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CDS(II) Exam 2017 General Knowledge Previous Year Paper

CDS(I) Exam 2017 General Knowledge Previous Year Paper
July 3, 2019
CDS(I) Exam 2017 Elementary Mathematics Previous Year Paper
July 3, 2019

CDSE 2 2017 General Knowledge

Q. 1 Which tribal groups is dominantly found in the ‘Blue mountains’?

A. lambasdas

B. gonds

C. Jarawas

D. Todas

 

Q. 2 Which geographer relate to ‘primate city’ concept?

A. August Losch

B. Mark Jefferson

C. Griffith Taylor

D. W. Christaller

 

Q. 3 Which island is the largest?

A. Borneo

B. Madagascar

C. New Guinea

D. Sumatra

 

Q. 4 Arrange and select following Tiger Reserves of India from North to South:

1. Dudhwa

2. Panna

3.Pench

4.Indravati

A. 4, 3, 2, 1

B. 2, 1, 4, 3

C. 1, 2, 3, 4

D. 1, 3, 2, 4

 

Q. 5 Which proteins give lustrous shiny appearence to silk fibre?

A. fibrin

B. sericin

C. collagen

D. nectin

 

Q. 6 Blue Baby Syndrome is caused by the contamination of

A. nitrite (NO₂⁻)

B. sulphite ( SO₃²⁻)

C. nitrate(NO₃⁻)

D. sulphate(S0₄²⁻)

 

Q. 7 Match list I and list II and select correct code:

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 8 Human insulin molecule is composed of one chain having α-21 amino acids and one chain having β-30 amino acids. How many functional insulin genes occur in adult humans?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 9 Pearl is a hard object produced within the soft tissues of a mollusk. Which is main constituent of pearl?

A. calcium carbonate

B. calcium oxide

C. calcium nitrate

D. calcium sulphate

 

Q. 10 A biological community in its environment such as a pond, an ocean , a forest, even an aquarium is known as

A. biome

B. community

C. abiotic environment

D. ecosystem

 

Q. 11 An electron and a proton starting from rest are accelerated through a potential difference of 1000 V. Which one is correct statement?

A. The kinetic energy of both the particles will be different.

B. The speed of the electron will be higher than that of the proton.

C. The speed of the proton will be higher than that of the electron.

D. The speed of the electron and the proton will be equal.

 

Q. 12 Two wires are made having same length l and area of cross-section A. Wire 1 is made of copper and wire 2 is made of aluminium. It is given that the electrical conductivity of copper is more than that of aluminium. In this context, which is correct?

A. the resistance of wire 1 will be higher than that of wire 2.

B. the resistance of wire 2 will be higher than that of wire 1.

C. the resistance will be same for both wires.

D. if same current is flown through both the wires, the power dissipated will be same.

 

Q. 13 A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of 40° with respect to surface normal. When it gets reflected from the mirror, it undergoes a deviation of

A. 40°

B. 100°

C. 90°

D. 80°

 

Q. 14 Infrared, visible and ultraviolet radiations/light have different properties. Which statement is incorrect?

A. the wavelength of infrared is more than that of ultraviolet radiation.

B. The wavelength of ultraviolet is smaller than that of visible light.

C. the photon energy of visible light is more than that of infrared light.

D. the photon energy of ultraviolet is lesser than that of visible light.

 

Q. 15 After using for some time, big transformers get heated up. This is due to fact that: 

1. current produces heat in the transformers.

2. hysteresis loss occurs in the transformers.

3. liquid used for cooling gets heated.

A. 1

B. 2 , 3

C. 1, 2

D. 1, 2, 3

 

Q. 16 A person is standing on a frictionless horizontal ground. How can he move by a certain distance on this ground?

A. by sneezing

B. by jumping

C. by running

D. by rolling

 

Q. 17 In the reaction between hydrogen sulphate ion and water, water acts as

A. an acid

B. a base

C. a salt

D. an inert medium

 

Q. 18 How many hydrogen atoms are contained in 1.50g of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) ?

A. 3.01 X 10²²

B. 1.20 X 10²³

C. 2.40 X 10²³

D. 6.02 X 10²²

 

Q. 19 The paste of a white material in water is used to maintain a fractures bone fixed in place. The white material used is called

A. bleaching powder

B. plaster of paris

C. powder of zinc oxide

D. lime powder

 

Q. 20 Which glass is used for making optical instruments?

A. pyrex glass

B. soft glass

C. hard glass

D. flint glass

 

Q. 21 Most ozone gas ( about 90%) is located in the atmospheric layer of

A. ionosphere

B. troposhere

C. stratosphere

D. mesosphere

 

Q. 22 What are the main constituents of biogas?

A. methane, sulphur dioxide

B. methane , carbon dioxide

C. methane, hydrogen , nitric oxide

D. methane , nitric oxide

 

Q. 23 Which two Indian states of the four mentioned below, it is necessary to hold certain minimum educational qualifications to be eligible to contest Panchayat Elections?

1. Punjab

2. Haryana

3. Karnataka

4. Rajasthan

 

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 4

C. 2 and 3

D. 1 and 4

 

Q. 24 Which statements are true about delegation?

1. It is the abdication of responsibility.

2. It means conferring of specified authority by a lower authority to a higher one.

3. It is subject to supervision and review.

4. It is a method of dividing authority in the organization.

 

A. 3

B. 2, 4

C. 3, 4

D. 1, 2, 4

 

Q. 25 Which features were borrowed by the constitution of India from British Constitution?

1. Rule of Law

2. Law – making Procedure

3. Independence of Judiciary

4. Parliamentary System

 

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 , 3, 4

C. 1 and 4

D. 1 , 2, 4

 

Q. 26 Which Schedules of the Constitution of India has fixed the number of Members of Rajya Sabha to be elected from each state?

A. fifth schedule

B. third schedule

C. sixth schedule

D. fourth schedule

 

Q. 27 Which statements about various horticulture crop of India for year 2016-17 is not correct?

A. The area under horticulture crops has increased over precious year.

B. Fruit production during the current year is higher than the previous year.

C. Rate of increase in onion production is more than potato production in the current year in comparison to previous year.

D. The major tomato – growing states are Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Odisha and Gujarat.

 

Q. 28 The phenomenon of demographic dividend of a country relates to

A. a sharp decline in the total population

B. an increase in working age population

C. a decline in infant mortality rate

D. an increase in sex ratio

 

Q. 29 Arrange events in sequential order as they happened in India:

1. Mahalanobis Model

2.Plan Holiday

3. Rolling Plan

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 3, 2, 1

C. 2, 3, 1

D. 1,3, 2

 

Q. 30 The monetary policy in India uses which of the tools?

A. Bank rate

B. open market operations

C. public debt

D. public revenue

 

Q. 31 Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial if prices of

A. domestic good remain constant

B. exports become cheaper to importers

C. imports remain constant

D. exports rise proportionately

 

Q. 32 Examine the two statements and select correct code for answer.

Code:

A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is correct explanation of Statement I.

B. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not correct explanation of Statement I.

C. Statement I is true but statement II is false.

D. Statement I is false but statement II is true.

Statement I : Skin cancer is generally caused by the ultraviolet radiation.

Statement II: Stratosphere allows ultraviolet radiation to enter the earth from the sun.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 33 Examine the two statements and select correct code for answer.

Code:

A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is correct explanation of Statement I.

B. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not correct explanation of Statement I.

C. Statement I is true but statement II is false.

D. Statement I is false but statement II is true.

STATEMENT I: The interior part of Maharashtra does not receive adequate rain in the summer season.

STATEMENT II : The interior part of Maharashtra lies in the rain shadow of the Western Ghat.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 34 Examine the two statements and select correct code for answer.

Code:

A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is correct explanation of Statement I.

B. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not correct explanation of Statement I.

C. Statement I is true but statement II is false.

D. Statement I is false but statement II is true.

STATEMENT I : Global warming signifies the rise in global surface temperature.

STATEMENT II: The increase of concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere causes the rise in global surface temperature.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 35 Examine the two statements and select correct code for answer.

Code:

A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is correct explanation of Statement I.

B. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not correct explanation of Statement I.

C. Statement I is true but statement II is false.

D. Statement I is false but statement II is true.

STATEMENT I: The communists left the All India Trade Union Congress in 1931.

STATEMENT II: By 1928, the communists were no longer working with the mainstream national movement.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 36 Examine the two statements and select correct code for answer.

Code:

A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is correct explanation of Statement I.

B. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not correct explanation of Statement I.

C. Statement I is true but statement II is false.

D. Statement I is false but statement II is true.

STATEMENT I: The early Aryans, who were essentially pastoral, did not develop any political structure which could measure up to a state in either ancient or modern sense.

STATEMENT II: Kingship was the same as tribal chiefship; the term Rajan being used for tribal chief who was primarily a military leader and who ruled over his people and not over any specified area.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 37 Which peasant struggle was an outcome of British opium policy?

A. Phulaguri Dhawa ( 1861)

B. Birsaite Ulgulan ( 1899 – 1900)

C. Pabna Revolt ( 1873)

D. Maratha Peasant Uprising (1875)

 

Q. 38 Which statement about Sayyid brothers during period of Later Mughals is not true?

A. They brought Jahandar Shah to power.

B. They wielded administrative power.

C. They followed a tolerant religious policy.

D. They reached an agreement with King Shahu.

 

Q. 39 Which statements are correct with regard to the heterdix sect between sixth and fourth century BC?

1. The Jain ideas were already being circulated in the seventh century BC by Parshva.

2. Although Buddhism, and to a lesser extent Jainism, took account of the changes in material life and reacted against orthodoxy, neither of these sought to abolish the caste system.

3. The first female disciple of Mahavira is said to have been a captures slave woman.

4. Buddha held that nuns could attain spiritual liberation just like a monk and granted them an equal status in the mendicant order.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4

B. 1, 2, 3

C. 1, ,2 ,4

D. 3, 4

 

Q. 40 Which combinations of year and event concerning the French Revolution is correct? 

A. 1789 : Napoleonic Code

B. 1791 : Tennis Court Oath

C. 1792 : National Convention

D. 1804 : New Constitution of France

 

Q. 41 Who among is the author of the book ‘The Social Contract’?

A. Voltaire

B. Hobbes

C. Locke

D. Rousseau

 

Q. 42 Who is the recipient of Jnanpith Award, 2016 ?

A. Shankha Ghosh

B. Raghuveer Chaudhari

C. Pratibha Ray

D. Rehman Rahi

 

Q. 43 The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which are adopted by the UNO in place of the Millenium Development Goals (MDGs), 2015 aim to achieve the 17 goals by the year

A. 2020

B. 2030

C. 2040

D. 2050

 

Q. 44 Teejan Bai, a recipient of the M.S. Subbulakshmi Centenary Award ,2016 is an exponent of 

A. Kannada classical vocal

B. Kajari dance

C. Bihu dance

D. Pandvani, a traditional performing art

 

Q. 45 Who is recipient of Dadasaheb Phalke Award, 2016?

A. Nana Patekar

B. Manoj Kumar

C. Javed Akhtar

D. K. Viswanath

 

Q. 46 The Nobel Prize in Physics for the year 2016 was given to

A. David J. Thouless

B. F. Duncan M. Haldane

C. J. Michael Kosterlitz

D. All of them

 

Q. 47 Which political parties was launched by Irom Sharmila in Manipur?

A. People’s Resurgence and Justice Alliance

B. Manipur Resistance Alliance

C. Tribal Resistance Party

D. Revolutionary People’s Party

 

Q. 48 Which planet was explored by Cassini Mission launched by NASA, which ended in September 2017?

A. SUN

B. NEPTUNE

C. SATURN

D. JUPITER

 

Q. 49 Match list I with list II and select correct code

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 50 Match list I with list II and select the code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 51 Match list I with list II and select the code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 52 Match list I with list II and select the code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 53 One carbon credit is accepted as equivalent to

A. 100 kg of carbon

B. 100 kg of carbon dioxide

C. 1000 kg of carbon

D. 1000 kg of carbon dioxide

 

Q. 54 An emulsion consists of

A. one liquid and one solid

B. one liquid and one gas

C. two liquids

D. two solids

 

Q. 55 Which radioactive substances enter the human body through food chain and cause many physiological disorders?

A. strontium – 90

B. iodine – 131

C. cesium – 137

D. all of above

 

Q. 56 ‘ Xeriscaping’ is a concept related to

A. landscaping related to save water

B. landscaping related to save soil erosion

C. weathering of rock surface

D. all

 

Q. 57 Joule – Thomson is extremely useful and economical for attaining low temperature. The process can be categorized as

A. isobaric process

B. isenthalpic process

C. adiabatic process

D. isochoric process

 

Q. 58 Ultrasonic waves are produced by making use of

A. ferromagnetic material

B. ferrimagnetic material

C. piezoelectric material

D. pyroelectric material

 

Q. 59 A person throws an object on a horizontal frictionless plane surface. It is noticed that there are two forces acting on this object –

1. gravitational pull and

2. normal reaction of the surface .

According to the third law of motion, the net resultant force is zero. Which can be said for the motion of the object?

A. the object will move with acceleration

B. the object will move with deceleration.

C. the object will move with constant speed, but varying direction.

D. the object will move with constant velocity

 

Q. 60 Select correct statements about principal of a nuclear reactor and a nuclear bomb.

1. The chain reaction process is used in nuclear bombs to release a vast amount of energy, but in nuclear reactors, there is no chain reaction.

2. In a nuclear reactor, the reaction is controlled, while in nuclear bombs, the reaction is uncontrolled.

3. In a nuclear reactor, all operating reactors are ‘critical’ while there is no question of critically in case of a nuclear bomb.

4.Nuclear reactors do not use moderators, while nuclear bombs use them.

A. 1 , 3

B. 2, 3

C. 4

D. 1, 4

 

Q. 61 The foul smell of a urine of a healthy man having healthy food, when spilled on floor, is mainly due to bacterial decomposition of

A. urea into sulphur dioxide

B. sugar into carbon dioxide

C. lipids into methane

D. urea into ammonia

 

Q. 62 Desalination of seawater is done by using reverse osmosis. The pressure applied to the solution is

A. larger than osmotic pressure

B. smaller than osmotic pressure

C. equal to osmotic pressure

D. equal to atmospheric pressure

 

Q. 63 Which polymers does not contain glucose units?

A. glycogen

B. starch

C. cellulose

D. rubber

 

Q. 64 Tincture of iodine is an antiseptic for fresh wounds. It is a dilute solution of elemental iodine, which does not contain

A. water

B. acetone

C. alcohol

D. potassium iodine

 

Q. 65 The Fundamental Rights guaranteed in the Constitution of India can be suspended only by 

A. a proclamation of National Emergency

B. an Act passed by the Parliament

C. an amendment to the Constitution of India

D. the judicial decisions of Supreme Court

 

Q. 66 Which statements are correct about 73th and 74th Constitution Amendment Act?

1. It makes it mandatory for all States to establish a three – tier system of Government.

2. Representatives should be directly elected for five years.

3. There should be mandatory reservation of one third of all seats in all Panchayats at all levels for women.

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1, 2, 3

D. 3

 

Q. 67 A Joint Sitting of the Parliament is reported to, for resolving the deadlock between two Houses of the Parliament for passing which of the Bills?

1. Money Bill

2. Constitutional Amendment Bill

3. Ordinary Bill

A. 1

B. 2 , 3

C. 3

D. 1, 2, 3

 

Q. 68 Which statements is/are correct?

1. The Directive Principles of State Policy are meant for promoting social and economic democracy in India.

2. The Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution of India are ordinarily subject to reasonable restrictions.

3. Secularism is one of the basic features of Constitution of any country.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 1 , 2

D. 1, 2, 3

 

Q. 69 The President of India is elected by an Electoral College comprising of elected members of which of following?

1. Both the Houses of the Parliament.

2. The Legislative Assemblies of States

3. The Legislative Councils of States

4. The Legislative Assemblies of NCT of Delhi and Puducherry

 

A. 1, 2

B. 1, 2,3

C. 1, 2, 4

D. 3, 4

 

Q. 70 Which statement are correct about the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes under the provisions of the Constitution of India:

1. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the Government educational institutions.

2. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational aided by the State.

3. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational not aided by the State.

4. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the minority educational institutions as described in Article 30.

 

A. 1 , 2

B. 3, 4

C. 1, 2, 3

D. 1, 2, 3, 4

 

Q. 71 Article 21 of the Constitution of India includes

1. Right of transgenders

2. Rights of craniopagus twins

3. Rights of mentally retarded women to bear a child

 

A. 1

B. 1, 2

C. 2, 3

D. 1, 2, 3

 

Q. 72 Who among was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

A. N. G. Ayyangar

B. K. M. Munshi

C. B. N. Rau

D. Muhammad Saadullah

 

Q. 73 Due to which following factors, the Industrial Revolution took place in England in the 18th century?

1. The discovery of coal and iron deposits.

2. The discovery of steam power.

3. The introduction of railways.

4. The regular supply of raw materials.

 

A. 1, 2 

B. 2, 3, 4

C. 1, 3

D. 1, 2,3 , 4

 

Q. 74 Which indicators have been used by the World Economic Forum to calculate Global Competitiveness Index for 2016 -17?

1. Efficiency enhancer subindex

2. Innovation and sophistication factors subindex

3. Life expectancy enhancer subindex

 

A. 1, 2

B. 2, 3

C. 1, 3

D. 1, 2, 3

 

Q. 75 In India, the base year of the new GDP series has been shifted from 2004 – 05 to

A. 2007 -08

B. 2008 -09

C. 2010 -11

D. 2011 -12

 

Q. 76 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 77 Which chronological order is correct ?

1. Tughlaqabad Fort

2. Bada Gumbad in Lodhi Garden

3. Qutub Minar

4. Fatehpur Sikri

 

A. 3, 1, 4, 2

B. 3, 1, 2, 4

C. 1, 3, 2, 4

D. 1, 3, 4, 2

 

Q. 78 With regard to nature of Mughal State, who among scholars that ‘ the peculiar feature of the State in Mughal India was that it served not merely as the protective arm of the exploiting classes, but was itself the principal instrument of exploitation’?

A. Irfan Habib

B. Satish Chandra

C. Athar Ali

D. J . F. Richards

 

Q. 79 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 80 Who was editor of the journal Indian Social Reformer that was started in 1890?

A. K. T. Telang

B. Veeresalingam

C. N. G. Chandavarkar

D. K. N. Natarajan

 

Q. 81 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 82 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 83 Which statements are correct with respect to the Indian Peninsular Plateau?

1. The Deccan Plateau gradually rises from North to South.

2. The Malwa Plateau dominates the Vindhyan scarps, forming the Eastern flank of the plateau.

3. The Western Satpuras separate the Narmada and Tapi rivers.

4. The Chota Nagpur Plateau is composed of Archaeon granite and gneiss rocks.

 

A. 1, 2, 3, 4

B. 1, 3, 4

C. 2, 4

D. 1, 3

 

Q. 84 Which criteria got the highest weight for determination of shares of States in the formula given by the 14th Finance Commission?

A. population

B. income distance

C. area

D. Tax effort

 

Q. 85 A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be held up by the Rajya Sabha for how many weeks?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

 

Q. 86 Constitutional safeguards available to Civil Servants are ensured by

A. Article 310

B. Article 311

C. Article 312

D. Article 317

 

Q. 87 A writ issued to secure the release of a person found to be detained illegally is

A. Mandamus

B. Habeas corpus

C. Certiorari

D. Prohibition

 

Q. 88 Which cannot be introduced first in Rajya Sabha?

A. constitutional Amendment

B. CAG Report

C. Annual Financial Statement

D. Bill to alter the boundaries of any State

 

Q. 89 The National Commision for Women was created by

A. an amendment in the Constitution of India

B. a decision of the Union Cabinet

C. an Act passed by the Parliament

D. an order of President of India

 

Q. 90 Who was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation ( PIL) was introduced in the Indian Judicial System?

A. M. Hidayatullah

B. A. S. Anand

C. A. M. Ahmadi

D. P. N. Bhagwati

 

Q. 91 Which 12th century Sanskrit scholar was responsible for the compilation of ‘Nibandhas’ or digests of epic and Puranic texts?

A. Harsha

B. Govinda Chandra

C. Lakshmidhara

D. Kalidasa

 

Q. 92 Which scholar argued that ‘capital created underdevelopment not because it exploited the underdeveloped world, but because it did not exploit it enough’?

A. Bill Warren

B. Paul Baran

C. Geoffrey Kay

D. Lenin

 

Q. 93 Which river is praised in 5ht century Tamil epic, Silappadikaram?

A. Cauvery

B. Godavari

C. Saraswati

D. GANGES

 

Q. 94 Which statements about Harappan Culture is not correct?

A. it witnessed the first cities in the subcontinent.

B. it marks the first use of script, written from right to left.

C. it marks the earliest known use of iron as a medium for the art of sculpting.

D. it marks the earliest known use of stone as a medium for the art of sculpting.

 

Q. 95 Harshacharita has references to various presents sent by a ruler named Bhaskara to Harshavardhana. Bhaskara belonged to

A. Haryanka Dynasty of Magadha

B. Varman Dynasty of Assam

C. Nanda Dynasty of North India

D. None of above

 

Q. 96 Which lake are situated in Ladakh?

1. Tso Kar

2. Pangong Tso

3. Tsomgo

4. Tso Moriri

 

A. 1

B. 2, 3

C. 1, 2, 4

D. 2, 4

 

Q. 97 ‘ Tuvala’ has become a point of discussion recently. Why?

A. potato plant that could grow in high altitude

B. place in equatorial Africa, where snow is found.

C. New innovative technology to meet global warming.

D. A country under threat of submergence due to ice melting and sea level rise.

 

Q. 98 Which statements related to latitude are true?

1. Rainfall , temperature and vegetation vary with latitude.

2. The difference between the longest day and shortest day increases with latitude.

3. Indira Point is located approximately at 6° 45′ N latitude.

 

A. 1,2

B. 1, 3

C. 2, 3

D. 1, 2, 3

 

Q. 99 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 100 Which statements are correct?

1.Himalayan rivers have their origin in the snow covered areas, hence are dry in winter season.

2. Rivers of the Peninsular Plateau have reached maturity.

3. Himalayan rivers depict all the three stages of normal cycle of erosion.

A. 2

B. 1, 3

C. 2, 3

D. 1, 2,3

 

Q. 101 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 102 Which statements regarding Uniform Civil Code as provided under Article 44 of the Constitution Of India is not correct?

A. it is a Fundamental Right of every Indian Citizen.

B. The State shall endeavour to secure it for citizens throughout the territory of India.

C. it is not enforceable by any court

D. it is not enforceable by a court yet the Constitution requires that as a principle it should be fundamental in the governance of our country.

 

Q. 103 Which was founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy?

1. Atmiya Sabha

2. Brahmo Samaj

3. Prarthana Samaj

4. Arya Samaj

 

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 2

C. 1, 2

D. 1, 3. 4

 

Q. 104 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 105 Which statements about the Gupta period in Indian History is not correct?

A. Sanskrit language and literature, after centuries of evolution, reached what has been described as a level of classical excellence through royal patronage.

B. The status of women was redefined. They were entitled to formal education and hence there were women teachers, philosophers and doctors. Early marriage was prohibited by law and they were given the right to property.

C. Decentralization of administrative authority was impacted by increased grants of land and villages with fiscal and administrative immunities to priests and temples.

D. Land grants paved the way for feudal developments and emergence of serfdom in India, resulting in the depression of the peasantry.

 

Q. 106 Which statements about All India Services is correct?

A. The All India Services may be created by an Act of Parliament.

B. The endorsement of the Rajya Sabha is not essential for the creation of the All India Services.

C. The rules of recruitment to be the All India Services are determined by the UPSC.

D. The conditioned of service to the All India Services may be altered by the UPSC.

 

Q. 107 Which statement about emergency provisions under the Constitution of India is not correct?

A. The powers of the union executive extend to giving directions to the States concerning the exercise of their powers.

B. The Union Executive can issue a provision relating to reduction of salaries of employees of the State Governments.

C. Governors have no emergency powers like the President of India

D. If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he ay declare financial emergency in the State.

 

Q. 108 The National Handloom Day is observed on

A. 7 June

B. 17 July

C. 7 August

D. 17 September

 

Q. 109 Venus, the first environmental research satellite, was launched in August 2017 by which country?

A. India

B. Russia

C. China

D. Israel

 

Q. 110 Which was the theme of the World Environment Day, 2017?

A. Green Economy : Doe it include you ?

B. Connecting People to Nature

C. Think, Eat, Save

D. Many Species, one planet, one future

 

Q. 111 The all – women expedition of Indian Navy to circumnavigate the globe on the sailing vessel, INSV Tarini, is scheduled to have four stopovers. Which is not one of them?

A. Fremantle

B. Lyttelton

C. Port Stanley

D. Durban

 

Q. 112 Why was constitutional amendment needed for introducing GST?

A. States were not willing to agree with the Union for introduction of GST without amendment in the Constitution.

B. GST was to be implemented on concurrent base and Article 240 was inadequate for such a case.

C. The Empowered Committee of Finance Ministers had recommended for constitutional amendment.

D. The GST Council had recommended for constitutional amendment so that its power enhances.

 

Q. 113 Where is world’s first Partition Museum inaugurated recently?

A. New Delhi

B. Lahore

C. Amritsar

D. Islamabad

 

Q. 114 The Setu Bharatam Programme of the Government of India is a programme for 

A. building bridges across major rivers for transport of goods

B. building bridges for safe and seamless travel on national highways

C. building roads to connect coastal areas

D. training of highway engineers at the entry level and service level

 

Q. 115 Which statement is not correct about the Global Environment Facility Grant Agreement, signed by India in August 2017 with the World Bank for ‘Ecosystems Service Improvement Project’ ?

A. The size of the project is about USD 25million.

B. The duration of the project is 15 years.

C. The project will entirely be financed by the World Bank out of its GEF Trust Fund.

D. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change will implement the Project.

 

Q. 116 UBI, as an alternative for subsidies in poverty alleviation stands for

A. union basic income

B. undefined basic income

C. unconditional basic income

D. universal basic income

 

Q. 117 Which authorities has recently launched the mobile apps ‘MyFASTag’ and ‘FASTag Partener’ ?

A. Telecom Regulatory Authority

B. National Highways Authority

C. Airports Economic Regulatory Authority

D. National Disaster Management Authority

 

Q. 118 ‘ Pragati’ scholarship scheme of Government of India is meant for

A. higher education of girls

B. technical education of girls

C. secondary education of girls

D. elementary education of girls

 

Q. 119 Which is not a feature of the Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana ( SAGY) ?

A. it focuses on community participation.

B. it is to be guided by a member of the Parliament

C. it aims at creating infrastructure for the village

D. a village development plan would be prepared for every identified Gram Panchayat.

 

Q. 120 Which is not included in the National Air Quality Index?

A. sulphur

B. nitrogen dioxide

C. lead

D. methane

 

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer D B C C B C C B A D
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer B B B D C A B D B D
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer C B B C D D C B A A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B C A A A A A A A C
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer D A B D D D A C A C
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer B D D C D A B C D B
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer D A D B A B C C C C
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer D C D A D A B A D D
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C C B B A B B C C D
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer C C A C B C D D A C
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer D A C C B A D C D B
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer D B C B B D B B C D

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