AIIMS UG 2013 Previous Year Paper

AIIMS UG 2013

Section

Questions

Marks

Physics

60 Questions (1 – 60)

60

Chemistry

60 Questions (61 – 120)

60

Biology

60 Questions (121 – 180)

60

General Knowledge

20 Questions (181 – 200)

20

Q : 1 For Satellite Communication which wave is used ?

A . Space Wave

B . Sky Wave

C . Ground Wave

D . Microwave

 

Q. 2 In nuclear fission, which of the following quantity is conserved?

A. Energy

B. Mass

C. Momentum

D. Energy and Mass

 

Q. 3 When a slow neutron is captured by a ²³⁵U₉₂nucleus, a fission energy releasing 200 MeV. If power of nuclear reactor is 100W then rate of nuclear fission is

A. 3.6 x 10⁶ s⁻¹

B. 3.1 x 10¹² s⁻¹

C. 1.8 x 10⁴ s⁻¹

D. 4.1 x 10⁶ s⁻¹

 

Q. 4 A ball of mass m is tied up with string and rotated along a horizontal circle of radius r . At an instant, its velocity is v, and tension in string is T, force required for circular motion is

A. T – mv²/r

B. T + mv²/r

C. mv²/r

D. 0

 

Q. 5 If modulated index is 1/2 and power of carrier wave is 2 w. Then what will be the total power in modulated wave?

A. 0.5 W

B. 1 W

C. 0.25 W

D. 2.25 W

 

Q. 6 If velocity of particle is 3 times of that of electron and ratio of Broglie wavelength of particle to that of electron is 1.814 x 10⁻⁴. The particle will be

A. Neutron

B. Deutron

C. Alpha

D. Tritium

 

Q. 7 A dipole of dipole moment ‘p’ is placed in non-uniform electric field along with x-axis, electric field is increasing at the rate of 1 V/m then the forrce on dipole is?

A. 0

B. 2p

C. p/2

D. p

 

Q. 8 Dimentional formula of Angular momentum is

A. ML²T⁻¹

B. M²L²T⁻²

C. ML²T⁻³

D. MLT⁻¹

 

Q. 9 Relation between magnetic moment and angular velocity is

A. M ∝ w

B. M ∝ w²

C. M ∝ √w

D. None of these

 

Q. 10 In an intrinsic semi conductor band gap is 1.2 eV then the ratio of no. of charge carriers at 600k and 300k is

A. 10⁴

B. 10⁷

C. 10⁵

D. 10³

 

Q. 11 Gravitation potential of mass m at height h from surface of earth of radius r is (Take g= acceleration due to gravity of earth’s surface)

A. -g(r+h)

B. -g(r-h)

C. g(r+h)

D. g(r-h)

 

Q. 12 Which method is best to reduce eddy current?

A. Laminating Core

B. Using thick wires

C. Using Hysterisis Loss

D. None of these

 

Q. 13 In a cyclic process. work done by a system is

A. 0

B. more than heat given to system

C. equal to heat given to system

D. independent of heat given to system

 

Q. 14 In a cylinder there are 60 g Ne and 60 g O₂. If pressure of mixture of gases in cylinder is 30 bar then in this cylinder partial pressure of O₂ is (in bar)

A. 30

B. 20

C. 15

D. 12

 

Q. 15 A gas mixture containing one mole of O₂ gas and 1 mole of He gas. Find ratio of specific heat at constant pressure to that at constant volume of the gaseous mixture.

A. 2

B. 1.5

C. 2.5

D. 4

 

Q. 16 1 mole of oxygen of volume 1 litre at 4 atm pressure to attain 1 atm pressure by result of isothermal expansion. Find work done by the gas.

A. 155 J

B. 206 J

C. 355 J

D. 552 J

 

Q. 17 Graph of specific heat at constant volume for a monoatomic gas is

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 18 given that force (5i + 7j – 3k) N acts on a particle at position (i+j-k) m. Find torque of this force on this particle about origin.

A. 4i -2j +2k

B. 2i – 3j +4k

C. 5i – 2j + 3k

D. 6i – 4j +4k

 

Q. 19 Astronomical wavelength increase due to droppler effect known as

A. Red Shift

B. Violet Shift

C. UV

D. IR Shift

 

Q. 20 Long distance communication between 2 point on earth is achieved by

A. Space Wave communication

B. Sky Wave communication

C. Satellite Wave communication

D. Line of sight transmission

 

Q. 21 Which of the following is not a state function?

A. Work Done in adiabatic process

B. Work Done in isothermal process

C. Heat at constant pressure

D. Heat at constant volume

 

Q. 22 In an oscillating system, a restoring force is a must. In an LC circuit, restoring force is provided by

A. Capacitor

B. Inductance

C. Resistance

D. Both a and b

 

Q. 23 Polaroid glass is used in sun glasses because

A. It reduces the light intensity to half on account of polarisation

B. it is fasionable

C. it has good color

D. it is cheaper

 

Q. 24 Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. Neutron is less stable than proton

B. Neutron can cause fission in nuclear reactors but proton can not.

C. A free proton can emit beta particle.

D. A bound proton can emit beta particle.

 

Q. 25 Electric field at a distance r from infinity log conducting sheet is proportional to

A. 1/r

B. r^2

C. r^(3/2)

D. independent of r

 

Q. 26 Given that the mobility of electrons in Ge is 0.4 m²V⁻¹s⁻¹ and electronic charge is 1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹C. The no. of donor atom (per m³) semiconductor of conductivity 500 mho/m is

A. 8 x 10²¹

B. 8 x 10¹⁵

C. 5 x 10²¹

D. 8 x 10¹⁶

 

Q. 27 In a young’s double slit experiment the spacing between the slits is 0.3 mm and the screen is kept at a distance of 1.5 m. The second bright fringe is found 6 mm from the central fringe. The wavelength of the light used in experiment is

A. 625 nm

B. 600 nm

C. 550 nm

D. 500nm

 

Q. 28 In beta plus decay

A. antineutrino is produced with electron

B. neutrino is produced with positron

C. neutron is produced with electron

D. none of these

 

Q. 29 A simple pendulum performs SHM about x= 0 with an amplitude ‘a’ and time period ‘T’. The speed of the pendulum at x = a/2 will be

A. πa/T

B. 3πa²/T

C. πa√3/T

D. πa√3/2T

 

Q. 30 A particle s projected from ground with an initial speed of ‘v’ at angle θ with horizontal. The average velocity of the particle between its point of projection and height point of trajectory is

A. v (√1+2cos² θ) /2

B. v (√1+cos² θ) /2

C. v (√1+3cos² θ) /2

D. v cos θ

 

Q. 31 The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 x 10¹⁴ Hz and wavelength is 5000 A. The refractive index of material will be

A. 1.5

B. 3

C. 1.33

D. 1.4

 

Q. 32 2 solenoids of equal number of turns having their length and the radii in the same ratio 1: 2. The ratio of their self-inductance will be

A. 1:2

B. 2:1

C. 1:1

D. 1:4

 

Q. 33 A circuit consisting of five resistors each of resistance R, forming a Wheatstone bridge. What is equivalent resistance of circuit?

A. 2R

B. R

C. 2R/3

D. R/2

 

Q. 34 The gate is?

A. NOR

B. OR

C. AND

D. NAND

 

Q. 35 An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature of sink is reduced by 62⁰ C, its efficiency is doubled. The temperature of source will be

A. 37⁰ C

B. 62⁰ C

C. 99⁰ C

D. 124⁰ C

 

Q. 36 If vector 2i + 3j +8k is perpendicular to the vector 4i – 4j +αk, then value of α is

A. -1

B. 1/2

C. -1/2

D. 1

 

Q. 37 1 g of steam is sent to 1 g of ice. At thermal equilibrium, the resultant temperature of mixture is

A. 270 C

B. 230 C

C. 100 C

D. 120 C

 

Q. 38 Ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is

A. 7/29

B. 9/31

C. 5/27

D. 3/23

 

Q. 39 The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by Cp and Cv respectively. If γ= Cp/Cv and R is the universal gas constant, then Cv is

A. (γ-1)/R

B. γR

C. (1+γ)/(1-γ)

D. R/(γ-1)

 

Q. 40 A body of mass m is taken from the earth’s surface to the height equal o twice the radius (R) of the earth. The change in potential energy of body will be

A. 3mgR

B. 1/3 mgR

C. 2 mgR

D. 2/3 mgR

 

Questions: 41 – 60

In the following questions (41-60), a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

A: If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B: If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C: If assertion is true but reason is false.

D: If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 41 Assertion: In a communication system based on amplitude modulation the modulation index is kept < 1.

Reason: It ensures minimum distortion of signal.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 42 A: If optical density of a substance is more then the mass density of substance can be less than water.

R: Optical density and mass density are not related.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 43 A: On going away from a point charge or a small electric dipole, electric field decreases at the same rate in both the cases.

R: Electric field is inversely proportional to square of distance from the charge or on electric dipole.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 44 A: If a conductor is given charge then no excess inner charge appears.

R: Electric field inside conductor is 0.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 45 A: Water kept in an open vessel will quickly evaporate on the surface of the moon.

R: The Temperature at the surface of the moon is much higher than boiling point of water.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 46 A:Moment of inertia is always constant.

R: Angular moment is conserved that is why moment of inertia is constant.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 47 A: Magnetic lines forms closed loops in nature.

R: Mono-magnetic pole does not exist in nature.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 48 A:Gaussian surface is considered carefully.

R: The point where electric field to be calculated should be with in the surface.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 49 A: ⁶⁰CO₂₇ is a source of gamma radiation.

R: Gamma emission is due to nuclear decay.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 50 A: When light ray is incident at polarizing angle on glass, refracted light is partially polarized.

R: The intensity of light decreases in polarization

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 51 A: A laser beam of 0.2 W power can drill holes through a metal sheet, whereas a 1000 W torch-light can’t.

R: The frequency of laser light is much higher than that of torch light.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 52 A: Electromagnetic radiations exert pressure.

R: Electromagnetic- waves carry both momentum and energy.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 53 A: Electric appliances with metallic body e.g. heaters, presses etc, have three pin connections, whereas light bulb has a two pin connection.

R: Three pin connection reduce heating of connecting cables.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 54 A: Total current entering a circuit is equal to leaving the circuit by Kirchhoff’s law.

R: It is based on conservation of energy.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 55 A: The sun rises some time before the actual sun-rise.

R: Because of refraction through the different layers of atmosphere.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 56 A: Centre of mass of a system does not move under the action of internal forces.

R: Internal forces are non conservative forces.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 57 A: Total energy is negative for a bound system.

R: Potential energy of a bound system is negative and more than kinetic energy.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 58  A: A undamped spring mass system is simplest free vibration system.

R: It has 3 degrees of freedom.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 59 A: Magnetic field is useful in producing parallel beam of charged particle.

R: Magnetic field inhibits the motion of charged particle moving across it.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 60 A: Resolving power of a telescope depends only on wavelength.

R: This is proportional to square of wavelength

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 61 The plot of a concentration of reactant versus time for a reaction is a straight line with a negative slope. The reaction follows

A. First order rate equation

B. Zero order rate equation

C. Second order rate equation

D. Third order rate equation

 

Q. 62 Which of the following element has lowest melting point?

A. Cr

B. Fe

C. Ni

D. Cu

 

Q. 63 Maximum number of unpaired electrons are present in

A. Gd 3+

B. Yb 2+

C. Tb 2+

D. Pm 3+

 

Q. 64 The first ionization enthalpy of Na, Mg and Si are 496 737, 776 KJ/mol respectively. What will be the first ionization enthalpy potential of Al in KJ/ mol?

A. > 766

B. ?496 and < 737

C. >737 and <766

D. > 496

 

Q. 65 When calomel is treated with ammonium hydroxide, a black substance is formed. The black substance is

A. Hg + HgO

B. HgO.HgCl2

C. H2N-Hg-Cl +Hg

D. Hg(NH2)2 + HgO

 

Q. 66 total no. of antibonding electrons present in O2 will be

A. 6

B. 8

C. 4

D. 2

 

Q. 67 If BF3, the B- F bond length is 1.30A, when BF3 is allowed to be treated with Me3N, it forms an adduct, Me3N-BF3, the bond length of B – F in the adduct is

A. greater than 1.3 A

B. smaller than 1.3 A

C. equal to 1.3 A

D. None of these

 

Q. 68 Oxidation state of iron in haemoglobin is

A. 0

B. 2

C. -2

D. 3

 

Q. 69 Which of the following statement is not true for hydrolysis of XeF6?

A. XeOF4 is formed

B. XeO2F2

C. It is a redox reaction

D. XeO3 is formed.

 

Q. 70 Which is most basic?

A. Al(OH)3

B. Cr(OH)3

C. La(OH)3

D. Fe(OH)3

 

Q. 71 Bleaching powder does not contain

A. CaCl2

B. Ca(OH)2

C. Ca(OCl)2

D. Ca(ClO3)2

 

Q. 72 Which of the following metal ion forms unstable complex with CN?

A. Ag(I)

B. Zn(II)

C. Cu(II)

D. Cr(II)

 

Q. 73 Which of the following ion does not exist?

A. [CuI4]^2-

B. [VO4 ]^3-

C. [WO4]^2-

D. [CrO4]^2-

 

Q. 74 K2Cr2O7 in acidic medium converts into

A. Cr^2+

B. Cr^3+

C. Cr^4+

D. Cr^5+

 

Q. 75 Which of the following is not a green house gas?

A. Hydrogen

B. Carbon Dioxide

C. Methane

D. Nitrous Oxide or N2O

 

Q. 76 Major Product?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 77 Which is non reducing sugar?

A. Sucrose

B. Maltose

C. Lactose

D. Mannose

 

Q. 78 Arrange compounds in increasing order of reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reaction.

i. C6H5COCH3

ii. CH3CO-C2H5

iii. C6H5CHO

iv. Cl-CH2-CHO

A. IV>III>II>I

B. IV>II>III>I

C. I>II>III>IV

D. III>IV>II>I

 

Q. 79 Product A is?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 80 The Product ?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 81 Which of the following reaction among (1), (2), (3), (4) will not produce ethylene glycol?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 82 Salicylic acid can be easily prepared by reaction between

A. phenol and CO₂

B. benzoic acid and H₂O₂

C. benzoic diazonium chloride and CO₂

D. phenol and formic acid

 

Q. 83 Reaction of aniline with HNO₂ followed by treatment of dilute acid gives

A. C₆H₅NHOH₂

B. C₆H₅OH

C. C₆H₅NHNH₂

D. C₆H₅

 

Q. 84 Which of the following will give carbylamine test?

A. CH₃NH₂

B. CH₃NHCH₃

C. CH₃N(CH₃)CH₃

D. CH₃CONH₂

 

Q. 85 When trans-2-butene is reacted with Br₂ then product formed is (among (a), (b), (c), (d)):

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 86 Which of the following does not give nitroalkane?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 87 A compound containing two -OH groups attached with one carbon atom is unstable but which one of the following (a), (b), (c), (d) is stable?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 88 Which of the following is true for an ideal solution?

A. ΔH(mix) = 0

B. ΔS(mix) = 0

C. ΔG(mix) = 0

D. None of these

 

Q. 89 Boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When 1.8 g of non-volatile solute is dissolved in 90 g of benzene. Then boiling point is raised to 354.11 K. Given Kb (benzene) = 2.53 mol^-1. The molecular mass of non-volatile substance is

A. 58 g mol^-1

B. 120 g mol^-1

C. 116 g mol^-1

D. 60 g mol^-1

 

Q. 90 In a solid, atom M occupies ccp lattice and 1/3rd of tetrahedral voids are occupied by atom N. Find the formula of solid formed by M and N.

A. M₃N₂

B. M₂N₃

C. M₄N₃

D. M₃N₄

 

Q. 91 Hair cream is

A. gel

B. emulsion

C. solid sol

D. sol

 

Q. 92 A particle is moving 3 times faster than the speed of electron. If the ratio of wavelength of particle and electron is 1.8 x 10⁻¹, then particle is

A. Neutron

B. α – particle

C. Deuteron

D. Tritium

 

Q. 93 Electrode potential of hydrogen electrode is 18 mV, then [H⁺] is

A. 0.2

B. 1

C. 2

D. 5

 

Q. 94 What will be the solubility product of AX₃?

A. 27S⁴

B. 4S³

C. 36⁴

D. 9S³

 

Q. 95 Which thermodynamics parameter is not a state function?

A. q at constant pressure

B. q at constant volume

C. W at adiabatic

D. W at isothermal

 

Q. 96 According to Hardy schulze law, the flocculation power of an ion increases with

A. decrease in size

B. increase in size

C. decrease in charge

D. increase in charge

 

Q. 97 Strength of H₂O₂ is 15.18 g L⁻¹, then it is equal to

A. 1 volume

B. 10 volume

C. 5 volume

D. 7 volume

 

Q. 98 Enthalpy of activation of forward reaction for an endothermic process is 50 kJ. If enthalpy change for forward reaction is 20kJ then enthalpy change for backward reaction will be

A. 30 kJ

B. 20 kJ

C. 70 kJ

D. 50 kJ

 

Q. 99 What is the role of aniline or cresol when added in a froth floatation process?

A. Stabilizer

B. Depressant

C. Wetting agent

D. All of these

 

Q. 100 Non-stick cookwares generally have a coating of a polymer, whose monomer is

A. CH₂ = CH₂

B. CH₂ = CHCN

C. CH₂ = CHCl

D. CF₂ = CF₂

 

Q. 101 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Bond dissociation energy is F₂ > Cl₂

Reason: Cl₂ has more electronic repulsion than F₂

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 102 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Bond lengths of P-Cl bonds in gaseous PCl₅ and solid PCl₅ are not equal.

Reason: Because in solid state two PCl₅ molecules are associated

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 103 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: EDTA forms complex with divalent metals of 3d – series in the ratio of 1 : 1

Reason: EDTA has 4- COOH groups

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 104 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: In a mixture of Cd(II) and Cu(II), Cd²⁺ gets precipitated in presence of KCN by H₂S

Reason: The stability constant of [Cu(CN)₄]³⁻ is greater than [Cd(CN)₄]²⁻

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 105 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Aq. solution of CoCl₂ is pink in colour. It turns blue in presence of conc. HCl.

Reason: It is due the formation of [CoCl₄]²⁻

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 106 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Acetamide on reaction with KOH and Bromide gives acetic acid

Reason: Bromide catalyses hydrolysis of acetamide

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 107 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Mixture of benzaldehyde and acetaldehydde in hot alkaline medium gives cinnamaldehyde

Reason: Benzaldehyde is strong electrophile than acetaldehyde

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 108 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: cis-3-chloroprop-2-enoic-acid is less stable than its trans-form.

Reason: Dipole moment of cis-form is greater than trans-form

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 109 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Aryl sulphonic acid gives phenol on reacting with NaOH at high temperature.

Reason: This reaction is electrophilic substitution reaction.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 110 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: All enzymes are made up of proteins and all proteins have three dimensional structures.

Reason: Secondary structures or protein are sequence of amino acids.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 111 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: The presence of a large number of Schottky defects in NaCl lowers its density.

Reason: In NaCl, there are approximately 10⁶ pairs per cm³ at room temperature.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 112 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: For an isolated system, q is zero.

Reason: In an isolated system, change in U and V is zero

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 113 Assertion: At critical point the densities of substances in gaseous and liquid states are same.

Reason: Critical temperature is the temperature at which the real gas exhibit ideal behaviour for considerable range of pressure.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 114 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Entropy of system increases for a spontaneous reaction.

Reason: Enthalpy of reaction always decreases for spontaneous reaction.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 115 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Catalyst changes Gibbs free energy of system.

Reason: Catalyst changes pre-exponential factor of a chemical reaction.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 116 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: A process is called adiabatic if the system does not exchange heat with the surroundings.

Reason: It does not involve increase or decrease in temperature of the system.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 117 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Number of radial and angular nodes for 3p-orbital are 1, 1 respectively.

Reason: Number of radial and angular nodes depends only on principal quantum number.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 118 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Cu is stronger reducing agent than H₂.

Reason: E° of Cu²⁺/Cu is negative.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 119 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Magnesium is extracted by the electrolysis of fused mixture of MgCl₂, NaCl and CaCl₂.

Reason: Phosphoric acid does not contain P-H bonds.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 120 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Phosphoric acid has no reducing properties.

Reason: Phosphoric acid does not contain P-H bonds

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 121 Stinging capsules (nematocysts) are found in

A. wasp and honeybee

B. scorpion and cobra

C. sea pen and sea fan

D. cactus and Venus flytrap

 

Q. 122 Which of the following is a cloning vector?

A. DNA of Salmonella typhimurium

B. Ti plasmid

C. Amp ‘and Tet’ loci

D. Ori minus pBR322

 

Q. 123 India is one of the twelve megadiversity countries with _________________ of genetic resources of the world.

A. 12.1%

B. 18.1%

C. 38.1%

D. 8.1%

 

Q. 124 Which of the following is not an invasive species?

A. Parthenium hysterophorus

B. Nelumbo (lotus)

C. Lantana camara

D. Eichhornia crassipes

 

Q. 125 Intercalated discs are characteristic of muscles found in

A. heart

B. thigh

C. urinary bladder

D. stomach

 

Q. 126 In which of the following sets of organisms, does the external fertilisation occur?

A. Echinodermata and mosses

B. Hemichordata and ferns

C. Amphibians and algae

D. Reptiles and gymnosperms

 

Q. 127 Starting from the maximum, arrange the following male reproductive accessory organs in the correct order, based on the amount of secretion poured into urethra

(i) Prostrate gland

(ii) Seminal vesicle

(iii) Bulbourethral gland

A. (i) > (ii) > (iii)

B. (iii) > (ii) > (i)

C. (ii) > (iii) > (i)

D. (ii) > (i) . (iii)

 

Q. 128 Which of the following contraceptive devices make uretus unsuitable for implantation?

A. Progestasert

B. CuT

C. Lippe’s loop

D. Multiload

 

Q. 129 In Miller’s experiment, he used a mixture of CH₄, NH₃, H₂ and water vapour in a closed flask to mimic early earth conditions. What was kept the temperature at which this flask was kept?

A. 800°C

B. 1200°C

C. 200°C

D. 400°C

 

Q. 130 Sexual stage (gametocytes) of Plasmodium occurs in

A. Salivary glands of mosquito

B. Human RBC

C. Intestine of mosquito

D. Human liver

 

Q. 131 Occurrence of triploid (3n) primary endoderm nucleus is a characteristic feature of

A. Algae

B. Gymnosperms

C. Angiosperms

D. Bryophytes

 

Q. 132 From the following groups, select the one which has only secondary metabolites?

A. Arbrin, cellulose, arginine, tyrosine

B. Glycine, gums, serine, tyrosine

C. Carotenoids, phenylalnine, curcumin, rubber

D. Conclavein-A, morphine, codeine, vinblastin

 

Q. 133 In a diploid cell at which stage of cell cycle, the amount of DNA is doubled?

A. G₁ and G₂ phase

B. G₀ phase

C. S, G₂ and M phase

D. S phase

 

Q. 134 Sporopollenin is a constituent of pollen exine. It can be degraded by the action of

A. enzymes

B. high temperatures

C. strong acids

D. cannot be degraded

 

Q. 135 The pollen grains of rice and wheat lose their viability in ________ minutes of their release

A. 30

B. 10

C. 60

D. 90

 

Q. 136 After double fertilisation, a mature ovule has

A. 1 diploid and 1 haploid cell

B. 1 diploid and 1 triploid cell

C. 2 haploid and 1 triploid cell

D. 1 haploid and 1 triploid cell

 

Q. 137 Genetically modified (GM) crops can be produced by

A. recombinant DNA technology

B. somatic hybridisation

C. cross breeding

D. micropropagation

 

Q. 138 Which of the following is a palindromic sequence?

A. 5′- CGTATG -3′ 3′- GCATAC -5′

B. 5′- CGAATG -3′ 3′- CGAATG -5′

C. 5′- GAATTC -3′ 3′- CITAAG – 5′

D. 5′- GACTAC -3′ 3′- TACGAC -5′

 

Q. 139 C₄ plants have better productivity because

A. C₄ plants absorb more light

B. C₄ plants absorb more CO₂

C. C₄ plants does not carry photorespiration

D. C₄ plants have more amount of RuBisCO

 

Q. 140 Match the source gland with its respective hormone and function given in the figure and select the correct option among (a), (b), (c), (d):

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 141 Which off the following microbes is correctly paired with its function?

A. Aspergillus niger – Production of lactic acid

B. Trichoderma polysporum – Lowers blood cholesterol

C. Saccharomyces cerevisiae – Production of citric acid

D. Methanogenic – Gobar gas formation bacteria

 

Q. 142 Match Column – I with Column – II (Given in figure) and select the correct option from the codes given:

A. A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i)

B. A – (iv), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iii)

C. A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (iv)

D. A – (iv), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (ii)

 

Q. 143 Which of the following gastric secretions is correctly matched with its source?

A. Pepsin – Chief cells

B. Chymotrypsin – Parietal cells

C. HCl – Goblet cells

D. Mucus – Oxyntic cells

 

Q. 144 Which of the following is true for a recessive disease in family A and B (Given in figure)?

A. In family A, both the parents are homozygous recessive

B. In family B, both the parents are homozygous dominant.

C. In family B, both the parents are heterozygous recessive.

D. In family A, both the parents are heterozygous recessive.

 

Q. 145 Which of the following is true for excretion in humans?

A. Glucose ad amino acids are reabsorbed in PCT by simple diffusion.

B. DCT is impermeable to water.

C. On an average, 25-30 gm of urea is excreted out per day.

D. Maximum reabsorption occurs in the loop of Henle.

 

Q. 146 Which of the following is not true for inbreeding?

A. It causes inbreeding depression after a few generations.

B. It always increases the productivity.

C. It is used to produce a pure line.

D. It leads to homozygosity.

 

Q. 147 Which of the following is the correct floral formula (among (a), (b), (c), (d)) for the floral diagram.

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 148 Which of the following is true for the function of labelled parts in the diagram?

A. A – Blind spot – Image is formed here

B. B – Fovea – No visual activity is present

C. C – Cornea – Helps to hold lens in place

D. D – Iris – Visible coloured portion of eye

 

Q. 149 Which of the following is true for the labelled parts in the figure?

A. A – Z – line – located at centre of I – band

B. B – Thin filament – occurs in A – band only

C. C – Thick filament – confined to I – band

D. D – H – zone – located at centre of M – line

 

Q. 150 Which of the following is correctly matched without exception in regard to plant classification?

A. Family – Poaceae – ae

B. Division – Pteridophyta – phyta

C. Class – Bryosida – sida

D. Genus – Solanum – um

 

Q. 151 What is the oxidation state of iron in haemoglobin ?

A. Fe⁻

B. Fe²⁺

C. Fe³⁺

D. Fe⁴⁺

 

Q. 152 In the table given in the figure, some organisms are classified into categories. However, there is one exception. Select the option with correctly mentioned exceptional organism.

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 153 Select the correct pair amongst the following:

A. Spring wood – light colour, high density

B. Spring wood – dark colour, low density

C. Autumn wood – light colour, high density

D. Autumn wood – dark colour, high density

 

Q. 154 Which of the following organelles contains DNA?

(i) Mitochondria

(ii) Chloroplast

(iii) Chloroplasts

(iv) Golgi bodies

(v) Ribosomes

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (ii) and (iii)

C. (i) only

D. (iv) only

 

Q. 155 Carbon dioxide (CO₂) diffuses into blood from tissue site and passes to alveolar site in the form of

A. bicarbonates; 70%

B. bicarbonate; 20 – 25%

C. carbaminohaemiglobin; 60 – 70%

D. carbaminohaemoglobin; 7%

 

Q. 156 Select the option having all the correct characteristic among (a), (b), (c), (d):

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 157 Chromatin is made up of:

A. DNA and protein

B. DNA and histone

C. DNA, RNA, protein

D. RNA, histone and oil bodies

 

Q. 158 A large quantity of urban sewage is drained to nearby village river. Which among the given conditions would happen after mixing of sewage into the river?

(i) Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of receiving water body increases.

(ii) Dissolved oxygen of receiving water body decreases.

(iii) It will not cause mortality among fishes and other aquatic creatures.

(iv) It will lead to nutrient enrichment of receiving water body.

A. (i), (ii) and (iii)

B. (i), (ii) and (iv)

C. (ii) and (iii)

D. (iii) and (iv)

 

Q. 159 Which of the following plant growth regulators (PGRs) promotes root initiation, flowering and induced parthenocarpy?

A. Gibberellin

B. Auxin

C. Cytokinin

D. Ethylene

 

Q. 160 Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Nitrogen oxides

C. Peroxyacyl nitrates

D. All of these

 

Q. 161 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: A mutual exchange of sperms occur between two earthworms during mating.

Reason: Mature sperms and egg cells and nutritive fluid are deposited in cocoons produced by gland cells of clitellum.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 162 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: On plotting the length of the root against time, a linear curve is obtained.

Reason: An elongation root exemplifies arithmetic progression.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 163 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Small intestine is the principal organ for absorption of nutrients.

Reason: Absorption of water, simple sugars and alcohol etc takes place in small intestine.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 164 Assertion: On touching radial artery in our wrist, we feel pulse waves.

Reason: The heart beats originate from the sinoatrial node (SA node) on the right atrium.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 165 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: In a regular medical examination of a small population, a 35 years old lady was found to have higher levels of oestrogens, progesterone in her blood.

Reason: The lady is 12 weeks pregnant.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 166 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: While working on Staphylococci, Alexander Fleming observed that Penicillium notatum inhibits the growth of the bacteria.

Reason: This inhibiting chemical was commercially extracted and its full potential was established by Alexander Fleming.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 167 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Saccharomyces cerevisiae produces acetic acid.

Reason: Trichoderma polysporum produces blood cholestrol lowering agent.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 168 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Protostele is the simplest stele.

Reason: Protostele is the most advanced type of stele.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 169 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Rice field is an ecosystem for plants and animals.

Reason: Gut of human/animals is an ecosystem for flora and fauna.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 170 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own genome.

Reason: Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi body are the cell org

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 171 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Now-a-days, the biodiversity is declining with an accelerated rate.

Reason: Exotic’s species are confused to be a major cause of extinction of species.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 172 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Meiosis II is similar to mitosis.

Reason: Meiosis I cannot occur in haploid cells.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 173 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Periodic abstinence is a natural method where couples abstain from coitus.

Reason: Coitus from day 5-10 should be avoided because this is the time of ovulation.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 174 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Corpus callosum connects the two cerebral hemispheres.

Reason: Association areas are responsible for complex functions like intersensory

association of memory and communication

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 175 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Only a boy child could be born with a substituon of glutamic acid by valine on 6th codon of beta-chain of haemoglobin.

Reason: The gene for the above mutation is found on Y-chromosome .

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 176 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: The efficiency of C₄ plant is more than those of C₃ plant

Reason: C₄ plants are more efficient in picking CO₂

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 177 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Cattles feed on leaves of maize to get nutrition for growth and development.

Reason: A number of symbiotic bacteria are present in rumen of cattle

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 178 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: All proteinecous enzymes have a three-dimensional structures.

Reason: The secondary structure of protein is according to amino acid present inside the polypeptides.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 179 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Glutamine contains amide group.

Reason: Isoelectric point of glutamine is 7.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 180 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Duodenum is the main organ of small intestine.

Reason: In duodenum, digestion and absorption mainly occurs.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 181 From whom does the Indian government take advice on legal issues?

A. Chief Justice of Court apex

B. Solicitor General

C. Chairman of Planning Commission

D. Attorney General

 

Q. 182 The Vice President of India is the Chairman of

A. Lok Sabha

B. Rajya Sabha

C. Vidhan Sabha

D. Legislative Assembly

 

Q. 183 Which of the following players won Miami Men’s Double Tennis – 2012 title?

A. Daniel Nestor and Radek Stepanek

B. Radek Stepanek and Leander Paes

C. Daniel Nestor and Max Mirnyi

D. Rohan Bopanna and Mahesh Bhupathi

 

Q. 184 Which ancient Indian sage authored ‘Yog Sutra’?

A. Patanjali

B. Kapil Muni

C. Saatchi Dananda

D. Gautam

 

Q. 185 Which Indian Mathematician first time in the world used zero as a number and showed its mathematical operation?

A. Aryabhatt

B. Ramanuja

C. Bhaskaracharya

D. Brahmagupta

 

Q. 186 Which Indian freedom fighter was popularly called ‘Mahamana’?

A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

B. Madan Mohan Malviya

C. Jawahar lal Nehru

D. Mahatma Gandhi

 

Q. 187 The book “Big Egos, Small Men” is written by

A. Mani Shankar Aiyr

B. Kapil Sibal

C. Ram Jethmalani

D. Soli Sorabjee

 

Q. 188 Which is the largest buddhist monastery in India?

A. Rumtek Monastery, Sikkim

B. Tawang Monastery, Arunachal Pradesh

C. Thisksey Monastery, Jammu and Kashmir

D. Ghoom Monastery, West Bengal

 

Q. 189 ‘Van Mahotsav Day’ is observed on

A. 1st December

B. 1st July

C. 23rd February

D. 14th March

 

Q. 190 The famous Kashi Vishwanath temple at Varanasi is dedicated to which Hindu god?

A. Lord Shiva

B. Lord Vishnu

C. Lord Brahma

D. Lord Krishna

 

Q. 191 Which Indian State celebrated its 77the foundation day on 1st April, 2013?

A. Gujarat

B. Odisha

C. Rajasthan

D. Tamil Nadu

 

Q. 192 According to Mahabharat who constructed the unparalled palace of the Pandavas?

A. Vishwakarma

B. Krishna

C. Indra

D. Manya Danava

 

Q. 193 Where was first share market of India established?

A. Mumbai

B. Kolkata

C. Delhi

D. Chennai

 

Q. 194 Garampani Sanctuary is located at

A. Diphu, Assam

B. Junagarh, Gujrat

C. Kohima, Nagaland

D. Gangtok, Sikkim

 

Q. 195 Maximum sugarcane production occurs in which country?

A. India

B. China

C. Brazil

D. Indonesia

 

Q. 196 Which of the following is not a green house gas?

A. Carbon dioxide (CO₂)

B. Nitrous oxide (N₂O)

C. Methane (CH₄)

D. Hydrogen (H₂)

 

Q. 197 Which first woman singer got the Bharat Ratna award and is also known as nightinagle of carnatic music?

A. M. S. Subbulaxmi

B. Shubha Mudgal

C. N. Rajam

D. Vasundhara Devi

 

Q. 198 For seeing objects on the surface of water from submarine, the instrument used is

A. kaleidoscope

B. periscope

C. telescope

D. spetroscope

 

Q. 199 Under the tenure of which Prime Minister did Indo-Pak war (1965) take place which ended with Tashkent Treaty?

A. Lal Bahadur Shastri

B. Jawaharlal Nehu

C. Gulzarilal Nanda

D. Morarji Desai

 

Q. 200 A famous writer who travelled to India with Mahmood Ghazni and wrote a book “Tareekhal- Hind”.

A. Abdul Hai Lakhnawi

B. Al- Biruni

C. Riyad-us-Saliheen

D. Ibn Kathir

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer A D B C D A D A A C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer B A C D B D C A A B
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer D B A C D A B B C C
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B A B A C B C C D D
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A A D B C D C A C D
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer C B C A A D A C A D
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer B D A C C A A B C C
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer D A A B A A A A D B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C A B A D A C A A A
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B A C A D D C A A D
Question 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer D A B A A D A B C D
Question 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer B B C A D C C D C A
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer C D D B A C D A A B
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer C D D D A B A C C C
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer D A A D C B C D A A
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer B C D A A B C B B C
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer B A C B A C D C B C
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer B B C B D A A B C D
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer D B B B D B C B B A
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer B D A A C D A B A B

 

AIIMS UG 2012 Previous Year Paper

AIIMS UG 2012

Section

Questions

Marks

Physics

60 Questions (1 – 60)

60

Chemistry

60 Questions (61 – 120)

60

Biology

60 Questions (121 – 180)

60

General Knowledge

20 Questions (181 – 200)

20

 

Q : 1 Which of the following current must be zero in an unbiased ON junction diode ?

A. Current due to majority charge carriers (both electrons and holes)

B. Current due to minority charge carriers (both electrons and holes)

C. Current due to majority and minority charge carriers

D. Current due to majority and minority charge carriers (only holes)

 

Q. 2 In an AC circuit, voltage V = V₀sinωt and inductor L is connected across the circuit. Then the instantaneous power will be

A. (V₀²/2ωL)sinωt

B. (-V₀²/2ωL)sinωt

C. (V₀²/2ωL)sin2ωt

D. (V₀²/ωL)sin2ωt

 

Q. 3 Two sinusoidal waves of intensity I having same frequency and same amplitude interferes constructively at a point. The resultant intensity at a point will be

A. l

B. 2l

C. 4l

D. 8l

 

Q. 4 In a convex lens of focal length F, the minimum distance between an object and its real image must be

A. 3F

B. 4F

C. 3/2F

D. 2F

 

Q. 5 In Young’s double slit experiment, fringe order is represented by m, then fringe width is

A. Independent of m

B. Directly proportional to m

C. Directly proportional to (2m + 1)

D. Inversely proportional to (2m + 1)

 

Q. 6 Half life of a radio-active element is 8 years, how much amount will be present after 32 years?

A. 1/4

B. 1/8

C. 1/16

D. 1/32

 

Q. 7 In the circuit given in figure, the voltage across the load is maintained at 12 V. The current in the zener diode varies from 0.50 mA. What is the maximum wattage of the diode?

A. 12 W

B. 6 W

C. 0.6 W

D. 1.2 W

 

Q. 8 A photon is incident having frequency 1 x 10¹⁴ sec⁻¹. Threshold frequency of metal is 5 x 10¹³sec⁻¹. Find the kinetic energy of the ejected electron.

A. 3.3 x 10⁻²¹ J

B. 6.6 x 10⁻²¹ J

C. 3.3 x 10⁻²⁰ J

D. 6.6 x 10⁻²⁰ J

 

Q. 9 In a given series LCR circuit R = 4Ω, XL = 5Ω and XC = 8Ω, the current

A. Leads the voltage by tan⁻¹(3/4)

B. Leads the voltage by tan⁻¹(5/8)

C. Lags the voltage by tan⁻¹(3/4)

D. Lags the voltage by tan⁻¹(5/8)

 

Q. 10 A wire of mass 100 g, length 1m and current 5A in balanced in mid air by a magnetic field B, then find the value of B.

A. 0.2 T

B. 0.1 T

C. 0.5 T

D. 0.6 T

 

Q. 11 Dimensional formula of ΔQ, heat supplied to the system is given by

A. [M¹L²T⁻²]

B. [M¹L¹T⁻²]

C. [M¹L²T⁻¹]

D. [ML¹T⁻¹]

 

Q. 12 A toroid with mean radius rₒ diameter 2a have N turns carrying I. What is the magnetic field B inside the toroid?

A. NI/2πrₒ

B. NI/2π(rₒ + a)

C. NI/π(rₒ + a)

D. Zero

 

Q. 13 Identify incorrect for electric charge q

A. quantised

B. conversed

C. additive

D. non-transferable

 

Q. 14 Which of the following parameter in the series LCR circuit is analogous to driving force F(t) in mechanics?

A. Vₒ/L

B. inductance L

C. capacitance C

D. voltage Vₒ

 

Q. 15 The minimum magnetic dipole moment electron in hydrogen atom is

A. eh/2πm

B. eh/4πm

C. eh/πm

D. 0

 

Q. 16 A 4 kg roller is attached to a massless spring of spring constant k = 100 N/m. It rolls without slipping along a frictionless horizontal road. The roller is displaced from its equilibrium position by 10 cm and then released. Its maximum speed will be

A. 0.5 m s⁻¹

B. 0.6 m s⁻¹

C. 0.4 m s⁻¹

D. 0.8 m s⁻¹

 

Q. 17 Total energy of the electron in hydrogen atom above 0 eV leads to

A. continuation of energy states

B. large number of discrete ionised states

C. balmar series

D. paschen series

 

Q. 18 Two wires carrying

A. Parallel current repel each other

B. Antiparallel current attract each other

C. Antiparallel current repel each other

D. Equal magnitudes of antiparallel current attract each other

 

Q. 19 A particle is thrown vertically upwards with velocity 11.2 s⁻¹ from the surface of earth. Calculate its velocity at height 3R. Where R is the radius of earth.

A. ≈ 9.25 km s⁻¹

B. ≈ 5.6 km s⁻¹

C. ≈ 11.2 km s⁻¹

D. ≈ 4.3 km s⁻¹

 

Q. 20 Gamma decay takes place

A. Prior to alpha decay

B. Prior to beta decay

C. Prior to positron decay

D. Due to de-excitement of nuclear levels

 

Q. 21 Calculate the kinetic energy of the electron having wavelength 1 nm.

A. 2.1 eV

B. 3.1 eV

C. 1.5 eV

D. 4.2 eV

 

Q. 22 A spherical body of diameter D is falling in viscous medium. Its terminal velocity is

proportional to

A. V₁ ∝ D^1/2

B. V₁ ∝ D^3/2

C. V₁ ∝ D^2

D. V₁ ∝ D^5/2

 

Q. 23 Electric field outside a long wire carrying charge q is proportional to

A. 1/r

B. 1/r^2

C. 1/r^3/5

D. 1/r^3/2

 

Q. 24 If 2 kg mass is rotating on a circular path of radius 0.8 m with angular velocity of 44 rad/sec. If radius of the path becomes 1 m, then what will be the value of angular velocity?

A. 28.16 rad/sec

B. 19.28 rad/sec

C. 8.12 rad/sec

D. 35.26 rad/sec

 

Q. 25 A light ray is incident on a glass slab, it is partially reflected and partially transmitted. Then the reflected ray is

A. completely polarised and highly intense

B. partially polarised and poorly intense

C. partially polarised and highly intense

D. completely polarised and poorly intense

 

Q. 26 An electron projected with velocity v⃗ = v₀î in the electric field E⃗ = E₀ĵ. Trace the path followed by the E₀

A. Parabola

B. Circle

C. Straight line in +y direction

D. Straight line in -y direction

 

Q. 27 Find out the correct relation for the dependance of change in acceleration due to gravity on the angle at the latitude, due to rotation of earth

A. dg ∝ cosø

B. dg ∝ cos²ø

C. dg ∝ cos^3/2ø

D. dg ∝ 1/cosø

 

Q. 28 Two conductors having same width and length, thickness d₁ and d₂, thermal conductivity K₁ and K₂ are placed one above the another. Find the equivalent thermal conductivity.

A. (d₁ + d₂)(K₁d₂ + K₂d₁)/2(K₁ + K₂)

B. (d₁ – d₂)(K₁d₂ + K₂d₁)/2(K₁ – K₂)

C. (k₁d₁ + k₂d₂)/(d₁ + d₂)

D. (K₁ + K₂)/(d₁ + d₂)

 

Q. 29 Calculate I for the given circuit diagram.

A. 10 A

B. 5 A

C. 2.5 A

D. 20 A

 

Q. 30 A solid cylinder, a circular disc, a solid sphere and a hollow cylinder of the same radius are placed on an inclined plane. Which of the following will have maximum acceleration at the bottom of the plane?

A. Circular disc

B. Solid cylinder

C. Solid sphere

D. Hollow cylinder

 

Q. 31 Calculate the heat emitted by a bulb of 100 W in 1 min.

A. 100 J

B. 1000 J

C. 600 J

D. 6000 J

 

Q. 32 Degree of freedom for polyatomic gas

A. ≥ 4

B. ≥ 5

C. ≥ 6

D. ≥ 7

 

Q. 33 A particle moving about its equilibrium position with equation y = -ax – bt. Interpret the condition.

A. It will always perform the SHM.

B. It can never perform the SHM.

C. It can perform SHM only when t ≥ bx/a

D. It can perform SHM only when t ≤ bx/a

 

Q. 34 Conversion of water to steam is accompanied by which process?

A. Adiabatic

B. Isothermal

C. Isochoric

D. Cyclic

 

Q. 35 An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A → B → C → A, as shown in figure. If the net heat supplied to the gas in the cycle is 5 J the work done by the gas in the process A → B is

A. 2 J

B. 3 J

C. 4 J

D. 5 J

 

Q. 36 What is the slope for an isothermal process?

A. P/V

B. -P/V

C. Zero

D. ∞

 

Q. 37 The frequency order for X-rays (A), γ-rays (B), UV rays (C) is

A. B > A > C

B. A > B > C

C. C > B > A

D. A > C > B

 

Q. 38 For a common-emitter transistor, input current is 5 μA, β = 100 circuit is operated at load resistance of 10 kΩ, then voltage across collector emitter will be

A. 5 V

B. 10 V

C. 12.5 V

D. 7.5 V

 

Q. 39 Find the voltage drop across a capacitor connected with a resistance and a battery of 60 V in series after a long time

A. 0 V

B. 60 V

C. 30 V

D. 38 V

 

Q. 40 the nucleus ⁱ ₐX emits one α particle and one 2β particle. The resulting nucleus is

A. ⁱ⁻⁴ₐ₋₂ Y

B. ⁱ⁻⁶ₐ₋₄ Z

C. ⁱ⁻⁶ₐ Z

D. ⁱ⁻⁴ₐ X

 

Q. 41 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Maximum air flow due to convection does not occur at the north pole but it

occurs 30°N.

Reason: There is maximum temperature difference between equator and 3.

A. 0°N If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 42 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: A thick lens shows more chromatic aberration.

Reason: Thick lens behave as many thin lenses.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 43 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Surface energy of an oil drop is same whether placed on glass or water surface.

Reason: Surface energy is dependent only on the properties of oil.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 44 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Magnetic force is always perpendicular to the magnetic field.

Reason: Electric force is along the direction of electric field.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 45 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Animate object can accelerate in the absence of external force.

Reason: Newton’s second law is not applicable on animate object.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 46 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: A planar circular loop of area A and carrying current I is equivalent to magnetic dipole of dipole moment M = IA.

Reason: At large distances, magnetic field of circular loop and magnetic dipole is same.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 47 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: In elastic collision, kinetic energy is conserved.

Reason: Energy is always conserved.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 48 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Bohr’s atomic model cannot be used to explain multiple electron species. Reason: It does not take inter-electronic interactions in account.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 49 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: The focal length of objective lens in telescope is much more than that of eye piece.

Reason: Telescope has high resolving power due to large focal length.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 50 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Total energy of electron is an hydrogen atom is negative.

Reason: It is bounded to the nucleus.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 51 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Vibrational energy of diatomic molecule corresponding to each degree of freedom is kBT.

Reason: For every molecule, vibrational degree of freedom is 2.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 52 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: A superconductor is a perfect diamagnetic substance.

Reason: A superconductor is a perfect conductor.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 53 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: An electrostatic field line never form closed loop.

Reason: Electrostatic field is a conservative field.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 54 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: A charged particle can be accelerated in a cyclotron by the alternate distribution of the field.

Reason: Energy of charged particle is increased by the field applied.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 55 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: At rest, radium is decayed into Radon and an α-particle. They both moves back to back of each other.

Reason: Splitting of radioactive particle is based on conservation of linear momentum.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 56 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: In electromagnetic waves electric field and magnetic field lines are perpendicular to each other.

Reason: Electric field and magnetic field are self sustaining.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 57 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Gauss’s law shows diversion when inverse square law is not obeyed.

Reason: Gauss’s law is a consequence of conservation of charges.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 58 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: More energy is released in fusion than fission.

Reason: More number of nucleolus take part in fission.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 59 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: γ-radiation emission occurs after α and β decay.

Reason: Energy levels occur in nucleus.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 60 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Turbulence is always dissipative.

Reason: High reynold number promotes turbulence.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 61 Threshold frequency of a metal is 5 x 10¹³ s⁻¹ upon which 1 x 10¹⁴ s ⁻¹ frequency light is focused. Then the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron is

A. 3.3 x 10⁻²¹

B. 3.3 x 10⁻²⁰

C. 6.6 x 10⁻²¹

D. 6.6 x 10⁻²⁰

 

Q. 62 Which is the major product formed among (a), (b), (c), (d) when C₆H₅CONHC₆H₅ undergoes nitration?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 63 How many P = O bond present in (HPO₃)₃?

A. 0

B. 3

C. 6

D. 9

 

Q. 64 At equilibrium which is correct?

A. ΔG = 0

B. ΔS = 0

C. ΔH = 0

D. ΔG° = 0

 

Q. 65 If phthalic acid is treated with NH₃ and then it is first heated weakly then strongly, the final product formed among (A), (B), (C), (D) is

A. (A)

B. (B)

C. (C)

D. (D)

 

Q. 66 In bcc structure contribution of corner and central atom is

A. 1/8, 1

B. 1/4, 1/8

C. 1/8, 1/2

D. 1, 1/2

 

Q. 67 Arrange the following gases in order of their critical temperature

NH₃, H₂O, CO₂, O₂

A. NH₃ > H₂O > CO₂ > O₂

B. O₂ > CO₂ > H₂O > NH₃

C. H₂O > NH₃ > CO₂ > O₂

D. CO₂ > O₂ > H₂O > NH₃

 

Q. 68 Bond dissociation energy of CH₄ is 360 kJ/mol and C₂H₆ is 620 kJ/mol. Then bond

dissociation energy of C-C bond is

A. 170 kJ/mol

B. 50 kJ/mol

C. 80 kJ/mol

D. 220 kJ/mol

 

Q. 69 For silicon which is not correct?

A. It is a type of silicate

B. It is thermally unstable

C. It is hydrophilic

D. Repeating unit is R₂SiO

 

Q. 70 In Bohr’s orbit, nh/2π indicates

A. Momentum

B. Kinetic energy

C. Potential energy

D. Angular momentum

 

Q. 71 Which id not stable under ambient condition?

A. TiO₂, Ti⁺⁴

B. VO, V⁺⁴

C. VO₂, V⁺⁵

D. Cu₂O, Cu⁺²

 

Q. 72 For a reaction, r = k(CH₃COCH₃)^3/2 then unit of rate of reaction and rate constant

respectively is

A. mol L^-1 s^-1, mol^-1/2 L^1/2 s^-1

B. mol^-1 L^-1 s^-1, mol^-1/2 L^1/2 s^-1

C. mol L^-1 s^-1, mol^+1/2 L^1/2 s^-1

D. mol L s, mol^+1/2 L^1/2 s

 

Q. 73 Which of the following is the correct statement for PH₃?

A. It is less poisonous than NH₃

B. It is less basic than NH₃

C. Electronegativity of PH₃ > NH₃

D. It does not show reducing properties

 

Q. 74 If Si is doped with B,

A. n-type semiconductor is formed

B. p-type semiconductor is formed

C. insulator is formed

D. polymer is formed

 

Q. 75 Which has the highest pH?

A. CH₃COOK

B. Na₂CO₃

C. NH₄Cl

D. NaNO₃

 

Q. 76 Living in the atmosphere of CO is dangerous, because it

A. combines with O₂ present inside to form CO₂

B. reduces organic matter of tissues

C. combines with haemoglobin and makes it incapable to absorb tissues

D. dries up the blood

 

Q. 77 In a set of reactions given in figure, acetic acid yielded a product S. The structure of S among (a), (b), (c), (d) would be

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 78 Which of the following is a chiral compound?

A. Hexane

B. n-Butane

C. Methane

D. 2,3,4-Trimethylhexane

 

Q. 79 For Zn²⁺ | Zn, E° = -0.76 V then EMF of the cell Zn | Zn²⁺ (1M) | 2H⁺ (1M) | H₂ (1 atm) will be

A. -0.76 V

B. 0.76 V

C. 0.38 V

D. -0.38 V

 

Q. 80 Kp/Kc for the following reaction will be

CO(g) + 1/2O₂(g) → CO₂(g)

A. RT

B. 1/RT

C. 1/√RT

D. RT/2

 

Q. 81 If t1/2 vs 1/a² is a straight line graph then determine the order of reaction

A. zero order

B. first order

C. second order

D. third order

 

Q. 82 CsCl has bcc arrangement. Its unit cell edge length is 400 pm. Its inter-ionic distance is

A. 400 pm

B. 800 pm

C. √3 x 100 pm

D. √3/2 x 400 pm

 

Q. 83 A colloidal solution is kept in dark and is illuminated by a beam of light then brightness appears at the right angle of direction of light. This effect is called

A. Tyndall effect

B. Brownian effect

C. Hardy-Schulze effect

D. None of these

 

Q. 84 Mno₃ in an acidic medium dissociates into

A. MnO₂ and MnO₄⁻

B. MnO and MnO₄⁻

C. MnO₂ and MnO

D. MnO₂ and MnO₃

 

Q. 85 Magnetic moment of Cr²⁺ is nearest to

A. Fe²⁺

B. Mn²⁺

C. Co²⁺

D. Ni²⁺

 

Q. 86 Which of the following compounds are optically active among (1), (2), (3), (4)?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 1 and 4

 

Q. 87 Which will not form precipitation after addition of (NH₄)₂CO₃ in presence of NH₄Cl?

A. Mg

B. Ba

C. Sn

D. Sr

 

Q. 88 Difference in atomic radius is maximum for

A. Rb-Cs

B. K-Rb

C. Na-K

D. Li-Na

 

Q. 89 The dipole moment is minimum in

A. NH₃

B. NF₃

C. SO₂

D. BF₃

 

Q. 90 Number of isomers of C₅H₆

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

 

Q. 91 At 60° and 1 atm, N₂O₄ is 50% dissociated into NO₂ then Kp is

A. 1.33 atm

B. 2 atm

C. 2.67 atm

D. 3 atm

 

Q. 92 pKₐ increases in benzoic acid when substituent “x” is bonded at para-position, then “x” is

A. -COOH

B. -NO₂

C. -CN

D. -OCH₃

 

Q. 93 S₂O₈²⁻ have

A. S-S bond

B. S-O bridge

C. O-O bridge

D. All S-O bond lengths are same

 

Q. 94 N-N bond length is minimum in

A. N₂O

B. N₂O₃

C. N₂O₄

D. N₂O₅

 

Q. 95 Which is correct example of condensation polymer?

A. Nylon, Buna-S

B. Teflon, Buna-N

C. Nylon 6,6, Dacron

D. Neoprene, Buna-S

 

Q. 96 The product formed among (a), (b), (c), (d) in the reaction given in the figure is:

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 97 What will be the product (P) of the reaction given in the figure

A. C₆H₅NH₂

B. C₆H₅NHOH

C. C₆H₅-N=O

D. C₆H₆

 

Q. 98 Which is correct order of solubility in water?

A. Ba(OH)₂ < Mg(OH)₂

B. BaCO₃ > CaCO₃

C. CaSO₄ < MgSO₄

D. Ca(OH)₂ ≈ Mg(OH)₂

 

Q. 99 The final product (U) of the reaction given in the figure is

A. C₆H₅CH₂CH₂NH₂

B. C₆H₅CH₂CONH₂

C. C₆H₅CH₂NH₂

D. C₆H₅CH₂NHCH₃


Q. 100 An aromatic compound C₇H₆Cl₂ (A), gives AgCl on boiling with alcoholic AgNO₂ solution yields C₇H₇OCl on treatment with Sodium hydroxide. (A) on oxidation gives monochlorobenzoic acid. The compound (A) is among (a), (b), (c), (d):

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 101 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Rate of reaction doubles when concentration of reactant is doubled if it is a first order reaction.

Reason: Rate constant also doubles

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 102 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Sodium acetate on Kolbe’s electrolysis gives methane.

Reason: Methyl free radical is formed at cathode.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 103 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: H₃PO₂ has strong reducing property but H₃PO₄ does not.

Reason: P-OH bond present in H₃PO₄

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 104 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Diamond and graphite do not have the same crystal structure.

Reason: Diamond is crystalline while graphite is amorphous

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 105 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Bohr model fails in case of multielectron species.

Reason: It does not mention electron-electron interactions

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 106 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: 1,2-dichloroethane is optically active.

Reason: Meso compound is optically active.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 107 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: CIF₃ has T-shaped structure.

Reason: It has two lone pairs arranged at 180° angle.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 108 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: O₂ is paramagnetic

Reason: It has one unpaired electron.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 109 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution reaction.

Reason: In the case of phenol, the intermediate carbocation is more resonance stabilised.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 110 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: H₂Se is less acidic than H₂S

Reason: S is less electronegative than Se

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 111 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Flourine is a stronger oxidizing agent than iodine.

Reason: Flourine has greater electronegativity than iodine.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 112 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Ce⁴⁺ is used as an oxidising agent in volumetric analysis

Reason: Ce⁴⁺ has the tendency of attaining +3 oxidation state

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 113 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: The spectrum of He⁺ is expected to be similar to that of hydrogen.

Reason: He⁺ is also one electron system

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 114 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Cl₂ gas bleaches the articles permanently.

Reason: Cl₂ is a strong reducing agent

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 115 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: La(OH)₃ is more basic than Lu(OH)₃.

Reason: Size of Lu³⁺ increases and shows more covalent character.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 116 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: F-ion is a weak ligand and forms outer orbital complex.

Reason: F-ion cannot force the electrons of dz² and dx² – y² orbitals of the inner shell to

occupy dxy, dyz and dzx orbitals of the same shell.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 117 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: [Fe(H₂O)₅NO]SO₄ is paramagnetic

Reason: The Fe in [Fe(H₂O)₅NO]SO₄ has three unpaired electrons.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 118 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: The solubility of a gas in a liquid increases with increase of pressure.

Reason: The solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 119 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion : HC≡C⁻ is more stable than H₂C=CH⁻

Reason : HC≡C⁻ is more s character than H₂C=CH⁻

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 120 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: In a pressure cooker, the water is brought to boil. The cooker is then removed

from the stove. Now on removing the lid of pressure cooker, the water starts boiling again.

Reason: The impurities in water bring down its boiling point.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 121 Which of the following is correct regarding respiration in adult frog?

A. In water – Skin, gills

B. On land – Skin, buccal cavity

C. In water – Skin, buccal cavity

D. On land – Skin, lungs, gills

 

Q. 122 Which of the following is correctly matched?

A. Monstera – Fibrous root

B. Dahlia – Fasciculated roots

C. Azadirachta – Adventitious root

D. Basil – Prop roots

 

Q. 123 The ‘cells of Rauber’ are

A. secretory cells of endometrium in uterus

B. inner cell mass of blastocoel

C. outer cells of trophoblast in contact with uterine wall

D. cells of trophoblast, in contact with inner cell mass of blastocyst.

 

Q. 124 Which is correctly labelled with respect to the given diagram?

A. B: Logistic curve

B. C: Carrying capacity

C. C: Exponential curve

D. A: Carrying capacity

 

Q. 125 Deuteromycetes are known as fungi imperfecti because

A. their zygote undergoes meroblastic and holoblastic cleavage

B. only asexual stages are known

C. they have aseptate mycelium

D. they are autotrophic

 

Q. 126 Abscisic acid is known as the stress hormone because it

A. Breaks seed dormancy

B. Induces flowering

C. Promotes leaf fall

D. Promotes closure of stomata

 

Q. 127 Choose the correct statement.

A. hPl plays a major role in parturition

B. Foetus shows movements first time in the 7th month of pregnancy

C. Signal for parturition comes from fully developed foetus and placenta

D. Embryo’s heart is formed by the 2nd month of pregnancy

 

Q. 128 One of the world’s most poisonous fish toxins is released by

A. clown fish

B. sword fish

C. eel fish

D. puffer fish

 

Q. 129 Na⁺/K⁺ pump is associated with

A. passive transport

B. active transport

C. osmosis

D. imbibition

 

Q. 130 Which one has the largest species variety in India?

A. Wheat

B. Maize

C. Rice

D. Potato

 

Q. 131 Photorespiration shows formation of

A. sugar but not ATP

B. ATP but not sugar

C. both ATP and sugar

D. Neither ATP nor sugar

 

Q. 132 The microscope usually used for seeing living cells or tissues is

A. compound microscope

B. electron microscope

C. phase contrast microscope

D. light microscope

 

Q. 133 Which of the following in the diagram is correctly labelled?

A. A: Reissner’s membrane

B. B: Scala vestibuli

C. C: Basilar membrane

D. D: Tectorial membrane

 

Q. 134 In aerobic respiration, total number of ATP molecules formed from 1 glucose molecule is

A. 28

B. 32

C. 36

D. 30

 

Q. 135 Which of the following cartoon characters does not shares its name with that of a gene?

A. Tintin

B. Popeye

C. Asterix

D. Obelix

 

Q. 136 Apiculture is associated with which of the following groups of plants?

A. Grapes, maize, potato

B. Sugarcane, paddy, banana

C. Guava, sunflower, strawberry

D. Pineapple, sugarcane, strawberry

 

Q. 137 Which of the following is correctly labelled for the given figure?

A. A: PS II; B: PS I; C: e⁻ acceptor; D: LHC

B. A: LHC; B: e⁻ acceptor; C: PS I; D: PS II

C. A: PS I; B: PS II; C: e⁻ acceptor; D: LHC

D. A: e⁻ acceptor; B: LHC; C: PS II; D: PS I

 

Q. 138 During muscular contraction, which of the following events occur?

(i) H-zone disappears

(ii) A band widens

(iii) I band reduces in width

(iv) Width of A band is unaffected

(v) M line and Z line come closer

A. (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)

B. (i), (ii) and (v)

C. (ii), (iv) and (v)

D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

 

Q. 139 The release of chemical messenger from synaptic vesicles is under the influence of these ion(s).

A. Cl⁻

B. Fe⁺⁺ and S⁺⁺

C. Ca⁺⁺

D. Mg⁺⁺ and Sr⁺⁺

 

Q. 140 Cattle ranches are known to causes acute green house effect. This is due to

A. mechanizes milking practices

B. methanogenic bacteria in rumen

C. decomposition of left over fodder

D. decomposition of organic remains in faeces

 

Q. 141 Kranz anatomy is usually associated with

A. C₃ plants

B. C₄ plants

C. CAM plants

D. C₃-C₄ intermediate plants.

 

Q. 142 Microtubule depolymerizing drug such as colchicine is expected to

A. inhibit spindle formation during mitosis

B. inhibit cytokinesis

C. allow mitosis beyond metaphase

D. induce formation of multiple contractile rings

 

Q. 143 Catecholamine in a normal person induces

A. intense salivation

B. alertness

C. decrease in heart beat

D. excessive urination

 

Q. 144 Select the option among (a), (b), (c), (d) having all the correct characteristics.

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 145 Plants with inferior ovary usually bear

A. pseudocarps

B. berries

C. aggregate fruits

D. seedless fruits

 

Q. 146 Oxygen binding to haemoglobin in blood is

A. directly proportional to the concentration of CO₂ in the medium

B. inversely proportional to the concentration of CO₂ in the medium

C. directly proportional to the concentration of CO in the medium

D. independent to the concentration of CO in the medium

 

Q. 147 Leghaemoglobin is produced in response to

A. respiration

B. photosynthesis

C. fatty acid synthesis

D. N₂ fixation

 

Q. 148 The extinct human ancestor, who ate only fruits and hunted with stone weapons was

A. Ramapithecus

B. Australopithecus

C. Dryopithecus

D. Homo erectus

 

Q. 149 What is common between earthworm and Periplaneta?

A. Both have red coloured blood

B. Both possess anal styles

C. Both have malpighian tubules

D. Both have segmented body

 

Q. 150 In a normal adult, ascending order of concentrated of following molecules is

A. K > Na > Fe > Cu

B. Na > K > Cu > Fe

C. Fe > Na > K > Cu

D. Na > Fe > K > Cu

 

Q. 151 Which of the following statements is incorrect about G₀ phase?

A. Mitosis occurs after G₀ phase.

B. Biocatalyst can be used to exit G₀ phase.

C. Cell volume keeps on increasing during this phase.

D. Cell metabolism occurs continuously in G₀ phase.

 

Q. 152 Beads on string like structures of A are seen in B, which further condense to form

chromosomes in C stage of cell division.

A. (A) Chromonema, (B) Chromatin, (C) Metaphase

B. (A) Chromatin, (B) Chromatid, (C) Metaphase

C. (A) Chromonema, (B) Chromosome, (C) Anaphase

D. (A) Chromonema, (B) Chromatid, (C) Anaphase

 

Q. 153 RNA interference is essential for the

A. cell proliferation

B. cell defence

C. cell differentiation

D. micropropagation

 

Q. 154 Select the option having all correctly matched pairs.

A. Alkaloids (i) Carotenoid; Anthocyanin

B. Pigments (ii) Vinblastin; Curcumin

C. Drugs (iii) Morphine; Codeine

A. A-i, B-ii, C-iii

B. A-ii, B-iii, C-i

C. A-iii, B-i, C-ii

D. A-i, B-iii, C-ii

 

Q. 155 Dust, oolong and brick are varieties of

A. coffee

B. pepper

C. tea

D. lavang

 

Q. 156 Ventricular diastole occurs due to a/an

A. organ system

B. cell organelle

C. tissue

D. organ

 

Q. 157 Plants having the floral diagram given in the figure are

A. leguminous

B. dicots

C. medicinal and perennial

D. having pinnately compound leaves

 

Q. 158 Select the correct statement.

A. Particulate matter of size 10 μm can create severe damage to the lungs

B. Particulate matter of size greater than 2.5 μm can get trapped in lungs and cause problems

C. Particulate matter of size less than 2.5 μm penetrate deep into lungs

D. None of the above

 

Q. 159 Pebrine in silkworm is caused by

A. Dugesia

B. Monocystis

C. Nosema

D. Plasmodium

 

Q. 160 Which of the following is a homopolysaccharide?

A. Heparin

B. Inulin

C. Pectin

D. Hyaluronic acid

 

Q. 161 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: There are 34 biodiversity hotspots in the world.

Reason: High level of species richness is a criteria for selection of a biodiversity hotspot.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 162 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Inbreeding increases homozygosity, thus exposes harmful recessive genes,

which are eliminated by selection.

Reason: Continued inbreeding reduces fertility and productivity

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 163 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Some marine animals find it difficult to live in fresh water and vice versa.

Reason: Some animals can tolerate a narrow salinity range, while others can tolerate a

wide salinity range.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 164 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Mylein sheath insulates the nerve fibre and prevents its depolarisation.

Reason: Nerve impulses are conducted more rapidly in non-myelinated nerve fibres than in myelinated ones.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 165 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Frog can change its colour, according to its surroundings.

Reason: It is a way of mimicry to capture preys.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 166 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Less iodine intake causes goitre.

Reason: Less iodine in body decreases thyroxine secretion.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 167 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Hb⁵Hb⁵ denotes the homozygous condition for sickle-cell anaemia.

Reason: It occurs due to substitution of glutamic acid by valine at the 6th position of β- chain of Hb.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 168 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Excess Mn in soil, can adversely decrease Mg, Fe and Cu concentrations in the soil.

Reason: Mn increases rate of photosynthesis, thereby increasing absorption of Mg, Fe and Ca from soil.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 169 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: A middle aged women is reported to have small breasts and undersized uterus.

Reason: Her genotypic analysis shows XO condition of allosomes.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 170 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: In proximal convoluted tubule glomerular filtrate becomes hypertonic to blood plasma.

Reason: HCO₃⁻ is absorbed only in the proximal convoluted tubule

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 171 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Complexity of classification increases from kingdom to species.

Reason: Common characters increase from kingdom to species.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 172 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: In a terrestrial ecosystem, detritus food chain is the major conduit for energy flow.

Reason: Solar energy is the direct source for energy supply in a detritus food chain.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 173 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Filarial worm is transmitted to humans by Culex mosquito.

Reason: Culex prefers to breed in fresh water.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 174 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: AIDS is caused by the HIV, a retrovirus.

Reason: Retroviruses have RNA genome.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 175 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: A male is found to be lacking facial hair and pubic hair.

Reason: It is a case of hyposecretion of testosterone from Leydig’s cells of testes.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 176 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Extra oxygen consumption in human body is known as oxygen debt.

Reason: The extra oxygen is required by the body to oxidise the accumulated lactic acid produced during strenuous exercise.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 177 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Emulsification is necessary for the digestion of fats.

Reason: After fats are emulsified, the action of enzyme amylase gets significantly increased.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 178 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: In jaundice, the skin and mucous membranes assume a yellowish hue.

Reason: Yellow pigment bilirubin imparts pale yellow colour to blood plasma.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 179 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: No taste sensation is evoked when drop of distilled water is put on human tongue.

Reason: Man does not possess taste buds for tasting water.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 180 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Oxytocin is also known as Anti diuretic hormone (ADH).

Reason: Oxytocin can cause an increase in the renal reabsorption of water.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 181 The birth place of philosopher Ramanuja is the death place of which Prime Minister?

A. Indira Gandhi

B. Rajiv Gandhi

C. Jawaharlal Nehru

D. Morarji Desai

 

Q. 182 Which breed of dog does not bark?

A. Doberman

B. Basenji

C. German Shephard

D. Dalmation

 

Q. 183 Which author of Indian origin was born in the Caribbean Nation of Trinidad and Tobago?

A. Salman Rushdie

B. V. S. Naipaul

C. Shashi Tharoor

D. Nirad C. Chaudhuri

 

Q. 184 Tezpur in north-east is famous for

A. hottest chilli in the world

B. sweetest apple

C. largest producer of gold

D. largest producer of coal

 

Q. 185 Belt and Jacket, Catch-hold and loose styles are the basic types of which sport?

A. Boxing

B. Wrestling

C. Kho-Kho

D. Kabaddi

 

Q. 186 Kashmiri stag is also known as

A. Hangul

B. Nilgai

C. Sambhar

D. Chital

 

Q. 187 Who was the first Indian Prime Minister to lose an election?

A. Lal Bahadur Shastri

B. V. P. Singh

C. Morarji Desai

D. Indira Gandhi

 

Q. 188 The city of Mysore has derived its name from the sanskrit word, for which of these?

A. Beautiful town

B. Buffalo town

C. Great town

D. Golden town

 

Q. 189 Which of the following persons founded Indian National Orchestra?

A. Zubin Mehta

B. Shankar Mahadevan

C. A. R. Rehman

D. Ravi Shankar

 

Q. 190 Which is the second highest civilian award in India?

A. Bharat Ratna

B. Padma Vibhushan

C. Padma Bhushan

D. Padma Shri

 

Q. 191 Surface of which gemstone is called orient?

A. Emarald

B. Amethyst

C. Pearl

D. Diamond

 

Q. 192 Which of the following states is the highest producer of soyabean in India?

A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Rajasthan

D. Madhya Pradesh

 

Q. 193 Who captained India in woman cricket world cup 2000?

A. Anju Jain

B. Neetu David

C. Shantha Rangaswami

D. Poornima Rao

 

Q. 194 Which Union Territory has its name of the basis of a temple in the village Manimajra?

A. Chandigarh

B. Lakshdweep

C. Pondicherry

D. Daman and Diu

 

Q. 195 In tricolour flag of India, saffron colour is a symbol of

A. unity

B. sacrifice

C. peace

D. prosperity

 

Q. 196 Which of the following languages is not based on Devanagari script?

A. Hindi

B. Sanskrit

C. Nepali

D. Urdu

 

Q. 197 Which one of the following is a military alliance?

A. ASEAN

B. SAARC

C. NATO

D. NAFTA

 

Q. 198 ‘Fanning and Dust’, these terms are associated with

A. tea

B. coffee

C. soup

D. cold drink

 

Q. 199 Which one of the following footballers is awarded Arjuna Award 2011?

A. Sunil Chhetri

B. Baichung Bhutia

C. Bruno Coutinho

D. I. M. Vijayan

 

Q. 200 ‘Cix’s Bazar’ is situated in

A. Pakistan

B. Sri Lanka

C. Bnagladesh

D. Indonesia

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer B C C B A C C C B A
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer A D D A B A A C B D
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer C C A A B A B AC C D
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer D C B B B B A A B D
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A C D B A A B B B A
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer C B B A A B B B A B
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer B B B A D A C C C D
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer D A B B B C A D B C
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer D C A A A B C C D B
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B D C A C B B C A A
Question 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer C D B C B D C C B C
Question 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer B A A A C A A A A C
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer B B D D B D C D B C
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer D C D C A C C A C B
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer B A B B A B D B D A
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer A A B C C C C C C B
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer B B A C C A B D A D
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer B C C B B A C B A D
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer B B B A B AA D B D B
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer C D A A B D C A A C

 

AIIMS UG 2011 Previous Year Paper

AIIMS UG 2011

Section

Questions

Marks

Physics

60 Questions (1 – 60)

60

Chemistry

60 Questions (61 – 120)

60

Biology

60 Questions (121 – 180)

60

General Knowledge

20 Questions (181 – 200)

20

Q. 1 What is the dimension of magnetic field B in terms of C (= coulomb), M, L, T ?

A. [M¹L¹T⁻¹C]

B. [M¹L⁰T⁻¹C⁻¹]

C. [M¹L⁰T⁻²C]

D. [M¹L⁰T⁻¹C]

 

Q. 2 What is the mechanical equivalent of the spring constant K in LC oscillating circuit?

A. 1/L

B. 1/C

C. L/C

D. 1/LC

 

Q. 3 What is the moment of inertia for a solid sphere w.r.t to a tangent touching to its surface ?

A. 2/5 MR²

B. 7/5 MR²

C. 2/3 MR²

D. 5/3 MR²

 

Q. 4 Water is flowing with velocity 4 m s⁻¹ in a cylinder of diameter 8 cm, it is connected to a pipe with it end tip of diameter 2 cm, calculate the velocity of water at this free end.

A. 4 m s⁻¹

B. 8 m s⁻¹

C. 32 m s⁻¹

D. 64 m s⁻¹

 

Q. 5 A cylindrical wire is twisted with an angle θ, what is the torsion produced in it ?

A. c/ θ

B. c θ

C. c/ θ²

D. c θ³⁄²

 

Q. 6 GIven ω = 2k̂ and r= 2î + 2ĵ . Find the linear velocity

A. 4î + 4ĵ

B. 4î + 4k̂

C. -4î + 4ĵ

D. -4î – 4ĵ

 

Q. 7 If maximum speed of a particle in SHM is given by vm, what is the average speed?

A. ∐/2 vm

B. 2/∐ vm

C. ∐/4 vm

D. vm/√2

 

Q. 8 Which of the following equation does not represent a SHM ?

A. coscot + sincot

B. sincot – coscot

C. 1 – sin2cot

D. sincot + cos(ωt + α)

 

Q. 9 In the simple harmonic motion , loss of kinetic energy is proportional to

A. cos ωt + sin ωt

B. sin ωt – cosωt

C. 1-2sinωt

D. sin ωt +(cosωt -A)

 

Q. 10 Emissive and absorptive power of a material at 2000 k is 8 and 10 respectively, calculate the emissivity of IBB (Ideal black body)

A. 0.2

B. 0.4

C. 0.6

D. 0.8

 

Q. 11 Energy stored in between the plates of parallel . plate capacitor of area A, separated by distance .• d~

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 12 Magnetic energy per unit volume is represented by

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 13 Mutual inductance M between two concentric coils of radii 1 m and 2 m is

A. μ₀∐/2

B. μ₀∐/4

C. μ₀∐/8

D. μ₀∐/10

 

Q. 14 In an interference, the intensity of two interfering waves are I and 4l respectively. They produce intensity at two point A and B with phase angle of π/2 and π respectively. Then difference in between them is

A. l

B. 2l

C. 4l

D. 5l

 

Q. 15 In a single slit diffraction with λ = 500 mm and a lens of diameter 0.1 mm then width of central maxima, obtain on screen at a distance of 1 m will be

A. 5mm

B. 1mm

C. 10mm

D. 2.5mm

 

Q. 16 Voltage of modulating wave of 5 V with 10 MHz frequency was superimposed on carrier wave of frequency 20 MHz and voltage 20 V then the modulation index is

A. 0.25

B. 1.25

C. 2.43

D. 64.0

 

Q. 17 The area covered by a transmitting antenna of height 50 m is

A. 320⊓ km²

B. 1440 km²

C. 640⊓ km²

D. 120⊓ km²

 

Q. 18 Hwe assume kinetic energy of a proton is equal to energy of the photon, the ratio of de Broglie wavelength of proton to photon is proportional to

A. E

B. E⁻¹⁄²

C. E¹⁄²

D. E³⁄²

 

Q. 19 The ratio of the masses of the elements having their nuclear radii 2 fermi and 1 fermi is

A. 8

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 20 A proton travels few distance in an electric field, then it enters a crossed magnetic field of 1 T and radius 0.2 m, find the velocity of proton.

A. 0.2 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹

B. 0.2 ×10⁷ m s⁻¹

C. 0.2 ×10⁶ m s⁻¹

D. 2 ×10⁷ m s⁻¹

 

Q. 21 Two lens of focal length -20 cm and +10 cm are put in combination, find the power of the combination

A. – 1 D

B. – 2 D

C. + 5 D

D. + 2 D

 

Q. 22 A far sighted has his near point 50 cm, find the power of lens he should use to see at 25 cm, clearly.

A. + 1 D

B. + 2 D

C. – 2 D

D. – 1 D

 

Q. 23 For a nuclear reactor to run in critical condition the reproduction factor k should be

A. = 1

B. > 1

C. < 1

D. >>> 1

 

Q. 24 Which of the following substances magnetic susceptibility Xm is negative?

A. Diamagnetic

B. paramagnetic

C. ferromagnetic

D. all of these

 

Q. 25 When orientation of dipoles parallel and antiparallel to magnetic field is distributed unequally, then the material is

A. paramagnetic

B. ferromagnetic

C. ferrimagnetic

D. antiferromagnetic

 

Q. 26 S³² absorbs energy and decays into which element after two α-emissions ?

A. Carbon

B. Aluminium

C. Oxygen

D. Magnesium

 

Q. 27 Lenz law is consistent with conservation of

A. energy

B. mass

C. charge

D. momentum

 

Q. 28 In series LCR circuit, the phase difference between applied voltage and current is

A. positive when XL > Xc

B. positive when Xc> XI.

C. 90 deg

D. 0 deg

 

Q. 29 Direction of electric field in P-N junction diode is

A. from P-side to N-side

B. from N-side to P-side

C. randomly oriented

D. electric field does not exist

 

Q. 30 What is your observation when two sources are emitting sound with frequency 499 Hz and 501 Hz ?

A. Frequency of 500 Hz is heard with change in intensity take place twice

B. Frequency of 500 Hz is heard with change in intensity take place once

C. Frequency of 2 Hz is heard with change in intensity take place once

D. Frequency of 2 Hz is heard with change in intensity take place twice

 

Q. 31 A 0.2 kg object at rest is subjected to a force of (0.3î – 0.4ĵ) N. What is the velocity after 6 sec ?

A. 9î – 12ĵ

B. 8î – 16ĵ

C. 12î – 9ĵ

D. 16î – 8ĵ

 

Q. 32 If man were standing unsymmetrically between parallel cliffs, claps his hands and starts hearing a series of echoes at intervals of 1 s. If speed of sound in air 340 m s⁻¹, the distance between two cliffs would be

A. 340 m

B. 510 m

C. 170 m

D. 680 m

 

Q. 33 Half life of a radioactive material is 5 years, then the percentage of it remained after 25 years will be

A. 3.125%

B. 6.25%

C. 1.25%

D. 25%

 

Q. 34 For an adiabatic process

A. ΔS = 0

B. ΔU = 0

C. Q = 0

D. W = 0

 

Q. 35 For cyclic process which of the following quantity is zero ?

A. ΔV

B. ΔU

C. W

D. ΔQ

 

Q. 36 Magnetic field at n distance a from long current carrying wire is proportional to

A. 1/n

B. 1⁄n²

C. 1⁄√n

D. 1⁄n³/²

 

Q. 37 When a positively charged particle enters into a uniform magnetic field with uniform velocity, its trajectory can be

(i) a straight line

(ii) a circle

(iii) a helix

A. (i) only

B. (i) or (ii)

C. (i) or (iii)

D. any one of (i), (ii) and (iii)

 

Q. 38 Among the following which is used to control the rate of reaction in nuclear fission reactions ?

A. Water

B. Heavy water

C. Cadmium

D. Graphite

 

Q. 39 The series corresponding to minimum wavelength in H-atom

A. Balmer series

B. Lyman series

C. Paschen series

D. Brackett series

 

Q. 40 Pressure head in Bernoulli’s equation is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Questions: 41 – 60

In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).Mark the correct choice as:

Q. 41 Assertion: Transverse sound wave does not occurs in gases.

Reason: Gases cannot sustain shearing strain.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 42 Assertion: When white light fall on the compact disc, multicolours are seen after reflection.

Reason: CD disc behaves like a prism.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 43 Assertion: Total energy is conserved in moving a satellite to higher orbit.

Reason: Sum of change in PE and KE is same in magnitude and opposite in nature.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 44 Assertion: KE is conserved at every instant of (elastic) collision.

Reason: No deformation of matter occurs in elastic collision.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 45 Assertion: Cp is always greater than Cv in gases.

Reason: Work done at constant pressure is more than at constant volume.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 46 Assertion: During rapid pumping of air in tyres, air inside the tyre is hotter than atmospheric air.

Reason: Adiabatic process occurs at very high rate.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 47 Assertion: For nuclear reactor, it is desirable to have k = 1

Reason: Sustained chain reaction occur at this critical condition.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 48 Assertion: Gauss’s law can’t be used to calculate electric field near an electric dipole.

Reason: Electric dipole don’t have symmetrical charge distribution.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 49 Assertion: Photodiode and photovoltaic cell are based on the same principle.

Reason: Both use same method of operation to work.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 50 Assertion: Transistor can be used as a switch.

Reason: Both linear and non-linear voltage bias dependence occurs in it.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 51 Assertion: When a white light is passed through a lens, violet light is more reflected than red light.

Reason: Focal length for re light is greater than violet.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 52 Assertion: Microscope magnifies the image.

Reason: Angular magnification for image is more than object in microscope.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 53 Assertion: Mass defect in nuclear reactions is less than 1%.

Reason: In nuclear reaction, change in BE/N is generally less than 1%.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 54 Assertion: It is very easy to detect neutrino in nature.

Reason: It has high affinity to interact with matter.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 55 Assertion: In the transmission of long distance radio signals, short wave band is used.

Reason: In shorter wavelength, attenuation is very less.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 56 Assertion: There is a physical significance of matter waves.

Reason: Both interference and diffraction occurs in it.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 57 Assertion: It is desirable to slow down fast moving neutrons to sustain controlled chain reactions.

Reason: Slow moving neutrons efficiently collides with U²³⁵.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 58 Assertion: Magnetic field lines are continuous and closed.

Reason: Magnetic monopole does not exist.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 59 Assertion: Magnification of a convex mirror is always positive, but that of a concave mirror may be both positive or negative.

Reason: It depends on the sign convention chosen.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 60 Assertion: Magnetic force between two short magnets, when they are co-axial follows inverse square law of distance.

Reason: The magnetic forces between two poles do not follow inverse square law of distance.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 61 The compound which does not exist as hydrate form

A. ferrous sulphate

B. copper sulphate

C. magnesium sulphate

D. sodium chloride

 

Q. 62 Iodine oxidises sodium borohydride to give

A. B₂H₆

B. sodium hydride

C. HI

D. I₃⁻

 

Q. 63 The wrong statement about fullerene is

A. it has 5-membered carbon ring

B. it has 6-membered carbon ring

C. it has sp² hybridization

D. it has 5-membered rings more than 6-membered rings

 

Q. 64 The wavelength of light absorbed is highest in

A. [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]²⁺

B. [Co(NH₃)₅H₂O]³⁺

C. [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺

D. [Co(en)₃]³⁺

 

Q. 65 PCl₃ on hydrolysis gives fumes of

A. H₃PO₃ + HCl

B. H₃PO₄ + HCl

C. H₃PO₂ and H₃PO₃

D. H₃PO₂ + HCl

 

Q. 66 In solid ice, oxygen atom is surrounded

A. tetrahedrally by 4 hydrogen atoms

B. octahedrally by 2 oxygen and 4 hydrogen atoms

C. tetrahedrally by 2 hydrogen and 2 oxygen atoms

D. octahedrally by 6 hydrogen atoms

 

Q. 67 Predict the product of reaction of I₂ with H₂O₂ in basic medium.

A. I⁻

B. I₂O₃

C. IO₃⁻

D. I₃⁻

 

Q. 68 First compound of Xe synthesized was

A. [XeF]⁺ [XePtF₅]⁻

B. [XeO₂]

C. Xe[PtF₆]

D. O₂[XeF₆]

 

Q. 69 Which of the following is diamagnetic ?

A. [Cu[NH₃)₄]²⁺

B. [NiCl₄]²⁻

C. [PtCl₄]²⁻

D. [Cu(H₂O₄]²⁺

 

Q. 70 Which of the following is not hygroscopic ?

A. CsCl

B. MgCl₂

C. CaCl₂

D. LiCl

 

Q. 71 Decreasing order of bond angle is

A. BeCl₂ >NO₂ > SO₂

B. BeCl₂ > SO₂ > NO₂

C. SO₂ >BeCl₂ > NO₂

D. SO₂ > NO₂ > BeCl₂

 

Q. 72 When KMn04 reacts with KBr in alkaline medium gives bromate ion. Then oxidation state of Mn changes from +7 to

A. +6

B. +4

C. +3

D. +2

 

Q. 73 When KMnO₄ react with KBr in alkaline medium gives bromate ion. Then oxidation state of Mn change from +7 to

A. +6

B. +4

C. +3

D. +2

 

Q. 74 How much amount of CuSo₄.5H₂O is required for liberation of 2.54 g I₂ when titrated with Kl ?

A. 2.5 g

B. 4.99 g

C. 2.4 g

D. 1.2 g

 

Q. 75 Which of the following is incorrect for physisorption ?

A. Reversible

B. Increase with increase in temperature

C. Low heat of adsorption

D. Increase with increase in surface area

 

Q. 76 Smallest wavelength occurs for

A. Lyman series

B. Balmer series

C. Paschen series

D. Brackett series

 

Q. 77 Ksp of CaSO₄. 5H₂O is 9 x 10⁻⁶ , find the volume of 1gm CaSO₄ (M. wt. = 136)

A. 2.45 litre

B. 5.1 litre

C. 4.52 litre

D. 3.2 litre

 

Q. 78 Which of the following is not a characteristic of equilibrium ?

A. Rate is equal in both directions

B. Measurable quantities are constant at equilibrium

C. Equilibrium occurs in reversible condition

D. Equilibrium occurs only in open vessel at constant temperature

 

Q. 79 Which of the following is wrong for Bohr model ?

A. It establishes stability of atom

B. It is inconsistent with Heisenberg uncertainty principle

C. It explains the concept of spectral lines for hydrogen like species

D. Electrons behave as particle and wave

 

Q. 80 In the van der Waals equation, ‘a’ signifies

A. intermolecular attraction

B. intramolecular attraction

C. attraction between molecules and wall of container

D. volume of molecules

 

Q. 81 For adiabatic process, which is correct ?

A. ΔT = 0

B. ΔS = 0

C. q = 0

D. Qp = 0

 

Q. 82 25 mL, 0.2 M Ca (OH)₂ is neutralised by 10 mL of 1 m HCl. Then pH of resulting solution is

A. 1.37

B. 9

C. 12

D. 7

 

Q. 83 Schotky defect is

A. vacancy of ions

B. delocalization of ions

C. interstitial vacancy of ions

D. vacancy of only cations

 

Q. 84 Which material is used as a neutron moderator ?

A. Graphite

B. Cadmium

C. Boron

D. Uranium

 

Q. 85 Which of the following is not a thermodynamic function ?

A. Internal energy

B. Work done

C. Enthalpy

D. Entropy

 

Q. 86 Which of the following is following is intense property ?

A. Enthalpy

B. Entropy

C. Specific heat

D. Volume

 

Q. 87 For a first order gas phase reaction

A(g)+ 2B(g) + C(g)

Po be initial pressure of A and PI the total pressure at time ‘f. Integrated rate equation is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 88 Decreasing order of nucleophilicity is

A. OH⁻> NH⁻₂ > CH₃O⁻ > RNH₂

B. NH₂ > OH⁻ > CH⁻₃ > RNH₂

C. NH₂ > CH₃O⁻> OH⁻ > RNH₂

D. CH₃O⁻ >NH₂ >OH⁻ > RNH₂

 

Q. 89 Find the number of stereoisomers of 1,2-dihydroxy cyclopentane.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 90 Find the hydrolysis product when a phosphodiester bond of nucleotide breaks.

A. 3-OH-deoxyribose-5PO₄³⁻

B. 5-OH-deoxyribose-3PO₄³⁻

C. 2-OH-deoxyribose-2PO₄³⁻

D. 4-OH-deoxyribose-2PO₄³⁻

 

Q. 91 Find the hydrolysis product of maltose.

A. α-D-glucose + α-D-glucose

B. α-D-glucose + α-D-fructose

C. α-D-glucose + α-D-galactose

D. α-D-fructose + α-D-galactose

 

Q. 92 Isoprene is

A. 3-methyl-12-butadience

B. 2-methyl-1,3-butadience

C. 3-chloro-1,2-butadience

D. 2-chloro-1,3-butadience

 

Q. 93 Find the product for CH₃CH₂-O-CH₂-CH₂-O-CH₂-C₆H₅ + Hl

A. HO-CH₂-CH₂OH,C₆H₅CH₂-I,CH₃CH₂-I

B. C₆H₅CH₂-OH,CH₃CH₂-I,I-CH₂CH₂-OH

C. I-CH₂CH₂-I,C₆H₅CH₂-I,CH₃CH₂-OH

D. HO-CH₂CH₂-OH,C₆H₅CH₂-I,CH₃CH₂-OH

 

Q. 94 Best method to form aromatic iodide is

A. ArN⁺₂ + HI —>

B. RnH₂ + I₂−>

C. ArN⁺₂ + KI —>

D. ArN⁺₂ +I₃ —>

 

Q. 95 Maximum decarboxylation occurs in

A. CH₃COOH

B. C₆H₅COOH

C. C₆H₅CH₂COOH

D. CH₃COCH₂COOH

 

Q. 96 The correct increasing order of reactivity for the following molecules towards electrophilic aromatic substitution is

A. I < IV <II < III

B. I < IV < III < II

C. I < III < II < IV

D. I < III < IV < II

 

Q. 97 The correct decreasing order of pKh is

A. I:> II :> III :> IV

B. III> IV> II :> I

C. II > In > IV > I

D. IV > II > I > III

 

Q. 98 The correct decreasing order of pK. Is

A. II > IV > I > III

B. IV > II > III > I

C. III > II > IV :> I

D. IV > I > II > III

 

Q. 99 SN2 reaction readily occurs in

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 100 The number of σ- and ⊓-bond present in pent -4-ene-1-yne is

A. 10, 3

B. 4, 9

C. 3, 10

D. 9, 4

 

Questions: 101 – 120

In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

Q. 101 Assertion: H₂S is less acidic than H₂Te.

Reason: Te has larger radius than S.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 102 Assertion: R₃P=O exists but R₃N=O does not exist.

Reason: P is more electronegative than N.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 103 Assertion: AgCl is more soluble in NH₃ than in water.

Reason: Ammonia is more polar than water.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 104 Assertion: BCC and HCP has same packing efficiency.

Reason: Both have same number of atoms per unit cell and same arrangement.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 105 Assertion: Reduction potential of Mn (+3 to +2) is more positive than Fe (+3 to +2).

Reason: Ionisation potential of Mn is more than that of Fe.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 106 Assertion: Helium is used in diving apparatus.

Reason: Solubility of helium is less in blood.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 107 Assertion: A reaction is spontaneous if Ecell = + ve.

Reason: For Ecell = + ve. ΔG is always -ve.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 108 Assertion: Sulphur is oxidised by H₂O₂ in presence of Fe (III).

Reason: Fe (III) oxidises sulphur to sulphate.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 109 Assertion: Chlorine unergoes disproportionation reaction in alkaline medium.

Reason: Cl₂ is an oxidising agent.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 110 Assertion: Entropy is always constant for a closed system.

Reason: Closed system is always reversible.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 111 Assertion: Two different reactions can never have same rate of reaction.

Reason: Rate of reaction always depends only on frequency of collision and Arrhenius

factor.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 112 Assertion: The formal oxidation no. of sulphur in Na₂S₄O₆ is 2.5.

Reason: Two-S-atoms are not directly linked with O-atoms.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 113 Assertion: A non volatile solute is mixed in a solution then elevation in boiling point and depression in freezing point both are 2 k.

Reason: Elevation in boiling point and depression in freezing point both depend on melting point of non-volatile solute.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 114 Assertion: Rate of reaction of alkyl halide in Williamson’s synthesis reaction is 1˚RX > 2˚RX > 3˚RX.

Reason: It is a type of bimolrcular sustitution reaction (Sn2).

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 115 Assertion: Dehydration of alcohals always takes place in basic medium.

Reaction: OH⁻ is a better leaving group.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 116 Assertion: Toluene in presence of UV rays forms benzaldehyde.

Reason: Dichlorotoluene is formed as an intermediate.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 117 β-pleated sheet structure of protein shows maximum extension.

Reason: Intermolecular hydrogen bonding is present in them.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 118 Assertion: Fructose is a reducing sugar.

Reason: It has a ketonic group.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 119 Assertion: p-Nitrophenol gives more electrophilic substituted compound than mmethoxyphenol.

Reason: Methoxy group shows only negative I-effect.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 120 Assertion : p-Nitrophenol gives marc electrophilic substituted compound than mmethoxyphenol.

Reason :Methoxy group shows only negative I-effect.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 121 What is the source of Eco R I ?

A. Escherichia coli R I

B. Escherichia coli R I 13

C. Escherichia coli RY 13

D. Escherichia coli R X 13

 

Q. 122 First clinical gene therapy was given in 1992 to a 4 years old girl for

A. adenine deficiency

B. growth deficiency

C. adenosine deaminase deficiency

D. adenosine deficiency

 

Q. 123 Bacteria, Fungi, lower plants survive in adverse conditions by

A. diapause

B. suspended growth

C. migration

D. formation of thick walled spores

 

Q. 124 What are labelled phase A, B and C in given sigmoidal growth curve ?

A. Stationary Log lag

B. lag stationary Log

C. Log Lag stationary

D. Lag Log Stationary

 

Q. 125 Monarch butterfly escapes from predators by

A. foul smell

B. bitter taste

C. colour combination

D. rough skin

 

Q. 126 What is the characteristic of tapezium ?

A. It does not store food

B. It is multi-nucleated

C. It is multi-layered structure

D. It nourishes the megaspore

 

Q. 127 In vehicles, catalytic converters are used

A. to increase mileage of vehicles

B. to convert CO₂ into carbonates

C. to increase the efficiency of lead mixed petrol

D. to convert CO to CO₂-

 

Q. 128 Cell theory was proposed by

A. a botanist

B. a zoologist

C. a botanist and a zoologist

D. a psychologist

 

Q. 129 Identify the given figures A, B, C, D and E.

A. Marginal Axile Free central Parietal Basal

B. Marginal Parietal Free central Axile Basal

C. Marginal Parietal Free central Axile Basal

D. Marginal Axile Parietal Basal Free central

 

Q. 130 Given figures shows

A. structure of lentical

B. hydathode showing gaseous vapour exchange

C. fungus reproducing by spore formation

D. algae reproducing by spore formation

 

Q. 131 In the given diagram A and B represent

A. Mineralisation Demineralisation

B. Ammonification Denitrification

C. Denitrification Ammonification

D. Denitrification Mineralisation

 

Q. 132 In active transport, carrier proteins are used, which use energy in the form of ATP, to

A. transport molecules against concentration gadient of cell wall.

B. transport molecules along concentration gradient of cell membrane

C. transport molecules against concentration gradient of cell membrane

D. transport molecules along concentration gradient of cell wall

 

Q. 133 In a 50 gm living tissue, what would be the amount of water ?

A. 15 – 25 gm

B. 25 – 30 gm

C. 35 – 45 gm

D. 70 – 90 gm

 

Q. 134 PS – II occurs only in

A. stroma

B. grannal thylakoids

C. stromal lamella

D. matrix

 

Q. 135 After glycolysis, fate of glucose in mitochondrial matrix

A. oxidation

B. reduction

C. oxidative decarboxylation

D. hydrolysis

 

Q. 136 Cleistogamy is leading over anthesis because

A. pollination agent is not required

B. it assures heterozygosity

C. it favours insect pollination

D. it allows xenogamy

 

Q. 137 Which of the following statement is correct ?

A. Photorespiration is useful process

B. C₄ plants are more efficient than C₃ plants

C. C₃ plants are more efficient than C₄ plants

D. Photorespiration is absent in C₃ plants but present in C₄ plants

 

Q. 138 Which of following statement is incorrect regarding fermentation ?

A. Propionibacterium is used to ferment the cheese

B. The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to the production of CO₂ gas

C. Fermentation in muscle produces ethanol

D. Toddy is mad by fermenting sap from palms

 

Q. 139 Which of the following statement is correct ?

A. Aspergillus niger is used for producing for cyclosporin A

B. Activated sludge is digested by aerobic bacteria to produce marsh gas

C. Fleming, Chain & Florey were awarded with Nobel Prize for discovering penicillin

D. BOD is amount of oxygen produced by bacteria on decomposition

 

Q. 140 Which of the following elements is present in very less quantity in the body ?

A. K

B. Ca

C. Mg

D. Cu

 

Q. 141 Which of the following is best method of germplasm conservation ?

A. herbarium

B. botanical garden

C. seed bank

D. zoological park

 

Q. 142 Which one of the following option is a correct match of phenomenon and its explanation ?

A. Reverse Tanscription PCR — Many copies of a DNA sequence

B. Central dogma — RNA — DNA — Protein — RNA

C. RNA silencing – Use of ds-RNA to stop the expression of ss-RNA

D. Transcription — Process of formation of RNA & proteins

 

Q. 143 Which of the following is not a characteristic of meiosis ?

A. It involves two stages of DNA replication one before meisosis-I and another before meiosis-II

B. It involves recombination and crossing over

C. Sister chromatids separate during anaphase-II

D. Nuclear membrane disappears during prophase

 

Q. 144 Which of the following is correct ?

A. Henking discovered the small Y-chromosome

B. Drosophilia also shows XX-XY sex determination like human

C. Birds have ZZ-ZW sex determination, where femals are ZZ % males are ZW

D. Grasshoppers show XX-XY sex determination

 

Q. 145 Which statement is correct regarding mosses ?

A. They have dominant and independent sporophyte

B. Their antherozoids require water for fertilization

C. Their archegonia produce many eggs

D. Their antherozoids are multiflagellated

 

Q. 146 Which of the following statement is correct ?

A. Catalytic converter can separate particulate matter of diameter less than 2.5 micrometers

B. Histones are acidic in nature that forms core for DNA packaging

C. Lactobacillus is not present in dough used in idle formation

D. Template with polarity 5′ — 3′ has continuous DNA replication

 

Q. 147 Which of the following statement is correct ?

1. Common cold – Droplet Infection

2. Typhoid – Contaminated food & water

3. AIDS – Shaking hands

4. Ringworm – Using infected towels

A. 1 and 2

B. 3 and 4

C. 1 and 3

D. 1,2 and 4

 

Q. 148 Which of the following statements is correct ?

A. Lion and leopard show convergent evolution

B. Cryptic camouflage is seen in Biston betularia.

C. Natural selection is responsible for extinction of dinosaurs.

D. Homo habilis and Homo erectus are closely related.

 

Q. 149 Tendon and Ligament are example of

A. dense regular connective tissue

B. dense irregular connective tissue

C. loose connective tissue

D. specialised connective tissue

 

Q. 150 Kingdom Animalia is characterised by

A. direct dependence on autotrophs

B. indirect dependence on autotrophs

C. absence of chlorophyll

D. absence of cell wall

 

Q. 151 If medulla oblongata is destroyed then which of the following functions will be affected ?

A. No thermoregulation

B. No vision

C. No memory

D. No response when pricked with needle

 

Q. 152 Which of the following statements is correct ?

A. Monkey, apes and humans exhibit estrous cycle

B. Urine is pale yellow and slightly alkaline

C. Lots of enzymes are present in bile juice

D. Ovulation in humans is spontaneous

 

Q. 153 Which of the following evidences does not favour the Lamarckian concept of inheritance of acquired characters ?

A. absence of limbs in snakes

B. melanization in peppered moth

C. presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds

D. lack or pigment in cave-dwelling animals

 

Q. 154 Which of the following is a correct match ?

A. Frog – External ears

B. Earthworm – Muscular gizzard, typhlosole

C. Human – Fat globule, 10 pairs of cranial nerves

D. Cockroach – Chilopoda

 

Q. 155 Which of the following is an incorrect statements ?

A. Blood group ‘O’ person have A and B antigens on RBCs

B. Eosinophils resist infections and are associated with allergic infection

C. RBC’s contain carbonic anhydrase

D. T wave of normal ECG represent of depolarization of ventricle

 

Q. 156 Which one of the following is correct regarding the excretion ?

A. Large amount of water from renal filtrate is reabsorbed in DCT and a less amount is reabsorbed by PCT

B. The descending limb of loop of Henle is competely impemeable to salts

C. Malpighian corpuscle is found in medulla region of kidney

D. The colour of urine is pale yellow and is slightly alkaline in nature

 

Q. 157 In assisted reproductive technology where gametes have fertilized in vitro, which of the following is practicable for embryo transplantation in Fallopian tube ?

A. Only embryo up to 8 blastomeres if zygote is not transplanted

B. only zygote is transplanted not embryo

C. either embryo or zygote with 8 blastomerephase transplanted

D. morulla with 8-24 celled stage is transplanted in Fallopian tube

 

Q. 158 Which of the following features can be said to be a true defining features of living beings without any exception ?

A. they can digest their food

B. all of them can reproduce

C. they can regenerate

D. they can respond to external stimuli

 

Q. 159 The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by the valve named

A. biscuspid valve

B. tricupid valve

C. mitral valve

D. semilunar valve

 

Q. 160 Skeletal muscles appear striated due to presence of two characteristic proteins in

alternating dark and light bands. Which of the following is a correct match of the proteinwith its light refractive property and colour?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Questions: 161 – 180

In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

Q. 161 Assertion: Enzymes lower down the activation energy of the reactant molecule to make its transition into product easier.

Reason: Enzymes are highly substrate specific catalysts.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 162 Assertion: Water that enters into a plant cell through diffusion makes it turgid.

Reason: Entry of water into the cell through diffusion develops wall pressure inside the cell.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 163 Assertion: Movement of materials inside phloem is bidirectional i.e. it can both upwards or downwards.

Reason: Movement of molecules inside xylem is unidirectional i.e. always upwards.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 164 Assertion: protons or hydrogen ions produced by photolysis of water accumulate in the lumen of thylakoids.

Reason: Photolysis of water takes place in inner membrane of thylakoid.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 165 Assertion: Plant growth as a whole is indefinite.

Reason: Plants retain the capacity of continuous growth throughout their life.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 166 Assertion: Amount of organic biodegradable compounds present in water is measured by BOD of that water.

Reason: During biodegradation of biodegradable organic compounds, oxygen is released by bacteria.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 167 Assertion: In angiosperms, transport of food and water is more efficient than gymnosperms and pteridophytes.

Reason: In angiosperms longitudinally arranged sieve elements and vessels with perforated end walls are present.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 168 Assertion: In some species of asteraceae and poaceae seeds are formed without

fertilization.

Reason: Formation of fruits without fertilization is called parthenocarpy.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 169 Assertion: Algal blooms are formed in nutrients-less water.

Reason: Algal blooms in water turn it unfit for human consumption, but cause enormous

growth of fish.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 170 Assertion: A mangrove tree growing in marshy place has pneumatophores.

Reason: Pneumatophores help in better anchorge to marshy soil.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 171 Assertion: A geneticist crossed two plants, he got 50% tall and 50% dwarf progenies.

Reason: It follows Mendelian law as one of the parent plant might be heterozygous.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 172 Assertion: Now-a-days amniocentesis is banned.

Reason: Amniocentesis gives the information of any abnormality in the foetus and many

other complications regarding pregnancy can be detected.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 173 Assertion: A gene from Bacillus thuringiensis is incorporated in plant genome to increase their yield.

Reason: Bacillus thuringgiensis has Bt toxin producing gene, which kills the larva of insects.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 174 Assertion: Glycerides are important nutrients for body.

Reason: Glycerides are hydrolysed into glycerol and fatty acids which are further absorbed in intestine by the formation of chylomicron.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 175 Assertion: Blood in cockroach is colourless haemolymph with no respiratory pigment.

Reason: Reaspiration in cockroach occurs through diffusion in haemolymph.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 176 Assertion: Blood group ‘O’ have anti-A & anti-B antibodies.

Reason: It does not have any antigens.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 177 Assertion: S.A. node induces excitatory impulses in heart.

Reason: S.A. node is self excitatory.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 178 Assertion: Organ of Corti rests on tectorial membrane.

Reason: It helps to maintain equilibrium of body.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 179 Assertion: Corpus luteum is produced by Graafian follicide after ovulation.

Reason: It secretes estrogen which is necessary to maintain pregnancy.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 180 Assertion: Sporozoites of malarial parasite enter in the human body due to biting of freshly born female Anopheles mosquito, Whose mother was a carrier of malarial parasite.

Reason: Male and female gametocytes in the human intestine.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 181 Which river derives its name from Sanskrit word “Lavanavari”?

A. Luni

B. Kosi

C. Sabarmati

D. Kaveri

 

Q. 182 Which river’s name means “containing reed”

A. Gangad

B. Betwa

C. Narmada

D. Luni

 

Q. 183 First Indian woman grand master in chess is

A. Saheli Dhar

B. Bhagyashree Thipse

C. Vijaylakshmi Pandit

D. Amrit Kaur

 

Q. 184 Two letters printed on first postal stamp of India are

A. Jai Hind

B. Jai kisan

C. Jai Bharat

D. Vande Mataram

 

Q. 185 Which of the following is called ‘Floating sanctuary of India’?

A. Keibul Lamjao

B. Manas

C. Kaziranga

D. Bharatpur

 

Q. 186 “India wins freedom” this book was written by

A. Jawahar Lal Nehru

B. Maulana Azad

C. Sardar Patel

D. Rajendra Prasad

 

Q. 187 Which fruit is often called “love apple”?

A. Pineapple

B. Orange

C. Tomato

D. Papaya


Q. 188 Which country was first to adopt family planning programme?

A. India

B. China

C. USA

D. Indonesia

 

Q. 189 After whom the atomic energy programme is commissioned in India?

A. S. N. Bose

B. C. V. Raman

C. H. G. Khurana

D. H. J. Bhabha

 

Q. 190 After the death of which prime minister did Guljarilal Nanda joined as acting PM for second time?

A. Indira Gandhi

B. Jawahar Lal Nehru

C. Lal Bahadur Shastri

D. Charan Singh

 

Q. 191 Whom did Jawahar Lal Nehru called father of Indian Revolution?

A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

B. Vipin Chandra Pal

C. Dhondo Keshave Karve

D. Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

 

Q. 192 Among these, who had been the last governor general of India?

A. Dr. Radhakrishnan

B. R. Gopalachari

C. Sardar Patel

D. Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar

 

Q. 193 With which of the following reigions, “Karamappa” is related?

A. Jainism

B. Buddhism

C. Hinduism

D. Christiniism

 

Q. 194 Which of the following authors is not born in India

A. Rudyard Kipling

B. Ruskin Bond

C. Gorge Orwell

D. V.S Naipal

 

Q. 195 Which of the following actress won the best actress award 3 times consecutively?

A. Rekha

B. Jaya Bachhan

C. Smita Patil

D. Shabana Azmi

 

Q. 196 Which woman won the Sahitya Kala Academy award first first time?

A. Amrita Pritam

B. Sarojini Naidu

C. Kamla Mehta

D. Geeta Das

 

Q. 197 To which gharana “Kishori Amonkar” belongs to?

A. Kirana

B. Jaipur-Attrivi

C. Lucknow

D. Gwalior

 

Q. 198 Who is the author of the book “Sidhhant Shiromani”?

A. Bhaskaracharya – II

B. Bhaskaracharya -I

C. Aryabhatt

D. Ramanujan

 

Q. 199 Which of the following has introduced transcendental meditation ?

A. Rajneesh Osho

B. Swami Chinmiyanand

C. Vivekanand

D. Maharishi Mahesh Yogi

 

Q. 200 Which of the following animal’s body secretion is oily red, commonly known as ”Sweat blood” ?

A. Rhinoceros

B. Hippopotamus

C. Cow

D. Tiger

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer B B B D B C B B D D
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer A A B C C A C C A A
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer C B A A C D A A B A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer A B A A B A D C B B
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer B A C D A A A A A B
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer A A A A D A A C B D
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer D A D A A A A C C A
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer A D D B B B A D D A
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C D A A B C B C C A
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer A B A C D B D A A A
Question 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer B C C D C A A A B D
Question 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer D A D A D D A B B D
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer C C D D B B D C C A
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer C C C B A A B C C D
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer C A A B B A D B A D
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer A D B B D B A D B D
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer B C B B A C A B D C
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer A B A C C B B D B B
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer A B C A A B C A D C
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer A B B D D A B A D B

 

AIIMS UG 2010 Previous Year Paper

AIIMS UG 2010

Section

Questions

Marks

Physics

60 Questions (1 – 60)

60

Chemistry

60 Questions (61 – 120)

60

Biology

60 Questions (121 – 180)

60

General Knowledge

20 Questions (181 – 200)

20

Q. 1 Transmission lines transmit a voltage of V volt to our houses from power stations, then the power P is supplied by them is proportional to :

A. 1/V

B. V

C. V²

D. 1/V²

 

Q. 2 Whenever a stream of electrons collides with a stream of photons, in the collision , which of the following is not conserved?

A. linear momentum

B. total energy

C. no. of photons

D. no. of electrons

 

Q. 3 The logic gate represented in following figure is:

A. OR gate

B. NOT gate

C. NAND gate

D. XOR gate

 

Q. 4 for a person near point of vision is 10cm. Then the power of lens he must wear so as to have normal vision.should be

A. +1 D

B. -1 D

C. +3 D

D. -3 D

 

Q. 5 Two projectiles of same mass have their maximum kinetic energies in ratio 4:1 and ratio of their maximum heights is also 4: 1 then what is the ratio of their ranges?

A. 2:1

B. 4:1

C. 8:1

D. 16:1

 

Q. 6 An unchanged particle is moving with a velocity of v̅ is non uniform magnetic field as shown. velocity v̅ would be

A. maximum at A and B

B. minimum at A and B

C. maximum at M

D. same at all points

 

Q. 7 which of the following is true regarding diamagnetic substances (symbols have their usual meaning)

A. χᵥ> 1, μᵣ > 1

B. χᵥ < 1, μᵣ > 1

C. χᵥ < 0, μᵣ < 1

D. χᵥ > 0, μᵣ < 1

 

Q. 8 what is moment of inertia of a cylinder of radius r, along its height?

A. mr²

B. mr²/2

C. 2mr²/5

D. mr²/5

 

Q. 9 A uniform string is vibrating with a fundamental frequency ‘f’. The new frequency, if its radius and length both are doubled would be:

A. 2f

B. 3f

C. f/4

D. f/3

 

Q. 10 Two spherical soap bubbles of radii a and b vacuum coaleasce under isothermal

conditions. The resulting bubbles has a radius given by:

A. (a+b)/2

B. ab/(a+b)

C. √(a²+b²)

D. a + b

 

Q. 11 What would be the voltage across C₃ ?

A. (C₁ + C₂)V/C₁ + C₂ + C₃

B. C₁V/ C₁ + C₂ + C₃

C. C₂V/C₁ + C₂ + C₃

D. C₃V/C₁ + C₂ + C₃

 

Q. 12 What would be maximum wavelength for Brackett series of hydrogen – spectrum?

A. 74582 A⁰

B. 22790 A⁰

C. 40519 A⁰

D. 18753 A⁰

 

Q. 13 what would be the radius of second orbit of He⁺ ion?

A. 1.058 A⁰

B. 3.023 A⁰

C. 2.068 A⁰

D. 4.458 A⁰

 

Q. 14 The position of a particle moving in the x-y plane at any time t is given by ; x = (3t² – 6t ) meters; y = (t²-2t) meters. select the correct statement.

A. acceleration is zero at t = 0

B. velocity is zero t = 0

C. velocity is zero at t = 1s

D. velocity and acceleration of the particle are never zero

 

Q. 15 Two masses M₁ = 5 kg and M₂ = 10kg are connected at the ends of an inextensible string passing over a firctionless pulley as shown. when the masses are released, then the acceleration of the masses will be:

A. g

B. g/2

C. g/3

D. g/4

 

Q. 16 A block of mass m is pulled along a horizontal surface by applying a force at an angle θ with the horizontal. If the block travels with a uniform velocity has a displacement d and the coefficient of friction μ is , then the work done by the applied force is

A. μmgd/cos θ + μ sin θ

B. μmgd cos θ/cos θ + μ sin θ

C. μmgd sin θ/ cos θ + μ sin θ

D. μmgd cos θ/ cos θ-μ sin θ

 

Q. 17 pressure versus temperature graph of an ideal gas is as shown in figure. Density of the gas at point A is ρₒ . density at point B will be

A. 3ρₒ/4

B. 3ρₒ/2

C. 4ρₒ/3

D. 2ρₒ

 

Q. 18 The latent heat of vaporisation of a substance is always:

A. greater than its latent heat of fusion

B. greater than its latent heat of sublimation

C. equal to its latent heat of sublimation

D. less than its latent heat of fusion

 

Q. 19 A reversible engine converts one -sixth of the heat input into work. when the temperature of the sink is reduced by 62⁰C, the efficiency of the engine is doubled. The temperature of the source and sink are:

A. 99⁰ C,37⁰ C

B. 80⁰ C, 37⁰ C

C. 95⁰ C, 37⁰ C

D. 90⁰ C, 37⁰ C

 

Q. 20 Graph of specific heat at constant volume for a mono atomic gas is:

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 21 In figure , a particle having mass m = 5 g and charge q’ = 2 x 10⁻⁹ C starts from rest at point a and moves in a straight line to point b. What is its speed v at point b?

A. 2.65 cm/s

B. 3.65 cm /s

C. 4.65 cm /s

D. 5.65 cm /s

 

Q. 22 A galvanometer has a current sensitivity of 1mA per division . A variable shunt is connected across the galvanometer and the combination is put in series with a resistance of 500 ohms and cell of internal resistance 1 ohm. It gives a deflection of 5 division for shunt of 5 ohm and 20 division for shunt of 25 ohm. The emf of cell is :

A. 47.1V

B. 57.1 V

C. 67.1 V

D. 77.1V

 

Q. 23 A circular coil with a cross-sectional area of 4 cm² has 10 turns. It is placed at the centre of a long solenoid that has 15 turns/cm and a cross-sectional area of 10 cm², as shown in the figure. The axis of the coil coincides with the axis of the solenoid. what is their mutual inductance?

A. 7.54 μH

B. 8.54 μH

C. 9.54 μH

D. 10.54 μH

 

Q. 24 If K₁ and K₂ are maximum kinetic energies of photo electrons emitted when lights of wavelengths λ₁ and λ₂ respectively incident on a metallic surface. If λ₁ = 3λ₂,then

A. K₁ > K₂/3

B. K₁ < K₂/3

C. K₁ = 2K₂

D. K₂ = 2K₁

 

Q. 25 Two radio active substances A and B have decay constants 5λ and λ respectively. At t = 0, they have the same number of nuclei of A to those of B will be (1/e²) after a time

A. 4λ

B. 2λ

C. 1/2λ

D. 1/4λ

 

Q. 26 The intensity of gamma radiation from a given source is l. On passing through 36mm of lead, it is reduced to l/8. The thickness of lead which will reduce the intensity to l/2 will be:

A. 18mm

B. 12mm

C. 6mm

D. 9mm

 

Q. 27 An electric charge 10⁻¹ μC is placed at the origin (0,0) of (x-y) co-ordinate system. Two points A and B are situated at (√2,√2) and (2,0) respectively. The potential difference between the points A and B will be:

A. 4.5 volt

B. 9 volt

C. zero

D. 2 volt

 

Q. 28 If the energy, E = Gⁿ₁hⁿ₂cⁿ₃ , where G is the universal gravitational constant, h is the planks constant and c is the velocity of light, then the values of ⁿ₁, ⁿ₂, ⁿ₃ are respectively:

A. -1/2,1/2 and 5/2

B. 1/2,-1/2 and -5/2

C. -1/2,1/2 and 3/2

D. 1/2, -1/2 and -3/2

 

Q. 29 Four holes of radius R are cut from a thin square plate of side 4R and mass M. The moment of inertia of the remaining portion about z-axis is:

 

A. πMR²/12

B. (4/3 – π/4 ) MR²

C. (4/3 – π/6) MR²

D. (8/3 – 10π/16) MR²

 

Q. 30 A liquid is kept in a cylindrical vessel which is being rotated about a vertical axis through the centre of the circular base. If the radius of the vessel is r and angular velocity of rotation is ω , then the difference in the heights of the liquid at the centre of the vessel and the edge is:

A. rω/2g

B. r²ω²/2g

C. √(2grω)

D. ω²/2gr²

 

Q. 31 A block of mass 10 kg is moving in x-direction with a constant speed of 10m/s. It is subjected to a retarding force F = 0.1x joule/meter during its travel from x = 20 m to x = 30 m. Its final K.E will be :

A. 475 J

B. 450 J

C. 275 J

D. 250 J

 

Q. 32 A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of water in the capillary tube 5g. Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise in this tube is :

A. 2.5 g

B. 5.0 g

C. 10 g

D. 20 g

 

Q. 33 Which of the following pairs does not have same dimensions?

A. impulse and momentum

B. moment of inertia and moment of force

C. angular momentum and planck’s constant

D. work and torque

 

Q. 34 The wave length of Lymen series for first number is

A. (4 x 1.097 x 10⁷)m/3

B. 3m/(4×1.097×10⁷)

C. 4m/(3×1.097×10⁷ )

D. (3/4)m x 1.097 x 10⁷

 

Q. 35 In the circuit shown, current flowing through 25 V cell is

A. 7.2 A

B. 10 A

C. 12 A

D. 14.2 A

 

Q. 36 Five sinusoidal waves have the same frequency 500Hz but their amplitudes are in the ratio 2 : 1/2 : 1/2 : 1: 1 and their phase angles 0,π/6,π/3,π/2, and respectively. The phase angle of resultant wave obtained by the super position of these five wave is:

A. 30⁰

B. 45⁰

C. 60⁰

D. 90⁰

 

Q. 37 The second overtone of an open pipe has the same frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe 2m long. The length of the open pipe is :

A. 8m

B. 4m

C. 2m

D. 1m

 

Q. 38 Let T₁ and T₂ be the time periods of springs A and B mass M is suspended from the series combination, the time period is T, then

A. T₁ + T₂ + T₃

B. 1/T = 1/T₁ + 1/T₂

C. T² = T₁² + T₂²

D. 1/T² = 1/T₁² + 1/T₂²

 

Q. 39 Alternating current cannot be measured by D.C. ammeter because

A. A.C. cannot pass through D.C. ammeter

B. A.C. changes direction

C. average value of current for complete cycle is zero

D. D.C.ammeter will get damaged

 

Q. 40 The core of any transformer is laminated so as to

A. reduce the energy loss due to eddy currents

B. make it light weight

C. make it robust and strong

D. increase the secondary voltage

 

Questions: 41 – 60

Directions: In the following questions(41-60), a statement of assertion(A) is followed by a statement of a reason (R). Mark the correct choice is:

a. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

b. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of reason

c. If assertion is true but reason is false

d. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 41 Assertion: Two balls of different masses are thrown vertically upward with same speed. They will pass though their point of projection in the downward direction with the same period.

Reason: The maximum height and downward velocity attained at the point of projection are independent of the mass of the ball.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 42 Assertion: In javelin throw, the athlete throws the projectile at an angle slightly more than 45⁰ .

Reason: The maximum range does not depend upon angle of projection.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 43 Assertion: The assertion weight of a body in an elevator moving with some downward acceleration is less than the actual weight weight of a body.

Reason: The part of the weight is spent in producing downward acceleration, when body is in elevator.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 44 Assertion: An electric field is preferred in comparison to magnetic field for detecting the electron beam in a television picture tube.

Reason: Electric field requires low voltage.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 45 Assertion : A horse has to pull a cart harder during the first few steps of his motion.

Reason: The first few steps are always difficult.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 46 Assertion : The magnetic poles of earth do not coincide with the geographic poles.

Reason: The discrepancy between the orientation of a compass and the true north-south

direction is known as magnetic declination.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 47 Assertion: Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature.

Reason : The electric and magnetic fields of an e.m wave are perpendicular to each other and also perpendicular to the direction of wave propogation.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 48 Assertion: A wheel moving down a perfectly frictionless inclined plane will undergo slipping (not rolling motion)

Reason: For perfect rolling motion, work done against friction is zero.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 49 Assertion: A hollow shaft is found to be stronger than a solid shaft made of same material.

Reason : The torque required to produce a given twist in hollow cylinder is greater than

that required to twist a solid cylinder of same size and material.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 50 Assertion : Water kept in an open vessel will quickly evaporate on the surface of the moon.

Reason : The temperature at the surface of the moon is much higher than boiling point of water.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 51 Assertion : A pure semiconductor has negative temperature coefficient of resistance.

Reason : On raising the temperature, more charge carriers are released, conductance

increases and resistance decreases.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 52 Assertion: At a fixed temperature, silicon will have a minimum conductivity when it has smaller acceptor doping.

Reason : The conductivity of an intrinsic semi conductor is slightly higher than that of a lightly doped p-type

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 53 Assertion : communication in UHF/VHF regions can be established by space wave or troposhpheric wave.

Reason: communication in UHF/VHF regions is limited to line of sight distance.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 54 Assertion : If objective and eye lenses of a microscope are interchanged then it can work as telescope.

Reason: The objective lens of telescope has small focal length.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 55 Assertion: If a proton and an alpha-particle enter a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly with a same speed the time period of revolution of alpha-particle is double that of proton.

Reason: In a magnetic field, the period of revolution of a changed particle is directly proportional to the mass of the particle and is inversely proportional to change of particle.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 56 Assertion: If momentum of a body increases by 50% its kinetic energy will increase by 125%.

Reason: Kinetic energy is proportional to square of velocity.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 57 Assertion : The difference between in the value of acceleration due to gravity at pole and equator is proportional to square of angular velocity.

Reason : The value of acceleration due to gravity is minimum at the equator and maximum at the pole.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 58 Assertion : It is advantageous to transmit electriv power at high voltage.

Reason: High voltage implies high current.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 59 Assertion : X-ray astronomy is possible only from satellites orbiting the earth.

Reason : Efficiency of x-rays telescope is large as compared to any other telescope.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 60 Assertion : The de broglie equation has significance for any microscopic or submicroscopic particles.

Reason : The de broglie wave lengths inversely proportional to the mass of the object if velocity is constant.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 61 Butter is an example of which type of colloid?

A. solid in liquid

B. liquid in solid

C. liquid in liquid

D. gas in liquid

 

Q. 62 What are constituents of misch metal?

A. La,Fe

B. La,Ce

C. Fe,Ce

D. Ce,Cu

 

Q. 63 For a 1st order reaction if concentration is doubled then rate of reaction becomes:

A. doubles

B. half

C. four times

D. remains same

 

Q. 64 In tetragonal crystal system,which of the following is not true?

A. All axial lengths and all axial angles are equal

B. all three axial length are equal

C. all three axial angles are equal

D. two axial angles are equal but the third is different

 

Q. 65 Which of the following is correct?

A. ionic radius is proportional to atomic number

B. ionic radius is inversely proportional to atomic mass

C. Ionic radius is inversely proportional to effective nuclear charge

D. all are correct

 

Q. 66 The strained tetracyclic alkane is isomerize thermally to the cyclic alkene. The reaction involves:

A. free radical

B. carbocation

C. carbanion

D. carbene

 

Q. 67 The product is:

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 68 For a reaction X → Y , the graph of the product concentration (x) versus time (t) came out to be a straight line passing through the origin. Hence the graph of -d[X]/dt and time would be:

A. straight line with a negative slope and intercept on y-axis

B. straight line with a positive slope and an intercept on y-axis

C. a straight line parallel to x-axis

D. a hyperbola

 

Q. 69 A factory produces 40 kg of calcium in two hours by electrolysis. How much a aluminium can be produced by same current in 2 hours if current efficiency is 50% ?

A. 22 kg

B. 18 kg

C. 9 kg

D. 27 kg

 

Q. 70 Equal weight of CO and CH₄ are mixed together in an empty container at 300K. The fraction of total pressure exerted by CH₄ is

A. 16/17

B. 7/11

C. 8/9

D. 5/16

 

Q. 71 Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

A. A-1,B-3,C-5,D-4

B. A-2,B-3,C-5,D-1

C. A-4,B-3,C-5,D-1

D. A-4,B-5,C-3,D-1

 

Q. 72 which of the following reactions does not yield an amine?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 73 The chemical name for melamine is :

A. 1,3,5-Triamino-2,4,6-triazine

B. 2,4,6-Triamino-1,3,5-triazine

C. 2-Amino-1,3,5-triazine

D. 2,4-Diamino-1,3,5-triazine

 

Q. 74 Bromine is added to cold the dilute aqueous solution of NaOH. The mixture is boiled. Which of the following statements is not true?

A. During the reaction bromine is present in four different oxidation states

B. The greatest difference between the various oxidation states of bromine is 5

C. on acidification of the final mixture bromine is formed

D. disproportionation of bromine occurs during the reaction

 

Q. 75 A complex PtCl₄ 5NH₃ shows a molar conductance of 402 ohm⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹ in water and precipitates three moles of AgCl with AgNO₃ solution. The formula of the complex is

A. [pt(NH₃)₆]Cl₄

B. [pt(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl₂

C. [Pt(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₃

D. [Pt(NH₃)₃Cl₃]Cl

 

Q. 76 using appropriate molar conductances of the electrolytes listed above at infinite dilution in H₂O at 25⁰ C

A. 517.2

B. 552.7

C. 390.7

D. 217.5

 

Q. 77 In the ground state of Cu, the number of shells occupied, sub shells occupied, filled orbitals and unpaired electrons respectively are:

A. 4,8,15,0

B. 3,6,15,1

C. 3,6,14,0

D. 4,7,14,2

 

Q. 78 Which of the following conditions is not correct for reasoning structures?

A. the contributing structures must have the same number unpaired electrons

B. the contributing structures should have similar energies

C. the contributing structures should be so written that unlike charges reside on atoms that are far apart

D. The positive charge should be present on the electro positive element and the negative charge on the electronegative element

 

Q. 79 CaO and NaCl have the same crystal structure and approximately the same ionic radii. If U is lattice energy of Nacl, the appropriate lattice energy of CaO is:

A. U/2

B. U

C. 2U

D. 4U

 

Q. 80 The phosphate of a metal has the formula MHPO₄. The formula of its chloride would be:

A. MCl

B. MCl₂

C. MCl₃

D. M₂Cl₃

 

Q. 81 Two flasks X and Y have capacity 1L and 2L respectively and each of them contains 1 mole of a gas. The temperature of the flasks are so adjusted that average speed of molecules in X is twice as those in Y.The pressure in flask X would be:

A. same as that Y

B. half of that in Y

C. twice of that in Y

D. 8 times of that Y

 

Q. 82 Match the list I and list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

A. A-5,B-1,C-2,D-4

B. A-5,B-3,C-2,D-4

C. A-3,B-5,C-2,D-1

D. A-5,B-3,C-2,D-1

 

Q. 83 What of the following sequence contains atomic number of only representative elements?

A. 55,12,48,53

B. 13,33,54,80

C. 3,33,53,87

D. 22,33,55,66

 

Q. 84 Which of the following contains atomic number of only representative elements?

A. 55, 12, 48, 53

B. 13, 33, 54, 80

C. 3, 33, 53, 87

D. 22, 33, 55, 66

 

Q. 85 100 cm³ of a given sample of H₂O₂ gives 1000 cm³ of O₂ at S.T.P. The given sample is :

A. 10% H₂O₂

B. 90% H₂O₂

C. 10 volume H₂O₂

D. 100 volume H₂O₂

 

Q. 86 Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many properties which are similar . But the two elements differ in:

A. maximum covalency in compounds

B. exhibiting atmospheric nature in their oxides

C. forming covalent halides

D. forming polymeric hydrides

 

Q. 87 Cyclohexene on ozonolysis followed by reaction with zinc dust and water gives compound E. Compound E further treatment with aqueous KOH yields compound F. Compound F is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 88 The product P will be:

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 89 The compound which on reaction with aqueous nitrous acid at low temperature produces an oily nitrosoamine is:

A. methyl amine

B. ethyl amine

C. diethyl amine

D. triethyl amine

 

Q. 90 Compound A (molecular formula C₃H₈O) is treated with acidified potassium dichromate to form a product B(molecular formula C₃H₆O). B forms a shining silver mirror on warming with ammoniacal silver nitrate. B when treated with an aqueous solution of H₂NCONHNH₂. HCl and sodium acetate gives a product C. Identify the structure of C.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 91 Assume that you are travelling at speed of 90km/h in a small car with a mass of 1050 kg. If the uncertainty in the velocity of the car is 1%(Δv=0.9 km/h), what is the uncertainty (in meters) in the position of the car?

A. Δx ≥1 x 10⁻³⁵m

B. Δx ≥2 x 10⁻³⁷m

C. Δx ≥2 x 10⁻³⁶m

D. Δx≥4 x 10⁻³m

 

Q. 92 When 25g of Na₂SO₄ is dissolved in 10³ kg of solution, its concentration will be:

A. 2.5 ppm

B. 25 ppm

C. 250 ppm

D. 100 ppm

 

Q. 93 Degree of unsaturation of A =2 , it contains no double or triple bonds.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 94 The shape and hybridisation of some xenon oxyfluorides are given. Choose the wrong set.

A. XeOF₂- T -shape-sp³d

B. XeOF₄-square pyramidal-sp³d²

C. XeO₂F₂-Distorted trigonal bipyramidal-sp³d

D. XeO₃F₂-Octahedral-sp³d

 

Q. 95 The standard half cell reduction potential for Ag’ I Ag is 0.7991 V at 25⁰ C . Given the experimental value K = 1.56 x 10 for AgCl, calculate the standard half cell potential for the Ag IAgCl electrode.

A. 0.2192 V

B. -0.2192 V

C. -1.2192 V

D. 1.2192 V

 

Q. 96 Which of the following acids will not evolve H₂ gas on reaction with alkali metals?

A. hydrazoic acids

B. perxenic acid

C. boric acid

D. none of these

 

Q. 97 The major product of the following reaction is:

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 98 Stomach acid, a dilute solution of HCl in water, can be neutralized by reaction with sodium hydrogen carbonate,how many millimeters of 0.125 M NaHCO₃ solution are needed to neutralize 18.0mL of 0.100 M HCl?

A. 14.4mL

B. 12.0mL

C. 14.0mL

D. 13.2mL

 

Q. 99 For the electrochemical cell, M I M⁺ II X⁻ I X , E(M⁺ I M) = 0.44 V and E⁰(X I X⁻) = 0.33 V. From this data one can deduce that

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 100 Which is optically inactive?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Questions: 101 – 120

Directions:In the following (101-120), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of a reason(R). Mark the correct choice as :

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) If the assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

(c) If assertion is true but reason is false

(d) If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 101 Assertion : Magnesium is extracted by the electrolysis of fused mixture of MgCl₂ NaCl and CaCl₂.

Reason : calcium chloride acts as a reducing agent.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 102 Assertion : The equilibrium constant is fixed and a characteristic any given chemical reaction at a specified temperature.

Reason : The composition of the final equilibrium mixture at a particular temperature

depends upon the starting amount of reactants.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 103 Assertion : PCl₅ is covalent in gaseous and liquid states but ionic in solid state. Reason : PCl₅ in solid state consists of tetrahedral PCl₄⁺ cation and octahedral PCl₆⁻ anion.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 104 Assertion : Zinc displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.

Reason : The E⁰ of zinc is -0.76 V and that of copper is + 0.34 V.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 105 Reason : Principle functional group gets lowest number followed by double bond or triple bond.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 106 Assertion : Helium has the highest value of ionisation energy among all the elements known.

Reason : Helium has the highest value of ionisation energy among all the elements known.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 107 Assertion : The nuclear isomers are the atoms with the same atomic number and same mass number , but with different radioactive properties.

Reason : The nucleus in the excited state will evidently have a different half-life as compared to that in a ground state.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 108 Assertion : Conductivity of silicon increases by doping it with group -15 elements.

Reason : Doping means introduction of small amount of impurities like P, As or Bi into the pure crystals.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 109 Assertion : The overall order of the reaction is the sum of the exponents of all the reactants in the rate expressions.

Reason : There are many higher order reactions.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 110 Assertion : Transition metals are poor reducing agents.

Reason : Transition metals form numerous alloys with other metals.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 111 Assertion : Aldol condensation can be catalysed both by acids and bases.

Reason : β-hydroxy aldehydes or ketones readily undergo acid catalysed dehydration.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 112 Assertion : The position of an element in periodic table after emission of the one α- and two β-particles remains unchanged.

Reason : Emission of one α- and two β-particles give isotope of the element which acquires same position in periodic table.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 113 Assertion : S.I unit of atomic mass and molecular mass in kilograms.

Reason : Atomic mass is equal to the mass of 6.023 x 10²⁴ atoms.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 114 Assertion : Bond energy and bond dissociation energy have identical value for diatomic molecules.

Reason : Greater the bond dissociation energy, less reactive is the bond.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 115 Assertion : The degree of complex formation in actinides decreases in the order M⁺⁴ > MO₂⁺² > M⁺³ > MO₂⁺

Reason : Actinides form complexes with π- bonding ligands such as alkyl phosphines and thioethers.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 116 Assertion : Benzene on heating with conc.HSO gives benzene sulphonic acid which when heated with superheated steam under pressure gives benzene.

Reason : Sulphonation is a reversible process.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 117 Assertion : The molarity of the solution does not change with change in temperature.

Reason : The molarity is expressed in units of moles per 1000 g of solvent.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 118 Assertion : Due to Frenkel defect, density of the crystalline solid decreases.

Reason : In Frenkel defect, cation or anion leaves the crystal.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 119 Assertion : is named as tetrakis (ethylene-diammine) μ- hydroxo-μ -midodicobalt(III) ion.

Reason : In naming polynulear complexes i.e.,containing two or more metal atoms joined by briging ligands, the word μ is added with hyphen before the name of such ligands.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 120 Assertion : 2,3 – Dimethyl but-2-ene is more stable than but-2-ene.

Reason : Six hyper conjugation structures can be written for 2,3-dimethyl but-2-ene while but-2-ene has twelve.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 121 Vitamin B₆ is also called as

A. thiamine

B. pantothenic acid

C. pyridoxine

D. retinol

 

Q. 122 Protista differs monera in having

A. cell wall

B. autotrophic nutrition

C. flagella

D. nuclear membrane

 

Q. 123 What does ‘T’ stands for in DTP for in DTP vaccine?

A. tuberculosis

B. autotrophic nutrtion

C. trachoma

D. tetanus

 

Q. 124 Why are vascular bundles closed in monocots?

A. xylem and phloem are present

B. xylem and phloem occur in separate bundles

C. vascular and cambium is separate between xylem and phloem

D. vascular cambium is not present

 

Q. 125 Who invented electron microscope?

A. Janssen

B. edison

C. knoll and ruska

D. landsteiner

 

Q. 126 What do A,B,C,D represent in the following figure?

A. A: carrier protein, B : symport, C : uniport, D : antiport

B. A: carrier protein,B: uniport,C: antiport,D:symport

C. A:carrier protein,B:antiport,C:symport,D:uniport

D. A:carrier protein,B:uniport, C: symport,D:antiport

 

Q. 127 Gametophyte and sporophyte are independent of each other in which of the following groups?

A. pteridophytes

B. anangiosperms

C. gymnosperms

D. bryophytes

 

Q. 128 Which of the following is correct?

A. paneth cells secrete pepsiniogen

B. parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid

C. argentaffin cells secrete mucus

D. chief cells secrete gastrin

 

Q. 129 Which of the following has highest diversity in India?

A. mango

B. dolphin

C. tiger

D. orchids

 

Q. 130 Which of the following is correct about the given figure?

A. the length of the thick and thin myofilaments has changes

B. length of both anisotropic and isotropic band has changed

C. the myosin cross-bridges move on the surface of actin and the thin and thick myofilaments slide past each other

D. length of the sarcomere remains same

 

Q. 131 Which of the following disorders are caused due to recessive autosomal mutations?

A. turners’s syndrome and sickle cell anaemia

B. Edward’s syndrome and Down’s syndrome

C. cystic fibrosis and phenylketonuria

D. Alzheimer’s disease and Huntington’s chorea

 

Q. 132 What is correct about the movement of substance across the membrane in facilitated diffusion?

A. it is an active transport

B. it doesn’t cause transport of molecules from low concentration to high concentration

C. it is insensitive to inhibitors

D. it is a very specific transport

 

Q. 133 Which one is correct?

A. salmonella typhi and haemophilus influence cause pneumonia

B. widal test is done for malaria

C. entamoea histolytica causes amoebiasis

D. wucheria causes enterobiasis

 

Q. 134 What is greek word for ecology?

A. ethology

B. oekologie

C. synecology

D. hexicology

 

Q. 135 Which of the following is correct regarding genetic code?

A. UUU is the initiation codon which also codes for phenylalanine

B. there are 64 triplet codons and only 20 amino acids

C. three random nitrogen bases specify the placement of one amino acid

D. UAA is the non sense codon which also codes methionine

 

Q. 136 The given figure shows L.S of the seed of maize, What do A,B,C and D represent?

A. A:endosperm, B:scutellum, C:plumule,D:coleoptile

B. A:scutellum,B:pericarp,C:radicle,D:coleoptile

C. A:endosperm,B:scutellum,C:radicle,D:coleorrhiza

D. A:scutellum,B:pericarp,C:plumule,D:coleorrhiza

 

Q. 137 Refer the given figures on photoperiodism and select the correct opinion:

A. A-no correlation between light period and flowering B-long light exposure period Cshort light exposure period

B. A-long light exposure period, B-no correlation between light period and flowering Cshort light exposure period

C. A-short light exposure period, B-long light exposure, C-no correlation between light period and flowering

D. A-no correlation between exposure light period and flowering,B-short light exposure period,C-long light exposure period

 

Q. 138 What are singer and nicolson known for?

A. one-gene-one-enzyme hypothesis

B. plasma membrane modifications

C. fluid-mosaic model of plasma membrane

D. structure of DNA

 

Q. 139 Select the correct statement.

A. Acetobacter aceti produces citric acid

B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used as clot buster

C. penicillium notatum restrict thje growth of staphylococci

D. methanogens are found in aerobic conditions

 

Q. 140 Which of the following disease is also called chritistmas disease?

A. sickle-cell anaemia

B. haemoglobinunuria

C. myocardial infarction

D. haemophilia -B

 

Q. 141 Which of the following is correct ?

A. all fungi are filamentous

B. transfer of DNA from one bacteria to another bacteria cannot take place

C. Virus cannot have both DNA and RNA

D. protists reproduce asexually only

 

Q. 142 Which of the following have porous body and are diploblastic?

A. Aurelia and obelia

B. Adamsia and Euplectella

C. lenucosolenia and spongilla

D. sycon and hydra

 

Q. 143 CD-4 receptor is associated with

A. AIDS

B. cancer

C. malaria

D. pneumonia

 

Q. 144 Which one is orrect regarding electrocardigraph (ECG)?

A. P-wave represents the electrical excitation of the ventricle

B. QRS complex represents repolarisation of the ventricles

C. T-wave represnts repolarisation of the atria

D. by counting the number of QRS complexes one can determine the pulse rate

 

Q. 145 Animals take phosphorous from

A. water

B. plants

C. rock

D. soil

 

Q. 146 What is the effect of GnRH produced by hypothalamus?

A. stimulate the synthesis asnd secretion of androgens

B. stimulates secretion of milk in mammary glands

C. stimulate foetal ejection reflex

D. stimulates synthesis of carbohydrates from non-carbohydrates in liver

 

Q. 147 Chemosensitive area of respiratory centre in medulla is affected by:

A. less CO₂ and H⁺ ions

B. less O₂ and H⁺ ions

C. excess CO₂ and H⁺ ions

D. excess O₂ and H⁺ ions

 

Q. 148 what do A,B,C and D represent?

A. A-infundibulum,B-fertilization,C-myometrium,D-morula

B. A-infundibulum,B-fertilization,C-myometrium,D-blastocyst

C. A-isthmus,B-fertilization,C-myometrium,D-blastocyst

D. A-isthmus,B-fertilization,C-endometrium,D-morula

 

Q. 149 Microvilli of intestinal epithelium are similar in function with:

A. typhlosole in earthworm

B. hepatic caecae in cockroach

C. intenstinal caecum in earth worm

D. malpighian tubules in cockroach

 

Q. 150 The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and bronchi are known as:

A. squamous epithelium

B. ciliated epithelium

C. columnar epithelium

D. cubical epithelium

 

Q. 151 cyclic photo phosphorylation involves:

A. PS I

B. PS II

C. PS I and PS II

D. PS₆₈ᵤ

 

Q. 152 Which animal has the longest gestation period?

A. shark

B. walrus

C. elephant

D. dog

 

Q. 153 What is a plasmid?

A. bacterial, linear,dsDNA

B. extrachromosomal linear RNA

C. ectrachromosomal circular dsDNA

D. autonomously replicating circular RNA

 

Q. 154 The concept of chemical evolution is based on

A. interaction of water,air and clay under intense heat

B. effect of solar radiation on chemicals

C. possible origin of life by combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions

D. crystallization of chemicals

 

Q. 155 Which of the following is a correct match between crop, variety and resistance to diseases?

A. crop-wheat,variety-himgiri,resistance to diseases-white rust

B. crop-brassica,variety-pusa sadabahar,resistance to disease-black rot

C. crop-cowpea,variety-pusa komal, resistance to diseases-bacterial blight

D. crop-chilli,variety-pusa swarnim, resistance to diseases-chilly mosaic virus

 

Q. 156 Recombinant DNA technology involves several steps in which initial step is of isolation of the DNA.Which enzymes are used in the process for the vreak down of fungal cell,plant cell and bacterial cell respectively?

A. lysozyme, lipases, trypsin

B. chitinase, cellulase, lysozyme

C. chitinase, cellulase, trypsin

D. tripsin, lipases, cellulase

 

Q. 157 The taxon which includes related species is

A. class

B. order

C. family

D. genus

 

Q. 158 Match the following columns and select the correct option:

A. A-(ii), B-(v),C-(i),D-(iii),E-(iv)

B. A-(iv), B-(i),C-(v),D-(iii),E-(ii)

C. A-(ii), B-(v),C-(iii),D-(i),E-(iv)

D. A-(iv), B-(i),C-(v),D-(ii),E-(iii)

 

Q. 159 Which of the following is correct regarding HIV, hepatitis B, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis?

A. trichomoniasis is a STD whereas other are not

B. gonorrhoea is a viral disease whereas others are bacterial

C. HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases

D. Hepatitis B is eradicated completely whereas others are not

 

Q. 160 The first stable product of calvin cycle is

A. 3-phopsphoglycerate

B. 1,3 biphosphoglycerate

C. glyceraldehyde-3 phosphate

D. ribulose – 5 – phosphate

 

Questions: 161 – 180

Directions: In the following questions(161-180),a statement of assertion(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

(c) if assertion is true but reason is false

(d)if both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 161 Assertion : Adernaline is called an emergency harmone.

Reason: It acts on the cells of skeletal, cardiac, smooth muscles, blood vessels and fat cells.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 162 Assertion : cork prevents the loss of water by evaporation.

Reason : cork cells contain tannins.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 163 Assertion : In cockroach respiratory gases directly comes in contact with the various organs of the body.

Reason : Cockroaches do not have respiratory pigment

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 164 Assertion : interferons are antiviral proteins.

Reason : Interferons are secreted by virus infected cells.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 165 Assertion : while on going down the loop of henle, the filtrate becomes hypotonic.

Reason : The descending limb of loop of henle is impermeable to both water and electrolytes.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 166 Assertion: Shrinkage of the protoplast of a cell occurs under the influence of hypertonic solution.

Reason : Hypertonic solution causes plasmolysis.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 167 Assertion : In breeding produces pureline.

Reason : It causes homozygosity.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 168 Assertion : parturition is induced by neural signal in meternal pituitary.

Reason: At the end of gestation period, the maternal pituitary release prolactin which causes uterine contractions.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 169 Assertion : Commelina shows cleistogamy.

Reason : This reduces chances of inbreeding.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 170 Assertion : antirrhinum is a good example to understand incomplete dominance.

Reason : Heterozygotes show characteristics of both the alleles.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 171 Assertion : presence of large amounts of nutrients in water body causes excessive growth of planktonic algae.

Reason : It is due to planktonic algae.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 172 Assertion : bile is essential for the digestion of lipids.

Reason : bile juice contains enzymes bilirubin and biliverdin.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 173 Assertion : emphysema is a chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged.

Reason : emphysema is closely related to cigaretta smoking.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 174 Assertion : DNA finger printing involves identifying differences in specific regions in DNA sequence.

Reason : DNA fingerprinting is the basis of peternity testing.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 175 Assertion : all pathogens are parasites but all parasites are not pathogens.

Reason : majority of the parasites confer benefits to the host.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 176 Assertion : due to pollution atmospheric concentration of CO₂ is increasing which will be harmful for C₄ plants whereas productive for C₃ plants.

Reason : C₄ plants have greater efficiency for CO₂ as CO₂ is fixed by PEP oxygenase.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 177 Assertion : insulin is antagonistic to glucagon.

Reason : It is an anabolic harmone.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 178 Assertion : auditory ossicles are small bones present in the cavity of inner car.

Reason : Auditory ossicles maintain the balance of air pressure between two sizes of ear drum.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 179 Assertion : pharyngeal nephridia play a role in the conservation of water in the earthworm. Reason : they help the earthworm in keeping the skin moist for cutaneous respiration.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 180 Assertion : pantothenic acid defeciency is probably the most common vitamin deficiency.

Reason : Macrocytic anaemia is a characteristic feature of pantothenic acid deficiency.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 181 Which country has three capitals?

A. S.Africa

B. switzerland

C. netherland

D. australia

 

Q. 182 which is the largest desert in the world?

A. atacama

B. thar

C. sahara

D. kalahri

 

Q. 183 Which is the largest lake in the world?

A. caspian sea

B. wular

C. lake superior

D. baikal

 

Q. 184 which country has won ‘Fifa world cup’ maximum times?

A. germany

B. brazil

C. france

D. italy

 

Q. 185 ‘world population day’ is on

A. 8th marh

B. 21st march

C. 11th july

D. 3rd october

 

Q. 186 who invented the stethescope?

A. reni laennec

B. hopkins

C. louis pasteur

D. hausen

 

Q. 187 which country has largest number of coal reserves?

A. USA

B. russia

C. china

D. india

 

Q. 188 What term is given to the relationship between culture and food?

A. astronomy

B. agronomy

C. gastronomy

D. geology

 

Q. 189 one-rupee note bears the signature of the

A. governor of reserve bank

B. finance ministry

C. secretary, ministry of finance

D. president of india

 

Q. 190 Which of the following classical dance forms originated in Andhra Pradesh?

A. bharatnatyam

B. kathakali

C. kuchipudi

D. odissi

 

Q. 191 on adding salt to water, the boiling point and freezing point of water will:

A. increases

B. increase and decrease respectively

C. decrease

D. decrease and increase respectively

 

Q. 192 chocolates can be bad for health because of a high contentof

A. cobalt

B. nickel

C. zinc

D. lead

 

Q. 193 The novel coolie is written by

A. R.k.Narayan

B. prem chand

C. jainendra kumar

D. mulk raj anand

 

Q. 194 Beirut is the capital of :

A. syria

B. jordan

C. lebanon

D. libya

 

Q. 195 The first month of saka year is

A. vaisakh

B. chaitra

C. jyeshtha

D. paush

 

Q. 196 chameli devi award is given to an outstanding woman who is a:

A. vocalist

B. lawyer

C. journalist

D. scientist

 

Q. 197 “olive branch” is a sign of

A. war

B. peace

C. defeat

D. conquest

 

Q. 198 800 in roman number is written as

A. DDCC

B. DDDC

C. DCCC

D. DCCD

 

Q. 199 santosh trophy is associated with

A. hockey

B. cricket

C. badminton

D. football

 

Q. 200 Which river carries maximum quantity of water in the world?

A. nile

B. amazon

C. thames

D. missisippi

 

Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer B C A C B D C B C C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer A C A C C B B A A C
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer C A A B C B C A D B
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer A C B A C B B C C A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A D B D C A A B A A
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer A C B D A A B C C A
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer C B A C C A C C C B
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer C C B B C C C C D B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer D D C C C A A A C A
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B B A D A D B A B B
Question 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer C B A A C A B C B B
Question 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer A D B B B A A D A C
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer C D D D C A A B A C
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer C D C B B C A C C D
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer C C A D B A C B C B
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer A C C C C B D B C A
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer B B A A D A A D C C
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer C D A B C C A D C D
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer A C A B C A A C C C
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer B D D C B C B C D B

 

AIIMS UG 2009 Previous Year Paper

AIIMS UG 2009

Section

Questions

Marks

Physics

60 Questions (1 – 60)

60

Chemistry

60 Questions (61 – 120)

60

Biology

60 Questions (121 – 180)

60

General Knowledge

20 Questions (181 – 200)

20

Question: 1 A convex lens of refractive index 3/2 has a power of 2.5 D in air. It is placed in liquid of refractive index 2 then the new power of the lens is

A. -1.25 D

B. -1.5 D

C. 1.25 D

D. 1.5 D

 

Q. 2 What is the ratio of Bohr magneton to the nuclear magneton ?

A. mᵣ/mₑ

B. mᵣ²/mₑ²

C. 1

D. mₑ/mᵣ

 

Q. 3 When the inputs of a 2 input logic gate are 0 and 0 and the output is 1.When the inputs are 1 and 0 the output is 0 . The type of logic gate is

A. XOR

B. NAND

C. NOR

D. OR

 

Q. 4 de broglie wavelength λ associated with neutrons is related with absolute temperature T as

A. λ∝T

B. λ∝1/T

C. λ∝1/√T

D. λ∝T²

 

Q. 5 The dimensions of a specific resistance are :

A. ML²T⁻²A⁻¹

B. ML³T⁻³A⁻²

C. ML³T⁻²A⁻¹

D. ML²T⁻²A⁻²

 

Q. 6 Reciprocal if impedance is

A. Susceptance

B. conductance

C. admittance

D. transconductance

 

Q. 7 A nucleas of mass number 220 decays by α decay. The energy released in the reaction is 5 mev.The kinetic energy of α particle is :

A. 1/54 Mev

B. 22/11 Mev

C. 54/11 Mev

D. 55/54 Mev

 

Q. 8 Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square as shown in the figure .The direction of the electric field at the centre of the square is along

A. DC

B. BC

C. AB

D. AD

 

Q. 9 The wavelengths of kₐ x-rays for lead isotopes Pb²⁰⁸ Pb²⁰⁶ and Pb ²⁰⁴ are λ₁ λ₂ and λ₃

respectively . Then

A. λ₂ =√λ₁λ₃

B. λ₂ =λ₁+λ₃

C. λ₂ =λ₁λ₃

D. λ₂ =λ₁/λ₃

 

 

Q. 10 A force F acting on an object varies with distance x as shown in the figure . The force is in N and x is m . The work done by the force to move the object from x-=0 to x=6 m is

A. 13.5 J

B. 10J

C. 15 J

D. 20 J

 

Q. 11 Which of the following graph depicts spring constant K versus length L of the spring correctly ?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 12 A body of mass 5 kg moving with a speed 1.5 m/s on a horizontally smooth surface collides with nearly weightless spring of force constant k= 5 N/m. The maximum compression of the spring would be

A. 0.5 m

B. 0.15 m

C. 1.5 m

D. 1.12 m

 

Q. 13 A body is moved along a straight line by a machine delivering constant power.The distance travelled by a body in the time t is proportional to

A. t¹⁄2

B. t

C. t³⁄2

D. t²

 

Q. 14 Light with an energy flux of 18W/cm^2 falls on non reflecting surface at normal incidence .The pressure exerted on the surface is

A. 2 N/M²

B. 2×10⁻⁴N/M²

C. 6N/M²

D. 6×10⁻⁴ N/M²

 

Q. 15 The dimensional formula of Plancks constant is :

A. ML²T⁻¹

B. ML²T⁻²

C. ML⁰T²

D. MLT²

 

Q. 16 A body is projected horizontally with a velocity of 4√2 m/sec. The velocity of the body after 0.7 sec will be nearly.

A. 10 m/sec

B. 9 m /sec

C. 19 m /sec

D. 11 m/sec

 

Q. 17 Three equal weights of 3 kg each are hanging on a string passing over a frictionless pulley as shown in the figure .The tension in the string between masses II and III will be

A. 5 N

B. 6 N

C. 10 N

D. 20 N

 

Q. 18 A ball is bouncing down a set of stairs. the coefficient of restitution is e. the height of each step is d and the ball bounces one step at each bounce. after each bounce the ball rebounds to a height h above the next lower step.The height is large enough compared with the width of step so that the impacts are effectively head on .Find the relationship between h and d .

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 19 A conducting sphere of radius R carrying charge Q lies inside the uncharged conducting shell of radius 2R.IF they are joined by metal wire the amount of heat that will be produced is

A. 1/4∐εₒ( Q²/4R)

B. 1/4∐εₒ( Q²/2R)

C. 1/4∐εₒ( Q²/R)

D. 2/4∐εₒ( Q²/3R)

 

Q. 20 Black holes in orbit around a normal star are detected from the earth due to the frictional heating of infalling gas into the blackhole,which can reach temperature greater than 10⁶K. Assuming that the infalling gas can be modelled as a blackbody radiator , the wavelength of maximum power is

A. in the invisible region

B. in the x ray region

C. in the microwave region

D. in the gamma ray region in electromagnetic spectrum

 

Q. 21 Neglecting the density of air, the terminal velocity obtained by a raindrop of radius 0.3 mm falling through air of viscosity 1.8 x lO-s N s m2 will be

A. 10.9 m s⁻¹

B. 7.48 m s⁻¹

C. 3.7 m s⁻¹

D. 12.8m s⁻¹

 

Q. 22 A particle executes simple harmonic motion of period T and amplitude I along a rod AB of length •2L. The rod AB itself executes simple harmonic motion of the same period and amplitude in a direction perpendicular to its length. Initially, both the particle and the rod are in their mean positions. The path traced out by the particle will be

A. a circle of radius I

B. a straight line inclined at∐/4 to the rod

C. an ellipsea

D. figure of eight

 

Q. 23 What is the energy stored in the capacitor between terminals a and b of the network shown . in the figure? (Capacitance of each capacitance c = 1μF)

A. 12.5 μJ

B. 0 μJ

C. 25 μJ

D. 50 μJ

 

Q. 24 When a current is passed in a conductor, 3°C rise in temperature is observed. If the

strength of current is made thrice, then rise in temperature will approximately be

A. 36 °C

B. 27°C

C. 18°C

D. 9°C

 

Q. 25 In a metal with positive Thomson coefficient, current is passed from the lower temperature to higher temperature side. Then heat will be

A. absorbed

B. constant

C. evolved

D. either b or c

 

Q. 26 A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance of 900 Q. In order to send only 10% of the main current through this galvanometer, the resistance of the required shunt is

A. 0.9.Q

B. 100 Q

C. 405 Q

D. 90 Q

 

Q. 27 A current 11 carrying wire AB is placed near another long wire CD carrying current l₂ If wire AB is free to move, it will have

A. rotational motion only

B. translational motion only

C. rotational as well as translational motion

D. neither rotational nor translational motion

 

Q. 28 A coil of wire of a certain radius has 100 turns and a self inductance of 15 mH: The self inductance of a second similar coil of 500 turns will be

A. 75 mH

B. 375 mH

C. 15 mH

D. none of these

 

Q. 29 In a series LCR circuit the voltage across the resistance, capacitance and inductance is 10 V each. If the capacitance is short circuited the voltage across the inductance will be

A. 10 v

B. 10√2 v

C. 10/√2 v

D. 20 v

 

Q. 30 If Vₐ Vₓ and Vᵣn are the speeds of gamma rays, X-rays and microwaves respectively in vacuum, then.

A. Vₐ >Vₓ > Vᵣn

B. Vₐ < Vₓ < Vᵣn

C. Vₐ >Vₓ > Vᵣn

D. Vₐ = Vₓ = Vᵣn

 

Q. 31 Which out of following, cannot produce two coherent sources?

A. Lloyd’s mirror

B. Fresnel biprism

C. Young’s double slit

D. Prism

 

Q. 32 In Young’s double slit experiment, the two slits act as coherent sources of equal amplitude a and of wavelength λ. In another experiment with the same set up, the two slits are sources of equal amplitude a and wavelength A, but are incoherent. The ratio of intensities of light at the mid point of the screen in the first case to that in the second case is

A. 2:1

B. 1:2

C. 3:4

D. 4:3

 

Q. 33 If the kinetic energy of a particle is increased by 16 times, the percentage change in the de Broglie wavelength of the particle is

A. 25%

B. 75%

C. 60%

D. 50%

 

Q. 34 If the half lives of a radioactive element for α and β decay are 4 years and 12 years

respectively, the ratio of its inital activity and that after 12 years will be

A. 6.25%

B. 12.5%

C. 25%

D. 50%

 

Q. 35 In the given circuit, the potential difference between A and B is

A. 0

B. 5 volt

C. 10 volt

D. 15 volt

 

Q. 36 A ball is suspended by a thread of length L at the point O on a wall which is inclined to the vertical by α. The thread with the ball is displaced by a small angle β away from the vertical and also away from the wall. If the ball is released, the period of oscillation of the pendulum when β> α.will be

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 37 A radioactive nucleus is being produced at a constant rate α per second. Its decay constant is λ .If N₀ re the number of nuclei at time t = 0, then the maximum number of nuclei possible are

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 38 Awire of length 1 and mass m is bent in the form of a semicircle. The gravitational field intensity at the centre of semicircle is

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 39 In a concave mirror, an object is placed at a distance d1 from the focus and the image is formed at a distance dz from the focus. Then the focal length of the mirror is

A. √d₁d₂

B. d₁d₂

C. (d₁+d₂)/2

D. √d₁/d₂

 

Q. 40 A short linear object, of length I, lies along the axis of a concave mirror, of focal length f, at a distance d from the pole of the mirror. The size of the image is then (nearly)

A. lf/(d-f)

B. (d-f)/lf

C. l(f²)/(d-f)²

D. (d-f)²/l(f²)

 

Questions: 41 – 60

In the following questions (41·60), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as :

 

Q. 41 Assertion: Liquid molecules have greater potential energy at the melting point.

Reason : Intermolecular spacing between molecules increases at melting point.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 42 Assertion: The bob of a simple pendulum is a ball full of water, if a fine hole is made in the bottom of the ball, the time period first increases and then decreases.

Reason : As water flows out of the bob the weight of bob decreases

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 43 Assertion: Electric potential of earth is taken zero.

Reason : No electric field exists on earth surface.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 44 Assertion: A charge, whether stationary or in motion produces a magnetic field around it.

Reason : Moving charges produce only electric. field in the surrounding space.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 45 Assertion: Magnetic susceptibillity is a pure number.

Reason : The value of magnetic susceptibility • for vacuum is one.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 46 Assertion: Transformers are used only in alternating current source not in direct current.

Reason : Only a.c, can be stepped up or down by means of transformers.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 47 Assertion: A total reflecting prism is used to erect the inverted image without deviation

Reason : Rays of light incident parallel to base of prism emerge out as parallel rays.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 48 Assertion: The edges of the images of white object formed by a concave mirror on the screen appear white.

Reason : Concave mirror does not suffer chromatic aberration.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 49 Assertion: A photon has no rest mass, yet it carries definite momentum.

Reason : Momemtum of photon is due to its energy and hence its equivalent mass.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 50 Assertion: A photocell is called an electric eye.

Reason : When light is incident on some semiconductor its electrical resistance is reduced.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 51 Assertion: Nuclei having number about 60 are most stable.

Reason : When two or more light nuclei are combined into a heavier nucleus, then the

binding energy per nucleon will increase.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 52 Assertion: The edges of the images of white object formed by a concave mirror on the screen appear white.

Reason : Concave mirror does not suffer chromatic aberration.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 53 Assertion : Most amplifiers use common emitter circuit configuration.

Reason : Its input resistance is comparatively higher.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 54 Assertion: For an isothermal process in an ideal gas, the heat obsorbed by the gas is entirely used in the work done by the gas.

Reason : During a process taking place in a system, the temperature remains constant

then the process is isothermal.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 55 Assertion: When hot water is poured in a beaker of thick glass, the beaker cracks.

Reason : Outer surface of the beaker expands suddenly.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 56 Assertion; Generally the path of a projectile from the earth is parabolic but it is elliptical for projectiles going to a very great height.

Reason : Up to ordinary height the projectile moves under a uniform gravitational force,

but for great heights, projectile moves under a variable force.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 57 Assertion: Angular speed of a planet around the sun increases, when it is closer to the sun.

Reason : Total angular momentum of the system remains constant.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 58 Assertion: The size and shape of the rigid body remains unaffected under the effect of external forces.

Reason : The distance bet”veen two particles remains constant in a rigid body.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 59 Assertion: Impulsive force is large and acts for a short time.

Reason : Finite change in momentum should be produced by the force.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 60 Assertion: The dimensional formula for product of resistance and conductance is same as for dielectric constant.

Reason : Both have dimensions of time constant.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 61 KF combines with HF to form KHF2 . This compound contains the species

A. K⁺ F⁻ and H⁺

B. K⁺ F⁻ and HF

C. K⁺ and (HF₂)⁻

D. (KHF)⁺ and F₂

 

Q. 62 For a dilute solution, Raoult’s law states that

A. the relative lowering of vapour pressure is proportional to the amount of solute in solution

B. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solute

C. The lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute

D. the vapour pressure of the solution is equal to the mole fraction of the solvent

 

Q. 63 To a 25 ml H₂O₂ olution, excess of acidified solution of KI was added. The iodine liberated required 20 ml of 0.3 N Na₂S₂O₃ solution.The volume strength of H₂O₂ solution is

A. 1.344 g/L

B. 3.244 g/L

C. 5.4 g/L

D. 4.08 g/L

 

Q. 64 Which of the following shows bond in silicone?

A. Si-C-Si-C-Si

B. si-si-si-si

C. Si-O-Si-O-Si

D. Si-C-Si-0-Si

 

Q. 65 pH of a 0.01 M solution (Kₐ=6.6 ×10⁻⁴)

A. 7.6

B. 8

C. 2.6

D. 5

 

Q. 66 In a homogenous reaction A −> B + C + D the initial pressure was Po and after time t it was • P. Expression for rate constant k in terms of Po pand t will be

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 67 Which curve corresponds to the temperature dependance of the rate R of a simple one step reaction?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 68 A vessel of one litre capacity containing 1 mole of S03 is heated till a state of equilibrium is attained. At equilibrium, 0.6 moles of SO2 had formed. The value of equilibrium constant is

A. 0.18

B. 0.36

C. 0.45

D. 0.68

 

Q. 69 A 0.1 molal solution of an acid is 4.5% ionized. Calculate freezing point. (molecular weight of the acid is 300). Kf = 1.86 K mol⁻¹ kg.

A. -0.199°C

B. 2.00°C

C. 0°C

D. -0.269°C

 

Q. 70 Which of the following is an example of chain silicates?

A. Kaolinite

B. Zircon

C. Benitonite

D. Diopside

 

Q. 71 Which of the element shows +4 oxidation state?

A. Sn

B. Ra

C. Fr

D. Sc

 

Q. 72 Tincture of iodine is

A. aqueous solution of I₂

B. solution of I₂ in aqueous K

C. alcoholic solution of I₂

D. aqueous solution of KI

 

Q. 73 The specific conductance of a N/10 KCI at 25°C is 0.0112 ohm⁻¹ cm⁻¹The resistance of cell containing solution at the same temperature was found to be 55 ohm. The cell constant will be

A. 6.16 cm⁻¹

B. 0.616 cm⁻¹

C. 0.0616 cm⁻¹

D. 616 cm⁻¹

 

Q. 74 Decreasing order of stability of ions is

 

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 75 What is A?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 76 What is B?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 77 What is D?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 78 Mercurous chloride exists in the form of

A. Hg⁺

B. Hg²⁺

C. Hg₂²⁺

D. Hg₃²⁺

 

Q. 79 Formula of microcosmic salt is

A. Na₂HPO₄

B. Na(NH₄)HPO₄

C. K₂HPO₄

D. Na₂PO₄ . K₂PO₄

 

Q. 80 What is the molarity of H₂SO₄ solution that has a density of 1.84 g/cc at 35°C and contains 98% by weight?

A. 4.18 M

B. 8.14 M

C. 18.4 M

D. 18 M

 

Q. 81 A mixture of two miscible liquids A and B is distilled under equilibrium conditions at 1 atm pressure. The mole fraction of A in solution and vapour phase are 0.30 and 0.60 respectively. Assuming ideal behaviour of the solution and the vapour, calculate the ratio of the vapour pressure of pure A to that of pure B.

A. 4.0

B. 3.5

C. 2.5

D. 1.85

 

Q. 82 The variation of volume V, with temperature T, keeping pressure constant is called the coefficient of thermal expansion (a) of a gas. i.e. α= 1/V(∂Y/∂T)ₓ. For an ideal gas α is equal to :

A. T

B. 1/T

C. P

D. 1/P

 

Q. 83 The molecules having the same hybridization, shape and number of lone pairs of electrons are

A. SeF₄, XeO₂F₂

B. SF₄, XeF₂

C. XeOF₄, TeF₄

D. XeCl₄, XeF₄

 

Q. 84 The correct order of stability of the superoxides is

A. KO₂ > RbO₂ > CsO₂

B. KO₂ > CsO₂ > RbO₂

C. CsO₂ > RbO₂ > KO₂

D. RbO₂ > CsO₂ > KO₂

 

Q. 85 Schottky defect in crystals is observed when

A. unequal number cations and anions are missing from the lattice

B. equal number of cations and anions are missing from the lattice

C. an ion leaves its normal site and occupies an interstitial site

D. density of the crystal is increased

 

Q. 86 Consider the reaction

The correct explanation is

A. The product is formed due to nucleophilic substitution

B. The product is formed according to Saytzeff’s rule

C. The product is formed according to Saytzeff’s rule

D. (CH₃)₃CO⁻ is a better leaving group

 

Q. 87 2.5 g of the carbonate of a metal was treated with 100ml of IN H2S04, After the completion of the reaction, the solution was boiled off to expel CO2 and was then titrated against IN NaOH solution. The volume of alkali that would be consumed, if the equivalent weight of the metal is 20

A. 50

B. 25

C. 75

D. 100

 

Q. 88 In solvents like DMSO, acetonitrile, F⁻ ion of dissolved NaF is more reactive than in methyl alcohol. Explain

A. CH₃OH is more polar than DMSO and CH₃CN

B. CH₃OH is less polar than DMSO and CH₃CN

C. unsolved F⁻ ion is DMSO or CH₃CN acts more efficiently as nucleophile

D. -OH group is a better leaving group than F -ion

 

Q. 89 Which of the following fluorides has the lowest melting point?

A. BaF₂

B. SrF₂

C. CaF₂

D. BeF₂

 

Q. 90 Which of the following has the highest tendency to give the reaction

A. Na

B. Li

C. K

D. Rb

 

Q. 91 How many geometrical isomers are possible in the following two alkanes ?

(i) CH3 – CH =CH – CH = CH – CH3

(ii) CH3-CH= CH -CH = CH -Cl

A. 4 and 4

B. 4 and 3

C. 3 and 3

D. 3 and 4

 

Q. 92 The equilibrium constant for mutarotation α-D Glucose ⇔ β-D Glucose 1.8. What

percentage of α form remains at equilibrium?

A. 35.7

B. 64.3

C. 55.6

D. 44.4

 

Q. 93 2-phenylethylbromide when heated with NaOEt, elimination takes place. No deuterium exchange takes place when the reaction is carried out in C₂H₅OD solvent. The mechanism will be

A. E1 elimination

B. E2 elimination

C. E1cB elimination

D. E2 or E1cB

 

Q. 94 The M – O – M bond angles in M₂O (where M is halogen) is in the order

A. Br₂O > Cl₂O > F₂O

B. F₂O > Br₂O > Cl₂O

C. F₂O > Cl₂O > Br₂O

D. Cl₂O > F₂O > Br₂O

 

Q. 95 Hydroflouric acid is a weak acid. At 25°C, the molar conductivity of 0.002 M HF is 176.2 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹. If its Λ°m = 405.2 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹. Equilibrium constant at the given concentration is

A. 6.7 x 10⁻⁴ M

B. 3.2 x 10⁻⁴ M

C. 6.7 x 10⁻⁵ M

D. 3.2 x 10⁻⁵ M

 

Q. 96 In Oppenauer’s oxidation,

A. secondary alcohol is oxidised to carboxylic acid in acetone solvent using aluminium tertiary butaoxide

B. secondary alcohol is oxidised to carboxylic acid without affecting the C = C or C ≡ C bond buy aluminium tertiary butaoxide in acetone solvent

C. secondary alcohol is oxidised to ketone without affecting C = C or C ≡ C bond by aluminium tertiary butaoxide

D. secondary alcohol is oxidised to ketone by chromic acid – pyridine complex.

 

Q. 97 Incorrect statement about Ge is

A. GeO₂ is weakly acidic

B. Ge(OH)₂ s amphoteric

C. GeCl₂ is more stable than GeCl₄

D. Ge – Ge bond energy is lesser than that of Si – Si

 

Q. 98 In an isobaric process, when temperature changes from T₁ to T₂ ΔS is equal to

A. 2.303 Cp log (T₂/T₁)

B. 2.303 Cp ln (T₂/T₁)

C. Cp ln (T₁/T₂)

D. Cv ln (T₂/T₁)

 

Q. 99 In the given reaction A and B are ?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 100 In the following sequence of the reactions, identify the final product.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Questions: 101 – 120

In the following questions (101-120), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as :

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

(c) If assertion is true but reason is false

(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 101 Assertion: Electromeric effect is brought into play only at the requirement of the reagent.

Reason : It is a temporary effect in which bond pair is shifted to one of the constituent atoms.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 102 Assertion: In fused state, calcium chloride cannot be used to dry alcohol or NH3.

Reason : CaCI2 is not a good dessicant.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 103 Assertion: Heat of neutralisation of nitric acid with NaOH is same to that of HCl and NaOH.

Reason : In both cases strong add and strong bases are neutralised.

H⁺+OH⁻ −> H₂O

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 104 Assertion: Cis-2-butene gives meso-2 ,3-butanediol with dilute alkaline KMn04 solution.

Reason : Dilute alkaline KMn04 solution gives trans addition with alkenes.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 105 Assertion: Ethers can be dried by using sodium wire.

Reason : Ethers do not react with sodium.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 106 Assertion: In rate law, unlike in the expression for equilibrium constants, the exponents for concentrations do not necessarily match the stoichiometric coefficients.

Reason : It is the mechanism and not the balanced chemical equation for the overall

change that governs the reaction rate

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 107 Assertion: The presence of Ag” enhances the solubility of alkenes in water.

Reason : Alkenes are weakly polar in nature.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 108 Assertion: A reaction which is spontaneous and accompanied by decrease of randomness must be exothermic.

Reason : All exothermic reactions are accompanied by decrease of randomness.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 109 Assertion: Compressibility factor for hydrogen varies with pressure with positive slope at all pressure.

Reason : Even at low pressure, repulsive forces dominate for hydrogen gas

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 110 Assertion: p-N,N-ditncthylaminobenzaldehyde. undergoes benzoin condensation.

Reason : The aldehydic (-CHO) group is meta directing.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 111 Assertion: The S-S-S bond angle in 58 molecule is 105!!.

Reason : S8 has a V-shape.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 112 Assertion: Sodium formate has both the C – 0 bonds have same value 1.27 A.

Reason : Equal bond length is due to the phenomenon of resonance

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 113 Assertion: C2H5Brreacts with alcoholic solution of AgN02 to form nitroethanc as the major product.

Reason : NO;’ is an ambidient ion.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 114 Assertion: Ice ~ water, if pressure is applied water will evaporate.

Reason : Increases of pressure pushes the equilibrium towards the side in which number of gilseous molecule increases

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 115 Assertion: Ebonite is highly vulcanised rubber.

Reason : Perlon is used in the manufacture of fibres

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 116 Assertion: Al forms (AlF₆)⁻³ but doesnot form (BF₆)⁻³

Reason : B does not react with fluorine

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 117 Assertion: Esters which contain a-hydrogensundergo Claisen condensation.

Reason : LiAlH4 reduction of esters gives acid

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 118 Assertion: In an acid-base titration involving strong base and a weak acid, methyl orange can be used as an indicator.

Reason : Methyl orange changes its colour in pH range of 7 to 9

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 119 Assertion: Millon’s test is a test for identification of proteins.

Reason : Millon’s reagent is a solution of mercurous nitrate and mercuric nitrate in nitrite acid containing little nitrous acid

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 120 Assertion: Cu(OH)₂ is soluble in NH40H but not in NaOH

Reason : Cu(OH)₂ forms a soluble complexwith NH

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 121 What is diapedesis?

A. a kind of amoeboid movement

B. the process of filtration of urea in kidney

C. a type of locomotion found in Hydra

D. migration of WBCs into the tissue spaces from blood capillaries

 

Q. 122 Which one of the following depresses brain activity and produces feelings of calmness, relaxation and drowsiness?

A. morphine

B. valium

C. amphetamines

D. hashish

 

Q. 123 Which of the following nerves arises from organ of Corti?

A. olfatory nerve

B. cochlear nerve

C. abducens nerve

D. none of these

 

Q. 124 Delicate hair-like feathers which remain sparsely distributed over the body arc

A. coverts

B. filoplumes

C. plumules

D. remiges

 

Q. 125 Homo erccius evolved during erccius evolved during

A. pleistocene

B. miocene

C. pliocene

D. holocene

 

Q. 126 Which of the following postulates is related with Neo-Darwinism?

A. mutations are believed to help form new species

B. it incorporates isolation as an essential component of evolution

C. it can explain the occurrence of unchanged forms over millions of years

D. all of the above

 

Q. 127 Intermediate host is absent in the infection of

A. plasmodium

B. Trypanosoma

C. entamoeba

D. filarial worm

 

Q. 128 Which one feature is common to leech, cockroach and scorpion?

A. nephridia

B. ventral nerve cord

C. cephalization

D. antennae

 

Q. 129 The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of Fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small bronchi are known a

A. squamous epithelium

B. columnar epithelium

C. ciliated epithelium

D. cuboidal epithelium

 

Q. 130 A person who shows unpredictable moods, outbursts of emotions, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with others is suffering from

A. borderline personality disorder (BPD

B. mood disorder

C. addictive disorder

D. schizophrenia

 

Q. 131 In humans at the end of first meiotic division, the male germ cells differentiate into the

A. primary sperrnatocytes

B. secondary spermatocytes

C. spermatids

D. spermatogonia

 

Q. 132 Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by

A. killing the sperms in uterus

B. preventing implantation

C. reventing ovulation

D. both b and c

 

Q. 133 Which one of the following is a sesamoid bone?

A. pelvis

B. patella

C. pterygoid

D. pectoral girdle.

 

Q. 134 Respiration is controlled by

A. medulla oblongata

B. cerebellum

C. hypothalamus

D. cerebrum

 

Q. 135 Duodenum has characteristic Brunner’s gland which secretes two hormones called

A. prolactin, parathormone

B. ecretin, cholecystokinin

C. nterocrinin, duocrinin

D. gastrin, euterogastrone.

 

Q. 136 Which 0 f the follow ing species has the chromosome complement similar to that of Triticum aestiuum?

A. Zen mays

B. Scenic cercale

C. Gosefpium

D. egilope

 

Q. 137 Eugenics is the branch concerned with

A. improving the quality of human race by symptomatic treatment of genetic diseases

B. improving the quality of human populations by the application of genetic principles

C. improving the quality of human race by providing best suitable environment

D. none of these

 

Q. 138 What is incorrect about the following figure representing DNA replication?

A. the direction of DNA.replication in strand in (i)

B. the direction of DNA.replication in strand in (ii)

C. discontinuous replication of strand (i)

D. discontinuous replication of strand (ii)

 

Q. 139 Which of the following is the characteristic of PS-I.

A. it is active only upto 680 nm of light

B. the reaction centre of PS-I is P680

C. PS-I is reduced by the electrons released in photolysis of water

D. PS-I is involved in non-cyclic photophosphorylation.

 

Q. 140 Bark refers to

A. phellem + phellogen + phelloderm

B. periderm + cortex

C. phellem + phelloderm + secondary phloem

D. periderm + cortex + pericycle + secondary phloem

 

Q. 141 Cotton fibres mainly contains

A. cellulose

B. glycogene

C. protein

D. lipids

 

Q. 142 The outermost limiting layer of mycoplasma is made up of

A. cell wall

B. cell membrane

C. mucilaginous sheath

D. slime layer

 

Q. 143 Which of the following statements about Spirog’Ym is correct?

A. ateral conjugation takes place in homothallic species

B. scalariform conjugation takes place in homothallic species

C. lateral conjugation takes place in heterothallic species

D. he type of conjugation is unrelated to homothallic & heterothallic species

 

Q. 144 Which of the following sugars is not found in plants?

A. sucrose

B. glucose

C. lactose

D. fructose

 

Q. 145 The binding site of tRNA with mRNA & amino acids respectively are

A. mRNA with DHU loop & amino acid with CCAend

B. m RNA with CCA end & amino acid with anticodon loop

C. mRNA with anticodon loop & amino acid with DHU loop

D. mRNA with anticodon loop & amino acid with CCA end

 

Q. 146 Percentage of recombination between A and B is 9%, A and C is 17%, Band C is 26% , then the arrangement of genes is

A. ABC

B. ACB

C. BCA

D. BAC

 

Q. 147 Which of the following is true?

A. umbel is a racemose inflorescence where all stalked flower aggregate on the flat receptacle

B. raceme is a racemose inflorescence having main axis shortened & flower born acropetally

C. spadix is a racemose inflorescence having pendulous spike with main axis much flattened

D. spike is a racemose inflorescence having sessile flowers

 

Q. 148 Jute fibres deteriorate quickly because

A. cellulose content is high

B. lignin content is high

C. cellulose content is low

D. lignin content is low

 

Q. 149 The branched sclereids present in hydrophytes are

A. ostcosclereids

B. trichosclereids

C. macrosclereids

D. astrosclereids

 

Q. 150 The enzyme decarboxylase catalyses the following step

A. conversion of citric acid to cis aconitic acid

B. fumaric acid to malic acid

C. oxalosuccinic acid to a-ketoglutaric acid

D. malic acid to oxaloacetic acid

 

Q. 151 Which of the following is true regarding the given electron transport chain?

CoQ → Cyt c → Cyt aa₃ → O₂

A. CoQ → Cyt c is H⁺ absorbing site

B. aa₃ → O₂, H⁺ yielding site

C. CoQ → Cyt c is H⁺ yielding site and aa₃ → O₂ is H⁺ absorbing site

D. no H⁺ is absorbed or released

 

Q. 152 Which one of the following is not a microelernent for plants?

A. Cu

B. B

C. Zn

D. Cr

 

Q. 153 National bird of india is

A. Psittacula

B. Passer domesiicus

C. Pauo cristatus

D. Parakeet

 

Q. 154 Rain is called acid-rain when its pH is below

A. 7 pH

B. 6.5 pH

C. 6 pH

D. 5.6 pH

 

Q. 155 Cytokines that provide non specific immunity against virus are

A. interleukin

B. tumour necrosi

C. colony stimulating

D. interferon

 

Q. 156 By all of the following ways bacteria become resistant to antibiotic except

A. making enzymes that inactivate the drug

B. becoming impermeable to the drug

C. modifying the target of the drug

D. moving away from the drug

 

Q. 157 Specific proteins responsible for the flow of materials and information into the cell are called

A. membrane receptors

B. carrier proteins

C. integral proteins

D. none of these

 

Q. 158 Which of the following conditions represents a case of co-dominant genes?

A. a gene expresses itself f, suppressing the phenotypic effect of its alleles

B. genes that are similar in phenotypic effect. when present separately, but when

together interact to produce a different trait

C. alleles, both of which interact to produce a: trait, which mayor may not resemble either of the parental types

D. alleles, each of which produces an independent: effect in a heterozygous condition

 

Q. 159 The first bioherbicide developed in 1981 was based on

A. Phytopirthora palmiuora

B. Plrytoplrthorn in/estall

C. Bacilllls thuringiensis

D. Azadirachta indica

 

Q. 160 Upon fertilization, what structure develops from carpel?

A. Testa

B. tegman

C. pericarp

D. perisperm

 

Questions: 161 – 180

In the following questions (161-180), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as :

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

(c) If assertion is true but reason is false

(d) If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 161 Assertion: Secondary succession takes place in • recently denuded area.

Reason : It is caused due to baring of an . area

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 162 Assertion: Connective tissue inside the brain is essential for conduction of nerve impulse.

Reason : Connective tissue hold together the nerve cells of brain.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 163 Assertion: Mammary glands are apocrine glands.

Reason : The distal part containing secretory granules break down and leaves as a secretion.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 164 Assertion: Cytokinins increases shelf life of fruits and vegetables.

Reason : Cytokinins induce cell division.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 165 Assertion : Angina pectoris means “pain in the chest”.

Reason : It results due to carrying of extra blood to the heart muscle.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 166 Assertion: Protandry and protogyny ensures cross fertilization.

Reason : Cross fertilization introduces variation in progeny.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 167 Assertion: Bursa fabricii lies on the ventral side of the cloaca in birds.

Reason : Bursa fabricii is related with flight adaptation.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 168 Assertion: Glycolysis is the first step of respiration in which glucose completely breaks into CO2 and H20.

Reason : In this process, there is net gain of twenty four molecules of ATP.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 169 Assertion: Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA to produce sticky ends.

Reason : Stickiness of the ends facilitates the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 170 Assertion: Excess of nitrates in drinking water are harmful for infants.

Reason : Nitrates are responsible for blue baby syndrome

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 171 Assertion: Amniocentesis is a process of foetal sex determination.

Reason : Metabolic errors and other diseases can be diagnosed prenatally by this process.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 172 Assertion: Pollen mother cells (PMCs) arc the first male gametophytic cells.

Reason : Each PMC gives rise to two pollens.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 173 Assertion: Nucleus is the controlling centre of a cell.

Reason : Pores in the nuclear envelop regulate the flow of materials in and out of the nucleus.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 174 Assertion: Hormone calcitonin has antagonistic effect to that of parathormone.

Reason : Calcitonin decreases blood calcium level while parathorrnone increases blood calcium level.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 175 Assertion: Dark reaction occurs only at night in the stroma of chloroplast.

Reason : CO2 fixation occurs only during C3 cycle.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 176 Assertion: The primitive atmosphere was reducing one i.e. without oxygen.

Reason : In the primitive atmosphere, oxygen was involved in forming ozone layer

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 177 Assertion: Jave Ape-man, Peking man and Heidelberg man are the fossils of Homo crcctus.

Reason : Homo erecius evolved from Homo hnbilie.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 178 Assertion: Loss of water produces a negative hydrostatic pressure.

Reason : Positive hydrostatic pressure is developed due to osmotic entry of water in.o it.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 179 Assertion:Mammalian ova produces hyaluronidase.

Reason : TIle eggs of mammal are microlecithal and telolecithal.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 180 Assertion: A gamete may carry either of the traits but not both.

Reason : This is Mendel’s second law or law of independent assortment.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 181 A pendulum clock is set to give correct time at the sea level. The clock is moved to a hill station at an altitude 11 above sea level. In order to keep correct time on the hill station which one of the following adjustments is required?

A. the length of the pendulum has to be reduced

B. the length of the pendulum has to be increased

C. the mass of the pendulum has to be increased

D. the mass of the pendulum has to be reduced

 

Q. 182 Match List I with List II (Given in the figure) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. A(4), B(1), C(2), D(3)

B. A(3), B(1), C(2), D(4)

C. A(3), B(2), C(1), D(4)

D. A(4), B(2) C(1) D(3)

 

Q. 183 The President of India is elected by

A. members of both Houses of Parliament

B. members of both Houses of Parliament and of State Legislatures

C. members of both Houses of Parliament and of State Legislative Assemblies

D. elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of state Legislative Assemblies

 

Q. 184 Who wrote the book ‘India Wins Freedom’?

A. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

B. Mahatma Gandhi

C. Sir Mohammad Iqbal

D. Abdul Ghaffar Khan.

 

Q. 185 Consider the following statements about the National Anthem:

It was first sung on December 27, 1911 at the Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress. It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on January 26, 195 Playing time of the full version of the National Anthem is approximately 52 second Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2

C. 1 and 3

D. 2 and 3

 

Q. 186 Match List I with List II (Given in the figure) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. A(2), B(1), C(5), D(4)

B. A(3), B(4), C(2), D(5)

C. A(3), B(2), C(4), D(1)

D. A(2), B(1), C(3), D(5)

 

Q. 187 The metal compound commonly found in Sindhoor or Kumkum is based on

A. tin

B. lead

C. copper

D. zinc

 

Q. 188 Which among the following thermometers is. preferred for measuring temperature around 1250°C?

A. mercury thermometer

B. mercury thermometer

C. optical pyrometer

D. platinum resistance thermometer

 

Q. 189 The term stagflation refers to a situation where

A. growth has no relation with the change in prices

B. rate of growth and prices both are decreasing

C. rate of growth is faster than the rate of price increase

D. rate of growth is slower than the rate of price increase

 

Q. 190 Which event brought about a profound change in Ashoka’s administrative policy?

A. the third Buddhist council

B. the Kalinga war

C. his embracing of buddhism

D. his sending of missionary to Ceylon.

 

Q. 191 The plant dye Henna imparts orange-red colour to skin and hair due to its reaction with which of the following?

A. proteins and amino acids

B. lipids

C. carbohydrates

D. nucleic adds.

 

Q. 192 Match List I with List II (Given in the figure) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. A(2), B(3), C(4), D(1)

B. A(1), B(4), C(3), D(2)

C. A(2), B(4), C(3), D(1)

D. A(1), B(3), C(4), D(2)

 

Q. 193 Delingha came recently in news? What is this?

A. it is an endangered species of an Indian bird

B. it is place in Europe which was struck by an earthquake

C. China recently deployed missiles in the Delingha near Tibet sending alarming signals across political establishment in India

D. None of these

 

Q. 194 Octopus is an anti-terror ageny of

A. Kerela

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Karnataka

D. Gujarat

 

Q. 195 Indira Gandhi Prize for peace, disarmament and development has recently been conferred on

A. Bill gates

B. Jacob Zurna

C. Asma Jahangir

D. None of the above

 

Q. 196 India’s Deep Joshi has recently been honoured with

A. Magsaysay Award

B. Whitely Prize

C. Right to Livelihood Award

D. None of these

 

Q. 197 The runner up in 2009Wimbledon Men’s Singles was

A. Roger Federer

B. Rafael Nadal

C. Andy Roddick

D. None of the above

 

Q. 198 Who amongst the following cricketers has been chosen for Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, 2007?

A. Rahul DravID

B. M.S Dhoni

C. Sachin Tendulkar

D. Virender Sehwag.

 

Q. 199 Who amongst the following became the first woman pilot in the world to fly MIG-35 fighter plane?

A. Suman Sharma

B. Saudamini Deshmukh

C. Kirsty Moore

D. Nicole Malachowski.

 

Q. 200 Mr. Paul Krugman whose name was in news recently is a famous

A. medical scientist

B. econimist

C. author

D. astrophysicist.

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer A A C C B C C A A A
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer D C C D A B D A A B
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer A B A B A B C B C D
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer D A B A C A D C A C
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C B C D C A A A A B
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer B C A B C A A A A C
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer C B D C C A B D D D
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer A B B B C C A B B C
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer A A A C B C A C D B
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer D A B A A C C A B A
Question 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer A C A C A A B C A B
Question 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer C A B D B C C D B A
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer D B B B A D C B C A
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer B D B A B C B C D D
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer A B A C D D D B D C
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer C D C D D D B D A C
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer A D A B C B D D C A
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer B D B A D C B D D C
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer A B D A C B D D D B
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer A A C B A A C B A B

 

AIIMS UG 2008 Previous Year Paper

AIIMS UG 2008

Section

Questions

Marks

Physics

60 Questions (1 – 60)

60

Chemistry

60 Questions (61 – 120)

60

Biology

60 Questions (121 – 180)

60

General Knowledge

20 Questions (181 – 200)

20

Q : 1 In an electrical circuit containing L , C and R which of the following does not denote the dimensions of frequency ?

A. LC

B. 1/√(LC)

C. 1/RC

D. R/L

 

Q. 2 The displacement time graph of a particle moving along a straight line is drawn below.The accelerations of the particle during the regions OP, PQ and QR are :

A. OP- (-), PQ-(0),OR-(+)

B. OP,-(+)PQ-(0),QR-(+)

C. OP-(+),PQ-(0),QR-(-)

D. OP-(-),PQ-(0),QR-(-)

 

Q. 3 A particle of mass m moves with constant speed along a circular path of radius r under the action of force F. Its speed is:

A. √(Fr/m)

B. √(F/r)

C. √(Fmr)

D. √(F/mr)

 

Q. 4 A bullet is fired from a rifle and the rifle recoils.Kinetic energy of rifle is

A. less than K.E of bullet

B. greater than K.E of bullet

C. equal to K.E of buller

D. none of the above

 

Q. 5 Side of an equilateral triangle is l. Three point masses, each of magnitude m,are placed at the three vertices of the triangle . Moment of inertia of this system about one side of the triangle as axis is given by

A. 3ml²/4

B. 4ml²/3

C. 3ml²/2

D. 2ml²/3

 

Q. 6 P,Q and R are three coplanar forces acting at a point and are in equilibrium. Given P = 1.9318 kg . wt [sin θ₁ =0.9659], the value of R (in Kg wt) is

A. 0.9659

B. 2

C. 1

D. 1/2

 

Q. 7 Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the nth power of distance. Then the time period of a planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be proportional to

A. R⁽ⁿ⁺¹⁾½

B. R⁽ⁿ⁻¹⁾½

C. Rⁿ

D. R⁽ⁿ⁻²⁾½

 

Q. 8 A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The concentration of acceptor atoms is 10²¹ atoms/m³. Given that the intrinsic concentration of electron hole pair is 10¹⁹/m³ the concentration of electrons in the specimen is:

A. 10¹⁷/m³

B. 10¹⁵/m³

C. 10⁴/m³

D. 10²/m³

 

Q. 9 A slab consists of two layers of different materials of the same thickness and having thermal conductivities K₁ and K₂ are connected in series.

A. (2K₁K₂)/(K₁+K₂)

B. √(K₁K₂)

C. (K₁K₂)/(K₁+K₂)

D. K₁+K₂

 

Q. 10 In Young’s double slit experiment, the distance between two slits is made three times then the fridge width will become:

A. 9 times

B. 1/9 times

C. 3 times

D. 1/3 times

 

Q. 11 A laser beam is used for carrying out surgery because, it

A. is highly monochromatic

B. is highly coherent

C. is highly directional

D. can be sharply focussed

 

Q. 12 A converging lens form a real image of an object on its principle axis. A rectangular slab refractive index and thickness x is introduced between and the lens, l will move:

A. towards the lens (μ-1)x

B. towards the lens by (1-1/μ)x

C. away from the lens by (μ-1)x

D. away from the lens by (1-1/μ)x

 

Q. 13 The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium permittivity and permeability is given by

A. 1/√(μ₀ε₀)

B. √(μ₀/ε₀)

C. √ε₀/√μ₀

D. √(μ₀ε₀)

 

Q. 14 Electric field at centre of a uniformly charged semicircle of radius a is:

A. λ/2πε₀a²

B. λ/4π²ε₀a²

C. λ²/2πε₀a

D. λ/2πε₀a

 

Q. 15 If frequency of R-L circuit is f then impedance will be

A. √(R²+(2πfL)²)

B. R²+(2πf²)²

C. √(R²+πf²L)

D. R²+(2πf)²

 

Q. 16 Two closed organ pipes of length 100 cm and 101 cm produces 16 beats in 20 sec. When each pipe is sounded in its fundamental mode calculate the velocity of sound?

A. 303 m/s

B. 332 m/s

C. 323.2 m/s

D. 300 m/s

 

Q. 17 A certain gas is taken to the five states represented by dots in the graph. The plotted lines are isotherms. Order of the most probable speed v of the molecules at these five states is:

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 18 N atoms of a radioactive element emit N beta particles per second. The decay constant of the element is (in /s)

A. N₁/N₂

B. N₂/N₁

C. N₁ (ln 2)

D. N₂ (ln 2)

 

Q. 19 Figure shows the variation of energy with the orbit radius r of a satellite in a circular motion. Mark the correct statement.

A. C is total energy, B total energy and C potential energy

B. A is kinetic energy, B total energy and C potential energy

C. A and B are the kinetic and potential energies and C the total energy of the satellite

D. C and A are kinetic and potential energy respectively and B the total energy of the satellite

 

Q. 20 Two charges +q and -q are attached to the two ends of light rod of length L, as shown in figure. The system is given a velocity v perpendicular to magnetic field B̅. The magnetic force on the system of charges and magnitude of force on one charge by the rod , are respectively

A. zero,zero

B. zero,qvB

C. 2qvB,0

D. 2qvB,qvB

 

Q. 21 If a wire is extended to a new length l, the work done is

A. YA(l-l’)/l

B. YA(l-l’)²/l

C. YA(l-l’)²/2l

D. 2YA(l-l’)²/l

 

Q. 22 The equivalent resistance between the points X and Y in the following circuit diagram will be:

A. 10 ohm

B. 5 ohm

C. 7 ohm

D. 3 ohm

 

Q. 23 The intensity of magnetic field due to an isolated pole of strength mₐ at a point distant r from it will be

A. mₐ/r²

B. mₐ/r²

C. r²/mₐ

D. mₐ/r

 

Q. 24 A bulb and a condenser are connected in series with an A.C source. On increasing the frequency of the source its brightness will

A. increase

B. decrease

C. sometimes increase and sometimes decrease

D. neither increase nor decrease

 

Q. 25 Two heater wires, made of the same material and having the same length and the same radius, are first connected in series and then parallel to a constant potential difference. If the rates of heat produced in the two cases are Hᵤ and Hᵥ, respectively. then, Hᵤ/Hᵥ will be

A. 1/2

B. 2

C. 1/4

D. 4

 

Q. 26 The ratio of magnetic fields on the axis of a circular current carrying coil of radius a to the magnetic field at its centre will be

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 27 Lumen is the unit of

A. luminous flux

B. luminosity

C. illumination

D. quantity of light

 

Q. 28 A charge q is uniformly distributed on a ring radius r. A sphere of an equal radius is constructed with its centre lying on the periphery of the ring. The flux of electric field through the surface of the sphere will be

A. q/ε₀

B. q/2ε₀

C. q/3ε₀

D. q/4ε₀

 

Q. 29 When 100 V d.c is applied across a coil, a current of 1A flows through it. When 100V a.c of 50 Hz is applied to the same coil only 0.5 A flows. The inductance of the coil:

A. 0.55 H

B. 5.5 mH

C. 0.55 mH

D. 55 mH

 

 Q. 30 A bulb of 25 W, 200 V and the another bulb of 100W, 200 V are connected in series with a supply line of 220 V. Then

A. both bulbs will glow with same brightness

B. both bulbs will get fused

C. 25 W bulb will glow more brightly

D. 100 W bulb will glow more brightly

 

Q. 31 Which of the following is matched wrongly?

A. oil drop experiment —-> Millikan

B. dual nature of light —-> de Broglie

C. uncertainty principle —> Heisenberg

D. none of these

 

Q. 32 The forbidden gap in the energy bands of silicon is:

A. 2.6eV

B. 1.1 eV

C. 0.1 eV

D. 6 eV

 

Q. 33 When white light passes through a prism, the deviation is maximum for

A. violet light

B. green light

C. red light

D. yellow light

 

Q. 34 Which of the following gates correspond to the truth table given below?

A. NAND

B. OR

C. XOR

D. NOR

 

Q. 35 Light is incident normally on a diffraction grating through which the first diffraction is seen at 32⁰. In the case the second order diffraction will be

A. at 80⁰

B. at 64⁰

C. at 48⁰

D. there is no second order diffraction

 

Q. 36 If there were no atmosphere, the average temperature on earth surface on earth surface would be:

A. lower

B. higher

C. same

D. 0⁰ C

 

Q. 37 The current curve between logₑ J/T² and /T

 

 

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 38 An object 5 cm tall is placed 1 m from a concave spherical mirror which has a radius of curvature of 20 cm. The size of the image is

A. 0.11 cm

B. 0.50 cm

C. 0.55 cm

D. 0.60 cm

 

Q. 39 The magnifying power of a compound microscope increase with

A. the focal length of objective lens is increased and that of eye lens is decreased

B. the focal length of eye lens is increased and that of objective lens is decreased

C. focal lengths of both objects and eye-piece are increased

D. focal lengths of both objects and eye-piece are decreased

 

Q. 40 A thread is tied slightly loose to a wire frame as in figure and the frame as in figure and the frame is dropped into a soap solution and taken out. The frame is completely covered with the film. When the portion A is punctured with a pin, the thread

A. becomes concave towards A

B. becomes convex towards A

C. either (a) or (b) depending on the size of A with respect to B

D. remains in the initial position

 

Questions: 41 – 60

Directions : In the following questions (41-60), a statement of assertion (A) is

followed by a statement of a reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b) If the both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 41 Assertion : In the relation f = √(T/μ)/2l , where symbols have standard meaning, m represent linear mass density.

Reason : The frequency has the dimensions of inverse of time.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 42 Assertion : When the velocity of projection of a body is made n times, its time of flight becomes n times.

Reason : Range of projectile does not depend on the initial velocity of the body.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 43 Assertion : A needle placed carefully on the surface of water may float, whereas a ball of the same material will always sink.

Reason : The buoyancy of an object depends both on the material and shape of the shape.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 44 Assertion : The colour of the green flower seen through red glass appears to the dark.

Reason : Red glass transmits only red light.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 45 Assertion : The alternating current lags behind the e.m.f by a phase angle of π/2, when AC flows through an inductor.

Reason : The inductive resistance increases as the frequency of AC source decreases.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 46 Assertion : A spark occur between the poles of a switch when the switch is opened.

Reason : Current flowing in the conductor produces magnetic field.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 47 Assertion : X-rays can penetrate through the flesh but not through the bones.

Reason : The penetrating power of X-rays depends on voltage.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 48 Assertion : It is essential that all the lines available in the emission spectrum will also be available in the absorption spectrum.

Reason : The spectrum of hydrogen atom is only absorption spectrum

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 49 Assertion : A double convex lens(μ=1.5) has focal length 10 cm. When the lens is immersed in water (μ=4/3) its focal length becomes 77 cm.

Reason : 1/f = (μᵣ – μₐ)(1/R₁ – 1/R₂)/μₐ

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 50 Assertion : Diode lasers are used as optical sources in optical communication.

Reason : Diode lasers consume less energy.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 51 Assertion : We cannot think of magnetic field configuration with three poles.

Reason : A bar magnet does exert a torque on itself due to its own field.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 52 Assertion : In a SHM, Kinetic and potential energies become equal when the displacement is 1/√2 times the amplitude.

Reason : In SHM, Kinetic energy is zero when potential energy is maximum

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 53 Assertion : A bird perches on a high power line and nothing happens to the bird.

Reason : The level of bird is very high from the ground.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 54 Assertion : Stopping potential depends upon the frequency of incident light but is

independent of the intensity of the light.

Reason : The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is proportional to stopping

potential.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 55 Assertion : When radius of circular loop carrying current is doubles, its magnetic moment becomes four times.

Reason : Magnetic moment depends on area of the loop.

A. aa

B. bb

C. cc

D. dd

 

Q. 56 Assertion : When radius of circular loop carrying current is doubled , its magnetic moment becomes four times.

Reason : Magnetic moment depends on area of loop.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 57 In the following circuit in the figure , emf is 2V and internal resistance of the cell is 1 ohm and R = 1 ohm, then reading of the voltmeter is 1V.

Reason : V= E- IR where E = 2V, I= 2/2 = 1A

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 58 Assertion : It is essential that all the lines available in the emission spectrum will also be available in the absorption spectrum.

Reason : The spectrum of hydrogen

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 59 Assertion : The energy of charged particles moving in a uniform magnetic field does not change.

Reason : Work done by magnetic field on the charge is zero.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 60 Assertion : ⁹⁰Sr from the radioactive fall out from a nuclear bomb ends up in the bones of human beings through the milk consumed by them. It causes impairment of production of red blood cells.

Reason : The energies β-particles emitted in the decay of ⁹⁰Sr damage the bone marrow.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 61 Identify Z in the reaction

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 62 For the reaction, 2NO₂ + F₂ —> NO₂F + F (slow)

NO₂ + F —-> NO₂F(fast)

Thus the rate expression of the above reaction can be written as:

A. r = K [NO₂]₂ [F₂]

B. r = K[NO₂][F₂]

C. r = K[NO₂]

D. r = K[F₂]

 

Q. 63 What is the correct relationship between the pHs of isomolar solutions of sodium oxide (pH₁), sodium sulphide(pH₂), sodium selenide(pH₃) and sodium telluride(pH₄)?

A. pH₁ > pH₂ = pH₃ = pH₄

B. pH₁ < pH₂ < pH₃ < pH₄

C. pH₁ > pH₂ > pH₃ < pH₄

D. pH₁ > pH₂ > pH₃ > pH₄

 

Q. 64 Toluene is nitrated and the resulting product is reduced with tin and hydrochloric acid. The product so obtained is diazotized and then heated with corpus bromide. The reaction mixture so formed contains

A. mixture of o- and m-bromotoluene

B. mixture of o- and p-bromoaniline

C. mixture of o- and p-dibromobenzene

D. mixture of o- and p- bromoaniline

 

Q. 65 The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB₂ can be represented as

The degree of dissociation is x and is small compared to 1. The expression relating the degree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant Kᵤ and the total pressure u is:

A. (2Kᵤ/u)½

B. Kᵤ/u

C. 2Kᵤ/u

D. (2Kᵤ/u)½

 

Q. 66 which of the following is considered as an anticancer species?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 67 Find the compound A?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 68 In which of the following preparations of ether, the configuration about chiral centre is not retained?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 69 Toluene on treatment with CrO₃ and (CH₃CO)₂O followed by hydrolysis with dil. HCl gives

A. benzaldehyde

B. benzoic acid

C. phenol

D. phenylacetaldehyde

 

Q. 70 The time period to coat a metal surface of 80 cm with 5 x 10⁻³ cm thick layer of silver (density 1.05 g cm⁻³)with the passage of 3A current through a silver nitrate solution is

A. 115 sec

B. 125 sec

C. 135 sec

D. 145 sec

 

Q. 71 Correct equation of Freundlich isotherm is:

A. log(m/x) = log k + log c

B. log(x/m) = log c + 1/n log k

C. log (x/m) = log c + 1/k log c

D. log(x/m) = log k + 1/k log c

 

Q. 72 Which of the following compounds is not chiral ?

A. 1-chloropentane

B. 2-chloropentane

C. 1-chloro-2-methylpentane

D. 3-chloro-2-methylpentane

 

Q. 73 Which of the following molecules will not show optical activity?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 74 Green chemistry means such relations which

A. are related to the depletion of ozone layer

B. study the reactions in plants

C. produce colour during reactions

D. reduce the use and production of hazardous chemicals

 

Q. 75 Identify the final product of the given reaction

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 76 The flame colours of metal ions are due to

A. frenkel defect

B. schottky defect

C. metal deficiency defect

D. metal excess defect

 

Q. 77 The reaction of an organic compound with ammonia followed by nitration of the product gives a powerful explosive called RDX. The organic compound is

A. phenol

B. toluene

C. glycerine

D. formaldehyde

 

Q. 78 Cumene process is the most important commercial method for the manufacture of phenol. Cumene is:

A. iso-propyl benzene

B. ethyl benzene

C. vinyl benzene

D. propyl benzene

 

Q. 79 prolonged exposure of fat or oil in moist air and light causes bad smell. It is due to

A. formation of C₆ – C₁₂ fatty acids

B. formation of ketone and aldehyde

C. both of these causes

D. formation of glycerol

 

Q. 80 Acid hydrolysis of sucrose is a :

A. pseudo first order reaction

B. zero order reaction

C. second order reaction

D. unimolecular reaction

 

Q. 81 Which of these compounds is synthesised by chloral?

A. DDT

B. BHC

C. chloroform

D. michler’s ketone

 

Q. 82 When phenol reacts with phthalic anhydride in presence of H₂SO₄ and heated and hot reaction mixture is poured in NaOH solution, then product formed is

A. alizarin

B. methyl orange

C. fluorescein

D. phenolphthalein

 

Q. 83 The function of AlCl₃ in Friedel Crafts reaction is ?

A. absorb HCl

B. absorb water

C. produce nucleophile

D. produce electrophile

 

Q. 84 The correct order of increasing [H₃O⁺] in the following aqueous solutions is

A. 0.01 M H₂S < 0.01 M H₂SO₄ < 0.01 M NaCl < 0.01 M NaNO₂

B. 0.01 M NaCl < 0.01 M ₄NaNO₂ < 0.01 M H₂S < 0.01 M H₂SO

C. 0.01 M NaNO₂< 0.01 M NaCl < 0.01 M H₂S < 0.01 M H₂SO₄

D. 0.01 M H₂S < 0.01 M NaNO₂ < 0.01 M NaCl < 0.01 M H₂SO₄

 

Q. 85 Percentage of Se(at mass = 78.4) in peroxidase anhydrase enzyme is 0.5 % by weight, then minimum molecular mass of the peroxidase anhydrase enzyme is:

A. 1.576 x 10⁴

B. 1.576 x 10³

C. 15.76

D. 2.136 x 10⁴

 

Q. 86 The number S-S bonds in sulphur trioxide trimer (S₃O₉) is

A. three

B. two

C. one

D. zero

 

Q. 87 Oxidation product 1,2-cyclopentanediol with HIO₄ gives

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 88 The correct order of the dipole moment is

A. CH₄ < NF₃ < NH₃ < H₂O

B. NF₃ < CH₄ < NH₃ < H₂O

C. NH₃ < NF₃ < CH₄ < H₂O

D. H₂O < NH₃ < NF₃ < CH₄

 

Q. 89 The root mean square speed of the molecules of diatomic gas is u. When the temperature is doubled, the molecules dissociate into two atoms. The new rms speed of the atom is:

A. √2u

B. u

C. 2u

D. 4u

 

Q. 90 For the following concentration cell, to be spontaneous Pt(H₂)P₁ atm. I HCl I Pt(H₂)P atm. Which of the following is correct?

A. P₁ = P₂

B. P₁ < P₂

C. P₁ > P₂

D. cannot be predicted

 

Q. 91 which of the following is not a surfactant?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 92 The standard oxidation potential E for the half cell reaction are:

Zn —> Zn⁺² + 2e⁻; E⁰ = + 0.76 V

Fe —-> Fe⁺² + 2e⁻; E⁰ = + 0.41 V

EMF of the cell reaction is:

Zn + Fe⁺² —> Zn⁺² + Fe

A. -0.35 V

B. + 0.35 V

C. 0.17 V

D. 1.17 V

 

Q. 93 To observe the effect of concentration on the conductivity electrolytes of different nature were taken in two vessels A and B. A contains weak electrolyte NH₄OH and B contains strong electrolyte NaCl. In both containers, concentration of respective electrolyte was increased and conductivity observed.

A. in A conductivity increases, in B conductivity decreases

B. in A conductivity decreases, while in B conductivity increases

C. in both A and B conductivity increases

D. in both A and B conductivity decreases

 

Q. 94 A unit cell of sodium chloride has formula units. The edge length of the unit cell is 0.0564 nm. What is the density of sodium chloride?

A. 1.2g/cm³

B. 2.165 g/cm³

C. 3.64 g/cm³

D. 4.56 g/cm³

 

Q. 95 The reaction is called

A. claisen-schmidt reaction

B. kolbe-schmitt reaction

C. schmidt reaction

D. kolbe’s reaction

 

Q. 96 Which of the following amines, can give N-nitrosamine on treatment with HNO₂ ?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 97 The purification of alumina is called

A. baeyer’s process

B. bosch process

C. castner process

D. hoops process

 

Q. 98 Which acid has P-P linkage?

A. Hypophosphoric acid

B. pyrophosphoric acid

C. metaphosphoric acid

D. orthophosphoric acid

 

Q. 99 In the above sequence can be

A. 3-nitrochlorobenzene

B. 1-nitrochlorobenzene

C. 4-nitrochlorobenzene

D. none of these

 

Q. 100 Which of the following is aromatic?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Questions: 101 – 120

Directions : In the following questions (101-120), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of a reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b) If the both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 101 Assertion : (CH₃)₃CCOC(CH₃)₃ and acetone can be distinguished by the reaction with NaHSO₃.

Reason : HSO₃⁻ is the nucleophile in bisulphite addition.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 102 Assertion : Tertiary carbonium ions are generally formed more easily than primary carbonium ions.

Reason : Hyperconjugation as well as inductive effect due to additional alkyl groups

stabilize tertiary carbonium ions.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 103 Assertion : If H and Cl enclosed separately in the same vessel exert pressure of 100 and 200 mm respectively,their mixture in the same vessel at the same temperature will exert a pressure of 300 mm.

Reason : Dalton’s law of partial pressure states that total pressure is the sum of partial

pressures.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 104 Assertion : The quantized energy of an electron is largely determined by its principal quantum number.

Reason : The principal quantum number n is a measure of the most probable distance of finding the electron around the nucleus.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 105 Assertion : According to Le-Chatelier’s principle addition of heart to an equilibrium solid <— > liquid results in decrease in the amount of solid.

Reason : Reaction is endothermic , so on heating forward reaction is favoured.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 106 Assertion : cyclohexane exhibits keto-enol tautomerism.

Reason : In cyclohexanone, one form contains the keto group (C==O) while other contains enolic group (–C==C–OH)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 107  Assertion : Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution reaction.

Reason : In the case of phenol , the intermediate carbocation is more resonance stabilised.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 108 Assertion : Many endothermic reactions that are not spontaneous at room temperature become spontaneous at high temperature.

Reason : Entropy of the system increase in temperature.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 109 Assertion : Benzaldehyde is more reactive than ethanol towards nucleophilic attack.

Reason : The overall effect -l and + R effect of phenyl group decreases the electron density on the carbon atom of ketone group in benzaldehyde.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 110 Assertion : Bleaching powder results with dilute acids to evolve chlorine.

Reason : The chlorine liberated by the action of dilute acids on bleaching powder is called available chlorine.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 111 Assertion : Teflon has high thermal stability and chemical inertness.

Reason : Teflon is a thermoplastic.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 112 Assertion : In high spin situation, configuration of a¹⁵ ions will be tᵤ₂³ eᵤ²

Reason : In high spin situation, pairing energy is less than crystal field energy.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 113 Assertion : copper metal gets readily corroded in acidic aqueous solution.

Reason : Free energy change for this process is negative.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 114 Assertion : When a concentrated solution is diluted by adding more water, molarity of the solution remains unchanged.

Reason : product of moles of a solute and volume is equal to the molarity.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 115 Assertion : Anilinium chloride is more acidic than the ammonium chloride.

Reason : Anilinium chloride is resonance stabilised.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 116 Assertion : Pyrrole is an aromatic heterocyclic compound.

Reason : It has cyclic delocalised 6πelectrons.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 117 Assertion : 2-Butanol on heating with H₂SO₄ gives 1-butene and 2 – butene.

Reason : Dehydration of 2-butanol follows saytzeff’s rule.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 118 Assertion: SeCl₄ does not have a tetrahedral structure.

Reason : Se in SeCl₄ has two lone pairs.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 119 Assertion : Liquid NH₃ is used for refrigeration.

Reason: Liquid NH₃ quickly evaporates.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 120 Assertion:Ethers behave as bases in the presence of mineral acids.

Reason : It is due to the presence of lone pair of electrons on the oxygen.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 121 Two opposite forces operate in the growth and development of every population. One of them is related to the ability to reproduce at a given rate. The force opposite to it is called:

A. fecundity

B. environmental resistances

C. biotic control

D. mortality

 

Q. 122 Acrosome reaction in sperm is triggered by:

A. capacitation

B. release of lysine

C. influx of Na⁺

D. release of fertilizin

 

Q. 123 What is a keystone species?

A. a species which makes up only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community, yet has a huge impact on the communities organization and survival

B. a common species that has plenty of biomass, yet has fairly low impact on the communities organization

C. a rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and on other species in the community

D. a dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and which affects many other species

 

Q. 124 Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched?

A. streptomyces – antibiotic

B. serratia- drug addiction

C. spirulina – single cell protein

D. rhizobium – biofertilizer

 

Q. 125 You are required to draw blood from a patient and to keep it in a test tube for analysis of blood corpuscles and plasma. You are also provided with the following four types of test tubes. Which of these will you not use for the purpose?

A. test tube containing calcium bicarbonate

B. chilled test tubes

C. test tube containing heparin

D. test tube containing sodium oxalate

 

Q. 126 Smoking addiction is harmful because it produces polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, which cause

A. reduction in oxygen transport

B. increase in blood pressure

C. cancer

D. retardation of growth of foetus

 

Q. 127 The main reason why antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacteria mediated diseases is:

A. insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics

B. inactivation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes

C. decreased efficiency of the immune system

D. the development of mutant strains resistant to antibiotics

 

Q. 128 Which of the following sets includes the bacterial disease?

A. cholera,typhoid,mumps

B. tetanus,tuberculosis,measles

C. malaria,mumps,poliomyelitis

D. diphtheria,leprosy,plague

 

Q. 129 The binding of antibiotics to the antigens to produce a large insoluble complex is known as

A. antibody antigen complex

B. agglutination

C. immunization

D. suppressor cell reaction

 

Q. 130 one of the major difficulties in the biological control of insect pest is that

A. the predator develops a preference to other diets and may itself become a pest

B. the predator does not not always survive when transferred to a new environment

C. the method is less effective as compared with the use of insecticides

D. the practical difficulty of introducing the predator to specific areas

 

Q. 131 cattle fed with spoilt hay of sweet clover which contains dicumarol

A. are healthier due to good diet

B. catch infections easily

C. may suffer vitamin K deficiency and prolonged bleeding

D. may suffer from beriberi due to deficiency of vitamin B₁

 

Q. 132 Which one of the following methods is commonly used to maintain the propagating through seed germination.

A. by propagating through seed germination

B. by propagating through vegetative multiplication

C. by generating hybrids through intergeneric pollination

D. by treating the seeds with gamma radiations.

 

Q. 133 The bacteria which attack dead animals were are

A. first link of the food chain and are known as primary producers

B. second link of the food chain and are herbivorous

C. third link of the food chain and are tertiary consumers

D. the end of food chain and are decomposers

 

Q. 134 Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. lichen, an association of fungus and algae is an example of mutualism

B. those epiphytes which use other plants for support only and not for water or food supply and examples of commensalism

C. sea-anemone on hermit-crab is an example of protocooperation

D. mutualism, protocooperation, commensalism cannot be included under symbiosis

 

Q. 135 How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte?

A. 4

B. 8

C. 2

D. 1

 

Q. 136 Phytohormones are:

A. hormones regulating the growth from seeds to adulthood

B. growth regulators synthesised by plants and influencing physiological process

C. hormones regulating flowering

D. hormones regulating secondary growth

 

Q. 137 Grey crescent is the area

A. at the point of entry of sperm into ovum

B. just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into ovum

C. at the animal pole

D. at the vegetal pole

 

Q. 138 Even after killing the generative cell with a laser beam,the pollen grain of a flowering plant germinates and produces normal pollen tube because

A. laser beam stimulates pollen germination and pollen tube growth

B. the laser beam does not damage the region from which pollen tube emerges

C. the contents of killed generative cell permits germination and pollen tube growth

D. the vegetative cell has not been damaged

 

Q. 139 one common example of simple reflex is

A. typing your shoe laces while talking to another person and not looking at them

B. watering of mouth at the sight of a favourite food

C. climbing up a stairs in dark without stumbling

D. closing of eyes when strong light is flashed across them

 

Q. 140 select one of the following pairs of important features distinguishing gnetum from cycas and pinus and showing affinities with angiosperms.

A. perianth and two integuments

B. embryo development and apical meristem

C. absence of resin duct and leaf venation

D. presence of vessel elements and absence of archegonia

 

Q. 141 Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely to affect

A. tongue movements

B. gastrointestinal movements

C. pancreatic secretion

D. cardiac movements

 

Q. 142 Which one of the following is matching pair?

A. lubb-sharp closure of AV valves at the beginning of ventricular systole

B. dup-sudden opening of a semilunar valves at the beginning of the radial artery-valves in the ventricular diastole

C. pulsation of the radial artery-valves in the blood vessels

D. initiation of the heart beat purkinje fibres

 

Q. 143 A lake near village suffered heavy mortality of fishes within a few days. Consider the following reasons for this?

A. lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer were used in the vicinity

B. the area was sprayed with DDT by an aircraft

C. the lake water turned green and stinky

D. phytoplankton populations in the lake declined initially thereby greatly reducing photosynthesis

 

Q. 144 Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes?

A. nucellus and antipodal cells

B. egg and nucleus and secondary nucleus

C. megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells

D. egg cell and antipodal cell

 

Q. 145 When a man inhales air containing normal concentration of O₂ as well as CO he suffers from suffocation because

A. CO reacts with O₂ reducing its percentage in air

B. haemoglobin combines with CO instead of O₂ and forms carboxyhemoglobin

C. CO affects the nerves of the lungs

D. Co affects the nerves of the lungs

 

Q. 146 A patient of diabetes mellitus excretes glucose in urine even when he is kept in a carbohydrate free diet. It is because

A. fats are metabolized in adipose tissues to form glucose

B. amino acids are metabolised in kidney to form glucose

C. amino acids are discharged in blood stream from liver

D. glycogen from muscles is released in bloodstream

 

Q. 147 During the life-cycle , Fasciola hepatica(liver fluke) infects its intermediate host and primary host at the following larval stages respectively

A. redia and miracidium

B. cercaria and redia

C. metacercaria and cercaria

D. miracidium and metacercaria

 

Q. 148 Enzymes vitamins and hormones can be classified into a single category of biological chemicals because of all of these

A. enhance oxidative metabolism

B. are conjugated proteins

C. are exclusively synthesised in the body of a living organism as at present

D. help in regulating metabolism

 

Q. 149 Cut surfaces of fruit and vegetables often become dark because

A. dark knife makes it dark

B. oxidation of tannic acid in the presence of trace of iron the knife makes it dark

C. dust of the air makes it dark

D. none of the above

 

Q. 150 Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days and N.tabacum flowers only during short days. If raised in the laboratory under different photoperiods, they can be induced to slower at the same time and can be cross-fertilized to produce self-fertile offspring. What is the best reason for considering N.sylvestris and N.tabacum to be separate species

A. they cannot interbreed in nature

B. they are reproductively distinct

C. they are physiologically distinct

D. they are morphologically distinct

 

Q. 151 Which one of the following is the correct statements regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?

A. morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions

B. barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary

C. hashish causes alteration of thoughts, perceptions and hallucinations

D. opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations.

 

Q. 152 In succulent plants the stomata open in night and close in day. Which among the following would be best hypothesis to explain the mechanism of stomatal action in night only?

A. CO₂ accumulates reduces the pH, stimulate enzymes resulting in accumulation of sugars

B. increase in CO₂ concentration , conversion of organic acids into starch resulting in the increased conversion into starch resulting in the increased conversion into sugars resulting in K⁺ transport

C. low CO₂ concentration accumulates organic acids resulting in the increased concentration of cell sap

D. CO₂ used up, increase pH results in accumulation of sugars.

 

Q. 153 The cells of the quiescent centre are characterised by:

A. having dense cytoplasm and prominent nuclei

B. having light cytoplasm and small nuclei

C. dividing regularly to add to the corpus

D. dividing regularly to add to tunica

 

Q. 154 Thermococcus , methanococcus and methanobacterium exemplify

A. bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria

B. bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes

C. archaebacteria that contains protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones

D. archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled

 

Q. 155 Ectophloic siphonostele is found in

A. Osmunda and Equisetum

B. Marsilea and Botrychium

C. Adiantum and cucurbitaceae

D. Dicksonia and Maidenhair fern

 

Q. 156 Chlorenchyma is known to develop in the

A. cytoplasm of chlorella

B. mycelium of a green mould such as aspergillus

C. spore capsule of a moss

D. pollen tube of pinus

 

Q. 157 The distance between two genes in a chromosome is measured in cross-over units which represent

A. ratio of crossing over between them

B. percentage of crossing over between them

C. no.of crossing over between them

D. none of these

 

Q. 158 In transgenics, expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by

A. enhancer

B. transgene

C. promoter

D. reporter

 

Q. 159 How many genome types are present in a typical green plants cell?

A. more than five

B. more than ten

C. two

D. three

 

Q. 160 The growth curve of bacterial population in lab is plotted against time.What will be the shape of the graph?

A. sigmoid

B. hyperbolic

C. ascending straight line

D. descending straight line

 

Questions: 161 – 180

Directions : In the following questions (161-180), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of a reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b) If the both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.

(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 161 Assertion:protoplasmic continuity is maintained in perforated septum.

Reason:Usually a small pore remains in the centre of the septum.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 162 Assertion:The primary protonema of moss by death and decay of cells may break into fragments.

Reason:Each fragment gives rise to leafy gametophyte.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 163 Assertion:Cephalization is advantageous to an animal.

Reason:It improves the appearance of the animal.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 164 Assertion:Koel does not build nest for egg laying.

Reason:Koel lays its eggs in the nest of tailor bird.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 165 Assertion:Competitive inhibitor is also called as substrate analogue.

Reason:It resembles the enzymes in structure.

A. A

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 166 Assertion:Person suffering from haemophilia fail to produce blood clotting factor VIII.

Reason:Prothrombin producing platelets in such persons are found in very low concentration.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 167 Assertion:Hybridoma cells are shifted to a medium deficient in nutrients which cannot be synthesized by myeloma cells.

Reason:This medium allows selection of hybridoma cells.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 168 Assertion:Maize is an albuminous seed.

Reason: Endosperm is completely absorbed by it’s growing embryo.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 169 Assertion:Ciliated epithelium is present in the inner lining of trachea and large bronchi.

Reason:ciliary movement propel the mucus and foreign particle towards the larynx.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 170 Assertion:Light is one of the important factor in transpiration.

Reason:It includes stomatal opening and closing.Therefore,transpiration increases in light and decreases in dark.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 171 Assertion:The higher concentration of O₂ in the atmosphere is inhibitory to photosynthesis.

Reason:CO₂ is the main substrate of photosynthesis.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 172 Assertion:F₁ particles are present in the inner mitochondrial membrane.

Reason:An electron gradient formed on the inner mitochondrial membrane,forms ATP.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 173 Assertion:Rhabdome is present in palaemon.

Reason:Rhabdome has an important role in digestion.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 174 Assertion : Pituitary is attached to hypothalamus by a vein.

Reason: this attachment is done through a hypophyseal portal vein.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 175 Assertion : Rabies is acute infectious disease of warm blooded mammals characterised by involvement of central nervous system resulting in paralysis and finally death

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 176 Assertion: Many plants are propagated vegetatively even though they bear seeds.

Reason : potatoes multiply by tubers and apple by cutting.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 177 Assertion : nuclear endosperm is formed by subsequent nuclear division without wall formation.

Reason : coconut is an example of such endosperm , where the endosperm remains nuclear throughout the development of the fruit.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 178 Assertion : In mammals the female secondary sexual characters are developed by gonadotropins.

Reason : Gonadotropins are secreted by graafian follicle.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 179 Assertion : The plants biomass which serves as the food of herbivores and decomposers is said to result from the gross primary productivity.

Reason : Gross primary productivity is the rate of net production of organic material(biomass)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 180 Assertion : methyl mercury is a highly persistent pollutant that accumulates in food chains.

Reason : Mercury pollution is responsible for minamata.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 181 The first of the GAEL(global alliance for the elimination of leprosy) was held in

A. new delhi

B. bombay

C. calcutta

D. paris

 

Q. 182 Megger is an instrument to measure

A. very low resistance

B. insulation resistance

C. inductance of coil

D. all of the above

 

Q. 183 Terminator technology promotes sale of which of the following that is/are generated by it?

A. gransgenic fertile seed

B. gene modified plants

C. genetically engineered seeds fertilized in next generation

D. all of these

 

Q. 184 Which among the following has become the third tiger reserve of Assam?

A. manas wildlife sanctuary

B. kaziranga national park

C. nameri national park

D. none of these

 

Q. 185 To make the acidic soil suitable for agricultural, one of the following material is used.

A. lime

B. gypsum

C. calcium superphosphate

D. vegetable compost