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CLAT 2009 Previous Year Paper
June 18, 2019
CLAT 2011 Previous Year Paper
June 18, 2019

CLAT 2010

Question: 1 – 3

Directions (Q 1 – 3) : Substitute the quoted phrases with any of the given choices to express the opposite meaning in the given sentences.


Q. 1 She always “praises” everything I say.

A. Picks holes in

B. Dislikes

C. Rebukes

D. Picks holes to


Q. 2 He often “says how wonderful” his school is?

A. Says he is unworthy

B. Appreciates

C. Runs up

D. Runs down


Q. 3 She said I was the best boss they’d ever had. It was obvious she was “praising me sincerely”.

A. Not appreciating me

B. Befooling me

C. Buttering me up

D. Disliking me


Questions: 4 – 6

Directions (Q 4-6) :

Identify the part of speech of the quoted words in the given sentences.


Q. 4 I must “perfect” the operation to make the perfect robot.

A. Verb

B. Adverb

C. Adjective

D. Noun


Q. 5 A kindly person is one who behaves “kindly”.

A. Noun

B. Preposition

C. Adverb

D. Verb


Q. 6 He is not normally a “very” fast runner, but he runs fast in major events.

A. Adverb

B. Adjective

C. Verb

D. Noun


Questions: 7 – 16

Directions (Q 7-16) :

Read the following passage carefully and answer the following.

Antigone was one of the daughters of Oedipus, that tragic figure of male power who had been cursed by Gods for mistakenly his father and subsequently marrying his mother and assuming the throne of Thebes. After the death of Oedipus, civil war broke out and a battle was waged in front of the seventh gate of Thebes – his two sons led opposing factions and at the height of the battle fought and killed each other. Oedipus’ brother Creon, uncle of Antigone, was now undisputed master of the city. Creon resolved to make an example of the brother who had fought against him, Polynices, by refusing the right of honourable burial. The penalty of death was promulgated against any who would defy this order. Antigone was distraught. Polynices had been left unburied, unwept, a feast of flesh for keen eyed carrion birds. Antigone asks her sister Ismene, for it was a challenge to her royal blood. “Now it is time to show whether or not you are worthy of your royal blood. Is he not my brother and yours? Whether you like it or not? I shall never desert him – never!” But Ismene responds, “How could you dare – when Creon has expressly forbidden it? Antigone, we are women, it is not for us to fight against men.” With a touch of bitterness, Antigone releases her sister from the obligation to help her, but argues she cannot shrug off the burden. “If I die for it, what happiness! Live, if you will live, and defy the holiest of laws of heaven.”


Q. 7 What is the main theme of the story of Antigone?

A. One must be truthful and honest

B. There is a conflict between the laws of men and heavenly laws

C. One must be true to one’s kins

D. War is an evil


Q. 8 Why did Antigone decide to defy the orders of Creon?

A. She loved her brother

B. She was to give an honourable burial to her brother

C. She felt she was bound by her heavenly obligation

D. To teach Creon a lesson


Q. 9 What, in your opinion, would have been the logical end of the story?

A. Antigone might have agreed with her sister and refrained from giving a burial to Polynices

B. Antigone might have been allowed by Creon to give a decent burial to her brother

C. Antigone might have defied the order of Creon but forgiven by him

D. Antigone might have been executed for defying the order of the king


Q. 10 What was the status of women in the contemporary society? They

A. Were liberated

B. Could have taken their own decisions

C. Considered themselves inferior and subordinate to men

D. Claimed equality with men


Q. 11 Why did a civil war break out in Thebes? The war broke out because

A. Of the curse of the Gods

B. The brothers of Antigone were greedy

C. There was a fight among sons of Oedipus for the inheritance of the kingdom

D. There was a conflict between a son of Oedipus and Creon


Q. 12 A carrion bird is a bird

A. Of prey

B. Which eats human flesh

C. Which eats dead bodies

D. Which eats only grain


Q. 13 Why did Creon deny decent burial to Polynices? He did so because

A. He did not love Polynices

B. Polynices fought against Creon

C. Polynices was disobedient to Creon

D. Polynices did not show bravery


Q. 14 Why did Ismene not support Antigone? Ismene

A. Was weak and did not have the courage to defy orders of the powerful king

B. Did not consider it right to defy the king

C. Did not think it fit to defy her uncle especially after the death of her father

D. Did not believe that Polynices deserved better treatment


Q. 15 Why did the Gods curse Oedipus? Because Oedipus

A. Killed his father and married his mother

B. Killed his father

C. Married his mother

D. Committed an unknown sin


Q. 16 Does the story approve the principle of vicarious liability? If so how?

A. No, it does not

B. Yes, it does, because of the acts of Oedipus his children suffered

C. Yes, it does because his father was killed by Oedipus

D. Yes, it does, because he married his mother


Questions: 17 – 22

Directions (Q 17-22) :

Select the meaning of the quoted idioms and phrases in sentences in questions given below.


Q. 17 I have “hit upon” a good plan to get rid of him.

A. Found

B. Chanced upon

C. Decided to beat him

D. Borrowed


Q. 18 He is “sticking out for” better terms.

A. Threatens to take action

B. Insists on using the force

C. Decides to give concessions

D. Persists in demanding


Q. 19 He “broke off” in the middle of the story.

A. Failed

B. Began crying

C. Stopped suddenly

D. Felt uneasy


Q. 20 He refused to be “led by the nose.”

A. To follow like an animal

B. To be treated as a fool

C. To follow submissively

D. To be treated violently


Q. 21 The new cotton mill is mortgaged “up to the eye.”

A. Apparently

B. Completely

C. Deceptively

D. Actually


Q. 22 When they embraced a new religion, it is safe to say they did it for “loaves and fishes.”

A. Selflessly

B. Honest reasons

C. Material benefits

D. Because of fear


Questions: 23 – 27

Directions (Q 23-27) :

Choose the correct spelling for each of the words form the choices given below.


Q. 23 Which of the following is the correct spelling for the word?

A. Misogynists

B. Mysogynists

C. Mysoginists

D. Mysagynists


Q. 24 Which of the following is the correct spelling for the word?

A. Arachnophobia

B. Aranchophobia

C. Arochnophobia

D. Aranchnophobia


Q. 25 Which of the following is the correct spelling for the word?

A. Cinamon

B. Cinnamon

C. Cinnaman

D. Cinaman


Q. 26 Which of the following is the correct spelling for the word?

A. Alcohol

B. Alchohol

C. Alchohal

D. Alchohel


Q. 27 Which of the following is the correct spelling for the word?

A. Bioclymatalogy

B. Bioclimatalogy

C. Bioclimatology

D. Biclimatelogy


Questions: 28 – 32

Directions (Q 28-32) :

Select the correct meaning of the words from the choices given below.


Q. 28 The word is – Lexicon

A. Number

B. Legal document

C. Dictionary

D. Captain’s dog


Q. 29 The word is – Hex

A. Crude person

B. Herb

C. Parrot

D. Evil spell


Q. 30 The word is – Seminary

A. Chapel

B. College

C. Convocation hall

D. Hostel


Q. 31 The word is – Liturgy

A. Prayer

B. Priest

C. Ritual

D. Church


Q. 32 The word is – Laity

A. Church members not baptized

B. Church members baptized

C. Priests

D. Church members who are not ordained priests


Questions: 33 – 37

Directions (Q 33-37) :

Fill in the blanks in the questions given below.


Q. 33 Slavery was not done away _______ until the last century.

A. With

B. For

C. To

D. Off


Q. 34 Does he not take _______his father?

A. Before

B. For

C. After

D. Like


Q. 35 We will have to take _______more staff if we are to take on more work.

A. Up

B. Onto

C. Into

D. On


Q. 36 Mother takes everything in her ______.

A. Steps

B. Face

C. Stride

D. Work


Q. 37 Sale have really taken _______ now.

A. Up

B. On

C. Of

D. Off


Questions: 38 – 40

Directions (Q 38-40) :

The constituent phrases of a sentence are jumbled up in question numbers 38- 40. Select the most appropriate sequence to make the sentence meaningful.


Q. 38 (i) built on the site of a church destroyed

(ii) in the hilly area of the city is the famous Shandon Steeple

(iii) the bell tower of St. Anne’s Church

(iv) when the city was besieged by the Duke of Marlborough

A. ii, iii, i, iv

B. ii, i, iii, iv

C. iv, iii, i, ii

D. iii, ii, i, iv

Q. 39 (i) no law giving effect to the policy of the state towards securing all or any of the principles laid in part IV

(ii) not withstanding anything contained in Article 13

(iii) and no law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be

called in question in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such policy

(iv) shall be deemed to be void on the ground that it is inconsistent with or takes away or abridges any of the rights conferred by Article 14 or 19

A. ii, i, iii, iv

B. iv, i, ii, iii

C. ii, i, iv, iii

D. i, ii, iii, iv


Q. 40 (i) neither House shall proceed further with the Bill,

(ii) if he does so, the Houses shall meet accordingly

(iii) but the President may at any time after the date of his notification summon the Houses to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose specified in the notification and,

(iv) where the President has under clause (1) notified his intention of summning the Houses to meet in a joint sitting.

A. iv, i, iii, ii

B. iv, i, ii, iii

C. iv, ii, iii, i

D. i, ii, iii, iv


Q. 41 Lumbini is the place where the Buddha

A. Attained nirvana

B. Attained enlightenment

C. Was born

D. Was married


Q. 42 Galvanometer is an instrument to measure

A. Relative density of liquids

B. Electric currents

C. Pressure of gases

D. Distances


Q. 43 Who wrote ‘Mudra Rakshasa’?

A. Vishakadatta

B. Bana Bhatt

C. Kalidasa

D. Jaya Dev


Q. 44 The venue of Asian Games in 1970 was

A. Beijing

B. Jakarta

C. Bangkok

D. New Delhi


Q. 45 1929 is known for

A. Visit of Simon Commission to India

B. Congress resolution for complete independence of India

C. Coming of India National Congress under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi

D. Burma was made a part of India


Q. 46 INS Airavat is India’s

A. Amphibious ship

B. Submarine

C. Destroyer

D. Frigate


Q. 47 Astra-Missile is

A. Surface to surface missile

B. Surface to air missile

C. Air to surface missile

D. Air to air missile


Q. 48 Nehru Institute of Mountaineering is situated at

A. Nainital

B. Darjeeling

C. Shimla

D. Uttarakshi


Q. 49 The chief guest on the 60th Republic day of India was the President of

A. Uzbekistan

B. Tajikistan

C. Kazakhstan

D. South Africa


Q. 50 Which of the following was not the base of LTTE before being captured by Sri Lankan Forces?

A. Elephant Pass

B. Kilinochchi

C. Mullaithivu

D. Muridke


Q. 51 Who was given Col. CK Nayadu Life Time Achievement Award for 2007-08 for exemplary contribution of cricket?

A. Kapil Dev

B. Gundappa Vishwanath

C. Sunil Gavaskar

D. Vijay Hazare


Q. 52 Who is the foreign minister of European Union?

A. Baroness Ashlon

B. Massimo D’ Alema

C. David Millband

D. Carl Bildt


Q. 53 Who is the author of ‘Godan’?

A. Bhishma Sahni

B. Prem Chand

C. Manohar Shyam Joshi

D. Sharat Chandra Chattopadhyay


Q. 54 Which political party does Raj Babbar belong to?

A. Samajwadi Party

B. Bharatiya Janta Party

C. Congress

D. Bhujan Samaj Party


Q. 55 In which year Bastille fell on 14th of July?

A. 1879

B. 1789

C. 1787

D. None of them


Q. 56 Alberto Fujimori is the former President of

A. Japan

B. Peru

C. South Korea

D. Vietnam


Q. 57 Which of the following is the national river of India?

A. Brahmaputra

B. Narmada

C. Ganga

D. Cauveri


Q. 58 The highest number of telephone users are in

A. China


C. Canada

D. India


Q. 59 The President of Maldives is

A. Maumoon Abdul Gayoom

B. Mohmmad Ashraf

C. Mahmood Alam

D. Mohammed Nasheed


Q. 60 Arabinda Rajkhowa is a member of


B. Assam Gana Parishad

C. Maoist Centre



Q. 61 The breakthrough in the ideas of Darwin on the evolution of species came after his visit to a cluster of islands where he was that each island supported its own form of finch. Name the islands?

A. Iceland

B. Greenland

C. Galapagos

D. Christian Islands


Q. 62 Mahatma Gandhi never became a Nobel Laureate, but he was nominated five times. In which of the following years was he not nominated?

A. 1937

B. 1939

C. 1948

D. 1940


Q. 63 Which of the following countries has not, till the end of 2009, decoded the entire genome of a human being?

A. China

B. Russia

C. Zimbabwe

D. Canada


Q. 64 When was the University of Bombay established?

A. 1861

B. 1857

C. 1909

D. 1890


Q. 65 Harare is the capital of

A. Zambia

B. Zaire Republic

C. Zimbabwe

D. Yemen


Q. 66 Before the Indian team left for Conference on Climate Change of Copenhagen, Jairam Ramesh announced that India would work voluntary reduction of

A. 40 to 45 percent

B. 20 to 25 percent

C. 30 to 35 percent

D. 10 to 15 percent


Q. 67 Which is the largest island in the world (if Australia is not considered an island)?

A. Iceland

B. Borneo

C. Sumatra

D. Greenland


Q. 68 Indo-Pak summit between Parvez Musharraf and Atal Bihari Vajpayee was held in 2001 at

A. Delhi

B. Shimla

C. Agra

D. Mumbai


Q. 69 In May 2008, in the final to Sultan Azian Shah Championship Indian men’s Hockey team was defeated by

A. Pakistan

B. Argentina

C. New Zealand

D. Canada


Q. 70 Which of the following is not a union territory?

A. Tripura

B. Daman and Diu

C. Lakshadweep

D. Pondicherry


Q. 71 Who was the founder editor of ‘Kesari’?

A. Lala Lajput Rai

B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

C. Gopal Krishnan Gokhale

D. Dadabhai Naroji


Q. 72 With whose permission did the English set up their first factory at Surat?

A. Akbar

B. Shahjahan

C. Jahangir

D. Aurangzeb


Q. 73 The group of nations known as G-8 started as G-7. Which among the following was not one of them?

A. Canada

B. Italy

C. Russia

D. Japan


Q. 74 Emperor Akbar the Great, died in the year

A. 1505

B. 1605

C. 1606

D. 1590


Q. 75 What was the name of emperor Shahjahan before he became the Emperor?

A. Khusrau

B. Khurram

C. Parvez

D. Shaheryar


Q. 76 Which one of the following trees has medicinal value?

A. Pine

B. Teak

C. Oak

D. Neem


Q. 77 Identify the main principle on which the Parliamentary system operates?

A. Responsibility of executive of legislature

B. Supremacy of democracy

C. Rule of law

D. Supremacy of the Constitution


Q. 78 Great tennis player Bjorn Borg belongs to which country?

A. Italy

B. Latvia


D. Sweden


Q. 79 Which of the following is the national song of India?

A. Vande Mataram

B. Jana gana mana adhinayak

C. Ye mera chaman, ye mera chaman

D. Sare Jahan se accha


Q. 80 Which country was known as sick man of Europe?

A. Greece

B. Latvia

C. Turkey

D. Australia


Q. 81 In Malaysia, the word ‘bhumiputra’ refers to

A. Malayas

B. Chinese

C. Indians

D. Buddhists


Q. 82 What was the real name of Munshi Premchand?

A. Nawab Rai

B. Dhanpat Rai

C. Ram Chandra Srivastava

D. Hari Shankar


Q. 83 Who is the author of ‘Old Man and the Sea’?

A. John Ruskin

B. Raja Rao

C. Gunter Grass

D. Ernest Hemingway


Q. 84 Prophet Mohammed was born in

A. 570 AD

B. 720 AD

C. 620 AD

D. 510 AD


Q. 85 When was the First World War declared?

A. 1914

B. 1915

C. 1918

D. 1913


Q. 86 Deodhar trophy is given for the game of

A. Cricket

B. Football

C. Hockey

D. Golf


Q. 87 Preiyar Wild-life sanctuary is situated in the state of

A. Tamil Nadu

B. Karnataka

C. Kerala

D. Andhra Pradesh


Q. 88 Nepanagar in Madhya Pradesh is known for

A. Steel mill

B. Sugar mills

C. Potteries

D. News print factory


Q. 89 Who destroyed the Somnath temple in Gujarat?

A. Mohammad Ghouri

B. Mahmud Ghaznavi

C. Changhez Khan

D. Taimur Lang


Q. 90 In Cape Trafalgar, the famous battle of Trafalgar was fought in 1805. Where is Cape Trafalgar situated?

A. Italy

B. Greece

C. Spain

D. Portugal


Q. 91 The manager of waqf is known as

A. Sajjadanshin

B. Khadim

C. Mutawalli

D. Mujawar


Q. 92 ‘Ispo facto’ means

A. In place of

B. By reason of first fact

C. By the same sources

D. By the way


Q. 93 ‘Acquisition’ means

A. Permanent transfer of the title of property

B. Supervision of property

C. Taking control of property temporarily

D. Taking possession permanently


Q. 94 ‘Corroborative evidence’ means

A. Main evidence in case

B. Evidence which supports other evidence

C. Evidence that proves the guilt of an accused person

D. Evidence of a person who supports the accused


Q. 95 Exparte decision means a decision is given

A. After hearing both the parties

B. Without proper procedure

C. After observing proper procedure

D. Without hearing the opponent


Q. 96 Which of the following constitutions is a unitary Constitution?


B. British

C. Indian

D. Australian


Q. 97 Which of the following is not a fundamental right in India?

A. Right to form association

B. Freedom of religion

C. Right to property

D. Right to move throughout the territory of India


Q. 98 Which of the following marriages is approved by Islamic law? Between a Muslim

A. male and a Christian female

B. female and a Hindu male

C. female and a Christian male

D. female and a Jew male


Q. 99 Which of the following constitutions when framed did not provide for judicial review?

A. Indian

B. Pakistani


D. Australian


Q. 100 Ratio decidendi means

A. A judicial decision

B. Part of the judgement which possesses authority

C. Any observation made by the court which goes beyond the requirement of the case

D. An observation made by the judge


Q. 101 ‘Dyarchy’ under the government of India Act 1919 meant

A. Division of powers between the central and provincial government

B. Separation of judiciary from executive

C. Division of executive department under elected ministers and the members of the Governors Executive Council

D. Separation between legislature and executive


Q. 102 Fringe benefit tax is a tax

A. Paid by an employee in respect of the fringe benefits provided or deemed to have been provided by an employer to his employee

B. Paid by an employer for the benefits which he enjoys

C. Paid by a person for the benefits which he gets from his employer

D. Paid by a member of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes for benefits they receive from the government


Q. 103 Which of the following is not true about a criminal proceeding?

A. The court may ask to pay a fine

B. The court may order the transfer of their ownership of the property

C. There is prosecution

D. The court may discharge an accused


Q. 104 In Ram v/s Shyam, Ram cannot be a

A. Plaintiff

B. Appellants

C. Defendant

D. Prosecutor


Q. 105 Cr. PC stands for

A. Criminal Proceedings Code

B. Criminal Proceedings Court

C. Crime Prevention Code

D. Criminal Procedure Code


Q. 106 Medical Science used for Investigation crimes is known as

A. Criminal Medicine

B. Epistemological Science

C. Forensic Science

D. Ontological Science


Q. 107 A pusine judge of a High Court is

A. A judge other than a Chief Justice

B. The Chief Justice

C. A temporary judge

D. A retired judge


Q. 108 Intra vires means

A. Within the powers

B. Outside the powers

C. Within the scope of fundamental rights

D. Regular


Q. 109 X, the servant of Y, takes a hundred rupee note from Y’s pocket and hides it under the carpet in the house of Y. X tells Z another servant of Y, about the currency note and both agree to share the money when the currency note is taken by X from the hiding place. Before X could recover the note it was found by Y. Decide if an offence was committed and if so who committed the offence?

A. No offence was committed

B. Only X committed the offence

C. Both X and Z committed the offence

D. Only Z committed the offence


Q. 110 Moots, in law schools, are

A. Exercises of law teaching

B. Legal problems in the form of imaginary cases, argued by two opposing students before a bench pretending to be a real court

C. Imaginary class room where a student acts as a teacher

D. A debate on a legal problem


Q. 111 Scheduled Tribe status is

A. Restricted to Hindus

B. Religiously neutral

C. Restricted to Hindus and Christians

D. Restricted to Hindus and Muslims


Q. 112 Which of the following has not been a woman judge of the Supreme Court of India, till 2009?

A. Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra

B. Justice Sujata Manohar

C. Justice Ruma Pal

D. Justice Fathima Beevi


Q. 113 What is the meaning of Chattel?

A. Any property

B. Immovable property

C. Movable property

D. Cattle


Q. 114 In a civil suit, the person who files the suit and the person against whom the suit is filed are called

A. Accused, prosecutor

B. Accuser, defendant

C. Appellant, respondent

D. Plaintiff, defendant


Q. 115 In a criminal case, an accused person, who in consideration of his non-prosecution, offers to give evidence against other accused, is called

A. Accomplice

B. Hostile witness

C. Approver

D. Hostile accomplice


Q. 116 The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of

A. All the members of both the Houses of Parliament and all the members of all the Legislative Assemblies

B. All the elective members of both the Houses of Parliament and all the members of the Legislative Assemblies

C. All the members of both the Houses of Parliament and all the elected members of all the Legislative Assemblies

D. All the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and all the elected members of all the Legislative Assemblies


Q. 117 Which of the following is not a fundamental right?

A. Freedom of speech

B. Right to life

C. Right to equality

D. Right to work


Q. 118 International Labour Organization has its headquarters at

A. The Hague

B. Geneva

C. New York

D. London


Q. 119 The Child Marriage Restraint Act, 2006 is applicable to

A. Only Hindus

B. All Indians except Muslims as the minimal marriage age among Muslims girls is puberty (beginning of menstruation) in Muslim personal law

C. All irrespective of religion

D. All except Muslim, Christian and Jews


Q. 120 X, a shopkeeper, leaves a sealed 5 kilogram bag of a branded wheat flour at the door of Y with a note you will like this quality wheat flour and pay Rupees 100 for this bag without being asked to do so. Y on coming back, collects the bag from his door, opens the seal of the bag, and uses a quarter of kilogram for making chapattis (unleavened bread). But next day returns the bad, is he bound to pay for the bag? He is

A. Not bound to pay as he did not ask shopkeeper to deliver the bag

B. Bound to pay as he has opened the bag

C. Bound to pay only for the quantity used

D. Neither bound to pay nor return the bag


Q. 121 Within the jurisdiction of which High Court does Lakshadweep fall

A. Bombay High Court

B. Kerala High Court

C. Madras high court

D. Delhi court


Q. 122 Which of the following is not the function of the International Court of Justice? It

A. Gives advisory opinion at the request of general Assembly

B. Gives advisory opinion at the request of Security Council

C. Interprets treaties when considering legal disputes brought before it by nations

D. Decides international crimes


Q. 123 Bank nationalization case relates to the nationalization of

A. Some banks by the government of India after economic liberalisation in 1991

B. Some banks under a law during the Prime Ministership of Mrs. Indira Gandhi

C. All the private Indian banks during the Prime Ministership of Narasimha Rao

D. All the private Indian banks during the Prime Ministersip of Mrs. Indira Gandhi


Q. 124 Which of the following is not included within the meaning of intellectual property?

A. Patents

B. Copyrights

C. Trade Mark

D. Property of an intellectual


Q. 125 The main aim of the competition Act 2002 is to protect the interests of

A. The multinational corporation

B. The Indian companies

C. The consumers

D. The market


Q. 126 Which of the following judges had never been the chairman of the Law Commission of India?

A. Justice RC Lahoti

B. Justice AR Lakshamanan

C. Justice Jeevan Reddy

D. Justice Jagnnatha Rao


Q. 127 Who among the following was the first Chief information Commissioner of India?

A. Wajahat Habibullah

B. Irfan Habibi

C. Tahir Mahmood

D. Najma Heptullah


Q. 128 RTI stands for

A. Revenue transactions in India

B. Research and Technology Institute

C. Rural and transparency Infrastructure

D. Right to Information


Q. 129 Fiduciary relationship is based on

A. Contract

B. Trust

C. Blood relationship

D. Money


Q. 130 Human Rights day is observed on

A. 14th February

B. 26th November

C. 2nd October

D. 10th December


Q. 131 ‘No fault liability’ means

A. Liability for damaged caused through negligence

B. Liability for damage caused through fault

C. Absolute liability even without any negligence or fault

D. Freedom from liability


Q. 132 An ‘encumbrance’ in legal parlance is a

A. Liability on property

B. Grant of property

C. Gift of property

D. Restriction on property


Q. 133 A husband and wife have a right to each others company. This right is called

A. Matrimonial right

B. Consortium right

C. Martial right

D. Conjugal right


Q. 134 Release of prisoner before completion of his sentence is called

A. Release

B. Parole

C. Acquittal

D. Lease


Q. 135 Result of successful prosecution is

A. Acquittal

B. Discharge

C. Conviction

D. Charge sheeting


Q. 136 Six students A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting. A and B are from Mumbai, rest are from Delhi. D and F are tall but others are short. A, C and D are girls, others are boys. Which is the tall girl from Delhi?

A. F

B. D

C. E

D. C


Q. 137 P is the brother of Q. R is the sister of Q. S is the sister of R. How is Q related to S?

A. Brother

B. Sister

C. Brother or sister

D. Son


Questions: 138 – 140

Directions (Q 138-140) :

Two sets of words have certain relation. Select a word to replace the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the other word in the third set.


Q. 138 Cat-Kitten; Goat-Kid; Sheep-?

A. Colt

B. Filly

C. Lamb

D. Wool


Q. 139 Cataract-Eye; Jaundice-liver; Pyorrhea-?

A. Breath

B. Tongue

C. Ears

D. Teeth


Q. 140 Blue-Moon; Blue-Black; Black-?

A. Sheep

B. Goat

C. Sky

D. Star


Questions: 141 – 145

Directions (Q 141-145) :

A principle(s) and a fact situation are given in question number 141-145. Decide only on the basis of principle(s).


Q. 141 Principles – (i) Neighbour principle-A is liable if he harms his neighbour. A neighbour is one whose action affects anoher

(ii) One is liable only for contractual relations

Facts – X manufactures a food item and sells his food item to Y, a wholesaler. Y appoints Z, a retailer to retail these items. Z sells the food item to a consumer who after eating them, falls ill. X is liable to the consumer because

A. Of contractual relations

B. Of the Food adulteration Act

C. The consumer is the neighbour of X

D. Of the consumer protection law


Q. 142 Principles –

(i) Freedom consists in making choices out of two or more alternative

(ii) Everyone has freedom to speak

Facts –

X says his freedom to speech includes freedom not to speak. X’s assertion is

A. Wrong

B. Right

C. Wrong because the freedom to speak cannot mean freedom not to speak

D. Right because X may opt to speak or not to speak


Q. 143 Principles –

(i) A master is liable for the wrongful acts of his servant

(ii) A person can be called a servant only if there is a relation of employment and he acts under the order and behalf of his master

Facts –

X bank launched a facing scheme for poor sections of the society and the customers can deposit Rs. 10 per day. Y an unemployed youth collected money from several customers, and on behalf of them deposited the money at the Bank every day. The bank gave to Y a

small commission. After sometime, Y disappeared without depositing the money given by the customers. The customers bring a suit alleging that the Bank is liable. Decide

A. The bank is liable because it paid commission to Y

B. The bank is liable because Y was their servant

C. The bank was not liable because Y was not their servant

D. No one is liable


Q. 144 Principles – X propounds the principle that everyone in this world always speaks lies.

Facts – X wants to know whether this principle is logically true or false.

A. Logically the principle may be true

B. Everyone in the whole of this world does not always speak lies

C. Logically X is also speaking lies

D. Everyone is basically an honest person


Q. 145 Principles –

Whosoever enters into or upon the property in the possession of another, with intent to commit an offence or to intimidate or annoy any person in possession of the property, and remains there with intent thereby to intimidate or annoy another person or with intent, to commit an offence is guilty of criminal trespass.

Facts –

The accused entered at night into a house to carry on intimate relations with an umarried major girl on her invitation and information that her family members are absent. However, he was caught by her uncle before he could get away. Is the accused guilty of criminal trespass? He is


A. Guilty of criminal trespass as he annoyed the uncle

B. Guilty because he entered the house to commit a crime against the girl

C. Guilty because no one should enter into the house of another at night

D. Not guilty of criminal trespass


Q. 146 In a code every letter of the alphabet is replaced by some other letter. The code for the name Ram Kumar is

A. Ten Ronet

B. Len Finol

C. Pen Sinet

D. Elephant


Questions: 147 – 148

Directions (Q 147-148) :

Four of the given five are alike in a certain way and form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?


Q. 147 (I) 217

(II) 143

(III) 214

(IV) 157

(V) 131

A. I

B. V




Q. 148 (I) Gourd

(II) Radish

(III) Spinach

(IV) Cucumber

(V) Beetroot

A. Radish

B. Beetroot

C. Potatoes

D. Spinach


Questions: 149 – 151

Directions (Q 149-151) :

Point out the entry which does not form a class with the other entries in the following questions.


Q. 149 The odd one out in the following is –

A. House

B. Mortgage

C. Hypothecation

D. Immovable property


Q. 150 The odd one out in the following is –

A. Law

B. Court

C. Morality

D. Judge


Q. 151 The odd one out in the following is –

A. Freedom of speech

B. Right to equality

C. Freedom of religion

D. Right to make contract


Questions: 152 – 156

Directions (Q 152-156) :

In the following questions, a question and two arguments are given. Arguments in relation to the questions are either weak or strong. Use this key to give your answer.


Q. 152 Questions : Should there be complete ban on manufacture of fire crackers in India?

Argument I : No, this will render thousands of workers jobless

Argument II : Yes, the fire crackers manufacturers use child labour

A. Argument I is strong

B. Argument II is strong

C. Both I and II are strong

D. Both I and II are weak


Q. 153 Questions : Should private operators be allowed to operate passengers train service in India?

Argument I : No, private sectors do not agree to operate on non-profitable sectors

Argument II : yes, it will improve the quality of Indian Railway service

A. Argument I is strong

B. Argument II is strong

C. Both I and II are strong

D. Both I and II are weak


Q. 154 Question : Should the system of reservation of posts for scheduled castes be introduced in private sector?

Argument I : Yes, this would give more opportunity of development to these groups

Argument II : No, this would affect merit

A. Argument I is strong

B. Argument II is strong

C. Both I and II are strong

D. Both I and II are weak


Q. 155 Question : Would the problem of old parents be solved if children are made legally responsible to take care of their parents in old age?

Argument I : Yes, such problems can be solved only through law

Argument II : Yes, this will bring relief to old parents

A. Argument I is strong

B. Argument II is strong

C. Both I and II are strong

D. Both I and II are weak


Q. 156 Question : Should right to primary education be made as fundamental right>

Argument I : We should first complete other development project, education of children

may wait

Argument II : Yes, without primary education for all, there cannot be inclusive development

A. Argument I is strong

B. Argument II is strong

C. Both I and II are strong

D. Both I and II are weak


Q. 157 Pramesh is heavier than Jairam but lighter than Gulab. Anand is heavier than Gulab. Mohan is lighter than Jairam. Who among them is the heaviest?

A. Jairam

B. Anand

C. Gulab

D. Pramesh


Q. 158 Ravi is the brother of Amit’s son. How is Amit related to Ravi?

A. Cousin

B. Father

C. Son

D. Grandfather


Q. 159 If CABLE is coded ZCDAY, then STABLE will be coded as






Q. 160 If CHAPTER is coded UMOEPYE then PARTNER will be coded as






Questions: 161 – 170

Directions (Q 161-170) :

In each of the questions given below, two words are paired and have a certain relation. Select a correct option to substitute the question mark so as to make a similar relationship pair with the words given.


Q. 161 Constituent Assembly : Constitution :: Parliament : ?

A. Statute

B. Legislative bills

C. Speaker

D. Prime Minister


Q. 162 Right : Duty : : Power : ?

A. Wrong

B. Weak

C. Powerless

D. Liability


Q. 163 Elephant : Calf : : Tiger : ?

A. Pup

B. Tigress

C. Cub

D. Baby tiger


Q. 164 Patient : Doctor : : Litigant : ?

A. Advisor

B. Help

C. Legal aid

D. Lawyer


Q. 165 Prosecutor : Accused : : Plaintiff : ?

A. Appellant

B. Defendant

C. Plaint

D. Suit


Q. 166 Lok Sabha : Meera Kumar : : Rajya Sabha : ?

A. Hameed Ansari

B. Najma Heptullah

C. Sushma Swaraj

D. Arun Jaitley


Q. 167 President of India : 35 : : Member of Parliament (Rajya Sabha) : ?

A. 18

B. 21

C. 25

D. 30


Q. 168 India : Parliamentary System : : USA : ?

A. Democratic System

B. Presidential System

C. Federal System

D. Republican System


Q. 169 Executive : President : : Judiciary : ?

A. Supreme Court

B. Chief Justice

C. Constitutional

D. Government of India


Q.170 World War II : United Nations : : World War I : ?

A. Treaty of Versailles

B. International Commission of Jurists

C. League of Nations

D. International Court of Justice


Questions: 171 – 175

Directions (Q 171-175) :

In each of the questions, two statements are given. There may or may not be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. Choose your answer based on the statements given.


Q. 171 Statement I : School education has been made free for children of poor families

Statement II : Literacy rate among the poor is steadily growing

A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect

B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect

C. Both the statements are independent causes

D. Both the statements are independent effects


Q. 172 Statement I : Hallmarking of gold jewellery has been made compulsory

Statement II : many persons do not prefer to buy Hallmarked jewellery

A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect

B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect

C. Both the statements are independent causes

D. Both the statements are independent effects


Q. 173 Statement I : Many vegetarians are suffering from stomach ailments

Statement II : Many dead fish were found near the lake shore

A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect

B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect

C. Both the statements are independent causes

D. Both the statements are independent effects


Q. 174 Statement I : Ahmed is a healthy boy

Statement II : His mother is very particular about the food he eats

A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect

B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect

C. Both the statements are independent causes

D. Both the statements are independent effects


Q. 175 Statement I : Rate of crime is very low in this city

Statement II : The police is efficient in this city

A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect

B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect

C. Both the statements are independent causes

D. Both the statements are independent effects


Questions: 176 – 180

Directions (Q 176-180) :

In each of these questions, a statement is followed by two assumptions. These assumptions may or may not be implicit in the statement. Choose your answer accordingly.


Q. 176 Statement : If Ram has finished reading the instructions, let him begin activities


Assumption I : Ram has understood the instructions

Assumption II : Ram would be able to act accordingly

A. Only assumption I is implicit

B. Only assumption II is implicit

C. Both assumptions I and II are implicit

D. Neither of the assumption I and II is implicit


Q. 177 Statement : Children below the age of seven should not be prosecuted for crimes

Assumption I : Generally children below seven cannot distinguish between right and wrong

Assumption II : Children below the age of seven are generally mentally unsound

A. Only assumption I is implicit

B. Only assumption II is implicit

C. Both assumptions I and II are implicit

D. Neither of the assumption I and II is implicit


Q. 178 Statement : The employer has a right to reject the application of any candidate for

employment without assigning any reason while short listing for interview

Assumption I : The employer is impartial and believes in transparency in employment practices

Assumption II : The employer wants to call only those candidates for interview, who in his opinion are eligible

A. Only assumption I is implicit

B. Only assumption II is implicit

C. Both assumptions I and II are implicit

D. Neither of the assumption I and II is implicit


Q. 179 Statement : The government has decided to reduce custom duty on computers

Assumption I : The government wants to make computer accessible to larger number of


Assumption II : Prices in domestic market may go up in near future

A. Only assumption I is implicit

B. Only assumption II is implicit

C. Both assumptions I and II are implicit

D. Neither of the assumption I and II is implicit


Q. 180 Statement : You can win over new friends by your warm smile

Assumption I : It is necessary to win over new friends

Assumption II : It is always better to smile warmly to new persons

A. Only assumption I is implicit

B. Only assumption II is implicit

C. Both assumptions I and II are implicit

D. Neither of the assumption I and II is implicit


Q. 181 Average age of ten persons learning yoga is 32 years. When the age of their instructor is added, the average age becomes 34 years. The age of their instructor is

A. 54

B. 52

C. 46

D. 56


Q. 182 Find 12% of 5000

A. 620

B. 600

C. 680

D. 720


Q. 183 Square root of 400 is

A. 40

B. 25

C. 20

D. 100


Q. 184 What is the place (location) value of 5 in 3254710?

A. 10000

B. 5

C. 54710

D. 50000


Q. 185  6 x 3(3-1) is equal to

A. 53

B. 36

C. 20

D. 19


Q. 186 Y travels 15 km due South, then 5 km due west, then 18 km due North then 3 km due South, then 5 km due East. How far is he from the starting point?

A. 6 km

B. 3 km

C. 0 km

D. 9 km


Questions: 187 – 188

Directions (Q 187-188) :

Select the appropriate options to fill in the blanks in the series.


Q. 187  3, 9, ……, 6561

A. 18

B. 27

C. 81

D. 61


Q. 188  100, 50, 33, ….., 20

A. 25

B. 30

C. 22

D. 21


Q. 189 Which of the following fractions has the highest value?

3/5, 4/3, 2/5, 1/2

A. 3/5

B. 4/3

C. 2/5

D. 1/2


Q. 190 Four gardeners with four grass mowers mows 400 square metres of ground in four hours. How long would it take for eight gardeners with eight grass mowers to mow 800 square meters of ground?

A. 8 hours

B. 6 hours

C. 2 hours

D. 4 hours


Questions: 191 – 193

Directions (Q 191-193) :

Select one of the given numbers to replace question mark in the series in the following questions.


Q. 191  2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, ?

A. 22

B. 23

C. 24

D. 25


Q. 192  117, 104, 91, 78, ?

A. 39

B. 60

C. 65

D. 36


Q. 193  88, 96, 104, ?

A. 100

B. 110

C. 120

D. 112


Q. 194 Ram borrows Rs. 520 from Govind at a simple interest of 13% per annum. What amount of money should Ram pay to Govind after 6 months to be absolved of debt?

A. Rs. 552.80

B. Rs. 553.80

C. Rs. 453.80

D. Rs. 353.80


Q. 195 Which of the following is a prime number?

A. 19

B. 20

C. 21

D. 22


Q. 196 The square root of 289 is

A. 13

B. 17

C. 27

D. 23


Q. 197 Find the factors of 330

A. 2 x 4 x 5 x 11

B. 2 x 3 x 7 x 13

C. 2 x 3 x 5 x 13

D. 2 x 3 x 5 x 11


Q. 198 Find the factors of 1122

A. 3 x 9 x 17 x 2

B. 3 x 11 x 17 x 2

C. 9 x 9 x 17 x 2

D. 3 x 11 x 17 x 3


Q. 199 Which of the following is not a prime number?

A. 23

B. 29

C. 43

D. 21


Q. 200 If the numbers from 1 to 24, which are divisible by 2 are arranged in descending order, which number will be at the 8th place from the bottom?

A. 10

B. 12

C. 16

D. 18



Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer A D B A C A C C D C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer C C B A A B A C C C
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer B C A A B A C C D B
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer A B A C A C C B A A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C B A C B A D D C D
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer B A B C B B C A D D
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer C C C B C B D C B A
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer B C C B B D D D A C
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer A B D AA A A C D B C
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer C B A B D B C A B A
Question 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer A A B C D C A A C B
Question 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer B A A D D D D B C D
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer B D B D C A A D B D
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer C D D B C B C C D A
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer A D B C D A D A C C
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer D A B C C B B B C D
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer A D C D B A D B B C
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer A C B B B C A B A C
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer A B C D B C C A B C
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer A C D B A B D B D C


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