. 72

B. Rs. 82

C. Rs. 70

D. Rs. 80

Q. 110 Gold and copper are as heavy as water by 19 and 9 times respectively. The ratio in which these two metals be mixed so that the mixture is 17 times as heavy as water is:

A. 2:3

B. 3:4

C. 3:2

D. 4:1

Q. 111 Questions numbers 111-145 consists of legal proposition(s)/ principle(s) (hereinafter referred to as ‘principle’) and facts. Such principles may or may not be true in the real and legal sense, yet you have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this Section. In other words, in answering these questions, you must not rely on any principle except the principles those are given herein below for every question. Further, you must not assume any facts other than those stated in the question. The objective of this section is to test your interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving ability, even if the ‘most reasonable conclusion’ arrived at may be absurd or unacceptable for any other reason. It is not the objective of this section to test your knowledge of law.Therefore, to answer a question, principle is to be applied to the given facts and to choose the most appropriate option.

Principle: Acceptance of a proposal must be absolute and unqualified.

Facts: ‘A’ made a proposal to sell his motorcycle to ‘B’ for rupees 25,000/-. ‘B’ agreed to buy it for rupees 24,000/-. ‘A’ sold his motorcycle to ‘C’ for 26,000/- the next day. ‘B’ sues ‘A’ for damages

A. ‘B’ can proceed against ‘C’

B. ‘B’ will get the difference of rupees 1,000/- only

C. ‘B’ will not get any damages from ‘A’

D. ‘B’ will get damages from ‘A’

Q. 112 Principle: When a person consented to an act to be done by another, he cannot claim any damages resulting from doing that act, provided the act done is the same for which consent is given.

Facts: ‘P’ submitted a written consent to a surgeon ‘S’ for undergoing a surgical operation

for removal of appendicitis. The surgeon while doing surgery also removed the gall bladder of ‘A’:

A. ‘P’ can claim damages from ‘S’

B. ‘P’ is not bound to pay expenses of the surgery

C. ‘P’ is required to pay expenses for surgery for Appendicitis but not for Gall Bladder

D. ‘P’ cannot claim damages from ‘S’

Q. 113 Principle: Penal laws provide that whoever voluntarily has carnal intercourse against the order of nature with any man or woman, shall be punished for rape.

Facts: A Police Officer found a man engaged in carnal intercourse with an animal. The Police Officer arrested the man and produced him before the Court.

A. Court will punish the man for rape

B. Court will punish the police officer.

C. Court will not punish the man for rape.

D. Court will not punish the police officer.

Q. 114 Principle: A person is said to do a thing fraudulently, if he does that thing with intent to defraud, but not otherwise.

Facts: ‘A’ occasionally hands over his ATM card to ‘B’ to withdraw money for ‘A’. On one occasion ‘B’ without the knowledge of ‘A’, uses’A’s ATM card to find out the balance in ‘A’s account, but does not withdraw any money.

A. ‘B’ has committed misappropriation

B. ‘B’ has committed the act fraudulently

C. ‘B’ has committed breach of faith

D. ‘B’ has not committed the act fraudulently

Q. 115 Principle: An offer made by one party when accepted by another makes it a contract.

Transactions:

1 P offered to sell his house for Rs. 20 lakhs to R; R told P that he was interested to buy a house for 15 lakhs only.

2 C was looking for a house for not more than 25 lakhs; P informed Cthat his house was

available for 20 lakhs.

3 K wanted to buy some old furniture; L told K that he would sell his furniture for Rs. 10,000.

4 R advertised to sell his old car for a price of Rs. Three lakhs; S found the advertisement and offered to buy it for Rs. 2 lakhs 50 thousand;R agrees to sell it to S.

Which among the above is actually a contract?

A. Situation 4 only is a contract

B. Situation 3 only is a contract

C. Situations 1 and 2 are contracts

D. Situations 2 and 4 are contracts

Q. 116 Principle: There are legal provisions to give authority to a person to use necessary force against an assailant or wrong-doer for the purpose of protecting one’s own body and property as also another’s body and property when immediate aid from the state machinery is not readily available; and in so doing he is not answerable in law for his deeds.

Facts: X, a rich man was taking his morning walk. Due to the threat of robbers in the locality, he was carrying his pistol also. From the opposite direction, another person was

coming with a ferocious looking dog. All of a sudden, the dog which was on a chain held by the owner,started barking at X. The owner of the dog called the dog to be calm.They crossed each other without any problem. But suddenly, the dog started barking again from a distance. X immediately took out his pistol. By seeing the pistol the dog stopped barking and started walking with the owner. However, X shot at the dog which died instantly. The owner of the dog files a complaint against X, which in due course reached the Magistrate Court. X pleads the right of private defence. Decide

A. Shooting a fierce dog is not to be brought under the criminal law. So the case should be dismissed.

B. As there was no guarantee that the dog would not bark again, sh ooting it was a precautionary measure and hence within the right available to X under law.

C. There was no imminent danger to X as the dog stopped barking a nd was walking with the owner. Hence, shooting it amounted to excessive use of the right of private defence and hence liable for killing the dog.

D. The right of private defence is available to persons against assail ants or wrong-doers only and a dog does not fall in this category.

Q. 117 Principle: In criminal law, misappropriation is the intentional, illegal use of the property or funds of another person for one’s own use or other unauthorized purpose, particularly by a public official, a trustee of a trust, an executor or administrator of a dead person’s estate or by any person with a responsibility to care for and protect another’s assets. Embezzlement is misappropriation when the funds involved have been lawfully entrusted to the embezzler. On the contrary, theft is the illegal taking of another person’s property or services without that person’s permission or consent with the intent to deprive the rightful owner of it.

Facts: A went for swimming at the Municipal Swimming Pool. A handed over all his valuables, including some cash to X, the guard on duty for safe custody, as notified by the Municipality. After swimming for an hour, A came out and searched for X. He found another guard on duty and that guard informed A that X had gone home after completing his shift and did not hand over anything to be given to A. A register ed a complaint with the police. X was traced but he told the police that he sold all the valuables and the entire cash was used for drinking liquor. What offence, if any, was/were committed by X?

A. If at all X is liable, it is for criminal misappropriation only.

B. X is liable for theft as he took A’s property without X’s permission.

C. X is liable for criminal misappropriation and embezzlement.

D. X is not guilty of criminal misappropriation as he did not make an y personal gain out of those items with him.

Q. 118 Principle: According to the law of trade unions in India, no suit or other legal proceeding shall be maintainable in any civil court against any registered trade union or any officer or member thereof in respect of any act done in contemplation or in furtherance of a trade dispute.

Facts: Soloman, the Secretary of a registered Trade Union took a loan from a Bank for the higher education of his daughter. Soon after completing the course she was married to an NRI Engineer. Solomon did not repay the loan. The Bank demanded the payments from Soloman and warned him that the Bank will take suitable legal action against him. Identify the legal position in this regard.

A. As Soloman did not use the loan amount for his use and hence, n o action can be initiated against him.

B. The Bank cannot initiate any action against Soloman as he is the Secretary of a Registered Trade Union.

C. The Bank can recover the loan amount from the Trade Union as Soloman is the Secretary of the Union.

D. The Bank can file a suit for recovery of the loan amount against S oloman as he took the loan for a personal purpose and in such case no im munity will work.

Q. 119 Principle: When a person falsifies something with the intent to deceive another person or entity is forgery and is a criminal act. Changing or adding the signature on a document, deleting it, using or possessing the false writing is also considered forgery. In the case of writing/painting to fall under the definition, the material included must have been fabricated or altered significantly in order to represent something it is actually not.

Facts: David made a living traveling from city to city, selling paintings that he claimed were done by great artists. Since the artists’ signatures were in place, many people fell for them and purchased the paintings. One of these artists saw three of his alleged paintings in a City gallery containing his name. He knew these were not his works and he complained to the police. Police traced David and initiated legal proceedings. Is David guilty of any offence?

A. David is guilty of forgery as the addition of the signature was with an intention to make people believe that those were the paintings of the gr eat artists.

B. David is not guilty of any offence as he was selling the art pieces for his living.

C. There is no point in taking legal action against David as the signa ture has not done any alteration to the art work.

D. Those who buy the art pieces from David ought to have been car eful in checking it and ensuring that they were originals before purchasing it.

Q. 120 Principle: It is a case of fraud where a party to a contract knows or believes a fact to be true, but conceals it actively from the other party with a view to induce that person to enter into the contract.

Facts: While taking a life insurance policy, in reply to questions by the insurance company during the inquiry into his proposal, Zameer deliberately concealed the fact of his medical treatment for a serious ailment, which he had undergone only a few weeks ago

A. The concealment of fact by Zameer amounted to fraud.

B. The act of Zameer did not amount to fraud, as disclosing the fact would have resulted in exposure of his privacy.

C. The act of Zameer did not amount to any misrepresentation.

D. The act of Zameer amounted to innocent misrepresentation.

Q. 121 Principle: Where one of the parties to a contract was in a position to dominate the decision of the other party, the contract is enforceable only at the option of the party who was in a position to dominate the decision of the other party.

Facts: A doctor asked his patient to make a payment of rupees Ten Lakh for treatment of his fever. The patient paid an amount of rupees Five Lakh and promised to pay the remaining amount after the treatment. After treatment the patient recovered from fever.

The doctor demanded the remaining amount from the patient. The patient refused to pay.

A. he contract is not enforceable as doctor was in dominating positi on.

B. The contract is enforceable against the patient by the doctor.

C. The contract is enforceable against the doctor.

D. The contract is not enforceable without the consent of the patient.

Q. 122 Principle: Ownership in property consists of right to possess, right to use, right to alienate and right to exclude others. Sale is complete when property gets transferred from the seller to the buyer on sale.

Facts: ‘A’ sold his car to ‘B’. After this, ‘B’ requested ‘A’ to keep the car in his care on behalf ‘B’ for one month. ‘A’ agreed.

A. Sale of car is complete.

B. Sale of car is complete.Sale will be automatically completed after the expiry of one Month

C. Sale of car is not complete

D. Sale will be completed when ‘B’ will take the delivery of the car.

Q. 123 Principle: Every agreement, by which any party is restricted absolutely from enforcing his right in respect of any contract, by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary Tribunals, is void to that extent. The law also provides that nobody can confer jurisdiction to a civil court by an agreement between parties.

Facts: A and B entered into a valid contract for rendering certain service. A clause in the contract was that in case of any dispute arose out of the contract; it shall be referred to for Arbitration only. Is the contract valid?

A. The parties were trying to confer jurisdiction to some authority to decide a dispute and hence the clause would be invalid.

B. Arbitration is also a valid dispute settlement machinery recognize d by law and hence the entire contract is valid.

C. The contract is valid but the clause regarding Arbitration is void.

D. Arbitrator cannot be termed as an ordinary Tribunal. Hence, the a greement is void and would be unenforceable.

Q. 124 Principle: According to Sec. 2 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, ‘Industrial dispute means any dispute or difference between employers and employers or between employers and workmen or between work men and workmen, which is connected with the employment or non-employment or the terms of employment or with the conditions of labour of any person’.

Facts: The employees of DK Enterprises met the management and requested half a day leave to allow them to celebrate a lunar eclipse, which was going to happen two days later. The management refused the request. Does this situation amount to an ‘industrial dispute’?

A. As the difference of opinion between the employees and employe r is on declaration of holiday it amounts to an issue connected with employ ment or with the terms of employment and hence, an industrial dispute.

B. No as Lunar eclipse is unconnected with employment.

C. Yes, because there is some difference of opinion it would be an i ndustrial dispute.

D. No as declaring holidays is a prerogative of the employer. So no i ndustrial dispute.

Q. 125 Principle: According to law, a person who find goods belonging to another and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a bailee. Bailee is a person or party to whom goods are delivered for a purpose, such as custody or repair, without transfer of ownership. The finder of the goods legally can sell the goods found by him under certain circumstances including the situation that the owner refuses to pay the lawful charges of the finder.

Facts: P, a college student, while coming out of a Cricket stadium found a necklace, studded with apparently precious diamonds. P kept itfor two days thinking that the owner would notify it in a local newspaper. Since he did not notice any such notification, P published a small classified advertisement in a local newspaper. In two days’ time, P was contacted by a film actor claiming that it was her Necklace and requested P to return it to her. P told her that she should compensatehim for the advertisement charges then only he would return it otherwise he will sell it and make good his expenses. The film star told P that she had advertised in a national newspaper about her lost Necklace which was lost somewhere in the Cricket Stadium. The advertisement was published for three consecutive days incurring a large expenditure for her. Mentioning all this she refuses to pay P and claims the Necklace back. Which among the following is the most appropriate answer to this?

A. The film star was right in refusing P, as she did not offer any reward for anyone who would return the Necklace.

B. As it was wrong on the part of P to bargain over a property belon ging to a celebrity and he should have accepted some gift which might hav e been given by the film star and returned the Necklace instead of threatening her that he would sell it.

C. As the film star had notified in the newspaper, P ought to have re ad it and contacted her instead of publishing another notification. So he cannot claim any compensation.

D. P was requesting the film star for the actual expenditure incurred by him before returning the Necklace. This request is legally sustainable.

Q. 126 Principle: The concept of natural justice is against bias and for the right to a fair hearing. While the term natural justice is often retained as a general concept, and it has largely been replaced and extended by the general ‘duty to act fairly’.

Fact: ‘X’, a male employee of a company was dismissed by the employer just on the basis of a complaint by ‘Y’, a female employee of the company that ‘X’ was trying to be too friendly with her and often requested her to accompany him to the canteen.Is the dismissal of ‘X’ valid?

A. No, because in the modern times this type of behaviour is common.

B. Yes, because men are not supposed to behave improperly with women and hence there is no violation of any principles of law

C. Yes, moral law is antique and therefore, not applicable in modern times, therefore the termination is valid and no violations of the principles of natural justice occurred

D. No, because the employer did not give a chance to ‘X’ to explain his side, thereby violated the principles of natural justice.

Q. 127 Principle: The Constitution of India guarantees certain fundamental rights to its citizens. The Constitution also provides that these rights cannot be taken away by state even by a law. For violation of this, the person adversely affected by the law may approach the High Court or the Supreme Court for the issuance of an appropriate writ. One of these rights includes the freedom to form association that implies the right to join an association or not to join such an association.

Facts: Owing to some industrial disturbances created by XATU, oneof the several trade unions in AB Chemicals (Pvt) Ltd., the Company issued a circular to all its employees that as far as possible the employees may disassociate with XATU. Navin is an employee of AB Chemicals and the current General Secretary of XATU. Aggrieved by this circular, which affected the fundamental rights of his and other members of the Union, approaches the High Court of the state for a relief. Identify the most reasonable legal proposition.

A. The Company’s circular is illegal and has to be quashed by the Court.

B. Circular issued by a Company amounts to law in the constitutional sense and hence the High Court can issue a writ as pleaded for by Navin

C. The prohibition against any imposition of restriction against a fundamental right is not applicable to anybody other than the state and hence Navin will not get any relief from the High Court

D. The circular interferes with the freedom guaranteed by the Constitution and hence the High Court can issue an appropriate right.

Q. 128 Principle: Assault is causing bodily injury to another person by use of physical force.

Facts: Rustum while entering into compartment of a train raised his fist in anger towards a person Sheetal, just in front of him in the row, to get way to enter into the train first, but did not hit him. Rustum has:

A. Rightly showed his anger

B. committed an assault on Sheetal

C. insulted Sheetal

D. not committed an assault on Sheetal

Q. 129 Principle: Every agreement, of which the object or consideration is opposed to public policy, is void. An agreement which has the tendency to injure public interest or public welfare is one against public policy. What constitutes an injury to public interest or public welfare would depend upon the times and the circumstances.

Facts: ‘A’ promises to obtain for ‘B’ an employment in the public service, and ‘B’ promises to pay rupees 5,00,000/- to ‘A’.

A. The agreement is void because rupees 5,00,000/- is excessive.

B. The agreement is valid, as it is with consideration for public service.

C. The agreement is valid, as it is a contract between two parties with their free consent.

D. The agreement is void, as the object and consideration for it is opposed to public policy.

Q. 130 Principle: According to law, a person is deemed to have attained the age of majority when he completes the age of 18 years, except in the case of a person where a guardian of a minor’s person or property has been appointed under the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 or where the superintendence of a minor’s property is assumed by a Court of Wards. Indian law expressly forbids a minor from entering into a contract. Hence, any contract entered into by a minor is void-ab-initio regardless of whether the other party was aware of his minority or not. Further, though a minor is not competent to contract, nothing in the Contract Act prevents him from making the other party bound to the minor.

Facts: Lal executed a promissory note in favour of Gurudutt, aged 16years stating that he would pay Gurudutt a sum of Rs. 2 Lakhs when he attains the age of majority. On attaining the age of 18, Gurudutt demanded the amount from Lal, who refused to pay. Gurudutt wants to take legal action against Lal. Identify the most appropriate legal position from the following:

A. Lal was not aware of the fact that Gurudutt was a minor.

B. Gurudutt should not have entered into a contract with Lal when he was a minor

C. A promissory note duly executed in favour of a minor is not void and can be sued upon by him, because he though incompetent to contract,may yet accept a benefit

D. Lal argues that as per the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890, Gurudutt can claim the money only after he attains the age of 21.

Q. 131 Principle: When a person interferes with peaceful possession of another person without the permission of the person in possession of those premises, commits trespass to land.

Facts: ‘T’ just walked over the land of ‘P’ to reach his house as it was a short cut. ‘P’ had displayed a notice that it is not a thoroughfare. ‘P’ did not cause any damage to the land.

A. T’ has committed trespass to land.

B. ‘T’ has created nuisance for ‘P’.

C. ‘T’ has not committed any trespass on the land of ‘P’.

D. ‘T’ has violated privacy of ‘P’.

Q. 132 Principle: When a person falsifies something with the intent to deceive another person or entity is forgery and is a criminal act. Changing or adding the signature on a document, deleting it, using or possessing the false writing is also considered forgery. In the case of writing to fall under the definition, the material included must have been fabricated or altered significantly in order to represent something it is actually not.

Facts: John was a publisher of ancient books and papers. In one of his books on the World Wars, he gave photograph of some letters written by famous historic personalities. A researcher in history noted that in the pictures of some of the letters printed in the book, John had added some words or sentences in his own handwriting to give completeness to the sentences, so that the readers will get a clear picture of the writer’s intention. The researcher challenges the originality of those pictures and claims that the book containing the forged letters should be banned. Examine the validity of the researcher’s demand.

A. The additions in the letters were made by the publisher in his own handwriting would have made material alteration to the original meaning and hence amounted to forgery.

B. As forgery amounts to adding or deleting anything from an original document, the demand of the researcher is valid.

C. Allowing forged publications to be circulated among the public is as good as committing fraud on the public, so the publication should be banned.

D. The additions were made to give clarity to the original document and did not in any sense change the contents of the documents and hence there is no forgery as alleged by the researcher.

Q. 133 Principle: Negligence is actionable in law. In simple terms, negligence is the failure to take proper care over something.

Facts: A, a doctor, conducted a hysterectomy sincerely on B and left a small cotton swab inside the abdomen. As a consequence of which B developed some medical problems and had to undergo another surgery. Is A liable?

A. A is not liable as he did not foresee any consequences at the time of surgery.

B. Liability for negligence does not arise here as A performed the operation sincerely

C. A is liable for the negligence as he failed to take proper care during the surgery.

D. As only a small swab was left in the abdomen, there was no negligence.

Q. 134 Principle: When a person makes such a statement which lowers other person’s reputation in the estimation of other persons, is liable for committing defamation.

Facts: ‘A’ writes a letter to ‘B’ in which he uses abusive language against ‘B’ and also states that ‘B’ is a dishonest person. ‘A’ put the letter in a sealed envelope and delivered it to ‘B’.

A. A’ has committed a moral wrong

B. ‘A’ has not committed defamation

C. A’ has not committed moral wrong

D. ‘A’ has committed defamation

Q. 135 Principle: A master shall be liable for the fraudulent acts of his servants committed in the course of employment. However, the master and third parties must exercise reasonable care in this regard.

Facts: Rahul was a door to door salesman with United Manufacturing Company (the Company). The Company was manufacturing Water Purifiers. Rahul, along with the Company’s products, used to carry Water Purifiers manufactured by his Cousin in a local Industrial Estate. He used to sell the local product at a lower rate giving the impression to the buyers that he is offering a discount on the Company’s product. The Company Management detected the fraudulent activity of Rahul and dismissed him from service. Rahul still continued to carry on with his activity of selling the local product pretending that he was still a salesman of the Company. Several customers got cheated in this process. The fraud was noticed by the Company when the customers began to complain about the product. The customers demanded the Company to compensate their loss.

A. The Company is liable to compensate all the customers as it did not inform the public about Rahul’s fraudulent conduct and the subsequent dismissal.

B. The Company is not liable as Rahul was dismissed by the Company.

C. The Company is liable to the customers who purchased the local product from Rahul only till he remained as a salesman of the Company.

D. The liability rests with the local manufacturer as it was a defective product.

Q. 136 Principle: Contract is a written or spoken agreement, with specific terms between two or more persons or entities in which there is a promise to do something in return for a valuable benefit known as consideration. Such an agreement is intended to be enforceable by law. A unilateral contract is one in which there is a promise to pay or give other consideration in return for actual performance.

Facts: A Toilet Soap Manufacturing Company in India in order to promote the sale of their product, published an advertisement in all the Newspapers on January 1, 2017 that the Company has kept a model ignition key of an Audi A3 Car. The advertisement also stated that whoever gets the said key before December 31, 2017 from a soap bar will be gifted with the Audi A3 Car. Mr. Martin, a foreigner who came to India as a Tourist who was staying in a Hotel found a Key similar to same Car Ignition Key. Mr. Martin brought this matter to the notice of the Hotel Manager. The Manager informed Mr. Martin about the Company’s advertisement on January 1, 2017. Mr. Martin wants to claim the Car. Will he succeed?

A. The Hotel Manager who could legally claim the Car as he was the one actually purchased the soap for the use in the Hotel.

B. No. The Soap Company has not entered into a contract with Mr.Martin as he was not in India on January 1, 2017 when the advertisement was published.

C. No. Actual intention of the Company was to promote the sale of the Soap.

D. Mr. Martin obtained the Key before the stipulated date from the Soap Bar. So he is covered by the offer of the Soap Company and can claim the car.

Q. 137 Principle: Under the Employees Compensation Act, 1923, an employer is liable to pay compensation to his workmen for injuries sustained by them by an accident arising out of and in the course of employment.

Facts: M, the Manager of SRK Industries asked his secretary S to submit a report at the Government Labour Office. ‘S’ submitted the report as directed. On his way back S met one of his class mates. He then decided to have a cup of tea together on a way side restaurant. Sometime later, ‘S’ got a message from his office to report back as it was long time since he left the office. ‘S’ rushed back on his Motor Cycle. On his way back a Truck which was coming from a side road hit ‘S’. He was admitted in a nearby hospital with multiple injuries. He claims compensation under the Employees Compensation Act from his employer.

A. The Employer is liable as S had to rush back to the office, because of the message from the office.

B. The Employer is not liable as the truck driver was negligent.

C. The Employer is not liable as he was admitted in a private hospital and not a Government Hospital.

D. The Employer is liable to pay compensation as the accident took place arising out of and in the course of employment.

Q. 138 Principle: An agreement, the terms of which are not certain, or capable of being made certain, is void.

Facts: Sunder agreed to take Bhola’s penthouse on rent for three years at the rate of rupees 12, 00, 000/- per annum provided the house was put to thorough repairs and the living rooms were decorated according to contemporary style.

A. There is no valid contract because it has vague and uncertain terms, as the term ‘present style’ may mean one thing to Sunder and another to Bhola.

B. There is a valid contract because there is an offer from Sunder and acceptance from Bhola.

C. It is voidable contract at the option of Bhola.

D. There is a valid contract because all the terms of contract are certain and not vague as the rent is fixed by both of them and the term ‘present style’ only can be interpreted to mean the latest style.

Q. 139 Principle: Whoever takes away with him any minor less than sixteen years of age if a male, or less than eighteen years of age if a female,out of the custody of parents of such minor without the consent of such parents, is said to commit no offence.

Facts: ‘A’, a man, took away a girl below sixteen years to Mumbai without informing the parents of the girl.

A. ‘A’ committed an offence against the girl as well as her parents

B. ‘A’ committed an offence against the girl.

C. ‘A’ committed no offence against the parents of the girl

D. ‘A’ committed no offence against the girl as well as her parents

Q. 140 Principle: Section 34 of Indian Penal Code provides that ‘When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone.’

Facts: Three vagabonds, Sanju, Dilbag and Sushil decided to commit burglary. In the night, Sushil opened the lock and they broke into a rich man’s house when the entire family was on a pilgrimage. Sanju had gone to that house earlier in connection with some cleaning job. There was only a servant lady in the house. Hearing some sounds from the master bed room, the servant switched on the lights and went upto the room from where she heard the sound. Noticing that the servant was going to cry for help, Sanju grabbed her and covered her mouth with his hands and dragged her into the nearby room. The other two were collecting whatever they could from the room. When they were ready to go out of the house, they looked for Sanju and found him committing rape on the servant. They all left the house and the servantreported the matter to the police and identified Sanju. Subsequently,all three were arrested in connection with the offences of house breaking, burglary and rape. Identify the legal liability of the three.

A. All three are liable for all the offences as there was common intention to commit the crimes.

B. Sanju will be liable only for housebreaking and rape as he did not participate in the burglary.

C. Only Dilbag and Sushil are liable for burglary in looting the house, and all three will be liable for housebreaking and rape as they did not stop Sanju from committing the offence and hence were accomplice to the offence.

D. Only Sanju will be liable for rape as he was the one who actually committed the offence.

Q. 141 Principle: When a person who has made a promise to another person to do something does not fulfill his promise, the other person becomes entitled to receive, from the person who did not fulfill his promise,compensation in the form of money.

Facts: ‘X’ made a promise to ‘Y’ to repair his car engine. ‘Y’ made the payment for repair. After the repair, ‘Y’ went for a drive in the same car. While driving the car, ‘Y’ met with an accident due to bursting of atyre.

A. ‘X’ will be entitled to receive compensation from ‘Y’ in the form of money.

B. ‘X’ will not be entitled to receive compensation.

C. ‘Y’ will be entitled to receive compensation from ‘X’ in the form of money.

D. ‘Y’ will not be entitled to receive compensation from ‘X’.

Q. 142 Principle: If a party to a contract agrees to it under undue influence of any other party then the party under the undue influence may refuse to perform in accordance with the agreement.

Facts: A, a rich youngster became a member of a religious group and soon he was appointed by P the head of the group as his personal secretary. As per the rules of the group, all officials and staff of the group were supposed to stay in the group’s official premises itself. Some days later, A was asked by P to execute a Gift deed in favour of P, in which it was mentioned that all immovable properties in his name are being gifted to P. A was unwilling to execute the deed, but he was forcefully restrained by P and his body guards in P’s office and made A sign the gift deed. Soon after this A left the group and refused to hand over the property as agreed to in the gift deed. Is A’s action valid?

A. It is illegal for religious groups acquire property from its members.

B. A executed the deed, under compulsion and undue influence, and was right in withdrawing from the contract.

C. As the gift deed was executed by A, he cannot refuse.

D. As Gift is also a contract, the consent of A was not obtained by P while executing the deed.

Q. 143 Principle: A contract would be invalid and unlawful, if the contract is for an immoral or illegal purpose.

Facts: P, was a young and helpless widow, living on the pavement. R,a neighbour gave her a house, registered in her name, on the condition that she should allow R to keep his smuggled goods and drugs in her house. After the registration was done, according to the condition in the contract, R’s agents went to keep some packets in her house, she refused. R told her the condition under which the house was given to her. She still refused. Is P justified in her action?

A. As R was making the contract for illegal activities, P’s stand is valid in law.

B. R can take back the house by cancelling the transfer deed.

C. P is not justified as she did not have the right to deny R’s request.

D. P is right as she did not like smuggled goods to be kept in her house.

Q. 144 Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence. Facts: ‘A’, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill ‘B’. ‘B’ to save his life kills ‘A’.

A. ‘A’ has not committed an offence because he was mad.

B. ‘B’ has committed an offence.

C. ‘B’ has not committed any offence.

D. ‘A’ has committed the offence of attempt to murder.

Q. 145 Principle: A violation of a legal right of someone, whether results in a legal injury or not, gives rise to an action in tort for compensation. At the same time, an action by someone, which results in some loss or damage to somebody else is not actionable, if there is no violation of a right of that somebody.

Facts: AB Coaching Centre was a popular CLAT coaching academy with several good trainers. A lot of aspirants used to attend its coaching classes from all over and was making good profit. This was going on for the past several years. During a session, T, one of the very good and popular trainers of ABCC, had some difference of opinion with the owner of ABCC and left the coaching centre. In August 2016, T started another Entrance Coaching Centre closer to ABCC which resulted in a substantial drop in its students and huge financial loss. The owner of ABCC wants to file a case against T for the loss sustained by ABCC. What do you think is the right legal position?

A. T will be liable to compensate the loss to ABCC.

B. T has not violated any of ABCC’s legal right though they sustained some financial loss, and not legally bound to compensate ABCC.

C. ‘T’ should have consulted ABCC before starting his coaching centre.

D. T started the new coaching centre near ABCC intentionally, and s hall be liable to compensate the loss of ABCC.

Q. 146 Bona vacantia

A. Order of the court for eviction

B. Vacant land

C. Goods that have no owner

D. Vacant building

Q. 147 In pari delicto

A. Where the lawyer is at fault

B. Where the judge is at fault

C. Where the petitioner is at fault

D. Where both parties to a dispute are equally at fault

Q. 148 Sine die’ means:

A. Adjourned without fixing any date for the next meeting

B. Adjourned for the day and scheduled to meet next day again.

C. Adjourned for the day and meet after one week

D. Adjourned for the day and meet after one month.

Q. 149 Malus animus

A. Good intention

B. Bad intention

C. Physical force

D. Animal farm

Q. 150 Lis pendens

A. Pending suit

B. Decided case

C. No legal issues involved

D. Facts of case proved

Q. 151 Per incuriam

A. Mistaken decision

B. Supremacy of law

C. Mistaken identity

D. Supremacy of the Constitution

Q. 152 Autrefois convict means

A. Formerly convicted

B. To be convicted

C. Failed prosecution

D. Doubtful conviction

Q. 153 Lex loci means

A. Law of a place

B. Latin regualtions

C. Domestic laws

D. Italian laws

Q. 154 Animus posssidendi’ means:

A. Intent to contract

B. Intention to harm

C. Intention to return

D. Intention to possess

Q. 155 Caveat venditor means

A. Seller beware

B. Manufacturer beware

C. Transporter beware

D. Buyer beware

Q. 156 Pari passu means

A. On an unequal status

B. On equal footing

C. Diverse nature

D. Supremacy of law

Q. 157 Faux pas means

A. Cheating

B. Tactless mistake

C. Pausing for a while

D. Passage of time

Q. 158 ‘Punctum Temporis’ means

A. Functional authority

B. Temporary position

C. Timely assistance

D. Point of time

Q. 159 ‘Jus Gentium’ means:

A. Global administrative law

B. Law of Societies

C. Law among Nations

D. Global justice

Q. 160 Turpis arbiter’ means:

A. Inefficient lawyer

B. Inefficient judge

C. Corrupt prosecutor

D. Corrupt judge

Questions: 161 – 163

Direction for Question Numbers 161 – 163 Read the following information carefully and choose the appropriate option in the questions given below.

i. There is a group of five persons – A, B, C, D and E.

ii. One of them is a Singer, one is a Dancer, one is a Painter, one is a Teacher and one is a Doctor.

iii. Three of them – A, C and Doctor prefer rice to chapatti and two of them – B and the Painter prefer chapatti to rice.

iv. The Teacher, D and A are friends to one another but two of these prefer chapatti to rice.

v. The Singer is C’s brother.

Q. 161 Who is a Singer?

A. C

B. D

C. A

D. B

Q. 162 Who is a Teacher?

A. D

B. C

C. E

D. B

Q. 163 Who is a Dancer?

A. E

B. C

C. A

D. D

Questions: 164 – 166

Direction for Question Numbers 164 – 166: Read the following information carefully and choose the most appropriate option in the questions given below

i. Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U.

ii. Q gets a North-facing flat and is not next to S.

iii. S and U get diagonally opposite flats.

iv. R, next to U gets a South-facing flat and T gets a North-facing flat.

Q. 164 Which of the following combination gets South-facing flats?

A. U, P ,T

B. Q, T, S

C. data inadequate

D. U, R, P

Q. 165 Whose flat is between Q and S?

A. U

B. R

C. P

D. T

Q. 166 If the flats of T and P are interchanged, who’s flat will be next to that of U?

A. T

B. P

C. R

D. Q

Questions: 167 – 168

Which alternative applies to the following Statement or Assumptions? Choose the

most appropriate option.

Q. 167 ‘There is no man that is not naturally good’ is equivalent to the proposition:

A. No men are good.

B. Some men are naturally good.

C. Some men are not naturally good.

D. All men are naturally good.

Q. 168 ‘Only ignorant people believe in witchcraft’ is equivalent to:

A. Some ignorant persons are not those who believe in witchcraft.

B. No ignorant persons are those who do not believe in witchcraft.

C. All persons who believe in witchcraft are ignorant.

D. There is no link between ignorance and witchcraft.

Q. 169 Find the odd one out from the following:

A. Clearly visible

B. Exact estimate

C. Open secret

D. Only choice

Q. 170 Find the odd one out from the following:

A. Expedition

B. Crusade

C. Campaign

D. Cruise

Q. 171 Crumb : Bread is as

A. Splinter : Wood

B. Inch : Unit

C. Powder : Face

D. Water : Vessel

Q. 172 wave: crest as _________ : peak.

A. Water

B. land

C. River

D. Mountain

Q. 173 If in a certain code, the word MILITARY is written as 12324567, then in the same code, the word TAIL will be written as:

A. 2345

B. 3254

C. 4523

D. 5432

Q. 174 If 27th March, 2011 was Sunday, what was the day on 27th June, 2011?

A. Tuesday

B. Saturday

C. Monday

D. Sunday

Q. 175 ————– is a hater of knowledge and learning.

A. Misologist

B. Moroccan

C. Misogynist

D. Mystique

Q. 176 ‘Some of the valuable books are seldom read’, means:

A. All the valuable books are not read.

B. All the valuable books are read.

C. Some of the valuable books are read.

D. Some of the valuable books are not read.

Q. 177 A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is girl`s:

A. Son

B. Uncle

C. Son-in-law

D. Brother

Q. 178 When Ravi saw Ramesh, he recalled, ‘He is the son of the father of my daughter’. Who is Ramesh?

A. Cousin

B. Brother-in-law

C. Uncle

D. Brother

Q. 179 Pointing to a girl in the photograph, Ram said, ‘Her mother`s brother is the only son of my mother’s father’. How is the girl`s mother related to Ram?

A. Mother

B. Grandmother

C. Sister

D. Aunt

Q. 180 Sunil’s school bus is facing North when it reaches his school. After starting from Sunil’s house, it turned right twice and then left before reaching the school. What direction the bus was facing when it left the bus stop in front of Sunil’s house?

A. North

B. South

C. West

D. East

Q. 181 What is meant by ‘Alliteration’?

A. Act of literary modification.

B. The occurrence of the same letter or sound at the beginning of adjacent or closely connected words.

C. Acts of an environmentally conscious person.

D. Words which sound alike but have different meanings.

Q. 182 There were twelve dozens of chocolates with a shopkeeper. Ten chocolates were distributed by the shopkeeper to the children of his colony. The shopkeeper then added two more dozens of chocolates in his stock. If the shopkeeper divided the total chocolates equally in two different packets, then how many chocolates were there in each packet?

A. 158

B. 89

C. 152

D. 79

Q. 183 Identify the statement which cannot be accepted

A. Almost one third of the human body is made up of water

B. Odyssey is an ancient epic

C. Human race will become extinct sooner or later

D. The earth revolves around the sun in 366 days

Q. 184 Ravi was showing a photograph to his friend, Gopi. Pointing at a boy in the photograph, Ravi said: ‘The boy sitting at the left is the son of the wife of the only son of the grandmother of my younger brother’.What is the relation between the boy in the photograph and Ravi?

A. First Cousins

B. Brothers

C. Nephew and uncle

D. Ravi’s brother-in-law

Q. 185 How many times from 4 pm to 10 pm, the hands of a clock are at right angles?

A. 10

B. 11

C. 9

D. 6

Q. 186 John wants to go the university. He starts from his house which is in the East and comes to a crossing. The road to his left ends in a theatre, straight ahead is the hospital. In which direction is the University?

A. East

B. South

C. North

D. West

Q. 187 Coding and decoding 9: 72 : : 8 : ?

A. 34

B. 18

C. 64

D. 43

Q. 188 Two ladies and two men are playing bridge and seated at North, East,South and West of a table. No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each other are not of the same sex. One man is facing South.Which direction are the ladies facing to?

A. North and West

B. South and East

C. East and West

D. None of these.

Q. 189 A person who renounces religious or political belief or principle is called:

A. Apostle

B. Antiquarian

C. Ascetic

D. apostate

Q. 190 If in a code language, ‘ABANDON’ is written as ‘aramoim’; ‘BORE’ is written as ‘rits’ and ‘BASIL’ is written as ‘rabut’, then what is the original word for the code: ‘bituo’?

A. SOFIA

B. SOLID

C. NASIA

D. SOMAD

Q. 191 In a company, 60 % workers are males. If the number of female workers in the company is 800, what is the number of male workers in the company?

A. 1200

B. 1600

C. 1400

D. 1900

Q. 192 The birthday of Ms. Y was celebrated six days before Ms. X, who was born on 4th October 1999. The independence day of that year fell on Sunday. On which day did Ms. Y celebrate her birthday, if it was not a leap year?

A. Tuesday

B. Monday

C. Wednesday

D. Sunday

Q. 193 In a military secret service map, South-East is shown as North, North-East as West and so on. What will West become?

A. North-East

B. South-West

C. North-West

D. South-East

Q. 194 Vaishnavi prefers Economics to Maths, English to Social science, and Political Science to History. If she prefers Maths to History, and Social science to Maths, which is Vaishnavi’s least preferred subject?

A. History

B. Social science

C. Maths

D. Economics

Q. 195 A man walks 1 km. towards East and then he turns to South and walks 5 kms. Again he turns to East and walks 2 kms. After this he turns to North and walks 9 kms. Now, how far is he from his starting point?

A. 9 kms

B. 4 kms.

C. 10 kms

D. 5 kms

Q. 196 Mare is to Horse as –

A. Deer is to Buck

B. Sow is to Boar

C. Geese is to Duck

D. Pony is to Donkey

Q. 197 Pointing to a photograph, Prakash said, ‘She is the daughter of my grandfather’s only son’ How is Prakash related to the girl in the photograph?

A. Uncle

B. Cousin

C. Father

D. Brother

Q. 198 In the series of alphabets given below, which is the missing alphabet series?

AX, DU, GR, ____, ML

A. HQ

B. IK

C. JO

D. JN

Q. 199 If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on, what will West become?

A. North-West

B. North

C. South-East

D. East

Q. 200 No parrots are black.

All crows are black.

From the above premises which one of the following conclusions is true?

A. No crows are parrots.

B. Some parrots are not crows

C. No conclusion can be drawn.

D. Some crows are not parrots.

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	B	D	C	C	A	D	C	D	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	B	A	A	D	B	A	C	C	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	A	A	C	A	A	A	A	D	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	C	D	D	D	C	C	D	D	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	C	A	D	D	D	D	C	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	A	A	A	D	A	B	C	C	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	D	C	C	A	D	A	C	B	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	D	C	D	D	B	B	C	A	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	D	A	A	C	C	A	D	B	D	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	B	B	D	A	A	C	D	C	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	C	D	C	C	C	D	D	D	A	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	C	A	C	D	A	C	C	D	A	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	A	B	A	D	D	C	D	D	C
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	A	D	C	B	A	D	D	A	D	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	D	B	A	C	B	C	D	A	B	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	A	A	A	D	A	B	B	D	C	D
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	C	B	D	D	D	C	D	C	A	D
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	A	D	C	C	A	D	D	B	D	C
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	B	D	A	B	B	C	C	A	D	B
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	A	A	D	A	D	B	D	C	C	A