Drawing or Painting from Still Life 

Note: Two themes are given. 

Candidates may attempt either Theme A or Theme B.


Theme A 

Objects required: A big transparent bowl, an apple, a papaya, two bananas, an  orange and a pear. 

Arrangement: Make an interesting arrangement by placing a few fruits inside the  bowl and a few in front of the bowl.  Suitable drapery may be used for the background and foreground. 


Theme B 

Objects required: Two Samosas, a few green chillies, a big bottle of ketchup / tomato sauce, transparent tea glass with tea in it, a medium size plate and a few tissue papers. 

Arrangement: Create an attractive arrangement by placing a plate with the samosas and green chillies in front of the tomato sauce / ketchup bottle. Place a few tissue papers partially under the plate. Arrange a tea glass suitably. Coloured drapery may be used.



Drawing or Painting from Nature 

This Paper is divided into two Themes. 

Candidates may attempt the question either from Theme A or Theme B. 


Theme A 

A detailed study of an ‘Onion’ half cut from center. Two pieces should be kept so  that the outer and inner study of a specimen can be depicted. Special attention should be paid to colour, texture, form and structure. 


Theme B 

A healthy stem of Bougainvillea with flowers and leaves to be given to the  students. Special attention to be paid to the character of flowers and leaves through  form, structure, tone, colour and texture. In case this flower is not available, a  similar flower of the variegated kind can be used.



Original Imaginative Composition in Colour 

Attempt any one of the following topics:

 1. Depict a laundry shop. A man is ironing with a heavy iron. A radio is on. A lady  is folding and stacking clothes. A child is playing. Water mugs and hangers are  left unattended on the ground. 

2. A few ladies are sitting under a huge tree. A mother is combing her daughter’s  hair. The other ladies are busy doing other work.

3. Examinations are approaching soon. Students are visiting the school library.  Some are referring to books, studying and making notes. The librarian is keeping  an eye on all of them. 

4. Compose an early morning scene. The sweepers are cleaning the roads. A few  walkers and joggers are seen. The newspaper delivery boy is on a cycle flinging  rolled up newspapers into the front of each house, as he rides by.



Applied Art 

Attempt any one of the following questions: 

1. Design a book cover for your Grandma’s recipes. The cover title is ‘My Grandma’s Kitchen’. Use only four colours (paper white is  not considered as a colour). The size of the cover page should be  20 cm x 25 cm. 


2. Make a repeat pattern for a door panel of size 20 cm x 25 cm. Special attention should be given to creative design with good colour  scheme, tone and execution. 


• Cutting and pasting of extra material is strictly prohibited. 

• Sequins, thread or magazine images must not be used. 

• Candidates should not use acrylic colours for making the poster.



SCIENCE Paper – 1 


Q. 1 (a) (i) Define moment of force.  

     (ii) Write the relationship between the SI and CGS unit of moment of force. 

(b) Define a kilowatt hour. How is it related to joule? 

(c) A satellite revolves around a planet in a circular orbit. What is the work done by the satellite at any instant? Give a reason. 

(d) (i) Identify the class of the lever shown in the diagram below: 

     (ii) How is it possible to increase the M.A. of the above lever without increasing  its length? 

(e) Give one example of each when: 

     (i) Chemical energy changes into electrical energy. 

    (ii) Electrical energy changes into sound energy. 


Q. 2 (a) A crane ‘A’ lifts a heavy load in 5 seconds, whereas another crane ‘B’ does the same work in 2 seconds. Compare the power of crane ‘A’ to that of crane ‘B’.

(b) A ray of light falls normally on a rectangular glass slab. Draw a ray diagram showing the path of the ray till it emerges out of the slab. 

(c) Complete the path of the monochromatic light ray AB incident on the surface PQ of the equilateral glass prism PQR till it emerges out of the prism due to  refraction. 

(d) Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens in order to get:  

   (i) an enlarged real image 

   (ii) enlarged virtual image? 

(e) A pond appears to be 2.7 m deep. If the refractive index of water is 4/3 , find the actual depth of the pond. 


Q. 3 (a) The wave lengths for the light of red and blue colours are nearly 7.8 x 10-7 m and 4.8 x 10-7 m respectively. 

  (i) Which colour has the greater speed in a vacuum? 

 (ii) Which colour has a greater speed in glass? 

(b) Draw a graph between displacement from mean position and time for a body executing free vibration in a vacuum. 

(c) A sound wave travelling in water has wavelength 0.4 m. Is this wave audible in air? (The speed of sound in water = 1400 ms-1

(d) Why does stone lying in the sun get heated up much more than water lying for the same duration of time? 

(e) Why is it not advisable to use a piece of copper wire as fuse wire in an electric circuit? 


Q. 4 (a) Calculate the total resistance across AB:

(b) Two metallic blocks P and Q having masses in ratio 2:1 are supplied with the same amount of heat. If their temperatures rise by same degree, compare their  specific heat capacities. 

(c) When a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a mechanical force. What should be the angle between the magnetic field and  the length of the conductor so that the force experienced is: 

   (i) Zero 

  (ii) Maximum? 

(d) A nucleus 84X202 of an element emits an alpha particle followed by a beta  

      particle. The final nucleus is aYb. Find a and b. 

(e) The diagram below shows a loop of wire carrying current I:

(i) What is the magnetic polarity of the loop that faces us? 

(ii) With respect to the diagram how can we increase the strength of the magnetic field produced by this loop? 


Q. 5 (a) The figure below shows a simple pendulum of mass 200 g. It is displaced from the mean position A to the extreme position B. The potential energy at the  position A is zero. At the position B the pendulum bob is raised by 5 m. 

     (i) What is the potential energy of the pendulum at the position B? 

    (ii) What is the total mechanical energy at point C? 

    (iii) What is the speed of the bob at the position A when released from B? 

            (Take g = 10 ms-2 and there is no loss of energy.) 

(b) (i) With reference to the direction of action, how does a centripetal force differ from a centrifugal force during uniform circular motion? 

     (ii) Is centrifugal force the force of reaction of centripetal force? 

     (iii) Compare the magnitudes of centripetal and centrifugal force. 

(c) A block and tackle system of pulleys has velocity ratio 4. 

    (i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of the system indicating clearly the points of  application and direction of load and effort. 

   (ii) What will be its V.R. if the weight of the movable block is doubled? 


Q. 6 (a) A diver in water looks obliquely at an object AB in air.  

     (i) Does the object appear taller, shorter or of the same size to the diver? 

    (ii) Show the path of two rays AC & AD starting from the tip of the object as it  travels towards the diver in water and hence obtain the image of the object. 

(b) Complete the path of the ray AB through the glass prism in PQR till it emerges out of the prism. Given the critical angle of the glass as 42o

(c) A lens of focal length 20 cm forms an inverted image at a distance 60 cm from the lens. 

    (i) Identify the lens. 

   (ii) How far is the lens present in front of the object? 

  (iii) Calculate the magnification of the image. 


Q. 7 (a) Give reasons for the following: During the day: 

    (i) Clouds appear white. 

    (ii) Sky appears blue. 

(b) (i) Name the system which enables us to locate underwater objects by transmitting ultrasonic waves and detecting the reflecting impulse. 

     (ii) What are acoustically measurable quantities related to pitch and loudness? 

(c) (i) When a tuning fork [vibrating] is held close to ear, one hears a faint hum. The same [vibrating tuning fork] is held such that its stem is in contact with the table surface, then one hears a loud sound. Explain. 

(ii) A man standing in front of a vertical cliff fires a gun. He hears the echo     after 3.5 seconds. On moving closer to the cliff by 84 m, he hears the echo  after 3 seconds. Calculate the distance of the cliff from the initial position  of the man. 


Q. 8 (a) The diagram below shows the core of a transformer and its input and output  connections 

  (i) State the material used for the core. 

  (ii) Copy and complete the diagram of the transformer by drawing input and output coils.  

(b) (i) What are superconductors?  

     (ii) Calculate the current drawn by an appliance rated 110 W, 220 V when connected across 220 V supply.

  (iii) Name a substance whose resistance decreases with the increase in  temperature.

(c) The diagram above shows three resistors connected across a cell of e.m.f.  1.8 V and internal resistance r.


    (i) Current through 3 Ω resistor. 

    (ii) The internal resistance r. 


Q. 9  (a) (i) Define heat capacity of a substance.  

     (ii) Write the SI unit of heat capacity. 

    (iii) What is the relationship between heat capacity and specific heat capacity of a substance? 

(b) The diagram below shows the change of phases of a substance on a temperature vs time graph on heating the substance at a constant rate. 

     (i) Why is the slope of CD less than slope of AB? 

     (ii) What is the boiling and melting point of the substance? 

(c) A piece of ice of mass 60 g is dropped into 140 g of water at 50oC.  Calculate the final temperature of water when all the ice has melted. (Assume no heat is lost to the surrounding) 

Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 Jg-1k-1 

Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 Jg-1 


Q. 10 (a) (i) Draw a neat labeled diagram of a d.c. motor.  

     (ii) Write any one use of a d.c. motor. 

(b) (i) Differentiate between nuclear fusion and nuclear fission. 

     (ii) State one safety precaution in the disposal of nuclear waste. 

(c) An atomic nucleus A is composed of 84 protons and 128 neutrons. The nucleus A emits an alpha particle and is transformed into a nucleus B.  

    (i) What is the composition of B? 

    (ii) The nucleus B emits a beta particle and is transformed into a nucleus C. What is the composition of C? 

   (iii) What is mass number of the nucleus A? 

   (iv) Does the composition of C change if it emits gamma radiations? 




 Paper – 2 

Q. 1 (a) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:  

  (i) The element with highest ionization potential, is: 

  A. Hydrogen 

  B. Caesium 

  C. Radon 

  D. Helium  

 (ii) The inert electrode used in the electrolysis of acidified water, is: 

 A. Nickel  

 B. Platinum 

 C. Copper 

 D. Silver 

 (iii) A compound with low boiling point, is: 

 A. Sodium chloride 

 B. Calcium chloride 

 C. Potassium chloride 

 D. Carbon tetrachloride 

 (iv) The acid which can produce carbon from cane sugar, is: 

 A. Concentrated Hydrochloric acid 

 B. Concentrated Nitric acid 

 C. Concentrated Sulphuric acid 

 D. Concentrated Acetic acid 

 (v) The organic compound having a triple carbon-carbon covalent bond, is: 

 A. C3H4 

 B. C3H6 

 C. C3H8 

 D. C4H10 

(b) State one relevant observation for each of the following reactions:  

   (i) Action of concentrated nitric acid on copper.  

  (ii) Addition of excess ammonium hydroxide into copper sulphate solution. 

  (iii) A piece of sodium metal is put into ethanol at room temperature. 

  (iv) Zinc carbonate is heated strongly. 

  (v) Sulphide ore is added to a tank containing oil and water, and then stirred  or agitated with air.

(c) Write a balanced chemical equation for each of the following:  

  (i) Reaction of carbon powder and concentrated nitric acid. 

  (ii) Reaction of excess ammonia with chlorine. 

  (iii) Reaction of lead nitrate solution with ammonium hydroxide. 

  (iv) Producing ethane from bromo ethane using Zn / Cu couple in alcohol. 

   (v) Complete combustion of ethane. 

(d) (i) Draw the structural formula for each of the following:  

     1. 2,2 dimethyl pentane 

     2. methanol 

     3. Iso propane 

    (ii) Write the IUPAC name for the following compounds:  

    1. acetaldehyde 

    2. acetylene 

(e) State one relevant reason for each of the following:  

    (i) Graphite anode is preferred to platinum in the electrolysis of molten lead bromide. 

   (ii) Soda lime is preferred to sodium hydroxide in the laboratory preparation  of methane. 

  (iii) Hydrated copper sulphate crystals turn white on heating. 

  (iv) Concentrated nitric acid appears yellow, when it is left for a while in a  glass bottle. 

    (v) Hydrogen chloride gas fumes in moist air. 

(f) Calculate:  

    (i) The amount of each reactant required to produce 750 ml of carbon  dioxide, when two volumes of carbon monoxide combine with one  volume of oxygen to produce two volumes of carbon dioxide. 

                             2CO + O2 → 2CO2 

    (ii) The volume occupied by 80 g of carbon dioxide at STP. 

    (iii) Calculate the number of molecules in 4.4 gm of CO2. 

           [Atomic mass of C= 12, O=16] 

    (iv) State the law associated in Q. no. (f)(i) above. 

(g) Give one word or a phrase for the following statements: 

     (i) The chemical bond formed by a shared pair of electrons, each bonding atom contributing one electron to the pair. 

    (ii) Electrode used as cathode in electrorefining of impure copper. 

    (iii) The substance prepared by adding other metals to a base metal in appropriate proportions to obtain certain desirable properties.  

   (iv) The tendency of an atom to attract electrons to itself when combined in a compound.  

   (v) The reaction in which carboxylic acid reacts with alcohol in the presence of conc. H2SO4 to form a substance having a fruity smell. 

(h) Fill in the blanks from the choices given in brackets: 

    (i) The polar covalent compound in gaseous state that does not conduct electricity is __________.  

          (carbon tetra chloride, ammonia, methane) 

  (ii) A salt prepared by displacement reaction is __________.  

        (ferric chloride, ferrous chloride, silver chloride) 

 (iii) The number of moles in 11gm of nitrogen gas is __________.  

        (0.39, 0.49, 0.29) [atomic mass of N=14] 

 (iv) An alkali which completely dissociates into ions is __________.  

      (ammonium hydroxide, calcium hydroxide, lithium hydroxide) 

  (v) An alloy used to make statues is__________.  

        (bronze, brass, fuse metal) 


Q. 2 (a) The following table represent the elements and the atomic number. 

With reference to this, answer the following using only the alphabets given in the table.  

Element Atomic number
P Q R13 7 10

    (i) Which element combines with hydrogen to form a basic gas? 

    (ii) Which element has an electron affinity zero? 

   (iii) Name the element, which forms an ionic compound with chlorine. 

(b) Draw the electron dot diagram for the compounds given below. Represent the electrons by (.) and (x) in the diagram. 

                          [Atomic No.: Ca = 20, O = 8, Cl = 17, H = 1] 

   (i) Calcium oxide 

   (ii) Chlorine molecule 

   (iii) Water molecule 

(c) Choose the correct word which refers to the process of electrolysis from A to  E, to match the description (i) to (iv):  

         A: Oxidation  B: Cathode  C: Anode  D: An electrolyte  E: Reduction 

   (i) Conducts electricity in aqueous or in molten state. 

  (ii) Loss of electron takes place at anode. 

  (iii) A reducing electrode. 

  (iv) Electrode connected to the positive end or terminal of the battery. 


Q. 3 (a) Baeyer’s process is used to concentrate bauxite ore to alumina. Give balanced chemical equations for the reaction taking place for its conversion from bauxite to alumina. 

(b) Complete the following by selecting the correct option from the choices given:                      

    (i) pH of acetic acid is greater than dilute sulphuric acid. So acetic acid  contains __________ concentration of H+ions. (greater, same, low) 

   (ii) The indicator which does not change colour on passage of HCl gas is   ________. (methyl orange, moist blue litmus, phenolphthalein)  

   (iii) The acid which cannot act as an oxidizing agent is __________.  (conc. H2SO4, conc. HNO3, conc. HCl)

(c) Match the gases given in column I to the identification of the gases mentioned    in column II:  

Column I Column II
(i) Hydrogen sulphide A. Turns acidified potassium dichromate  solution green.
(ii) Nitric oxide B. Turns lime water milky.
(iii) Carbon dioxide C. Turns reddish brown when it reacts with  oxygen.
(iv) Sulphur dioxide D. Turns moist lead acetate paper silvery  black.


Q. 4 (a) Differentiate between the following pairs based on the information given in the brackets. 

   (i) Conductor and electrolyte (conducting particles) 

   (ii) Cations and anions (formation from an atom) 

   (iii) Acid and Alkali (formation of type of ions) 

(b) Draw the structures of isomers of pentane. 

(c) Hydrogen chloride gas is prepared in the laboratory using concentrated       sulphuric acid and sodium chloride. Answer the questions that follow based on  this reaction: 

     (i) Give the balanced chemical equation for the reaction with suitable condition(s) if any. 

    (ii) Why is concentrated sulphuric acid used instead of concentrated nitric  acid? 

    (iii) How is the gas collected?  

    (iv) Name the drying agent not used for drying the gas. 


Q. 5 (a) Distinguish between the following pairs of compounds using a reagent as a chemical test:  

   (i) Calcium nitrate and Zinc nitrate solution. 

   (ii) Ammonium sulphate crystals and Sodium sulphate crystals. 

   (iii) Magnesium chloride and Magnesium nitrate solution. 

(b) Calculate the percentage of: 

     (i) Fluorine  

     (ii) Sodium and 

    (iii) Aluminium  

in sodium aluminium fluoride [Na3AlF6], to the nearest whole number. [Atomic Mass: Na = 23, Al= 27, F= 19]  

(c) (i) State the volume occupied by 40 gm of methane at STP, if its vapour density (V.D.) is 8. 

     (ii) Calculate the number of moles present in 160 gm of NaOH. 

           [Atomic Mass: Na = 23, H= 1, O= 16] 


Q. 6 (a) Identify the salts P, Q, R from the following observations: 

    (i) Salt P has light bluish green colour. On heating, it produces a black  coloured residue. Salt P produces brisk effervescence with dil. HCl and  the gas evolved turns lime water milky, but no action with acidified  potassium dichromate solution.  

   (ii) Salt Q is white in colour. On strong heating, it produces buff yellow  residue and liberates reddish brown gas. Solution of salt Q produces chalky white insoluble precipitate with excess of ammonium hydroxide.  

   (iii) Salt R is black in colour. On reacting with concentrated HCl, it liberates a pungent greenish yellow gas which turns moist starch iodide paper blue black.  

(b) Identify the substance underlined in each of the following: 

    (i) The electrode that increases in mass during the electro-refining of silver.

    (ii) The acid that is a dehydrating as well as a drying agent. 

    (iii) The catalyst used to oxidize ammonia into nitric oxide. 

(c) Copy and complete the following paragraph using the options given in brackets:  

Alkenes are a homologous series of (i) __________ (saturated / unsaturated) hydrocarbons characterized by the general formula (ii) __________  (CnH2n+2     / CnH2n). Alkenes undergo (iii) __________ (addition / substitution)  reactions and also undergo (iv) ________ (hydrogenation / dehydrogenation)  to form alkanes. 


Q. 7  (a) Write balanced chemical equations, for the preparation of the given salts 

(i) to (iii) by using the methods A to C respectively: 

     A: Neutralization             B: Precipitation               C: Titration 

    (i) Copper sulphate 

    (ii) Zinc carbonate 

    (iii) Ammonium sulphate 

(b) Name the following elements: 

     (i) An alkaline earth metal present in group 2 and period 3. 

     (ii) A trivalent metal used to make light tools. 

    (iii) A monovalent non-metal present in fluorspar. 

(c) An aqueous solution of nickel (II) sulphate was electrolyzed using nickel electrodes. Observe the diagram and answer the questions that follow: 

     (i) What do you observe at the cathode and anode respectively? 

     (ii) Name the cation that remains as a spectator ion in the solution. 

     (iii) Which equation for the reaction at the anode is correct? 

          1. Ni → Ni2+ + 2e 

          2. Ni + 2e → Ni2+ 

          3. Ni2+ → Ni + 2e 

          4. Ni2+ + 2e → Ni 




Q. 1 (a) Name the following: 

     (i) The process of transformation of several glucose molecules into one molecule of starch. 

     (ii) The point of attachment of two chromatids. 

     (iii) The iron containing pigment in erythrocytes. 

     (iv) The duct which transports urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder. 

     (v) The part of the brain which is concerned with memory.

(b) Explain the following terms: 

     (i) Allele 

    (ii) Diffusion  

    (iii) Photolysis  

     (iv) Phenotype  

     (v) Population density  

(c) Given below are certain groups of terms. In each group the first pair indicates a relationship between the two terms. Rewrite and complete the second pair on a similar basis. 

Example: Cytoplasm : Cytokinesis :: Nucleus : Karyokinesis. 

  (i) Widening of hips: Oestrogen :: Deepening of voice in males :___________.  

  (ii) Brain : Meninges :: Heart : ___________.  

  (iii) Insulin : Beta-cells :: Glucagon : _____________.  

  (iv) Kidney: Renal artery :: Liver : _____________.  

  (v) Uterus : Implantation :: Fallopian tube : __________.  

(d) Given below are sets of five terms each. Rewrite the terms in correct order in a logical sequence beginning with the first word that is underlined:  

  (i) Stimulus, Response, Receptor, Effector, Spinal cord.  

  (ii) Root hair, Endodermis, Epidermis, Xylem, Cortex.  

  (iii) Conjunctiva, Yellow spot, Pupil, Vitreous Humour, Aqueous Humour.  

  (iv) Australopithecus, Cro-Magnon Man, Homo erectus, Neanderthal Man, Homo sapiens.  

  (v) Artery, Capillaries, Venule, Vein, Arteriole.  

(e) Choose the correct answer from the four options given below: 

  (i) The fusion of the sperm and ovum is termed as: 

      A. Reproduction 

      B. Development 

      C. Fertilization 

       D. Embryo 

(ii) Agranulocytes are: 

      A. Lymphocytes, Monocytes 

      B. Lymphocytes, Basophils 

      C. Eosinophils, Basophils 

      D. Eosinophils, Monocytes 

(iii) Which of the following is not a natural reflex action? 

      A. Knee-jerk 

      B. Blinking of eyes due to strong light 

      C. Salivation at the sight of food 

      D. Sneezing when any irritant enters the nose 

(iv) The structural and functional units of excretion in the human kidney is the:                     

      A. Ureter 

      B. Bowman’s capsule 

      C. Renal pelvis 

       D. Nephron 

(v) In a human female, ovum consists of:  

     A. 23 pairs of autosomes 

     B. 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes 

     C. 22 autosomes and 1 Y-chromosome 

     D. 22 autosomes and 1 X-chromosome 

(f) Identify the ODD term in each set and name the CATEGORY to which the  remaining three belong:  

   (i) Auxin, Ethylene, Adrenaline, Cytokinin  

   (ii) Tympanum, Ear ossicles, Auditory canal, Pinna 

   (iii) Syringes, Soiled dressings, Discarded needles, Household detergents 

   (iv)    Exophthalmic Goiter, Simple Goitre, Cretinism, Myxoedema 

    (v) Adenine, Guanine, Creatinine, Cytosine 

(g) Match the items given in column A with the most appropriate ones in Column B and REWRITE the correct matching pairs: 

         Column A                                          Column B 

(i) Biston betularia  –                                     Calcium 

(ii) Testes  –                                                    balance of the body 

(iii) Clotting of blood  –                                 Light independent reaction 

(iv) Stroma  –                                                 diffusion of gases 

(v) Stomata  –                                                 gonad 

                                                                       – Peppered moth 

                                                                      –  Light dependent reaction 

                                                                      –  Chlorophyll 

(h) The diagram given below represents a plant movement. Answer the following question

(i) Name the tropic movement shown in the diagram. 

(ii) Explain the tropic movement mentioned in (i). 

(iii) Label the part marked ‘A’. 

(iv) What is part A attracted to? 

(v) Give an example of a plant which shows Thigmotropism. 


Q. 2 (a) The diagram given below represents an experiment to prove the importance 

A factor in photosynthesis. Answer the questions that follow: 

     (i) Which factor is being studied here?

    (ii) What is the purpose of keeping KOH in the flask? 

   (iii) Explain the term Photosynthesis.

   (iv) What will you observe when the leaf A is tested for starch?

   (v) Write a well balanced chemical equation for the process of  


(b) The diagram given below represents the simplified pathway of the circulation of  blood. Answer the questions that follow: 

 (i) Name the blood vessels labelled 1 to 4. 

 (ii) Which blood vessel supplies oxygenated blood to the muscles of the heart?       (iii) What is the importance of blood vessel labelled 5? 

 (iv) What is the type of blood circulation that takes place between the heart and  the lungs? 

 (v) Draw a diagram of the different blood cells as seen in a smear of human  blood.  


Q. 3 (a) The diagram given below depicts a defect of the human eye which has been  corrected by using a suitable lens. Answer the following questions: 

 (i) Name the defect that has been corrected. Which type of lens has been used for the correction? 

 (ii) Mention one cause for the above defect. 

 (iii) Where would the image have formed if the above lens was not used for correction? 

 (iv) Name the three concentric layers of the eyeball. 

  (v) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a neuron. 

(b) Give the biological reasons for the following statements:  

   (i) It is advisable to keep green plants in an aquarium. 

   (ii) Water pollution is a major cause of concern in our country. 

   (iii) We cannot distinguish colours in dim light. 

   (iv) Medical discoveries such as antibiotics and vaccinations have indirectly contributed to the sharp rise in human population. 

   (v) Homo sapiens sapiens is the most highly evolved form of man. 


Q. 4 (a) The figure given below shows a part of a nephron. Answer the questions that follow:  

   (i) In which region of the kidney is the above structure present? 

   (ii) Label the parts numbered 1 to 4. 

  (iii)What is the technical term for the process that occurs in part 3? 

  (iv)Why is fluid X not called urine? Justify your answer. 

  (v) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of the urinary system of man. 

(b) Differentiate between the following pairs on the basis of what is mentioned in the brackets:  

  (i) Transpiration and Guttation (place of occurrence) 

 (ii) Biodegradable waste and Non-biodegradable waste (One example) 

 (iii) Population control and Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (One objective) 

 (iv) Osmosis and Active Transport (Substances undergoing movement)  

  (v) Metaphase and Anaphase (Position of chromosomes) 


Q. 5 (a) The diagram below represents an experiment to demonstrate a certain phenomenon in a green plant: 


    (i) Will the level of mercury in the glass tubing rise or fall?

         Which conducting tissue of the plant does the glass-tubing represent?  

   (ii) Define Transpiration. 

  (iii) How will the rate of the above process differ if the environment of the plant  has: 

  1. Less humidity 

  2. High temperature? 

 (iv) State any two advantages of transpiration to the plant. 

 (v) Draw a neat labelled diagram of a Plasmolysed cell. 

(b) Give appropriate biological/ technical terms for the following:  

   (i) The sensory organ in Cochlea. 

  (ii) Number of live births per 1000 people per year. 

  (iii) The point of contact between two neurons. 

  (iv) The accessory gland in human males whose secretion neutralises the acid in  the vagina.  

  (v) Condition when blood sugar level is lowered in the blood.  

  (vi) Structure which helps in the adjustment of the size of the pupil.  

  (vii) A surgical method of fertility control in human males. 

  (viii) Process by which leucocytes migrate through the walls of capillaries. 

   (ix) A sudden inheritable change in one or more genes. 

   (x) A non-dividing phase of the cell cycle where more DNA is synthesised. 


Q. 6 (a) State two functions of: 

(i) Ear 

(ii) Ethylene  

(iii) Tears 

(iv) Testis 

 (v) Cerebellum 

(b) Complete the table: 

Name of the  HormoneEndocrine Gland Function
(i) (ii)Deposits extra glucose of blood as  glycogen
Growth  Hormone(iii) (iv)
(v) Thyroid (vi)
(vii) (viii) Prepare body for any emergency
Oxytocin (ix) (x)


Q. 7 (a) A homozygous dominant tall pea plant bearing red flowers (TTRR) is crossed with a homozygous recessive dwarf pea plant bearing white flowers (ttrr).  

    (i) What is the phenotype and genotype of F1 individuals? 

   (ii) Write the possible combination of gametes that are obtained when two F1 hybrid plants are crossed. 

   (iii) Mention the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation. 

   (iv) State Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment.  

  (v) Name two X-linked disorders found in humans.  

(b) The diagram given below is that of a developing human foetus. Answer the questions that follow: 

   (i) Label the parts numbered 1 to 3 in the diagram. 

  (ii) Mention any two functions of the part labelled 2 in the diagram. 

  (iii) Explain the significance of the part numbered 3 in the diagram. 

  (iv) Define the term ‘Gestation’.  

        What is the normal gestational period of the developing embryo? 

   (v) Mention the sex chromosomes in a male and female embryo.




Paper – 2 


Q. 1 Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following  questions:  

(a) (i) Give a six figure grid reference for the spot height .324 in northern part of the map extract.  

     (ii) Give a four figure grid reference for open scrub south of Dhad Talao. 

(b) (i) What is the meaning of the term ‘Contour interval’? 

     (ii) What is the contour interval of the sheet provided to you? 

(c) What is the area in kilometre square of the region between 06 and 09 Eastings and 22 and 27 Northings? 

(d) What is the significance of the following colours used on the survey map? 

     (i) Yellow colour. 

     (ii) Green colour. 

(e) What is the compass direction of? 

      (i) Idarla (0825) from Bhamra (0420). 

     (ii) Dhana (0623) from Amarapura (0124). 

(f) (i) Name the settlement pattern seen in the grid square 0819. 

     (ii) Name the drainage pattern seen in the grid square 0827. 

(g) (i) Name two man made features seen in the grid square 0723. 

      (ii) Name two natural features seen in the grid square 0218. 

(h)  (i) What is the black horizontal line drawn between 18 and 19 Northings? 

     (ii) Name the most important settlement of the region shown on the map extract.

      (i) Draw the conventional symbol for each of the following: 

              (i) Lined perennial well. 

              (ii) Seasonal tank. 

(j) (i) Give one evidence to prove that the regions shown on the map extract receive scanty rainfall. 

    (ii) What is .5r in the grid square 0321? 


Q. 2 On the outline map of India provided: 

(a) Mark and name Nilgiris.

(b) Mark and name Kochi. 

(c) Mark and name the Karakoram Pass. 

(d) Mark and name 82½oE Longitude. 

(e) Shade and name the Coromandel Coastal Plain. 

(f) Mark and name the River Brahmaputra. 

(g) Mark and name the Gulf of Kutch. 

(h) Mark and name the Satpura. 

(i) Mark using arrows, the direction of the South West Monsoon wind during summer over the Arabian Sea and label it.

(j) Shade and label a sparsely populated region in India. 

Index No.……………………………………………. UID…………………………….. 

(This map, if used, must be fastened with all other answers) 

                                         Map of India for Q. 2


Q. 3 (a) (i) Name one state in the north western part of India that receives rainfall during winter.  

    (ii) What is the source of this rainfall? 

(b) Give a reason for each of the following: 

    (i) Rainy season in India is after the summer season. 

   (ii) Tamil Nadu has more rainy months than Kerala, yet, Kerala receives more rainfall than Tamil Nadu. 

(c) (i) What do you understand by the term “Burst of Monsoon”? Name the state that experiences the “Burst of Monsoon”. 

   (ii) Even though India gets abundant rainfall during the rainy season, yet, some places experience drought. Explain giving suitable examples. 

   (iii) Why is Shimla colder than Delhi during summer? 

(d) Study the climatic data given below and answer the questions that follow: 

Months  Jan  Feb  Mar  Apr  May  Jun  Jul  Aug  Sep  Oct  Nov  Dec
Temp. in  °C  8.4  11.5  21.6  28.3  35.1    38.5 41.0  38.0  30.8  29.2  15.6  10.2
Rainfall in  cms. 1.5  0.9  0.5  –  –  12.5  17.8  18.5  12.5  12.5  6.2  2.1

    (i) Calculate the annual range of temperature. 

   (ii) State whether the station is located in the coastal area or in the continental interior. 

  (iii) Name the wind that brings most of the rainfall to this area. 


Q. 4 (a) (i) Name the parent rock that contributes to the formation of red soil. 

     (ii) How does this soil get its ‘red’ colour? 

(b) Name the following: 

    (i) a soil that occurs insitu and is good for cotton crop. 

   (ii) soil that is formed due to high temperature and heavy rainfall. 

(c) With reference to Alluvial Soil answer the following: 

   (i) What are the two types of Alluvial Soil? 

  (ii) Name an area where Alluvial soil is found. 

  (iii) Name two crops that grow well in this soil. 

(d) (i) Define the term ‘Residual’ soil. 

     (ii) Name two crops that are grown on laterite soil. 

    (iii) Name two important agents of soil erosion.  


Q. 5 (a) State two ways by which forests help in protecting the environment. 

(b) With reference to Tropical Deciduous forests answer the following questions: 

    (i) Name two states where it is found. 

   (ii) Name two important trees found in this forest. 

(c) Briefly explain the following: 

   (i) Why are Tropical Evergreen forests called “Evergreen”? 

  (ii) Why is afforestation essential in the cities that have Iron and Steel industries?             

(iii) How do forests act as a source of income for the people. 

(d) Give a reason for each of the following: 

   (i) The Tropical Deciduous forest is commercially the most important forest belt  in India. 

  (ii) Tropical Evergreen forests occur on the windward side of Western Ghats. 

  (iii) It is very difficult to move through tidal forests. 


Q. 6 (a) Mention any two methods of recharging groundwater aquifers.

(b) (i) Name the most common means of irrigation used in India.  

     (ii) Give one reason for the popularity of this means of irrigation in our country.

(c) (i) Name two states of India where Canal irrigation is extensively used. 

    (ii) Name the types of canals used in India. 

   (iii) Mention one point of difference between the types of canals mentioned by you. 

(d) (i) What geographical conditions make irrigation necessary in the country?

     (ii) How has irrigation changed the cropping pattern in India? 

    (iii) Why is there a scarcity of surface water in our country? 


Q. 7 (a) (i) Why is iron ore called the backbone of our modern industry?  

     (ii) Mention two uses of iron ore. 

(b) Mention one agricultural and one industrial problem solved by the Bhakra Nangal Dam. 

(c) (i) Name the state that is the leading producer of Manganese. 

     (ii) Name the mineral oil field of India which is the largest producer of Petroleum.

    (iii) Mention two advantages of using Geothermal energy over coal. 

(d) (i) Mention one disadvantage of using natural gas as a source of power. 

    (ii) How is the residue from a Bio-gas plant put to use? 

    (iii)Why is the use of alternative sources of energy becoming essential in modern time? 


Q. 8 (a) Mention two points of difference between subsistence farming and commercial farming. 

(b) Explain briefly the following terms: 

    (i) Ginning. 

    (ii) Ratooning. 

(c) With reference to the wheat crop answer the following questions: 

    (i) Name the state which is the leading producer of this crop in India. 

   (ii) Mention the climatic condition found suitable for the cultivation of this crop. 

(d) Give a geographical reason for each of the following:  

   (i) Cultivation of rice requires flat level land. 

  (ii) Pulses are important rotation crops. 

  (iii) Bajra and Jowar are grown as dry crops. 


Q. 9 (a) Give two reasons as to why Mumbai has developed into an important cotton textile centre. 

(b) (i) What are Basic Industries?  

     (ii) Give one example of a Basic Industry in India. 

(c) (i) State two problems faced by the Silk Industry of India. 

    (ii) Mention the most important factor for location of Sugar industries. 

(d) Briefly answer the following: 

   (i) From where does the Rourkela Steel plant obtain its supply of coal? 

  (ii) From where does the Tata Iron and Steel plant obtain its supply of iron ore? 

  (iii) Name two cities that are important for the production of Electronics. 


Q. 10 (a) With reference to Waterways answer the following questions:  

    (i) Mention two advantages of inland water transport.  

   (ii) Why is inland water transport not well developed in India? 

(b) Even though all means of transport are well developed in India, yet, road transport remains the most popular means of transport. Justify this statement. 

(c) Give a reason for each of the following: 

   (i)Roadways is not well developed in North East India. 

   (ii)Railways are under the public sector. 

  (iii)A good network of transport is of great help for the development of the economy. 

(d) (i) Give two disadvantages of Airways. 

     (ii) Why is there an increase of airway traffic in recent years? 


Q. 11 (a) (i) What do you mean by segregation of waste? 

     (ii) Why is segregation of waste essential before its disposal? 

(b) Why should sewage be treated before disposal?

(c) Briefly answer each of the following: 

   (i) What is the effect of Waste accumulation on terrestrial life? 

   (ii) What are the consequences of Water pollution? 

   (iii) What is the benefit of Composting? 

(d) (i) How can recycling of Waste help in reducing waste? Explain with suitable examples. 

   (ii) Mention one initiative taken by the Government to manage waste. 

  (iii) How can you as an individual contribute towards waste management? 



H.C.G. – Paper – 1  


Attempt all questions from this Part 

Q. 1 (a) Name the two Houses of the Indian Parliament. 

(b) What is meant by the term ‘Session’? 

(c) How is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha elected? 

(d) What is the term of office of a Rajya Sabha member? 

(e) Who is the Supreme Commander of the Armed forces of India? 

(f) What is the normal term of office of the Vice President of India? 

(g) Who appoints the Prime Minister of India? 

(h) State the body that decides the major policies of the Government. 

(i) Name the Courts that are empowered to issue Writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. 

(j) Mention any one advantage of the Lok Adalat. 


Q. 2 (a) Mention any two contributions of Bipin Chandra Pal in promoting Nationalism. 

(b) State any two methods adopted by the Early Nationalists in the National Movement. 

(c) Why is October 16, 1905 regarded as an important day in the history of the Indian National Movement? 

(d) Name any two leaders of the Khilafat Movement.

(e) State any two causes for the Non-Cooperation Movement.

(f) Mention any two objectives of the Forward Bloc.

(g) What was meant by the term ‘Imperialism’, as a cause for World War I?

(h) Give any two reasons for the rise of Fascism. 

(i) Name the two International Organisations that were formed, one as a consequence of World War I and the other after World War II. 

(j) Give the full form of UNICEF and WHO. 



Attempt any two questions from this Section 

Q. 3 With reference to the Union Legislature, answer the following questions: 

(a) Explain any three Legislative powers of the Union Parliament. 

(b) State any three exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha that is not enjoyed by the other House. 

(c) List any four functions of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. 


Q. 4 The Executive Power of the Indian Union is vested in the President. In this context, answer the following: 

(a) How is the President of India elected? State the composition of the Electoral College that elects him. 

(b) Explain any three Discretionary Powers of the President. 

(c) Mention any four Executive Powers of the President. 


Q. 5 With reference to the Supreme Court as the Apex Court in our Indian Judiciary, explain  the following: 

(a) Any three cases that come under the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. 

(b) Power of Judicial Review. 

(c) Supreme Court as a Court of Record. 


Attempt any three questions from this Section 

Q. 6 By 1857, conditions were ripe for a mass uprising in the form of the Great Revolt of  1857. In this context, explain the following: 

(a) Any three Economic causes for the revolt of 1857. 

(b) Any three Military causes. 

(c) Any three Political causes of the revolt. 


Q. 7 With reference to the Mass Phase of the National Movement under the leadership of  Gandhi, answer the following: 

(a) Briefly explain the Dandi March of 1930. 

(b) State any three reasons for the launching of the Quit India Movement. 

(c) Explain any four significant effects of the Quit India Movement. 


Q. 8 With reference to the Partition Plan, answer the following: 

(a) (i) Name the last Viceroy of India. 

(ii) State any two reasons for him to come to India. 

(b) Mention any three proposals under his plan. (c) State any four reasons for the Congress to finally accept the Plan. 


Q. 9 

(a) Name the organization associated with the above Emblem. Mention any two of its objectives.  

(b) Mention any three functions of WHO, as its agency. 

(c) Name the Principal Judicial Organ of this organization and explain its composition. 


Q. 10 With reference to the Second World War and the Non-Aligned Movement, answer the  following: 

(a) Explain briefly three reasons for the Dissatisfaction with the Treaty of Versailles. 

(b) State any three consequences of the Second World War. 

(c) Mention any four chief architects of the Non-Aligned Movement. 



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