Paper – 2 

Q. 1 (a) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:  

  (i) The element with highest ionization potential, is: 

  A. Hydrogen 

  B. Caesium 

  C. Radon 

  D. Helium  

 (ii) The inert electrode used in the electrolysis of acidified water, is: 

 A. Nickel  

 B. Platinum 

 C. Copper 

 D. Silver 

 (iii) A compound with low boiling point, is: 

 A. Sodium chloride 

 B. Calcium chloride 

 C. Potassium chloride 

 D. Carbon tetrachloride 

 (iv) The acid which can produce carbon from cane sugar, is: 

 A. Concentrated Hydrochloric acid 

 B. Concentrated Nitric acid 

 C. Concentrated Sulphuric acid 

 D. Concentrated Acetic acid 

 (v) The organic compound having a triple carbon-carbon covalent bond, is: 

 A. C3H4 

 B. C3H6 

 C. C3H8 

 D. C4H10 

(b) State one relevant observation for each of the following reactions:  

   (i) Action of concentrated nitric acid on copper.  

  (ii) Addition of excess ammonium hydroxide into copper sulphate solution. 

  (iii) A piece of sodium metal is put into ethanol at room temperature. 

  (iv) Zinc carbonate is heated strongly. 

  (v) Sulphide ore is added to a tank containing oil and water, and then stirred  or agitated with air.

(c) Write a balanced chemical equation for each of the following:  

  (i) Reaction of carbon powder and concentrated nitric acid. 

  (ii) Reaction of excess ammonia with chlorine. 

  (iii) Reaction of lead nitrate solution with ammonium hydroxide. 

  (iv) Producing ethane from bromo ethane using Zn / Cu couple in alcohol. 

   (v) Complete combustion of ethane. 

(d) (i) Draw the structural formula for each of the following:  

     1. 2,2 dimethyl pentane 

     2. methanol 

     3. Iso propane 

    (ii) Write the IUPAC name for the following compounds:  

    1. acetaldehyde 

    2. acetylene 

(e) State one relevant reason for each of the following:  

    (i) Graphite anode is preferred to platinum in the electrolysis of molten lead bromide. 

   (ii) Soda lime is preferred to sodium hydroxide in the laboratory preparation  of methane. 

  (iii) Hydrated copper sulphate crystals turn white on heating. 

  (iv) Concentrated nitric acid appears yellow, when it is left for a while in a  glass bottle. 

    (v) Hydrogen chloride gas fumes in moist air. 

(f) Calculate:  

    (i) The amount of each reactant required to produce 750 ml of carbon  dioxide, when two volumes of carbon monoxide combine with one  volume of oxygen to produce two volumes of carbon dioxide. 

                             2CO + O2 → 2CO2 

    (ii) The volume occupied by 80 g of carbon dioxide at STP. 

    (iii) Calculate the number of molecules in 4.4 gm of CO2. 

           [Atomic mass of C= 12, O=16] 

    (iv) State the law associated in Q. no. (f)(i) above. 

(g) Give one word or a phrase for the following statements: 

     (i) The chemical bond formed by a shared pair of electrons, each bonding atom contributing one electron to the pair. 

    (ii) Electrode used as cathode in electrorefining of impure copper. 

    (iii) The substance prepared by adding other metals to a base metal in appropriate proportions to obtain certain desirable properties.  

   (iv) The tendency of an atom to attract electrons to itself when combined in a compound.  

   (v) The reaction in which carboxylic acid reacts with alcohol in the presence of conc. H2SO4 to form a substance having a fruity smell. 

(h) Fill in the blanks from the choices given in brackets: 

    (i) The polar covalent compound in gaseous state that does not conduct electricity is __________.  

          (carbon tetra chloride, ammonia, methane) 

  (ii) A salt prepared by displacement reaction is __________.  

        (ferric chloride, ferrous chloride, silver chloride) 

 (iii) The number of moles in 11gm of nitrogen gas is __________.  

        (0.39, 0.49, 0.29) [atomic mass of N=14] 

 (iv) An alkali which completely dissociates into ions is __________.  

      (ammonium hydroxide, calcium hydroxide, lithium hydroxide) 

  (v) An alloy used to make statues is__________.  

        (bronze, brass, fuse metal) 


Q. 2 (a) The following table represent the elements and the atomic number. 

With reference to this, answer the following using only the alphabets given in the table.  

Element Atomic number
P Q R13 7 10

    (i) Which element combines with hydrogen to form a basic gas? 

    (ii) Which element has an electron affinity zero? 

   (iii) Name the element, which forms an ionic compound with chlorine. 

(b) Draw the electron dot diagram for the compounds given below. Represent the electrons by (.) and (x) in the diagram. 

                          [Atomic No.: Ca = 20, O = 8, Cl = 17, H = 1] 

   (i) Calcium oxide 

   (ii) Chlorine molecule 

   (iii) Water molecule 

(c) Choose the correct word which refers to the process of electrolysis from A to  E, to match the description (i) to (iv):  

         A: Oxidation  B: Cathode  C: Anode  D: An electrolyte  E: Reduction 

   (i) Conducts electricity in aqueous or in molten state. 

  (ii) Loss of electron takes place at anode. 

  (iii) A reducing electrode. 

  (iv) Electrode connected to the positive end or terminal of the battery. 


Q. 3 (a) Baeyer’s process is used to concentrate bauxite ore to alumina. Give balanced chemical equations for the reaction taking place for its conversion from bauxite to alumina. 

(b) Complete the following by selecting the correct option from the choices given:                      

    (i) pH of acetic acid is greater than dilute sulphuric acid. So acetic acid  contains __________ concentration of H+ions. (greater, same, low) 

   (ii) The indicator which does not change colour on passage of HCl gas is   ________. (methyl orange, moist blue litmus, phenolphthalein)  

   (iii) The acid which cannot act as an oxidizing agent is __________.  (conc. H2SO4, conc. HNO3, conc. HCl)

(c) Match the gases given in column I to the identification of the gases mentioned    in column II:  

Column I Column II
(i) Hydrogen sulphide A. Turns acidified potassium dichromate  solution green.
(ii) Nitric oxide B. Turns lime water milky.
(iii) Carbon dioxide C. Turns reddish brown when it reacts with  oxygen.
(iv) Sulphur dioxide D. Turns moist lead acetate paper silvery  black.


Q. 4 (a) Differentiate between the following pairs based on the information given in the brackets. 

   (i) Conductor and electrolyte (conducting particles) 

   (ii) Cations and anions (formation from an atom) 

   (iii) Acid and Alkali (formation of type of ions) 

(b) Draw the structures of isomers of pentane. 

(c) Hydrogen chloride gas is prepared in the laboratory using concentrated       sulphuric acid and sodium chloride. Answer the questions that follow based on  this reaction: 

     (i) Give the balanced chemical equation for the reaction with suitable condition(s) if any. 

    (ii) Why is concentrated sulphuric acid used instead of concentrated nitric  acid? 

    (iii) How is the gas collected?  

    (iv) Name the drying agent not used for drying the gas. 


Q. 5 (a) Distinguish between the following pairs of compounds using a reagent as a chemical test:  

   (i) Calcium nitrate and Zinc nitrate solution. 

   (ii) Ammonium sulphate crystals and Sodium sulphate crystals. 

   (iii) Magnesium chloride and Magnesium nitrate solution. 

(b) Calculate the percentage of: 

     (i) Fluorine  

     (ii) Sodium and 

    (iii) Aluminium  

in sodium aluminium fluoride [Na3AlF6], to the nearest whole number. [Atomic Mass: Na = 23, Al= 27, F= 19]  

(c) (i) State the volume occupied by 40 gm of methane at STP, if its vapour density (V.D.) is 8. 

     (ii) Calculate the number of moles present in 160 gm of NaOH. 

           [Atomic Mass: Na = 23, H= 1, O= 16] 


Q. 6 (a) Identify the salts P, Q, R from the following observations: 

    (i) Salt P has light bluish green colour. On heating, it produces a black  coloured residue. Salt P produces brisk effervescence with dil. HCl and  the gas evolved turns lime water milky, but no action with acidified  potassium dichromate solution.  

   (ii) Salt Q is white in colour. On strong heating, it produces buff yellow  residue and liberates reddish brown gas. Solution of salt Q produces chalky white insoluble precipitate with excess of ammonium hydroxide.  

   (iii) Salt R is black in colour. On reacting with concentrated HCl, it liberates a pungent greenish yellow gas which turns moist starch iodide paper blue black.  

(b) Identify the substance underlined in each of the following: 

    (i) The electrode that increases in mass during the electro-refining of silver.

    (ii) The acid that is a dehydrating as well as a drying agent. 

    (iii) The catalyst used to oxidize ammonia into nitric oxide. 

(c) Copy and complete the following paragraph using the options given in brackets:  

Alkenes are a homologous series of (i) __________ (saturated / unsaturated) hydrocarbons characterized by the general formula (ii) __________  (CnH2n+2     / CnH2n). Alkenes undergo (iii) __________ (addition / substitution)  reactions and also undergo (iv) ________ (hydrogenation / dehydrogenation)  to form alkanes. 


Q. 7  (a) Write balanced chemical equations, for the preparation of the given salts 

(i) to (iii) by using the methods A to C respectively: 

     A: Neutralization             B: Precipitation               C: Titration 

    (i) Copper sulphate 

    (ii) Zinc carbonate 

    (iii) Ammonium sulphate 

(b) Name the following elements: 

     (i) An alkaline earth metal present in group 2 and period 3. 

     (ii) A trivalent metal used to make light tools. 

    (iii) A monovalent non-metal present in fluorspar. 

(c) An aqueous solution of nickel (II) sulphate was electrolyzed using nickel electrodes. Observe the diagram and answer the questions that follow: 

     (i) What do you observe at the cathode and anode respectively? 

     (ii) Name the cation that remains as a spectator ion in the solution. 

     (iii) Which equation for the reaction at the anode is correct? 

          1. Ni → Ni2+ + 2e 

          2. Ni + 2e → Ni2+ 

          3. Ni2+ → Ni + 2e 

          4. Ni2+ + 2e → Ni 




Q. 1 (a) Name the following: 

     (i) The process of transformation of several glucose molecules into one molecule of starch. 

     (ii) The point of attachment of two chromatids. 

     (iii) The iron containing pigment in erythrocytes. 

     (iv) The duct which transports urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder. 

     (v) The part of the brain which is concerned with memory.

(b) Explain the following terms: 

     (i) Allele 

    (ii) Diffusion  

    (iii) Photolysis  

     (iv) Phenotype  

     (v) Population density  

(c) Given below are certain groups of terms. In each group the first pair indicates a relationship between the two terms. Rewrite and complete the second pair on a similar basis. 

Example: Cytoplasm : Cytokinesis :: Nucleus : Karyokinesis. 

  (i) Widening of hips: Oestrogen :: Deepening of voice in males :___________.  

  (ii) Brain : Meninges :: Heart : ___________.  

  (iii) Insulin : Beta-cells :: Glucagon : _____________.  

  (iv) Kidney: Renal artery :: Liver : _____________.  

  (v) Uterus : Implantation :: Fallopian tube : __________.  

(d) Given below are sets of five terms each. Rewrite the terms in correct order in a logical sequence beginning with the first word that is underlined:  

  (i) Stimulus, Response, Receptor, Effector, Spinal cord.  

  (ii) Root hair, Endodermis, Epidermis, Xylem, Cortex.  

  (iii) Conjunctiva, Yellow spot, Pupil, Vitreous Humour, Aqueous Humour.  

  (iv) Australopithecus, Cro-Magnon Man, Homo erectus, Neanderthal Man, Homo sapiens.  

  (v) Artery, Capillaries, Venule, Vein, Arteriole.  

(e) Choose the correct answer from the four options given below: 

  (i) The fusion of the sperm and ovum is termed as: 

      A. Reproduction 

      B. Development 

      C. Fertilization 

       D. Embryo 

(ii) Agranulocytes are: 

      A. Lymphocytes, Monocytes 

      B. Lymphocytes, Basophils 

      C. Eosinophils, Basophils 

      D. Eosinophils, Monocytes 

(iii) Which of the following is not a natural reflex action? 

      A. Knee-jerk 

      B. Blinking of eyes due to strong light 

      C. Salivation at the sight of food 

      D. Sneezing when any irritant enters the nose 

(iv) The structural and functional units of excretion in the human kidney is the:                     

      A. Ureter 

      B. Bowman’s capsule 

      C. Renal pelvis 

       D. Nephron 

(v) In a human female, ovum consists of:  

     A. 23 pairs of autosomes 

     B. 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes 

     C. 22 autosomes and 1 Y-chromosome 

     D. 22 autosomes and 1 X-chromosome 

(f) Identify the ODD term in each set and name the CATEGORY to which the  remaining three belong:  

   (i) Auxin, Ethylene, Adrenaline, Cytokinin  

   (ii) Tympanum, Ear ossicles, Auditory canal, Pinna 

   (iii) Syringes, Soiled dressings, Discarded needles, Household detergents 

   (iv)    Exophthalmic Goiter, Simple Goitre, Cretinism, Myxoedema 

    (v) Adenine, Guanine, Creatinine, Cytosine 

(g) Match the items given in column A with the most appropriate ones in Column B and REWRITE the correct matching pairs: 

         Column A                                          Column B 

(i) Biston betularia  –                                     Calcium 

(ii) Testes  –                                                    balance of the body 

(iii) Clotting of blood  –                                 Light independent reaction 

(iv) Stroma  –                                                 diffusion of gases 

(v) Stomata  –                                                 gonad 

                                                                       – Peppered moth 

                                                                      –  Light dependent reaction 

                                                                      –  Chlorophyll 

(h) The diagram given below represents a plant movement. Answer the following question

(i) Name the tropic movement shown in the diagram. 

(ii) Explain the tropic movement mentioned in (i). 

(iii) Label the part marked ‘A’. 

(iv) What is part A attracted to? 

(v) Give an example of a plant which shows Thigmotropism. 


Q. 2 (a) The diagram given below represents an experiment to prove the importance 

A factor in photosynthesis. Answer the questions that follow: 

     (i) Which factor is being studied here?

    (ii) What is the purpose of keeping KOH in the flask? 

   (iii) Explain the term Photosynthesis.

   (iv) What will you observe when the leaf A is tested for starch?

   (v) Write a well balanced chemical equation for the process of  


(b) The diagram given below represents the simplified pathway of the circulation of  blood. Answer the questions that follow: 

 (i) Name the blood vessels labelled 1 to 4. 

 (ii) Which blood vessel supplies oxygenated blood to the muscles of the heart?       (iii) What is the importance of blood vessel labelled 5? 

 (iv) What is the type of blood circulation that takes place between the heart and  the lungs? 

 (v) Draw a diagram of the different blood cells as seen in a smear of human  blood.  


Q. 3 (a) The diagram given below depicts a defect of the human eye which has been  corrected by using a suitable lens. Answer the following questions: 

 (i) Name the defect that has been corrected. Which type of lens has been used for the correction? 

 (ii) Mention one cause for the above defect. 

 (iii) Where would the image have formed if the above lens was not used for correction? 

 (iv) Name the three concentric layers of the eyeball. 

  (v) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a neuron. 

(b) Give the biological reasons for the following statements:  

   (i) It is advisable to keep green plants in an aquarium. 

   (ii) Water pollution is a major cause of concern in our country. 

   (iii) We cannot distinguish colours in dim light. 

   (iv) Medical discoveries such as antibiotics and vaccinations have indirectly contributed to the sharp rise in human population. 

   (v) Homo sapiens sapiens is the most highly evolved form of man. 


Q. 4 (a) The figure given below shows a part of a nephron. Answer the questions that follow:  

   (i) In which region of the kidney is the above structure present? 

   (ii) Label the parts numbered 1 to 4. 

  (iii)What is the technical term for the process that occurs in part 3? 

  (iv)Why is fluid X not called urine? Justify your answer. 

  (v) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of the urinary system of man. 

(b) Differentiate between the following pairs on the basis of what is mentioned in the brackets:  

  (i) Transpiration and Guttation (place of occurrence) 

 (ii) Biodegradable waste and Non-biodegradable waste (One example) 

 (iii) Population control and Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (One objective) 

 (iv) Osmosis and Active Transport (Substances undergoing movement)  

  (v) Metaphase and Anaphase (Position of chromosomes) 


Q. 5 (a) The diagram below represents an experiment to demonstrate a certain phenomenon in a green plant: 


    (i) Will the level of mercury in the glass tubing rise or fall?

         Which conducting tissue of the plant does the glass-tubing represent?  

   (ii) Define Transpiration. 

  (iii) How will the rate of the above process differ if the environment of the plant  has: 

  1. Less humidity 

  2. High temperature? 

 (iv) State any two advantages of transpiration to the plant. 

 (v) Draw a neat labelled diagram of a Plasmolysed cell. 

(b) Give appropriate biological/ technical terms for the following:  

   (i) The sensory organ in Cochlea. 

  (ii) Number of live births per 1000 people per year. 

  (iii) The point of contact between two neurons. 

  (iv) The accessory gland in human males whose secretion neutralises the acid in  the vagina.  

  (v) Condition when blood sugar level is lowered in the blood.  

  (vi) Structure which helps in the adjustment of the size of the pupil.  

  (vii) A surgical method of fertility control in human males. 

  (viii) Process by which leucocytes migrate through the walls of capillaries. 

   (ix) A sudden inheritable change in one or more genes. 

   (x) A non-dividing phase of the cell cycle where more DNA is synthesised. 


Q. 6 (a) State two functions of: 

(i) Ear 

(ii) Ethylene  

(iii) Tears 

(iv) Testis 

 (v) Cerebellum 

(b) Complete the table: 

Name of the  HormoneEndocrine Gland Function
(i) (ii)Deposits extra glucose of blood as  glycogen
Growth  Hormone(iii) (iv)
(v) Thyroid (vi)
(vii) (viii) Prepare body for any emergency
Oxytocin (ix) (x)


Q. 7 (a) A homozygous dominant tall pea plant bearing red flowers (TTRR) is crossed with a homozygous recessive dwarf pea plant bearing white flowers (ttrr).  

    (i) What is the phenotype and genotype of F1 individuals? 

   (ii) Write the possible combination of gametes that are obtained when two F1 hybrid plants are crossed. 

   (iii) Mention the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation. 

   (iv) State Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment.  

  (v) Name two X-linked disorders found in humans.  

(b) The diagram given below is that of a developing human foetus. Answer the questions that follow: 

   (i) Label the parts numbered 1 to 3 in the diagram. 

  (ii) Mention any two functions of the part labelled 2 in the diagram. 

  (iii) Explain the significance of the part numbered 3 in the diagram. 

  (iv) Define the term ‘Gestation’.  

        What is the normal gestational period of the developing embryo? 

   (v) Mention the sex chromosomes in a male and female embryo.




Paper – 2 


Q. 1 Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following  questions:  

(a) (i) Give a six figure grid reference for the spot height .324 in northern part of the map extract.  

     (ii) Give a four figure grid reference for open scrub south of Dhad Talao. 

(b) (i) What is the meaning of the term ‘Contour interval’? 

     (ii) What is the contour interval of the sheet provided to you? 

(c) What is the area in kilometre square of the region between 06 and 09 Eastings and 22 and 27 Northings? 

(d) What is the significance of the following colours used on the survey map? 

     (i) Yellow colour. 

     (ii) Green colour. 

(e) What is the compass direction of? 

      (i) Idarla (0825) from Bhamra (0420). 

     (ii) Dhana (0623) from Amarapura (0124). 

(f) (i) Name the settlement pattern seen in the grid square 0819. 

     (ii) Name the drainage pattern seen in the grid square 0827. 

(g) (i) Name two man made features seen in the grid square 0723. 

      (ii) Name two natural features seen in the grid square 0218. 

(h)  (i) What is the black horizontal line drawn between 18 and 19 Northings? 

     (ii) Name the most important settlement of the region shown on the map extract.

      (i) Draw the conventional symbol for each of the following: 

              (i) Lined perennial well. 

              (ii) Seasonal tank. 

(j) (i) Give one evidence to prove that the regions shown on the map extract receive scanty rainfall. 

    (ii) What is .5r in the grid square 0321? 


Q. 2 On the outline map of India provided: 

(a) Mark and name Nilgiris.

(b) Mark and name Kochi. 

(c) Mark and name the Karakoram Pass. 

(d) Mark and name 82½oE Longitude. 

(e) Shade and name the Coromandel Coastal Plain. 

(f) Mark and name the River Brahmaputra. 

(g) Mark and name the Gulf of Kutch. 

(h) Mark and name the Satpura. 

(i) Mark using arrows, the direction of the South West Monsoon wind during summer over the Arabian Sea and label it.

(j) Shade and label a sparsely populated region in India. 

Index No.……………………………………………. UID…………………………….. 

(This map, if used, must be fastened with all other answers) 

                                         Map of India for Q. 2


Q. 3 (a) (i) Name one state in the north western part of India that receives rainfall during winter.  

    (ii) What is the source of this rainfall? 

(b) Give a reason for each of the following: 

    (i) Rainy season in India is after the summer season. 

   (ii) Tamil Nadu has more rainy months than Kerala, yet, Kerala receives more rainfall than Tamil Nadu. 

(c) (i) What do you understand by the term “Burst of Monsoon”? Name the state that experiences the “Burst of Monsoon”. 

   (ii) Even though India gets abundant rainfall during the rainy season, yet, some places experience drought. Explain giving suitable examples. 

   (iii) Why is Shimla colder than Delhi during summer? 

(d) Study the climatic data given below and answer the questions that follow: 

Months  Jan  Feb  Mar  Apr  May  Jun  Jul  Aug  Sep  Oct  Nov  Dec
Temp. in  °C  8.4  11.5  21.6  28.3  35.1    38.5 41.0  38.0  30.8  29.2  15.6  10.2
Rainfall in  cms. 1.5  0.9  0.5  –  –  12.5  17.8  18.5  12.5  12.5  6.2  2.1

    (i) Calculate the annual range of temperature. 

   (ii) State whether the station is located in the coastal area or in the continental interior. 

  (iii) Name the wind that brings most of the rainfall to this area. 


Q. 4 (a) (i) Name the parent rock that contributes to the formation of red soil. 

     (ii) How does this soil get its ‘red’ colour? 

(b) Name the following: 

    (i) a soil that occurs insitu and is good for cotton crop. 

   (ii) soil that is formed due to high temperature and heavy rainfall. 

(c) With reference to Alluvial Soil answer the following: 

   (i) What are the two types of Alluvial Soil? 

  (ii) Name an area where Alluvial soil is found. 

  (iii) Name two crops that grow well in this soil. 

(d) (i) Define the term ‘Residual’ soil. 

     (ii) Name two crops that are grown on laterite soil. 

    (iii) Name two important agents of soil erosion.  


Q. 5 (a) State two ways by which forests help in protecting the environment. 

(b) With reference to Tropical Deciduous forests answer the following questions: 

    (i) Name two states where it is found. 

   (ii) Name two important trees found in this forest. 

(c) Briefly explain the following: 

   (i) Why are Tropical Evergreen forests called “Evergreen”? 

  (ii) Why is afforestation essential in the cities that have Iron and Steel industries?             

(iii) How do forests act as a source of income for the people. 

(d) Give a reason for each of the following: 

   (i) The Tropical Deciduous forest is commercially the most important forest belt  in India. 

  (ii) Tropical Evergreen forests occur on the windward side of Western Ghats. 

  (iii) It is very difficult to move through tidal forests. 


Q. 6 (a) Mention any two methods of recharging groundwater aquifers.

(b) (i) Name the most common means of irrigation used in India.  

     (ii) Give one reason for the popularity of this means of irrigation in our country.

(c) (i) Name two states of India where Canal irrigation is extensively used. 

    (ii) Name the types of canals used in India. 

   (iii) Mention one point of difference between the types of canals mentioned by you. 

(d) (i) What geographical conditions make irrigation necessary in the country?

     (ii) How has irrigation changed the cropping pattern in India? 

    (iii) Why is there a scarcity of surface water in our country? 


Q. 7 (a) (i) Why is iron ore called the backbone of our modern industry?  

     (ii) Mention two uses of iron ore. 

(b) Mention one agricultural and one industrial problem solved by the Bhakra Nangal Dam. 

(c) (i) Name the state that is the leading producer of Manganese. 

     (ii) Name the mineral oil field of India which is the largest producer of Petroleum.

    (iii) Mention two advantages of using Geothermal energy over coal. 

(d) (i) Mention one disadvantage of using natural gas as a source of power. 

    (ii) How is the residue from a Bio-gas plant put to use? 

    (iii)Why is the use of alternative sources of energy becoming essential in modern time? 


Q. 8 (a) Mention two points of difference between subsistence farming and commercial farming. 

(b) Explain briefly the following terms: 

    (i) Ginning. 

    (ii) Ratooning. 

(c) With reference to the wheat crop answer the following questions: 

    (i) Name the state which is the leading producer of this crop in India. 

   (ii) Mention the climatic condition found suitable for the cultivation of this crop. 

(d) Give a geographical reason for each of the following:  

   (i) Cultivation of rice requires flat level land. 

  (ii) Pulses are important rotation crops. 

  (iii) Bajra and Jowar are grown as dry crops. 


Q. 9 (a) Give two reasons as to why Mumbai has developed into an important cotton textile centre. 

(b) (i) What are Basic Industries?  

     (ii) Give one example of a Basic Industry in India. 

(c) (i) State two problems faced by the Silk Industry of India. 

    (ii) Mention the most important factor for location of Sugar industries. 

(d) Briefly answer the following: 

   (i) From where does the Rourkela Steel plant obtain its supply of coal? 

  (ii) From where does the Tata Iron and Steel plant obtain its supply of iron ore? 

  (iii) Name two cities that are important for the production of Electronics. 


Q. 10 (a) With reference to Waterways answer the following questions:  

    (i) Mention two advantages of inland water transport.  

   (ii) Why is inland water transport not well developed in India? 

(b) Even though all means of transport are well developed in India, yet, road transport remains the most popular means of transport. Justify this statement. 

(c) Give a reason for each of the following: 

   (i)Roadways is not well developed in North East India. 

   (ii)Railways are under the public sector. 

  (iii)A good network of transport is of great help for the development of the economy. 

(d) (i) Give two disadvantages of Airways. 

     (ii) Why is there an increase of airway traffic in recent years? 


Q. 11 (a) (i) What do you mean by segregation of waste? 

     (ii) Why is segregation of waste essential before its disposal? 

(b) Why should sewage be treated before disposal?

(c) Briefly answer each of the following: 

   (i) What is the effect of Waste accumulation on terrestrial life? 

   (ii) What are the consequences of Water pollution? 

   (iii) What is the benefit of Composting? 

(d) (i) How can recycling of Waste help in reducing waste? Explain with suitable examples. 

   (ii) Mention one initiative taken by the Government to manage waste. 

  (iii) How can you as an individual contribute towards waste management? 



H.C.G. – Paper – 1  


Attempt all questions from this Part 

Q. 1 (a) Name the two Houses of the Indian Parliament. 

(b) What is meant by the term ‘Session’? 

(c) How is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha elected? 

(d) What is the term of office of a Rajya Sabha member? 

(e) Who is the Supreme Commander of the Armed forces of India? 

(f) What is the normal term of office of the Vice President of India? 

(g) Who appoints the Prime Minister of India? 

(h) State the body that decides the major policies of the Government. 

(i) Name the Courts that are empowered to issue Writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. 

(j) Mention any one advantage of the Lok Adalat. 


Q. 2 (a) Mention any two contributions of Bipin Chandra Pal in promoting Nationalism. 

(b) State any two methods adopted by the Early Nationalists in the National Movement. 

(c) Why is October 16, 1905 regarded as an important day in the history of the Indian National Movement? 

(d) Name any two leaders of the Khilafat Movement.

(e) State any two causes for the Non-Cooperation Movement.

(f) Mention any two objectives of the Forward Bloc.

(g) What was meant by the term ‘Imperialism’, as a cause for World War I?

(h) Give any two reasons for the rise of Fascism. 

(i) Name the two International Organisations that were formed, one as a consequence of World War I and the other after World War II. 

(j) Give the full form of UNICEF and WHO. 



Attempt any two questions from this Section 

Q. 3 With reference to the Union Legislature, answer the following questions: 

(a) Explain any three Legislative powers of the Union Parliament. 

(b) State any three exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha that is not enjoyed by the other House. 

(c) List any four functions of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. 


Q. 4 The Executive Power of the Indian Union is vested in the President. In this context, answer the following: 

(a) How is the President of India elected? State the composition of the Electoral College that elects him. 

(b) Explain any three Discretionary Powers of the President. 

(c) Mention any four Executive Powers of the President. 


Q. 5 With reference to the Supreme Court as the Apex Court in our Indian Judiciary, explain  the following: 

(a) Any three cases that come under the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. 

(b) Power of Judicial Review. 

(c) Supreme Court as a Court of Record. 


Attempt any three questions from this Section 

Q. 6 By 1857, conditions were ripe for a mass uprising in the form of the Great Revolt of  1857. In this context, explain the following: 

(a) Any three Economic causes for the revolt of 1857. 

(b) Any three Military causes. 

(c) Any three Political causes of the revolt. 


Q. 7 With reference to the Mass Phase of the National Movement under the leadership of  Gandhi, answer the following: 

(a) Briefly explain the Dandi March of 1930. 

(b) State any three reasons for the launching of the Quit India Movement. 

(c) Explain any four significant effects of the Quit India Movement. 


Q. 8 With reference to the Partition Plan, answer the following: 

(a) (i) Name the last Viceroy of India. 

(ii) State any two reasons for him to come to India. 

(b) Mention any three proposals under his plan. (c) State any four reasons for the Congress to finally accept the Plan. 


Q. 9 

(a) Name the organization associated with the above Emblem. Mention any two of its objectives.  

(b) Mention any three functions of WHO, as its agency. 

(c) Name the Principal Judicial Organ of this organization and explain its composition. 


Q. 10 With reference to the Second World War and the Non-Aligned Movement, answer the  following: 

(a) Explain briefly three reasons for the Dissatisfaction with the Treaty of Versailles. 

(b) State any three consequences of the Second World War. 

(c) Mention any four chief architects of the Non-Aligned Movement. 



ENGLISH Paper – 1  

Q. 1 (Do not spend more than 30 minutes on this question.)  

Write a composition (300 – 350 words) on any one of the following:

(a) Write an original short story entitled ‘The Secret’. 

(b) ‘A family without pets is an incomplete family’.  Express your views either for or against this statement. 

(c) Which do you prefer – morning, afternoon, evening or night?  

Describe your favourite time of the day. What are the sights, sounds, smells  and feelings that you associate with your favourite time of the day? Why do  you like this part of the day better than the others. 

(d) Have you ever said or done something that changed the life of another person? Give an account of your words or actions that led to this change and describe  how the experience made you feel.

(e) Study the picture given below. Write a story or a description or an account of  what it suggests to you. Your composition may be about the subject of the  picture or you may take suggestions from it; however, there must be a clear  connection between the picture and your composition.  


Q. 2 (Do not spend more than 20 minutes on this question.)  

Select any one of the following:  

(a) You have changed your school recently. Write a letter to your friend in your  old school telling him / her what you like about your new school but also what  you miss about your old school. 

(b) Some taps in your locality are left open all day resulting in a tremendous waste  of water. Write a letter to the Municipal Commissioner of your town / city,  complaining about the problem. Suggest ways in which this waste of water  can be prevented.


Q. 3 (a) Your school is organising a fete / carnival to raise funds for victims of the recent floods in your State. 

Write a notice to be put up on the school notice board giving details of the  event. 

(b) Write an email to the Principal of a neighbouring school, inviting him/ her to send their students to attend the fete / carnival. 


Q. 4 Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: Attending classes inside a railway carriage seemed unusual enough, but  the seating arrangements turned out to be unusual, too. At Totto-chan’s  previous school each pupil was assigned a specific desk. But here they could sit anywhere they liked at any time. 

The most unusual thing of all about this school, however, was the lessons  themselves.  

Schools normally schedule one subject, for example history, during the  first period, when everyone in the class just did history; then say, arithmetic  in the second period, when you just did arithmetic. But here it was quite  10 

different. At the beginning of the first period, the teacher made a list of all the  problems and questions in the subjects to be studied that day. Then she would  say, “Now, start with any of these you like.” 

So, whether you started on history or arithmetic or something else didn’t  matter at all. Someone who liked composition might be writing something,  while behind you someone who liked chemistry might be boiling something  in a flask over an alcohol burner.  

This method of teaching enabled the teachers to observe — as the children  progressed to higher grades — what they were interested in as well as their way of thinking and their character. It was an ideal way for teachers to really  20 get to know their pupils.  

As for the pupils, they loved being able to start with their favourite  subject, the fact that they had all day to cope with the subjects they disliked  meant they could usually manage them somehow. So, study was mostly  independent, with pupils free to go and consult the teacher whenever  necessary. Then pupils would be given further exercises to work on alone. It  was study in the truest sense of the word, and it meant there were no pupils  just sitting inattentively while the teacher talked and explained. 

The first-grade pupils hadn’t quite reached the stage of independent study,  but even they were allowed to start with any subject they wanted.  

Some copied letters of the alphabet, some drew pictures, some read books,  and some even did physical exercises.  

Just then the boy sitting behind her got up and walked toward the  blackboard with his notebook, apparently to consult the teacher. Totto-chan  stopped looking around the room and fixed her eyes on his back as he walked.  The boy dragged his leg, and his whole body swayed from side to side. Totto Chan wondered at first if he was doing it on purpose, but she soon realized the  boy couldn’t help it. 

The boy said brightly, “My name’s Yasuaki. What’s yours?”  

She was so glad to hear him speak that she replied loudly, “I’m Totto chan.”  

Adapted from Totto-chan 

(a) Give the meaning of the following words as used in the passage:

One-word answers or short phrases will be accepted. 

(i) assigned (line 3)  

(ii) ideal (line 19)  

(iii) independent (line 24)  

(b) Answer the following questions briefly in your own words. 

(i) What was unusual about the seating arrangement? 

(ii) How did the method of teaching help the teacher? 

(iii) Why did the pupils enjoy their lessons at this school? 

(iv) What different things did the first-grade pupils do? 

(v) Which sentence in the passage tells us that the boy had difficulty in walking like other children? 

(c) In not more than 50 words, describe how the children were taught. 


Q. 5 (a) Fill in each of the numbered blanks with the correct form of the word given in brackets. Do not copy the passage but write in correct serial order the word or  phrase appropriate to the blank space. 


(0) taught 

By the time she was three, Matilda had (0) ____________ (teach) herself to  read by (1) ____________ (study) newspapers and magazines that  (2) ____________ (lie) around the house. At the age of four, she could  (3) ____________ (read) fast and well and she naturally began  (4) ____________ (hanker) after books. The only book in the whole of this  enlightened household was something called Easy Cooking  (5) ____________ (belong) to her mother, and when she had read this from  cover to cover and had (6) ____________ (learn) all the recipes by heart, she  (7) ____________ (decide) she (8) ____________ (want) something more  interesting. 

(b) Fill in the blanks with appropriate words.  

(i) It has been raining __________ two hours. 

(ii) He just scraped __________ his examination. 

(iii) Mrs. Kapoor was bent __________ attending the meeting. 

(iv) She is proud and looks __________ on her colleagues. 

(v) Rahul plays football __________ his grandfather. 

(vi) The mother was sitting ____________ the sick child all night. 

(vii) Monica is leaning ____________ the wall. 

(viii) Rosie is very good ____________ art and craft. 

(c) Join the following sentences to make one complete sentence without using and, but or so

(i) Sarah and Tyra are twins. They look exactly alike. 

(ii) Rohan does not like to play cricket. He does not like to play hockey  either. 

(iii) Sania pushed as hard as she could. The door would not open. 

(iv) The school bus drove through the gate. The clock was striking eight at  that moment. 

(d) Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each. Make other changes that may be necessary, but do not change the  meaning of each sentence. 

(i) The librarian orders books for the school library every year. (Begin: Books…) 

(ii) No one will deny that the children have worked very hard this year. (Begin: Everyone…) 

(iii) As soon as the teacher enters, she is greeted by her students. (Begin: No sooner….) 

(iv) She is so busy that she finds no time to entertain her friends. (Rewrite using ‘too’)

(v) In spite of the very hot weather, Kevin stepped out to buy some bread.   (Begin: Despite.…) 

(vi) Sheela will be selected for the competition only if she goes for the  auditions. (Begin: Unless….) 

(vii)I would rather eat fruit than a lot of unhealthy junk food.   (Begin: I prefer….) 

(viii)The tree was cut down ruthlessly. (Begin: They…)



ENGLISH Paper – 2 


Answer one or more questions from only ONE of the following plays: 

The Merchant of Venice  


The Mousetrap 

The Merchant of Venice: Shakespeare 

Q. 1 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: 

Launcelot: But, I pray you, ergo, old man, ergo, 

I beseech you, talk you of young Master Launcelot? 

Gobbo: Of Launcelot, an’t please your mastership. 

Launcelot: Ergo, Master Launcelot. Talk not of  

Master Launcelot, father; for the young gentleman, 

 according to Fates and Destines, and such odd  

sayings, the Sisters Three and such branches of leaning, 

is indeed, deceased; or, as you would say  

in plain terms, gone to heaven. 

(i) What information does Gobbo seek from Launcelot at the beginning of this  scene? 

What does Launcelot say has happened to Gobbo’s son? 

(ii) Who are the ‘Sisters Three’?  

What role were they thought to play in the lives of humans? 

(iii) Who was Launcelot’s master? 

What gift had Gobbo brought him? 

What does Launcelot want him to do with it? 

(iv) What reasons does Launcelot give for wanting to leave his present master’s  service? 

Whom does he wish to serve instead? 

(v) Why does Gobbo have trouble recognising Launcelot? 

What purpose does this scene serve in the context of the play? 


Q. 2 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: 

SHYLOCK: To bait fish withal. If it will feed nothing  

else, it will feed my revenge. He hath disgraced  

me and hindered me half a million, laughed at my  

losses, mocked at my gains, scorned my nation,  

thwarted my bargains, cooled my friends, heated  

mine enemies—and what’s his reason? I am a Jew.  

Hath not a Jew eyes? Hath not a Jew hands, organs,  

dimensions, senses, affections, passions? Fed with the  

same food, hurt with the same weapons, subject  

to the same diseases, healed by the same means, 

warmed and cooled by the same winter and summer  

as a Christian is? If you prick us, do we not bleed? 

(i) Who is ‘He’? 

What does Shylock want from him? 

What does Shylock mean by ‘to bait fish withal’? 

(ii) Explain in your own words any three ways in which ‘he’ had wronged Shylock. 

(iii) According to Shylock, in what other ways did Jews resemble Christians? 

(iv) How does Shylock use Christian example to justify his desire for revenge?

(v) The given extract reveals two distinct emotions that Shylock experiences.  What are they? 

Give one reason to justify each of these emotions. 


Q. 3 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: Portia: The quality of mercy is not strained; 

It droppeth as the gentle rain from heaven 

Upon the place beneath: it is twice blessed; 

It blesseth him that gives and him that takes: 

‘Tis mightiest in the mightiest; it becomes 

The throned monarch better than his crown: 

(i) Where does this scene take place? 

Why is Portia here? 

Why does Bassanio not recognise her? 

(ii) To what is mercy compared in these lines?  

Why is mercy said to be ‘twice blessed’? 

(iii) Explain the lines: ‘Tis mightiest in the mightiest; it becomes  The throned monarch better than his crown: 

(iv) Later in her speech Portia mentions a sceptre. What is a sceptre?  How, according to Portia, is mercy above the ‘sceptred sway’? 

(v) To whom are these words addressed? 

What does the person say in response to Portia’s words?  

Portia is seen as the dramatic heroine of the play. Using references from the  text mention any two aspects of her character that appeal to you most. 

The Mousetrap: Agatha Christie 

Q. 4 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: 

Giles: (Calling) Mollie? Mollie? Mollie? Where are you? 

(Mollie enters from the arch Left.) 

Mollie: (Cheerfully) Doing all the work you brute. (She crosses to  Giles). 

Giles: Oh, there you are – leave it all to me. Shall I stoke the Aga? 

Mollie: Done. 

(i) Where does the opening scene of the play take place?  

What song is played at the beginning of Act I?  

Who is the first character to appear on the scene? 

(ii) What is the ‘partnership’ that Mollie speaks of later in this scene? 

Whose idea was it? 

(iii) Who is Mrs. Barlow? Why is Giles annoyed with her? 

(iv) Who is the first guest to arrive at Monkswell Manor? Describe this person. 

(v) What were this person’s expectations when he arrived at the Manor?  

To what extent were they fulfilled? 


Q. 5 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: 

Mrs Boyle: I am Mrs Boyle. (She puts down the suitcase) 

Giles: I’m Giles Ralston. Come in to the fire. Mrs Boyle, and get  warm. (Mrs Boyle moves down to the fire.)

Mrs Boyle: A Major-Metcalf is it? -is carrying it? 

Giles: I’ll leave the door open for him. 

(i) Who is Mrs Boyle? Why is she in a bad mood? 

(ii) Describe Major Metcalf. Mention any one action of his which indicates that he is a polite and courteous man. 

(iii) How does Major Metcalf describe the weather outside? 

(iv) What comments does Mrs Boyle make when she first encounters Mollie? 

(v) Mention three reasons that Mrs Boyle gives for being unhappy with Monkswell Manor.  

What is your impression of Mrs Boyle? 


Q. 6 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: 

Trotter: It’s true, isn’t it, that Jimmy, the child who died, managed to get a  letter posted to you? (He sits at the Right end of the sofa). The letter begged for help – help from this kind young teacher. You never answered that letter. 

Mollie: I couldn’t. I never got it. 

Trotter: You just-didn’t bother 

(i) Explain what Mollie means by, ‘I couldn’t. I never got it.’ 

(ii) What was Trotter’s real name?  

How was he related to Jimmy? 

How did he gain entry into the Manor? 

(iii) What did Trotter accuse Mollie of doing? 

How did he intend to punish her for it?  

(iv) Who had come to England in search of Trotter?  

How was this person related to Trotter? 

What clues from their past did this person use to remind Trotter of their  childhood days? 

(v) Who had guessed Trotter’s identity correctly?  

Why was this person in the Manor? 

Mention two ways in which the setting of the play serves to heighten the air of  mystery and suspense. 


Answer one or more questions from this Section. 

A Collection of Poems 

Q. 7 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:  

Bangle sellers are we who bear 

Our shining loads to the temple fair… 

— The Bangle Sellers, Sarojini Naidu 

(i) Why does the poet use the word ‘delicate’ to describe the bangles?  How is ‘rainbow-tinted circles of light’ an appropriate description of bangles? 

(ii) Explain the following phrases from the poem in your own words: 

• Shining loads 

• Lustrous tokens of radiant lives 

• For happy daughters and happy wives. 

(iii) The poet uses several images of sight and sound to create a musical effect in  the poem. Mention any three examples of these images. 

(iv) What are the emotions that the poet associates with a bride on her wedding  day? What colours are the bangles on her wrist that reflect these emotions? 

(v) What colours does the poet associate with: 

(a) a maiden 

(b) a middle aged woman? 

How does the poet describe the thoughts and concerns of women in both these  stages of life? 


Q. 8 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: 

But a caged bird stands on the grave of dreams 

His shadow shouts on a nightmare scream 

His wings are clipped and his feet are tied 

So he opens his throat to sing. 

— I Know Why the Caged Bird Sings, Maya Angelo 

(i) In the context of the poem who is a ‘free bird’ and who is a ‘caged bird’? 

What mood do the above lines convey? 

(ii) How does a free bird live his life?  

What are the things he thinks of and dreams about? 

(iii) What does the caged bird sing about? 

What are the restrictions that a caged bird has to deal with? 

(iv) What do you understand from the title of the poem? 

What do you like about the poem? 

(v) Explain what you understand by the following lines: 

• ‘…a bird that stalks down his narrow cage’ 

• ‘he names the sky his own’ 

Q. 9 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: 

Abou Ben Adhem (may his tribe increase!) 

Awoke one night from a deep dream of peace, 

— Abou Ben Adhem, Leigh Hunt 

(i) What did Abou Ben Adhem see when woke from a deep sleep one night? 

(ii) What did Abou Ben Adhem ask the angel?  What was the angel’s response? 

(iii) What did Abou request the angel to do when he learnt that his name did not appear among the names of those who loved the Lord? 

What does this reveal to us of Abou Ben Adhem’s character? 

(iv) When and how did the angel appear to Abou Ben Adhem again? 

What did the angel show Abou this time? 

(v) What does the poet mean by ‘May his tribe increase!’? 

Why do you think he says this? 

What is the central message of the poem? 


Answer one or more questions from only ONE of the following books that you have studied: 

A Collection of Short Stories 


Animal Farm 


The Call of the Wild 

A Collection of Short Stories 

Q. 10 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: 

“Well, Mr. Easton, if you will make me speak first, I suppose  

I must. Don’t you ever recognize old friends when you meet them in the West?” 

The younger man roused himself sharply at the sound of her  

voice, seemed to struggle with a slight embarrassment which  

he threw off instantly, and then clasped her fingers with his left hand.

“It’s Miss Fairchild,” he said, with a smile. “I’ll ask you to  

excuse the other hand; “it’s otherwise engaged just at present.” 

(i) Describe Miss Fairchild and Mr. Easton. 

(ii) Where does the above conversation occur? 

Why was Mr. Easton embarrassed when Miss Fairchild addressed him? 

(iii) How was Mr. Easton’s other hand ‘otherwise engaged’?  

How does Miss Fairchild react when he raises his right hand to show her what  he meant? 

(iv) How does Miss Fairchild feel about Mr. Easton? 

How does she try to convey these feelings to him? 

(v) The story has a surprise ending. How is the surprise revealed to the reader? 


Q. 11 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: 

So the little girl walked about the streets on her naked feet, which  

were red and blue with cold. In her old apron she carried a great  

many matches, and she had a packet of them in her hand as well. 

(i) Who was ‘she’?  

What can you conclude about her condition from the above description? 

(ii) What time of the year was it? Why did she not want to go home? 

(iii) What did she use the matches for? What happened when she lit the first match? 

(iv) Whom did she love dearly? What did she say when this person appeared before her? 

(v) What happened to the little girl at the end of the story? 

Would you consider this a happy ending or a sad one? 

Give one reason for your answer. 


Q. 12 Answer the following questions with reference to Norah Burke’s short story  “The Blue Bead” 

(i) Describe Sibia’s experience at the Bazaar.  

What were the things that filled her with wonder? 

(ii) Who were the Gujars? Give a brief description of their lifestyle. 

(iii) Describe how Sibia rescued the Gujar woman from the crocodile. 

What did Sibia regard as the highlight of that fateful day? 

What does this tell us about Sibia? 

Animal Farm: George Orwell 

Q. 13 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: 

How they toiled and sweated to get the hay in! But their efforts were  

rewarded, for the harvest was an even bigger success than they had  

planned. Sometimes the work was hard;… 

(i) What hardships did the animals face when they began the harvest? 

(ii) How long did they take to complete the harvest? What was the result? 

(iii) What other hardships did they face later that year? 

(iv) Describe the Sunday routine on Animal Farm. 

(v) What contribution did Boxer make to the farm work which earned him the admiration of his fellow creatures? 


Q. 14 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:  

These two disagreed on every point where disagreement was possible. If one of them suggested sowing a bigger acreage with barley, the other was certain to demand a bigger acreage of oats, and if one of them said that such and such field was just right for cabbages, the other would declare that it was useless for anything  except roots. 

(i) Who were the two who disagreed on every point? 

What special skills did each of them possess? 

(ii) What was Snowball’s dream project? 

How, in his opinion, would it transform life on Animal Farm? 

(iii) How did Snowball work out the details of this project? 

Where did he do the planning? 

(iv) How did the farm animals view Snowball’s effort? 

What was Napoleon’s response to it? 

(v) Later on, at a Sunday meeting of the farm animals, Snowball is expelled and Napoleon assumes charge.  

What immediate changes does he announce regarding the running of Animal Farm. 


Q. 15 With reference to George Orwell’s ‘The Animal Farm’, answer the following  questions: 

(i) What decisions were made regarding the retiring age of the animals at the beginning when the laws of Animal Farm were being formulated? 

(ii) What ‘improvements’ in their lifestyle compared to the days of Jones did Squealer point out to the animals when a reduction in their rations was  announced to the animals during the next winter on Animal Farm? 

(iii) What stories did Moses the raven tell the farm animals?  

What effect did these stories have on the animals? 

What does this tell us about their living conditions? 

The Call of the Wild: Jack London 

Q. 16 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow

During the four years since his puppyhood he (Buck) had lived the  

life of a sated aristocrat; he had a fine pride in himself, was ever a  

trifle egotistical, as country gentlemen sometimes become because of their insular situation. 

(i) Where did Buck spend his puppyhood? Describe the place. 

(ii) Who were Buck’s parents? What do you know about them? 

(iii) What do you understand from the term, ‘sated aristocrat’?  

In what way did Buck’s life resemble that of a ‘sated aristocrat’? 

(iv) What did Buck do to prevent himself from becoming a pampered house-dog? 

(v) What historical event changed Buck’s life of ease forever?  

Which member of the household was responsible for bringing about this  change?  

Why do you think this person acted in this manner? 


Q. 17 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow

On the other hand, possibly because he divined in Buck a dangerous  

rival, Spitz never lost an opportunity of showing his teeth. He even  

went out of his way to bully Buck, striving constantly to start the  

fight which could end only in the death of one or the other. (3.2) 

(i) Who was Spitz? Why did he consider Buck ‘a dangerous rival’? 

(ii) How did the ‘dominant primordial beast’ which grew in Buck shape his behaviour in his new environment? 

(iii) Earlier in the trip, Buck and Spitz were engaged in a violent fight.  What led to the fight? Why did it end abruptly? 

(iv) Later in the story, Buck intervened when Spitz was about to punish Pike.  Why did he do this? How did Francois reward Buck for this? 

(v) In what ways are Buck and Spitz similar?  

How are they different from each other? 


Q. 18 Answer the following questions with reference to Jack London’s, ‘The Call of the  Wild’. 

(i) Why is Buck regarded as the protagonist (the hero) of Jack London’s book ‘The Call of the Wild’? 

(ii) After Spitz’s death Buck was made leader of the dog team. In what ways did  Buck prove to be better than Spitz in his role as leader of the team? 

(iii) Explore the themes of love and loyalty as revealed in the relationship between Buck and Thornton in Jack London’s novel, ‘The Call of the Wild’. 



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