CDS(I) Exam 2017 English Previous Year Paper

CDSE 1 2017 English

Q. 1 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: he

Q: almost

R: planned the entire strategy of operation

S: single-handed

The correct sequence should be

A. RSPQ

B. PRQS

C. SQRP

D. QPSR

 

Q. 2 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: it is a fact that rice is one of the most prolific

Q: than almost any other crop

R: yielding a greater return per acre

S: of food crops

The correct sequence should be

A. SRQP

B. RPSQ

C. QRSP

D. PSRQ

 

Q. 3 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: up to the end of the eighteenth century, not only because it was often fatal,

Q: smallpox was a particularly dreaded disease,

R: but also because those who recovered

S: were permanently disfigured

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. QRSP

C. PRSQ

D. QPRS

 

Q. 4 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: a person bitten by a rabid dog

Q: would be seized by violent symptoms

R: after an incubation period of a month or two

S: and die an agonizing death

The correct sequence should be

A. PRSQ

B. SRQP

C. PRQS

D. PQRS

 

Q. 5 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

The traveller,

P: sat down

Q: to rest

R: by the roadside

S: being weary,

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. RSPQ

C. SPQR

D. RPQS

 

Q. 6 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: the house was

Q: away

R: with its liveliest member

S: gloomy

The correct sequence should be

S:

A. PQRS

B. PSRQ

C. RSPQ

D. QRPS

 

Q. 7 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: he was a tiny man

Q: with a sprinkly walk

R: tall

S: barely five feet

The correct sequence should be

 

A. RSQP

B. SRQP

C. QSPR

D. PSRQ

 

Q. 8 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: rules and regulations

Q: he cheerfully ignored its demands

R: a life of

S: unaccustomed to

The correct sequence should be

 

A. PQRS

B. QRPS

C. SRPQ

D. QSRP

 

Q. 9 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

The man

P: for a moment,

Q: looked at me

R: and thus emptied my pockets

S: turned me upside down

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. QPRS

C. QPSR

D. PQSR

 

Q. 10 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

The lady

P: today

Q: is visiting

R: us

S: who composed this poem

The correct sequence should be

 

A. RQPS

B. PRQS

C. QRPS

D. SQRP

 

Q. 11 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

Animals

P: able to measure

Q: the passing of seasons

R: changes in day-length

S: by recognizing

The correct sequence should be

A. PQSR

B. SQPR

C. PRSQ

D. SRPQ

 

Q. 12 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

Many people

P: inaudible to others

Q: in the ears or head

R: suffer persistent noises

S: with hearing problems

The correct sequence should be

A. RQSP

B. PSQR

C. SRQP

D. RSQP

 

Q. 13 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

Researchers

P: found that allergic reactions are brought about

Q: in the bloodstream

R: in the 1940s

S: by the liberation of small quantities of a substance called histamine

The correct sequence should be

A. RPSQ

B. QRPS

C. RQSP

D. PSQR

 

Q. 14 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

Attempts at transplanting other organs,

P: but that which most caught the public fancy

Q: was the heart transplant

R: such as the lungs or the liver,

S: have been made

The correct sequence should be

 

A. SRQP

B. RSPQ

C. RPSQ

D. QRPS

 

Q. 15 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: sports cars

Q: appeal

R: to some motorists only

S: with noisy exhausts

The correct sequence should be

 

A. RQSP

B. PSQR

C. RSPQ

D. PQSR

 

Q. 16 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

Friendship has its place

P: in

Q: truth and justice

R: but it cannot override

S: life,

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS 

B. RSPQ

C. PSRQ

D. RQPS

 

Q. 17 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: the workaholic often

Q: becomes a prisoner of success

R: inadvertently

S: reaping greater and greater rewards

The correct sequence should be

A. SPRQ

B. SPQR

C. RPQS

D. PQRS

 

Q. 18 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: the schoolmasters and the professors tend to believe

Q: that innate intelligence is a quality

R: but that you can’t do much about it except measure it

S: which varies very gently from one individual to another

The correct sequence should be

A. PSQR

B. PRSQ

C. PQSR

D. QSRP

 

Q. 19 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

People

P: do not realize

Q: that modern society

R: who object to driver education

S: is built around the automobile

The correct sequence should be

 

A. RPQS

B. QRSP

C. RSPQ

D. SPQR

Q. 20 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: with an idea to reach the deprived child

Q: by the United Nations Organization

R: the year 1979 has been declared as

S: the International Year of the Child

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. PSQR

C. PRSQ

D. RSPQ

 

Q. 21 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option

subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error

I waited for her return with growing unease.

A. I waited

B. for her return

C. with growing unease.

D. No error

 

Q. 22 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option

subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

I do not understand why in spite of my best efforts to please him my boss is so angry at me.

A. I do not understand why

B. in spite of my best efforts to please him

C. my boss is so angry at me.

D. No error

 

Q. 23 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option

subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Being a rainy day, we did not feel like going out or doing anything except playing chess in our room.

A. Being a rainy day,

B. we did not feel like going out or doing anything

C. except playing chess in our room.

D. No error

 

Q. 24 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option

subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

It is not difficult to believe that a man who has lived in this city for a long time he will never feel at home anywhere else in the world.

A. It is not difficult to believe that a man

B. who has lived in this city for a long time

C. he will never feel at home anywhere in the world.

D. No error

 

Q. 25 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Although we reached his house on time he was left for the airport.

A. Although we reached his house on time

B. he was left

C. for the airport.

D. No error

 

Q. 26 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option

subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

If a thing is worth doing at all it is worth done well.

A. If a thing

B. is worth doing at all

C. it is worth done well.

D. No error

 

Q. 27 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

All the boys returned back home well in time for lunch.

A. All the boys

B. returned back home

C. well in time for lunch.

D. No error

 

Q. 28 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Tell me the name of a country where every citizen is law-abiding and no trouble is there.

A. Tell me the name of

B. a country where every citizen is law-abiding

C. and no trouble is there.

D. No error

 

Q. 29 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Considering about these acts the principal has offered him a seat.

A. Considering about these facts

B. the principal has offered

C. him a seat.

D. No error

 

Q. 30 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

His friends feel that he will be suspended unless he does not report for duty immediately.

A. His friends feel that

B. he will be suspended

C. unless he does not report for duty immediately.

D. No error

 

Q. 31 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

One of the most interesting feature of travel in Himachal Pradesh is the large number of travellers’ lodges provided by the State Government.

A. One of the most interesting feature of travel in Himachal Pradesh is

B. the large number of travellers’ lodges

C. provided by the State Government.

D. No error

 

Q. 32 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error. 

It was raining cats and dogs.

A. It

B. was raining

C. cats and dogs.

D. No error

 

Q. 33 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option

subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

I prefer this book than that one.

A. I prefer

B. this book

C. than that one.

D. No error

 

Q. 34 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Their belongings were lost in the fire.

A. Their belongings

B. were lost

C. in the fire.

D. No error

 

Q. 35 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Tell him to take another photograph of the group.

A. Tell him to take

B. another photograph

C. of the group.

D. No error

 

Q. 36 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

I courteously asked him where he was going but he did not reply.

A. I courteously asked him

B. where he was going

C. but he did not reply.

D. No error

 

Q. 37 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

The memoranda are on the table.

A. The memoranda

B. are

C. on the table.

D. No error

 

Q. 38 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Nandita asked me if I was working hardly these days.

A. Nandita asked me

B. if I was working

C. hardly these days.

D. No error

 

Q. 39 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

He couldn’t find an answer.

A. He couldn’t

B. find

C. an answer.

D. No error.

 

Q. 40 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Whom you think will be dismissed first?

A. Whom you think

B. will be dismissed

C. first?

D. No error

Q. 41 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Of the many problems that confront the leaders of the world none are of grave consequence than the problem of saving the normal human race from extinction.

A. Of the many problems that confront the leaders of the world

B. none are of grave consequence

C. than the problem of saving the normal human race from extinction.

D. No error

 

Q. 42 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

All of them speak good English.

A. All of them

B. speak

C. good English.

D. No error

 

Q. 43 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

The peon has not sweeped the floor today.

A. The peon

B. has not sweeped

C. the floor today.

D. No error

 

Q. 44 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Her parents has not permitted her to marry Sunil.

A. Her parents

B. has not permitted her

C. to marry Sunil.

D. No error

 

Q. 45 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Emperor Ashoka have conquered Kalinga before he embraced Buddhism.

A. Emperor Ashoka

B. have conquered KAlinga

C. before he embraced Buddhism.

D. No error

 

Q. 46 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Every student should be asked to give their ideas on the subject.

A. Every student

B. should be asked

C. to give their ideas on the subject.

D. No error

 

Q. 47 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: According to the legend it was during a famine in China many thousands of years ago that rice first came into the lives of the Asians.

S6: And the little girl gathered a harvest of rice.

P: the golden sunbeams dropped through the meshes and transformed themselves into golden grains.

Q: A little girl went fishing.

R: But instead of catching fish she netted the King of Frogs.

S: The King told her to hold out the net to the sunbeams while he sang a magic song.

The proper sequence should be

A. PSQR

B. RPSQ

C. QRSP

D. PQSR

 

Q. 48 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Ramu was in a great hurry.

S6: Fortunately, it wasn’t a very serious one.

P: As a result of this carelessness, he met with an accident.

Q: The examination was to begin in five minutes time.

R: He just rushed across the road

S: So he forgot to look to the left or right as he always did.

The proper sequence should be

A. RQSP

B. SRPQ

C. RSPQ

D. QSRP

 

Q. 49 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Chandran was terribly angry.

S6: Saro ran screaming.

P: His pen was in her hand and Chandran rushed at her.

Q: Just then his sister, Saro, appeared at the door-step.

R: His pen was missing from the place where he had left it.

S: He thought it was lost

The proper sequence should be

A. PRSQ

B. RSQP

C. PSQR

D. SQPR

 

Q. 50 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: One fine morning, I heard a sound of fire engines with loud alarm bells.

S6: It was a terrible scene, as huge flames of fire were coming out of the house.

P: I thought, perhaps a house was on fire.

Q: They were regulating the crowd.

R: The policemen were standing around a big house.

S: I immediately rushed out to see what was happening.

The proper sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. RSQP

C. SRPQ

D. PSRQ

 

Q. 51 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: The sun-dried stalks of rice had caught fire and burst into flames.

S6: Even those who were too feeble to keep up with the first rush were on their feet, eager to join the fire-fighters.

P: Then came most of the older people, and mothers with babies at their backs.

Q: And all the active women and girls followed them to assist them in fighting the fire.

R: All the young men and boys were soon on the spot.

S: Staring wildly at the blazing fire, the people of the village ran to extinguish the fire.

The proper sequence should be

A. PSQR

B. QPRS

C. SRPQ

D. SRQP

 

Q. 52 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: People’s fear of snakes seems to be based on a series of misconceptions.

S6: Yet people will insist that they cannot touch a snake because of its sliminess.

P: The most common one is the conviction that all the creatures are poisonous.

Q: Another very popular idea is that these reptiles are slimy to touch.

R: Snakes are really dry and cold; not slimy like a wet cake of soap but rather like a

crocodile-skin handbag to the touch.

S: In fact, the non-poisonous ones outnumber the poisonous ones by about ten to one.

The proper sequence should be

A. RQPS

B. PRQS

C. PSQR

D. RQSP

 

Q. 53 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: The first great discovery that man probably made was that of fire.

S6: The animals were not clever enough to learn anything from this.

P: Fires sometimes occur by themselves in the forests perhaps by rubbing together of flints or something else.

Q: We light a fire now by a match.

R: In olden times fires were made by striking two flints against each other till a spark came for setting fire to a dry thing.

S: But matches are quite recent things.

The proper sequence should be

A. PRSQ

B. QSPR

C. PQSR

D. RPQS

 

Q. 54 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: A common disease of the eye is conjunctivitis or ‘pink eye’, which often occurs in school-children.

S6: Students with this condition should be sent to the doctor.

P: This disease spreads rapidly among school-children.

Q: A white discharge also appears in the corner of the eyes.

R: One or both eyeballs turn quite red and have a feeling of irritation.

S: This discharge forms a crust which can often be seen in the morning after the eyes have been shut all night.

The proper sequence should be

A. PSQR

B. RSPQ

C. RQSP

D. QSRP

 

Q. 55 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: My office sent a message with a terrific urgency asking me to return.

S6: It was the evening before I could sit and write to my parents that I would join them soon.

P: I immediately sent a message requesting a few days of grace as I had to book the return ticket and attend sundry matters before winding up my establishment here.

Q: On the way, I went to the laundry and made sure I would get my clothes in time.

R: Then I rushed to the bank, collected all my money and made reservations for my return journey.

S: From the shop next to it, I bought a strong box to dump my books and other odd articles so that I could send them away in advance.

The proper sequence should be

A. QRSP

B. RQPS

C. SPQR

D. PRQS

 

Q. 56 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Harsten’s theory was that plants definitely react to music.

S6: He found that this plant grew faster and 70 percent taller than the other plant.

P: In his experiment, he used two banana plants.

Q: The music was, in fact, a high-pitched humming sound.

R: He gave both plants the same light, heat, and water.

S: But for about an hour a day, one of the plants ‘listened’ to some music.

The proper sequence should be

A. QSRP

B. PQRS

C. PRSQ

D. QRPS

 

Q. 57 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Some students may feel that fast readers do not understand as much as slow readers.

S6: This statement, however, needs to be made with caution.

P: Some slow readers will have good comprehension and others poor.

Q: A quick glance at the scores will show that fast readers sometimes have very good comprehension and sometimes poor.

R: This fallacy can easily be disproved when you give the first reading test in a class.

S: In short, there is little relation between reading speed and comprehension.

The proper sequence should be

A. RQPS

B. SQRP

C. PQRS

D. QSRP

 

Q. 58 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: There isn’t a cricketer worth his salt who does not aspire for captaincy.

S6: It is against this background that any emotions surrounding the captaincy should be viewed.

P: Even parents are proud when their sons become the captain.

Q: At lower levels, it is the best players who gets to lead the team.

R: In cricket, the greatest honour any player can get is the captaincy.

S: Right from school days, boys dream of leading the team.

The proper sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. SRQP

C. PQSR

D. SQPR

 

Q. 59 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Systematic and ceaseless efforts are being made to tap scientifically the abundant solar energy available in the country.

S6: Installation of solar thermal systems and devices has helped to save or generate energy to the extent of 350kWh per annum.

P: These include cooking, water heating, water desalination, space heating, etc.

Q: A large number of applications in the area have already become commercial.

R: Efforts are also afoot to develop economically viable solar collectors for high temperature applications.

S: A simple and common mode in solar energy utilization is solar thermal conversion.

The proper sequence should be

A. QSRP

B. QPRS

C. SQPR

D. RQSP

 

Q. 60 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: The houses in the Indus Valley were built of baked bricks.

S6: They led outside into covered sewers which ran down the side of the streets.

P: This staircase sometimes continued upwards on to the roof.

Q: Access to the upstairs rooms was by a narrow stone staircase at the back of the house.

R: The drains were built in the walls.

S: The houses had bathrooms and water closets, rubbish chutes and excellent drainage systems.

The proper sequence should be

A. SPQR

B. PSQR

C. QRPS

D. QPSR

 

Q. 61 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: I remember, some years ago, the library of a famous divine and literary critic, who had died, being sold.

S6: Yet, he was a holy man and preached admirable sermons.

P: Multitudes of the books had the marks of libraries all over the country.

Q: It was a splendid library of rare books, chiefly concerned with seventeenth-century writers.

R: Evidently, he was very possessive about the books he borrowed.

S: He had borrowed them and never found a convenient opportunity of returning them.

The proper sequence should be

A. RPQS

B. QPSR

C. SPQR

D. PSRQ

 

Q. 62 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Of course, it is silly to try to overcome fears that keep us from destroying ourselves.

S6: The only fears you need to avoid are silly fears which prevent you from doing what you should do.

P: This is sensible.

Q: You wait until it is out of the way before crossing.

R: You need some fears to keep you from doing foolish things.

S: You are afraid of an automobile coming rapidly down the street you wish to cross.

The proper sequence should be

A. PRSQ

B. RSQP

C. RPSQ

D. PQRS

 

Q. 63 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Nobody likes staying at home on a public holiday-especially if the weather is fine.

S6: It was very peaceful in the cool grass-until we heard bells ringing at the top of the hill.

P: We had brought plenty of food with us and we got it out of the car.

Q: The only difficulty was that millions of other people had the same idea.

R: Now everything was ready so we sat down near a path at the foot of a hill.

S: We moved out of the city slowly behind a long line of cars but at last we came to a quiet country road and after some time, stopped at a lonely farm.

The proper sequence should be

A. PSQR

B. QSPR

C. PQRS

D. SPQR

 

Q. 64 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: The teaching work for the term is over.

S6: For this, weekend trips do not suffice, and a longer stay is necessary.

P: That will end on October 13 and the Diwali vacation will begin from October 14.

Q: After I complete the assessment of examination papers, I plan to go and stay at our

house in Lonavla for at least a week.

R: Next week the terminal examination begins.

S: There is a lot of repair work that needs to be carried out in the house.

The proper sequence should be

A. SQRP

B. QSPR

C. RPSQ

D. RPQS

 

Q. 65 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: A proposal to remove from circulation 5 paise coins has been given up by the Centre on the advice of the Reserve Bank of India.

S6: It is, however, proposed to reduce the costs of minting these coins by changing their metallic content.

P: The Government had been thinking of removing from circulation even the 10 paise coin.

Q: The cost of minting a 5 paise coin is said to be 7 paise while the cost of minting a 10 paise coin in 10.5 paise.

R: Moreover their removal would cause tremendous hardship to some people.

S: The RBI had opposed this saying that they figure largely in public transactions.

The proper sequence should be

A. SRQP

B. QPSR

C. PSRQ

D. PQSR

 

Q. 66 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: It is common knowledge that people go after different objects in the world to get

happiness.

S6: He is conscious of the fact that happiness is within and not without.

P: The wise man with a properly attuned mind is happy with them, in spite of them and without them too.

Q: Can a condemned prisoner, awaiting execution on the morrow, relish food, however delicious?

R: But a little reflection will prove that in reality these sense-objects, by themselves, can never make a person happy.

S: It is a folly to equate objects with happiness.

The proper sequence should be

A. RQSP

B. SQRP

C. SPQR

D. RSQP

 

Q. 67 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. Go north-east across the mountains till you ‘will reach’ an island.

A. reached

B. reach

C. have reached

D. No improvement

 

Q. 68 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. It is hard these days to ‘cope with’ the rising prices.

A. cope by

B. cope up with

C. to be coped with

D. No improvement

 

Q. 69 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. He took a ‘loan’ of hundred rupees from me.

A. debt

B. demand

C. advance

D. No improvement

 

Q. 70 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. ‘From the last’ five days it has been raining torrentially.

A. Since the last

B. For the last

C. Since last

D. No improvement

 

Q. 71 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. The teacher, along with her three children, ‘were taken’ to hospital.

A. was taken

B. had taken

C. had being taken

D. No improvement

 

Q. 72 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. The Prime Minister had ‘wide-ranging’ discussions on the international situation.

A. widely-ranging

B. wide-ranged

C. wide-range

D. No improvement

 

Q. 73 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. The man disappeared after he ‘was rescuing’ a boy from drowning.

A. was rescued

B. has been rescued

C. had rescued

D. No improvement

 

Q. 74 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. I shall be obliged if you ‘could grant’ me an interview.

A. give

B. allow

C. permit

D. No improvement

 

Q. 75 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. By 8.00 in the morning he ‘wrote’ four letters to his friends.

A. had written

B. had been writing

C. was writing

D. No improvement

 

Q. 76 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. But for one witness the accused ‘ought to have’ ben sent to jail.

A. would have

B. had

C. should have

D. No improvement

 

Q. 77 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. He is now looking ‘about’ a job.

A. for

B. after

C. into

D. No improvement

 

Q. 78 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. He did not abide ‘with’ my decision.

A. to

B. by

C. for

D. No improvement

 

Q. 79 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. 

I ‘was living’ in Chennai for ten years when I was a child.

A. had lived

B. lived

C. had been living

D. No improvement

 

Q. 80 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. 

I didn’t feel like going out yesterday, but on account of my son’s illness I ‘had’ to go to the doctor.

A. have

B. might have

C. ought

D. No improvement

 

Q. 81 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

Your services are dispensed ‘for’.

A. from

B. with

C. off

D. No improvement

 

Q. 82 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

I didn’t go to office because I ‘was’ ill.

A. felt

B. had become

C. had felt

D. No improvement

 

Q. 83 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. 

The angry neighbours never ‘passed from’ each other without making rude remarks.

A. passed on

B. passed against

C. passed

D. No improvement

 

Q. 84 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

The chairman with the other members of the board ‘are touring’ Europe these days.

A. have been on touring

B. is touring

C. have toured

D. No improvement

 

Q. 85 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. 

Mahatma Gandhi is ‘called as the Father of the Nation’.

A. called Father of the Nation

B. called the Father of the Nation

C. Father of the Nation

D. No improvement

 

Q. 86 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. 

Poor Tom ‘laid’ in the shade of a tree before he could walk further.

A. lied

B. lain

C. lay

D. No improvement

 

Q. 87 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

You must ‘accustom yourself with’ new ideas.

A. accustomed with

B. accustom to

C. accustom yourself to

D. No improvement

 

Q. 88 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

This telephone number ‘is not existing’.

A. does not exist

B. has not been existing

C. has had no existence

D. No improvement

 

Questions: 89 – 92

Directions: Read the passage given below. After the passage, you will find some questions based on it. First, read the passage and answer the questions based on its contents. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only. When Jonathan (the seagull) came, it was well after dark, and he floated in moonlight on the surface of the ocean. His wings were ragged bars of lead, but the weight of failure was even heavier on his back. He wished, feebly, that the weight would be just enough to drag him gently down to the bottom, and end it all. But soon he came back to normal. He pushed wearily away from the dark water and he flew towards the land, grateful for what he had learned about worksaving low-altitude flying. 

 

Q. 89 The word ‘wearily’ means

A. tireless

B. exhausted

C. sadly

D. unconscious

 

Q. 90 The seagull suffered because

A. he had tried to do something that other seagulls had not done.

B. probably he had been attacked by a stronger bird.

C. probably he had been attacked by some strong creatures in the sea.

D. he had swooned and fallen into the water

 

Q. 91 ‘His wings were ragged bars of lead’ means that

A. his wings were damaged and supported by bars of lead.

B. his wings were damaged and therefore very heavy.

C. he had rags and bars of lead on his wings.

D. his wings were broken like pieces of lead.

 

Q. 92 The lesson that he had learnt that day was about

A. not fighting with stronger birds.

B. flying carrying bars of lead on his wings.

C. diving too deep into the sea.

D. flying at low altitudes.

 

Questions: 93 – 97

Directions: Read the passage given below. After the passage, you will find some questions based on it. First, read the passage and answer the questions based on its contents. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

Vacationing on a motorcycle, you see things in a way that is completely different from any other. In a car you are always in a compartment, and because you are used to it you do not realize that through that car window everything you see is just more TV. You are a passive observer and it is all moving by you boringly in a frame. On a motorcycle, however, the frame is gone. You are completely in contact with it all. You are in the scene, not just watching it anymore, and the sense of presence is overwhelming. 

 

Q. 93 The writer likes traveling on the motorcycle. What is the most likely reason for this?

A. The motorcycle has no windows.

B. The motorcycle does not go as fast as a car.

C. As the traveller is used to cars, travelling by motorcycle is a change.

D. Travelling by motorcycle, the writer feels that he is a part of the scenery.

 

Q. 94 Which of the following statements is closest to the truth?

A. The writer does not like TV as it gives a narrow view of things.

B. The writer likes TV but he does not like watching it from car windows.

C. The writer does not like TV because the picture is in a frame.

D. The writer does not like TV because the programs are boring.

 

Q. 95 “In a car, you are always in a compartment, and because you are used to it you do not realize that…… .” In this sentence, ‘it’ refers to

A. travelling in a car.

B. always being in a compartment, e.g. one’s room, office.

C. seeing the scenery through the window frame.

D. seeing so much TV at home.

 

Q. 96 In the last sentence, the writer talks of a ‘sense of presence’. He is referring to the presence of

A. his own self as part of the scene.

B. the time that is now passing.

C. the scene and the beauty.

D. senses with which one feels.

 

Q. 97 The word ‘overwhelming’ means

A. very strong

B. unavoidable

C. interesting

D. humorous

 

Questions: 98 – 100 

Directions: Read the passage given below. After the passage, you will find some questions based on it. First, read the passage and answer the questions based on its contents. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

I was lying down in a dark, lonely compartment of the speeding train, trying to sleep. But, quite unusually, sleep eluded me. A vague uneasiness gripped me. It was pitch dark outside. A few points of light flashed by as we sped through a small station and in the dim light I thought I saw a hand gripping the bars of my window. Once again the train was swallowed up by the impenetrable darkness. My heart pounded. My mouth was parched. I could not get up. I do not know how long I remained thus before the train began to slow down. The reassuring bright lights of the station we were entering revealed no intruder. I breathed again. 

 

Q. 98 The narrator could not sleep because

A. he usually found it difficult to fall asleep.

B. he could not find a place to lie down.

C. he was disturbed by some unspecified thoughts.

D. the people near him were disturbing him.

 

Q. 99 In the dim light he saw

A. someone trying to climb into the train.

B. someone clinging to the bars of the window.

C. someone was attempting to steal his bag.

D. someone standing outside the window.

 

Q. 100 Which of the following words best describes the condition of the traveler?

A. Cautious

B. Imaginative

C. Observant

D. Nervous

 

Questions: 101 – 103

Directions: Read the passage given below. After the passage, you will find some questions based on it. First, read the passage and answer the questions based on its contents. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

I was abruptly awakened by a noisy scuffle. The sun, a mere fringe over the horizon, immediately chased away the gray half-darkness. I was too sleepy to notice what was happening. Yuri was rolling over on the ground. I ran up to him but was struck dumb. With his right hand, he was holding a cobra by the neck. Two sharp fangs showed from its jaws. The battle was over in a few minutes. A hollow hissing and convulsive jerks were then only reminders of a just-ended tussle. The catcher half-opened the lid of the box and calmly put the quarry in.

 

Q. 101 When the writer saw Yuri holding a cobra by the neck, he was ‘struck dumb’. This means that he was

A. extremely delighted.

B. very much helpless.

C. rather surprised.

D. absolutely shocked.

 

Q. 102 From the passage, Yuri appears to be a man who is

A. calm and courageous.

B. cunning and crafty.

C. noisy and dangerous

D. active and jumpy.

 

Q. 103 With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. The incident took place early in the morning.

2. Yuri threw the snake away.

Which of these assumptions is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 and 2

 

Questions: 104 – 107

Directions: Read the passage given below. After the passage, you will find some questions based on it. First, read the passage and answer the questions based on its contents. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

Urbanization and industrialization have often resulted in whole areas of forests being cleared to gain new land and to obtain timber for the various building projects. Large areas of fields and forests have disappeared to make way for concrete jungles many of which are fitted with huge plants and chimney stacks. Industrial growth has necessitated the increased demand for fuel oil to run the machines and in doing so produces industrial gases and fumes which belch through the chimney and pollute the atmosphere. The most evident elements in the contamination of the atmosphere are dust, sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide and nitrous oxide.

 

Q. 104 The writer expresses the belief that

A. there is plenty of scope for further industrialization.

B. unplanned growth of industry has done more harm than good.

C. the change from rural to urban growth is a change for the better.

D. the timber obtained from the forests has been beneficially used.

 

Q. 105 The effect on forest areas produced by the activity described in the first sentence is called 

A. devastation

B. deforestation

C. disfiguration

D. devaluation

 

Q. 106 The results of industrial development, according to the writer, are

A. urbanization.

B. no shortage of fuel oil.

C. greater availability of domestic gas.

D. greater fuel consumption and pollution.

 

Q. 107 The phrase ‘concrete jungle’ in the paragraph refers to the factories and houses built as a result of urbanization and industrialization. This phrase suggests that the author 

A. regrets that fields and forests have been replaced by city buildings.

B. believes that too much cement has been used in building factories.

C. disapproves of modern industrial expansion.

D. would like to back to life in the jungle.

 

Questions: 108 – 110 

Directions: Read the passage given below. After the passage, you will find some questions based on it. First, read the passage and answer the questions based on its contents. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

I must say a word about the Eiffel Tower. I do not know what purpose it serves today. But I then heard it greatly disparaged as well as praised. I remember that Tolstoy was the chief among those who disparaged it. He said that the Eiffel Tower was a monument of man’s folly, not of his wisdom. Tobacco, he argued, was the worst of all intoxicants, in as much as a man addicted to it was tempted to commit crimes which a drunkard never dared to do; liquor made a man mad, but tobacco clouded his intellect and made him build castles in the air. The Eiffel Tower was one of the creations of a man under such influence. There is no art about the Eiffel Tower. In no way can it be said to have contributed to the real beauty of the Exhibition. Men flocked to see it and ascended it as it was a novelty and of unique dimensions. It was the toy of the Exhibition. So long as were are children we are attracted by toys, and the Tower was a good demonstration of the fact that we are children attracted by trinkets. That may be claimed to be the purpose served by the Eiffel Tower.

 

Q. 108 Why did Tolstoy disparage Eiffel Tower?

1. Man was foolish to build it.

2. Huge man-made structure did not appeal to him.

3. Men flocked to see it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

 

Q. 109 Why did Tolstoy believe that tobacco was the worst of all intoxicants?

A. Man lost his intellectual abilities under the influence of tobacco.

B. Tobacco kept man in a state of inebriation.

C. People who commit crimes are invariably addicted to tobacco.

D. Statements (a) and (b) above are correct in this context.

 

Q. 110 Why did men flock to the Eiffel Tower?

A. Men were attracted to the castles built in the air.

B. Men lost their wisdom under the influence of intoxicants.

C. Men were attracted to childish things.

D. Men were attracted to things of no value.

 

Q. 111 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

In this University, there is no ____________ for awarding scholarships on the basis of merit in examination alone.

A. precedent

B. opportunity

C. chance

D. possibility

 

Q. 112 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Can you pay ____________ all these articles?

A. out

B. of

C. for

D. off

 

Q. 113 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

He may not come, but we’ll get ready in case he __________.

A. may

B. will

C. shall

D. does

 

Q. 114 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

He is quite ____________; you can never count on him in matters of secrecy.

A. unjust

B. unbearable

C. inefficient

D. unreliable

 

Q. 115 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The Governor will ____________ the oath of office to the thirty-five new ministers at 9.30 p.m. tomorrow.

A. confer

B. present

C. execute

D. administer

 

Q. 116 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Most of the students have forgotten to bring their certificates; they will be ____________ by the Principal for this reason.

A. reproached

B. abused

C. accused

D. reprimanded

 

Q. 117 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The consequences of economic growth have now __________ to the lowest level.

A. drawn

B. slipped

C. percolated

D. crept

 

Q. 118 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Mrs. Ramsay did not know whether Miss Jane knew ____________.

A. swimming

B. to swim

C. how to swim

D. how to swimming

 

Q. 119 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

He ____________ the role of the organization in creating environmental awareness among the people.

A. collaborated

B. commanded

C. contrasted

D. commended

 

Q. 120 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

We should give everyone training in citizenship but we have __________ this aspect till now.

A. denied

B. neglected

C. refused

D. disallowed

 

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer B D D C C B D C C D
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer A C A B B C A C A C
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer D C A C B C B C A C
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer A D C D D B D C D A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer B D B B B C C D B D
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer D C B C D C A B C D
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer B B B D B A B D D B
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer A D C D A A A B B D
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer B D C B B C C A B A
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B D D A C A A C B D
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer D A A B B D A C A D
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer A C D D D D C C D B

UPSC 2014 Paper-II (CSAT) Previous Year Paper

UPSC 2014 Paper-II (CSAT)

Questions: 1 – 3

Read the following passage carefully and answer the Q(1-3).

In recent times, India has grown fast not only compared to its own past but also in comparison with other nations. But there cannot be any room for complacency because it is possible for the Indian economy to develop even faster and also to spread the benefits of this growth more widely than has been done thus far. Before going into details of the kinds of micro-structural changes that we need to conceptualize and then proceed to implement, it is worthwhile elaborating on the idea of inclusive growth that constitutes the defining concept behind this Government’s various economic policies and decisions. A nation interested in inclusive growth views the same growth differently depending on whether the gains of the growth are heaped primarily on a small segment or shared widely by the population. The latter is caused for celebration but not the former. In other words, growth must not be treated as an end in itself but as an instrument for spreading prosperity to all. India’s own past experience and the experience of other nations suggest that growth is necessary for eradicating poverty but it is not a sufficient condition. In other words, policies for promoting growth need to be complemented with policies to ensure that more and more people joined in the growth process and, further, that there are mechanisms in place to redistribute some of the gains to those who are unable to partake in the market process and, hence, get left behind.

A simple way of giving this idea of inclusive growth a sharper form is to measure a nation’s progress in terms of the progress of its poorest segment, for instance the bottom 20 per cent of the population. One could measure the per capital income of the bottom quin tile of the population and also calculate the growth rate of income; and evaluate our economic success in terms of these measures that pertain to the poorest segment. This approach is attractive because it does not ignore growth like some of the older heterodox criteria did. It simply looks at the growth of income of the poorest sections of the population. It also ensures that those who are outside of the bottom quintile do not get ignored. If that were done, then those people would in all likelihood drop down into the bottom quintile and so would automatically become a direct target of our policies. Hence the criterion being suggested here is a statistical summing up of the idea of  inclusive growth, which, in turn, leads to two corollaries : to wish that India must strive to achieve high growth and that we must work to ensure that the weakest segments benefit from the growth.

 

Q. 1 The author’s central focus is on

A. Applauding India’s economic growth not only against its own past performance, but against other nations.

B. Emphasizing the need for economic growth which is the sole determinant of a country’s prosperity.

C. Emphasizing inclusive growth where gains of growth are shared widely by the population.

D. Emphasizing high growth

 

Q. 2 The author supports policies which will help

A. Develop economic growth.

B. Better distributions of incomes irrespective of rate of growth.

C. Develop economic growth and redistribute economic gains to those getting left behind.

D. Put an emphasis on the development of the poorest segments of society.

 

Q. 3 According to the author, India’s economy has grown but there is no room for complacency as

1. Growth eradicates poverty.

2. Growth has resulted in prosperity for all.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Questions: 4 – 5

Passage – 2

It is easy for the government to control State-owned companies through nods and winks. So what really needs to be done as a first step is to put petrol pricing on a transparent formula – if the price of crude is x and the exchange rate y, then every month or fortnight, the government announces a maximum price of petrol, which anybody can work out from the x and the y. The rule has to be worked out to make sure that the oil-marketing companies can, in general, cover their costs. This will mean that if one company can innovate and cut costs, it will make greater profits. Hence, firms will be more prone to innovate and be efficient under this system. Once the rule is announced, there should be no interference by the government. If this is done for a while, private companies will re-enter this market. And once a sufficient number of them are in the fray, we can remove the rule-based pricing and leave it truly to the market (subject to, of course, the usual regulations of anti-trust and other competition laws).

 

Q. 4 Consider the following statements:

According to the passage, an oil company can make greater profits, if a transparent formula for petrol pricing is announced every fortnight or month, by

1. Promoting its sales.

2. Undertaking innovation.

3. Cutting costs.

4. Selling its equity shares at higher prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 4

 

Q. 5 Consider the following statements:

According to the passage, private oil companies re-enter the oil producing market if

1. a transparent rule-based petrol pricing exists.

2. there is no government interference in the oil producing market.

3. subsidies are given by the government.

4. regulations of anti-trust are removed.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 2 and 4

 

Q. 6 Five persons five bullets at an interval 0f 6, 7, 8, 9, and 12 seconds respectively. The number of times they would fire the bullets together at the target in an hour is

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

 

Q. 7 A group of 630 children is seated in rows for a group photo session. Each row contains three less children than the row in front of it. Which one of the following number of rows is not possible?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

 

Q. 8 There are seven persons up on a ladder, A, B, C, D, E, F and G (not in that order). A is further up than E but is lower than C. B is in the middle. G is between A and B. E is between B and F. If F is between E and D, the person on the bottom step of the ladder will be

A. B

B. F

C. D

D. E

 

Q. 9 Consider that:

1. A is taller than B.

2. C is taller than A.

3. D is taller than C.

4. E is the tallest of all.

If they are made to sit in the above order of their height, who will occupy the mid position?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 10 Consider the following statements:

There are six villages A, B, C, D, E and F.

F is 1km to the west of D.

B is 1km to the east of E.

A is 2km to the north of E.

C is 1km to the east of A.

D is 1km to the south of A.

Which three villages are in a line?

A. A, C, B

B. A, D, E

C. C, B, F

D. E, B, D

 

Q. 11 Four children are sitting in a row. A is occupying the seat next to B but not next to C. If C is not sitting next to D, who is/are occupying seat/seats adjacent to D?

A. B

B. A

C. B and A

D. Impossible to tell

 

Q. 12 Assume that:

1. the hour and minute hands of a clock move without jerking.

2. the clock shows a time between 8 o’clock and 9 o’clock.

3. the two hands of the clock are one above the other.

After how many minutes (nearest integer) will the two hands be again lying one above the other?

A. 60

B. 62

C. 65

D. 67

 

Questions: 13 – 14

Passage – 1

Climate change poses potentially devastating effects on India’s agriculture. While the overall parameters of climate change are increasingly accepted – 1’C average temperature increase over the next 30 years, sea level rise of less than 10 cm in he same period, and regional monsoon variations and corresponding droughts – the impacts in India are likely to be quite site and crop specific. Some crops may respond favorably to the changing conditions, others may not. This emphasizes the need to promote agricultural research and create maximum flexibility in the system to permit adaptations. The key ingredient for”drought proofing” is the managed recharge of aquifers. To ensure continued yields of important staple crops (e.g. wheat), it may also be necessary to shift the locations where these crops are grown, in response to temperature changes as well as to water availability. The latter will be a key factor in making long term investment decisions. For example, water runoff from the Himalayas is predicted to increase over the next 30 years as glaciers melt, but then decline substantially thereafter. It will be critical to provide incentives to plan for these large-scale shifts in agro-ecological conditions. India needs to make long term investment in research and development in agriculture. India is likely to experience changed weather patterns in future.

 

Q. 13 Consider the following statements:

Climate change may force the shifting of locations of the existing crops due to

1. Meting of glaciers.

2. water availability and temperature suitability at other locations.

3. Poor productivity of crops.

4. Wider adaptability of crop plants.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q. 14 According to the passage, why is it important to promote agricultural research in India?

A. To predict variations in monsoon patterns and to make water resources.

B. To make long term investment decisions for economic growth.

C. To facilitate wider adaptability of crops.

D. To predict drought conditions and to recharge aquifers.

Questions: 15 – 18

Passage – 2

It is essential that we mitigate the emissions of greenhouse gases and thus avoid some of the worst impacts of climate change that would take place in coming years and decades. Mitigation would require a major shift in the way we produce and consume energy. A shift away from overwhelming dependence on fossil fuels is now long overdue, but unfortunately, technological development has been slow and inadequate largely because government policies have not promoted investments in research and development, myopically as a result of relatively low prices of oil. It is now, therefore, imperative for a country like India treating the opportunity of harnessing renewable energy on a large scale as a national imperative. This country is extremely well endowed with solar, wind and biomass sources of energy. Where we have lagged, unfortunately, is in our ability to develop and to create technological solutions for harnessing these resources. One particular trajectory for carrying out stringent mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions assessed by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) clearly shows the need for ensuring that global emissions of greenhouse gases peak no later than 2015 and reduce rapidly thereafter. The cost associated with such a trajectory is truly modest and would amount, in the estimation of IPCC, to not more than 3 percent of the global GDP in 2030. In other words, the level of prosperity that the world would have reached without mitigation would at worst be postponed by a few months or a year at the most. This is clearly not a very high price to pay for protecting hundreds of millions of people from the worst risks associated with climate change. Any such effort, however, would require lifestyles to change appropriately also. Mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions is not a mere technological fix, and clearly requires changes in lifestyle and transformation of a country’s economic structure, whereby effective reduction in emissions is brought about , such as through the consumption of much lower quantities of animal proteins. The Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) has determined that the emissions from the livestock sector amount to 18% of the total. The reduction of emissions from this source is entirely in the hands of human beings, who have never questioned the impact that their dietary habits of consuming more and more animal protein are bringing about. Mitigation overall has huge co-benefits, such as lower air pollution and health benefits, higher energy and greater employment.

 

Q. 15 According to the passage, which of the following would help in the mitigation of greenhouse gases?

1. Reducing the consumption of meat.

2. Rapid economic liberalization.

3. Reducing the consumerism.

4. Modern management practices of livestock.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 4 only

 

Q. 16 Why do we continue to depend on the fossil fuels heavily?

1. In adequate technological development.

2. Inadequate funds for research and development.

3. Inadequate availability of alternative sources of energy.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Q. 17 According to the passage, how does the mitigation of greenhouse gases help us?

1. Reduces expenditure on public health

2. Reduces dependence on livestock.

3. Reduces energy requirements.

4. Reduces rate of global climate change

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1, 3 and 4

C. 2, 3 and 4

D. 1 and 4 only

 

Q. 18 What is the essential message of the passage?

A. We continue to depend on fossil fuels heavily.

B. Mitigation of the greenhouse gases is imperative.

C. We must invest in research and development.

D. People must change their lifestyle.

 

Q. 19 There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some student can speak only English and some can speak only Hindi. 10 students can speak both English and Hindi. If the number of students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can speak Hindi, how many can speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English?

A. 21, 11 and 29 respectively

B. 28, 18 and 22 respectively

C. 37, 27 and 13 respectively

D. 39, 29 and 11 respectively

 

Q. 20 A gardener increased the area of his rectangular garden by increasing its length by 40% and decreasing its width by 20%. The area of the new garden is

A. Has increased by 20%.

B. Has increased by 12%

C. Has increased by 8%

D. Is exactly the same as the old area.

 

Q. 21 Six books are labelled A, B, C, D, E and F and are placed side by side. Books B, C, E and F have green covers while others have yellow covers. Books A, B and D are new while the rest are old volumes. Book A, B and C are Law reports while the rest are medical extracts. Which two books are old medical extracts and have green covers?

A. B and C

B. E and F

C. C and E

D. C and F

 

Q. 22 A straight line segment is 36cm long. Points are to be marked on the line from both the end points. From each end, the first point is at a distance of 1 cm from the end, the second point is at a distance of 2 cm from the first point and the third point is at distance of 3 cm from the second point and so on. If the points on the ends are not counted and the common points are counted as one, what is the number of points?

A. 10

B. 12

C. 14

D. 16

 

Q. 23 If Sohan, while selling two goats at the same price, makes a profit of 10% on one goat and suffers a loss of 10% on the other.

A. he makes no profit and no loss.

B. he makes a profit of 1%.

C. he suffers a loss of 1%.

D. he suffers a loss of 2%

 

Q. 24 Out of a total of 120 musicians in a club, 5% can play all the three instruments, guitar, violin and flute. It so happens that the number of musicians who can play any two and only two of the above instrument is 30. The number of musicians who can play the guitar alone is 40. What is the total number of those who can play violin alone or flute alone?

A. 45

B. 44

C. 38

D. 30

 

Q. 25 Six identical cards are placed on a table. Each card has number ‘1’ marked on one side and number ‘2’ marked on its other side. All the six cards are placed in such a manner that the number ‘1’ is on the upper side. In one try, exactly four (neither more nor less) cards are turned upside down. In how many least number of tries can the cards be turned upside down such that all the six cards shows number ‘2’ on the upper side?

A. 3

B. 5

C. 7

D. This cannot be achieved

 

Questions: 26 – 29

Passage – 1

The Himalayan ecosystem is highly vulnerable to damage, both due to geological reasons and on account of the stress caused by increased pressure of population, exploitation of natural resources and other related challenges. These aspects may be exacerbated due to the impact of climate change. It is possible that climate change may adversely impact the Himalayan ecosystem through increased temperature, altered precipitation patterns, episodes of drought and biotic influences. This would not only impact the very sustenance of the indigenous communities in uplands but also the life of downstream dwellers across the country and beyond. Therefore, there is an urgent need for giving special attention to sustain the Himalayan ecosystem. This would require conscious efforts for conserving all the representative systems. Further, it needs to be emphasized that the endemics with restricted distribution, and most often with specialized habitat requirements, are among the most vulnerable elements. In this respect the Himalayan biodiversity hotspot, with rich endemic diversity, is vulnerable to climate change. The threats include possible loss of genetic resources and species, habitats and concomitantly a decrease in ecosystem services. Therefore, conservation of endemic elements in representative ecosystems/habitats assumes a great significance while drawing conservation plans for the region. Towards achieving the above, we will have to shift toward contemporary conservation approaches, which include a paradigm of landscape level inter connectivity between protected area systems. The concept advocates a shift from the species-habitat focus to an inclusive focus on expanding the bio geographic range so that natural adjustments to climate change can proceed without being restrictive.

 

Q. 26 Consider the following statements:

According to the passage, the adverse impact of climate change on an ecosystem can be a

1. permanent disappearance of some of its flora and fauna.

2. permanent disappearance of ecosystem itself

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 27 Which of the following statements best implies the need to shift toward contemporary conservation approach?

A. Exploitation of natural resources causes a stress on the Himalayan ecosystem.

B. Climate change alters precipitation patterns, causes episodes of drought and biotic interference.

C. The rich biodiversity, including endemic diversity, makes the Himalayan region a biodiversity hotspot.

D. The Hiamalayan biogeographic region should be enabled to adapt to climate change smoothly.

 

Q. 28 What is the most important message conveyed by the passage?

A. Endemism is a characteristic feature of Himalayan region.

B. Conservation efforts should emphasize on biogeographic ranges rather than on some species or habitats.

C. Climate change has adverse impact on the Himalayan ecosystem.

D. Without Himalayan ecosystem, the life of the communities of upland and downstreams will have no sustenance.

 

Q. 29 With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. To maintain natural ecosystems, exploitation of natural resources should be completely avoided.

2. Not only anthropogenic but also natural reasons can adversely affect ecosystems.

3. Loss of endemic diversity leads to the extinction of ecosystems.

Which of the following assumptions are is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 only

 

Questions: 30 – 33

Passage – 2

It is often forgotten that globalization is not only about policies on international economic relationships and transactions, but has equally to do with domestic policies of a nation. Policy changes necessitated by meeting the internationally set conditions (by WTO etc.) of free trade and investment flows obviously affect domestic producers and investors. But the basic philosophy underlying globalization emphasizes absolute freedom to markets to determine prices and production and distribution patterns, and view government interventions as processes that create distortions and bring in inefficiency. Thus, public enterprises have to be privatized through disinvestments and sales; sectors and activities hitherto reserved for the public sector have to be opened to the private sector. This logic extends to the social services like education and heath. Any restrictions on the adjustments in workplace by way of retrenchment of workers should also be removed and exit should be made easier by removing any restrictions on closures. Employment and wages should be governed by free play of market forces, as any measures to regulate them can discourage investment and also create inefficiency in production. Above all, in line with the overall philosophy of reduction in the role of the State, fiscal reforms should be undertaken to have generally low levels of taxation and government expenditure should be kept to he minimum to abide by the principle of fiscal prudence. All these are policy actions on the domestic front and are not directly related to the core items of the globalization agenda, namely free international flow of goods and finance

 

Q. 30 According to the passage, under the globalization, government interventions are viewed as processes leading to

A. distortions and inefficiency in the economy.

B. optimum use of resources.

C. more profitable to industries.

D. free play of market forces with regards to industries.

 

Q. 31 According to the passage, the basic philosophy of globalization is to

A. give absolute freedom to producers to determine prices and productions.

B. give freedom to producers to evolve distribution patterns.

C. give absolute freedom to markets to determine prices, production and employment.

D. give freedom to producers to import and export.

 

Q. 32 According to the passage, which of the following is/are necessary for ensuring

Globalization?

1. Privatization of public enterprises.

2. Expansionary policy of public expenditure.

3. Free play of market forces to determine wages and employment.

4. Privatization of social services like education and health.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. 2, 3 and 4

 

Q. 33 According to the passage, in the process of globalization the State should have

A. expanding role.

B. reducing role.

C. statutory role.

D. none of the above roles.

 

Questions: 34 – 37

The following graph shows the average profit of two fruit-sellers A and B in thousands (Rs.) per year from the year 1995 to 2000. Consider the graph and answer the 4 (four) items that follows:

 

Q. 34  In which year is the average profit of A and B is same?

A. 1995

B. 1996

C. 1997

D. 1998

 

Q. 35 What is the difference between the average profit of B and A in the year 1998?

A. – Rs. 100

B. – Rs. 1,000

C. + Rs. 600

D. – Rs. 300

 

Q. 36 How much more average profit did A make in the year 2000 than in the year 1999?

A. Rs. 200

B. Rs. 1,000

C. Rs. 1,500

D. Rs. 2,000

 

Q. 37 What is the trend of the average profit of B from the year 1997 to the year 2000?

A. Non-increasing

B. Non-decreasing

C. Steady

D. Fluctuating

 

Q. 38 The following table shows the marks obtained by two students in different subjects: The difference in the mean aggregate percentage marks of the students is

A. 2.5%

B. 13.75%

C. 1.25%

D. Zero

 

Q. 39 Examine the figure 1:

Which one of the following figures (a), (b), (c), (d) has the above figure embedded in it?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 40 Consider the following matrix of figure 1:

Which one of the following figures (a), (b), (c), (d) fits into the blank part of the above matrix?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 41 The following table gives population and total income of a city for four years:

Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of the above data?

A. Population increased by 5% or more every year.

B. Income increased by 10% or more every year.

C. Per capita income was always above Rs. 5,000.

D. Per capita income was highest in 1994.

 

Q. 42 Consider the table given below in which the numbers bear certain relationship among themselves along the rows:

Which one of the following numbers is the missing number indicated above by X?

A. 19

B. 15

C. 14

D. 8

 

Q. 43 Consider the following matrix of figure 1 with one empty block in the lower extreme corner:

Which one of the following figures (a), (b), (c), (d) could fit in the empty block and thus complete the matrix?

 

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 44 With reference to the figure given below, the number of different routes from S to T without retracing from U and/or V, is

A. 3

B. 6

C. 9

D. 18

 

Q. 45 Consider the following sequence in figure 1:

Change in positions of beads in the four figures above follows a sequence. Following the same sequence, which of the figures (a), (b), (c), (d) should appear as the fifth figure above?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 46 A bell rings every 18 minutes. A second bell rings every 24 minutes. A third bell rings every 32 minutes. If all the three bells ring at the same time at 8 o’clock in the morning, at what other time will they all ring together?

A. 12 : 40 hrs

B. 12 : 48 hrs

C. 12 : 56 hrs

D. 13 : 04 hrs

 

Q. 47 “Price is not the same thing as value. Suppose that on a day the price of everything viz., coal, bread, postage stamps, a day’s labour, the rent of houses, etc. were to double. Prices then would certainly rise, but values of all things except one would not.” The writer wants to say that if prices of all things were doubled

A. the values of all things would remain constant.

B. the values of the things sold would be doubled.

C. the values of the things bought would be halved.

D. the value of money only would be halved.

 

Q. 48 A and B decide to travel from place X to place Y by bus. A has Rs. 10 with him and he finds that it is 80% of the bus fare for two persons. B finds that he has Rs. 3 with him and hands it over to A. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Now the money A has is just enough to buy two tickets.

B. A still needs Rs. 2 for buying the tickets.

C. After buying the two tickets A will be left with 50 paise.

D. The money A now has is still not sufficient to buy two tickets.

 

Q. 49 As per agreement with a bank, a businessman had to refund a loan in some equal installments without interest. After paying 18 installments he found that 60 percent of his loan was refunded. How many installments were there in the agreement?

A. 22

B. 24

C. 30

D. 33

 

Q. 50 A worker reaches his factory 3 minutes late if his speed from his house to the factory is 5km/hr. If he walks at a speed of 6km/hr, then he reaches the factory 7 minutes early. The distance of the factory from his house is

A. 3 km

B. 4 km

C. 5 km

D. 6 km

 

Q. 51 “Liberty, therefore, is never real unless the Government can be called to account when it invades rights.”

Which one of the following is the best justification of the above statement?

A. In the realization that the government can be brought to book in a court of law.

B. In identifying a man as a political unit in a way which distinguishes him from other citizens.

C. In a decentralised society wherein the basic needs of men can find satisfaction.

D. In the understanding that liberty and restraints are complementary.

Questions: 52 – 54

Passage – 1

Many nations now place their faith in capitalism and governments choose it as the strategy to create wealth for their people. The spectacular economic growth seen in Brazil, China and India after the liberalisation of their economies is proof of its enormous potential and success. However, the global banking crisis and the economic recession have left many bewildered. The debates tend to focus on free market operations and forces, their efficiency and their ability for self correction. Issues of justice, integrity and honesty are rarely elaborated to highlight the failure of the global banking system. The apologists of the system continue to justify the success of capitalism and argue that the recent crisis was a blip. Their arguments betray an ideological bias with the assumptions that an unregulated market is fair and competent, and that the exercise of private greed will be in the larger public interest. Few recognize the bidirectional relationship between capitalism and greed; that each reinforces the other. Surely, a more honest conceptualisation of the conflicts of interest among the rich and powerful players who have benefited from the system, their biases and ideology is needed; the focus on the wealth creation should also highlight the resultant gross inequity

Q. 52 The apologists of the “Free market system”, according to the passage, believe in

A. market without control by government authorities.

B. market without protection by the government.

C. ability of market to self correct.

D. markets for free goods and services.

 

Q. 53 With reference to “ideological bias”, the passage implies” that

A. free market is fair but not competent.

B. free market is not fair but competent.

C. free market is fair and competent.

D. free market is neither fair nor biased.

 

Q. 54 “The exercise of private greed will be in the larger public interest” from the passage

1. refers to the false ideology of capitalism.

2. underlies the righteous claims of the free market.

3. show the benevolent face of capitalism.

4. ignores resultant gross inequity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 4

D. 4 only

 

Questions: 55 – 58

Passage – 2

Net profits are only 2.2% of their total assets for central public sector undertakings, lower than for the private corporate sector. While the public sector or the State-led entrepreneurship played an important role in triggering India’s industrialization, our evolving development needs, comparatively less-thansatisfactory performance of the public sector enterprises, the maturing of our private sector, a much larger social base now available for expanding entrepreneurship and the growing institutional capabilities to enforce competition policies would suggest that the time has come to review the role of public sector.

What should the portfolio composition of the government be? It should not remain static all times. The airline industry works well as a purely private affair. At the opposite end, rural roads, whose sparse traffic makes tolling unviable, have to be on the balance-sheet of the State. If the government did not own rural roads, they would not exist. Similarly, public health capital in our towns and cities will need to come from the public sector. Equally, preservation and improvement of forest cover will have to be a new priority for he public sector assets. Take the example of steel. With near-zero tariffs, India is a globally competitive market for the metal. Indian firms export steel into the global market, which demonstrates there is no gap in technology. Indian companies are buying up global steel companies, which shows there is no gap in capital availability. Under these conditions, private ownership works best. Private ownership is clearly desirable in regulated industries, ranging from finance to infrastructure, where a government agency performs the function of regulation and multiple competing firms are located in the private sector. Here, the simple and clean solution – government as the umpire and the private sector as the players is what works best. In many of these industries, we have a legacy of government ownership, where productivity tends to be lower, fear of bankruptcy is absent, and the risk of asking for money from the tax payer is ever present. There is also the conflict of interest between government as an owner and as the regulator. The formulation and implementation of competition policy will be more vigorous and fair if government companies are out of action.

 

Q. 55 According to the passage, what is/are the reason/reasons for saying that the time has come to review the role of public sector?

1. Now public sector has lost its relevance in the industrialization process.

2. Public sector does not perform satisfactorily.

3. Entrepreneurship in private sector is expanding.

4. Effective competition policies are available now.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct in the given context?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q. 56 According to the passage, rural roads should be in the domain of public sector only. Why?

A. Rural developmental work is the domain of government only.

B. Private sector cannot have monetary gains in this.

C. Government takes money from tax payers and hence it is the responsibility of government only.

D. Private sector need not have any social responsibility.

 

Q. 57 The portfolio composition of the government refers to

A. Public sector assets quality.

B. Investment in liquid assets.

C. Mix of government investment in different industrial sectors.

D. Buying Return on investment yielding capital assets.

 

Q. 58 The author prefers government as the umpire and private sector as players because

A. Government prescribes norms for a fair play by the private sector.

B. Government is the ultimate in policy formulation.

C. Government has no control over private sector players.

D. None of the above statements is correct in this context.

 

Q. 59 A question paper must have a question on one of the eight poets: A, B, C, D, E, F, G or H.

The first four belong to the medieval period while the rests are considered modern poets. Generally, modern poets figure in the question paper in alternate years. Generally those who like H like G also; and those who like F like E also. The paper-setter does not like to ask about F as he has written a book on F, but he likes F. Last year, the paper contained a question on A. On the basis of the information given, this year’s paper is most likely to contain a question on

A. C

B. E

C. F

D. H

 

Q. 60 In a group of six women there are four dancers, four vocal musicians, one actress and three violinists. Girija and Vanaja are among the violinists while Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how to play on the violin. Shailaja and Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja and Tanuja are all vocal musicians and two of them are also violinists. If Pooja is an actress, who among the following is certainly a dancer and a violinist?

A. Jalaja

B. Pooja

C. Shailaja

D. Tanuja

 

Q. 61 The letter L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T in their order are substituted by nine integers 1 to 9 but not in that order. 4 is assigned to P. The difference between P and T is 5. The difference between N and T is 3. What is the integer assigned to N?

A. 7

B. 5

C. 4

D. 6

 

Q. 62 The number of deaths among the army personnel is 8 in 1000, but among the civilian population it is 20 per 1000. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from this statement?

A. It is better to joined the army.

B. The relationship is fortuitous.

C. Quality of Life index is very high within the armed forces.

D. The groups cannot be compared due to their heterogeneity

 

Q. 63 Given the statement: “Buses are the cause of more accidents than cars, and trucks cause fewer accidents than buses”, which of the following conclusions can we draw?

A. There are more buses on the roads than trucks.

B. Car drivers are more careful than bus drivers.

C. Truck drivers are more skilled than either car or bus drivers.

D. None of the above.

 

Q. 64 ”If political leadership fails to emerge, there is likelihood of military taking over power in developing countries. Radical student groups or labour may try to raise revolution but they are not likely to compete with the military. Military intervention, rule, and withdrawal from politics is closely related to a society’s level of political development.” In the context of political development, the assumption in the above passage is that

A. Political leadership is not an effective instrument.

B. Military fills in political vacuum.

C. Military intervention in inevitable for development.

D. None of the above.

 

Q. 65 Four persons, Alok, Bhupesh, Chander and Dinesh have a total of Rs. 100 among themselves. Alok and Bhupesh between them have as much money as Chander and Dinesh between them, but Alok has more money than Bhupesh; and Chander has only half the money that Dinesh has. Alok has in fact Rs. 5 more than Dinesh has. Who has the maximum amount of money?

A. Alok

B. Bhupesh

C. Chander

D. Dinesh

 

Q. 66 Examine the following statements:

1. George attends Music classes on Monday.

2. He attends Mathematics classes on Wednesday.

3. His Literature classes are not on Friday.

4. He attends History classes on the day following the day of his Mathematics classes.

5. On Tuesday, he attends his Sports classes.

If he attends just one subject in a day and his Sunday is free, then he is also free on

A. Monday

B. Thursday

C. Saturday

D. Friday

 

Q. 67 In a row ‘A’ is in the 11th position from the left and ‘B’ is in the 10th position from the right. If ‘A’ and ‘B’ interchange, then ‘A’ becomes 8th from the left. How many persons are there in the row other than ‘A’ and ‘B’?

A. 27

B. 26

C. 25

D. 24

 

Q. 68 Location of B is north of A and location of C is east of A. The distances AB and AC are 5km and 12km respectively. The shortest distance (in km) between the locations B and C is:

A. 60

B. 13

C. 17

D. 7

 

Q. 69 Two cars start towards each other, from two places A and B which are at a distance of 160km. They start at the same time 08 : 10 AM. If the speed of the cars are 50km and 30km per hour respectively, they will meet each other at

A. 10 : 10 AM

B. 10 : 30 AM

C. 11 : 10 AM

D. 11 : 20 AM

 

Questions: 70 – 71

Passage – 1

In front of us was walking a bare-headed old man in tattered clothes. He was driving his beasts. They were all laden with heavy loads of clay from the hills and looked tired. The man carried a long whip which perhaps he himself had made. As he walked down the road he stopped now and then to eat the wild berries that grew on bushes along the uneven road. When he threw away the seeds, the bold birds would fly to peck at them. Sometimes a stray dog watched the procession philosophically and then began to bark. When this happened, my two little sons would stand still holding my hands firmly. A dog can sometimes be dangerous indeed.

 

Q. 70 The author’s children held his hand firmly because

A. they were scared of the barking dogs.

B. they wanted him to pluck berries.

C. they saw the whip in the old man’s hand.

D. the road was uneven.

 

Q. 71 The expression ”a stray dog watched the procession philosophically” means that

A. the dog was restless and ferocious.

B. the dog stood aloof, looking at the procession with seriousness.

C. the dog looked at the procession with big, wandering eyes.

D. the dog stood there with his eyes closed.

 

Questions: 72 – 75

Passage – 2

Cynthia was a shy girl. She believed that she was plain and untalented. One day her teacher ordered the entire class to show up for audition for the school play. Cynthia nearly died of fright when she was told that she would have to stand on stage in front of the entire class and deliver dialogues. The mere thought of it made her feel sick. But a remarkable transformation occurred during the audition. A thin, shy girl, her knees quaking, her stomach churning in terror, began to stun everyone with her excellent performance. Her bored classmates suddenly stopped their noisy chat to stare at her slender figure on the stage. At the end of her audition, the entire room erupted in thunderous applause.

 

Q. 72 Cynthia was afraid to stand on stage because

A. she felt her classmates may laugh at her.

B. her stomach was churning.

C. she lacked self-confidence.

D. she did not like school plays.

 

Q. 73 Cynthia’s classmates were chatting because

A. it was their turn to act next.

B. they were bored of the performances.

C. Cynthia did not act well.

D. the teacher had no control over them.

 

Q. 74 Cynthia’s knees were quaking because

A. she felt nervous and shy.

B. the teacher scolded her.

C. she was very thin and weak.

D. she was afraid of her classmates.

 

Q. 75 The transformation that occurred during the audition refers to

A. the nervousness of Cynthia.

B. the eruption of the entire room in thunderous applause.

C. the surprise on the faces of her classmates.

D. the stunning performance of Cynthia

 

Q. 76 If the 3rd day of a month is Monday, which one of the following will be the fifth day from 21st of this month?

A. Monday

B. Tuesday

C. Wednesday

D. Friday

 

Q. 77 For a charity show, the total tickets sold were 420. Half of these tickets were sold at the rate of Rs. 5, one-third at the rate of Rs. 3 each and the rest for Rs. 2 each. What was the total amount received?

A. Rs. 900

B. Rs. 1,540

C. Rs. 1,610

D. Rs. 2,000

 

Questions: 78 – 80

A, B, C, D, E, F are members of a family. They are engineer, stenographer, doctor,draughtsman, lawyer and judge (not in order). A, the engineer is married to the lady stenographer. The judge is married to the lawyer. F, the draughtsman is the son of B and brother of E. C, the lawyer is the daughter-in-law of D. E is the unmarried doctor. D is the grandmother of F. There are two married couples in the family.

 

Q. 78 What is the profession of B?

A. Judge

B. Lawyer

C. Draughtsman

D. Cannot be determined

 

Q. 79 Which of the following is/are a couple/couples?

A. AD only

B. BC only

C. Both AD and BC

D. Both AC and BD

 

Q. 80 What is the profession of D?

A. Judge

B. Stenographer

C. Doctor

D. Cannot be determined

Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C C D B A B D C C B
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer B C B C C D B B D B
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer B B C B A A D B B A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer C C B B C D B D C B
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C D A D B B D C C C
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer D C C C C B C D B D
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer D D D B A D C B A D
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer D D D D D C C A C B
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