Latest Current Affairs 28 May 2021

NATIONAL NEWS

A) Concerned by ‘intimidation tactics’ and threat to free speech of its users, says Twitter.

Micro-blogging platform Twitter on May 27 said it planned to advocate changes in core elements of India’s new IT Rules that inhibit free and open public conversation, while also expressing concern over intimidation tactics used by the Delhi Police against it recently in the ‘Congress toolkit’ case. A spokesperson said that Twitter was at present concerned by recent events regarding its employees in India and the potential threat to freedom of expression for its users. Twitter India suspends account impersonating CJI N V Ramana. We, alongside many in civil society in India and around the world, have concerns with regards to the use of intimidation tactics by the police in response to enforcement of our global Terms of Service, as well as with core elements of the new IT Rules, the company spokesperson added. According to Twitter, it is particularly concerned about the requirement to make an individual (the compliance officer) criminally liable for content on the platform, the requirements for proactive monitoring, and the blanket authority to seek information about its customers. It believes this represents dangerous overreach that is inconsistent with open and democratic principles. The company has also said that the Ministry of Electronic and IT should publish the Standard Operating Protocols on procedural aspects of compliance for public consultation. We also would like to reaffirm that Twitter continues to accept grievances from users and law enforcement via our existing grievance redressal channel available here under the new Rules, it said. As per Twitter, it was recently served with a non-compliance notice and has withheld a portion of the content identified in the blocking order under its ‘Country Withheld Content’ policy. Twitter maintains that the escalated content constitutes legitimate free speech. However, it has been compelled to withhold in response to a non-compliance notice due to the law’s limited scope under Section 69A, which gives limited room to an intermediary to defend the content. Not doing so poses penal consequences with many risks for Twitter employees.

 

B) Twitter not cooperating, says Delhi police.

Responding to Twitter’s statement, the Delhi Police on Thursday said the micro-blogging website is neither police nor judiciary and that it was refusing to cooperate with the law enforcement agency. Twitter Inc. is purporting to be both an investigating authority as well as an adjudicating judicial authority. It has no legal sanction to be either. The only legal entity, so empowered by the duly laid down law, to investigate is the police and to adjudicate is the Courts, Delhi Police spokesperson said. Terming the statement issued by Twitter mendacious, the police said Twitter was trying to adjudicate the truth. The Delhi Police said the website claims to have material information basis which it not only ‘investigated’ but arrived at a ‘conclusion’ and it must share that information with the law enforcement agency. There should not be any confusion about this logical course, the spokesperson said. The Delhi Police called Twitter’s conduct obfuscatory, diversionary and tendentious, adding that there is one simple thing to do which Twitter refuses to do. That is, cooperate with the law enforcement and reveal to the legal authority the information it has. According to police, they have registered a preliminary inquiry based on a complaint by the representative of the Indian National Congress. Hence, the efforts by Twitter Inc. that portray that this as an FIR filed at the behest of the Government of India is wholly and completely incorrect, the statement read.

 

C) States responsible for vaccine shortfall, claims govt release, but is silent on delay in vaccine procurement.

India’s top Covid-19 adviser Dr. V.K. Paul has said the States had coerced the Centre into expanding the availability of vaccines despite being aware of being inadequately prepared. The Centre has been facing heavy flak lately for falling vaccination rates primarily caused by vaccine shortage when the need of the hour is rapid vaccination of the populations at risk. Dr. Paul, Chairman, National Empowered Group on Vaccine Administration, in a press statement Thursday said that vaccine supply, which was managed by the Centre from January-April, was well administered but wasn’t upto the mark in May. The Centre did all the heavy-lifting, which included funding vaccine manufacturers, accelerating approvals, ramping up production and bringing foreign vaccines to India. The vaccine procured by the Centre is supplied wholly to the States for free administration to people. All this is very much in the knowledge of the States. The Government of India has merely enabled the States to try procuring vaccines on their own, on their explicit requests. The States very well knew the production capacity in the country and what the difficulties are in procuring vaccines directly from abroad, said his note, which was released by the PIB (Press Information Bureau)in the form of a ‘Myths Vs Facts’ questionnaire. States, who had not even achieved good coverage of healthcare workers and frontline workers in three months wanted to open up the process of vaccination and wanted more decentralisation. Health is a state subject and the liberalised vaccine policy was a result of the incessant requests being made by the States to give states more power. The fact that global tenders have not given any results only reaffirm what we have been telling the States from day one: that vaccines are in short supply in the world and it is not easy to procure them at short notice, the note said. The note, however, had no answer to the question, raised by many critics of its vaccination policy, as to why it delayed placing vaccine orders till January 2021, when so many other countries had placed procurement orders by mid-2020 itself. Also, there was no response as to why no foreign vaccines were given emergency use authorization in India until well into 2021.

 

D) Withdraw new rules in Lakshadweep, Rahul urges PM.

Former Congress president Rahul Gandhi has written to Prime Minister Narendra Modi, asking him to intervene and withdraw the new orders and regulations introduced by Lakshadweep Administrator Praful Khoda Patel. In the letter, written on Wednesday and released by the Congress on Thursday, Gandhi alleged that the new regulations and orders threaten the heritage of the archipelago. Lakshadweep’s pristine natural beauty and its unique confluence of cultures have drawn people for generations. The custodians of its heritage seek to safeguard the archipelago for posterity. However, their future is threatened by the anti-people policies announced by the administrator of Lakshadweep, Shri. Praful Khoda Patel, he wrote. The Congress leader said the Administrator had unilaterally proposed sweeping changes without consulting elected representatives or the people of Lakshadweep who were protesting against ‘arbitrary’ actions. The administrator’s attempt to undermine ecological sanctity of the island is evident in the draft Lakshadweep Development Authority Regulation issued recently. The provisions undermine safeguards pertaining to land ownership, dilute environmental regulations for certain activities, and severely limit legal recourse available to affected persons. Livelihood security and sustainable development are being sacrificed for short-term commercial gains, Gandhi said. The Congress leader said that the proposed rule in the draft panchayat regulation to disqualify members with more than two children was blatantly anti-democratic. Furthermore, proposed changes to regulations like Prevention of Anti-Social Activities (PASA) Regulation, the Lakshadweep Animals Preservation Regulation, and lifting of restrictions on sale of alcohol are a deliberate assault on the cultural and religious fabric of the local community. The attempt to cut ties with Beypore port strikes at the close historical and cultural ties with Kerala, added Gandhi who is a Lok Sabha member from Kerala. The Congress leader also said that the administration demolished structures used by the fisher folk, fired contractual workers in various government departments, and relaxed quarantine norms, causing a spike in Covid-19 cases. Arguing that draconian regulations had been brought in to penalise dissent and undermine grassroots democracy in the guise of development and maintaining law and order, Gandhi’s letter to Modi read, I request you to intervene in this matter and ensure that the above mentioned orders are withdrawn. The people of Lakshadweep deserve a developmental vision that respects their way of life and reflects their aspirations. Meanwhile, Lakshdweep BJP Chief Mohammad Kasim has also joined the protests against Patel.

 

F) Tarun Tejpal case: HC directs sessions court to remove anything that reveals identity of woman.

Referring to the Goa court judgment acquitting journalist Tarun Tejpal, the Bombay High Court on Thursday directed the sessions court judge to redact the email ID of the survivor and the name of her husband and mother from the judgment before uploading it on the court website. Solicitor General Tushar Mehta appeared before a single Bench of justice S.C. Gupte through videoconferencing and said the judgment in the case of sexual assault and rape was to be pronounced on May 19 which got postponed to May 21 when it was only revealed that Tejpal was acquitted. The State of Goa immediately filed for an appeal before the High Court challenging the acquittal. He went on to say that the physical copy of the judgment was made available only on May 25. He pointed out the paragraphs in which the email ID of the survivor, the names of her partner, now husband, and her mother had been revealed. He, therefore, urged the High Court to pass a direction to the sessions court to delete all the details that may reveal the identity of the survivor before uploading the judgment on the court website. In its order, the HC said, considering the law against disclosure of identity of victim, the sessions court is directed to redact the email ID of the prosecutrix (victim), her husband and mother’s name. The court said it would adjourn the matter to be heard once vacation was over and regular court started on June 7. Mehta, however, requested the court to hear the matter before that and said, The system expects sensitivity over jurisprudence. We owe it to our girls. The court agreed and posted the matter to be heard on June 2. On May 21, special judge Kshama Joshi at the Mapusa District and Sessions Court, Goa, acquitted Tejpal from all charges of rape by a person in position of control, rape by a person in position of authority, assault with the intent of outraging modesty, assault with intent to disrobe and sexual harassment.

 

G) Seven non-BJP-ruled states seek GST loss compensation.

Seven States ruled by the Congress and other Opposition parties have demanded that the Centre compensate tax losses to the States under the provisions of the Central Goods and Services Tax (GST) Act at the earliest and enhance the additional borrowing limit to 5% of the Gross State Domestic Product. The Finance Ministers of non-BJP-ruled States raised the demands at a virtual meeting hosted by Rajasthan Urban Development and Housing Minister Shanti Dhariwal ahead of the GST Council’s meeting scheduled for May 28. The States also sought waiving of all taxes on the goods purchased for fighting the Covid-19 pandemic. Dhariwal, who represents the Rajasthan government in the GST Council, said on Thursday that the Finance Ministers of all States would remain united on these issues and raise them effectively before Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman at the GST Council’s meeting.

 

H) Revive MPLAD scheme in its true spirit and release funds, Om Birla urged.

Congress leader in the Lok Sabha Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury on Thursday wrote to Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla to restart the Member of Parliament Local Area Development (MPLAD) scheme and make MPLAD funds available to MPs. Chowdhury said it is critical to have access to MPLAD funds because of the second wave of Covid-19 and the devastation caused by the cyclonic storm Yaas that made its landfall in Odisha and impacted neighbouring Bengal. The MP from Bengal said the funds are the only way by which the Members of Parliament can truly come to the aid of their constituents in their hour of grief and extreme need. While the second wave of the pandemic has brought unimaginable miseries, the people of Odisha and West Bengal are on the verge of facing the devastating affects of Yaas. The critical impact the cyclonic storm would have on the intensity of the pandemic in West Bengal and Odisha in particular remains to be seen in the coming days. There is a distinct possibility of a significant increase in the Covid-19 infection rate in the region in the coming days, Chowdhury wrote. He said the funds should be made available without any restrictions so that the amounts are rightly channelled to address the health care needs of the people in these uncertain and extremely sad times.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS

A) U.S.-China engagement era has come to an end: top U.S. official.

The more than three-decade long era of engagement between the United States and China that saw the world’s two largest economies develop closely interdependent relations has come to an end, a top official of the Biden administration has said. The period that was broadly described as engagement has come to an end, Kurt Campbell, who is the Coordinator for Indo Pacific Affairs and the top U.S. official for Asia, said at a Stanford University event. He said competition would henceforth be the dominant paradigm and U.S. policy would work under a new set of strategic parameters, Bloomberg News quoted him as saying. Mr. Campbell’s comments underline the shift in U.S. views on China from the time of the Obama administration as well as the broadly bipartisan consensus on the current direction of relations, following four turbulent years for the relationship under the previous Trump administration. Mr. Campbell said Chinese policies under [President] Xi are in large part responsible for the shift in U.S. policy, Bloomberg News reported, adding that he cited clashes on China’s border with India, an economic campaign against Australia and the rise of China’s wolf warrior’ diplomacy’ as examples that suggested China is determined to play a more assertive role. He de. scribed the Chinese President as deeply ideological but also quite unsentimental and said the two top Chinese diplomats who had held talks with top Biden administration officials in Alaska in March Politburo member Yang Jiechi and Foreign Minister Wang Yi – were nowhere near, within a hundred miles of Mr. Xi’s inner circle. He said the U.S. believed the best way to engage a more assertive China is to work with allies, partners and friends. Reacting to his comments, China’s Foreign Ministry spokesperson Zhao Lijian said on Thursday that using ‘competition’ to define or dominate China-U.S. ties is a total mistake that will only lead to confrontation and conflict. Even if there is competition, it should be sound competition that helps to reinforce each other and pursue common progress, rather than a vicious competition to beat each other. China firmly rejects U.S. moves to exclude and contain China in the name of competition, he added.

B) Macron seeks forgiveness over Rwanda genocide.

French President Emmanuel Macron said he recognised his country’s role in the Rwandan genocide and hoped for forgiveness at a memorial in Kigali on Thursday, seeking to reset relations after years of Rwandan accusations that France was complicit in the 1994 atrocities. Only those who went through that night can perhaps forgive, and in doing so give the gift of forgiveness, Mr. Macron said at the Gisozi genocide memorial, where more than victims are buried. Rows of skulls lie there in a mass tomb and the names of the victims are inscribed on a black wall. I hereby humbly and with respect stand by your side today, I come to recognise the extent of our responsibilities, he said. Rwandan President Paul Kagame welcomed Mr. Macron’s speech, saying at a joint press conference later that his words were more powerful than an apology. Mr. Macron agreed in April to open the Rwanda archives of former President Francois Mitterrand, in office during the genocide. Later, Rwanda released its own report that found France was aware a genocide was being prepared and bore responsibility for enabling it, continuing in its unwavering support for Rwanda’s then President, Juvenal Habyarimana.

Latest Current Affairs 27 May 2021

NATIONAL NEWS

A) As WhatsApp moves court against new IT rules, govt claims they are meant only for tracing messages linked to ‘very serious offences’

WhatsApp has moved the Delhi High Court against India’s new and stricter IT Rules that require instant messaging platforms to aid in identifying the ‘originator’ of messages. The petition challenging the constitutional validity of the rules, which come into force on May 26, was filed on May 25. Requiring messaging apps to ‘trace’ chats is the equivalent of asking us to keep a fingerprint of every single message sent on WhatsApp, which would break end-to-end encryption and fundamentally undermines people’s right to privacy, a WhatsApp spokesperson said. The spokesperson added that the messaging platform had consistently joined civil society and experts around the world in opposing requirements that would violate the privacy of its users. ‘The Information Technology (Guidelines for Intermediaries and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021’ were notified on February 25, giving social media platforms three months to comply. The rules state that intermediary providing messaging services will enable the identification of the first originator of the information on its computer resource following a judicial order passed by a court of competent jurisdiction or an order passed under section 69 by the Competent Authority as per the Information Technology Act. The government, meanwhile, has said it respects the right to privacy and the requirement of tracing origin of flagged messages under the new IT rules is for prevention and investigation of very serious offences related to the sovereignty of India or public order. In a statement, the IT Ministry termed WhatsApp’s last moment challenge to the intermediary guidelines as an unfortunate attempt to prevent norms from coming into effect. The UK, US, Australia, New Zealand and Canada require social media firms to allow for legal interception, it said, adding, What India is asking for is significantly much less than what some of the other countries have demanded. Therefore, WhatsApp’s attempt to portray the Intermediary Guidelines of India as contrary to the right to privacy is misguided, the official statement said.

B) Govt cites national security to deny RTI request on Twitter notice.

The Union government has cited national security concerns to deny a Right to Information request seeking details of last month’s notice sent to Twitter directing it to block certain tweets. It said its notice was empowered by a legal provision allowing information to be blocked if it harmed the country’s sovereignty, defence, foreign affairs or public order. In response to an April 23 notice from the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), Twitter blocked 50-odd tweets on the Modi government’s handling of the Covid-19 pandemic, including tweets by a West Bengal Minister, Congress leaders, and a film maker. Bihar-based RTI activist Kanhaiya Kumar filed an RTI application three days later, asking about the legal provisions under which the tweets were blocked. In its response on Wednesday, the MeitY said that Section 69A of the Information Technology Act, 2009 empowered the government to block information from public access in the interest of the country’s sovereignty, integrity, defence, security, friendly relations with foreign States, public order or for preventing incitement to the commission of any cognisable offence relating to the above. Kumar asked for a copy of the notice sent to Twitter and sought details of the Twitter handles, specific tweets and the total number of posts for which action was sought via the notice sent to Twitter. He sought a copy of all correspondence between Twitter and the government on the matter, a copy of the action taken report submitted by Twitter in response to the notice, and a copy of all file notings related to the issue. He further asked for information on whether a similar notice directing blocking of posts was sent to other social media platforms. The MeitY refused to provide any information in response to these questions, saying that as Section 69A of the IT Act and its matters are related to National Security, sovereignty and integrity, it attracted the provisions of Section 8(1)(a) of the RTI Act. This clause allows for the exemption of information, disclosure of which would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, relation with foreign State or lead to incitement of an offence. The Ministry response comes even as Twitter continues to defy the Centre’s latest notice to remove its manipulated media tag from BJP leaders’ tweets referring an alleged Congress toolkit on the government’s handling of the pandemic.

C) IMA sues Baba Ramdev for Rs.1,000 crore over disparaging remarks on allopathy.

The Indian Medical Association (IMA) has served a defamation notice on Baba Ramdev for making disparaging remarks against allopathy and allopathic doctors, and has demanded an apology from him within 15 days, failing which it said it will demand a compensation of Rs. 1,000 crore from the yoga guru. The six-page notice served on behalf of IMA (Uttarakhand) secretary Ajay Khanna by his lawyer Neeraj Pandey describes the remarks by Ramdev as damaging to the reputation and the image of allopathy and around 2,000 practitioners of it who are part of the association. Terming the remarks of the yoga guru a criminal act under Section of 499 of the Indian Penal Code, the notice demanded a written apology from him within 15 days of its receipt, or else a compensation of Rs. 1,000 crore will be demanded from him at the rate of $50 lakh per member of the IMA. The notice has also asked Ramdev to make a video clip contradicting all his false and defamatory allegations, and circulate it on all the social media platforms where he had uploaded his earlier video clip levelling the allegations. It has also asked the yoga guru to withdraw a misleading advertisement from all platforms endorsing Coronil kit, a product of his firm, as an effective medicine for Covid-19, failing which an FIR and a criminal case will be lodged against him by the IMA.

D) In major lapse, U.P. villagers who got Covishield in first dose vaccinated with Covaxin in second dose.

Twenty villagers in the eastern Uttar Pradesh district of Siddharthnagar were administered Covishield vaccine in their first dose and Covaxin in the second. The incident took place during a vaccination drive in a primary health centre in Barhni block. Ramsurat, a resident of Audahi Kala village, said he received Covishield on April 1. However, he was given a shot of Covaxin for his second dose on May 14. They did not check anything. The ASHA [worker] was standing elsewhere, he told reporters. Ramsurat said he is now afraid of possible side-effects. While 18 persons were from his village, the two others were from another village. A probe is being carried out. Chief Medical Officer Siddharthnagar Sandeep Chaudhary said a clarification was being sought from officials on the ground after a probe was conducted into the lapse. Action would be taken accordingly. It is a lapse because there is no guideline by the government of India that a cocktail [of vaccines] can be administered, the CMO said. While he said the 20 people did not face any problems, he was monitoring the issue.

E) Farmers hold nationwide protests, reiterate demands for repeal of three farm laws.

Nationwide demonstrations were held by farmers who burnt effigies of the Narendra Modi government and raising black flags to mark six months of their sit-in agitation at Delhi’s borders demanding the withdrawal of the three farms laws and the guarantee of Minimum Support Price (MSP). The Samyukta Kisan Morcha (SKM), a coalition of hundreds of farmer unions, had given a call to observe a Black Day on May 26 across the country to mark six months of the farmers’ protest. Twelve Opposition parties had on Sunday issued a statement in support of the call. Led by the All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS) national president Ashok Dhawale, several leaders of the outfit held a Black Flag demonstration and burnt the effigy of the Modi-led Bharatiya Janata Party government in New Delhi. Among others, AIKS general-secretary Hannan Mollah and finance secretary P. Krishan Prasad were also present at the demonstration. Farmers, including women, also held black flags, raised slogans and burnt effigies of the Modi government at the Singhu and Ghazipur borders in Delhi.

F) Ignorant bigots in power destroying Lakshadweep, says Rahul; 8 local BJP leaders resign.

Congress leader Rahul Gandhi on Wednesday threw his weight behind the people of Lakshadweep as he accused ignorant bigots in power of destroying the islands, PTI reported. His statement came a day after the Congress demanded the immediate removal of Lakshadweep administrator Praful Patel, alleging that he was not only destroying the peace and culture of the islands, but also harassing the people by imposing arbitrary restrictions. Lakshadweep is India’s jewel in the ocean. The ignorant bigots in power are destroying it. I stand with the people of Lakshadweep, Rahul Gandhi tweeted on Wednesday. The Congress has also alleged that the Administrator is allowing liquor on the islands, which is prohibited till now, and has brought in the Prevention of Anti-Social Activity (PASA) Act with the objective of harassing locals, besides taking away powers of panchayats, and was carrying out demolitions under new provisions brought in by him. Meanwhile, at least eight office-bearers of the Lakshadweep BJP unit have resigned from the party in protest against Patel’s arbitrary actions. The Lakshadweep unit of the BJP had written to Prime Minster Narendra Modi on April 20, conveying their grievances against Patel.

 

INTERNATIONAL NEWS

A) Los Angeles Mayor may be next U.S. Ambassador to India: report.

U.S. President Joe Biden is reportedly preparing to name Los Angeles Mayor Eric Garcetti as the next Ambassador to India. Mr Garcetti is a long-time political ally of the President. News of his imminent nomination was reported by Axios, which had, earlier in May, reported that Mr. Garcetti was being considered for the New Delhi job. Mr. Garcetti, a co-chair for the Biden campaign, was considered for a Cabinet post, according to Axios, but did not make it due to sexual harassment allegations against his former aide Rick Jacobs came to light. Two-term Mayor Mr. Garcetti is now approaching the end (December 2022) of his second term as Mayor of the country’s second largest city, a post he has held since 2013. The U.S.-India relationship enjoys bipartisan support in the U.S. with ties in trade, defence and the COVID-19 response growing across the Trump and Biden administrations. The two countries have also had to navigate their relationship in the context of growing Chinese assertiveness and aggression. The next U.S. Ambassador to India will inherit these issues as well as having to work with India in other forums such as the Quad. Mr. Biden is expected to send the Senate a number of Ambassadorial nominations next week. 

 

B) Defiant Lukashenko defends plane diversion, blasts critics acted lawfully to protect our people, says Belarus President.

A defiant President Alexander Lukashenko on Wednesday defended Belarus’s diversion of a European flight and arrest of a dissident on board, lashing out at critics at home and abroad. In his first public statement since the Ryanair flight was diverted and Opposition journalist Roman Protasevich arrested on Sunday, Mr. Lukashenko dismissed the international outcry the incident provoked. He acted lawfully to protect our people, Mr. Lukashenko said in an address to Parliament, the Belta state-run news agency reported. The criticism was nothing more than another attempt by his opponents to undermine his rule, he said. Our ill-wishers at home and abroad have changed their methods of attacking the state, Mr. Lukashenko said. They have crossed many red lines and crossed boundaries of common sense and human morality. Mr. Lukashenko often dubbed Europe’s last dictator is facing some of the strongest international pressure of his 26-year rule of ex-Soviet Belarus. The strongman and his allies are already under a series of Western sanctions era brutal crackdown on mass protests that followed his disputed re-election to a sixth term last August. European leaders are now accusing authorities in Minsk of essentially hijacking the passenger flight, and they agreed this week to cut air links with Belarus and told airliners to avoid the country’s airspace. The Belarusian Opposition has called for further and stronger measures, and the UN Security Council was set to meet behind closed doors later on Wednesday. The Athens-to-Vilnius flight was diverted over a supposed bomb scare, with Mr. Lukashenko scrambling a MiG-29 fighter jet to accompany the aircraft. Belarus has released a transcript of communications between Minsk air traffic control and the Ryanair flight, in which the crew was told you have a bomb on board and urged to land in Minsk. Mr. Lukashenko denied that the fighter jet had forced the airliner to land, calling such claims an absolute lie.

Science 10th Previous Year Question Paper 2015 (CBSE)

SCIENCE

SET I

Section – A

Q. 1. Write title number of covalent bonds in the molecule of ethane.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-1

 

Q. 2. Name the life process of an organism that helps in the growth of its population.

Answer. Reproduction is the process that helps in the growth of population of an organism.

 

Q. 3. What will be the amount of energy available to the organisms of the 2nd trophic level of a food chain, if the energy available at the first trophic level is 10,000 joules?

Answer. According to 10% law, only 10% of energy entering a particular trophic level of organisms is available for transfer to the next higher trophic level.

If energy in the 1st trophic level is 10000 J.

Then, energy in 2nd trophic level = 10% of 10000 J = 10/100 x 10000 J = 1000 Joules

 

Q. 4. The absolute refractive indices of glass and water are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. If the speed of light is 2 x 108 m/s, calculate the speed of light in (i) vacuum, (ii) water.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-2

 

Q. 5. List -two main causes of the pollution of water of the river Ganga. State how pollution and contamination of river water prove harmful for the health of the people of neighbouring areas.

Answer. Two main cause of the pollution of water of the river Ganga :

(i) Disposal of industrial effluents into tire river.

(ii) Human activities like bathing, washing, immersion of ashes; etc.

Pollution and contamination of river wafer has led to various harmful effects on health of people in neighbouring areas who use river water for domestic or drinking purposes. It has led to various types of water borne diseases such as typhoid or cholera. Also human and industrial activities have lead to contamination of marine life which can be hazardous for consumption.

 

Q. 6. What is biodiversity? What will happen if biodiversity of an area is not preserved? Mention one effect of it.

Answer. Biodiversity is the diversity of life in an area. It is the number and range of variety of species of life forms in an area.

The loss of biodiversity of an area will lead to the loss of ecological stability of the eco- system. It can result in environment disasters such as floods, forest fires, etc.

 

Q. 7. List two tests for experimentally distinguishing between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid and describe how these tests are performed.

Answer. Test-1—Litmus Test. Take 2 strips of blue litmus paper. Place a drop each of alcohol and carboxylic acid on these strips separately. The blue litmus paper turns red in the case of carboxylic acid and remains unaffected in the case of alcohol.

Test-2—Sodium hydrogen carbonate Test /Sodium carbonate Test. A pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate or sodium carbonate is added to both alcohol and a carboxylic acid separately. If brisk effervescence with the evolution of a colourless gas is observed, it ! indicates the presence of carboxylic acid whereas no effervescence is seen in case of an alcohol.

 

Q. 8. Draw the electron-dot structure for ethyne. A mixture of ethyne and oxygen is burnt for welding. In your opinion, why cannot we use a mixture of ethyne and air for this purpose?

Answer. In pure oxygen, ethyne undergoes complete combustion and high temperature suitable for welding is attained. Whereas air contains less percentage/amount of oxygen which results in incomplete combustion of ethyne and the temperature required for the welding is not attained. Hence we cannot use a mixture of ethyne and air for this purpose.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-3

 

Q. 9. Two elements ‘P’ and ‘Q’ belong to the same period of the modern periodic table and are in Group-1 and Group-2 respectively. Compare their following characteristics in tabular form:

(a) The number of electrons in their atoms

(b) The sizes of their atoms

(c) Their metallic characters

(d) Their tendencies to lose electrons

(e) The formula of their oxides

(f) The formula of their chlorides

Answer.

Characteristics P Q
(a) No. of electrons in their atoms Less than Q31119 More than P41220  (any one pair)
(b) Size of the atom Bigger Smaller
(c) Metallic character More metallic Less metallic
(d) Tendency to lose electrons More Less
(e) Formula of their oxides P2O QO
(f) Formula of their chlorides PCl QCl2

 

Q. 10. Taking the example of an element of atomic number 16, explain how the electronic configuration of the atom of an element relates to its position in the modern periodic table and how valency of an element is calculated on the basis of its atomic number.

Answer. Atomic number of the element = 16 Electronic configuration = K L M = 2, 8, 6

Since this element has 3 shells, the period number will be 3 as period number is equal to the number of shells that start filling up in it.

No. of valence electrons = 6

The group number will be 10 + 6 = 16

The valency of an element is determined by the number of valence electrons present in the outermost shell.

Valency of the element will be = 8 – valence electrons = 8-6 = 2

 

Q. 11. List six specific characteristics of sexual reproduction.

Answer. Characteristics of sexual reproduction are:

  1. In sexual reproduction, two parents are involved (male and female).
  2. The new organism produced is genetically different from both parents.
  3. During gamete formation meiosis occurs. After fertilisation all divisions are mitotic.
  4. Sexual reproduction helps in evolution.
  5. Fertilisation of gametes leads to zygote formation. This zygote grows and develops to form a new organism.
  6. Humans, fish, dogs, hens, cats, cows, horses, deer, rabbit, lions and tigers all reproduce by the method of sexual reproduction. Most of the flowering plants also reproduce by sexual reproduction.

 

Q. 12. What are chromosomes? Explain how in sexually reproducing organisms the number of chromosomes in the progeny is maintained.

Answer. Chromosomes are thread-like structures made up of DNA and proteins. They are found in the nucleus at the time of cell division.

During gamete formation meiosis occurs and the original number of chromosomes becomes half. Hence, when two gametes combine the zygote formed contains the full set of chromosomes and the original number of chromosomes gets restored in the progeny.

 

Q. 13. List four points of significance of reproductive health in a society. Name any two areas related to reproductive health which have improved over the past 50 years in our country.

Answer. The significance of reproductive health of society are:

  1. Regular medication and check-ups have led to development of reproductive health.Healthy mothers give birth to healthy children.
  2. Reproductive health should be maintained in order to prevent sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
  3. Family planning by using various contraceptives enables a couple to decide on the number of children they want to have and when to have them. If a couple has less number of children they can provide good food, clothes and education to each child. So a small family is a happy family.
  4.  Having fewer children also keeps the mother in good health. This will reduce the cases of maternal mortality as well as new born mortality.

Areas which have improved:

  1. Better family planning has led to reduction in family size and better economic stability.
  2. Decrease in STD cases due to more awareness and wider use of contraceptives.

 

Q. 14. Explain with an example for each, how the following provides evidences in favour of evolution in organisms: (a) Homologous organs (b) Analogous organs (c) Fossils

Answer.

(a) Homologous organs : Homologous organs are defined as the organs of different animals that are having a similar structure but differ in their functions. The structure of the two different animals resemble but the functions of their organs vary.

(b) Analogous organs : Analogous organs are defined as the organs of different animals that are having different structure but perform the same functions.

(c) Fossils : Fossils are the preserved remains, or traces of remains, of ancient organisms. Fossils are not the remains of the organism itself! They are rocks.

 

Q. 15. Explain the following:

(a) Speciation (b) Natural Selection

Answer. 

(a) Speciation : Speciation is a process within evolution that leads to the formation of new, distinct species that are reproductively isolated from one another.

Anagenesis, or ‘phyletic evolution’, occurs when evolution acts to create new species, which are distinct from their ancestors, along a single lineage, through gradual changes in physical or genetic traits. In this instance, there is no split in the phylogenetic tree. Conversely, ‘speciation’ or cladogenesis arises from a splitting event, where a parent species is split into two distinct species, often as the result of geographic isolation or another driving force involving the separation of populations.

(b) Natural Selection : Natural selection can be defined as the process through which species adapt to their environment in order to survive. Natural selection occurs when traits that predispose organisms to survive in an environment are passed from parents to their offspring.

  • Organisms that are unable to adapt to changes in the environment are unlikely to survive or reproduce.
  • Those that can adapt are much more likely not just to survive, but also to thrive and reproduce.
  • As offspring are born, they will have the advantageous genetic traits passed on from their parents.
  • As a result, the species will change over time.
  • Why? Because offspring will develop traits or characteristics that predispose them to do well in their natural environment.

 

Q. 16. If the image formed by a mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always erect and diminished, what type of mirror is it? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. Where and why do we generally use this type of mirror?

Answer. Convex mirror always forms an erect, virtual and diminished image for all positions of the object placed in front of it.

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Uses:

1. Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles to see the traffic at the rear side (or back side) because —

              (i) a convex mirror always produces an erect image of the object;

              (ii) the image formed in a convex mirror is highly diminished due to which a convex mirror gives a wide field of view.

2. Big convex mirrors are used as ‘shop security mirrors’. By installing a big convex mirror at a strategic point in the shop, the shop owner can keep an eye on the customer to look for thieves and shoplifters among them as convex mirrors always form a virtual, diminished and erect image.

 

Q. 17. What is meant by scattering of light? Use this phenomenon to explain why the clear sky appears blue or the sun appears reddish at sunrise.

Answer. Scattering of light is the phenomenon to throw light in various random directions. Light is scattered when it falls on various types of suspended particles in its path. The colour of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particles in the atmosphere.

— The larger particles of dust and water droplets present in the atmosphere scatter the light of longer wavelengths due to which the scattered light appears white.

— The extremely minute particles such as air molecules present in the atmosphere scatter mainly blue light present in the white sunlight.

Colour of the sky appears blue. The molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere have a size smaller than the wavelength of visible light. So these particles scatter more effectively the light rays of shorter wavelength at the blue end than light of longer wavelength at the red end. When the scattered blue light enters our eyes, it gives us the feeling of a blue sky.

Colour of the sun appears red at sunrise and sunset. The sun at sunrise and sunset is very near to the horizon, and near the horizon most of the blue light of shorter wave-lengths is scattered away by the particles in the atmosphere. Therefore, the light that reaches our eyes is of longer wavelengths that gives rise to the reddish appearance of the sun.

 

Q. 18. Differentiate between biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances with the help of one example each. List two changes in habit that people must adopt to dispose non- biodegradable waste, for saving the environment.

Answer. Difference between biodegradable substances and non-biodegradable substances. See Q. 2, 2011 (II Outside Delhi).

Habits for disposing non-biodegradable waste:

  1. Disposal of wastes after separating them into biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes in separate dustbins and treating wastes properly before dumping in landfills.
  2. Encourage the use of gunny bags, jute bags and paper bags in place of polythene/ plastic bags.
  3. Recycle the plastic and glass objects after use.

 

Q. 19. Both soap and detergent are some type of salts. What is the difference between them? Describe in brief the cleansing action of soap. Why do soaps not form lather in hard water? List two problems that arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps

Answer.

A soap is the sodium or potassium salt of a long chain carboxylic acid.

Example : C17H35 COO Na+              Sodium stearate

                   C15H31 COO Na+              Sodium palmitate

A detergent is ammonium or sulphonate salt of a long chain carboxylic acid.

Example : CH3 – (CH2)11 – C6H4 – SO3 Na+

                    CH3 – (CH2)10 – CH2 – SO4 Na+

Cleansing Action of Soaps :Most of the dirt is oily in nature and oil does not dissolve in water. The molecule of soap constitutes sodium or potassium salts of long-chain carboxylic acids. In the case of soaps, the carbon chain dissolves in oil and the ionic end dissolves in water. Thus, the soap molecules form structures called micelles. In micelles, one end is towards the oil droplet and the other end which is the ionic faces outside. Therefore, it forms an emulsion in water and helps in dissolving the dirt when we wash our clothes.

Soap is a kind of molecule in which both the ends have different properties.

  • Hydrophilic end
  • Hydrophobic end

The first one is the hydrophilic end which dissolves water and is attracted to it whereas the second one is the hydrophobic end that is dissolved in hydrocarbons and is water repulsive in nature. If on the surface of the water, soap is present then the hydrophobic tail which is not soluble in water will align along the water surface.

Soaps don’t form lather in hard water

Soap is sodium or potassium salt of certain long chain fatty acids such as stearic acid, palmitic acid, oleic acid etc. When hard water is treated with soap solution, Ca2+and Mg2+ ions present in hard water react with the anions of fatty acids present in the soap to form a scum (curdy white precipitate).

Ca2+(aq) + 2C17H35COO(aq)   →  (C17H35COO)2 Ca ↓

Mg2+(aq) + 2C17H35COO(aq)   →  (C17H35COO)2 Mg ↓

Soap will not produce a lather with hard water until all the calcium and magnesium ions have been precipitated as stearates. Hard water thus wastes soap.

Problems that arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps:

  1. Detergents are non-biodegradable, i.e., they cannot be decomposed organisms and hence cause water pollution in lakes and rivers.
  2. Detergents can also cause skin problems.

 

Q. 20. (a) Name the human male reproductive organ that produces sperms and also secretes a hormone. Write the functions of the secreted hormone.

(b) Name the parts of the human female reproductive system where

(i) fertilisation takes place,

(ii) implantation of the fertilised egg occurs.

Explain how the embryo gets nourishment inside the mother’s -body.

Answer. (a) Testis produces sperms and secretes male hormone—testosterone.

Function of testosterone hormone is to control the development of male sex organs and male features such as deeper voice, moustaches, body hair, etc. All these changes caused by testosterone are associated with male puberty which the boys attains at an age of 13 to 14 years. It also controls the formation of male gamete, i.e., sperm.

(b) (i) Fertilisation takes place in fallopian tube (oviduct).

(ii) Implantation of the fertilised egg occurs in the uterus.

Nourishment of embryo. After fertilisation, zygote is formed which develops into an embryo. The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta. This is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue. On the mother’s side are blood spaces, which surround the villi. This provides a large surface area for glucose and oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo. In this way, embryo gets its nutrition.

 

Q. 21. How do Mendel’s experiments show that the

(a) traits may be dominant or recessive,

(b) traits are inherited independently?

Answer. Mendel’s experiments show that the

(a) Traits may be dominant or recessive. When Mendel cross-bred plants of two different traits of character, a tall pea plant (TT) and a dwarf pea plant (tt) to get a progeny ( F1 generation), all F1 plants were tall. Only the dominant trait was visible in this generation. But when plants of F1 generation were self bred then the two traits of character got separated in the plants of F2 generation. All plants obtained in the F2 generation were not tall. One-fourth of the F2 plants were short.

Appearance of tall characters in both the F1 and F2 generations shows that it is a dominant character. Whereas the absence of dwarf character in F1 generation and its reappearance in F2 generation shows dwarfness is the recessive character.

(b) Traits are inherited independently. Mendel cross-bred pea plants showing two different characteristics, rather than just one. When he cross-bred pea plants of round green seeds with wrinkled yellow seeds, he got F1 generation with all such seeds which were Gametes yellow and round. So, it was concluded that round and yellow character of seeds were dominant traits in the pea plant. On selfing of F1 progeny, different types of F2 progeny were obtained.

So traits of two different characters were inherited independent of each other and made new combination characteristics independent of their previous combinations.

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Q. 22. What is meant by power of a lens? Define its S.I. unit. You have two lenses A and B of focal lengths +10 cm and 10 cm respectively. State the nature and power of each lens.Which of the two lenses will form a virtual and magnified image of an object placed 8 cm from the lens? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer.

Answer.

Power of the lens is known as the inverse of the focal length of the lens measured in meter(m).

S.I unit of power = Dioptre (D)

Power of lense = 1/ focal length in meter.

The lense used is a convex lens because the focal length is a positive value.

Lens A: FA = +10 cm = +10/100 = 0.1 m

    PA = 1/FA = 1/+0.1 = +10 D

The power of a convex lens is positive therefore, lens A is a convex lens.

Lens B: FB = -10 cm = -10/100 = 0.1 m

    PB = 1/FB = 1/-0.1 = -10 D

The power of a concave lens is negative therefore, lens B is a concave lens.

When an object is placed at 8 cm (i.e., between the optical centre and principal focus) only convex lens will form the virtual and magnified image.

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Therefore, lens A will form a virtual and magnified image of the object placed 8 cm from it. When the object is placed between the optical centre and the focus: (i.e., between O and F) the image formed is behind the object (on the same side), virtual, erect and magnified.

 

Q. 23. One half of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm is covered with a black paper. Can such a lens produce an image of a complete object placed at a distance of 30 cm from the lens? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer.

A 4 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 15 cm. Find nature, position and size of the image.

Answer. (i) Yes. If a convex lens of focal length 10 cm is covered one half with a black paper, it can produce an image of the complete object between F2 and 2F2. The rays of light coming from the object get refracted by the upper half of the lens. The image formed will be real, inverted and diminished.

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Q. 24. Write the importance of ciliary muscles in the human eye. Name the defect of vision that arises due to gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles in old age. What type of lenses are required by the persons suffering from this defect to see the objects clearly? Akshay, sitting in the last row in his class, could not see clearly the words written on the blackboard. When the teacher noticed it, he announced if any student sitting in the front row could volunteer to exchange his seat with Akshay. Salman immediately agreed to exchange his seat with Akshay. He could now see the words written on the blackboard clearly. The teacher thought it fit to send the message to Akshay’s parents advising them to get his eyesight checked.

In the context of the above event, answer the following questions:

(a) Which defect of vision is Akshay suffering from? Which type of lens is used to correct this defect?

(b) State the values displayed by the teacher and Salman.

(c) In your opinion, in what way can Akshay express his gratitude towards the teacher and Salman?

Answer. Importance of ciliary muscles. The focal length of eye lens can be changed by changing its shape by the action of ciliary muscles. Ciliary muscles modify the curvature of the eye lens to enable the eye to focus objects at varying distances.

In old age, ciliary muscles become weak and the eye lens become inflexible. As a result, the eye loses its power of accommodation. Because of this, an old person cannot see the nearby objects clearly. This leads to the defect called presbyopia.

Bifocal lenses are required by the persons suffering from presbyopia in which upper part consists of a concave lens for distant vision and the lower part consists of a convex lens used to see nearby objects.

(a) Akshay is suffering from myopia or near sightedness. Myopia is corrected by using spectacles containing concave lenses. The concave lens used for correcting myopia should be of such a focal length that it produces a virtual image of the distant object (lying at infinity) at the far point of the myopic eye.

(b) • The teacher is concerned about the health of the student.

• Salman is very helpful and caring.

(c) Akshay should express his gratitude towards his teacher as well as his friend Salman by getting his eyesight checked and by also following their values in his own life.

SECTION B

Q. 25. What do we observe on pouring acetic acid on red and blue litmus papers?

(A) Red litmus remains red and blue litmus turns red.

(B) Red litmus turns blue and blue litmus remains blue.

(C) Red litmus turns blue and blue litmus turns red.

(D) Red litmus becomes colourless and blue litmus remains blue.

Answer. (A)

 

Q. 26. While preparing soap a small quantity of common salt is generally added to the reaction mixture of vegetable oil and sodium hydroxide. Which one of the following may be the purpose of adding common salt?

(A) To reduce the basic nature of the soap

(B) To make the soap neutral

(C) To enhance the cleansing power of the soap

(D) To favour the precipitation of the soap

Answer. (D)

 

Q. 27. A student takes about 4 mL of distilled water in four test tubes marked P, Q, R and S. He then dissolves in each test tube an equal amount of one salt in one test tube, namely sodium sulphate in P, potassium sulphate in Q, calcium sulphate in R and magnesium sulphate in S. After that he adds an equal amount of soap solution in each test tube. On shaking each of these test tubes well, he observes a good amount of lather (foam) in the test tubes marked

(A) P and Q (B) Q and R (C) P, Q and S (D) P, R and S

Answer. (A)

 

Q. 28. A student was asked to observe and identify the various parts of an embryo of a red kidney bean seed. He identified the parts and listed them as under:

I. Tegtnen II. Testa III. Cotyledon IV. Radicle V. Plumule

The correctly identified parts among these are:

(A) I, II and III (B) II, III and IV (C) III, IV and V (D) I, III, IV and V

Answer. (C)

 

Q. 29. Given below is the list of vegetables available in the market. Select from these the two vegetables having homologous structures: Potato, sweet potato, ginger, radish, tomato, carrot, okra (Lady’s finger)

(A) Potato and sweet potato (B) Radish and carrot

(C) Okra and sweet potato (D) Potato and tomato

Answer. (B)

 

Q. 30. A student obtains a sharp image of the distant window (W) of the school laboratory on the screen (S) using the given concave mirror (M) to determine its focal length. Which of the following distances should he measure to get the focal length of the mirror?

(A) MW (B) MS

(C) SW (D) MW-MS

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Answer. (B)

 

Q. 31. A student used a device (X) to obtain/focus the image of a well illuminated distant building on a screen (S) as shown below in the diagram. Select the correct statement about the device (X).

(A) This device is a concave lens of focal length 8 cm.

(B) This device is a convex mirror of focal length 8 cm.

(C) This device is a convex lens of focal length 4 cm.

(D) This device is a convex lens of focal length 8 cm.

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Answer. (D)

 

Q. 32. A student traces the path of a ray of light through a rectangular glass slab for the different values of angle of incidence. He observes all possible precautions at each step of the experiment. At the end of the experiment, on analysing the measurements, which of the following conclusions is he likely to draw?

(A) ∠z = ∠e < ∠r (B) ∠z < ∠e < ∠r (C) ∠z > ∠e > ∠r (D)∠z = ∠e > ∠r

Answer. (D)

 

Q. 33. A student traces the path of a ray of light through a triangular glass prism for different values of angle of incidence. On analyzing the ray diagrams, which one of the following conclusions is he likely to draw?

(A) The emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray.

(B) The emergent ray bends at an angle to the direction of the incident ray.

(C) The emergent ray and the refracted ray are at right angles to each other.

(D) The emergent ray is perpendicular to the incident ray.

Answer. (B)

 

Q. 34. When you add sodium hydrogen carbonate to acetic acid in a test tube, a gas liberates immediately with a brisk effervescence. Name this gas. Describe the method of testing this gas.

Answer. When sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to acetic acid in a test tube, then a brisk effervescence is observed due to the liberation of CO2 gas which is colourless and odourless.

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Q. 35. Students were asked to observe the permanent slides showing different stages of budding in yeast under high power of a microscope.

(a) Which adjustment screw (coarse/fine) were you asked to move to focus the slides ?

(b) Draw three diagrams in correct sequence showing budding in yeast.

Answer. (a) A fine adjustment screw is moved to focus the slides.

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Q. 36. A 4 cm tall object is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens. The distance of the object from the optical centre of the lens is 12 cm and its sharp image is formed at a distance of 24 cm from it on a screen on the other side of the lens. If the object is now moved a little away from the lens, in which way (towards the lens or away from the lens) will he have to move the screen to get a sharp image of the object on it again? How will the magnification of the image be affected?

Answer. (a) The screen should be moved towards the lens to get a sharp image of the object again. (b) Magnification of the image decreases on moving the object away from the lens.

SET II

SECTION A

Q. 1. Write the number of covalent bonds in the molecule of propane, C3H8.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-19

Q. 2. Where is DNA found in a cell?

Answer. DNA is found in the nucleus of the cell.

 

Q. 3. The first trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant. Why?

Answer. The first trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant because green plants have a mechanism for trapping solar energy with the help of their green pigment called chlorophyll and convert it into chemical energy which is stored as carbohydrates in the plant for the use of the next tropic level.

 

Q. 5. We often observe domestic waste decomposing in the by lanes of our homes. List four ways to make the residents aware that the improper disposal of wastes is harmful to the environment and also for their own health.

Answer. The various ways to make residents aware of the harmful effects of improper disposal of wastes are as follows:

  1. By putting posters and hoardings.
  2. By distributing pamphlets to the residents.
  3. By conducting meetings of residents, welfare society, etc.
  4. By advertisements through TV/radio/cable operators, etc.
    Through all these mediums we can make the residents aware of how such waste serves as a breeding ground for mosquitoes, releases harmful gases, reduces soil fertility, etc.

 

Q. 6. List any two advantages associated with water stored in the ground.

Answer. Advantages of underground water:

  1. The water stored in the ground does not evaporate.
  2. The water stored in the ground does not promote breeding of mosquitoes.

 

Q. 7. What is meant by homologous series of carbon compounds? Classify the following carbon compounds into two homologous series and name them.

C3H4 C4H6, C4H8, C5H8, C5H10

Answer. A homologous series is a group of organic compounds having similar structure and similar chemical properties in which the successive compounds differ by CH2 group.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-20

 

Q. 9. The elements 4Be, 12Mg and 20Ca, each having two valence electrons in their valence shells, are in periods 2, 3 and 4 respectively of the modern periodic table. Answer the following questions associated with these elements, giving reason in each case:

(a) In which group should they be?

(b) Which one of them is least reactive?

(c) Which one of them has the largest atomic size?

Answer.

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(a) They all belong to 2nd group of the periodic table as all the elements have two valence electrons in their valence shell.

(b) Be is least reactive as it contains the least number of shells (i.e., 2). The tendency of an atom to lose electrons on moving down in a group increases as valence electrons move more and more away from the nucleus and nuclear charge on valence electrons decreases.

(c) Ca has the largest atomic size as it has the maximum number of shells.

 

Q. 11. List three distinguishing features between sexual and asexual types of reproduction, in tabular form.

Answer.  Difference between Sexual and Asexual types of reproductions

Sexual Reproduction Asexual Reproduction
Two parents are involved One parent is involved
Characteristics of both parents are inherited Characteristics of only one parent are inherited
It requires the formation of gametes It doesn’t require the formation of gametes
Special organs for reproduction are required. Special organs for reproduction are not required
Examples – Mangoes, coconut, Hibiscus etc. Examples – Potato, Jasmine, Rose, Yeast, Bryophyllum etc

 

Q. 14. A pea plant with blue colour flower denoted by BB is crossbred with a pea plant with white flower denoted by ww.

(a) What is the expected colour of the flowers in their F4 progeny?

(b) What will be the percentage of plants bearing white flower in F2 generation, when the flowers of F4 plants were selfed?

(c) State the expected ratio of the genotype BB and Bw in the F2 progeny.

Answer.

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Q. 18. What is an ecosystem? List its two main components. We do not clean natural ponds or lakes but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Why is it so? Explain.

Answer. An ecosystem is a self-contained unit of living things (plants, animals and decomposers) and their non-living environment (soil, air and water). An ecosystem needs only the input of sunlight energy for its functioning.

Ecosystem is made up of two main components:

(i) Abiotic component meaning non-living component.

(ii) Biotic component meaning living component.

An aquarium is an artificial ecosystem. It needs to be cleaned regularly because it has – stagnant water and no decomposers. Therefore the dead parts and excrete of the organisms of the aquarium are not decomposed and would never be returned to their original pool. The accumulation of these wastes can be dangerous for the living organisms in the aquarium.

 

Q. 19. What are fossils? How are they formed? Described in brief two methods of determining the age of fossils. State any one role of fossils in the study of the process of evolution.

Answer. 

Fossils : fossils are the remains of organisms found in the earth’s strata (rock layers). These organisms have, in some way, been protected from the bacterial action that degrades carbon-based organisms.

Fossils are created through sudden disruptions, like earthquakes. They can also be formed through steadier processes, like exposure to the (extreme) elements.

In most cases, the environment plays a direct role, as a preservative, in whether an organism will become a fossil.

The ideal environment is silty, with moving sediment that can cover the organism. The floors of oceans, lakes, and deep ponds are prime spots for fossilization.

Imagine a sick dinosaur pulling itself to a lake for a drink. It dies. The body falls in and sinks to the bottom. The lake’s motion deposits mud and sand on the animal.

Over time, the soft tissues dissolve, and the mineral-rich sediment fills the gaps. Years pass and the minerals harden around the bones, creating a petrified structure we’ve come to know as fossils.

  • The age of the fossils can be determined by the following way:

1. Radiometric dating :In this method, the age of the fossil can be determined by tracing the radioactive elements present in the rocks and examining it chemically.

2. Relative dating :The fossils are found in the sedimentary rocks in the form of layers accumulated over large span of time. So, using this fact, the geologist find the age of fossils in the way that the fossil found at the bottom of those layers are found to be older than that found above those.

3. Fossils have a significant role in evolution as they help in creating evolutionary relationships with the earlier organisms and the present day organisms.

 

SET III

Q. 1. Write the number of covalent bonds in the molecule of butane, C4H10.

Answer.

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Q. 2. Name two simple organisms having the ability of regeneration.

Answer. Two simple organisms having the ability of regeneration are Planaria and Hydra.

 

Q. 3. Which of the following are always at the second trophic level of food chains? Carnivores, Auto trophs, Herbivores

Answer. Herbivores are always at the second trophic level of food chains.

 

Q. 4. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray corresponding to an incident ray of light parallel to the principal axis of a convex mirror and show the angle of incidence and angle of reflection on it.

Answer. 

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Q. 5. Why is sustainable management of natural resources necessary? Out of the two reuse and recycle which, in your opinion, is better to practise? Give reason.

Answer. Sustainable management is management that encourages the judicious use of natural resources to meet the current basic human needs while preserving the resources for the needs of future generations.

Reuse is a better practise than recycle as recyling requires a large amount of energy and money. In this strategy, we are encouraged to use things again and again instead of throwing them away with no expense of energy. Reuse also does not cause pollution. Example, plastic bottles of jams and pickles can be reused for storing things in the kitchen.

 

Q. 7. Write the name and general formula of a chain of hydrocarbons in which an addition reaction with hydrogen is possible. State the essential condition for an addition reaction. Stating this condition, write a chemical equation giving the name of the reactant and the product of the reaction.

Answer. Addition of hydrogen is possible in Alkenes CnH2n and Alkynes CnH2n-2

  • Addition reaction of unsaturated hydrocarbons occurs in the presence of catalysts such as nickel (Ni) or palladium (Pd) or platinum (Pt) to form saturated hydrocarbons.
  • Example, Ethene reacts with hydrogen when heated in the presence of nickel catalyst to form ethane.
    cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-24

 

Q. 9. Given below are some elements of the modern periodic table. Atomic number of the element is given in the parentheses: A(4), B(9), C(14), D(19), E(20)

(a) Select the element that has one electron in the outermost shell. Also write the electronic configuration of this element.

(b) Which two elements amongst these belong to the same group? Give reason for your answer.

(c) Which two elements amongst these belong to the same period? Which one of the two has bigger atomic radius?

Answer.

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(a) D has 1 electron in the-outermost shell. Atomic no. = 19, Elec. Configuration = 2, 8, 8,1

(b) A and E belong to the same group, i.e., 2nd group of the periodic table as both have same number of valence electrons (i.e., 2) in their outermost shell.

(c) A & B and D &’E belong to the same period as they have the same no. of valence shells. A and B have 2 shells thus belong to 2nd period of the periodic table.

D and E have 4 shells thus belong to 4th period of the periodic table.

A has the bigger atomic radius among A and B and D has the bigger atomic radius among D and E as atomic size decreases on moving from left to right in a period (or atomic size decreases as the atomic number increases in a period).

 

Q. 12. List four categories of contraceptive methods. State in brief two advantages of adopting such preventive methods.

Answer.  The contraceptive methods can be broadly classified into the following categories:

1. Natural method: It involves avoiding the chances of meeting of sperms and ovum. In this method, the sexual act is avoided from day 10th to 17th of the menstrual cycle because, during this period, ovulation is expected and therefore, the chances of fertilization are very high.

2. Barrier method: In this method, the fertilization of ovum and sperm is prevented with the help of barriers. Barriers are available for both males and females. Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber that are used to cover penis in males and vagina in females.

3. Oral contraceptives: In this method, tablets or drugs are taken orally. These contain small doses of hormones that prevent the release of eggs and thus fertilization cannot occur.

4. Implants and surgical methods: Contraceptive devices such as the loop or Copper-T are placed in the uterus to prevent pregnancy. Some surgical methods can also be used to block the gamete transfer. It includes the blocking of vas deferens to prevent the transfer of sperms known as vasectomy. Similarly, fallopian tubes of the female can be blocked so that the egg will not reach the uterus known as tubectomy.

Advantages of adopting such preventive methods:

  1. Contraceptive methods are used to prevent the spread of sexually transmitted diseases like syphilis, AIDS, etc.
  2. Contraceptives prevent unwanted and frequent pregnancies. If a couple has less number of children, they can provide good clothes, good food and a good education to each child. This will make the parents as well as children happy.

 

Q. 17. An object of height 5 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave lens of focal length 10 cm. If the distance of the object from the optical centre is 20 cm, determine the position, nature and size of the image formed using the lens formula.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2015-26

CDS(I) Exam 2019 General Knowledge Previous Year Paper

CDS(I) Exam 2019 

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

प्रश्न 1. हेनरी टी० कोलब्रुक निम्नलिखित में से किस संस्थान में संस्कृत के प्रोफेसर थे? 

(a) फोर्ट विलियम कॉलेज 

(b) श्रीरामपुर मिशन 

(c) काशी विद्यापीठ

(d) एशियाटिक सोसाइटि

 

प्रश्न 2. दक्कन कृषक राहत अधिनियम, 1879 को निम्नलिखित में से किस उद्देश्य के साथ अधिनियमित किया गया था? 

(a) बेदखल किए गए खेतिहरों को ज़मीन वापस लौटाना 

(b) सामाजिक एवं धार्मिक अवसरों पर किसानों को वित्तीय सहायता सुनिश्चित करना

(c) ऋणग्रस्तता वाली ज़मीन की बिक्री, बाहरी व्यक्तियों को किए जाने पर प्रतिबंध लगाना 

(d) दिवालिया खेतिहरों को कानूनी सहायता प्रदान करना

 

प्रश्न 3. ब्रिटिश सरकार द्वारा दामिन-इ-कोह का निर्माण निम्नलिखित में से किस समुदाय को बसाने के लिए किया गया था? 

(a) संथाल 

(b) मुंडा 

(c) ओरोंस (उराँव) 

(d) सोरा (साओरा)

 

प्रश्न 4. परिसीमा कानून, जो ब्रिटिश द्वारा 1859 में पारित किया गया था, निम्नलिखित में से किस विषय को संबोधित करता है? 

(a) ऋण अनुबंध-पत्रों की कोई कानूनी वैधता नहीं होगी। 

(b) साहूकार और रैयत (किसानों) के मध्य हस्ताक्षरित ऋण अनुबंध-पत्रों की वैधता केवल तीन वर्ष के लिए होगी। 

(c) भूमि अनुबंध-पत्र साहूकारों द्वारा निष्पादित नहीं किए जा सकेंगे। 

(d) ऋण अनुबंध-पत्रों की वैधता दस वर्षों के लिए होगी।

 

प्रश्न 5. 1857 के विद्रोह के दिनों में इनमें से किसे ‘डंका शाह’ के नाम से जाना जाता था? 

(a) शाह मल 

(b) मौलवी अहमदुल्लाह शाह 

(c) नाना साहिब 

(d) तात्या टोपे 

 

प्रश्न 6. 1856 का सारांश (समरि) समझौता निम्नलिखित में से किस पूर्वधारणा पर आधारित है? 

(a) ताल्लुकेदार भूमि के वैध स्वामी थे। 

(b) ताल्लुकेदार दस्तंदाज थे, जिनका भूमि में कोई स्थायी पण नहीं था। 

(c) ताल्लुकेदार खेतिहरों को भूमि से बेदखल कर सकते थे।

(d) जो राजस्व राज्य के पास जाता था, ताल्लुकेदार उसका एक भाग लेते थे। 

 

प्रश्न 7. 1990 में अंतरराज्यीय परिषद् का प्रतिष्ठापन किस आयोग की संस्तुति पर किया गया था? 

(a) पुंछी आयोग 

(b) सरकारिया आयोग 

(c) राजमन्नार आयोग 

(d) मुंगेरीलाल आयोग

 

प्रश्न 8. किसी न्यायालय अथवा न्यायाधिकरण के आदेश को रद्द करने के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी रिट जारी की जाती है? 

(a) परमादेश 

(b) प्रतिषेध 

(c) अधिकार-पृच्छा (क्वो वारंटो) 

(d) उत्प्रेषण 

 

प्रश्न 9. भारत के संविधान की आधारभूत संरचना में परिवर्तन करने की शक्ति के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 

1. यह संसद की संशोधन करने की शक्ति के विस्तार (परिधि) से परे है। 

2. यह जनता के द्वारा संविधान सभा में प्रतिनिधियों के माध्यम से प्रयोग किया जा सकता है।

3. यह संसद की संविधानी शक्तियों के अंतर्गत शामिल है। 

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। 

(a) 1 और 3 

(b) 1 और 2 

(c) केवल 1 

(d) 2 और 3

 

प्रश्न 10. जब आपातकाल की उद्घोषणा प्रचालन (ऑपरेशन) में हो, तब निम्नलिखित में से किसे अपवाद स्वरूप छोड़कर सभी मूल अधिकारों के प्रवर्तन के लिए न्यायालय में जाने का अधिकार निलंबित रहता है? 

(a) अनुच्छेद 20 और अनुच्छेद 21 

(b) अनुच्छेद 21 और अनुच्छेद 22 

(c) अनुच्छेद 19 और अनुच्छेद 20 

(d) अनुच्छेद 15 और अनुच्छेद 16 

 

प्रश्न 11. भारत के संविधान का निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा अनुच्छेद यह निर्धारित करता है कि राज्य कोष से सम्पोषित कुओं, तालाबों एवं स्नान-घाटों का प्रयोग करने से किसी भी नागरिक को वंचित नहीं किया जा सकता है? 

(a) अनुच्छेद 14 

(b) अनुच्छेद 15 

(c) अनुच्छेद 16 

(d) अनुच्छेद 17

 

प्रश्न 12. अखिल भारतीय अनुसूचित जाति संघ को इनमें से किसने स्थापित किया? 

(a) ज्योतिबा फूले 

(b) पेरियार 

(c) बी० आर० अम्बेडकर 

(d) एम० के० करुणानिधि 

 

प्रश्न 13. पॉल एलेन, जिनका निधन अक्तूबर 2018 में हुआ, किसके सह-संस्थापक थे? 

(a) औरैकल 

(b) आइ० बी० एम०

(c) माइक्रोसॉफ्ट

(d) सैप (SAP)

 

प्रश्न 14. मोबाइल ऐप ‘c-VIGIL’ सहायक है 

(a) सरकारी कार्यालयों में निःशुल्क और उचित ई-टेंडरिंग प्रक्रिया को संचालित करने में 

(b) लोक सेवाओं में भ्रष्टाचार के विरुद्ध लड़ाई में 

(c) नगरपालिका क्षेत्रों से कूड़ा-कचरा हटाने में 

(d) निर्वाचन-आबद्ध राज्यों में आदर्श आचार संहिता के उल्लंघन के बारे में सूचना देने में

 

प्रश्न 15. ‘प्रहार’ है 

(a) एक युद्ध टैंक 

(b) सतह से सतह पर मार करने वाली एक मिसाइल 

(c) एक विमानवाहक 

(d) एक पनडुब्बी

 

प्रश्न 16. राजीव गांधी खेल रत्न पुरस्कार, 2018 इनमें से किसे/किन्हें प्राप्त हुआ? 

(a) विराट कोहली 

(b) एस० मीराबाई चानू और विराट कोहली 

(c) नीरज चोपड़ा 

(d) हीमा दास और नीरज चोपड़ा 

 

प्रश्न 17. पाक्योंग विमानपत्तन कहाँ स्थित है? 

(a) सिक्किम 

(b) जम्मू और कश्मीर 

(c) अरुणाचल प्रदेश 

(a) मिजोरम 

 

प्रश्न 18. संयुक्त राष्ट्र द्वारा अंतरराष्ट्रीय ग्रामीण महिला दिवस कब मनाया जाता है? 

(a) 15 जुलाई 

(b) 15 अगस्त 

(c) 15 सितम्बर 

(d) 15 अक्तूबर 

 

प्रश्न 19. इनमें से कौन वह पहला भारतीय है जिसे पुलित्जर पुरस्कार प्राप्त हुआ है? 

(a) अरुंधति रॉय 

(b) गोविन्द बिहारी लाल 

(c) विजय शेषाद्रि 

(d) झुम्पा लाहिड़ी 

 

प्रश्न 20. सौरभ चौधरी निम्नलिखित में से किस खेल में अग्रगण्य हैं?

(a) तीरंदाज़ी 

(b) निशानेबाज़ी 

(c) मुक्केबाज़ी

(d) जूडो

 

प्रश्न 21. माँग के नियम में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी एक पूर्वधारणा नहीं है? 

(a) उपभोक्ता की रुचि और वरीयता में कोई बदलाव नहीं होता है। 

(b) उपभोक्ता की आय नियत (सतत) बनी रहती है। 

(c) उपभोक्ता प्रदर्शन प्रभाव से प्रभावित होते हैं। 

(d) स्थानापन्न वस्तुओं के दाम में कोई परिवर्तन नहीं होता है। 

 

प्रश्न 22. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है? 

(a) जब पूर्ण उपयोगिता अधिकतम होती है, सीमांत उपयोगिता शून्य होती है। 

(b) जब पूर्ण उपयोगिता घटती है, सीमांत उपयोगिता नकारात्मक होती है। 

(c) जब पूर्ण उपयोगिता बढ़ती है, सीमांत उपयोगिता सकारात्मक होती है। 

(d) जब पूर्ण उपयोगिता अधिकतम होती है, सीमांत और औसत उपयोगिता एक-दूसरे के बराबर होती है।

 

प्रश्न 23. उदासीनता वक्रों के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. उदासीनता वक्र, उद्गम (मूल) की ओर उत्तल हैं। 

2. उच्चतर उदासीनता वक्र, उच्च-स्तरीय तुष्टि दर्शाता 

3. दो उदासीनता वक्र एक-दूसरे को काटते हैं। 

उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) 1 और 2

(c) 2 और 3

(d) केवल 3

 

प्रश्न 24. एक संयुक्त पूँजी कंपनी (ज्वॉइंट-स्टॉक कंपनी) के विषय में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. इसका एक कानूनी अस्तित्व होता है। 

2. शेयरधारकों का सीमित दायित्व होता है। 

3. इसका एक लोकतंत्रीय प्रबंधन होता है। 

4. इसका एक सामूहिक स्वामित्व होता है। 

उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?

(a) केवल 1 और 2

(b) केवल 1, 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 3 और 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 और 4

 

प्रश्न 25. जब कोई वस्तु अथवा उत्पादित कारक, उनके मूल्य पर ध्यान दिए बिना, मात्रा में पूर्णतः निश्चित होते हैं, तो आपूर्ति (सप्लाई) वक्र होता है 

(a) क्षतिज

(b) नीचे की ओर दायीं तरफ झुका हुआ

(c) ऊर्ध्वाधर

(d) ऊपर की ओर दायीं तरफ झुका हुआ

 

प्रश्न 26. 1870 के दशक में बम्बई सचिवालय का अभिकल्प (डिजाइन) किसने तैयार किया? 

(a) एच० सेंट क्लेयर विल्किन्स

(b) सर कावसजी जहाँगीर रेडीमनी

(c) पुरुषोत्तमदास ठाकुरदास 

(d) नुसीरवानजी टाटा

 

प्रश्न 27. कोलकाता में महाकाली पाठशाला की संस्थापक कौन थीं? 

(a) संत माताजी महारानी तपस्विनी

(b) सिस्टर निवेदिता

(c) मैडम ब्लवात्स्की

(d) सरोजिनी नायडू

 

प्रश्न 28. किस यूरोपीय शासक ने यह अवलोकित किया, “ध्यान में रखो कि भारत का वाणिज्य विश्व का वाणिज्य है … जो भी इस पर पूरी तरह से नियंत्रण रखेगा, वहीं यूरोप का अधिनायक होगा”? 

(a) महारानी विक्टोरिया 

(b) रूस का पीटर द ग्रेट 

(c) नेपोलियन बोनापार्ट 

(d) गुस्ताव II एडॉल्फ 

 

प्रश्न 29. किस यूरोपीय यात्री ने यह अवलोकित किया, “एक हिन्दू स्त्री कहीं भी अकेली जा सकती है, यहाँ तक कि सबसे । अधिक भीड़-भाड़ वाली जगहों में भी, और उसे कभी , भी निकम्मे आवारागर्दी की गुस्ताख नजरों एवं परिहास से डरने की आवश्यकता नहीं है”? 

(a) फ्रैंकोइस बनियर 

(b) जीन-बैपटिस्ट टेवर्नियर 

(c) थॉमस रो 

(d) अबे जे० ए० डबॉइस 

 

प्रश्न 30. पुस्तक, प्लेग्स ऐंड पीपल्स (Plagues and Peoples) का लेखक कौन है? 

(a) डब्ल्यू० एल० थॉमस 

(b) राहेल कार्सन 

(c) डेविड कैनाडीन 

(d) विलियम एच० मैकनेल 

 

प्रश्न 31. किस भारतीय समाजशास्त्री ने यह तर्क दिया कि एक सदृश हिन्दुत्व के विचार का निर्माण ‘पश्च-ज्ञानोदय यूरोप के सांस्कृतिक अहंकार’ के द्वारा हुआ है? 

(a) आशीष नन्दी

(b) पार्थ चटर्जी

(c) टी० के० ओमेन 

(d) रजनी कोठारी

 

प्रश्न 32. ‘उप-मुख्य संकट (सब-प्राइम क्राइसिस) शब्द निम्नलिखित में से किस घटना से संबंधित है? 

(a) आर्थिक मंदी 

(b) राजनीतिक अस्थिरता 

(c) संरचनात्मक समायोजन कार्यक्रम 

(d) बढ़ती सामाजिक असमानता

 

प्रश्न 33. 1947 के भारतीय स्वतंत्रता अधिनियम द्वारा लाया गया एक परिवर्तन निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा नहीं है? 

(a) एक अंतरिम संविधान प्रदान करने के लिए भारत सरकार अधिनियम, 1935 को संशोधितकिया गया था। 

(b) भारत की अधीनता को समाप्त किया गया। 

(c) नये संविधान के निर्माण तक सत्ता का स्रोत राजमुकुट था। 

(d) भारतीय अधिराज्य का सांविधानिक प्रमुख गवर्नर-जनरल था।

 

प्रश्न 34. राज्य विधानमंडल में विधान परिषद के उपबंध के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है? 

(a) बिहार एवं तेलंगाना राज्य में विधान परिषद् हैं। 

(b) किसी राज्य के विधान परिषद में सदस्यों की कुल संख्या, विधान सभा में सदस्यों की कुल संख्या के एक-तिहाई से अधिक नहीं होगी। 

(c) कुल सदस्यों का बारहवाँ अंश, स्थानीय निकायों और सत्ताओं से मिलकर बने निर्वाचक-मंडलों द्वारा निर्वाचित होगा। 

(d) कुल सदस्यों का बारहवां अंश, राज्य में निवास कर रहे स्नातकों द्वारा निर्वाचित होगा।

 

प्रश्न 35. भारत के संविधान के भाग IX में किए गए निर्धारण के अनुसार, पंचायतों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सही नहीं है? 

(a) पंचायतों की बैठकों में मताधिकार का प्रयोग करने के लिए किसी पंचायत के अध्यक्ष को जनता द्वारा प्रत्यक्ष निर्वाचित किए जाने की आवश्यकता है। 

(b) राज्य विधानमंडल को यह निर्णय लेने का अधिकार है कि पंचायतों में अध्यक्षों के पदों को अनुसूचित जातियों, अनुसूचित जनजातियों अथवा महिलाओं के लिए आरक्षित किया जाए अथवा नहीं।

(c) प्रत्येक पंचायत पाँच वर्षों की अवधि तक बनी रहेगी, अगर पहले भंग न हुई हो।

(d) राज्य विधानमंडल विधि द्वारा पंचायतों के लेखाओं के अंकेक्षण/लेखापरीक्षण के लिए उपबंध बना सकता है।

 

प्रश्न 36. प्रशासनिक न्यायाधिकरणों के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सही नहीं है? 

(a) संसद, विधि द्वारा संघ एवं राज्य, दोनों ही स्तरों पर प्रशासनिक न्यायाधिकरणों का गठन कर सकती है।

(b) लोक सेवाओं के लिए नियुक्त किए गए व्यक्तियों की सेवा शर्तों तथा भर्ती से संबंधित शिकायतों एवं विवादों की जाँच-पड़ताल न्यायाधिकरण कर सकते हैं।

(c) संसद के कानून द्वारा स्थापित न्यायाधिकरण, अपील करने की विशेष इजाजत देने के लिए, सभी न्यायालयों के क्षेत्राधिकार को अपवर्जित कर सकते हैं।

(d) न्यायाधिकरणों की स्थापना करने वाला कानून, प्रक्रियाओं के लिए उपबंध कर सकता है, जिसमें अनुसरण किए जाने के लिए साक्ष्य के नियम भी शामिल हैं।

 

प्रश्न 37. एक ऐसी बाजार परिस्थिति, जिसमें बहुत-सी कंपनियां मिलते-जुलते किन्तु असर्वसम (समरूप नहीं) उत्पाद बेचती हैं, कहलाती है 

(a) आदर्श (पूर्ण) प्रतियोगिता 

(b) त्रुटिपूर्ण (सदोष) प्रतियोगिता

(c) एकाधिकारी प्रतियोगिता 

(d) अल्पाधिकार

 

प्रश्न 38. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. 2017-18 के दौरान भारत में मुद्रास्फीति संतुलित रही है। 

2. खाद्य-संबंधी मुद्रास्फीति, विशेषकर दालों एवं सब्जियों में, इस दौरान उल्लेखनीय कमी रही। 

उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) न तो 1, न ही 2 

 

प्रश्न 39. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी प्राक्कल्पना यह मानती है कि किसी भी समय-अवधि में व्यक्ति उपभोग उस व्यक्ति के लिए उपलब्ध संसाधनों, उसकी पूँजी पर प्रतिलाभ की दर तथा उस व्यक्ति की उम्र पर निर्भर करती है? 

(a) निरपेक्ष आय प्राक्कल्पना 

(b) सापेक्ष आय प्राक्कल्पना 

(c) जीवन-चक्र प्राक्कल्पना 

(d) स्थायी आय प्राक्कल्पना

 

प्रश्न 40. जॉन मेनार्ड कीन्स के अनुसार रोजगार निर्भर करता है 

(a) समग्र माँग पर 

(b) समग्र पूर्ति पर 

(c) प्रभावी माँग पर 

(a) ब्याज की दर पर 

 

प्रश्न 41. करारोपण के निम्नलिखित में से किस सिद्धांत का पक्ष समर्थन एडम स्मिथ द्वारा नहीं किया गया था? 

(a) समानता का सिद्धांत 

(b) निश्चितता का सिद्धांत 

(c) सुविधा का सिद्धांत 

(d) राजकोषीय पर्याप्तता का सिद्धांत

 

प्रश्न 42. कलन विधि (एल्गोरिद्म) के गणितीय शास्त्र के नामकरण का श्रेय, किस अरब वैज्ञानिक को दिया जा सकता है? 

(a) अल-ख्वारिज्मी 

(b) इब्न अल-हेथम 

(c) इब्न रूश्द 

(d) इब्न सीना

 

प्रश्न 43. 1854 के केन्सास-नेब्रास्का अधिनियम के कारण निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा परिणाम निकला? 

(a) मिसौरी समझौता निरस्त किया गया तथा केन्सास एवं नेब्रास्का की जनता को यह निर्धारित करने की अनुमति दी गई कि उन्हें गुलाम रखने चाहिए अथवा नहीं। 

(b) इस अधिनियम ने राज्यक्षेत्रों को दास-प्रथा के प्रश्न पर मताधिकार की अनुमति नहीं दी। 

(c) दास-प्रथा के मुद्दे के संबंध में बहुमत की आवाज को दबा दिया गया था। 

(d) दास-प्रथा पर निर्णय लेने का पूरा अधिकार संघीय सरकार के पास था।

 

प्रश्न 44. 2007 के भारत-अमेरिकी नाभिकीय (परमाणु) समझौते के अंतर्गत निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा विषय शामिल किया गया था? 

(a) भारत के पास यू० एस०-स्रोत सुरक्षित भुक्तशेष इंधन को ‘पुनःसंसाधित करने का अग्निम अधिकार है। 

(b) अन्य प्रदायक देशों की मदद से एक सामरिक इंधन संचय (रिजर्व) बनाने का अधिकार भारत के पास नहीं होगा। 

(c) भारत को नाभिकीय यंत्र का परीक्षण नहीं करना चाहिए। 

(d) भारत के नाभिकीय (परमाणु) शस्त्र कार्यक्रम के विकास को अमेरिका रोकेगा। 

 

प्रश्न 45. भारत के संविधान के आलेखन (प्रारूपण) सदस्य के रूप में, अल्लादि कृष्णास्वामी अय्यर के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं? 

1. भारत के संविधान के निर्वचन से संबंधित महत्त्वपूर्ण निर्णयों के लिए जाने में उच्चतम न्यायालय की भूमिका के वे पक्षधर थे। 

2. उनका यह मानना था कि स्वतंत्रता और सामाजिक निग्रह के बीच उच्चतम न्यायालय को एक रेखा खींचनी पड़ेगी। 

3. न्यायपालिका पर कार्यपालिका के प्रभुत्व में उनका विश्वास था। 

4. वे शासन के एक अधिनायकीय स्वरूप के पक्षधर थे। 

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। 

(a) केवल 1 और 2 

(b) 1, 2 और 3 

(c) 3 और 4 

(d) 1, 2 और 4 

 

प्रश्न 46. संयुक्त राष्ट्र बहुआयामी शांति स्थापन संचालनों (कार्यवाहियों) के मूल कार्य निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से हैं? 

1. स्थिरीकरण 

2. शांति दृढ़ीकरण 

3. किसी युद्ध में पराजित हो रहे राज्य को समर्थन 

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। 

(a) 1, 2 और 3

(b) केवल 2 और 3

(c) केवल 1 और 3

(d) केवल 1 और 2 

 

प्रश्न 47. दक्षिण चीन समुद्र विवाद में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से देश शामिल हैं? 

1. चीन 

2. वियतनाम 

3. मलेशिया 

4. इंडोनेशिया

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। 

(a) 1 और 4 

(b) केवल 1 और 2

(c) 1, 2 और 3

(4) 2,3 और 4

 

प्रश्न 48. ‘क्योटो प्रोटोकॉल’ एक अंतर्राष्ट्रीय संधि है, जिसके पक्षकार राज्य किसमें कमी करने के लिए प्रतिबद्ध हैं? 

(a) गरीबी 

(b) ग्रीनहाउस गैस उत्सर्जन देना 

(c) नाभिकीय (परमाणु) शस्त्रीकरण

(4) कृषि उपदान

 

प्रश्न 49. ‘बीजिंग घोषणा’ निम्नलिखित में से किस मुद्दे से संबंधित 

(a) बालकों के अधिकार 

(b) महिलाओं के अधिकार 

(c) प्रगति का अधिकार 

(d) प्रशुल्क में कटौती

 

प्रश्न 50. ‘गुजराल सिद्धांत’ निम्नलिखित में से किस विषय से संबंधित है? 

(a) भारत और इसके पड़ोसियों के बीच भरोसा कायम करना 

(b) भारत में सभी विद्रोही समूहों के साथ संवाद आरंभ करना 

(c) नक्सल-वर्चस्व क्षेत्रों में विकास की गतिविधियों का बीड़ा उठाना 

(d) खाद्य सुरक्षा सुनिश्चित करना 

 

प्रश्न 51. सूची-I को सूची-II के साथ सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

सूची-I(यौगिक/अणु) सूची-II(अणु का आकार)
A. CH3 1. त्रिकोणीय समत
B. HCHO  2. चतुष्फलकीय
C. HCN  3. त्रिकोणीय पिरामिडी
D. NH3  4. रैखिक 

कूट:

(a)  A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

(b)  A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

(c)  A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

(d)  A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

 

प्रश्न 52. किसी द्रव में अविलेय अति सूक्ष्म कणों को द्रव से अलग करने के लिए निम्नलिखित में से किसका प्रयोग किया जाता है?

(a) क्रिस्टलीकरण 

(b) प्रभाजी आसवन 

(c) अपकेन्द्रीकरण 

(d) निस्तारण

 

प्रश्न 53. निम्नलिखित में से किस तत्त्व का पता ‘लैसें परीक्षण’ द्वारा नहीं लगाया जा सकता है? 

(a) I

(b) Cl

(c) S

(d) F

 

प्रश्न 54. निम्नलिखित में से किसमें प्रकार्यक समूह समावयवता संभव नहीं है? 

(a) ऐल्कोहॉल 

(b) ऐल्डिहाइड 

(c) ऐल्किल हैलाइड 

(d) सायनाइड 

 

प्रश्न 55. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है? 

(a) फिशर प्रक्षेपण, अणु को एक ग्रसित संरूपण में दर्शाता है। 

(b) न्यूमैन प्रक्षेपण को ग्रसित, सांतरित और विषमतलीय संरूपणों में दर्शाया जा सकता है।

(c) अणु का फिशर प्रक्षेपण उसका सर्वाधिक स्थायी संरूपण होता है।

(d) सॉहॉर्स प्रक्षेपण में रेखाएँ एक-दूसरे से 120° के कोण पर आनत होती हैं।

 

प्रश्न 56. नायलॉन 6 के संश्लेषण के लिए कौन-सा/से एकलक प्रयुक्त होता/होते है/हैं? 

(a) हेक्सामेथिलीनडाइएमीन और ऐडिपिक अम्ल 

(b) कैप्रोलैक्टम

(c) यूरिया और फॉर्मल्डीहाइड 

(d) फीनोल और फॉर्मल्डीहाइड

 

प्रश्न 57. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा तारा (स्टार) पृथ्वी के सर्वाधिक समीप है? 

(a) लुब्धक (सिरिअस) 

(b) स्वाति (आर्कट्यूरस) 

(c) स्पाइका 

(d) प्रॉक्सिमा सेन्टॉरी

 

प्रश्न 58. हमारे सौरमंडल के निम्नलिखित में से किस ग्रह का द्रव्यमान न्यूनतम है? 

(a) वरुण (नेप्ट्यून) 

(b) बृहस्पति (जूपिटर) 

(c) मंगल (मार्स) 

(d) बुध (मक्युरि)

 

प्रश्न 59. दो समरूप ठोस टुकड़े, एक स्वर्ण का और दूसरा चाँदी का, जब पानी में पूरी तरह से डुबोये जाते हैं, तो वे एकसमान (बराबर) भार दर्शाते हैं। वायु में तौले जाने पर (दिया गया है कि स्वर्ण का घनत्व, चांदी के घनत्व से अधिक है) 

(a) स्वर्ण के टुकड़े का भार अधिक होगा 

(b) चाँदी के टुकड़े का भार अधिक होगा 

(c) चाँदी तथा स्वर्ण दोनों ही टुकड़ों का भार बराबर होगा

(d) तौलना उनके द्रव्यमानों पर निर्भर करेगा

 

प्रश्न 60. यदि पराबैंगनी, दृश्य तथा अवरक्त विकिरणों के तरंगदैर्घ्य क्रमशः λUV, λVIS तथा λIR से दर्शाए गए हैं, तो इन तरंगदैर्यों के बीच सही संबंध निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा है? 

(a) λUV < λIR < λVIS

(b) λUV > λVIS >  λIR 

(c) λUV >  λIR  >  λVIS

(d) λUV <  λVIS < λIR 

 

प्रश्न 61. विराम अवस्था से आरंभ करके एक इलेक्ट्रॉन तथा एक प्रोटॉन 100kV के विभवांतर द्वारा त्वरित होते हैं। इलेक्ट्रॉन और प्रोटॉन की अंतिम चाल क्रमशः Ve तथा Vp हैं। निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा संबंध सही है? 

(a) Ve > Vp 

(b) Ve <Vp 

(c) Ve = Vp 

(d) निर्धारित नहीं किया जा सकता 

 

प्रश्न 62. यदि दो सदिशों तथा के बीच का कोण θ ≠ 0° है, तो 

(a) || + || = | +

(b) || + || > | + |

(c) || + || < | + |

(d) || + || = ||

 

प्रश्न 63. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कार्य चिकने अंतर्द्रव्यी जालिका द्वारा सम्पन्न नहीं होता है? 

(a) द्रव्यों का अभिगमन 

(b) लिपिड का संश्लेषण 

(c) प्रोटीन का संश्लेषण 

(d) स्टेरॉयड हॉर्मोन का संश्लेषण

 

प्रश्न 64. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कोशिकांग मुख्य रूप से पाचक एंजाइमों के संग्रहागार की तरह कार्य करता है? 

(a) डेस्मोसोम 

(b) राइबोसोम 

(c) लाइसोसोम 

(d) धानी 

 

प्रश्न 65. किसी पौधे के तने के घेरे को बढ़ाने के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा ऊतक उत्तरदायी होता है? 

(a) वाहिनिका 

(b) परिरंभ 

(c) अंतर्वेशी विभज्योतक 

(d) पार्वीय विभज्योतक 

 

प्रश्न 66. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा जीव, पोषण की मृतजीवी विधि पर निर्भर होता है? 

(a) ऐगैरिकस 

(b) यूलोथ्रिक्स 

(c) रिक्सिया 

(d) क्लैडोफोरा 

 

प्रश्न 67. निम्नलिखित में से किसकी शारीरिक बनावट (संघटन) में एक द्विपार्श्विक समरूपता होती है? 

(a) ऐस्टीरिऐस 

(b) समुद्री ऐनिमोन 

(c) नेरीस 

(d) इकाइनस (तीक्ष्णवर्धी) 

 

प्रश्न 68. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा युग्म, नियततापी प्राणियों का है? 

(a) मकर तथा शुतुरमुर्ग 

(b) हैगफिश तथा डाँगफिश 

(c) कछुआ तथा शुतुरमुर्ग 

(d) मोर तथा ऊँट 

 

प्रश्न 69. भारत का निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा राज्य, केन्द्रीय जल आयोग द्वारा स्थापित बाढ़ पूर्वानुमान केन्द्रों के अंतर्गत नहीं आता है? 

(a) राजस्थान 

(b) जम्मू और कश्मीर 

(c) त्रिपुरा 

(d) हिमाचल प्रदेश

 

प्रश्न 70. कार्टाजेना शहर, जो जैव सुरक्षा प्रोटोकॉल के लिए प्रसिद्ध है, कहाँ स्थित है? 

(a) कोलम्बिया 

(b) वेनेजुएला 

(c) ब्राज़ील 

(d) गुयाना

 

प्रश्न 71. जनगणना 2011 के अनुसार भारत का निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा राज्य सर्वाधिक जनसंख्या वाला है? 

(a) गोवा 

(b) मिज़ोरम 

(c) मेघालय 

(d) सिक्किम

 

प्रश्न 72. दक्षिण अमेरिका के निम्नलिखित में से किस देश से होकर मकर रेखा नहीं गुजरती है? 

(a) चिली 

(b) बोलिविया 

(c) पराग्वे 

(d) ब्राज़ील 

 

प्रश्न 73. सारगैसो सागर के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सही नहीं है?

(a) महासागरीय धाराओं का प्रतिचक्रवातीय परिचालन इसकी विशेषता है। 

(b) अटलांटिक महासागर में इसकी सर्वाधिक लवणता पाई गई है। 

(c) यह गल्फ स्ट्रीम के पश्चिम और कनारी धारा के पूर्व में स्थित है। 

(a) यह शांत एवं गतिहीन जल की वृत्ताकार गति में सीमित है। 

 

प्रश्न 74. सूची-I को सूची-II के साथ सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

सूची-I (शहर) सूची-II (उत्पाद)
A. डेट्रॉइट  1. मोटर कार 
B. एंटवर्प 2. हीरा तराशना
C. टोक्यो 3. इस्पात (स्टील) 
D. हार्बिन 4. पोत निर्माण

कूट:

(a)  A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

(b)  A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

(c)  A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

(d)  A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

 

प्रश्न 75. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा, वाराणसी-कन्याकुमारी राष्ट्रीय राजमार्ग पर स्थित नहीं है? 

(a) सतना 

(b) रीवा 

(c) कटनी 

(d) जबलपुर 

 

प्रश्न 76. नगरीय वर्षा जल संग्रहण के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी पद्धति उपयुक्त नहीं है? 

(a) छतशीर्ष पुनर्भरण गड्ढा (रूफटॉप रिचार्ज पिट) 

(b) पुनर्भरण कुआँ 

(c) अवनलिका प्लग 

(d) पुनर्भरण खाई 

 

प्रश्न 77. यदि कोई भारत के मानचित्र पर पोखर सिंचाई को अंकित करें और उस पर कुआं सिंचाई के मानचित्र को अध्यारोपित करे, तो इनमें नकारात्मक संबंध पाया जा सकता है। निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से कथन इस तथ्य की व्याख्या करते हैं? 

1. कुआँ सिंचाई से पहले पोखर सिंचाई घटित होती है। 

2. पोखर सिंचाई अपारगम्य सतही परतों वाले क्षेत्रों में होती है। 

3. कुआँ सिंचाई के लिए पर्याप्त भू-जल संचय – आवश्यक होता है। 

4. सिंचाई के अन्य प्रकार उपलब्ध नहीं हैं। 

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। 

(a) 1, 2 और 3 

(b) केवल 2 और 3 

(c) 3 और 4 

(d) 1 और 4 

 

प्रश्न 78. जब किसी खाली बोतल में गर्म पानी डाले जाने पर बोतल अपना आकार बनाए रखती है और कोमल नहीं होती है, तो पानी की यह बोतल किस प्रकार के प्लास्टिक से बनी हो सकती है? 

(a) तापसुघट्य (थर्मोप्लास्टिक) 

(b) पी० वी० सी० 

(c) पॉलियूरिथेन 

(d) तापदृढ़ (थर्मोसेटिंग)

 

प्रश्न 79. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से अवस्था फलन है/हैं? 

1. q + w 

2. q

3.

4. H- TS 

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। 

(a) केवल 1 और 4 

(b) 1, 2 और 4 

(c) 2, 3 और 4 

(d) केवल 1 

 

प्रश्न 80. किसी नियत अभिक्रिया में, 0°C पर △Gθ = – 45 kJ/mol और △Hθ = -90kJ/mol है। यह जानते हुए कि △Hθ तथा △Sθ तापमान पर निर्भर नहीं हैं, वह न्यूनतम तापमान क्या होगा जिस पर अभिक्रिया स्वतः ही हो जाती है? 

(a) 273K 

(b) 298 K 

(c) 546 K 

(d) 596K

 

प्रश्न 81. PC15, अणु का विन्यास त्रिकोणीय द्विपिरामिड के समान होता है। अतः p कक्षक (ऑर्बिटल) का संकरण होगा 

(a) sp2 

(b) sp3 

(c) dsp2 

(d) dsp3 

 

प्रश्न 82. किसी गोलीय ध्रुवीय निर्देशांक (γ,θ, α) में θ, z-अक्ष के परितः ध्रुवीय कोण को दर्शाता है तथा α, x-अक्ष से उठा हुआ दिगंश कोण व्यक्त करता है। इस स्थिति में P का y-घटक किस प्रकार निरूपित होगा? 

(a) Psinθsinα 

(b) Psinθ cosα 

(c) Pcosθ sinα 

(d) Pcosθ cosα

 

प्रश्न 83. एक आदर्श गैस के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं होता है? 

(a) सभी गैस अणुओं की गति समान होती है। 

(b) सभी गैस अणुओं की गतिज ऊर्जाएँ समान नहीं होती हैं। 

(c) गैस अणुओं की स्थितिज ऊर्जा शून्य होती है। 

(d) अणुओं के बीच कोई अन्योन्यक्रिया बल नहीं होता है। 

 

प्रश्न 84. तारामंडल क्या है? 

(a) आर०बी०सी० में उपस्थित हीमोग्लोबिन केवल ऑक्सीजन वहन कर सकता है, लेकिन कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड का नहीं। 

(b) आर० बी० सी० का हीमोग्लोबिन, ऑक्सीजन और कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड, दोनों वहन कर सकता 

(c) आर० बी० सी० का हीमोग्लोबिन केवल कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड वहन कर सकता है। 

(d) हीमोग्लोबिन केवल रुधिर आतंचन के लिए प्रयुक्त होता है, न कि गैसों के वहन के लिए।

 

प्रश्न 85. हुक का नियम निम्नलिखित में से किसके लिए मान्य है? 

(a) प्रतिबल-तनाव वक्र का केवल समानुपातिक क्षेत्र 

(b) सम्पूर्ण प्रतिबल-तनाव वक्र 

(c) प्रतिबल-तनाव वक्र का सम्पूर्ण प्रत्यास्थ क्षेत्र 

(d) प्रतिबल-तनाव वक्र के प्रत्यास्थ क्षेत्र के साथ-साथ उसके सुघट्य (प्लास्टिक) क्षेत्र

 

प्रश्न 86. हिस्टोन प्रोटीनों के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही है? 

(a) हिस्टोन वे प्रोटीन होते हैं, जो माइटोकॉन्ड्रिया झिल्ली में उपस्थित होते हैं। 

(b) हिस्टोन वे प्रोटीन होते हैं, जो डी० एन० ए० के साथ संगुणन में केन्द्रक में मौजूद होते हैं। 

(c) हिस्टोन वे प्रोटीन होते हैं, जो साइटोसोल में लिपिड के साथ संबद्ध होते हैं। 

(d) हिस्टोन वे प्रोटीन होते हैं, जो साइटोसोल में कार्बोहाइड्रेट के साथ संबद्ध होते हैं।

 

प्रश्न 87. हीमोग्लोबिन के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही है? 

(a) पृथ्वी से समदूरस्थ तारों की आकाश में एक विशेष आकृति (पैटर्न)

(b) ऐसे तारों की आकाश में एक विशेष आकृति, जो पृथ्वी से समदूरस्थ नहीं हो सकते हैं

(c) हमारे सौरमंडल के ग्रहों की आकाश में एक विशेष आकृति

(d) अंतरिक्ष में तारों, ग्रहों और उपग्रहों की स्थिति के कारण आकाश में इनकी एक विशेष आकृति

 

प्रश्न 88. एक संयुक्त सूक्ष्मदर्शी में प्रकाश के गमन का सही अनुक्रम, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा है? 

(a) संग्राही–अभिदृश्यक लेंस नेत्रिका निकाय । नलिका 

(b) अभिदृश्यक लेंस—संग्राही–निकाय नलिका– नेत्रिका 

(c) संग्राही–अभिदृश्यक लेंस-निकाय नलिका– नेत्रिका 

(d) नेत्रिका—अभिदृश्यक लेंस-निकाय नलिका– दर्पण 

 

प्रश्न 89. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही है? 

(a) यूरिया, यकृत में उत्पन्न होता है। 

(b) यूरिया, रुधिर में उत्पन्न होता है। 

(c) यूरिया, मंड (स्टार्च) के पाचन से उत्पन्न होता है। 

(d) यूरिया, फेफड़े और वृक्क में उत्पन्न होता है। 

 

प्रश्न 90. भारत की निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी नदी घाटी, गहन अवनालिका अपरदन से प्रभावित है? 

(a) कोसी 

(b) चंबल

(c) दामोदर 

(d) ब्रह्मपुत्र 

 

प्रश्न 91. चक्रवातों की सही विशेषता निम्नलिखित में से क्या हो सकती है? 

(a) शीतोष्ण चक्रवात पश्चिमी पवनों के साथ पश्चिम से पूर्व की ओर चलते हैं जबकि उष्णकटिबंधीय चक्रवात व्यापारिक पवनों का अनुगमन करते हैं। 

(b) चक्रवात के अग्न भाग को ‘चक्रवात की आँख (आइ ऑफ साइक्लोन)’ कहते हैं। 

(c) चक्रवात, संवृत समदाब रेखाओं से घिरे हुए उच्च दाब के एक केन्द्रक से युक्त होते है।

(d) तूफान (हरिकेन) प्रसिद्ध उष्णकटिबंधीय चक्रवात हैं, जो मध्य अक्षांशों में विकसित होते हैं। 

 

प्रश्न 92. अंतर्राष्ट्रीय उष्णकटिबंधीय काष्ठ संगठन (इंटरनेशनल ट्रॉपिकल टिम्बर ऑर्गेनाइज़ेशन) का मुख्यालय कहाँ स्थित है? 

(a) नई दिल्ली 

(b) योकोहामा 

(c) मैड्रिड 

(d) जकार्ता

 

प्रश्न 93. वायुमंडलीय दशाएं, आर्द्रता से काफी प्रभावित होती हैं। निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा, आर्द्रता को सर्वोत्तम तरीके से परिभाषित करता है? 

(a) संघनन के कारण बनी जल की लटकती हुई बूंदों का रूप 

(b) वायुमंडलीय नमी का जमाव 

(c) वायु से संघनित और उसमें लटकी हुई जल की लगभग अति सूक्ष्म बूंदें 

(d) किसी विशेष समय और स्थान पर वायुमंडल में नमी की मात्रा 

 

प्रश्न 94. शोम्पेन कहाँ का छेद्य (असुरक्षित) आदिवासी समूह है? 

(a) झारखंड 

(b) ओडिशा 

(c) पश्चिम बंगाल

(d) अंडमान एवं निकोबार द्वीपसमूह

 

प्रश्न 95. निम्नलिखित में से किस शहर को भारत में स्मार्ट सिटी की सूची में सम्मिलित नहीं किया गया था? 

(a) सिलवासा 

(b) जोरहाट 

(c) इटानगर 

(d) कवरत्ती 

 

प्रश्न 96. जनगणना 2011 के अनुसार नगरों की जनसंख्या के आधार पर निम्नलिखित नगरीय समूहों में से अवरोही क्रम में सही विन्यास कौन-सा है? 

(a) दिल्ली-मुम्बई-कोलकाता-चेन्नई 

(b) मुम्बई-दिल्ली-कोलकाता-चेन्नई 

(c) मुम्बई-कोलकाता-दिल्ली-चेन्नई 

(d) कोलकाता-चेन्नई-मुम्बई-दिल्ली

 

प्रश्न 97. सूची-I को सूची-II के साथ सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए: 

सूची-I (झील का प्रकार) सूची-II (उदाहरण)
A. विवर्तनिक  1. लोनार झील 
B. गर्त (क्रेटर)  2. गंगाबल झील 
C. हिमनदीय  3. पूर्बस्थली झील 
D. नदीय 4. भीमताल झील

कूट : 

(a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 

(b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

(c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 

(d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

 

प्रश्न 98. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा अक्षांश, अंडमान द्वीपसमूह और निकोबार द्वीपसमूह को पृथक् करता है? 

(a) 8° N अक्षांश 

(b) 10° N अक्षांश 

(c) 12° N अक्षांश 

(d) 13° N अक्षांश

 

प्रश्न 99. लगभग 115 km की लघु नहरों और वितरिकाओं वाली दमनगंगा जलाशय परियोजना कहाँ स्थित है? 

(a) एन० सी० टी० 

(b) दादरा व नागर हवेली 

(c) पुदुचेरी 

(d) गोवा 

 

प्रश्न 100. कोल इंडिया लिमिटेड के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. कोयला मंत्रालय के अंतर्गत इसे एक ‘महारत्न’ कंपनी के रूप में निर्दिष्ट किया गया है। 

2. यह दुनिया में कोयला उत्पादन करने वाली एकल सबसे बड़ी कंपनी है। 

3. कोल इंडिया लिमिटेड का मुख्यालय राँची, झारखंड में स्थित है। 

उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 1 और 2 

(c) केवल 2 और 3 

(d) 1, 2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न 101. इनमें से किस प्रधानमंत्री द्वारा अफ्रीकी-एशियाई एकजुटता को भारत की विदेश नीति के केन्द्रीय तत्त्व के रूप में आरंभ किया गया? 

(a) नरेन्द्र मोदी 

(b) आइ० के० गुजराल 

(c) जे० एल० नेहरू 

(d) मनमोहन सिंह 

 

प्रश्न 102. निम्नलिखित में से किस निकाय द्वारा प्रधानमंत्री राष्ट्रीय राहत कोष संचालित किया जाता है? 

(a) प्रधानमंत्री कार्यालय (पी० एम० ओ०) 

(b) राष्ट्रीय आपदा प्रबंधन प्राधिकरण 

(c) वित्त मंत्रालय 

(d) राष्ट्रीय विकास परिषद् (एन० डी० सी०)

 

प्रश्न 103. पाकिस्तान अधिकृत कश्मीर में भारत के सर्जिकल स्ट्राइक मिशन के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही है? 

(a) इसे वर्ष 2018 में संचालित किया गया। 

(b) इसका नेतृत्व भारतीय वायु सेना द्वारा किया गया। 

(c) इसे कोई नाम नहीं दिया गया था। 

(d) यह संयुक्त राष्ट्र द्वारा अनुमोदित था। 

 

प्रश्न 104. राष्ट्रीय हरित अधिकरण के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है? 

(a) इसकी स्थापना वर्ष 2010 में हुई थी। 

(b) यह पर्यावरण संरक्षण तथा वनों के संरक्षण से संबंधित मामलों के प्रभावी और शीघ्र निपटान में शामिल है। 

(c) यह व्यक्तियों और सम्पत्तियों को हुई हानि के लिए राहत और मुआवजा देने पर विचार कर सकता है। 

(d) यह सिविल प्रक्रिया संहिता, 1908 के तहत निर्धारित प्रक्रियाओं से बँधा है। 

 

प्रश्न 105. जम्मू और कश्मीर राज्य के संबंध में, भारत के संविधान के उपबंधों के बारे में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है? 

(a) राज्य की नीति के निदेशक तत्त्व प्रयोज्य नहीं होते हैं। 

(b) रोजगार, अधिवास तथा सम्पत्ति के संबंध में राज्य के स्थायी निवासियों को अनुच्छेद 35A कुछ विशेष अधिकार प्रदान करता है। 

(c) अनुच्छेद 19(1)(1) को छोड़ दिया गया है। 

(d) राज्य के संविधान के संशोधन के लिए अनुच्छेद 368 प्रयोज्य नहीं है। 

 

प्रश्न 106. 1921 में, निम्नलिखित में से किस भ्रमण के दौरान गाँधीजी ने अपना सिर मुंडवा लिया और धोती (लंगोटी) पहनना आरंभ कर दिया ताकि वे गरीबों के समतुल्य पहचाने जा सकें? 

(a) अहमदाबाद 

(b) चम्पारण 

(c) चौरी चौरा 

(d) दक्षिण भारत 

 

प्रश्न 107. निम्नलिखित में से किस युद्ध के दौरान फौज के टिकान, सरहद की रक्षा करने और धावा आरंभ करने के लिए, सामरिक स्थान के रूप में प्रयोग करने के लिए एक पहाड़ी (हिल) स्टेशन के रूप में शिमला की स्थापना की गई? 

(a) ऐंग्लो-मराठा युद्ध 

(b) ऐंग्लो-बर्मी युद्ध 

(c) ऐंग्लो-गोरखा युद्ध 

(d) ऐंग्लो-अफगान युद्ध

 

प्रश्न 108. ब्रिटिश भारत में किस राजनीतिज्ञ ने उस पाकिस्तान का विरोध किया था जिसका अर्थ “मुस्लिम राज यहाँ और हिन्दू राज कहीं और” होता? 

(a) खान अब्दुल गफ्फार खान 

(b) सिकन्दर हयात खान 

(c) मौलाना अबुल कलाम आजाद 

(d) रफी अहमद किदवई 

 

प्रश्न 109. सूची-I को सूची-II के साथ सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

सूची-I (लेखक) सूची-II (पुस्तक) 
A. शेखर बंद्योपाध्याय  1. जवाहरलाल नेहरू : ए बायोग्राफी, अंक-1, 1889-1947
B. सर्वपल्ली गोपाल 2. फ्रॉम प्लासी टू पार्टिशन : ए हिस्ट्री ऑफ मॉडर्न इंडिया 
C. डेविड हार्डिमैन  3. द ऐसेन्डेन्सी ऑफ द काँग्रेस इन उत्तर प्रदेश, 1926-1934
D. ज्ञानेन्द्र पांडे  4. गाँधी इन हिज टाइम ऐंड आवर्स 

कूट : 

(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 

(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

(c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 

(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

 

प्रश्न 110. ‘सौभाग्य योजना’ के आरंभ होने से पहले आठ राज्यों के 99% से अधिक परिवारों ने विद्युतीकरण-सुविधा प्राप्त कर लिया है। निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा राज्य इनमें से एक नहीं है? 

(a) केरल 

(b) पंजाब 

(c) हिमाचल प्रदेश 

(d) मध्य प्रदेश 

 

प्रश्न 111. अक्टूबर 2018 में, भारत को कितने समय के लिए संयुक्त राष्ट्र मानवाधिकार परिषद् के सदस्य के रूप में निर्वाचित किया गया? 

(a) पाँच वर्ष 

(b) चार वर्ष 

(c) तीन वर्ष

(d) दो वर्ष

 

प्रश्न 112. भारतीय औषध सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र उपक्रम ब्यूरो (बी० पी० पी० आइ०) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. यह प्रधानमंत्री भारतीय जन-औषधि परियोजना (पी० एम० बी० जे० पी०) की कार्यान्वयन एजेन्सी है। 

2. यह सोसाइटि रजिस्ट्रीकरण अधिनियम, 1860 के अधीन एक स्वतंत्र सोसाइटि के रूप में – पंजीकृत है। 

उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) न तो 1, न ही 2

 

प्रश्न 113. भारत सरकार द्वारा आरंभ की गई एक योजना के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

वृद्धावस्था के दौरान सामाजिक सुरक्षा प्रदान करने के लिए और 60 वर्ष और इससे अधिक की आयु के बुजुर्गों को उनकी ब्याज आय में अनिश्चित बाजार दशाओं के कारण होने वाली भावी गिरावट के विरुद्ध संरक्षण देने के लिए यह योजना आरंभ की गयी थी। यह योजना वरिष्ठ नागरिकों के लिए वृद्धावस्था आय सुरक्षा को समर्थ बनाती है, जो भारतीय जीवन बीमा निगम (एल० आइ० सी० आइ०) को सरकारी गारन्टी पर आधारित अंशदान राशि से जुड़े हुए सुनिश्चित पेंशन/प्रतिलाभ के प्रावधान के माध्यम से होता है। 

इस योजना को पहचानिए। 

(a) प्रधानमंत्री स्वास्थ्य सुरक्षा योजना 

(b) प्रधानमंत्री वय वंदना योजना 

(c) जीवन-गुणवत्ता (लिवेबिलिटी) सूचकांक कार्यक्रम 

(d) राष्ट्रीय वयोश्री योजना 

 

प्रश्न 114. अर्जेंटीना में सम्पन्न अंतर्राष्ट्रीय युवा ओलम्पिक खेल (2018) में भारत का अब तक का पहला स्वर्ण पदक इनमें से किसने जीता? 

(a) नीरज चोपड़ा 

(b) प्रवीण चित्रावल 

(c) जेरेमी लालरिनुंगा 

(d) सूरज पंवार 

 

प्रश्न 115. वर्गीकरण-विज्ञान के लिए ई० के० जानकी अम्माल राष्ट्रीय पुरस्कार किसके द्वारा प्रदान किया जाता है? 

(a) कृषि एवं कृषक कल्याण मंत्रालय 

(b) नवीन और अक्षय ऊर्जा मंत्रालय 

(c) स्वास्थ्य एवं परिवार कल्याण मंत्रालय 

(d) पर्यावरण, वन एवं जलवायु परिवर्तन मंत्रालय 

 

प्रश्न 116. भारत के सैनिक प्रशिक्षण संस्थान और स्थान का निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा युग्म सही सुमेलित नहीं है? 

(a) आर्मी वॉर कॉलेज : महू 

(b) हाई ऐल्टिट्यूड वॉरफेयर स्कूल : गुलमर्ग

(c) आर्मी एयर डिफेन्स कॉलेज : पुणे 

(d) राष्ट्रीय इंडियन मिलिटरि कॉलेज : देहरादून 

 

प्रश्न 117. गिर राष्ट्रीय उद्यान में शेरों की हाल ही में हुई मृत्यु के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा विषाणु (वाइरस) उत्तरदायी है? 

(a) कैनाइन डिस्टेम्पर वाइरस 

(b) निपाह वाइरस 

(c) हेन्द्र वाइरस 

(d) खुरपका-मुंहपका रोग विषाणु (फुट-ऐंड-माउथ डिजीज वाइरस) 

 

प्रश्न 118. 2018 तक, निम्नलिखित में से किन देशों ने मनोरंजनात्मक भाँग के रखने और इसके उपयोग को जायज (वैध) बना दिया है? 

1. अमेरिका 

2. कनाडा 

3. नाइजीरिया 

4. उरुग्वे 

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। 

(a) 1, 2 और 3 

(b) केवल 2 और 4 

(c) केवल 1 और 4 

(d) 1, 2 और 4

 

प्रश्न 119. प्रधानमंत्री जन आरोग्य योजना (पी० एम० जे० ए० वाई०) के लाभ निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से हैं? 

1. आवश्यक होने पर सभी लोक एवं सूचीबद्ध किए गए निजी अस्पतालों में निःशुल्क चिकित्सा का उपलब्ध होना 

2. गुणवत्तापूर्ण स्वास्थ्य अनुरक्षण सेवाओं तक नगदीरहित और कागजरहित अभिगम 

3. प्रत्येक वर्ष प्रत्येक परिवार को सरकार की ओर से रू. 5,00,000 तक का स्वास्थ्य बीमा उपलब्ध कराया जाना 

4. पूर्व-विद्यमान रोग इसमें शामिल नहीं हैं 

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। 

(a) केवल 1 और 3

(b) 1, 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 2 और 4 

(d) 2, 3 और 4 

 

प्रश्न 120. 2019 में 11वें ब्रिक्स (BRICS) शिखर सम्मेलन की मेजबानी किसके द्वारा की जाएगी? 

(a) चीन 

(b) रूस 

(c) ब्राज़ील 

(d) भारत 

CDS(I) Exam 2019 General Knowledge Previous Year Paper

CDS(I) Exam 2019 

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Q 1. Henry T. Colebrooke was a Professor of Sanskrit in which one of the following institutions? 

(a) Fort William College

(b) Serampore Mission

(c) Kushi Vidyapith

(d) Asiatic Society

 

Q 2. The Deccan Agriculturists’ Relief Act of 1879 was enacted with which one of the following objectives? 

(a) Restore lands to the dispossessed peasants 

(b) Ensure financial assistance to peasants during social and religious occasions

(c) Restrict the sale of land indebtedness to outsiders

(d) Give legal aid to insolvent peasants

 

Q 3. The Damin-1-Koh was created by the British Government to settle which one of the following communities? 

(a) Santals 

(b) Mundas 

(c) Oraons

(d) Saoras

 

Q 4. The Limitation Law, which was passed by the British in 1859, addressed which one of the following issues? 

(a) Loan bonds would not have any legal validity 

(b) Loan bonds signed between the money lender and Ryotg would have validity only for three years. 

(c) Land bonds could not be executed by moneylenders. 

(d) Loan bonds would have validity for ten years. 

 

Q 5. Who among the following was known during the days of the Revolt of 1857 as “Danka Shah? 

(a) Shah Mal 

(b) Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah 

(c) Nana Sahib 

(d) Tantia Tope

 

Q 6. The Summary Settlement of 1856 was based on which one of the following assumptions? 

(a) The Talukdars were the rightful owners of the land. 

(b) The Talukdars were interlopers with no permanent stakes in the land. 

(c) The Talukdars could evict the peasants from the lands. 

(d) The Talukdars would take a portion of the revenue which flowed to the State.  

 

Q 7. The Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 on the recommendation of 

(a) Punchhi Commission 

(b) Sarkaria Commission 

(c) Rajamannar Commission 

(d) Mungerilal Commission 

 

Q 8. Which among the following writs is issued to quash the order of a Court or Tribunal? 

(a) Mandamus 

(b) Prohibition 

(c) Quo Warranto 

(d) Certiorari 

 

Q 9. Which among the following statements about the power to change the basic structure of the Constitution of India is/are correct? 

1. It falls outside the scope of the amending powers of the Parliament. 

2. It can be exercised by the people through representatives in a Constituent Assembly. 

3. It falls within the constituent powers of the Parliament. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 and 3 

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 only 

(d) 2 and 3

 

Q 10. When a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the right to move a Court for the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights remains suspended, except 

(a) Article 20 and Article 21

(b) Article 21 and Article 22 

(c) Article 19 and Article 20 

(d) Article 15 and Article 16

 

Q 11. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India lays down that no citizen can be denied the use of wells, tanks and bathing Ghats maintained out of State funds? 

(a) Article 14 

(b) Article 15 

(c) Article 16 

(d) Article 17

 

Q 12. Who amongst the following organized the All India Scheduled Castes Federation? 

(a) Jyotiba Phule 

(b) Periyar 

(c) B. R. Ambedkar 

(d) M. K. Karunanidhi 

 

Q 13. Paul Allen, who died in October 2018, was the co-founder of 

(a) Oracle

(b) IBM

(c) Microsoft

(d) SAP

 

Q 14. The mobile app cVIGIL’ is helpful in 

(a) conducting free and fair e-tendering process in government offices 

(b) fighting against corruption in public services

(c) removing garbage from the municipal areas 

(d) reporting violation of model code of conduct in election-bound States

 

Q 15. “Prahaar’ is 

(a) a battle tank

(b) a surface-to-surface missile

(c) an aircraft carrier

(d) a submarine

 

Q 16. Who among the following is/are the recipient/recipients of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, 2018? 

(a) Virat Kohli 

(b) S. Mirabai Chanu and Virat Kohli 

(c) Neeraj Chopra 

(d) Hima Das and Neeraj Chopra

 

Q 17. Pakyong Airport is located in 

(a) Sikkim

(b) Jammu and Kashmir 

(c) Arunachal Pradesh 

(d) Mizoram

 

Q 18. The United Nations has been observing International Day of Rural Women on 

(a) 15th July 

(b) 15th August 

(c) 15th September 

(d) 15th October 

 

Q 19. Who among the following is the first Indian to win a Pulitzer Prize? 

(a) Arundhati Roy 

(b) Gobind Behari Lal 

(c) Vijay Seshadri 

(d) Jhumpa Lahiri 

 

Q 20. Saurabh Chaudhary excels in which one of the following sports? 

(a) Archery

(b) Shooting

(c) Boxing 

(d) Judo

 

Q 21. Which one of the following is not an assumption in the law of demand? 

(a) There are no changes in the taste and preferences of consumers. 

(b) Income of consumers remains constant. 

(c) Consumers are affected by the demonstration effect. 

(d) There are no changes in the price of substitute goods.

 

Q 22. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 

(a) When total utility is maximum, marginal utility is zero. 

(b) When total utility is decreasing, marginal utility is negative. 

(c) When total utility is increasing, marginal utility is positive. 

(d) When total utility is maximum, marginal and average utility are equal to each other. 

 

Q 23. Consider the following statements about indifference curves : 

1. Indifference curves are convex to the origin. 

2. Higher indifference curve represents a higher level of satisfaction. 

3. Two indifference curves cut each other. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) I only

(b) 1 and 2 

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

 

Q 24. Consider the following statements about a joint-stock company : 

1. It has a legal existence.

2. There is limited liability of shareholders. 

3. It has a democratic management.

4. It has collective ownership.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only 

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q 25. When some goods or productive factors are completely fixed in amount, regardless of price, the supply curve is 

(a) horizontal

(b) downward sloping to the right

(c) vertical

(d) upward sloping to the right

 

Q 26. Who designed the Bombay Secretariat in the 1870s? 

(a) H. St. Clair Wilkins

(b) Sir Cowasjee Jehangir Readymoney

(c) Purushottamdas Thakurdas

(d) Nusserwanji Tata

 

Q 27. Who was the founder of Mahakali Pathshala in Calcutta? 

(a) Her Holiness Mataji Maharani Tapaswini

(b) Sister Nivedita

(c) Madame Blavatsky 

(d) Sarojini Naidu

 

Q 28. Which European ruler had observed, “Bear in mind that the commerce of India is the commerce of the world … he who can exclusively command it is the dictator of Europe”? 

(a) Queen Victoria 

(b) Peter the Great of Russia 

(c) Napoleon Bonaparte 

(d) Gustav II Adolf 

 

Q 29. Which European traveller had observed, “A Hindu woman can go anywhere alone, even in the most crowded places, and she need never fear the impertinent looks and jokes of idle loungers”? 

(a) Francois Bernier 

(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier 

(c) Thomas Roe 

(d) Abbe J. A. Dubois 

 

Q 30. Who was the author of the book, Plagues and Peoples? 

(a) W. L. Thomas 

(b) Rachel Carson 

(c) David Cannadine 

(d) William H. McNeill 

 

Q 31. Which Indian social theorist had argued that the idea of a homogenized Hinduism was constructed through the ‘cultural arrogance of post enlightenment Europe? 

(a) Ashis Nandy 

(b) Partha Chatterjee 

(c) T. K. Oommen

(d) Rajni Kothari

 

Q 32. ‘Sub-prime crisis’ is a term associated with which one of the following events? 

(a) Economic recession 

(b) Political instability 

(c) Structural adjustment programmes

(d) Growing social inequality

 

Q 33. Which one of the following is not a change brought about by the Indian Independence Act of 1947? 

(a) The Government of India Act, 1935 was amended to provide an interim Constitution. 

(b) India ceased to be a dependency. 

(c) The Crown was the source of authority till the new Constitution was framed. 

(d) The Governor-General was the constitutional head of Indian Dominion.

 

Q 34. Which one of the following is not a correct statement regarding the provision of the Legislative Council in the State Legislature? 

(a) The States of Bihar and Telangana have Legislative Councils. 

(b) The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State shall not exceed one-third of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly. 

(c) One-twelfth of all members shall be elected by electorates consisting of local bodies and authorities.

(d) One-twelfth of all members shall be elected by graduates residing in the State.

 

Q 35. Which one of the following is not correct about the Panchayats as laid down in Part IX of the Constitution of India? 

(a) The Chairperson of a Panchayat needs to be directly elected by people in order to exercise the right to vote in the Panchayat meetings. 

(b) The State Legislature has the right to decide whether or not offices of the Chairpersons in the Panchayats are reserved for SCs, STs or women.

(c) Unless dissolved earlier, every Panchayat continues for a period of five years.

(d) The State Legislature may by law make provisions for audit of accounts of the Panchayats. 

 

Q 36. Which one of the following is not correct about Administrative Tribunals? 

(a) The Parliament may by law constitute Administrative Tribunals both at the Union and State levels. 

(b) Tribunals may look into disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services.

(c) Tribunals established by a law of the Parliament can exclude the jurisdiction of all Courts to allow for special leave to appeal.

(d) The law establishing the Tribunals may provide for procedures including rules of evidence to be followed.

 

Q 37. A market situation when many firms sell similar but not identical products is termed as 

(a) perfect competition 

(b) imperfect competition

(c) monopolistic competition

(d) oligopoly

 

Q 38. Consider the following statements : 

1. Inflation in India continued to be moderate during 2017-18. 

2. There was significant reduction in food inflation, particularly pulses and vegetables during the period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

 

Q 39. Which one of the following hypothesis postulates that an individual’s consumption in any time period depends upon resources available to the individual, rate of return on his capital and age of the individual? 

(a) Absolute Income Hypothesis 

(b) Relative Income Hypothesis 

(c) Life Cycle Hypothesis 

(d) Permanent Income Hypothesis

 

Q 40. According to John Maynard Keynes, employment depends upon 

(a) aggregate demand 

(b) aggregate supply 

(c) effective demand 

(d) rate of interest 

 

Q 41. Which one of the following canons of taxation was not advocated by Adam Smith? 

(a) Canon of equality 

(b) Canon of certainty 

(c) Canon of convenience 

(d) Canon of fiscal adequacy

 

Q 42. Which Arab scientist could be given the credit of christening the mathematical discipline of algorithms? 

(a) Al-Khwarizmi 

(b) Ibn al-Haytham 

(c) Ibn Rushd 

(d) Ibn Sina 

 

Q 43. Which one of the following developments took place because of the Kansas Nebraska Act of 1854?

(a) The Missouri Compromise was repealed and people of Kansas and Nebraska were allowed to determine whether they should own slaves or not. 

(b) The Act did not permit the territories the right to vote over the question of slavery. 

(c) The voice of the majority in regard to the issue of slavery was muzzled. 

(d) The Federal Government had the sole authority to decide on slavery. 

 

Q 44. Which one of the following issues was included in the Indo-US Nuclear Agreement of 2007? 

(a) India has advance right to reprocess US-origin safeguarded spent fuel. 

(b) India did not have the right to build a strategic fuel reserve with the help of the other supplier countries. 

(c) India should not test a nuclear device. 

(d) The US will impede the growth of India’s nuclear weapons programme. 

 

Q 45. Which of the following statements about Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, as a drafting member of the Constitution of India, are correct? 

1. He favoured the role of the Supreme Court in taking important decisions related to the interpretation of the Constitution of India. 

2. He felt that the Supreme Court had to draw the line between liberty and social control. 

3. He believed in the dominance of the executive over the judiciary. 

4. He favoured a dictatorial form of governance. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 1, 2 and 3 

(c) 3 and 4 

(d) 1, 2 and 4 

 

Q 46. Which of the following are the core functions of the United Nations multidimensional peacekeeping operations? 

1. Stabilization

2. Peace consolidation

3. To extend support to a losing State in a war

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1, 2 and 3 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

 

Q 47. The South China Sea Dispute involves which of the following countries? 

1. China 

2. Vietnam 

3. Malaysia 

4. Indonesia

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 and 4 

(b) 1 and 2 only 

(c) 1, 2 and 3 

(d) 2, 3 and 4

 

Q 48. The Kyoto Protocol’ is an international treaty that commits State parties to reduction in 

(a) poverty 

(b) greenhouse gases emission  

(c) nuclear armaments

(d) agricultural subsidy 

 

Q 49. The “Beijing Declaration’ is concerned with which one of the following issues? 

(a) Rights of children 

(b) Rights of women 

(c) Right to development 

(d) Reduction of tariffs

 

Q 50. The ‘Gujral Doctrine’ relates to which one of the following issues? 

(a) Build trust between India and its neighbours

(b) Initiate dialogue with all insurgent groups in India

(c) Undertake development activities in Naxal-dominated areas

(d) Ensure food security

 

Q 51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : 

List-I(Compound/ Molecule) List-II(Shape of Molecule)
A. CH3 1. Trigonal planar
B. HCHO  2. Tetrahedral 
C. HCN  3. Trigonal pyramidal
D. NH3  4. Linear 

Code:

(a)  A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

(b)  A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

(c)  A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

(d)  A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

 

Q 52. Very small insoluble particles in a liquid may be separated from it by using 

(a) crystallization 

(b) fractional distillation 

(c) centrifugation 

(d) decantation 

 

Q 53. Which one of the following elements cannot be detected by “Lassaigne’s test”? 

(a) I 

(b) Cl 

(c) S

(d) F 

 

Q 54. In which of the following, functional group isomerism is not possible? 

(a) Alcohols 

(b) Aldehydes 

(c) Alkyl halides 

(d) Cyanides 

 

Q 55. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 

(a) Fischer projection represents the molecule in an eclipsed conformation.

(b) Newman projection can be represented in eclipsed, staggered and skew conformations.

(c) Fischer projection of the molecule is its most stable conformation.

(d) In Sawhorse projections, the lines are inclined at an angle of 120° to each other.

 

Q 56. The monomer/monomers used for the synthesis of Nylon 6 is/are 

(a) hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid

(b) caprolactam

(c) urea and formaldehyde

(d) phenol and formaldehyde

 

Q 57. Which one among the following stars is nearest to the earth? 

(a) Sirius 

(b) Arcturus 

(c) Spica 

(d) Proxima Centauri

 

Q 58. Which of the following planets of our solar system has least mass? 

(a) Neptune 

(b) Jupiter 

(c) Mars 

(d) Mercury 

 

Q 59. Two identical solid pieces, one of gold and other of silver, when immersed completely in water exhibit equal weights. When weighed in air (given that density of gold is greater than that of silver) 

(a) the gold piece will weigh more 

(b) the silver piece will weigh more 

(c) both silver and gold pieces weigh equal 

(d) weighing will depend on their masses

 

Q 60. If the wavelengths corresponding to ultraviolet, visible and infrared radiations are given as λUV, λVIS and λIR respectively, then which one of the following gives the correct relationship among these wavelengths? 

(a) λUV < λIR < λVIS

(b) λUV > λVIS >  λIR 

(c) λUV >  λIR  >  λVIS

(d) λUV <  λVIS < λIR

 

Q 61. An electron and a proton starting from rest get accelerated through a potential difference of 100 kV. The final speeds of the electron and the proton are Ve and Ve respectively. Which one of the following relations is correct? 

(a) Ve > Vp 

(b) Ve<V 

(c) Ve = Vp 

(d) Cannot be determined 

 

Q 62. If two vectors and are at an angle θ ≠ 0°, then 

(a) || + || = | +

(b) || + || > | + |

(c) || + || < | + |

(d) || + || = | –  |

 

Q 63. Which one of the following functions is not carried out by smooth endoplasmic reticulum? 

(a) Transport of materials 

(b) Synthesis of lipid 

(c) Synthesis of protein 

(d) Synthesis of steroid hormone

 

Q 64. Which one of the following cell organelles mainly functions as storehouse of digestive enzymes? 

(a) Desmosome 

(b) Ribosome 

(c) Lysosome 

(d) Vacuoles

 

Q 65. Which one of the following tissues is responsible for increase of girth in the stem of a plant? 

(a) Tracheid 

(b) Pericycle 

(c) Intercalary meristem 

(d) Lateral meristem

 

Q 66. Which one of the following organisms is dependent on saprophytic mode of nutrition? 

(a) Agaricus 

(b) Ulothrix 

(c) Riccia 

(d) Cladophora

 

Q 67. Which one of the following has a bilateral symmetry in its body organization? 

(a) Asterias 

(b) Sea anemone 

(c) Nereis 

(d) Echinus

 

Q 68. Which one of the following pairs of animals is warm-blooded? 

(a) Crocodile and Ostrich 

(b) Hagfish and Dogfish 

(c) Tortoise and Ostrich 

(d) Peacock and Camel 

 

Q 69. Which one of the following States of India is not covered by Flood Forecasting Stations set up by the Central Water Commission? 

(a) Rajasthan 

(b) Jammu and Kashmir 

(c) Tripura 

(d) Himachal Pradesh

 

Q 70. The city of Cartagena, which is famous for Protocol on Biosafety, is located in 

(a) Colombia 

(b) Venezuela 

(c) Brazil 

(d) Guyana

 

Q 71. Which one among the following is the most populated State in India as per Census 2011? 

(a) Goa  

(b) Mizoram 

(c) Meghalaya 

(d) Sikkim

 

Q 72. Which among the following countries of South America does the Tropic of Capricorn not pass through? 

(a) Chile 

(b) Bolivia 

(c) Paraguay

(d) Brazil  

 

Q 73. Which one of the following is not correct about Sargasso Sea? 

(a) It is characterized with anticyclonic circulation of ocean currents. 

(b) It records the highest salinity in Atlantic Ocean. 

(c) It is located west of Gulf Stream and east of Canary Current. 

(d) It confined in gyre of calm and motionless water. 

 

Q 74. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : 

List-I (City) List-1 (Product)
A. Detroit  1. Motorcar 
B. Antwerp  2. Diamond cutting 
C. Tokyo  3. Steel
D. Harbin 4. Shipbuilding

Code : 

(a)  A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

(b)  A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

(c)  A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

(d)  A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

 

Q 75. Which one of the following is not situated on Varanasi-Kanyakumari National Highway? 

(a) Satna 

(b) Rewa 

(c) Katni 

(d) Jabalpur 

 

Q 76. Which one of the following methods is not suitable for urban rainwater harvesting? 

(a) Rooftop recharge pit 

(b) Recharge wells 

(c) Gully plug 

(d) Recharge trench 

 

Q 77. If one plots the tank irrigation in India and superimposes it with map of well irrigation, one may find that the two are negatively related. Which of the following statements explain the phenomenon? 

1. Tank irrigation predates well irrigation. 

2. Tank irrigation is in the areas with impervious surface layers. 

3. Well irrigation requires sufficient groundwater reserves. 

4. Other forms of irrigation are not available. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1, 2 and 3 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 3 and 4 

(d) 1 and 4

 

Q 78. When hot water is placed into an empty water bottle, the bottle keeps its shape and does not soften. What type of plastic is the water bottle made from? 

(a) Thermoplastic 

(b) PVC 

(c) Polyurethane 

(d) Thermosetting

 

Q 79. Which of the following is/are function/functions? 

1. q + w 

2. q

3. w 

4. H- TS  

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 and 4 only 

(b) 1, 2 and 4 

(c) 2, 3 and 4 

(d) 1 only

 

Q 80. For a certain reaction, △Gθ  = -45 kJ/mol and △Hθ  = -90 kJ/mol at 0 °C. What is the minimum temperature at which the reaction will become spontaneous, assuming that △Hθ  and △Sθ  are independent of temperature? 

(a) 273 K 

(b) 298 K 

(c) 546 K 

(d) 596 K

 

Q 81. The PCI5 molecule has trigonal bipyramidal structure. Therefore, the hybridization of p orbitals should be 

(a) sp2 

(b) sp3 

(c) dsp2 

(d) dsp3  

 

Q 82. In spherical polar coordinates (γ,θ, α), θ denotes the polar angle around the z-axis and α denotes the azimuthal angle raised from the x-axis. Then the y-component of P is given by 

(a) Psinθsinα 

(b) Psinθ cosα 

(c) Pcosθ sinα 

(d) Pcosθ cosα

 

Q 83. For an ideal gas, which one of the following statements does not hold true? 

(a) The speed of all gas molecules is same. 

(b) The kinetic energies of all gas molecules are not same. 

(c) The potential energy of the gas molecules is zero.

(d) There is no interactive between the molecules.

 

Q 84. What is a constellation? 

(a) A particular pattern of equidistant stars from the earth in the sky

(b) A particular pattern of stars that may not be equidistant from the earth in the sky 

(c) A particular pattern of planets of our solar system in the sky

(d) A particular pattern of stars, planets and satellites in the sky due to their position in the space

 

Q 85. The Hooke’s law is valid for

(a) only proportional region of the stress-strain curve 

(b) entire stress-strain curve 

(c) entire elastic region of the stress strain curve 

(d) elastic as well as plastic region of the stress-strain curve 

 

Q 86. Which one of the following statements regarding histone proteins is correct? 

(a) Histones are proteins that are mitochondrial membrane.

(b) Histones are proteins that are present in nucleus in association with DNA. 

(c) Histones are proteins associated with lipids in the cytosol. 

(d) Histones are proteins associated with carbohydrates in the cytosol.

 

Q 87. Which one of the following statements regarding haemoglobin is correct? 

(a) Haemoglobin present in RBC can carry only oxygen but not carbon dioxide. 

(b) Haemoglobin of RBC can carry both oxygen and carbon dioxide. 

(c) Haemoglobin of RBC can carry only carbon dioxide. 

(d) Haemoglobin is only used for blood clotting and not for carrying gases. 

 

Q 88. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of passage of light in a compound microscope? 

(a) Condenser—Objective lens—Eye—piece—Body tube

(b) Objective lens—Condenser—Body tube—Eyepiece

(c) Condenser—Objective lens—Body—tube—Eyepiece

(d) Eyepiece—Objective  lens—Body tube—Mirror

 

Q 89. Which one of the following statements is correct? 

(a) Urea is produced in liver. 

(b) Urea is produced in blood. 

(c) Urea is produced from digestion of starch. 

(d) Urea is produced in lung and kidney.

 

Q 90. Which one of the following river valleys of India is under the influence of intensive gully erosion? 

(a) Kosi 

(b) Chambal 

(c) Damodar 

(d) Brahmaputra

 

Q 91. Which one of the following may be the true characteristic of cyclones? 

(a) Temperate cyclones move from west to east with westerlies whereas tropical cyclones follow trade winds. 

(b) The front side of cyclone is known as the ‘eye of cyclone’. 

(c) Cyclones possess a centre of high pressure surrounded by closed isobars. 

(d) Hurricanes are well-known tropical cyclones which develop over mid latitudes.

 

Q 92. The Headquarters of the International Tropical Timber Organization is located at 

(a) New Delhi 

b) Yokohama 

(c) Madrid 

(d) Jakarta

 

Q 93. Atmospheric conditions are well-governed by humidity. Which one among the following may best define humidity? 

(a) Form of suspended water droplets caused by condensation 

(b) Deposition of atmospheric moisture 

(c) Almost microscopically small drops of water condensed from and suspended in air 

(d) The moisture content of the atmosphere at a particular time and place

 

Q 94. The Shompens are the vulnerable tribal group of 

(a) Jharkhand 

(b) Odisha 

(c) West Bengal 

(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands 

 

Q 95. Which one of the following cities was not included in the list of smart cities in India? 

(a) Silvassa 

(b) Jorhat 

(c) Itanagar 

(d) Kavaratti 

 

Q 96. Find the correct arrangement of the following urban agglomerations in descending order as per their population size according to Census 2011. 

(a) 8° N latitude 

(b) 10° N latitude 

(c) 12° N latitude 

(d) 13° N latitude 

 

Q 97. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I (Type of Lake) List-II (Example)
A. Tectonic  1. Lonar Lake 
B. Crater  2. Gangabal Lake 
C. Glacial   3. Purbasthali Lake 
D. Fluvial  4. Bhimtal Lake

Code :

(a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 

(b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

(c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 

(d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

 

Q 98. The Andaman group of islands and the Nicobar group of islands are separated by which one of the following latitudes? 

(a) NCT 

(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli 

(c) Puducherry 

(d) Goa

 

.Q 99. Damanganga Reservoir Project with about 115 km of minor canals and distributaries is located in 

(a) Delhi-Mumbai-Kolkata-Chennai

(b) Mumbai-Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai 

(c) Mumbai-Kolkata-Delhi-Chennai 

(d) Kolkata-Chennai-Mumbai-Delhi 

 

Q 100. Consider the following statements relating to Coal India Limited : 

1. It is designated as a ‘Maha Ratna’ company under the Ministry of Coal. 

2. It is the single largest coal producing company in the world. 

3. The Headquarters of Coal India Limited is located at Ranchi, Jharkhand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 1 and 2 only 

(c) 2 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

 

Q 101. Afro-Asian solidarity as a central element of India’s foreign policy was initiated by which of the following Prime Ministers? 

(a) Narendra Modi 

(b) I. K. Gujral 

(c) J. L. Nehru 

(d) Manmohan Singh 

 

Q 102. The Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund is operated by which one of the following bodies? 

(a) The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) 

(b) The National Disaster Management Authority 

(c) The Ministry of Finance 

(d) The National Development Council (NDC)

 

Q 103. Which one of the following statements with regard to India’s surgical strike mission inside Pakistan Occupied Kashmir is correct? 

(a) It was conducted in the year 2018. 

(b) It was led by the Indian Air Force. 

(c) It was not given any name. 

(d) It was sanctioned by the United Nations. 

 

Q 104. Which one of the following statements about the National Green Tribunal is not correct? 

(a) It was set up in the year 2010. 

(b) It is involved in effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests. 

(c) It may consider giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property. 

(d) It is bound by the procedures laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. 

 

Q 105. Which one of the following statements about the provisions of the Constitution of India with regard to the State of Jammu and Kashmir is not correct? 

(a) The Directive Principles of State Policy do not apply. 

(b) Article 35A gives some special rights to the permanent residents of the State with regard to employment, settlement and property. 

(c) Article 19(1)(f) has been omitted. 

(d) Article 368 is not applicable for the amendment of Constitution of the State. 

 

Q 106. In 1921, during which one of the following tours, Gandhiji shaved his head and began wearing loincloth in order to identify with the poor? 

(a) Ahmadabad 

(b) Champaran 

(c) Chauri Chaura 

(d) South India 

 

Q 107. Simla was founded as a hill station to use as strategic place for billeting troops, guarding frontier and launching campaign during the course of 

(a) Anglo-Maratha War 

(b) Anglo-Burmese War 

(c) Anglo-Gurkha War 

(d) Anglo-Afghan War 

 

Q 108. Which politician in British India had opposed to a Pakistan that would mean “Muslim Raj here and Hindu Raj elsewhere”? 

(a) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan 

(b) Sikandar Hayat Khan 

(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad 

(d) Rafi Ahmed Kidwai

 

Q 109. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : 

List-I (Author) List-II (Book)
A. Sekhar Bandyopadhyay 1. Jawaharlal Nehru : A Biography, Vol-I, 1889–1947
B. Sarvepalli Gopal  2. From Plassey to Partition : A History of Modern India
C. David Hardiman  3. The Ascendancy of the Congress in Uttar Pradesh, 1926-1934
D. Gyanendra Pandey 4. Gandhi in His Time and Ours 

Code:

(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 

(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

(c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 

(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

 

Q 110. Eight States have achieved more than 99% household electrification prior to the launch of ‘Saubhagya Scheme!. Which one of the following is not among them? 

(a) Kerala 

(b) Punjab 

(c) Himachal Pradesh 

(d) Madhya Pradesh

 

Q 111. In October 2018, India was elected as a member to the United Nations Human Rights Council for a period of 

(a) five years 

(b) four years 

(c) three years 

(d) two years 

 

Q 112. Consider the following statements about the Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI): 

1. It is the implementing agency of Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP). 

2. It has been registered as an independent society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 113. Consider the following statements about a scheme launched by the Government of India : 

It was launched to provide social security during old age and to protect elderly persons aged 60 years and above against a future fall in their interest income due to uncertain market conditions. The scheme enables old age income security for senior citizens through provision of assured pension/ return linked to the subscription amount based on government guarantee to Life Insurance Corporation of India (LICI). Identify the scheme. 

(a) Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana 

(b) Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana 

(c) Liveability Index Programme 

(d) Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana 

 

Q 114. Who among the following won India’s first ever gold medal in the International Youth Olympic Games (2018) held in Argentina? 

(a) Neeraj Chopra 

(b) Praveen Chitravel 

(c) Jeremy Lalrinnunga 

(d) Suraj Panwar 

 

Q 115. E. K. Janaki Ammal National Award on Taxonomy is administered by the 

(a) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare 

(b) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy 

(c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare 

(d) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change 

 

Q 116. Which one of the following pairs of military training institutes of India and location is not correctly matched? 

(a) Army War College : Mhow

(b) High Altitude Warfare School : Gulmarg 

(c) Army Air Defence College : Pune 

(d) Rashtriya Indian Military College : Dehradun 

 

Q 117. Which one of the following viruses is responsible for the recent death of lions in Gir National Park? 

(a) Canine Distemper Virus 

(b) Nipah Virus 

(c) Hendra Virus 

(d) Foot-and-Mouth Disease Virus

 

Q 118. Till 2018, which of the following countries have legalized the possession and use of recreational cannabis? 

1. America 

2. Canada 

3. Nigeria 

4. Uruguay

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1, 2 and 3 

(b) 2 and 4 only 

(c) 1 and 4 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 4

 

Q 119. Which of the following are the benefits of the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY)? 

 1. Free treatment available at all public and empanelled private hospitals in times of need 

2. Cashless and paperless access to quality health-care services 

3. Government provides health insurance cover of up to Rs. 5,00,000 per family per year

4. Pre-existing diseases are not covered 

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only 

(b) 1, 2 and 3 

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 

 

Q 120. The 11th BRICS Summit in 2019 will be hosted by 

(a) China 

(b) Russia 

(c) Brazil 

(d) India

Latest Current Affairs 26 May 2021

CURRENT AFFAIRS
26 May 2021

NATIONAL NEWS:

 

A) Don’t mix Trinamool leaders’ personal liberty with CBI office ‘siege’: SC tells Centre.

The Supreme Court on Tuesday refused to let the CBI use West Bengal Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee’s siege of and dharna at the premier investigating agency’s premises as a pretext for curbing the personal liberty of four TMC leaders arrested in the Narada sting tapes case, forcing the CBI to drop its appeal for their custody. A Bench of Justices Vineet Saran and B.R. Gavai said the agency was free to separately proceed against Banerjee, her Law Minister Moloy Ghatak and other TMC leaders for allegedly barging into its offices on May 17. But it would not allow their alleged actions hurt the rights of the accused, presently under house arrest. Take it that we do not appreciate dharnas and all But if some Chief Minister or Law Minister takes law into their hands, should the accused suffer? We do not like to mix the issue of liberty of citizens with whatever illegal acts of politicians. We will not do that, Justice Gavai addressed Solicitor General Tushar Mehta, appearing for the CBI. Mehta replied, But they [CM] were doing it from them [accused]. Justice Gavai observed, So, therefore, you proceed against the (CM, Law Minister) for attempting to take the law into their hands. You have yourself quoted Lord Denning’s ‘Be ye never so high, the law is above you’. Mehta said, I used to believe in that. Well, we still believe in it! both Justices Saran and Gavai said in unison. The law officer said the incident suggested a larger malaise in the State. The role of the investigating agency was reduced to nothing. This is an extraordinary situation. There was a complete collapse of rule of law, and this is happening repeatedly. CBI offices with the arrested four men was in a state of siege on May 17. Unruly mobs pelted stones. Officers could not step out to produce the accused before the magistrate. If these facts cannot move My Lords’ conscience, there is nothing more I can say, he expressed his disappointment. The Bench, which refrained from commenting on the merits of the case, reacted to this by pointing out that a five-judge Bench of the Calcutta High Court was already examining every factor regarding the case following a split verdict on the question of bail. When the CBI argued that the four accused would influence witnesses in the comforts of their house arrest, the Bench replied there were two sets of accused in this case. One set is those against whom charge sheet has been filed. The other set is those against whom charge sheet has not been filed. Now, tell us, who of the two is more influential? Justice Gavai asked.

B) CBI chief selection: In dissent note, Adhir Ranjan questions conduct of DoPT.

The conduct of the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) has been obnoxious during the selection process of a new CBI director and the meeting of the selection panel should be deferred, Congress leader in the Lok Sabha Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury said in a dissent note that was submitted to the high-powered selection committee headed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. Chief Justice of India NV Ramana is the other member of the committee that decides on the appointment of the CBI chief. Objecting to the manner in which DoPT — the nodal ministry for all important positions in the Central institutions — had short-listed 16 names out of a list of 109 Indian Police Service (IPS) officers at the ‘eleventh hour,’ Chowdhury batted for cancelling the Monday meeting. However, as the CBI didn’t have a full-time director since February, the panel decided to go ahead with the meeting. The 16 names, whose dossiers were sent to the committee members on the day of the meeting, included present chief of the Border Security Force (BSF) Rakesh Asthana [Gujarat cadre:1984 batch] and the National Investigation Agency chief YC Modi [Assam-Meghalaya:1984 batch], both considered as favourite officers of the ruling dispensation. However, as The Hindu reported on Monday, they were excluded, as the CJI insisted on sticking to a rule that said a candidate should have six months or more for retirement. Chowdhury, too, is learnt to have strongly argued against these officials. The committee eventually short-listed three officers — VSK Kaumudi [Andhra Pradesh:86 batch], Kumar Rajesh Chandra [Bihar:85 batch] and Subodh Kumar Jaiswal [Maharashtra:85 batch] — from among whom one will be appointed as the new CBI chief. In his dissent note, Chowdhury cited the Supreme Court judgement in the Anjali Bharadwaj versus Union of India case concerning the appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) and argued for absolute transparency in the selection procedure of the CBI chief. The DoPT has no statutory backing to pick and forward only select names to the Selection Committee. Moreover, it seems, the DoPT, which is directly under the control of the Central Government, is deliberately trying to sabotage the purpose of this High Powered Selection Committee. The above conduct of the DoPT is most objectionable, he said in his dissent note.

C) As new IT rules come into force on May 26, Facebook says it ‘aims to comply’

Social media giant Facebook on Tuesday said it aimed to comply with the provisions of India’s new IT rules of intermediaries, which come into effect on Wednesday. The U.S.-headquartered firm added that it continued to discuss the issues related to the new guidelines with the government. Replying to a query on its readiness to comply with the new guideline, a Facebook spokesperson said, We aim to comply with the provisions of the IT rules and continue to discuss a few of the issues which need more engagement with the government. The three-month deadline for social media platforms such as Facebook, Twitter and YouTube to comply with new, stricter rules for intermediaries ends on Tuesday even as at least five industry bodies, including the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and the US-India Business Council (USIBC), have written to the government for up to a one-year compliance window, particularly in the view of the pandemic. The Centre on February 25 notified the ‘The Information Technology (Guidelines for Intermediaries and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021’, which make it mandatory for platforms such as WhatsApp, Signal and Telegram to aid in identifying the originator of unlawful messages, while also requiring social media networks to take down such messages within a specific time frame, set up grievance redressal mechanisms, as well as assist government agencies in investigation. The significant social media intermediaries were given three months for compliance.

D) Assembly polls prove BJP juggernaut is stoppable: Pinarayi Vijayan.

The recently concluded Assembly elections in various States have busted the myth that the BJP juggernaut is unstoppable, Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan has said in an interview with The Hindu. After he led the Left Democratic Front (LDF) back to power for a second consecutive term in Kerala, Vijayan said the electoral victory of the LDF in Kerala and the ascension to power of the DMK alliance in Tamil Nadu had buoyed the prospects of a national alternative to the BJP at the Centre. So certainly, alternatives will emerge, he said. The Communist Party of India (Marxist) is part of the DMK- led alliance in Tamil Nadu. In that sense, we are allies. Both States have often cooperated on a host of issues. I am sure we will continue to do so, he said.

E) Fugitive businessman Mehul Choksi goes missing: Antiguan media.

Fugitive diamantaire Mehul Choksi is understood to have gone missing in Antigua and Barbuda with the police launching a manhunt to trace him since Sunday, local media outlets reported. Antiguanewsroom, a local media outlet, quoted Commissioner of Police Atlee Rodney on Tuesday as saying that the police are following up on the whereabouts of Indian businessman Mehul Choksi, who is rumoured to be missing. The media reports say Choksi, who had taken citizenship of the Caribbean island nation of Antigua and Barbuda, was seen driving in the southern area of the island on Sunday. Later, his vehicle was found but there was no trace of Choksi, the reports said. Choksi and his nephew Nirav Modi are wanted for allegedly siphoning off ₹13,500 crore of public money from the state-run Punjab National Bank (PNB), using letters of undertaking. While Modi is in a London prison after repeated denial of bail and is contesting extradition to India, Choksi had taken the citizenship of Antigua and Barbuda in 2017 using the Citizenship by Investment programme, before fleeing India in the first week of January 2018. The scam came to light subsequently. Both are facing a CBI probe. Since Choksi already has an Interpol Red Notice pending against him, he can be detained in any of the Interpol member countries and deported to India.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS

A) U.S. calls for ‘transparent’ new probe into COVID-19 origins. 

The United States called on Tuesday for international experts to be allowed to evaluate the source of the SARS-Cov-2 and the early days of the outbreak in a second phase of an investigation into the origins of the coronavirus. U.S. intelligence agencies are examining reports that researchers at Wuhan Institute of Virology were seriously ill in 2019 a month before the first cases of COVID-19 were reported, according to U.S. government sources who cautioned on Monday that there is still no proof the disease originated at the lab. Phase 2 of the COVID origins study must be launched with terms of reference that are transparent, science-based, and give international experts the independence to fully assess the source of the virus and the early days of the outbreak, U.S. Health Secretary Xavier Becerra said in a video message to the annual ministerial meeting of the World Health Organization. Mr. Becerra did not mention China directly, where the first known human cases of COVID-19 emerged in the central city of Wuhan in December 2019. The origin of the virus is hotly contested. In a report issued in March, written jointly with Chinese scientists, a WHO-led team that spent four weeks in and around Wuhan in January and February said the virus had probably been transmitted from bats to humans through another animal, and that introduction through a laboratory incident was considered to be an extremely unlikely pathway. A WHO spokesman, Tarik Jasarevic, asking about a follow-up mission, told Reuters on Monday that the agency was reviewing the recommendations from the report at the technical level. China on Monday dismissed as totally untrue reports that three researchers in Wuhan went to hospital with an illness before the coronavirus emerged in the city. Foreign Ministry spokesman Zhao Lijian said that, according to a statement from the laboratory, it had not been exposed to COVID-19 before December 30, 2019, and a zero-infection record is kept among its staff and graduate students so far.

B) Moderna says its COVID-19 vaccine is highly effective in adolescents.

The possibility of children returning to normal life in the U.S. became stronger on Tuesday with vaccine manufacturer Moderna announcing that its Covid-19 vaccine mRNA-1273 is 100% effective in preventing symptomatic infections in 12-17 year olds after two doses. The company said that it would approach the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to extend the use of its vaccine to this age group, in early June. Two thirds of the 3,732 individuals aged 12-17 received two doses of the vaccine in Moderna’s latest clinical study. None of them developed serious Covid-19 (equivalent to 100% efficacy) while four developed Covid-19 in the placebo group, the company said. A single dose of the vaccine resulted in 93% efficacy based on the case definition of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which is modified, given the lower overall rate of infections in adolescents. The teenagers in the study will be monitored for a year after their second dose, the New York Times reported. They are encouraged that mRNA-1273 was highly effective at preventing Covid-19 in adolescents, Moderna CEO Stéphane Bancel said. Some have criticised the U.S. for vaccinating children who are less susceptible to serious Covid-19 infections while more vulnerable adult populations in countries across the world, including India, are yet to be vaccinated. The Pfizer- BioNTech vaccine was recently approved for emergency use in 12-15 years. Pfizer and Moderna are in the process of conducting vaccine trials on children in the 6 months to 11 years group.

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