SCIENCE Paper – 1 


Q. 1 (a) (i) Define moment of force.  

     (ii) Write the relationship between the SI and CGS unit of moment of force. 

(b) Define a kilowatt hour. How is it related to joule? 

(c) A satellite revolves around a planet in a circular orbit. What is the work done by the satellite at any instant? Give a reason. 

(d) (i) Identify the class of the lever shown in the diagram below: 

     (ii) How is it possible to increase the M.A. of the above lever without increasing  its length? 

(e) Give one example of each when: 

     (i) Chemical energy changes into electrical energy. 

    (ii) Electrical energy changes into sound energy. 


Q. 2 (a) A crane ‘A’ lifts a heavy load in 5 seconds, whereas another crane ‘B’ does the same work in 2 seconds. Compare the power of crane ‘A’ to that of crane ‘B’.

(b) A ray of light falls normally on a rectangular glass slab. Draw a ray diagram showing the path of the ray till it emerges out of the slab. 

(c) Complete the path of the monochromatic light ray AB incident on the surface PQ of the equilateral glass prism PQR till it emerges out of the prism due to  refraction. 

(d) Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens in order to get:  

   (i) an enlarged real image 

   (ii) enlarged virtual image? 

(e) A pond appears to be 2.7 m deep. If the refractive index of water is 4/3 , find the actual depth of the pond. 


Q. 3 (a) The wave lengths for the light of red and blue colours are nearly 7.8 x 10-7 m and 4.8 x 10-7 m respectively. 

  (i) Which colour has the greater speed in a vacuum? 

 (ii) Which colour has a greater speed in glass? 

(b) Draw a graph between displacement from mean position and time for a body executing free vibration in a vacuum. 

(c) A sound wave travelling in water has wavelength 0.4 m. Is this wave audible in air? (The speed of sound in water = 1400 ms-1

(d) Why does stone lying in the sun get heated up much more than water lying for the same duration of time? 

(e) Why is it not advisable to use a piece of copper wire as fuse wire in an electric circuit? 


Q. 4 (a) Calculate the total resistance across AB:

(b) Two metallic blocks P and Q having masses in ratio 2:1 are supplied with the same amount of heat. If their temperatures rise by same degree, compare their  specific heat capacities. 

(c) When a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a mechanical force. What should be the angle between the magnetic field and  the length of the conductor so that the force experienced is: 

   (i) Zero 

  (ii) Maximum? 

(d) A nucleus 84X202 of an element emits an alpha particle followed by a beta  

      particle. The final nucleus is aYb. Find a and b. 

(e) The diagram below shows a loop of wire carrying current I:

(i) What is the magnetic polarity of the loop that faces us? 

(ii) With respect to the diagram how can we increase the strength of the magnetic field produced by this loop? 


Q. 5 (a) The figure below shows a simple pendulum of mass 200 g. It is displaced from the mean position A to the extreme position B. The potential energy at the  position A is zero. At the position B the pendulum bob is raised by 5 m. 

     (i) What is the potential energy of the pendulum at the position B? 

    (ii) What is the total mechanical energy at point C? 

    (iii) What is the speed of the bob at the position A when released from B? 

            (Take g = 10 ms-2 and there is no loss of energy.) 

(b) (i) With reference to the direction of action, how does a centripetal force differ from a centrifugal force during uniform circular motion? 

     (ii) Is centrifugal force the force of reaction of centripetal force? 

     (iii) Compare the magnitudes of centripetal and centrifugal force. 

(c) A block and tackle system of pulleys has velocity ratio 4. 

    (i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of the system indicating clearly the points of  application and direction of load and effort. 

   (ii) What will be its V.R. if the weight of the movable block is doubled? 


Q. 6 (a) A diver in water looks obliquely at an object AB in air.  

     (i) Does the object appear taller, shorter or of the same size to the diver? 

    (ii) Show the path of two rays AC & AD starting from the tip of the object as it  travels towards the diver in water and hence obtain the image of the object. 

(b) Complete the path of the ray AB through the glass prism in PQR till it emerges out of the prism. Given the critical angle of the glass as 42o

(c) A lens of focal length 20 cm forms an inverted image at a distance 60 cm from the lens. 

    (i) Identify the lens. 

   (ii) How far is the lens present in front of the object? 

  (iii) Calculate the magnification of the image. 


Q. 7 (a) Give reasons for the following: During the day: 

    (i) Clouds appear white. 

    (ii) Sky appears blue. 

(b) (i) Name the system which enables us to locate underwater objects by transmitting ultrasonic waves and detecting the reflecting impulse. 

     (ii) What are acoustically measurable quantities related to pitch and loudness? 

(c) (i) When a tuning fork [vibrating] is held close to ear, one hears a faint hum. The same [vibrating tuning fork] is held such that its stem is in contact with the table surface, then one hears a loud sound. Explain. 

(ii) A man standing in front of a vertical cliff fires a gun. He hears the echo     after 3.5 seconds. On moving closer to the cliff by 84 m, he hears the echo  after 3 seconds. Calculate the distance of the cliff from the initial position  of the man. 


Q. 8 (a) The diagram below shows the core of a transformer and its input and output  connections 

  (i) State the material used for the core. 

  (ii) Copy and complete the diagram of the transformer by drawing input and output coils.  

(b) (i) What are superconductors?  

     (ii) Calculate the current drawn by an appliance rated 110 W, 220 V when connected across 220 V supply.

  (iii) Name a substance whose resistance decreases with the increase in  temperature.

(c) The diagram above shows three resistors connected across a cell of e.m.f.  1.8 V and internal resistance r.


    (i) Current through 3 Ω resistor. 

    (ii) The internal resistance r. 


Q. 9  (a) (i) Define heat capacity of a substance.  

     (ii) Write the SI unit of heat capacity. 

    (iii) What is the relationship between heat capacity and specific heat capacity of a substance? 

(b) The diagram below shows the change of phases of a substance on a temperature vs time graph on heating the substance at a constant rate. 

     (i) Why is the slope of CD less than slope of AB? 

     (ii) What is the boiling and melting point of the substance? 

(c) A piece of ice of mass 60 g is dropped into 140 g of water at 50oC.  Calculate the final temperature of water when all the ice has melted. (Assume no heat is lost to the surrounding) 

Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 Jg-1k-1 

Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 Jg-1 


Q. 10 (a) (i) Draw a neat labeled diagram of a d.c. motor.  

     (ii) Write any one use of a d.c. motor. 

(b) (i) Differentiate between nuclear fusion and nuclear fission. 

     (ii) State one safety precaution in the disposal of nuclear waste. 

(c) An atomic nucleus A is composed of 84 protons and 128 neutrons. The nucleus A emits an alpha particle and is transformed into a nucleus B.  

    (i) What is the composition of B? 

    (ii) The nucleus B emits a beta particle and is transformed into a nucleus C. What is the composition of C? 

   (iii) What is mass number of the nucleus A? 

   (iv) Does the composition of C change if it emits gamma radiations? 




 Paper – 2 

Q. 1 (a) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:  

  (i) The element with highest ionization potential, is: 

  A. Hydrogen 

  B. Caesium 

  C. Radon 

  D. Helium  

 (ii) The inert electrode used in the electrolysis of acidified water, is: 

 A. Nickel  

 B. Platinum 

 C. Copper 

 D. Silver 

 (iii) A compound with low boiling point, is: 

 A. Sodium chloride 

 B. Calcium chloride 

 C. Potassium chloride 

 D. Carbon tetrachloride 

 (iv) The acid which can produce carbon from cane sugar, is: 

 A. Concentrated Hydrochloric acid 

 B. Concentrated Nitric acid 

 C. Concentrated Sulphuric acid 

 D. Concentrated Acetic acid 

 (v) The organic compound having a triple carbon-carbon covalent bond, is: 

 A. C3H4 

 B. C3H6 

 C. C3H8 

 D. C4H10 

(b) State one relevant observation for each of the following reactions:  

   (i) Action of concentrated nitric acid on copper.  

  (ii) Addition of excess ammonium hydroxide into copper sulphate solution. 

  (iii) A piece of sodium metal is put into ethanol at room temperature. 

  (iv) Zinc carbonate is heated strongly. 

  (v) Sulphide ore is added to a tank containing oil and water, and then stirred  or agitated with air.

(c) Write a balanced chemical equation for each of the following:  

  (i) Reaction of carbon powder and concentrated nitric acid. 

  (ii) Reaction of excess ammonia with chlorine. 

  (iii) Reaction of lead nitrate solution with ammonium hydroxide. 

  (iv) Producing ethane from bromo ethane using Zn / Cu couple in alcohol. 

   (v) Complete combustion of ethane. 

(d) (i) Draw the structural formula for each of the following:  

     1. 2,2 dimethyl pentane 

     2. methanol 

     3. Iso propane 

    (ii) Write the IUPAC name for the following compounds:  

    1. acetaldehyde 

    2. acetylene 

(e) State one relevant reason for each of the following:  

    (i) Graphite anode is preferred to platinum in the electrolysis of molten lead bromide. 

   (ii) Soda lime is preferred to sodium hydroxide in the laboratory preparation  of methane. 

  (iii) Hydrated copper sulphate crystals turn white on heating. 

  (iv) Concentrated nitric acid appears yellow, when it is left for a while in a  glass bottle. 

    (v) Hydrogen chloride gas fumes in moist air. 

(f) Calculate:  

    (i) The amount of each reactant required to produce 750 ml of carbon  dioxide, when two volumes of carbon monoxide combine with one  volume of oxygen to produce two volumes of carbon dioxide. 

                             2CO + O2 → 2CO2 

    (ii) The volume occupied by 80 g of carbon dioxide at STP. 

    (iii) Calculate the number of molecules in 4.4 gm of CO2. 

           [Atomic mass of C= 12, O=16] 

    (iv) State the law associated in Q. no. (f)(i) above. 

(g) Give one word or a phrase for the following statements: 

     (i) The chemical bond formed by a shared pair of electrons, each bonding atom contributing one electron to the pair. 

    (ii) Electrode used as cathode in electrorefining of impure copper. 

    (iii) The substance prepared by adding other metals to a base metal in appropriate proportions to obtain certain desirable properties.  

   (iv) The tendency of an atom to attract electrons to itself when combined in a compound.  

   (v) The reaction in which carboxylic acid reacts with alcohol in the presence of conc. H2SO4 to form a substance having a fruity smell. 

(h) Fill in the blanks from the choices given in brackets: 

    (i) The polar covalent compound in gaseous state that does not conduct electricity is __________.  

          (carbon tetra chloride, ammonia, methane) 

  (ii) A salt prepared by displacement reaction is __________.  

        (ferric chloride, ferrous chloride, silver chloride) 

 (iii) The number of moles in 11gm of nitrogen gas is __________.  

        (0.39, 0.49, 0.29) [atomic mass of N=14] 

 (iv) An alkali which completely dissociates into ions is __________.  

      (ammonium hydroxide, calcium hydroxide, lithium hydroxide) 

  (v) An alloy used to make statues is__________.  

        (bronze, brass, fuse metal) 


Q. 2 (a) The following table represent the elements and the atomic number. 

With reference to this, answer the following using only the alphabets given in the table.  

Element Atomic number
P Q R13 7 10

    (i) Which element combines with hydrogen to form a basic gas? 

    (ii) Which element has an electron affinity zero? 

   (iii) Name the element, which forms an ionic compound with chlorine. 

(b) Draw the electron dot diagram for the compounds given below. Represent the electrons by (.) and (x) in the diagram. 

                          [Atomic No.: Ca = 20, O = 8, Cl = 17, H = 1] 

   (i) Calcium oxide 

   (ii) Chlorine molecule 

   (iii) Water molecule 

(c) Choose the correct word which refers to the process of electrolysis from A to  E, to match the description (i) to (iv):  

         A: Oxidation  B: Cathode  C: Anode  D: An electrolyte  E: Reduction 

   (i) Conducts electricity in aqueous or in molten state. 

  (ii) Loss of electron takes place at anode. 

  (iii) A reducing electrode. 

  (iv) Electrode connected to the positive end or terminal of the battery. 


Q. 3 (a) Baeyer’s process is used to concentrate bauxite ore to alumina. Give balanced chemical equations for the reaction taking place for its conversion from bauxite to alumina. 

(b) Complete the following by selecting the correct option from the choices given:                      

    (i) pH of acetic acid is greater than dilute sulphuric acid. So acetic acid  contains __________ concentration of H+ions. (greater, same, low) 

   (ii) The indicator which does not change colour on passage of HCl gas is   ________. (methyl orange, moist blue litmus, phenolphthalein)  

   (iii) The acid which cannot act as an oxidizing agent is __________.  (conc. H2SO4, conc. HNO3, conc. HCl)

(c) Match the gases given in column I to the identification of the gases mentioned    in column II:  

Column I Column II
(i) Hydrogen sulphide A. Turns acidified potassium dichromate  solution green.
(ii) Nitric oxide B. Turns lime water milky.
(iii) Carbon dioxide C. Turns reddish brown when it reacts with  oxygen.
(iv) Sulphur dioxide D. Turns moist lead acetate paper silvery  black.


Q. 4 (a) Differentiate between the following pairs based on the information given in the brackets. 

   (i) Conductor and electrolyte (conducting particles) 

   (ii) Cations and anions (formation from an atom) 

   (iii) Acid and Alkali (formation of type of ions) 

(b) Draw the structures of isomers of pentane. 

(c) Hydrogen chloride gas is prepared in the laboratory using concentrated       sulphuric acid and sodium chloride. Answer the questions that follow based on  this reaction: 

     (i) Give the balanced chemical equation for the reaction with suitable condition(s) if any. 

    (ii) Why is concentrated sulphuric acid used instead of concentrated nitric  acid? 

    (iii) How is the gas collected?  

    (iv) Name the drying agent not used for drying the gas. 


Q. 5 (a) Distinguish between the following pairs of compounds using a reagent as a chemical test:  

   (i) Calcium nitrate and Zinc nitrate solution. 

   (ii) Ammonium sulphate crystals and Sodium sulphate crystals. 

   (iii) Magnesium chloride and Magnesium nitrate solution. 

(b) Calculate the percentage of: 

     (i) Fluorine  

     (ii) Sodium and 

    (iii) Aluminium  

in sodium aluminium fluoride [Na3AlF6], to the nearest whole number. [Atomic Mass: Na = 23, Al= 27, F= 19]  

(c) (i) State the volume occupied by 40 gm of methane at STP, if its vapour density (V.D.) is 8. 

     (ii) Calculate the number of moles present in 160 gm of NaOH. 

           [Atomic Mass: Na = 23, H= 1, O= 16] 


Q. 6 (a) Identify the salts P, Q, R from the following observations: 

    (i) Salt P has light bluish green colour. On heating, it produces a black  coloured residue. Salt P produces brisk effervescence with dil. HCl and  the gas evolved turns lime water milky, but no action with acidified  potassium dichromate solution.  

   (ii) Salt Q is white in colour. On strong heating, it produces buff yellow  residue and liberates reddish brown gas. Solution of salt Q produces chalky white insoluble precipitate with excess of ammonium hydroxide.  

   (iii) Salt R is black in colour. On reacting with concentrated HCl, it liberates a pungent greenish yellow gas which turns moist starch iodide paper blue black.  

(b) Identify the substance underlined in each of the following: 

    (i) The electrode that increases in mass during the electro-refining of silver.

    (ii) The acid that is a dehydrating as well as a drying agent. 

    (iii) The catalyst used to oxidize ammonia into nitric oxide. 

(c) Copy and complete the following paragraph using the options given in brackets:  

Alkenes are a homologous series of (i) __________ (saturated / unsaturated) hydrocarbons characterized by the general formula (ii) __________  (CnH2n+2     / CnH2n). Alkenes undergo (iii) __________ (addition / substitution)  reactions and also undergo (iv) ________ (hydrogenation / dehydrogenation)  to form alkanes. 


Q. 7  (a) Write balanced chemical equations, for the preparation of the given salts 

(i) to (iii) by using the methods A to C respectively: 

     A: Neutralization             B: Precipitation               C: Titration 

    (i) Copper sulphate 

    (ii) Zinc carbonate 

    (iii) Ammonium sulphate 

(b) Name the following elements: 

     (i) An alkaline earth metal present in group 2 and period 3. 

     (ii) A trivalent metal used to make light tools. 

    (iii) A monovalent non-metal present in fluorspar. 

(c) An aqueous solution of nickel (II) sulphate was electrolyzed using nickel electrodes. Observe the diagram and answer the questions that follow: 

     (i) What do you observe at the cathode and anode respectively? 

     (ii) Name the cation that remains as a spectator ion in the solution. 

     (iii) Which equation for the reaction at the anode is correct? 

          1. Ni → Ni2+ + 2e 

          2. Ni + 2e → Ni2+ 

          3. Ni2+ → Ni + 2e 

          4. Ni2+ + 2e → Ni 




Q. 1 (a) Name the following: 

     (i) The process of transformation of several glucose molecules into one molecule of starch. 

     (ii) The point of attachment of two chromatids. 

     (iii) The iron containing pigment in erythrocytes. 

     (iv) The duct which transports urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder. 

     (v) The part of the brain which is concerned with memory.

(b) Explain the following terms: 

     (i) Allele 

    (ii) Diffusion  

    (iii) Photolysis  

     (iv) Phenotype  

     (v) Population density  

(c) Given below are certain groups of terms. In each group the first pair indicates a relationship between the two terms. Rewrite and complete the second pair on a similar basis. 

Example: Cytoplasm : Cytokinesis :: Nucleus : Karyokinesis. 

  (i) Widening of hips: Oestrogen :: Deepening of voice in males :___________.  

  (ii) Brain : Meninges :: Heart : ___________.  

  (iii) Insulin : Beta-cells :: Glucagon : _____________.  

  (iv) Kidney: Renal artery :: Liver : _____________.  

  (v) Uterus : Implantation :: Fallopian tube : __________.  

(d) Given below are sets of five terms each. Rewrite the terms in correct order in a logical sequence beginning with the first word that is underlined:  

  (i) Stimulus, Response, Receptor, Effector, Spinal cord.  

  (ii) Root hair, Endodermis, Epidermis, Xylem, Cortex.  

  (iii) Conjunctiva, Yellow spot, Pupil, Vitreous Humour, Aqueous Humour.  

  (iv) Australopithecus, Cro-Magnon Man, Homo erectus, Neanderthal Man, Homo sapiens.  

  (v) Artery, Capillaries, Venule, Vein, Arteriole.  

(e) Choose the correct answer from the four options given below: 

  (i) The fusion of the sperm and ovum is termed as: 

      A. Reproduction 

      B. Development 

      C. Fertilization 

       D. Embryo 

(ii) Agranulocytes are: 

      A. Lymphocytes, Monocytes 

      B. Lymphocytes, Basophils 

      C. Eosinophils, Basophils 

      D. Eosinophils, Monocytes 

(iii) Which of the following is not a natural reflex action? 

      A. Knee-jerk 

      B. Blinking of eyes due to strong light 

      C. Salivation at the sight of food 

      D. Sneezing when any irritant enters the nose 

(iv) The structural and functional units of excretion in the human kidney is the:                     

      A. Ureter 

      B. Bowman’s capsule 

      C. Renal pelvis 

       D. Nephron 

(v) In a human female, ovum consists of:  

     A. 23 pairs of autosomes 

     B. 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes 

     C. 22 autosomes and 1 Y-chromosome 

     D. 22 autosomes and 1 X-chromosome 

(f) Identify the ODD term in each set and name the CATEGORY to which the  remaining three belong:  

   (i) Auxin, Ethylene, Adrenaline, Cytokinin  

   (ii) Tympanum, Ear ossicles, Auditory canal, Pinna 

   (iii) Syringes, Soiled dressings, Discarded needles, Household detergents 

   (iv)    Exophthalmic Goiter, Simple Goitre, Cretinism, Myxoedema 

    (v) Adenine, Guanine, Creatinine, Cytosine 

(g) Match the items given in column A with the most appropriate ones in Column B and REWRITE the correct matching pairs: 

         Column A                                          Column B 

(i) Biston betularia  –                                     Calcium 

(ii) Testes  –                                                    balance of the body 

(iii) Clotting of blood  –                                 Light independent reaction 

(iv) Stroma  –                                                 diffusion of gases 

(v) Stomata  –                                                 gonad 

                                                                       – Peppered moth 

                                                                      –  Light dependent reaction 

                                                                      –  Chlorophyll 

(h) The diagram given below represents a plant movement. Answer the following question

(i) Name the tropic movement shown in the diagram. 

(ii) Explain the tropic movement mentioned in (i). 

(iii) Label the part marked ‘A’. 

(iv) What is part A attracted to? 

(v) Give an example of a plant which shows Thigmotropism. 


Q. 2 (a) The diagram given below represents an experiment to prove the importance 

A factor in photosynthesis. Answer the questions that follow: 

     (i) Which factor is being studied here?

    (ii) What is the purpose of keeping KOH in the flask? 

   (iii) Explain the term Photosynthesis.

   (iv) What will you observe when the leaf A is tested for starch?

   (v) Write a well balanced chemical equation for the process of  


(b) The diagram given below represents the simplified pathway of the circulation of  blood. Answer the questions that follow: 

 (i) Name the blood vessels labelled 1 to 4. 

 (ii) Which blood vessel supplies oxygenated blood to the muscles of the heart?       (iii) What is the importance of blood vessel labelled 5? 

 (iv) What is the type of blood circulation that takes place between the heart and  the lungs? 

 (v) Draw a diagram of the different blood cells as seen in a smear of human  blood.  


Q. 3 (a) The diagram given below depicts a defect of the human eye which has been  corrected by using a suitable lens. Answer the following questions: 

 (i) Name the defect that has been corrected. Which type of lens has been used for the correction? 

 (ii) Mention one cause for the above defect. 

 (iii) Where would the image have formed if the above lens was not used for correction? 

 (iv) Name the three concentric layers of the eyeball. 

  (v) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a neuron. 

(b) Give the biological reasons for the following statements:  

   (i) It is advisable to keep green plants in an aquarium. 

   (ii) Water pollution is a major cause of concern in our country. 

   (iii) We cannot distinguish colours in dim light. 

   (iv) Medical discoveries such as antibiotics and vaccinations have indirectly contributed to the sharp rise in human population. 

   (v) Homo sapiens sapiens is the most highly evolved form of man. 


Q. 4 (a) The figure given below shows a part of a nephron. Answer the questions that follow:  

   (i) In which region of the kidney is the above structure present? 

   (ii) Label the parts numbered 1 to 4. 

  (iii)What is the technical term for the process that occurs in part 3? 

  (iv)Why is fluid X not called urine? Justify your answer. 

  (v) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of the urinary system of man. 

(b) Differentiate between the following pairs on the basis of what is mentioned in the brackets:  

  (i) Transpiration and Guttation (place of occurrence) 

 (ii) Biodegradable waste and Non-biodegradable waste (One example) 

 (iii) Population control and Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (One objective) 

 (iv) Osmosis and Active Transport (Substances undergoing movement)  

  (v) Metaphase and Anaphase (Position of chromosomes) 


Q. 5 (a) The diagram below represents an experiment to demonstrate a certain phenomenon in a green plant: 


    (i) Will the level of mercury in the glass tubing rise or fall?

         Which conducting tissue of the plant does the glass-tubing represent?  

   (ii) Define Transpiration. 

  (iii) How will the rate of the above process differ if the environment of the plant  has: 

  1. Less humidity 

  2. High temperature? 

 (iv) State any two advantages of transpiration to the plant. 

 (v) Draw a neat labelled diagram of a Plasmolysed cell. 

(b) Give appropriate biological/ technical terms for the following:  

   (i) The sensory organ in Cochlea. 

  (ii) Number of live births per 1000 people per year. 

  (iii) The point of contact between two neurons. 

  (iv) The accessory gland in human males whose secretion neutralises the acid in  the vagina.  

  (v) Condition when blood sugar level is lowered in the blood.  

  (vi) Structure which helps in the adjustment of the size of the pupil.  

  (vii) A surgical method of fertility control in human males. 

  (viii) Process by which leucocytes migrate through the walls of capillaries. 

   (ix) A sudden inheritable change in one or more genes. 

   (x) A non-dividing phase of the cell cycle where more DNA is synthesised. 


Q. 6 (a) State two functions of: 

(i) Ear 

(ii) Ethylene  

(iii) Tears 

(iv) Testis 

 (v) Cerebellum 

(b) Complete the table: 

Name of the  HormoneEndocrine Gland Function
(i) (ii)Deposits extra glucose of blood as  glycogen
Growth  Hormone(iii) (iv)
(v) Thyroid (vi)
(vii) (viii) Prepare body for any emergency
Oxytocin (ix) (x)


Q. 7 (a) A homozygous dominant tall pea plant bearing red flowers (TTRR) is crossed with a homozygous recessive dwarf pea plant bearing white flowers (ttrr).  

    (i) What is the phenotype and genotype of F1 individuals? 

   (ii) Write the possible combination of gametes that are obtained when two F1 hybrid plants are crossed. 

   (iii) Mention the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation. 

   (iv) State Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment.  

  (v) Name two X-linked disorders found in humans.  

(b) The diagram given below is that of a developing human foetus. Answer the questions that follow: 

   (i) Label the parts numbered 1 to 3 in the diagram. 

  (ii) Mention any two functions of the part labelled 2 in the diagram. 

  (iii) Explain the significance of the part numbered 3 in the diagram. 

  (iv) Define the term ‘Gestation’.  

        What is the normal gestational period of the developing embryo? 

   (v) Mention the sex chromosomes in a male and female embryo.



SCIENCE Paper – 3 


Q.1 (a) Name the following: 

     (i) The organization which procures and supplies blood during an emergency. 

     (ii) The blood vessel which supplies blood to the liver. 

     (iii) The number of chromosomes present in a nerve cell of a human being.

     (iv) The layer of the eyeball that forms the transparent Cornea. 

     (v) The wax-like layer on the epidermis of leaves which reduces transpiration.

(b) Choose the correct answer from each of the four options given below: 

      (i) The number of Spinal nerves in a human being are: 

           A. 31 pairs 

           B. 10 pairs 

           C. 21 pairs 

           D. 30 pairs 

(ii) Which one of the following is non-biodegradable? 

        A. DDT 

        B. Vegetable peel 

        C. Cardboard 

        D. Bark of trees 

(iii) Aqueous humour is present between the: 

        A. Lens and Retina 

        B. Iris and Lens 

        C. Cornea and Iris  

       D. Cornea and Lens 

(iv) A strong chemical substance which is used on objects and surfaces in our  

       surroundings to kill germs: 

       A. Cresol 

       B. Carbolic acid 

       C. Iodine 

       D. Mercurochrome 

(v) Which one of the following is a Greenhouse gas? 

       A. Oxygen 

       B. Methane 

       C. Sulphur dioxide 

       D. Nitrogen 

(c) Complete the following paragraph by filling in the blanks (i) to (v) with appropriate words: 

To test a leaf for starch, the leaf is boiled in water to (i)__________. It is then  boiled in Methylated spirit to (ii)__________. The leaf is dipped in warm water to soften it. It is placed in a petri dish, and (iii)__________ solution is added. The region of the leaf which contains starch, turns (iv)__________ and the region which does not contain starch, turns (v)__________. 

(d) Match the items given in Column A with the most appropriate ones in Column B and rewrite the correct matching pairs          

Column A Column B

(i) Cretinism
(a) Hypersecretion of adrenal cortex
(ii) Diabetes insipidus (b) Hyposecretion of Thyroxine
(iii) Exophthalmic       Goitre © Hyposecretion of growth hormone
(iv) Adrenal virilism (d) Hyposecretion of Vasopressin
(v) Dwarfism (e) Hyposecretion of adrenal cortex
  (f) Hypersecretion of Growth hormone
  (g) Hypersecretion of Thyroxine

(e) Correct the following statements by changing the underlined words: 

     (i) Normal pale yellow colour of the urine is due to the presence of the pigment Melanin. 

    (ii) The outermost layer of Meninges is Pia mater. 

   (iii)The cell sap of root hair is Hypotonic. 

   (iv) Xylem transports starch from the leaves to all parts of the plant body. 

   (v) Nitrogen bonds are present between the complementary nitrogenous bases  of 

(f) Choose between the two options to answer the Q.specified in the brackets for the following:  

An example is illustrated below. 

Example: Corolla or Calyx (Which is the outer whorl?)    Answer: Calyx 

   (i) Blood in the renal artery or renal vein (Which one has more urea?) 

  (ii) Perilymph or endolymph (Which one surrounds the organ of Corti?) 

  (iii) Lenticels or stomata (Which one remains open always?) 

  (iv) Sclerotic layer or choroid layer (Which one forms the Iris?) 

  (v) Blood in the pulmonary artery or pulmonary vein (Which one contains less oxyhaemoglobin?) 

(g) Given below is a representation of a type of pollution.  

     Study the picture and answer the questions: 

    (i) Name the type of pollution shown in the picture. 

    (ii) Name one source of this pollution. 

   (iii) How does this pollution affect human health? 

   (iv) Write one measure to reduce this pollution. 

   (v) State one gaseous compound that leads to the depletion of the ozone layer and creates ‘Ozone holes’. 

(h) Choose the ODD one out from the following terms given and name the CATEGORY to which the others belong:  

Example: Nose, Tongue, Arm, Eye 

Answer: Odd Term – Arm, Category – Sense organs 

      (i) Detergents, X-rays, sewage, oil spills 

     (ii) Lumen, muscular tissue, connective tissue, pericardium 

    (iii) Dendrites, Medullary Sheath, Axon, Spinal cord 

    (iv) Centrosome, Cell wall, Cell membrane, Large vacuoles 

   (v) Prostate gland, Cowper’s gland, seminal vesicle, seminiferous tubules. 


Q.2 (a) The diagram given below represents a stage during cell division.  

Study the same and answer the questions that follow: 

       (i) Identify whether it is a plant cell or an animal cell.  

            Give a reason in support of your answer. 

      (ii) Name the stage depicted in the diagram.  

           What is the unique feature observed in this stage? 

     (iii) Name the type of cell division that occurs during:  

           1. Replacement of old leaves by new ones. 

           2. Formation of gametes. 

    (iv) What is the stage that comes before the stage shown in the diagram? 

    (v) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of the stage mentioned in (iv) above keeping the chromosome number constant. 

(b) Mention the exact location of the following:  

      (i) Epididymis 

     (ii) Lacrimal gland 

     (iii) Malleus 

     (iv) Hydathodes 

     (v) Pulmonary semilunar valve 


Q.3 (a) Given below are diagrams showing the different stages in the process of 

      fertilisation of an egg in the human female reproductive tract.  

      Study the diagrams and answer the questions: 

       A                    B                    C                        D

      (i) Arrange the letters given below each diagram in a logical sequence to show the correct order in the process of fertilisation. 

     (ii) Where does fertilisation normally take place? What is ‘Implantation’ that follows fertilisation? 

   (iii) Mention the chromosome number of the egg and zygote in humans. 

   (iv) Explain the term ‘Gestation’. How long does Gestation last in humans? 

   (v) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a mature human sperm. 

(b) A potted plant with variegated leaves was taken in order to prove a factor necessary for photosynthesis. The potted plant was kept in the dark for 24 hours  and then placed in bright sunlight for a few hours. Observe the diagrams and  answer the questions. 

      (i) What aspect of photosynthesis is being tested in the above diagram? 

     (ii) Represent the process of photosynthesis in the form of a balanced equation.  

     (iii) Why was the plant kept in the dark before beginning the experiment? 

     (iv) What will be the result of the starch test performed on leaf ‘A’ shown in the diagram? Give an example of a plant with variegated leaves. 

     (v) Draw a neat labelled diagram of a chloroplast. 


Q.4 (a) The diagram given below shows the internal structure of a spinal cord depicting a phenomenon. Study the diagram and answer the questions: 

       (i) Name the phenomenon that is depicted in the diagram. Define the phenomenon. 

      (ii) Give the technical term for the point of contact between the two nerve cells. 

     (iii) Name the parts numbered 1, 2 and 3. 

     (iv) How does the arrangement of neurons in the spinal cord differ from that of  the brain? 

     (v) Mention two ways by which the spinal cord is protected in our body. 

(b) Give appropriate biological or technical terms for the following:  

      (i) Process of maintaining water and salt balance in the blood. 

      (ii) Hormones which regulate the secretion of other endocrine glands. 

      (iii) Movement of molecules of a substance from their higher concentration to lower concentration when they are in direct contact. 

      (iv) The condition in which a pair of chromosomes carry similar alleles of a particular character. 

     (v) The complex consisting of a DNA strand and a core of histones. 

     (vi) The onset of menstruation in a young girl. 

     (vii)Squeezing out of white blood cells from the capillaries into the surrounding tissues. 

   (viii) The fluid which surrounds the foetus. 

    (ix) The relaxation phase of the heart. 

    (x) The difference between the birth rate and the death rate. 


Q.5 (a) The diagram given below is that of a structure present in a human kidney.  

      Study the same and answer the questions that follow: 

     (i) Name the structure represented in the diagram. 

     (ii) What is the liquid entering part ‘1’ called?  

          Name two substances present in this liquid that are reabsorbed in the tubule. 

    (iii) What is the fluid that comes to part ‘2’ called?  

           Name the main nitrogenous waste in it. 

   (iv) Mention the three main steps involved in the formation of the fluid mentioned in (iii) above.  

   (v) Name the substance which may be present in the fluid in part ‘2’ if a person suffers from Diabetes mellitus. 

(b) Differentiate between the following pairs on the basis of what is indicated in the  brackets.  

     (i) Leaf and Liver [form in which glucose is stored] 

    (ii) ATP and AIDS [expand the abbreviations] 

   (iii) Testosterone and Oestrogen [organ which secretes] 

   (iv) Ureter and Urethra [function] 

   (v) Hypotonic solution and Hypertonic solution [condition of a plant cell when placed in them] 


Q.6 (a) Given below is a diagram of a human blood smear.  

     Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow: 

     (i) Name the components numbered ‘1’ to ‘4’. 

    (ii) Mention two structural differences between the parts ‘1’ and ‘2’. 

    (iii) Name the soluble protein found in part ‘4’ which forms insoluble threads during clotting of blood. 

    (iv) What is the average lifespan of the component numbered ‘1’? 

    (v) Component numbered ‘1’ do not have certain organelles but are very efficient in their function. Explain. 

(b) Give biological explanations for the following: 

      (i) Education is very important for population control. 

      (ii) The placenta is an important structure for the development of a foetus. 

      (iii) All the food chains begin with green plants. 

      (iv) Plants growing in fertilized soil are often found to wilt if the soil is not adequately watered. 

     (v) We should not put sharp objects into our ears. 


Q.7 (a) The diagram below represents a process in plants.  

    The setup was placed in bright sunlight. Answer the following questions: 

  (i) Name the physiological process depicted in the diagram.  

       Why was oil added to the water? 

  (ii) When placed in bright sunlight for four hours, what do you observe with   

        regard to the initial and final weight of the plant?  

        Give a suitable reason for your answer. 

  (iii) What happens to the level of water when this setup is placed in: 

          1. Humid conditions? 

          2. Windy conditions? 

  (iv) Mention any three adaptations found in plants to overcome the process mentioned in (i). 

   (v) Explain the term ‘Guttation’. 

(b) A pea plant which is homozygous for Green pods which are inflated [GGII] is crossed with a homozygous plant for yellow pods which are constricted [ggii].  

     Answer the following questions:  

    (i) Give the phenotype and genotype of the F1 generation. Which type of pollination has occurred to produce F1 generation? 

   (ii) Write the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation. 

   (iii) Write the possible combinations of the gametes that can be obtained if two F1 hybrid plants are crossed. 

  (iv) State Mendel’s law of ‘Segregation of Gametes’. 

  (v) What is the scientific name of the plant which Mendel used for his experiments on inheritance? 



SCIENCE Paper – 2 


Q.1 (a) Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

  (i) The salt solution which does not react with ammonium hydroxide is: 

      A. Calcium Nitrate  

      B. Zinc Nitrate  

      C. Lead Nitrate  

      D. Copper Nitrate 

 (ii) The organic compound which undergoes substitution reaction is: 

      A. C2H2 

      B. C2H4 

      C. C10H18 

      D. C2H6 

 (iii) The electrolysis of acidified water is an example of: 

     A. Reduction 

     B. Oxidation 

     C. Redox reaction 

     D. Synthesis 

 (iv) The IUPAC name of dimethyl ether is: 

    A. Ethoxy methane 

    B. Methoxy methane 

    C. Methoxy ethane 

    D. Ethoxy ethane 

(v) The catalyst used in the Contact Process is: 

     A. Copper  

     B. Iron  

     C. Vanadium pentoxide  

     D. Manganese dioxide 

(b) Give one word or a phrase for the following statements: 

      (i) The energy released when an electron is added to a neutral gaseous  isolated atom to form a negatively charged ion. 

      (ii) Process of formation of ions from molecules which are not in ionic state.  

     (iii) The tendency of an element to form chains of identical atoms. 

  (iv) The property by which certain hydrated salts, when left exposed to atmosphere, lose their water of crystallization and crumble into powder.  

      (v) The process by which sulphide ore is concentrated. 

(c) Write a balanced chemical equation for each of the following: 

      (i) Action of concentrated sulphuric acid on carbon. 

     (ii) Reaction of sodium hydroxide solution with iron (III) chloride solution. 

     (iii) Action of heat on aluminum hydroxide. 

     (iv) Reaction of zinc with potassium hydroxide solution. 

     (v) Action of dilute hydrochloric acid on magnesium sulphite. 

(d) (i) Give the IUPAC name for each of the following: 

      (ii) Write the structural formula of the two isomers of butane.  

(e) State one relevant observation for each of the following: 

     (i) Lead nitrate solution is treated with sodium hydroxide solution drop wise till it is in excess. 

    (ii) At the anode, when molten lead bromide is electrolyzed using graphite electrodes. 

    (iii) Lead nitrate solution is mixed with dilute hydrochloric acid and heated. 

    (iv) Anhydrous calcium chloride is exposed to air for some time. 

    (v) Barium chloride solution is slowly added to sodium sulphate solution. 

(f) Give a reason for each of the following: 

    (i) Ionic compounds have a high melting point. 

    (ii) Inert gases do not form ions. 

    (iii) Ionisation potential increases across a period, from left to right. 

    (iv) Alkali metals are good reducing agents. 

    (v) Conductivity of dilute hydrochloric acid is greater than that of acetic acid. 

(g) Name the gas that is produced in each of the following cases: 

     (i) Sulphur is oxidized by concentrated nitric acid. 

    (ii) Action of dilute hydrochloric acid on sodium sulphide. 

    (iii) Action of cold and dilute nitric acid on copper. 

    (iv) At the anode during the electrolysis of acidified water. 

    (v) Reaction of ethanol and sodium. 

(h) Fill up the blanks with the correct choice given in brackets. 

   (i) Ionic or electrovalent compounds do not conduct electricity in their_____________ state. (fused / solid) 

  (ii) Electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride solution will form _______at the cathode. (hydrogen gas / sodium metal) 

  (iii) Dry hydrogen chloride gas can be collected by ___________displacement of air. (downward / upward) 

   (iv) The most common ore of iron is _____________. (calamine / haematite) 

    (v) The salt prepared by the method of direct combination is _____________. (iron (II) chloride / iron (III) chloride) 


Q.2 (a) (i) What do you understand by a lone pair of electrons? 

      (ii) Draw the electron dot diagram of Hydronium ion. (H=1; O=8) 

(b) In Period 3 of the Periodic Table, element B is placed to the left of element A. On the basis of this information, choose the correct word from the brackets to complete the following statements: 

   (i) The element B would have (lower / higher) metallic character than A. 

   (ii) The element A would probably have (lesser / higher) electron affinity than B. 

  (iii) The element A would have (greater / smaller) atomic size than B. 

(c) Copy and complete the following table which refers to the conversion of ions to neutral particles.  

Conversion  Ionic Equation Oxidation /  Reduction
Chloride ion to chlorine 
molecule Lead (II) ion to lead
(i) __________ 


Q.3 (a) (i) Write the balanced chemical equation to prepare ammonia gas in the laboratory by using an alkali. 

      (ii) State why concentrated sulphuric acid is not used for drying ammonia gas. 

      (iii) Why is ammonia gas not collected over water? 

(b) (i) Name the acid used for the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas in the laboratory. Why is this particular acid preferred to other acids? 

     (ii) Write the balanced chemical equation for the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride gas. 

(c) For the preparation of hydrochloric acid in the laboratory: 

     (i) Why is direct absorption of hydrogen chloride gas in water not feasible? 

     (ii) What arrangement is done to dissolve hydrogen chloride gas in water? 

(d) For the electro-refining of copper: 

    (i) What is the cathode made up of? 

   (ii) Write the reaction that takes place at the anode. 


Q.4 (a) The percentage composition of a gas is: Nitrogen 82.35%, Hydrogen 17.64%.  

      Find the empirical formula of the gas. [N = 14, H = 1] 

(b) Aluminum carbide reacts with water according to the following equation: 

                          Al4C3 + 12H2O –> 4Al (OH)3 + 3CH4 

  (i) What mass of aluminum hydroxide is formed from 12g of aluminum carbide? 

  (ii) What volume of methane at s.t.p. is obtained from 12g of aluminum carbide? 

          [Relative molecular weight of Al4C3 = 144; Al(OH)3 = 78] 

(c) (i) If 150 cc of gas A contains X molecules, how many molecules of gas B will be present in 75 cc of B?  

       The gases A and B are under the same conditions of temperature and  pressure. 

       (ii) Name the law on which the above problem is based.  

(d) Name the main component of the following alloys: 

      (i) Brass 

     (ii) Duralumin 


Q.5 (a) Complete the following table which relates to the homologous series of hydrocarbons. 

General  formula IUPAC name of the  homologous series Characteristic bond  type IUPAC name of the  first member of the  series
CnH2n – 2  (A) __________  (B)__________  (C)__________
CnH2n + 2  (D)__________  (E)__________  (F)__________

(b) (i) Name the most common ore of the metal aluminum from which the metal is extracted. Write the chemical formula of the ore. 

     (ii) Name the process by which impure ore of aluminum gets purified by  using concentrated solution of an alkali. 

    (iii) Write the equation for the formation of aluminum at the cathode during  the electrolysis of alumina. 


Q.6 (a) A compound X (having vinegar like smell) when treated with ethanol in the  presence of the acid Z, gives a compound Y which has a fruity smell.  

      The reaction is:  

     (i) Identify Y and Z. 

     (ii) Write the structural formula of X. 

     (iii) Name the above reaction. 

(b) Ethane burns in oxygen to form CO2 and H2O according to the equation: 

                      2C2H6 + 7O2 –> 4CO2 + 6H2O.  

      If 1250 cc of oxygen is burnt with 300 cc of ethane. 


       (i) the volume of CO2 formed. 

       (ii) the volume of unused O2. 

(c) Three solutions P, Q and R have pH value of 3.5, 5.2 and 12.2 respectively. 

      Which one of these is a: 

     (i) Weak acid? 

    (ii) Strong alkali? 


Q.7 (a) Give a chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of chemicals: 

     (i) Lead nitrate solution and Zinc nitrate solution 

     (ii) Sodium chloride solution and Sodium nitrate solution 

(b) Write a balanced equation for the preparation of each of the following salts: 

     (i) Copper sulfate from Copper carbonate. 

    (ii) Zinc carbonate from Zinc sulfate. 

(c) (i) What is the type of salt formed when the reactants are heated at a suitable temperature for the preparation of Nitric acid? 

     (ii) State why for the preparation of Nitric acid, the complete apparatus is made  up of glass. 

(d) Which property of sulfuric acid is shown by the reaction of concentrated sulfuric acid with:  

       (i) Ethanol? 

       (ii) Carbon? 



SCIENCE Paper – 1 


Q.1 (a) (i) State and define the S.I. unit of power.  

              (ii) How is the unit horse power related to the S.I. unit of power? 

(b) State the energy changes in the following cases while in use:  

     (i) An electric iron. 

    (ii) A ceiling fan. 

(c) The diagram below shows a lever in use:  

  (i) To which class of levers does it belong? 

  (ii) Without changing the dimensions of the lever, if the load is shifted towards  the fulcrum what happens to the mechanical advantage of the lever?  

(d) (i) Why is the ratio of the velocities of light of wavelengths 4000Å and in vacuum 1:1? 

      (ii) Which of the above wavelengths has a higher frequency?  

(e) (i) Why is the motion of a body moving with a constant speed around a circular path said to be accelerated? 

      (ii) Name the unit of physical quantity obtained by the formula  Where K: kinetic energy, V: Linear velocity. 


Q.2 (a) The power of a lens is –5D. 

     (i) Find its focal length. 

     (ii) Name the type of lens. 

(b) State the position of the object in front of a converging lens if: 

     (i) It produces a real and same size image of the object. 

    (ii) It is used as a magnifying lens. 

(c) (i) State the relation between the critical angle and the absolute refractive index of a medium. 

     (ii) Which colour of light has a higher critical angle? Red light or Green light. 

(d) (i) Define scattering.  

      (ii) The smoke from a fire looks white.  

           Which of the following statements is true? 

           1. Molecules of the smoke are bigger than the wavelength of light.  

           2. Molecules of the smoke are smaller than the wavelength of light.  

(e) The following diagram shows a 60o, 30o, 90oglass prism of critical angle  42o. Copy the diagram and complete the path of incident ray AB emerging out of the  prism marking the angle of incidence on each surface. 


Q.3 (a) Displacement distance graph of two sound waves A and B, travelling in a

     medium, are as shown in the diagram below.  

Study the two sound waves and compare their:  

   (i) Amplitudes  

  (ii) Wavelengths 

(b) You have three resistors of values 2Ω, 3Ω and 5Ω. How will you join them so that the total resistance is more than 7Ω?  

    (i) Draw a diagram for the arrangement. 

   (ii) Calculate the equivalent resistance. 

(c) (i) What do you understand by the term nuclear fusion? 

    (ii) Nuclear power plants use nuclear fission reaction to produce electricity. What is the advantage of producing electricity by fusion reaction? 

(d) (i) What do you understand by free vibrations of a body?  

      (ii) Why does the amplitude of a vibrating body continuously decrease during  damped vibrations? 

(e) (i) How is the e.m.f. across primary and secondary coils of a transformer related with the number of turns of coil in them?  

     (ii) On which type of current do transformers work? 


Q.4 (a) (i) How can a temperature in degree Celsius be converted into S.I. unit of temperature?  

     (ii) A liquid X has the maximum specific heat capacity and is used as a coolant in Car radiators. Name the liquid X. 

(b) A solid metal weighing 150 g melts at its melting point of 800 oC by providing heat at the rate of 100 W. The time taken for it to completely melt at the same  temperature is 4 min. What is the specific latent heat of fusion  of the metal? 

(c) Identify the following wires used in a household circuit:  

     (i) The wire is also called as the phase wire. 

     (ii) The wire is connected to the top terminal of a three pin socket. 

(d) (i) What are isobars?  

     (ii) Give one example of isobars. 

(e) State any two advantages of electromagnets over permanent magnets.



Q.5 (a) (i) Derive a relationship between S.I. and C.G.S. unit of work.  

     (ii) A force acts on a body and displaces it by a distance S in a direction at an  angle θ with the direction of force. What should be the value of θ to get the maximum positive work? 

(b) A half metre rod is pivoted at the centre with two weights of 20 gf and 12 gf suspended at a perpendicular distance of 6 cm and 10 cm from the pivot respectively as shown below. 

(i) Which of the two forces acting on the rigid rod causes clockwise moment?

(ii) Is the rod in equilibrium? 

(iii) The direction of 20 gf force is reversed. What is the magnitude of the resultant moment of the forces on the rod? 

(c) (i) Draw a diagram to show a block and tackle pulley system having a velocity  ratio of 3 marking the direction of load(L), effort(E) and tension(T).  

(ii) The pulley system drawn lifts a load of 150 N when an effort of 60 N is applied. Find its mechanical advantage.  

(iii) Is the above pulley system an ideal machine or not? 


Q.6 (a) A ray of light XY passes through a right angled isosceles prism as shown below. 

(i) What is the angle through which the incident ray deviates and emerges out of the prism?  

(ii) Name the instrument where this action of prism is put into use. 

(iii) Which prism surface will behave as a mirror? 

(b) An object AB is placed between O and F1 on the principal axis of a

     converging lens as shown in the diagram. 

       Copy the diagram and by using three standard rays starting from point A, obtain  an image of the object AB.  

(c) An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens of focal length  8 cm. Find:  

    (i) the position of the image  

   (ii) nature of the image 


Q.7 (a) Draw the diagram of a right angled isosceles prism which is used to make an inverted image erect. 


The diagram above shows a wire stretched over a sonometer. Stems of two  vibrating tuning forks A and B are touched to the wooden box of the sonometer. It is observed that the paper rider (a small piece of paper folded at the centre)  present on the wire flies off when the stem of vibrating tuning fork B is touched  to the wooden box but the paper just vibrates when the stem of vibrating tuning  fork A is touched to the wooden box.  

    (i) Name the phenomenon when the paper rider just vibrates.  

    (ii) Name the phenomenon when the paper rider flies off.  

    (iii) Why does the paper rider fly off when the stem of tuning fork B is touched  to the box? 

(c) A person is standing at the sea shore. An observer on the ship which is anchored in between a vertical cliff and the person on the shore, fires a gun. The person  on the shore hears two sounds, 2 seconds and 3 seconds after seeing the smoke  of the fired gun. If the speed of sound in the air is 320 ms-1then calculate: 

    (i) the distance between the observer on the ship and the person on the shore.  

    (ii) the distance between the cliff and the observer on the ship. 


Q.8 (a) (i) A fuse is rated 8A. Can it be used with an electrical appliance rated 5 KW, 200 V? Give a reason.  

     (ii) Name two safety devices which are connected to the live wire of a household electric circuit. 

(b) (i) Find the equivalent resistance between A and B. 

     (ii) State whether the resistivity of a wire changes with the change in the thickness of the wire. 

(c) An electric iron is rated 220V, 2kW.  

     (i) If the iron is used for 2h daily find the cost of running it for one week if it  costs ` 4.25 per kWh.  

    (ii) Why is the fuse absolutely necessary in a power circuit? 


Q.9  (a) (i) Heat supplied to a solid changes it into liquid. What is this change in phase  called?  

     (ii) During the phase change does the average kinetic energy of the molecules  of the substance increase?  

    (iii) What is the energy absorbed during the phase change called? 

(b) (i) State two differences between “Heat Capacity” and “Specific Heat Capacity”.  

     (ii) Give a mathematical relation between Heat Capacity and Specific Heat Capacity.  

(c) The temperature of 170g of water at 50°C is lowered to 5°C by adding certain amount of ice to it. Find the mass of ice added.  

    Given: Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg-1 ⁰C-1and Specific latent  heat of ice = 336000 J kg-1 


Q.10 (a) 

The diagram shows a coil wound around a U shape soft iron bar AB.

(i) What is the polarity induced at the ends A and B when the switch is pressed? 

(ii) Suggest one way to strengthen the magnetic field in the electromagnet. 

(iii) What will be the polarities at A & B if the direction of current is reversed in the circuit? 

(b) The ore of Uranium found in nature contains 92U238 and 92U235. Although both  the isotopes are fissionable, it is found out experimentally that one of the two  isotopes is more easily fissionable. 

      (i) Name the isotope of Uranium which is easily fissionable. 

      (ii) Give a reason for your answer. 

      (iii) Write a nuclear reaction when Uranium 238 emits an alpha particle to form  a Thorium (Th) nucleus.  

(c) Radiations given out from a source when subjected to an electric field in a direction perpendicular to their path are shown below in the diagram. The arrows show the path of the radiation A, B and C. Answer the followingquestions in terms of A, B and C. 

(i) Name the radiation B which is unaffected by the electrostatic field. 

(ii) Why does the radiation C deflect more than A? 

(iii) Which among the three causes the least biological damage externally?  

(iv) Name the radiation which is used in carbon dating.  



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