IBPS PO Prelims Exam 2015
Date: 04-10-2015
Question: 1-5
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with error as your answer. If there is no error, mark (5) as your answer.
Q. 1 How serious is the country’s economic problems, and how big an impact will these have on the world economies?
A. How serious is the country’s
B. economic problems, and how
C. big an impact will these
D. have on the world economies?
E. No error
Q. 2 Shuber, the taxi service provider, is growing like a weed, spending millions of rupees to establish its roots in the country.
A. Shuber, the taxi service provider, is
B. growing like a weed,
C. spending millions of rupees
D. to establish its roots in the country
E. No error
Q. 3 The survey asked respondents from more than 50 countries to identify kinds of people they would want of neighbours
A. The survey asked respondents
B. from more than 50 countries to
C. identify kinds of people
D. they would want of neighbours
E. No error
Q. 4 The pace and scale of the country’s economic transformation have no historical precedent.
A. The pace and scale of
B. the country’s economic transformation
C. have no
D. historical precedent.
E. No error
Q. 5 The countries most affected by the economic slowdown are likely to be those whose export raw materials.
A. The countries most
B. affected by the economic slowdown
C. are likely to be
D. those whose export raw materials
E. No error
Questions: 6 – 10
Rearrange the given six sentences/group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.
A. “It’s undefined. No one knows if you reach it. It gives the flexibility to revive it later,” he added.
B. Of late, doubts are being raised concerning the health of the world’s second largest economy, China.
C. This change is relatively small but suggests that the country’s effort to meet its official growth target was tougher than it seemed.
D. It comes as worries grow that China will struggle to reach this year’s goal of ‘about’ 7%.
E. “That’s the beauty of using ‘about’ in your targets,” said IHS Global Insight economist Brain Jackson.
F. The reason for these doubts stem from the fact that the country revised its 2014 growth rate to 7.3% from 7.5% due to a weaker-than-reported contribution from the service sector.
Q. 6 Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
A. A
B. C
C. B
D. F
E. E
Q. 7 Which of the following should be the SIXTH (last) sentence after rearrangement?
A. C
B. F
C. D
D. B
E. A
Q. 8 Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
A. A
B. D
C. C
D. F
E. E
Q. 9 Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
A. A
B. B
C. F
D. D
E. C
Q. 10 Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
A. A
B. E
C. D
D. F
E. C
Questions: 11 – 15
Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set o words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
Q. 11 ____________________ he had mixed success in the past with his new technique; this time around the player had enough _______________ up his sleeve to win this match.
A. Since, talent
B. Despite, drama
C. Although, tricks
D. Because, energy
E. Hence, magic
Q. 12 Name of the roles offered to me _____________ the strong, funny and dynamic Indian woman that I had grown up _____________
A. stated, today
B. said, surrounded
C. reflected, around
D. depicted, to
E. assessed, within
Q. 13 The _____________ to the free sim-card scheme offered by the telecom company has been __________________ and most people expressed complete ignorance about the scheme.
A. reaction, stupendous
B. access, cordial
C. contract, simple
D. takers, high
E. response, abysmal
Q. 14 In our close relations it is easy to come ________________ clever men and women, but _______________ to find virtuous ones.
A. find, simpler
B. up, arduous
C. see, terrible
D. across, difficult
E. close, impossible
Q. 15 Due to the ______________________ number of swine – flu cases in the district, the health department has decided to spread _________________ about the disease.
A. raising, alertness
B. populates, knowledge
C. prolonged, understanding
D. increasing, awareness
E. high, ability
Questions: 16 – 25
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are quoted to help you locate them while answering some of the question.
There is good news in the form of Europe’s unemployment falling from 11.1% in June to 10.0% in July. But unemployment generally lags behind the economic cycle. Business survey, which provide more up-to-date readings of activity, point to a continuing “subdued” recovery in Europe. The European commission’s longrunning economic-sentiment indicator, which combines business as well as consumer confidence and tends to track GDP has been “broadly” stable since picking up in early 2015. This suggests that the Euro area is not about to break out of its unspectacular growth. This is worrying because the euro-zone economy is benefitting from a powerful triple stimulus. Lower energy costs caused by the slump in global oil prices have been providing the same effect as a tax cut. A big programme of quantitative easing (QE), has been under way since, early in the year under which the European Central Bank (ECB) is creating money to buy 60 billion ($67 billion) of pounds each month. As well as pushing down long-term interest rates QE has helped to keep the euro down on the currency markets to the benefit of exporters. Given the extent of help that the euro area has been getting, growth should be faster. The sluggish performance leaves it vulnerable to China’s slowdown. A particular worry is the impact of weakening Chinese growth on Germany, the hub economy of the region, whose resilience has been crucial in sustaining Europe since the euro crisis started five years ago. One reason has been strong Chinese demand for traditional German manufacturing strengths. Even though German exports appear to be holding up for the time being, that boost from China is waning. Lacklustre growth in the euro area will in turn make it harder for the ECB to meet its goal of pushing inflation back towards its goal of almost 2%. Although core inflation (excluding in particular energy and food) has moved up from its low of 0.6% earlier this year, to 1.0% headline inflation has been stuck at 0.2% over the summer. There is increasing concern that the ECB’s effort to break the “grip” of “lowflation” will be swamped by `global deflationary effects. The ECB’S council is not expected to make a change in policy and is likely to indicate that the ECB recognises the downside risk to growth and stands ready to respond if they “materialise”. That may in turn produce a policy erasing later this year. One option would be to raise the amount of assets that it is buying each month from the current amount of 60 billion. A more likely decision would be for the ECB to extend the planned length of its purchase some for another year. Whether that is enough is question for another day.
Q. 16 What is the author’s view regarding the reforms implemented by ECB?
A. He is outraged that these measures are being continued.
B. He is doubtful about the reforms as inflation is rising.
C. These reforms are tough and unpopular in Euro countries.
D. These are not focused and have not been effective at all.
E. Other than those given as options.
Q. 17 What do the statistics cited in the passage about ECB convey?
A. Its stimulus package or Europe’s economy is too low in value.
B. ECB is likely to fast run out of ‘bailout’ funds.
C. Despite the ECB’s best efforts, its reforms have been unsuccessful.
D. It is time ECB withdraws its stimulus package to rich countries.
E. ECB has not been proactive in the economic recovery.
Q. 18 Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word SUBDUED given in the passage.
A. Passive
B. Necessary
C. Sleep
D. Diluted
E. Expensive
Q. 19 Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word BROADLY given in the passage.
A. Widely
B. Barely
C. Softly
D. Responsibly
E. Dimly
Q. 20 Which of the following best describes the conclusion which can be drawn from economic indicators from Europe?
A. Investors do not have confidence in European markets.
B. Germany is the only economy unaffected by the crisis of 2008 and China’s slowdown.
C. Tax rates in Europe are being raised which has hampered growth.
D. By and large Europe’s economic performance is steady but not accelerating.
E. Europe has not taken measures to protect itself from the crisis in emerging markets.
Q. 21 Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?
A. Germany’s economic performance is linked to the Chinese market.
B. Europe’s large economies have recovered from the global crisis
C. Exorbitant oil prices are negating the effects of ECB’s stimulus
D. Europe’s unemployment rate is rising but it may not continue to do so.
E. None of the given options is true in the context of the passage.
Q. 22 According to the passage, which of the following has affected inflation in Europe?
A. Global deflation is prevailing.
B. Frequent rising of ECB’s interest rates.
C. The ECB has withdrawn its Quantitative Erasing programme.
A. Only B
B. Only A
C. All A, B & C
D. Only A & C
E. Only B & C
Q. 23 Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word MATERIALISE used in the passage.
A. Disappear
B. Perform
C. Terrorise
D. Occur
E. Substance
Q. 24 Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?
A. The European economy is buoyant as its energy and manufacturing sectors are doing well.
B. Emerging markets have been responsible for Europe’s slow economic performance.
C. The European Central Bank is in denial about the imminent crisis Europe is facing.
D. Europe has reduced its exposure to America and Asia
E. The European economy is stagnating leaving it vulnerable to future crisis
Q. 25 Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word GRIP used in the passage.
A. Understanding
B. Authority
C. Awareness
D. Clutches
E. Fascination
Questions: 26 – 30
In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. Creating a few more schools or allowing hundreds of colleges and private universities to …. (26) …. is not going to solve the crisis of education in India. And a crisis it is- we are in a country where people are spending their parents’ savings and borrowed money on education – and even then not getting standard education, and struggling to find employment of their … (27) …. In this country, millions of students are … (28) … of an unrealistic, pointless, mindless rat race.
The mind numbing competition and rote learning not only … (29) … the creativity and originality of millions of Indian students every year, but also … (30) … brilliant students to adopt drastic measures.
Q. 26 Select the suitable word for the Blank (26)
A. base
B. mushroom
C. point
D. set
E. crop
Q. 27 Select the suitable word for the Blank (27)
A. parents
B. money
C. fashion
D. equal
E. choice
Q. 28 Select the suitable word for the Blank (28)
A. victims
B. member
C. party
D. associates
E. together
Q. 29 Select the suitable word for the Blank (29)
A. crush
B. flourish
C. stir
D. halting
E. push
Q. 30 Select the suitable word for the Blank (30)
A. aim
B. drive
C. stop
D. responsible
E. make
Questions: 31 – 35
Refer to the table (Given in figure) and answer the given questions:
Note:
I. Employees of the given companies can be categorized only in three types:
Science graduates, Commerce graduates and Arts graduates.
II. Few values are missing in the table (indicated by …). A candidate is expected to
calculate the missing value, if it is required to answer the given questions, on the basis of the given data and information.
Q. 31 What is the difference between the number of Arts graduate employees and Science graduate employees in Company N?
A. 87
B. 89
C. 77
D. 81
E. 73
Q. 32 The average number of Arts graduate employees and Commerce graduate employees in Company Q was 312. What was the total number of employees in Company Q?
A. 920
B. 960
C. 1120
D. 1040
E. 1080
Q. 33 If the respective ratio between the number of Commerce graduate employees and Arts graduate employees in Company M was 10 : 7, what was the number of Arts graduate employees in M?
A. 294
B. 266
C. 280
D. 308
E. 322
Q. 34 Total number of employees in Company N increased by 20% from December, 2012 to December, 2013, If 20% of the total number of employees in Company N in December, 2013 was Science graduates, what was the number of Science graduate employees in Company N in December, 2013?
A. 224
B. 266
C. 168
D. 252
E. 238
Q. 35 Total number of employees in Company P was 3 times the total number of employees in Company O. If the difference between number of Arts graduate employees in Company P and that in Company O was 180, what was the total number of employees in Company O?
A. 1200
B. 1440
C. 720
D. 900
E. 1080
Q. 36 A bag contains 6 red balls, 11 yellow balls and 5 pink balls. If two balls are drawn at random from the bag, one after another, what is the probability that first ball is red and the second ball is yellow?
A. 1/14
B. 2/7
C. 5/7
D. 3/14
E. None of these
Q. 37 The sum of the radius and height of a cylinder is 19 m. The total surface area of the cylinder is 1672 m², what is the volume of the cylinder? (in m³)
A. 3080
B. 2940
C. 3220
D. 2660
E. 2800
Questions: 38 – 42
What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?
Q. 38 264 262 271 243 308 ?
A. 216
B. 163
C. 194
D. 205
E. 182
Q. 39 1.5 2.5 7 24 100 ?
A. 345
B. 460
C. 525
D. 380
E. 505
Q. 40 71 78 92 120 ? 288
A. 160
B. 164
C. 199
D. 208
E. 176
Q. 41 17 9 10 16.5 35 ?
A. 192
B. 90
C. 114
D. 76
E. 80
Q. 42 79 39 19 9 4 ?
A. 0.2
B. 1.5
C. 0.5
D. 2
E. 1
Q. 43 The respective ratio between the speed of the boat upstream and speed of the boat
downstream is 2 : 3. What is the speed of the boat in still water if it covers 42 km
downstream in 2 hours 20 minutes ? (in km/h)
A. 13.5
B. 15
C. 12
D. 11
E. 10
Q. 44 24 men can finish a piece of work in 18 days. 30 women can finish the same piece of work in 12 days. In how many days 16 men and 224 women together can finish the same piece of work?
A. 8 5/14
B. 10 11/14
C. 9 9/14
D. 9 1/7
E. 8 8/7
Q. 45 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions.
421 ÷ 35 x 299.97 ÷ 25.05 = ?²
A. 22
B. 24
C. 28
D. 12
E. 18
Q. 46 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions.
√197 x 6.99 + 626.96 = ?
A. 885
B. 725
C. 825
D. 650
E. 675
Q. 47 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions.
19.99 x 15.98 + 224.98 + 125.02 = ?
A. 620
B. 580
C. 670
D. 560
E. 520
Q. 48 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions.
3214.99 + 285.02 + 600.02 – 4.01 = ?
A. 3650
B. 4120
C. 4200
D. 3225
E. 4096
Q. 49 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions.
?% of 1239.96 + 59.87% of 449.95 = 579.05
A. 35
B. 15
C. 25
D. 20
E. 30
Q. 50 A man sold an article for Rs. 6800/- and incurred a loss. Has he sold the article for Rs. 7,850, his gain would have been equal to half of the amount of loss that he incurred. At what price should he sell the article to have 20% profit?
A. Rs. 7,500/-
B. Rs. 9,000/-
C. Rs. 8,000/-
D. Rs. 8,500/-
E. Rs. 10,000/-
Q. 51 A, B and C started a business by investing Rs. 20,000/-, Rs. 28,000/- and Rs. 36,000/- respectively. After 6b months, A and B withdrew an amount of Rs. 8,000/- each and C invested an additional amount of Rs. 8,000/-. All of them invested for equal period of time. If at the end of the year, C got Rs. 12,550/- as his share of profit, what was the total profit earned?
A. Rs. 25,100/-
B. Rs. 26,600/-
C. Rs. 24,300/-
D. Rs. 22.960/-
E. Rs. 21,440/-
Questions: 52 – 56
In these questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equation and give answers.
Q. 52 I. 3x² + 11x + 6 = 0
II. 3y² 10 y + 8 = 0
A. If x ≥ y
B. If x ≤ y
C. If x > y
D. If x < y
E. If relation between x and y cannot be established.
Q. 53 I. 3x² – 7x + 2 = 0
II. 2y² – 9y + 10 = 0
A. If x ≥ y
B. If x ≤ y
C. If x > y
D. If x < y
E. If relation between x and y cannot be established.
Q. 54 I. x² = 9
II. 2y² – 19y + 44 = 0
A. If x ≥ y
B. If x ≤ y
C. If x > y
D. If x < y
E. If relation between x and y cannot be established.
Q. 55 I. 2x² – 15x + 28 = 0
II. 4y² – 23 y + 30 = 0
A. If x ≥ y
B. If x ≤ y
C. If x > y
D. If x < y
E. If relation between x and y cannot be established
Q. 56 I. 2x² – 15x + 27 = 0
II. 5y² – 26y + 33 = 0
A. If x ≥ y
B. If x ≤ y
C. If x > y
D. If x < y
E. If relation between x and y cannot be established.
Questions: 57 – 61
Refer to the graph (given in figure) and answer the questions.
Q. 57 What is the average number of watches sold in Town X in January, February, March and June?
A. 180
B. 190
C. 175
D. 170
E. 185
Q. 58 The number of watches sold in Town Y in April is what percent more than the number of watches sold in Town X in the same month?
A. 42%
B. 40%
C. 30%
D. 50%
E. 38%
Q. 59 The number of watches sold in Town Y increased by what percent from February to May?
A. 96%
B. 92 1/3%
C. 97%
D. 91 2/3%
E. 95 2/3%
Q. 60 The number of watches sold in Town X in July was 10% more than the number of watches sold in the same town in May. What is the respective ratio between the number of watches sold in July and those sold in January in the same town?
A. 34 : 23
B. 32 : 25
C. 31 : 20
D. 33 : 23
E. 33 : 20
Q. 61 What is the difference between the total number of watches sold in both the towns together in June and the total number of watches sold in both the towns together in March?
A. 50
B. 90
C. 60
D. 70
E. 80
Q. 62 A tank has two inlets: P and Q. P alone takes 6 hours and Q alone takes 8 hours to fill the empty tank completely when there is no leakage. A leakage was caused which would empty the full tank completely in ‘X’ hours when no inlet is opened. Now, when only inlet P was opened, it took 15 hours to fill the empty tank completely. How much time will Q alone take to fill the empty tank completely? (in hours)
A. 40 hours
B. 36 hours
C. 30 hours
D. 42 hours
E. 38 hours
Q. 63 At present, the respective ratio between the ages of A and B is 3 : 8 and that between A and C is 1 : 4. 3 years ago, the sum of ages of A, B and C will be 83 years. What is the present age of C?
A. 32 years
B. 12 years
C. 48 years
D. 54 years
Q. 64 The sum invested in Scheme B is thrice the sum invested in Scheme A. Investment in Scheme A is made for 4 years at 8% p.a. simple interest and in Scheme B for years at 13% p.a. simple interest. The total interest earned from both the schemes is Rs. 1320/-. How much was invested in Scheme A?
A. Rs. 1200/-
B. Rs. 1140/-
C. Rs. 960/-
D. Rs. 1500/-
E. Rs. 840/-
Q. 65 Kim and Om are travelling from point A to B, which are 400 km apart. Travelling at a certain speed Kim takes one hour more than Om to reach B. If Kim doubles her speed she will take 1 hour 30 mins less than Om to reach point B. At what speed was Om driving from point A to B? (in km/h)
A. 90 km/h
B. 70 km/h
C. 160 km/h
D. 80 km/h
E. 100 km/h
Questions: 66 – 70
In these questions, two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statemnets disregarding commonly known facts.
Q. 66 Statements:
Some tasks are hurdles.
All hurdles are jobs.
Some jobs are works.
Conclusions:
I. All works being hurdles is a possibility.
II. At least some works are tasks.
A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true
B. If either conclusion I or II is true.
C. If only conclusion I is true.
D. If both conclusions I and II are true.
E. If only conclusion II is true.
Q. 67 Statements:
Some tasks are hurdles.
All hurdles are jobs.
Some jobs are works.
Conclusions:
I. Some jobs are tasks.
II. All jobs are tasks.
A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true
B. If either conclusion I or II is true.
C. If only conclusion I is true.
D. If both conclusions I and II are true.
E. If only conclusion II is true.
Q. 68 Statements:
Some problems are solutions.
No solution is a trick.
All rules are tricks.
Conclusions:
I. No rule is a solution.
II. Some problems are definitely not tricks.
A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true
B. If either conclusion I or II is true.
C. If only conclusion I is true.
D. If both conclusions I and II are true.
E. If only conclusion II is true.
Q. 69 Statements:
All ministers are deans.
Some deans are heads.
Some heads are principals.
Conclusions:
I. No principal is a minister.
II. All heads being ministers is a possibility.
A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true
B. If either conclusion I or II is true.
C. If only conclusion I is true.
D. If both conclusions I and II are true.
E. If only conclusion II is true.
Q. 70 Statements:
No queue is a line.
Some queues are rows.
Conclusions:
I. No row is a line.
II. All rows are lines.
A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true
B. If either conclusion I or II is true.
C. If only conclusion I is true.
D. If both conclusions I and II are true.
E. If only conclusion II is true.
Questions: 71 – 72
Study the following information to answer the given questions:
D is the father of A. D is married to P. P is the mother of J. P has only one daughter. J is married to U. U is the son of L.
Q. 71 How is J related to L?
A. Daughter
B. Granddaughter
C. Cannot be determined
D. Niece
E. Daughter-in-law
Q. 72 How is A related to U?
A. Cannot be determined
B. Brother-in-law
C. Brother
D. Sister
E. Sister-in-law
Questions: 73 – 77
Study the following information to answer the given questions:
Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there us equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1 – J, K, L, M, and N are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing north. In row 2 – R, S, T, U, and V are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing south. Therefore in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. V sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. Only two people sit between V and R. The one who faces R sits to the immediate left of L. Only one person sits between L and K. The one who faces K sits to the immediate left of S. N sits second to the right of J. Neither K nor L face U.
Q. 73 Who amongst the following is facing M?
A. U
B. R
C. T
D. V
E. S
Q. 74 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of them does not belong to that group?
A. NK
B. JL
C. ML
D. RU
E. ST
Q. 75 What is the position of U with respect to S?
A. Third to the right
B. Immediate left
C. Second to the left
D. Second to the right
E. Immediate right
Q. 76 Which of the following statements is true regarding N?
A. Only two persons sit between N and M
B. N sit at an extreme end of the row.
C. N faces one of the immediate neighbours of R
D. None of the given statement is true
E. L sits to the immediate right of N
Q. 77 Who amongst the following is facing T?
A. N
B. M
C. K
D. J
E. L
Questions: 78 – 82
In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.
Q. 78 Statements :
P < L ≤ A = N ≥ E ≥ D; Q ≥ N < O
Conclusions:
I. L ≤ E
II. P < Q
A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true
B. If either conclusion I or II is true
C. If only conclusion I is true
D. If both conclusion I and II are true
E. If only conclusion II is true
Q. 79 Statements:
P < L ≤ A = N ≥ E ≥ D; Q ≥ N < O
Conclusions:
I. Q ≥ D
II. A < D
A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true
B. If either conclusion I or II is true
C. If only conclusion I is true
D. If both conclusion I and II are true
E. If only conclusion II is true
Q. 80 Statement:
P ≤ U = N ≤ C ≥ H > S; K ≥ C
Conclusion:
I. P ≤ C
II. U > H
A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true
B. If either conclusion I or II is true
C. If only conclusion I is true
D. If both conclusion I and II are true
E. If only conclusion II is true
Q. 81 Statement:
P ≤ U = N ≤ C ≥ H > S; K ≥ C
Conclusions;
I. K > U
II. U = K
A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true
B. If either conclusion I or II is true
C. If only conclusion I is true
D. If both conclusion I and II are true
E. If only conclusion II is true
Q. 82 Statements:
D ≥ I > S ≥ M ≤ A < L
Conclusions:
I. D ≥ A
II. L > I
A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true
B. If either conclusion I or II is true
C. If only conclusion I is true
D. If both conclusion I and II are true
E. If only conclusion II is true
Questions: 83 – 87
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In certain code language,
‘committee to review papers’ is written as ‘es fr re pt’
‘review meeting in morning’ is written as ‘ch ba mo fr’
‘meeting to appoint members’ is written as ‘re dv ch gi’
‘appoint chairman in review’ is written as ‘mo gi fr yu’
(All the codes are two letter codes only)
Q. 83 What is the code for ‘morning’ in the given code language?
A. mo
B. yu
C. ch
D. Other than those given as options
E. ba
Q. 84 In the given code language, what does the code ‘pt’ stands for?
A. appoint
B. Either ‘papers’ or ‘committee’
C. morning
D. review
E. Either ‘for’ or ‘members’
Q. 85 What is the code for ‘review call’ in the given code language?
A. dv lq
B. lq gi
C. lq fr
D. gi es
E. fr dv
Q. 86 What is the code for ‘to’ in the given code language?
A. mo
B. fr
C. gi
D. dv
E. re
Q. 87 If ‘appoint new members’ is coded as ‘dv wz gi’ in the given code language, then what is the code for ‘new chairman meeting’?
A. wz ch es
B. ch wz yu
C. yu mo wz
D. fr es wz
E. ch yu fr
Questions: 88 – 92
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
C, D, E, F, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre with equal distance between each other (but not necessarily in the same order). Each one of them is also related to D in some way or the other. P sits third to the right of E. D sits to the immediate left of E. Only one person sits between P and D’s son. R sits to the immediate right of D’s son. Only three people sit between D’s husband and R. Only one person sits between D’s husband and C. F sits to the immediate right of Q. D’s father sits second to the right of F. Only three people sit between D’s father and D’s brother. D’s daughter sits second to the right of S. D’s sister sits third to the right of D’s mother.
Q. 88 Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to the given information?
A. S is the brother of R.
B. Only three people sit between Q and S.
C. E sits third to the right of D’s daughter.
D. All the given options are true.
E. R is an immediate neighbour of D.
Q. 89 Who amongst the following is the brother of D?
A. Q
B. E
C. F
D. C
E. R
Q. 90 As per the given seating arrangement, Q : P in the same way as R : E. Then following the same pattern D : ?
A. R
B. S
C. Q
D. C
E. F
Q. 91 Who sits to the immediately left of D’s son?
A. D’s father
B. R
C. Q
D. S
E. D’s mother
Q. 92 How is Q related to P?
A. Sister
B. Sister-in-law
C. Niece
D. Brother-in-law
E. Aunt
Questions: 93 – 95
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Each of the six buses R, S, T, U, V and W has different number of occupants. T has more number of participants than R and S but less than V. U has less number of occupants than only W. S does not have the lowest number of occupants. The bus having second lowest number of occupants has 20 occupants and the bus having second highest number of occupants has 64 occupants. T has 21 less number of occupants than U.
Q. 93 Which of the following buses has third lowest number of occupants?
A. S
B. T
C. R
D. U
E. V
Q. 94 If the number of occupants of bus R is more than 7 and is an odd number which is divisible by 3 but not 5, how many occupants are there in bus R?
A. 9
B. 21
C. 15
D. 27
E. 19
Q. 95 How many occupants does bus V possibly have?
A. 43
B. 72
C. 52
D. 36
E. 68
Questions: 96 – 100
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Seven people namely M, N, O, P, Q, R and S have an anniversary but not necessarily in the same order, in seven different months (of the same year) namely February, March, April, June, September, October and November. Each of them also likes a different flower namely Rose, Jasmine, Lily, Marigold, Daffodil, Sunflower and Orcngbnmko0hid but not necessarily in the same order. R has an anniversary in the month which has more than 30 days. Only one person has an anniversary between R and the one who likes rose. Both S and O have an anniversary in one of the months after the one who likes Rose. S has an anniversary immediately before O. The one who likes Lily has an anniversary in the month which has less than 30 days. Only three people have an anniversary between the one who likes Lily and the one who likes Orchid. Only two people have an anniversary between S and the one who likes Marigold. P has an anniversary immediately after the one who likes Marigold. Only two people have an anniversary between P and Q. M has an anniversary immediately before the one who likes Jasmine. O does not like Sunflower.
Q. 96 Which of the following represents the month in which S has an anniversary?
A. Cannot be determined
B. October
C. March
D. April
E. September
Q. 97 Which of the following does O like?
A. Rose
B. Jasmine
C. Marigold
D. Daffodil
E. Orchid
Q. 98 As per the given arrangement, Lily is related to April and Marigold is related to September following a certain pattern, which of the following is Orchid related to following the same pattern?
A. February
B. June
C. October
D. November
E. March
Q. 99 Which of the following represents the people who have an anniversary in April and November respectively?
A. N, M
B. Q, M
C. Q, O
D. N, O
E. N, S
Q. 100 How many people have an anniversary between the months in which Q and M have an anniversary?
A. None
B. One
C. Three
D. Two
E. More than three
| Answer Sheet |
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| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | A | D | D | C | D | C | E | C | C | B |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | C | C | E | B | D | B | C | A | B | D |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | A | D | A | E | D | B | E | A | A | D |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | C | B | A | C | D | E | A | E | E | E |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | B | B | B | C | D | B | C | E | C | B |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | A | E | B | D | E | A | D | B | D | E |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | B | A | C | A | E | A | C | D | A | A |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | E | B | A | C | A | A | E | E | C | D |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | B | A | E | B | C | E | B | B | D | C |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | A | E | B | A | C | B | D | D | D | C |