Science 10th Previous Year Question Paper 2016 (CBSE)

Science

SET I

Section – A

Q. 1. Write the name and structure of an alcohol with three carbon atoms in its molecule.

Answer. Name of an alcohol: Propanol

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Q. 2. What happens when a mature spirogyra filament attains considerable length?

Answer. When a mature spirogyra filament attains considerable length, it breaks up into smaller fragments or pieces, and each fragment grows into a new filament or individual.

 

Q. 3.  The depletion of the ozone layer is a cause of concern. Why?

Answer. The depletion of the ozone layer is a cause of concern because ozone shields the surface of the earth from harmful ultraviolet radiations coming from the Sun. These radiations are very harmful and can cause skin cancer and other health problems in human beings. Moreover, ozone protects the ecosystem from damage.

 

Q. 4. Name the type of mirrors used in the design of solar furnaces. Explain how high temperature is achieved by this device.

Answer. Concave mirrors are used in the design of solar furnaces. When a solar furnace is placed at the focus of a large concave mirror (called reflector), it focuses a parallel beam of light on the furnace, as a result a temperature is achieved after some time.

 

Q. 5. “What was Chipko Andolan”? How did this Andolan ultimately benefit the local people and the environment?

Answer. Chipko Movement. Chipko Movement is an example of the contribution of common people towards the conservation of forests. The Chipko Movement also called ‘Hug the tree’ movement originated from an incident in a remote village called ‘Reni’ in Garhwal (Himalayas), where the people of this village clasped the tree trunks with their arms to protect them from being cut down by a contractor’s workers. The people acted this way because they knew that this mass deforestation would spoil their healthy environment. The forest trees were thus saved.

The Chipko Movement quickly spread across all the communities and helped in the conservation of forests and thus helped in safeguarding the environment.

 

Q. 6. “Burning of fossil fuels results in global warming”. Give reasons to justify this statement.

Answer. When fossil fuels (coal and petroleum based fuels like petrol, diesel etc.) are burnt, they produce C02, CO, water vapours, S02, oxides of nitrogen.

Though C02 is not a poisonous gas but it is a greenhouse gas which traps the sun’s heat energy falling on the earth. The burning of more and more of fossil fuels is increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere causing increased greenhouse effect leading to global warming.

 

Q. 7. Write chemical equation of the reaction of ethanoic acid with the following:

(a) Sodium; (b) Sodium hydroxide; (c) Ethanol

Write the name of one main product of each reaction.

Answer.

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Q. 8. An aldehyde as well as a ketone can be represented by the same molecular formula, say C3H6O. Write their; language of science.

Answer.

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They are called isomers because both have the same molecular formula but different structural formulas (having different functional groups).

 

Q. 9. An element ‘X’ belongs to the 3rd period and group 16 of the Modern Periodic Table.

(a) Determine the number of valence electrons and the valency of ‘X’.

(b) Molecular formula of the compound when ‘X’ reacts with hydrogen and write its electron dot structure.

(c) Name the element ‘X’ and state whether it is metallic or non-metallic.

Answer.

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Q. 10. An element ‘X! has mass number 35 and number of neutrons 18. Write atomic number and electronic configuration of ‘X’. Also write group number, period number and valency of ‘X’. 

Answer. ‘X’

Mass number 5= 35 No. of neutrons = 18

Atomic number of X = Mass number – Number of neutrons = 35 – 18 = 17

K L M

Thus, electronic configuration of X = 2, 8, 7

Group number = 17th    Period number = 3rd

Valency = 8-7 = 1

 

Q. 11. Define reproduction. How does it help in providing stability to the population of species?

Answer. The production of new organisms from the existing organisms of the same species is known as reproduction. It is essential for the survival of a species on earth. It helps in replacing the lost section of the population due to death and various other causes.

  • Populations of organisms live in well defined places called niches in the ecosystem using their ability to reproduce.
  • Reproduction involves DNA copying which is the source of information for making proteins thereby controlling body design.
  • These body designs allow the organism to use a particular niche for the stability of the population of a species.
  • Minor variations may also lead to the stability of the species.

 

Q. 12. Explain the term “Regeneration” as used in relation to reproduction of organisms. Describe briefly how regeneration is carried out in multicellular organisms like Hydra.

Answer. Regeneration is a mode of asexual reproduction in some organisms. The process of getting back a full organism from its body parts is called regeneration. The simple multicellular animals like hydra and planaria show regeneration.

Regeneration in hydra:

  • If the body of hydra gets cut into a number of pieces, then each body piece can regenerate into a complete hydra by growing all the missing parts.
  • The regeneration of an organism from its cut body part occurs by the process of growth and development.
  • The cells of cut body parts divide rapidly to make a ball of cells.
  • The cells then become specialised to form different types of tissues which again form various organs and body parts.

 

Q. 13. (a) List two reasons for the appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual reproduction.

(b)

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(i) Name the part marked ‘A’ in the diagram.

(ii) How does ‘A’ reach part ‘B’?

(iii) State the importance of part ‘C.

(iv) What happens to the part marked ‘D’ after fertilization is over?

Answer. (a) The appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual reproduction is due to the following reasons:

(i) Sexual reproduction takes place by the combination of two germ cells produced by two different individuals. Fusion of the male and female gametes.

(ii) Each time zygote is formed by the new combination of variants.

(b) (i) A => Pollen grains .

(ii) Pollen grains, i.e., ‘A’ reach part ‘B’, i.e., stigma of the carpel by the process of pollination.

Pollination is carried out by insects (like bees, butterfuly, etc.), birds, wind, water, etc.

(in) ‘C’ => Pollen tube Pollen tube grows downward through the style towards the female gamete in the ovary. Pollen tube helps the male gamete reach the egg or ovule (female gamete).

(iv) ‘D’ => Fertilised egg or Zygote . The fertilized egg (or zygote) divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule.

 

Q. 14. How does Mendel’s experiment show that traits are inherited independently?

Answer. Gregor Mendel conducted a different series of experiments on the pea plant that helped to deduce the basis of the hereditary rules in living organisms. He worked on how the traits or characters can be passed from one generation to the other. He studied the inheritance pattern in the common pea plant, Pisum sativum. He selected seven pairs of contrasting characters which were present in the parent plants. The plants selected by Mendel were pure breeding pea plants and they showed one form of a trait after fertilization. 

During the experiment, Mendel then crossed these pure breeding lines of the pea plants. When two pairs of contrasting characters were selected during cross, it was known as the dihybrid cross. The dihybrid cross was allowed to fertilize. Mendel selected pea plants with dihybrid seed characteristics such as yellow colored and round seeds and green colored wrinkled seeds. The plants with yellow colored round seeds were crossed with plants with green colored wrinkled seeds. After the cross in the F2 generation, the offspring obtained were with both the parental traits and with two recombinant phenotypes such as yellow round and green wrinkled and another recombinant phenotype with green round and yellow wrinkled. Thus, in the F2 generation all the characters were inherited and the characters were round yellow, round green, wrinkled yellow and wrinkled green.

The obtained traits or characteristics of the phenotypes obtained in the F2 generations indicates original parental combinations are separated which in the process gets inherited independently by the offspring in the next generations.

Note:Mendel selected seven pairs of contrasting characters which he used to experiment with for the inheritance of characteristics in the offspring. In a dihybrid cross, Mendel selected two pairs of contrasting characters and they were crossed. The resultant cross showed the segregation of the traits of both the parents which indicated that the traits were inherited independently. 

 

Q. 15. “Two areas of study namely ‘evolution’ and ‘classification’ are interlinked”. Justify this statement.

Answer. Classification of organisms is based on relative similarities and differences in their internal and external structures. Similarities among organisms will allow us to group them and study the groups and classify them. Some basic characteristics will be shared by most organisms. The more characteristics the two species will have in common, the more closely they are related. The more closely they are related, the more recently they have had a common ancestor. So we can say that classification of a species is in fact a reflection of their evolutionary relationship.

 

Q. 16. The image of an object formed by a mirror is real, inverted and is of magnification -1. If the image is at a distance of 40 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed? Where would the image be if the object is moved 20 cm towards the mirror? State reason and also draw ray diagram for the new position of the object to justify your answer.

Answer.

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Q. 17. Describe an activity to show that the colours of white light splitted by a glass prism can be recombined to get white light by another identical glass prism. Also draw a ray- diagram to show the recombination of the spectrum of white light.

Answer. i) When a glass prism is used to obtain a spectrum of sunlight, a second identical prism in an inverted position is kept with respect to the first position.

ii) The inverted second prism will allow all the colours of the spectrum to recombine.

iii) Thus a beam of white light will emerge from the other side of the second prism.

Recombination of the spectrum of white light is as shown below:

 

Q. 18. The activities of man had adverse effects on ail forms of living organisms in the biosphere. Unlimited exploitation of nature by man disturbed the delicate ecological balance between the living and nonliving components of the biosphere. The unfavorable conditions created by man himself threatened the survival not only of himself but also the entire living organisms on the mother earth. One of your classmates is an active member of ‘Eco-club’ of your school which is creating environmental awareness amongst the school students, spreading the same in the society and also working hard for preventing environmental degradation cf the surroundings.

(a) Why is it necessary to conserve our environment?

(b) State the importance of green and blue dust-bins in the safe disposal of the household waste.

(c) List two values exhibited by your classmate who is an active member of Eco-clubof your school.

Answer. (a) It is necessary to conserve our environment because of the following reasons:

(i) To save natural resources like air, water and soil from pollution which are essential for our survival.

(ii) To maintain ecological balance in nature.

(iii) The environment provides us fresh air to breathe, a number of useful products such as wood, paper, medicines, etc. The ozone layer of the environment also protects us from harmful ultraviolet radiations from the sun.

(b) Green dustbins are used for biodegradable wastes, and Blue dustbins are used for non-biodegradable wastes.

Importance of two types of dustbins:

(i) Disposal of wastes after separating them into biodegradable and non- biodegradable wastes in separate dustbins and treating wastes properly before dumping in landfills.

(ii) Segregation of biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes occur without wasting time and energy.

(c) Values: Cooperative spirit, concern about environment, civic sense, sensitive human being.

 

Q. 19. A carbon compound ‘P’ on heating with excess cone. H2S04 forms another carbon compound ‘Q’ which on addition of hydrogen in the presence of nickel catalyst forms a saturated carbon compound ‘R’. One molecule of ‘R’ on combustion, forms two molecules of carbon dioxide and three molecules of water. Identify P, Q and R and write chemical equations for the reactions involved.

Answer.

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Q. 20. What is placenta? Describe its structure. State its functions in case of a pregnant human female.

Answer. Placenta. It is a special tissue that helps human embryo in obtaining nutrition from mother’s blood. It serves as a link between the mother’s body and the baby.

Structure and function. After fertilisation, zygote is formed which develops into an embryo. The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta. This is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains thousands of villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue, on the mother’s side are blood spaces, which surround the villi. This provides a large surface area for glucose, nutrients and oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo. In this way, embryo gets its nutrition. The wastes produced by the foetus are also removed through the placenta. It also functions as an endocrine gland and secretes hormones necessary for maintaining pregnancy.

 

Q. 21. Define evolution. How does it occur? Describe how fossils provide us evidences in support of evolution.

Answer. Evolution. Evolution is the sequence of gradual changes which take place in the primitive organisms over millions of years in which new species are produced.

How it occurs? 

  • It is through the constant process of evolution taking place in the organisms since the origin of life that such an enormous variety of plants and animals have come to exist on this earth at present.
  • There is an inbuilt tendency to variation during reproduction due to errors in DNA copying and as a result of sexual reproduction.

Relationship between fossils and evolution:

  • Fossils are the remains of impressions of dead plants or animals which died millions of years ago. The study of fossils helps us to know about the evolution of species. Fossils tell us how new species are developed from the old. Fossils provide evidence of evolution by revealing characteristics of past organisms and the changes that have occurred m these organisms to give rise to present organisms Therefore, fossils have an importance in deciding evolutionary relationship.
  • For example, a fossil called Archaeopteryx has feathered wings like birds but teeth and tail like reptiles hence suggesting that birds and reptiles had a common ancestor.

 

Q. 22. It is desired to obtain an erect image of an object, using concave mirror of focal length of 12 cm.

(i) What should be the range of distance of an object placed in front of the mirror?

(ii) Will the image be smaller or larger than the object? Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in this case.

(iii) Where will the image of this object be, if it is placed 24 cm in front of the mirror?

Draw a ray diagram for this situation also to justify your answer.

Show the positions of the pole, the principal focus and the centre of curvature in the above ray diagrams.

Answer. In a concave mirror an erect image w ill be obtained when the object is placed between pole and focus ; of the mirror.

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Focal length, f = 12 cm

(i) Therefore, the range of object distance is between 0 cm to <12 cm (from zero to less than 12 cm).

(ii) Image formed wall be magnified, i.e., larger than the object.

(iii) If the object is placed at 24 cm in from of the mirror, it means that object is placed at 2f, i.e., at the centre of curvature (at C) of the mirror.

The real, inverted and same size (of the object) image will also be formed at 24 cm.

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Q. 23.(a) Define optical centre of a spherical lens.

(b) A divergent lens has a focal length of 20 cm. At what distance should an object of height 4 cm from the optical centre of the lens be placed so that its image is formed 10 cm away from the lens. Find the size of the image also.

(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in above situation.

Answer. (a) Optical centre of the lens. It is a point within the lens that lies on the principal axis through which avay of light passes undeflected.

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Q. 24. What is atmospheric refraction? Use this phenomenon to explain the following natural events.

(a) Twinkling of stars (b) Advanced sun-rise and delayed sun-set

Draw diagrams to illustrate your answers.

Answer. Atmospheric refraction. The refraction of light caused by the earth’s atmosphere having air layers of varying optical densities is called atmospheric refraction.

(a) Twinkling of stars. 

The twinkling of a star is due to atmospheric refraction of starlight. 

The starlight, on entering the earth’s atmosphere, undergoes refraction continuously before it reaches the earth. 

The atmospheric refraction occurs in a medium of gradually changing refractive index. 

Since the atmosphere bends starlight towards the normal, the apparent position of the star is slightly different from its actual position. 

The star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual position when viewed near the horizon 

Since the stars are very distant, they approximate point-sized sources of light. As the path of rays of light coming from the star goes on varying slightly, the apparent position of the star fluctuates and the amount of starlight entering eye flickers -the star sometimes appear brighter and sometimes fainter ,which is twinkling effect.

(b) Advanced sun-rise and delayed sun-set. 

The Sun is visible to us about 2 minutes before the actual sunrise, and about 2 minutes after the actual sunset because of atmospheric refraction. By actual sunrise, we mean the actual crossing of the horizon by the Sun. The time difference between actual sunset and the apparent sunset is about 2 minutes. The apparent flattening of the Sun’s disc at sunrise and sunset is also due to the same phenomenon. 

SCATTERING OF LIGHT 

It is the phenomena of change in direction of light on striking an obstacle like an atom, a molecule a dust particle water droplet etc.

It is also due to atmospheric refraction that we can still see the sun for about 2 minutes even after the sun has set below the horizon. At sunset, the apparent position of the sun is visible to us and not the actual position because of the bending of light rays effect.

So, the time from sunrise to sunset is lengthened by about 2 + 2 = 4 minutes because of atmospheric refraction.

SECTION B

Q. 25. A student puts a drop of reaction mixture of a saponification reaction first on a blue litmus paper and then on a red litmus paper. He may observe that:

(a) There is no change in the blue litmus paper and the red litmus paper turns white.

(b) There is no change in the red litmus paper and the blue litmus paper turns red.

(c) There is no change in the blue litmus paper and the red litmus paper turns blue.

(d) No change in colour is observed in both the litmus papers.

Answer. (c)

 

Q. 26. For preparing soap in the laboratory we require an oil and a base. Which of the following combination of an oil and a base would be best suited for the preparation of soap?

(a) Castor oil and calcium hydroxide (b) Turpentine oil and sodium hydroxide

(c) Castor oil and sodium hydroxide (d) Mustard oil and calcium hydroxide

Answer. (c)

 

Q. 27. In the neighborhood of your school, hard water required for an experiment is not available. Select from the following groups of salts available in your school, a group each member of which, if dissolved in distilled water, will make it hard:

(a) Sodium chloride, calcium chloride (b) Potassium chloride, sodium chloride

(c) Sodium chloride, magnesium chloride (d) Calcium chloride, magnesium chloride

Answer. (d)

 

Q. 28. A student while observing an embryo of a pea seed in the laboratory listed various parts of the embryo as given below:

On examining the list the teacher remarked that only three parts are correct.

Select three correct parts from the following list: 1

(a) Testa, Radicle, Cotyledon (b) Tegmen, Radicle, Micropyle

(c) Cotyledon, Plumule, Testa (d) Radicle, Cotyledon, Plumule

Answer. (d)

 

Q.29. If you are asked to select a group of two vegetables, out of the following, having homologous structures which one would you select?

(a) Carrot and radish (b) Potato and sweet potato

(c) Potato and tomato (d) Lady finger and potato

Answer. (a)

 

Q. 30. To determine the approximate value of the focal length of a given concave mirror, you focus the image of a distant object formed by the mirror on a screen. The image obtained on the screen, as compared to the object is always:

(a) Laterally inverted and diminished (b) Inverted and diminished

(c) Erect and diminished (d) Erect and highly diminished

Answer. (b)

 

Q. 31. Suppose you have focused on a screen the image of candle flame placed at the farthest end of the laboratory table using a convex lens. If your teacher suggests you to focus the parallel rays of the Sun, reaching your laboratory table, on the same screen, what you are expected to do is to move the:

(a) lens slightly towards the screen (b) lens slightly away from the screen

(c) lens slightly towards the Sun (d) lens and screen both towards the Sun

Answer. (a)

 

Q. 32. In your laboratory you trace the path of light rays through a glass slab for different values of angle of incidence (∠i) and in each case measure the values of the corresponding angle of refraction (∠r) and angle of emergence (∠e). On the basis of your observations your correct conclusion is:

(a) ∠i is more than ∠r, but nearly equal to Ze

(b) ∠i is less than ∠r, but nearly equal to ∠e

(c) ∠i is more than ∠e, but nearly equal to ∠r

(d) ∠i is less than ∠e, but nearly equal to ∠r

Answer. (a)

 

Q. 33. In the following ray diagram the correctly marked angles are:

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(a) ∠i and ∠e (b) ∠A and ∠D

(c) ∠i, ∠e and ∠D (d) ∠r, ∠A and ∠D

Answer. (d)

 

Q. 34. A student adds a spoon full of powdered sodium hydrogen carbonate to a flask containing ethanoic acid. List two main observations, he must note in his note book, about the reaction that takes place. Also write chemical equation for the reaction.

Answer. When sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to a flask containing ethanoic acid, then

  • brisk effervescence will be formed because of CO2 gas escaping from the reaction mixture.
  • evolution of colourless and odourless gas. Some amount of heat is evolved during the reaction.
    cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-13

 

Q. 35. A student is observing a permanent slide showing sequentially the different stages of asexual reproduction taking place in yeast. Name this process and draw diagrams of what he observes in a proper sequence.

Answer. The process of reproduction in yeast is budding.

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Q. 36. An object of height 2.5 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm from the optical centre ‘O’ of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Draw a ray diagram to find the position and size of the image formed. Mark optical centre ‘O’, principal focus F and height of the image on the diagram.

Answer.

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SET II

SECTION A

Q. 1. Write the name and structure of an alcohol with four carbon atoms in its molecule.

Answer. Name of an alcohol: Butanol

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Q. 2. What are those organisms called which bear both the sex organs in the same individual? Give one example of such organism.

Answer. Organisms having both the sex organs in the same individual are called Hermaphrodite. Example, Earthworm.

 

Q. 3. Write one negative effect, on the environment, of affluent life style of few persons of a society.

Answer.

  • Excessive use of air conditioners which is a part of affluent lifestyle emits a lot of heat in the atmosphere.
  • Excessive use of packaging materials which are mostly made up of non- biodegradable material are not environment friendly.
  • Excessive use of petrol in vehicles also causes pollution.
    Thus, affluent lifestyle results in the generation of excessive waste materials.

 

Q. 4. “The magnification produced by a spherical mirror is -3”. List four information’s you obtain from this statement about the mirror/image.

Answer. Magnification produced by a spherical mirror, m = -3

  •  image is 3 times magnified than the object.
  • image is inverted (as m has negative sign).
  •  image is real.
  • nature of the mirror is concave.

 

Q. 5. Forests are “biodiversity hot spots”. Justify this statement.

Answer. Forests are ‘biodiversity hot spots’. The measure of the biodiversity of an area is the number of species found there. Since in a forest there is a wide range of different life forms (bacteria, fungi, fern, flowering plants, nematodes, insects, birds, reptiles and so on) it can be termed a ‘biodiversity hotspot’. One of the main aims of conservation is to try and preserve the biodiversity we have inherited.

 

Q. 6. What is water harvesting? How can this technique help in the conservation of water?

Answer. Water harvesting is a conservation technique of capturing rain water when it falls and run off and taking measures to keep the water clean.

The main purpose of water harvesting is not to hold rain water on the surface of the earth but to make rain water percolate under the ground so as to recharge ‘groundwater’. This in turn reduces dependency on rainfall for irrigation.

 

Q. 7. On dropping a small piece of sodium in a test tube containing carbon compound ‘X’ , with molecular formula C2H6O, a brisk effervescence is observed and a gas ‘Y’ is produced. On bringing a burning splinter at the mouth of the test tube the gas evolved burns with a pop sound. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Also write the chemical equation for the reaction. Write the name and structure of the product formed, when you heat ‘X’ with excess cone, sulphuric acid.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-17

 

Q. 10. Three elements ‘X’, ‘Y’ and 71 have atomic numbers 7, 8 and 9 respectively.

(a) State their positions (Group number and period number both) in the Modern Periodic Table.

(b) Arrange these elements in the decreasing order of their atomic radii.

(c) Write the formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ combines with ‘Z’.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-18

 

Q. 12. In the context of reproduction of species state the main difference between fission and fragmentation. Also give one example of each.

Answer.

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Q. 15. With the help of an example justify the following statement:

“A trait may be inherited, but may not be expressed.”

Answer. In Mendel’s experiment with pea plants, when he cross-bed a tall pea plant with a short plea plant, he found that the first generation (F1) was of only tall plants. In the F1 progeny, no short plants were obtained. Flow ever, in the F2 generation, both tall and short plants were obtained in the ratio 3 :1 respectively. In the F2 generation, both traits — tallness and shortness were inherited where the tall character was the dominant trait and short character was the recessive trait.

Conclusion. Reappearance of dwarf character in F2 generation proves that the dwarf trait was inherited but not expressed in the F2 generation.

 

Q. 16. The image of an object formed by a lens is of magnification -1. If the distance between the object and its image is 60 cm, what is the focal length of the lens? If the object is moved 20 cm towards the lens, where would the image be formed? State reason and also draw a ray diagram in support of your answer.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-20

 

Q. 19. (a) Define focal length of a spherical lens.

(b) A divergent lens has a focal length of 30 cm. At what distance should an object of height 5 cm from the optical centre of the lens be placed so that its image is formed 15 cm away from the lens? Find the size of the image also.

(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in the above situation.

Answer.

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SET III

SECTION A

Q. 1. Write the name and structure of an aldehyde with four carbon atoms in its molecule.

Answer. Name of an aldehyde : Butanal

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Q. 2. List two functions of ovary of human female reproductive system.

Answer. Two functions of ovary:

  1. To produce female gamete ovum.
  2. To secrete female hormones estrogen and progestrone.

 

Q. 3. In a food chain of frog, grass, insect and snake, assign trophic level of frog.

Answer. Food chain. Grass —> insect —> frog —> snake

Frog belongs to 3rd trophic level.

 

Q. 4. The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to air are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively. If speed of light in glass is 2 x 108 m/s, find the speed of light in water.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-23

 

Q. 5. List four stakeholders which may be helpful in the conservation of forests.

Answer. Four stakeholders which may be helpful in the conservation of forests:

  1. The people who live in and around the forest and are dependent to some extent on forest products for their live hood.
  2. The forest department of the Government which owns the forest land and controls the resources from the forest.
  3. The industrialists who use various forest products as raw materials for their factories.
  4. The forest and wildlife activists who want to conserve the forests and see the forests in their original condition (pristine form).

 

Q. 6. The construction of large dams lead to social and environmental problems. List two problems of each category.

Answer. 

The construction of large dams leads to social and environmental problem.list two problem of each category

Social problem: Already poor tribals gets affected the most, loss of land, livelihood, home, property etc.

2. Not enough cash compensation offered by the government to the tribal groups, hence no source for balancing their livelihood.

Environmental problem: Ecosystem gets disturbed due to unannounced construction of dams.

2.Rate of deposition of sediments of sediments gets reduced and rate of erosion remains constant hence resulting in reduced water tables, less deposition of sediments in deltas etc

 

Q. 7. The position of eight elements in the Modern Periodic Table is given below where atomic numbers of elements are given in the parenthesis.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-24

(i) Write the electronic configuration of Ca.

(ii) Predict the number of valence electrons in Rb.

(iii) What is the number of shells in Sr?

(iv) Predict whether K is a metal or a non-metal.

(u) Which one of these elements has the largest atom in size?

(vi) Arrange Be, Ca, Mg and Rb in the increasing order of the size of their respective atoms.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-25

 

Q. 8. Write three different chemical reactions showing the conversion of ethanoic acid to sodium ethanoate. Write a balanced chemical equation in each case. Write the name of the reactants and the products other than ethanoic acid and sodium ethanoate in each case.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-26

 

Q. 9. An element ‘X’ belongs to the 3rd period and group 13 of the Modern Periodic Table.

(a) Determine the valence electrons and the valency of ‘X’.

(b) Molecular formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ reacts with an element ‘Y’ (atomic number = 8).

(c) Write the name and formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ combines with chlorine.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-27

 

Q. 17. The image formed by a spherical mirror is real, inverted and is of magnification -2. If the image is at a distance of 30 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed? Find the focal length of the mirror. List two characteristics of the image formed if the object is moved 10 cm towards the mirror.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-28

 

Q. 24. (a) Define focal length of a divergent lens.

(b) A divergent lens of focal length 30 cm forms the image of an object of size 6 cm on the same side as the object at a distance of 15 cm from its optical centre. Use lens formula to determine the distance of the object from the lens and the size of the image formed.

(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in the above situation.

Answer.

(a)

  • The principal focus of a diverging lens is a point on its principal axis from which light rays, originally parallel to the axis appear to diverge after passing through the diverging (concave) lens.
  •  The distance between pole and principal focus of a diverging lens is called the focal length. In the given diagram OF is the focal length.
    cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-29
cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-30

Science 10th Previous Year Question Paper 2017 (CBSE)

Science

SET I

Section – A

Q 1.Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and the 3rd member of the homologous series whose first member is methane. 

Answer:

Ethane – C2H6

Propane – C3H8

 

Q 2.When a cell reproduces, what happens to its DNA? 

Answer:

During the process of reproduction, the transmission of DNA from parents to offspring takes place. Before reproduction, DNA is replicated, which means two copies of DNA are produced. When the cell divides, the two copies are distributed equally between the two daughter cells so that a similar amount and type of DNA is transferred from the parent cell to the daughter cells. It maintains the consistency in the amount and type of DNA in the living organism of a particular species.

 

Q 3. In the following food chain, 100J of energy is available to the lion. How much energy was available to the producer? 

Plant → Dear → Lion

Answer:

Plant → Dear → Lion

According to 10% law,

10% of x = 100

x = 1000 J in deer.

10% of y = 1000

y = 10,000 J in Plant.

 

Q 4. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. List four characteristics (nature, position, etc.) of the image formed by the lens. 

Answer:

Given: u = -30 cm, f = -15 cm. (for concave lens)

We know that,

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q4
CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q4.1

Characteristics of image:

  • The image is formed at a distance of 10 cm from the concave lens on the left side.
  • Image formed is virtual.
  • Image formed is erect.
  • The size of the image formed is diminished.

 

Q 5.State two advantages of conserving

(i) forests, and

(ii) wildlife. 

Answer:

(i) Advantages of conserving forest:

  • It supports life, purifies air.
  • Holds the soils and thus prevents the soil erosion.

(ii) Advantage of conserving wildlife:

  • Balances ecology and biodiversity.
  • Provides important things to sustain life.

 

Q 6. Explain two main advantages associated with water harvesting at the community level. 

Answer:

Two advantages associated with water harvesting at community level are:

  • Water harvesting is an ideal solution to water problems in areas having inadequate water resources.
  • It improves the quality of water and helps in raising the groundwater level.

 

Q 7. Write the structural formula of ethanol. What happens when it is heated with excess cones? H2SO4 at 443 K? Write the chemical equation for the reaction stating the role of cone. H2SO4 in this reaction. 

Answer:

Structural formula of ethanol is: CH3CH2OH

When ethanol is heated with excess of conc. H2SO4 at 443K it results in the dehydration of ethanol to give ethene.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q7

Role of conc. H2SO4: Conc. H2SO4 acts as a dehydrating agent which removes water from the ethanol.

 

Q 8. Distinguish between esterification and saponification reaction with the help of the chemical equations for each. State one use of each (i) esters, and (ii) saponification process. 

Answer:

Esterification is opposite of saponification. In esterification:

RCOOH + R’OH → RCOOR’ + H2O

Whereas in saponification:

RCOOR’ + NaOH → RCOONa + R’OH

(i) Uses of Esters : Esters are used in making perfumes.

(ii) Uses of saponification reaction: Used in making soaps and soap products on a large scale.

 

Q 9. Write the number of periods and groups in the Modem Periodic Table. How does the metallic character of elements vary on moving

(i) from left to right in a period, and

(ii) down a group ? Give reason to justify your answer. 

Answer:

In the modem periodic table, there are 18 vertical columns known as Groups and 7 horizontal rows known as Periods.

Metallic character: It is defined as the tendency of an atom to lose electrons.

(i) Across the period i.e., from left to right, metallic character decreases.

(ii) Down the group i.e., from top to bottom, metallic character increases.

Reason: Across the period, the effective nuclear charge increases, thus decreasing its atomic radius. This favours the electronegativity and therefore the tendency ‘ to lose electrons is low. This accounts for the decrease in the metallic character. As we move down the group, the number of shells keep on increasing and therefore the atomic size increases and electronegativity decreases. This enhances the ability to lose electrons and therefore the metallic character increases.

 

Q 10. Na, Mg and Al are the elements of the 3rd period of the Modern Periodic Table having group number 1, 2 and 13 respectively. Which one of these elements has the (a) highest valency, (b) largest atomic radius, and (c) maximum chemical reactivity ? Justify your answer stating the reason for each. 

Answer:

Sodium (Na), At. number 11, 2, 8, 1

Magnesium (Mg), At. number 12, 2, 8, 2

Aluminium (Al), At. number 13, 2, 8, 3

(a) The element having the highest valency is Al, as it has 3 valence electrons.

(b) The element with the largest atomic radius is Na as left to right atomic radius decreases.

(c) The element with maximum chemical reactivity is Na as metallic character decreases left to right.

 

Q 11. Reproduction is one of the most important characteristics of living beings. Give three reasons in support of the statement. 

Answer:

Reproduction is an energy-consuming process which is not essential for the survival of an individual. But it is highly essential for all the living beings because of the following reasons:

  • Reproduction helps in increasing the number of members of a population.
  • By replacing the dead members with the new ones, it minimizes the risk of extinction of a species.
  • It brings about variations in species, thus, leading to their evolution.

 

Q 12. What is vegetative propagation ? State two advantages and two disadvantages of this method. 

Answer:

Vegetative propagation is a mode of asexual reproduction in which new plants are obtained from vegetative parts of the plants such as shoots or stem for the propagation of new plants.

Two advantages of vegetative propagation are:

  • Plants which do not produce seeds are propagated by this method.
  • Vegetative propagation is a cheaper, easier and rapid method of propagation in plants than growing plants from their seeds. Plants grow very slowly and take 4 to 7 years to develop flowers when grown with their seeds.

Two disadvantages of vegetative propagation are:

  • As there is no genetic variation, there is no chance of development of new and better varieties.
  • The vegetatively propagated plants are more prone to diseases that are specific to the species.

 

Q 13. List three techniques that have been developed to prevent pregnancy. Which one of these techniques is not meant for males ? How does the use of these techniques have a direct impact on the health and prosperity of a family? 

Answer:

Three techniques that have been developed to prevent pregnancy are:

  1. Mechanical Methods: Include condoms, diaphragm, IUCDs, etc.
  2. Chemical Methods : Include oral contraceptive pills, spermicide.
  3. Surgical Method: Includes vasectomy and tubectomy.
    The chemical methods are not meant for males.

The use of such contraceptive methods have various benefits, such as:

  1. Large size of families have a negative impact on the economic status of the family.
  2. Having pregnancies at quick successions reduces mother’s health and vitality. Use of contraceptive devices thus, effects the maternal health status.
  3. Some contraceptive devices (such as condoms) are also helpful in preventing sexually transmitted diseases.

 

Q 14. How did Mendel explain.that it is possible that a trait is inherited but not expressed in an organism? 

Answer:

Some traits that are inherited may not express themselves. Such hidden traits are known as recessive traits. Mendel explained this phenomenon with the help of a monohybrid cross. In a monohybrid cross performed by Mendel, tall plant was crossed with a dwarf plant which produced all tall plants in F1 progeny.

However, when these F1 tall plants were crossed with each other, both tall and dwarf pea plants were obtained in F2 generation. Reappearance of the dwarf pea plants in F2 generation proves that the dwarf trait was inherited but not expressed in F1 generation.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q14

So, dwarfness traits of plants (pea plant) were not lost but are suppressed in the F1 generation and thus reappears in F2 generation.

 

Q 15. “Evolution and classification of organisms are interlinked”. Give reasons to justify this statement. 

Answer:

Classification refers to the grouping and naming of organisms based on the similarities and difference in their characters. Classification is done on the basis of ancestral characteristics and derived characteristics. So as we move from simple life forms to the complex organisms, we are actually tracing the path of evolution. All life forms on earth have progressively changed during evolution. So the hierarchy develops during classification which throws the light on the evolutionary relationship among organisms. Common ancestors can also be predicted with the help of classification.

 

Q 16. If the image formed by a lens for all positions of an object placed in front of it is always erect and diminished, what is the nature of this lens? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. If the numerical value of the power of this lens is 10 D, what is its focal length in the Cartesian system ? 

Answer:

It is a concave lens (diverging lens).

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q16

 

Q 17. State the cause of dispersion of white light by a glass prism. How did Newton, using two identical glass prisms show that white light is made of seven colours ? Draw a ray diagram to show the path of a narrow beam of white light, through a combination of two identical prisms arranged together in inverted position with respect to each other, when it is allowed to fall obliquely on one of the faces of the first prism of the combination. 

Answer:

When a beam of white light enters a prism, it gets refracted at point and splits into its seven constituent colours. This splitting of the white light occurs because of different angles of bending for each colour and this different angles of bending occurs because different components of light have different refractive indices when passing through the glass prism.

Firstly, Newton made white light to fall on a prism, this cause dispersion of white light into seven colours. Newton then placed an inverted prism in the path of a colour band of seven colours. Only a beam of white ‘ light comes out from the second prism. So, Newton concluded that white light comprises of seven component colours.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q17

 

Q 18. (a) Water is an elixir of life, a very important natural resource. Your science teacher wants you to prepare a plan for a formative assessment activity, “How to save water, the vital natural resource”. Write any two ways that you will suggest to bring awareness in your neighbourhood, on how to save water.

(b) Name and explain any one way by which the underground water table does not go down further. 

Answer:

(a) Water is one of the most precious natural resources that has varied importance in our lives. It is an essential component of the human body, and is used almost everywhere in our day to day activities such as cooking, washing, farming etc. It is an indispensable part of our lives, without which life on earth is not possible. However, the amount of freshwater available for sustaining life is very less, so it is very important to save water by the following ways:

  • Turning off the taps during brushing, washing clothes/utensils etc., and use of buckets instead of showers for bathing.
  • Reusing of water by storing water after washing fruits and vegetables for watering plants and cleaning cars.

(b) The underground water table can be recharged through rainwater harvesting. Rainwater harvesting is a process by which rain water is collected and stored for the purpose of recharging the ground water or for future use like for irrigation and agriculture. In India, rainwater harvesting is an old tradition which is followed till now in many parts of India. For example, bawris are traditional architectural rainwater harvesters that were built for collecting water in the state of Rajasthan.

There are two ways of rainwater harvesting:

  • Surface runoff harvesting: In urban areas, rainwater that flows away from the surface can be collected and used for various purposes.
  • Rooftop rainwater harvesting: The rainwater on the roofs of the buildings is collected through canals that drains the water into ground reservoirs. This stored water is later utilised.

 

Q 19. Why are certain compounds called hydrocarbons? Write the general formula for homologous series of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes and also draw the structure of the first member of each series. Write the name of the reaction that converts alkenes into alkanes and also write a chemical equation to show the necessary conditions for the reaction to occur. 

Answer:

Compounds consisting of carbon and hydrogen are known as hydrocarbons.

1. Saturated hydrocarbons: Alkanes (CnH2n+2) are the compounds of carbon which have single bond.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q19

2. Unsaturated hydrocarbons: The compounds of carbon having double bonds are alkene (CnH2n) and those having triple bonds are alkyne (CnH2n-2).

The reaction which converts unsaturated hydrocarbons to saturated hydrocarbons i.e., alkenes to alkane is known as hydrogenation reaction. It is used to obtain ghee from oil.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q19.1

 

Q 20. (a) Write the functions of each of the following parts in a human female reproductive system:

(i) Ovary

(ii) Uterus

(iii) Fallopian tube

(b) Write the structure and functions of the placenta in a human female. 

Answer:

(a) (i) Functions of the Ovary:

  • It produces female gametes (ova).
  • It secretes female sex hormones

(ii) Functions of Uterus:

  • It supports and nourishes the developing foetus.
  • It expands according to the growth of the baby.

(iii) Functions of Fallopian tubes:

  • They carry eggs from the ovary to the uterus.
  • They act as the site for fertilisation.

(b) The placenta is the connecting link between the mother’s body and the baby. It is a disc embedded in the uterine wall. This special tissue contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue. The mother’s end of the placenta has blood spaces, which surrounds the villi. Placenta functions as a site of exchange of materials between the blood of the mother to the baby. The developing embryo generates certain waste substances that are also removed through placenta. Thus, the placenta serves as the nutritive, respiratory and excretory organ of the foetus.

 

Q 21. With the help of one example for each, distinguish between the acquired traits and the inherited traits. Why are the traits/ experiences acquired during the entire lifetime of an individual not inherited in the next generation? Explain the reason for this fact with an example. 

Answer:

S.No.Acquired traitsInherited traits
1.Those traits that are developed by the individual during his lifetime.Those traits which are present in an in­dividual since birth.
2.They are a result of changes in non-reproductive issues.They are a result of changes in the DNA.
3.They cannot be passed on to the progeny,       e.g., pierced ear, large muscle size etc.They are transmit­ted in the progeny, e.g., colour of eyes, skin or hair.

Traits can be passed on to the next generation only when they have some direct effect on the genes. The traits acquired during the lifetime of an individual cannot be inherited as they do not affect the genetic makeup of an organism. In fact, these traits develop due to the use and disuse of organs or due to the direct effect of the environment. Thus, they are not passed on to the next generation. For example, a wrestler develops large muscles because of his training programme, it does not mean that his offspring will necessarily have large muscles. Similarly, if a lady pierces her nose, the children produced to her will not have pierced nose by birth.

 

Q 22. Analyse the following observation table showing a variation of image-distance (v) with object-distance (u) in case of a convex lens and answer the questions that follow without doing any calculations:

S.No.Object-Distance u (cm)Image-Distance v (cm)
1.-100+ 25
2.-60+ 30
3.-40+ 40
4.-30+ 60
5.-25+ 100
6.-15+ 120

(a) What is the focal length of the convex lens ? Give a reason to justify your answer.

(b) Write the serial number of the observation which is not correct. On what basis have you arrived at this conclusion?

(c) Select an appropriate scale and draw a ray diagram for the observation at S. No. 2. Also, find the approximate value of magnification. 

Answer:

(a) From observation 3, the radius of curvature of the lens is 40 cm as distance of object and the distance of the image is the same.

Focal length, f = R/2 = 40/2 = 20 cm.

(b) S. No. 6 is not correct, as for this observation the object distance is between focus and pole and in such cases, the image formed is always virtual, but in this case real image is forming as the image distance is positive, hence, v should be negative

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q22

 

Q 23. (a) If the image formed by a mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always diminished, erect and virtual, state the type of the mirror and also draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. Write one use such mirrors are put to and why.

(b) Define the radius of curvature of spherical mirrors. Find the nature and focal length of a spherical mirror whose radius of curvature is + 24 cm. 

Answer:

(a) The type of the mirror is a convex mirror. (diverging mirror)

The ray diagram is shown below:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q23

Use of convex mirror: Convex mirror is used as rearview mirror in vehicles as it always produces a virtual, erect and diminished image of an object. So, images of vehicles over a wide area can be seen easily in it.

(b) Radius of curvature: The distance between the centre of curvature and pole of a spherical mirror is called radius of curvature.

R = +24 cm

f = R/2 = 24/2 = +12 cm

The mirror is convex mirror.

 

Q 24. (a) A student suffering from myopia is not able to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m. List two possible reasons due to which this defect of vision may have arisen. With the help of ray diagrams, explain

(i) Why the student is unable to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m from his eyes.

(ii) The type of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision and how this defect is corrected by the use of this lens.

(b) If, in this case, the numerical value of the focal length of the corrective lens is 5 m, find the power of the lens as per the new Cartesian sign convention. 

Answer:

(a) Two possible reasons due to which this defect of vision may have arisen are:

1. Increase in curvature of the lens.

2. Elongation of the eyeball.

(i) A myopic eye has its far point nearer than infinity. It forms the image of a distant object in front of the retina as shown below:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q24

Image is formed in front of Retina

In the given case, student’s far point is 5 m. So, image of the object placed beyond 5 m from his eyes is formed in front of the retina and object appears blurred. That is why the student is unable to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m from his eye.

(ii) Since a concave lens has an ability to diverge the incoming rays. Therefore, it is used to correct this defect of vision. The image is formed at the retina by the use of a concave lens of suitable power as shown.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q24.1

Section – B

Q 25. When you add a few drops of acetic acid to a test-tube containing sodium bicarbonate powder, which one of the following is your observation? 

(a) No reaction takes place.

(b) A colourless gas with the pungent smell is released with brisk effervescence.

(c) A brown coloured gas is released with brisk effervescence.

(d) Formation of bubbles of a colourless and odourless gas.

(d) Formation of bubbles of a colourless and odourless gas. 

 

Q 26. While studying the saponification reaction, what do you observe when you mix an equal amount of colourless vegetable oil and 20% aqueous solution of NaOH in a beaker? 

(a) The colour of the mixture has become dark brown.

(b) A brisk effervescence is taking place in the beaker.

(c) The outer surface of the beaker has become hot.

(d) The outer surface of the beaker has become cold.

Answer:

(c) The outer surface of the beaker has become hot.

 

Q 27. A student requires hard water for an experiment in his laboratory which is not available in the neighbouring area. In the laboratory, there are some salts, which when dissolved in distilled water can convert it into hard water. Select from the following groups of salts, a group, each salt of which when dissolved in distilled water will make it hard. 

(a) Sodium chloride, Potassium chloride

(b) Sodium sulphate, Potassium sulphate

(c) Sodium sulphate, Calcium sulphate

(d) Calcium sulphate, Calcium chloride

Answer:

(d) Calcium sulphate, Calcium chloride

 

Q 28. To perform an experiment to identify the different parts of an embryo of a dicot seed, first of all you require a dicot seed. Select dicot seeds from the following group. 

Wheat, Gram, Maize, Pea, Barley, Groundnut

(a) Wheat, Gram and Pea

(b) Gram, Pea and Ground-nut

(c) Maize, Pea and Barley

(d) Gram, Maize and Ground-nut

Answer:

(b) Gram, Pea and Ground-nut

 

Q 29. The following vegetables are kept in a basket:

Potato, Tomato, Radish, Brinjal, Carrot, Bottle-gourd

Which two of these vegetables correctly represent the homologous structures? 

(a) Carrot and Tomato

(b) Potato and Brinjal

(c) Radish and Carrot

(d) Radish and Bottle-gourd

Answer:

(c) Radish and Carrot

 

Q 30. Study the given ray diagrams and select the correct statement from the following: 

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q30

(a) Device X is a concave mirror and device Y is a convex lens, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively.

(b) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 10 cm and 25 cm respectively.

(c) Device X is a concave lens and device Y is a convex mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively.

(d) Device X is a convex lens arid device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively.

Answer:

(d) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively.

 

Q 31. A student obtains a blurred image of a distant object on a screen using a convex lens. To obtain a distinct image on the screen he should move the lens. 

(a) away from the screen

(b) towards the screen

(c) to a position very far away from the screen.

(d) either towards or away from the screen depending upon the position of the object.

Answer:

(d) either towards or away from the screen depending upon the position of the object.

 

Q 32. A student very cautiously traces the path of a ray through a glass slab for different values of the angle of incidence (∠i). He then measures the corresponding values of the angle of refraction (∠r) and the angle of emergence (∠e) for every value of the angle of incidence. On analysing these measurements of angles, his conclusion would be: 

(a) ∠i > ∠r > ∠e

(b) ∠i = ∠e > ∠r

(c) ∠i < ∠r < ∠e

(d) ∠i = ∠e < ∠r

Answer:

(b) ∠i = ∠e > ∠r

 

Q 33. Study the following ray diagram

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q33

In this diagram, the angle of incidence, the angle of emergence and the angle of deviation respectively have been represented by 

(a) y, p, z

(b) x, q, z

(c) p, y, z

(d) p, z, y

Answer:

(c) p, y, z

 

Q 34. Mention the essential material (chemicals) to prepare soap in the laboratory. Describe in brief the test of determining the nature (acidic/alkaline) of the reaction mixture of saponification reaction. 

Answer:

The essential chemicals required to prepare soap in the laboratory are oil and sodium hydroxide solutions. In order to determine the nature of the reaction mixture of saponification reaction, we dip red litmus paper into it which will turn blue after a while indicating that it is a basic mixture.

 

Q 35. Draw in sequence (showing the four stages), the process of binary fission in Amoeba. 

Answer:

Binary Fission in Amoeba is the asexual type of reproduction in which the organism splits directly into two equal¬sized offsprings, each with a copy of the parent’s genetic material.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q35

 

Q 36. A student focuses the image of a candle flame, placed at about 2 m from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm, on a screen. After that, he moves gradually the flame towards the lens and each time focuses its image on the screen. 

  1. In which direction does he move the lens to focus the flame on the screen?
  2. What happens to the size of the image of the flame formed on the screen?
  3. What difference is seen in the intensity (brightness) of the image of the flame on the screen?
  4. What is seen on the screen when the flame is very close (at about 5 cm) to the lens?

Answer:

  1. He moves the lens away from the screen to focus on the image.
  2. Size of the image increases.
  3. The intensity of the image decreases as the flame moves towards the lens.
  4. Nothing can be seen as the image formed is virtual.

SET II

Q 1. Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and 3rd member of the homologous series whose first member is ethene. 

Answer:

1. Propene: C3H6

2. Butene: C4H8

 

Q 2. Newly formed DNA copies may not be identical at times. Give one reason. 

Answer:

During the process of replication of DNA, most of the base sequences in the new copies are identical to those in the parent DNA. However, some changes can occur either due to mutation or due to minor errors during the replication process. Thus, the newly formed DNA copies may not be identical at times.

 

Q 3.In the following food chain, plants provide 500 J of energy to rats. How much energy will be available to hawks from snakes?

Plants → Rats → Snakes → Hawks 

Answer:

500 J of energy is available to the rats thus according to 10% law, 50 J energy will be available to snakes and 5 J energy will be available to hawk.

 

Q 4. An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. List four characteristics (nature, position, etc.) of the image formed by the lens. 

Answer:

Given, u = -15 cm, f = 20 cm

1/f = 1/v – 1/u

1/20 = 1/v + 1/15

1/v = 1/20 – 1/15

v = -60 cm

Four characteristics of the image formed by the lens are:

  • Virtual
  • Erect
  • At a distance of 60 cm on the same side of the lens as the object
  • Enlarged or magnified image.

 

Q 5.Why is an equitable distribution of resources essential in a society? List two forces which are against such distribution. 

Answer:

Equitable distribution of resources is when every individual gets an equal right to access all the available resources and is benefited directly or indirectly. It also avoids the division of society to an extent.

The main forces which work against equitable distribution:

  • Lack of natural resources.
  • Excessive consumption by the rich.
  • Profit motive of people exploiting resources.
  • Corruption. (Any two)

 

Q 6. Why must we conserve our forests? List two factors responsible for causing deforestation. 

Answer:

We must conserve forests because we derive countless benefits such as food, timber etc. from them and they are an important component of our ecosystem. Factors that contribute to deforestation are as follows:

  1. Large scale development projects have contributed to the loss of forests.
  2. Forests are cleared on a large scale to meet the growing needs of industrialisation, especially fuelwood and for other forest products and minerals.
  3. Mining has also contributed to deforestation.
  4. With the increase in population and growing demand for commercial crops and the need for more and more land for agriculture, has to lead to deforestation.
  5. Growing urbanisation, trees are cut to establish cities, to lay down infrastructure.

 

Q 9. What happens when (write a chemical equation in each case)

(a) ethanol is burnt in the air?

(b) ethanol is heated with an excess cone. H2SO4 at 443 K?

(c) a piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol? 

Answer:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set II Q9

 

Q 10. Explain an esterification reaction with the help of a chemical equation. Describe an activity to show esterification. 

Answer:

The reaction of carboxylic acid with alcohol forms an ester. This process of formation of ester is called esterification.

CH3COOH + CH3CH2OH → CH3COOCH2CH3 + H2O

Activity:

  1. Take 1 ml of ethanol and 1 ml of glacial acetic acid in a boiling tube and mix the contents well.
  2. Add a few drops of conc. H2SO4 to it.
  3. Warm the contents on a water bath for a few minutes.
  4. Now pour the solution in a beaker containing 20-50 mL of water.
  5. A sweet fruity smell indicating the formation of an ester is observed.

 

Q 11. With the help of two suitable examples, explain why certain experiences and traits earned by people during their lifetime are not passed on to their next generations. When can such traits be passed on? 

Answer:

The experiences and qualifications that a person earns during their lifetime are examples of acquired traits. These traits are not inherited, they do riot affect the genetic makeup. They are developed due to the direct affect of the environment. Thus they are not passed to the next generation. Piercing of ears or large sized muscles of the wrestler are not carried by the next generation. Traits can only be passed on to the next generation only when they have some direct effect on the genes. For example, mutation is caused in the germ cells of a person due to exposure to some harmful radiations, it is likely that the mutation will be passed on to the subsequent generations.

 

Q 14. Describe reproduction by spores in Rhizopus. 

Answer:

Rhizopus is a fungus that reproduces by spore formation. The fungal hyphae gives rise to a globular structure known as sporangium. The sporangium gives rise to several spores by repetitive division of its nucleus. Each nucleus gets surrounded by a part of cytoplasm and thus develops into a spore. These spores then mature inside the sporangium. Once they are fully mature, the sporangium bursts to release these spores in the environment. Since the spores disperse through air, they can land on various sites. These sites may be favourable or unfavourable. During unfavourable conditions, these spores are protected by a tough coat. Once favourable conditions return, they germinate and grow into new hyphae.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set II Q14

 

Q 16. Draw ray diagrams to show the formation of three times magnified (a) real, and (b) virtual image of an object by a converging lens. Mark the positions of O, F and 2F in each diagram. 

Answer:

(a) For real image: To get a three-times magnified image, the object is placed between F1 & 2F1

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set II Q16

(b) For virtual image: To get a three-times magnified image, the object is placed between the F1 and optical centre O.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set II Q16.1

 

Q 17. What is the dispersion of white light? State its cause. Draw a ray diagram to show the dispersion of white light by a glass prism. 

Answer:

The phenomenon of splitting of white light into its seven constituent colours, when it passes through a glass prism, is called the dispersion of light.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set II Q17

When a beam of white light enters a prism, it gets refracted at point and splits into its seven constituent colours i.e.r violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red i.e., VIBGYOR. This splitting of light rays occurs because of the different angles of bending for each colour and this different angles of bending occurs because different components of light have different refractive indices or speed of different colours is different in glass when passing through the glass prism. When a beam of sunlight is allowed to fall on one of the rectangular surfaces of the glass prism, we obtain a coloured spectrum with red and violet colour at its extremes.

SET III

Q 1. Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and 3rd member of the homologous series where the first member is ethyne. 

Answer:

1. CH3C = CH (propyne), n = 3

2. CH3CH2C = CH (Butyne), n = 4

 

Q 2.Why is variation important for a species? 

Answer:

Variation is necessary for the survival of species as variation makes species more adapted to survive with the change environmental conditions. The vari? t species are more adapted to changing the environment. Therefore, they can survive better and reproduce to pass the genes to the offsprings.

 

Q 3. In the following food chain, 20,000 J of energy was available to the plants. How much energy would be available to man in this chain?

Plants → Sheep → Man 

Answer:

In the given food chain, according to 10% law,

Plants(20,000J) → Sheep(2000J) → Man(200J)

Amount of energy available to the man is 200 J.

 

Q 5. You being an environmentalist are interested in contributing to the conservation of natural resources. List four activities that you can do on your own. 

Answer:

We can bring the following activities in practice to conserve the natural resources:

  1. We can reuse and recycle the paper products so that cutting of trees could be reduced.
  2. We can reduce the consumption of water by avoiding its wastage in our day to day activities.
  3. We can also adopt water harvesting like rainwater harvesting.
  4. We can reduce the consumption of fossil fuels by using public transport, carpool and switching off vehicles at signals.

 

Q 6. Why are coal and petroleum categorised as natural resources ? Give a reason as to why they should be used judiciously. 

Answer:

Natural resources are those living and non-living sources available in our environment which are exploited to meet the human requirements. Since coal and petroleum are actually the fossils of the dead plants and animals respectively, hence considered as natural resources.

Both coal and petroleum are used as important sources of energy since long time. Both these fossil fuels were formed millions of years ago from the degradation of biomass. Since these fossil fuels are non-renewable in nature and they have limited reserves, therefore they must be used judiciously, otherwise they will get exhausted very soon.

 

Q 9. What is periodicity in properties of elements with reference to the Modem Periodic Table? Why do all the elements of the same group have similar properties? How does the tendency of elements to gain electrons change as we move from left to right in a period ? State the reason of this change. 

Answer:

The occurrence of the elements with similar properties after certain regular intervals when they are arranged in increasing order of atomic number is called periodicity. The periodic repetition of the properties is due to the recurrence of similar valence shell configuration after regular interval.

The elements in a group have same valence electrons thus similar chemical properties. In a period, the tendency to gain electrons increases from left to right. This tendency increases because the hold of the nucleus on the outermost electrons becomes weak thus it becomes easy to eject the electron.

 

Q 10. Write the electronic configuration of two elements X and Y whose atomic numbers are 20 and 17 respectively. Write the molecular formula of the compound formed when element X reacts with element Y. Draw the electron-dot structure of the product and also state the nature of the bond formed between both the elements. 

Answer:

X = 20; 2, 8, 8, 2

Y = 17; 2, 8, 7

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set III Q10

The nature of the bond will be ionic.

 

Q 12. What is an organic evolution ? It cannot be equated with progress. Explain with the help of a suitable example. 

Answer:

Organic evolution refers to the gradual changes that occur in living organisms over time. It is the result of change in the genetic makeup of the organism due to mutation and other sources of variations. „ The favourable mutations are accepted by nature and provide the organism an adaptive advantage, leading to its evolution. Evolution cannot always be equated to progress because it does not always lead to the formation of a new species. In fact, most of the time, it leads to the generation of diversity. One species does not necessarily get eliminated to give rise to new ones in prevailing environments. Also, the newly formed species may have complex organisations because of evolution but it cannot be considered better than the earlier species. Many older and simpler designs still survive in nature. For example, bacteria are one of the simplest life forms on earth and still they can survive in the most adverse conditions, such as hot springs, deep sea thermal vents etc. Therefore, having more complex body designs does not make any species superior to others.

 

Q 13. List the two types of reproduction. Which one of the two is responsible for bringing in more variations in its progeny and how? 

Answer:

Reproduction methods are of two types: Sexual and Asexual. Out of these, sexual reproduction brings more variation in organisms. In sexual reproduction fusion of male and female gametes from different organisms occurs. Since the fusion of gametes come from two different individuals, the offspring exhibit more diversity of characters. Also during gamete formation, meiosis occurs which brings new combinations of genes. Both these factors lead to more variations in the progeny.

 

Q 16. “A lens can form a magnified erect image as well as magnified inverted image of an object placed in front of it.” State the nature of this lens and draw ray diagrams to justify the above statement. Mark the positions of O, F and 2F in the diagram.

Answer:

Convex/Converging lens.

Two ray diagrams are drawn to show it-

(a) When object is placed between O and F1, the image formed is magnified, Virtual and erect.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set III Q16

(b) When object is placed between F and 2F, the image formed is magnified and inverted.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set III Q16.1

Q 17. What is “dispersion of white light”? Draw a labelled diagram to illustrate the recombination of the spectrum of white light. Why is it essential that the two prisms used for the purpose should be identical and placed in an inverted position with respect to each other? 

Answer:

The phenomenon of splitting of white light into its constituent colours on passing through a prism is known as the dispersion of white light. This splitting of the light rays occurs because of the different angles of bending for each colour and this different angles of bending occurs because different component of light faces different refractive index (or speed of different colours is different) when passing through the glass prism.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set III Q17

It is essential that the two prisms used for the purpose should be identical and placed in an inverted position with respect to each other so that the second prism completely nullifies the dispersion caused by the first prism and we get pure white light.

Latest Current Affairs 21 May 2021

CURRENT AFFAIRS
21 May 2021

NATIONAL NEWS:

A) Declare mucormycosis an epidemic, Centre tells states.

The Union government has asked the States to declare mucormycosis, the fungal infection being reported in Covid-19 patients, an epidemic. In a letter to the States, Health and Family Welfare Ministry joint secretary Lav Agarwal said that declaring the black fungus infection seen in Covid-19 patients an epidemic would lead to healthcare facilities screening for it and reporting all such cases to the government. In recent times a new challenge in the form of a fungal infection, namely mucormycosis, has emerged and is reported from many States amongst Covid-19 patients, especially those on steroid therapy and deranged sugar control. This fungal infection is leading to prolonged morbidity and mortality amongst Covid-19 patients, he said. The treatment of the fungal infection required a multi-disciplinary approach that involved eye surgeons, ENT specialists, general surgeons, neurosurgeons and dental maxilo facial surgeons, and the use of Amphotericin B as an anti-fungal medicine, he noted. You are requested to make mucormycosis a notifiable disease under Epidemic Diseases Act 1897, wherein all government and private health facilities and medical colleges will follow guidelines for screening, diagnosis, management of mucormycosis, issued by MoHFW (Gol) and ICMR and make it mandatory for all these facilities to report all suspected and confirmed cases to Health Department through district-level Chief Medical Officer and subsequently to IDSP [Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme] surveillance system, he wrote.

 

B) Govt issues advisory on aerosols, says ventilation essential to reduce Covid-19 transmission indoors.

Aerosols could be carried in the air for up to 10 metres and improving the ventilation of indoor spaces would reduce transmission, a government advisory on stopping the spread of Covid-19 said on Thursday. The advisory, issued by the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India, said there was need to remember the simple measures that could reduce the transmission of SARS-CoV-2. Ventilation can decrease the risk of transmission from one infected person to the other. Just as smells can be diluted from the air through opening windows and doors and using exhaust systems, ventilating spaces with improved directional air flow decreases the accumulated viral load in the air, reducing the risk of transmission. Ventilation is a community defense that protects all of us at home or at work, it stated. It recommended adding outdoor air in offices, homes and public spaces. Droplets and aerosols were the key transmission modes of the virus. While droplets fell up to 2 metres from an infected person, aerosols could travel up to 10 metres. Ventilation in hutments could be improved by adding jaali or other simple air outlet, apart from installing exhaust fans. It is advised that jaali/air outlets with exhaust fans are installed by gram panchayats in homes where there is no cross-ventilation, the advisory said. For workplaces, it recommended keeping doors and windows open while air-conditioners were on. Hospitals should ensure that vaccinations were carried out in well-ventilated areas and public transport like buses should keep windows open and use exhaust fans.

 

C) It is insulting that CMs were not are allowed to speak in meeting with PM, says Mamata.

West Bengal Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee on Thursday took strong exception to Chief Ministers not being allowed to speak at a virtual meeting with Prime Minister Narendra Modi. It was just a casual, super flop meeting. We, the CMs, felt insulted and humiliated, she told journalists at the State Secretariat after the conclusion of the meeting between the Prime Minister and 10 Chief Ministers. Banerjee said that she thought that she would be allowed to speak and raise issues relating to the Covid-19 pandemic but was shocked and astonished at not being allowed to speak. She also added that she had listed down several points she wanted to raise with Modi. The country is passing through a critical juncture but the Prime Minister’s approach is very casual. They have demolished the federal structure. If the Chief Ministers were not allowed to speak, why were they invited? she asked. Banerjee said that vaccines, medicines, oxygen, remdesivir were not being provided by the Centre, and the States could not procure these from markets because of non-availability. Referring to the slow pace of vaccination, Banerjee said, If States were to accept his [PM’s] formula of vaccination, it will take 10 years to vaccinate people. It was one-way insult, one-way humiliation. No Chief Minister was allowed to speak. Only a few CMs from BJP-ruled States were allowed to speak, she said. Banerjee also asked how many Central teams were sent to Uttar Pradesh when bodies of Covid-19 patients were found floating in river Ganga. She also accused the Centre of indulging in vendetta politics during the time of pandemic.

 

D) Sonia urges PM to give free education to children who lost parents in pandemic.

Congress president Sonia Gandhi has urged Prime Minister Narendra Modi to provide free education to children who have lost their parents to Covid-19. In a letter to Modi on Thursday, she highlighted the plight of the children who had either lost both the parents or an earning parent during the pandemic. They were left with the trauma of loss and no support towards a stable education or future, she pointed out. Amidst the devastation caused by the pandemic and the heart-wrenching tragedies being faced by affected families, news of young children losing one or both parents to COVID-19 are the most poignant, her letter stated. He is writing to request you to consider providing free education at the Navodaya Vidyalayas to the children who have lost either both parents or an earning parent on account the Covid-19 pandemic. Feel that as a nation, we owe it to them to give them hope for a robust future after the unimaginable tragedy that has befallen them, she wrote. The Navodaya Vidyalayas are CBSE-affiliated, co-educational residential schools in which talented students of Class VI to XII, after clearing a selection test, are offered free education, including text books, school uniforms and hostel facilities. Gandhi described the Navodaya Vidyalayas as among the most significant legacies of her husband, Rajiv Gandhi, and noted that there were as many as 661 such schools across the country. It was his dream [Rajiv Gandhi] to make high-quality modern education accessible and affordable to talented youth, predominantly from rural areas, she said.

 

E) In letter to Twitter, Congress seeks suspension of BJP leaders’ accounts over ‘fake toolkit’ posts.

Days after filing a police complaint against BJP President J P Nadda, Union Minister Smriti Irani, spokesperson Sambit Patra, and party functionary B L Santosh for spreading an alleged ‘fake’ toolkit, the Congress on Thursday formally wrote to Twitter to remove their tweets and permanently suspend their accounts. For the past three days, the Congress and BJP have engaged in a bitter war of words after BJP spokesperson Sambit Patra accused the Congress of preparing a toolkit to destroy Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s image during the second wave of the coronavirus pandemic. The BJP alleged that social media volunteers of the Congress were instructed to refer to the mutant virus as ‘Modi Strain’ or the ‘Indian Strain’. The Congress hit back with a police complaint against Patra and other top leaders for allegedly using a forged document to target the Congress. The Opposition party claimed that the letterhead of the All India Congress Committee (AICC) Research Department was forged from an actual document on the Central Vista project to prepare a fake document. As Twitter’s own policy and rules seeks to discourage deceptive/ synthetic/ manipulated media that are likely to cause harm, we humbly request you to immediately remove the tweets contained in Annexure 1, or any other such material on the Twitter platform. Also, you are requested to kindly carry out a detailed probe on the subject-matter and permanently suspend the Twitter accounts of the above named individuals, read the Congress complaint, filed by AICC research department head Rajeev Gowda and social media head Rohan Gupta. Calling it a pre-planned criminal conspiracy, the complaint mentioned that the toolkit was prepared with the clear intent to cause social unrest, communal disharmony in order to fuel hate and escalate violence in various parts of India.

 

F) Govt’s responsibility to preserve records at National Archives, says Culture Minister.

Culture Minister Prahlad Singh Patel said on Thursday that the government was responsible for the records at the National Archives and would continue to store them safely during the Central Vista redevelopment project. Patel told that the historic National Archives building housed all the important records and would not be touched during the revamp, in which the annexe building had been proposed to be demolished and replaced with a new one. Talk of this project is premature. There will be no change to the old building. All the important records are kept in the old building. Besides, it is the government’s responsibility to maintain the archives and it will continue to keep the records safely, he said, when asked about the public outcry against the proposal. The National Archives was shifted from Kolkata to the present building in 1926 and the annexe was added post-Independence. As a part of the Central Vista redevelopment project, the National Archives annexe building was proposed to be replaced with a new building meant for use by researchers, according to the draft Masterplan prepared by the Centre’s consultant for the project, HCP Design, Planning and Management Ltd., in 2019.

 

INTERNATIONAL NEWS 

A) U.S., Russia at odds over military activity in the Arctic.

The Biden administration is leading a campaign against Russian attempts to assert authority over Arctic shipping and reintroduce a military dimension to discussions over international activity in the area. As Russia assumed the rotating chairmanship of the Arctic Council on Thursday, the U.S. rallied members to oppose Moscow’s plans to set maritime rules in the Northern Sea Route, which runs from Norway to Alaska, and its desire to resume military talks within the eight nation bloc. Those talks were suspended in 2014 over Russia’s actions in Ukraine. The effort reflects growing concerns in Washington and among some NATO allies about a surge in Russian military and commercial activity in the region that is rapidly opening up due to the effects of climate change. At a meeting of Arctic Council Foreign Ministers in Reykjavik, the capital of Iceland, U.S. Secretary of State Antony Blinken said the group should maintain its focus on peaceful cooperation on environmental issues, maritime safety and the well-being of indigenous people in the region. Mr. Blinken stressed the importance of upholding effective governance and the rule of law to ensure that the Arctic remains a region free of conflict where countries act responsibly. Several other Foreign Ministers, including those from Canada, Iceland, Finland, Norway and Sweden, echoed Mr. Blinken’s call to keep the Arctic peaceful and free of conflict.

 

B) World’s largest iceberg breaks off from Antarctica, says ESA.

A huge ice block has broken off from western Antarctica into the Weddell Sea, becoming the largest iceberg in the world and earning the name A-76. It is the latest in a series of large ice blocks to dislodge in a region acutely vulnerable to climate change, although scientists said in this case it appeared to be part of a natural polar cycle. Slightly larger than the Spanish island of Majorca, A-76 had been monitored by scientists since May 13 when it began to separate from the Ronne Ice Shelf, according to the U.S. National Ice Center. The iceberg, measuring around 170 km long and 25 km wide, with an area of 4,320 sq km is now floating in the Weddell Sea. It joins previous world’s largest title holder A-23A — approximately 3,880 sq. km. in size — which has remained in the same area since 1986. A-76 was originally spotted by the British Antarctic Survey and the calving — the term used when an iceberg breaks off — was confirmed using images from the Copernicus satellite, the European Space Agency said. Icebergs form when hunks of ice break off from ice shelves or glaciers and begin to float in open water.

Social Science 10th Previous Year Question Paper 2016 (CBSE)

SOCIAL SCIENCE

SET-I

Q.1. Who remarked “when France sneezes the rest of Europe catches cold”.

Answer. Duke Metternich

 Or

Who were called colons in Vietnam?

Answer. French citizens living in Vietnam were known as colons.

 

Q.2. Why should the use of cattle cake as fuel be discouraged?

Answer. Using dung cake or cattle cake as fuel is being discouraged because it consumes most valuable manure which could be used in agriculture.

 

Q.3. Distinguish between pressure groups and political parties by stating any one point of distinction.

Answer. Pressure groups do not aim to directly control or share political power but political parties directly control and share political power.

 

Q.4. Why did India adopt multi-party system?

Answer. India adopted multi-party system because:

  1. India is a large country and has social and geographical diversities.
  2. It is easy to absorb different diversities in a multi-party system.

 

Q.5. Name any two sectional interest groups.

Answer. Trade Unions and Professional bodies like lawyers, teachers etc.

 

Q.6. Why do MNCs set up their offices and factories in those regions where they get cheap labour and other resources?

Answer. MNCs set up offices and factories for products in regions where they can get cheap labour and other resources so that (i) the cost of production is low and (ii) the MNCs can earn greater profits.

 

Q.7. If any damage is done to a consumer by a trader, under which consumer right one can move to consumer court to get compensation?

Answer. Right to seek redressal. The consumers can seek redressal against trade practices of exploitation and have the right to fair settlement of the genuine grievances.

 

.Q.8. Why is the supervision of the functioning of formal sources of loans necessary?

Answer. Supervision of the functioning of formal sources of loans is necessary because banks have to submit information to the RBI on how much they are lending, to whom they are lending and at what interest rate etc.

 

Q.9. “The decade of 1830 had brought great economic hardship in Europe.” Support the statement with arguments.

Answer. The decade of 1830s was known as great economic hardship in Europe because of the following reasons:

  1. Europe had come under the grip of large-scale unemployment. In most of the countries there were more seekers of jobs than employment.
  2.  Cities had become overcrowded and slums had emerged as population from the rural areas migrated to the cities.
  3. Small producers in towns were often faced with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-made goods from England where industrialization was more advanced specially in the field of textile production.
  4.  In those regions of Europe, where aristocracy still enjoyed power, peasants struggled under the burden of feudal dues and obligations. The rise of food prices and bad harvests added to their hardships.

Or

“The Ho Chi Minh Trail became advantageous to Vietnamese in the war against U.S.” Support the statement with arguments.

Answer. “The Ho-Chi-Minh Trail became advantageous to Vietnamese in the war against U.S.”

  1. The trail symbolizes how the Vietnamese used their limited resources to great advantage.
  2. The trail, an immense network of footpaths and roads was used to transport men and material from North to South.
  3. It was improved in late 1950s and from 1967 about 20,000 North Vietnamese troops came south each month. The trail had support bases and hospitals along the way.
  4. Mostly supplies were carried by women porters on their backs or on their bicycles.
  5. The U.S regularly bombed this trail to disrupt supplies but efforts to destroy this important supply line by intensive bombing failed because they were rebuilt very quickly.

 

Q.10. What type of flag was designed during the ‘Swadeshi Movement’ in Bengal? Explain its main features.

Answer. During the ‘Swadeshi Movement’ in Bengal, a tricolour flag—red, green and yellow was designed. It had eight lotuses representing the eight provinces of British India.

It had a crescent moon, representing Hindus and Muslims.

 

Q.11. “The plantation workers in Assam had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the notion of Swaraj”. Support the statement with arguments.

Answer. “The plantation workers in Assam had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the notion of Swaraj”

  1. For plantation workers in Assam, freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed.
  2. Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859 plantation workers were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission.
  3. Swaraj meant retaining a link with the village from which they had come.
  4. When they heard of the Non-cooperation Movement, thousands of workers defied the authorities, left the plantations and headed home.
  5. They believed that Gandhi Raj was coming and everyone would be given land in their own village.

 

Q.12. Classify industries on the basis of source of raw material. How are they different from each other?

Answer. On the basis of sources of raw material industries are classified as:

(i) Agro based industries; (ii) Mineral based industries

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-social-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-1

 

Q.13. ‘Consumption of energy in all forms has been rising all over the country. There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development and energy saving.’ Suggest and explain any three measures to solve this binning problem.

Answer. Every sector of the national economy—agriculture, industry, transport, (commercial and domestic), needs greater inputs of energy.

With increasing population and changing lifestyles energy consumption is increasing very fast. We are not self sufficient in energy according to demands. Therefore we have to adopt a cautious approach for the judicious use of our limited resources. Conservation of energy should be done at all levels.

Three measures to reduce consumption of energy in all forms:

  1. We can do our bit by using public transport systems instead of individual vehicles.
  2. Switching off electricity when not in use.
  3. Using power saving devices or using non-conventional sources of energy such as solar energy, wind energy etc.
  4. Checking the power equipments regularly can help in saving of energy.

 

Q.14. Suggest any three steps to minimise the environmental degradation caused by the industrial development in India.

Answer. Steps to minimize the environmental degradation caused by industrial development in India are: –

  1. Minimizing use of water for processing by reusing and recycling in two or more successive stages. Harvesting of rain water to meet water requirements of industries and other domestic purposes.
  2. Treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in rivers and ponds.
  3.  Particulate matter in the air can be reduced by fitting smoke to factories with electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers and inertial separators. Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of coal in factories.
  4. Machinery and equipment’s can be fitted with silencers to prevent noise pollution.

 

Q.15. What is meant by regional political party? State the conditions required to be recognised as a ‘regional political party’.

Answer. A regional party is a party that is present in only some states. Regional parties or State parties need not be regional in their ideology. They have state identity as they are present only in some states. Some of these parties are all India parties that happen to have succeeded only in states. Example, Samajwadi Party, Rashtriya Janta Dal.

Conditions required for a party to be recognized as a regional political party:

  1. A party that secures at least six percent of the total votes in an election to the legislative assembly of a state.
  2. Wins at least two seats in the legislative assembly.

 

Q.16. What are public interest pressure groups? Describe their functioning.

Answer. Public Interest Groups are those that promote collective rather than selective interests. Their functioning is as follows:

  1. It aims to help groups other than their own members.
  2. They represent some common interest that needs to be defended.
  3. The members of the organization may not benefit from the cause that the organization represents.

For example, a group fighting against bonded labour fights not for itself but for those who are suffering under such bondage. E.g., BAMCEF.

 

Q.17. Which three challenges do you feel are being faced by political parties in India? Give your opinion.

Answer. There are four major areas where the working of political parties faces challenge: 

Lack of internal democracy.

1.All over the world, there is a tendency of political parties towards the concentration of power in one or few leaders at the top.

2.Parties do not keep membership register.

3.They do not conduct internal elections regularly.

4.Ordinary members of the party do not have sufficient information as to what happens inside the party.

No Transparency.

1.Since most political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures for their functioning, these are very few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party.

2.Those who happen to be the leaders are in a position of unfair advantage to famous people close to them or even their family member.

3.In many parties, the top positions are always controlled by members of one family.

Money and Muscle Power

1.Since parties are focussed only on winning elections, they tend to use short cuts to win elections.

2.They tend to nominate those candidates who have or can raise a lot of money.

3.Rich people and companies who give funds to the parties tend to have influence on the policies and decisions of the party.

 

Q.18. “Deposits with the banks are beneficial to the depositors as well as to the nation”. Examine the statement.

Answer.

Benefit of deposits to the depositors:

  1. Bank accepts the deposits and pays interest to the depositor.
  2.  Banks help people save their money and keep their money in safe custody of the bank.
  3. People can withdraw the money as and when they require.
  4.  Banks also grant loans to people for a variety of purposes.

Benefit of deposits to the Nation:

  1. Banks use the major proportion of the deposit to extend loans.
  2. There is a huge demand for loans for various economic activities. In times of need, business houses and industries can borrow money from the banks.
  3. Banks mediate between those who have surplus funds and those who are in need of these funds. Thus, it helps in the economic development of the Nation.

 

Q.19. Why had the Indian government put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investments after independence? Analyse the reasons.

Answer. The Indian Government removed these barriers because:

  1. Liberalization of trade and investment policies allows Indian producers to compete with producers around the globe leading to an improvement in performance and quality of products.
  2.  After the barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large
    extent, goods could be imported and exported easily and also foreign companies could set up factories and offices in India. This has led to an increase in trade with different countries.
  3.  Businesses are allowed to make decisions freely about what they wish to import or export due to the liberal policies of the government.
  4.  Doors of investment opened up for MNCs. They have been investing large sums of money in India and have been seeking to earn large profits.

 

Q.20. “Rules and regulations are required for the protection of the consumers in the market place.” Justify the statement with arguments.

Answer. Rules and regulations are required for consumers’ protection because:

1. Sellers usually don’t accept responsibility for the sold products if there is any defect. For example, if a consumer who bought a utensil complains about the defect, then the seller may just ask the consumer to go to another shop.

2. Exploitation of consumers can happen in different ways like use of faulty weights. For example, a trader can weigh less good than what he is supposed to.

3. Consumers can be sold adulterated good purposefully. For example, adding colour to spices and then selling them.

4. If producers are few and consumers are many, producers can exploit lack of competition. For example, big companies can sell the product at any price they want because consumers don’t have a choice.

5. False information can be advertised on media to attract buyers. For example, a company selling baby milk powder advertised for a long time that it was better than mother’s milk.

 

Q.21. “Napoleon had destroyed democracy in France but in the administrative field he had incorporated revolutionary principles in order to make the whole system more rational and efficient.” Analyse the statement with arguments.

Answer.  “Napoleon had destroyed democracy in France but in administrative field he had incorporated revolutionary principles in order to make the whole systems more rational and efficient.”

(a) All privileges based on birth were removed.

(b) Established equality before law.

(c) Right to property was given.

(d) Simplified administrative divisions.

(e) Feudal system was abolished and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.

(f) Guild restrictions were removed.

(g) Transport and communication systems were improved.

Or

“The peace negotiations in Geneva followed the division of Vietnam that set in motion a series of events that turned Vietnam into a battle field.” Analyse the statement with arguments.

Answer. The peace negotiations in Geneva followed the division of Vietnam that set in motion a series of events that turned Vietnam into a battle field.”

  1. In the peace negotiations in Geneva that followed the French defeat, the Vietnamese were persuaded to accept the division of the country, i.e., North and South.
  2. The division set in motion a series of events that turned Vietnam into a battlefield bringing death and destruction to its people as well as the environment.
  3. The Bao Dai regime was soon overthrown by a coup led by Ngo Dinh Diem. Diem built a repressive and authoritarian government.
  4. Anyone who opposed him was called a Communist and was jailed and killed.
  5. With the help of Ho Chi Minh government in North, the NLF fought for the unification of the country. The U.S watched this alliance with fear. Worried about the communist gaining power, it decided to intervene decisively sending in troops and arms.

 

Q.22. Why did Mahatma Gandhiji decide to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain.

Answer. Mahatma Gandhi decided to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement because:

  1. Worried by the development of Civil Disobedience Movement the colonial government began arresting the Congress leaders one by one.
  2. This led to violent clashes in many places.
  3. When Abdul Ghaffar khan, a devout disciple of Mahatma Gandhi was arrested in April 1930, angry crowds demonstrated in the streets of Peshawar, facing armoured cars and police firing. Many were killed.
  4. A month later, when Mahatma Gandhi was arrested industrial workers in Sholapur attacked the police force, municipal buildings, law courts, railway stations and all other structures that symbolized British rule.
  5. A frightened government responded with the policy of brutal repression. The peaceful satyagrahis were attacked, women and children were beaten and about 1 lakh people were arrested.

 

Q.23. Explain the importance of conservation of minerals. Highlight any three measures to conserve them.

Answer. Reasons for Conservation: 

(i) The strong dependence of industry and agriculture upon minerals. 

(ii) The process of mineral formation is slow. 

(iii) They are non-renewable. 

Methods to conserve: 

(i) Minerals should be used in a planned and sustainable manner. 

(ii) Improved technology needs to be constantly evolved to allow use of low grade ore at low cost. 

(iii) Recycling of metals using scrap metals. 

(iv) Wastage in the mining and processing should be minimised.

 

Q.24. “Roadways still have an edge over railways in India.” Support the statement with arguments.

Answer. Roadways score over railways:

  1. Construction of roads is easier and cheaper as compared to railways.
  2. Roads provide door to door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much . lower as compared to railways which generally leave the people and goods at the
    destined railway stations.
  3. Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slope and, as such, can traverse through mountainous terrain. But railways cannot negotiate steep gradients.
  4.  Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over short distances.
  5. Road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of transport. They provide links between railway stations, airports and sea ports.
  6. They link agricultural farms with markets and industries, thus linking rural and urban
    areas.

 

Q.25. Describe the popular struggle of Bolivia.

Answer. Popular struggle of Bolivia

  1. People’s struggle against privatisation of water in Bolivia power that struggles are integral part of democracy.
  2. The world Bank pressurised the government to give up its control of municipal water supply. The government sold these rights to a multinational company which increased the price of water by four times. Many people received monthly water bill of ?1,000 in a country where average income is around ?5,000 a month.
  3. In January 2000, a new alliance of labour human rights and community leaders organised a successful gone day strike.
  4. The government agreed to negotiate and the strike was called off.
  5. The police resorted to brutal regression when the agitations started in February followed in April and the government imposed martial law.
  6. But the power of people forced the officials of the MNC to flee the city and made the government concede to all the demand of the protestors.
  7. The contract with MNC was cancelled and the water supply was restored with the municipality at old rates.
    This popular struggle came to be known as ‘Bolivia’s Water Cool’.

 

Q.26. “Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy”. Analyse the statement with examples.

Answer. “Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy” in the following ways:

  1. Without political parties democracies cannot exist. If we do not have political parties, every candidate in elections will be independent.
  2. No one will be able to make any promises to the people about any major policy changes.
  3. The government may be formed but its utility will remain uncertain.
  4. Elected representatives will be accountable to their constituency, for what they do in their locality but no one will be responsible for how the country will run.
  5. As societies become large and complex they also needed some agencies to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government, that’s why political parties are needed.

 

Q.27. How can the formal sector loans be made beneficial for poor farmers and workers? Suggest any five measures.

Answer. Formal sector loans can be made beneficial for poor farmers and workers in the following ways:

  1. Create greater awareness among farmers about formal sector loans.
  2. Process of providing loans should be made easier. It should be simple, fast and timely.
  3. More number of Nationalized Banks/cooperative banks should be opened in. rural sectors. Banks and cooperatives should increase facility of providing loans so that dependence on informal sources of credit reduces.
  4. The benefits of loans should be extended to poor farmers and small scale industries,
  5. While formal sector loans need to expand, it is also necessary that everyone receives these loans. It is important that formal credit is distributed more equally so that the poor can benefit from cheaper loans.

 

Q.28. Describe the impact of globalisation on Indian economy with examples.

Answer. Impact of Globalisation on the Indian Economy:

  1. Greater competition among producers (both local and foreign), has been advantageous to consumers, particularly the well-off section. There is greater choice before the consumers who now enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products.
  2. Globalisation has led to a higher standard of living especially in urban areas.
  3. MNCs have increased their investments in India in industries such as electronics, automobiles, cellphones, soft drinks, fast food, banking services etc. leading to more job opportunities in these industries and services.
  4.  Globalisation has enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as MNCs themselves like Tata Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy, Asian Paints, etc.
  5.  Globalisation has also created new opportunities for companies providing services particularly those involving IT (Information Technology). For example, call centres.
  6. Local companies supply raw materials to foreign industries and have prospered. However, for a large number of producers and workers the impact has not been uniform, and globalisation has posed major challenges.

 

Q.29. Three features A, B and C are marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map:

A. The place where cotton mill workers organised Satyagraha.

B. The place related to the calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement.

C. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-social-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-2

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-social-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-3

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q.No. 29:

(29.1) Name the city where cotton mill workers organised Satyagraha.

(29.2) Name the place related to the calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement.

(29.3) Where was the Indian Nation Congress Session held in December 1920?

Answer. (29.1) Ahmedabad (29.2) Chauri Chaura (29.3) Nagpur

 

Q.30. On the given political outline map, of India, locate and label the following with appropriate symbols:

A. Oil Field—Digboi

B. Iron and Steel Plant—Bhilai

C. Major Sea Port—Kochi

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-social-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-4

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q.No. 30:

(30.1) In which state is Digboi oil field located?

(30.2) Name the state where Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant is located.

(3Q.3) Name the Southernmost major sea port located on the eastern coast of India.

Answer. (30.1) Assam (30.2) Chattisgarh (30.3) Tuticorin

 

SET II

Q.1. Who was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles in January 1871?

Answer. Kaiser William I of Prussia was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles in January 1871.

Or

What was the main aim of the Scholar Revolt of 1868?

Answer. The main aim of Scholar Revolt of 1868 was to oppose French control and expansion of Christianity.

 

Q.2. How are ‘Gobar gas plants’ beneficial to the farmers?

Answer. “Gobar Gas Plants” are beneficial to the farmers in the form of energy and improved quality of manure.

 

Q.8. Prove with an argument that there is a great need to expand formal sources of credit in rural India.

Answer. There is great need to expand formal sources of credit in rural India because:

  1. There is no organisation that supervises the credit activities of lenders in the informal sector. They lend at whatever interest rate they choose.
  2. No one can stop rural money-lenders from using unfair means to get their money back.

 

Q.17. “Democracy accommodates social diversities.” Support the statement with examples.

Answer. “Democracy accommodates social diversities” in the following ways:

  1. Democracies develop a procedure to conduct their competition. This reduces the possibility of these tensions becoming explosive or violent.
  2.  No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups. But we can certainly learn to respect these differences and can evolve mechanism to negotiate these differences.
    Example, Belgium has successfully negotiated differences among ethnic population. This reduces the possibility of tensions.
  3.  Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is thus a definite plus point of democratic regimes.

 

Q.18. Explain by giving examples that Multinational Corporations (MNCs) are spreading their productions in different ways.

Answer. 

Multinational Corporations are spreading their productions in different ways :  (i) By setting up partnership with local companies.  (ii) By placing orders with local companies. For example, garments, footwear, sports items, etc.  (iii) By closely competing with the local companies.  (iv) By buying local companies. To take an example, Cargill Foods, a very large American MNC has bought over smaller Indian companies such as Parakh foods. Parakh Food had built a large marketing network in various parts of India, where its brand was well-reputed.

 

Q.19. ‘Credit has its own unique role for development’. Justify the statement with arguments.

Answer. 

1. Credit facilities that are extended to the people indirectly play an important role in the development aspect of the country.The credit facilities extended by formal sources (banks and cooperatives) need to expand and it is also necessary that everyone receives them

2. The high rates of interest charged by the informal sector restrict the income of people and often push them into a state of the debt trap. People in rural areas majorly depend on sources of informal credit for agricultural purposes involving costs on equipment and other resources.

3. Credit at low rates of interest, as opposed to informal sources, would lead to high incomes and increase the financial ability of the people. This would help them in growing crops, do business and set up small-scale industries or trade in goods which would eventually contribute to the healthy development of the country.

NOTE – Credit (loan) refers to the agreement wherein the lender provides the borrower with money or goods and services with a promise of repayment in future.

 

Q.22. Why did Mahatma Gandhi relaunch the Civil Disobedience Movement with great apprehension? Explain.

Answer. Mahatma Gandhi entered into a pact with Irwin on 5 March, 1931.

  1.  By this Gandhi-Irwin Pact, Gandhiji committed to participate in a Round Table Conference in London and the government agreed to release the political prisoners.
  2. In December 1931, Gandhiji went to London for the conference, but the negotiations broke dowrn and he returned disappointed.
  3.  Back in India, he discovered that the government had begun a new cycle of repressive measures.
  4. Abdul Ghaffar Khan and Jawaharlal Nehru were both in jail and the Congress had been declared illegal.
  5.  A series of measures hacj been imposed to prevent meetings, demonstrations and boycotts. Thus, with great apprehension Gandhiji relaunched the Civil Disobedience Movement.

 

Q.23. Explain any five major problems faced by road transport in India.

Answer. Problems faced by road transportation:

  1. The road network is inadequate in proportion to the volume of traffic and passengers.
  2. About half of the roads are unmetalled which makes them useless during rainy season.
  3. The National Highways are inadequate and lack roadside amenities.
  4. The roadways are highly congested in cities.
  5. Most of the bridges and culverts are old and narrow.

 

Q.25. Suggest and explain any five measures to reform political parties.

Answer.

  1. Law to regulate the internal affairs of political parties like maintaining a register of its members, to follow its own constitution, to have independent authority, to act as judge in case of party dispute, to hold open elections to the highest post.
  2.  It should be mandatory for political parties to give one-third tickets to women candidates.
    Also there should be quota for women on the decision-making bodies of the party.
  3.  There should be state funding of elections. The government should give money to parties to support their election expenses in kind (petrol, paper, telephone etc.) or in cash on the basis of votes secured by the party in the previous election.
  4.  People can put pressure on political parties in various ways through petitions, publicity in media and agitations.
  5. Ordinary citizens, pressure groups and movements and the media can play an important role in this. Ordinary citizens can reform politics if they take part directly and join political parties.

SET III

Q.1. Who was proclaimed the King of United Italy in 1861?

Answer. Victor Emmanuel-II

Or

Who led the ‘Scholar Revolt’ in Vietnam in 1868?

Answer. The “Scholar Revolt” in Vietnam in 1868 was led by officials at the imperial court.

 

Q.2. Why has aluminium metal great importance?

Answer. Aluminium metal has great importance because:

  1. It combines the strength of metals such as iron with extreme lightness.
  2. It has good conductivity and great malleability.

 

Q.8. Why are most of the poor households deprived from the formal sector of loans?

Answer. Most of the poor households are deprived from the formal sector loans because of lack of proper documents and absence of collateral.

 

Q.17. Analyse the three components of a political party.

Answer. The three components of a political party are as follows:

  1. The leaders. A political party consists of leaders, who contest elections and if they win the elections, they perform the administrative jobs.
  2.  The active members. They are the ones who work actively for the party. They are the assistants of the leaders and implement the plans and ideologies of the political party. (in) The followers. They are the ardent followers of the parties and their leaders and support them in the elections.

 

Q.18. How are consumers exploited in the market place? Explain.

Answer. Consumers are being exploited in the following manner:

  1. Sale of adulterated goods, i.e. adding something inferior to the product being sold.
  2. Misleading advertisements, i.e. advertisements falsely claiming a product or service to be of superior quality, grade or standard. eloping countries needs mostly takes the form of general, vague and mostly unforceable clauses. The system responds insufficiently to the diverse needs of developing countries which differ enormously regarding their economic power, production structure, and institutional capacity.
  3.  Use of false weights and measures leading to underweight.

 

Q.19. “The consumer movement arose out of dissatisfaction of the consumers”. Justify the statement with arguments.

Answer. The consumer movement actually arose out of dissatisfaction of the consumers:

  1. Many unfair practices were practised by the sellers.
  2. No legal system was available to the consumers to protect them from exploitation in the marketplace.
  3. Moreover, it was presumed that it was the responsibility of consumers to be careful while buying a commodity or service.
  4. A major step taken by the Indian government in this regard was the enactment of the Consumer Protection Act 1986, popularly known as COPRA.

 

Q.22. How did the Civil Disobedience Movement come into force in various parts of the country? Explain with examples.

Answer. Civil Disobedience Movement came into force in various parts of the country:

  1. Gandhiji led the salt march from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi with his followers starting the Civil Disobedience Movement.
  2.  Thousands in different parts of the country broke the salt law, manufactured salt and demonstrated in front of government salt factories.
  3. In the countryside, the rich Patidars of Gujarat and Jats of Uttar Pradesh were active in the movement. As rich communities were very hard hit by the trade depression and falling prices, they became enthusiastic supporters of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
  4.  As the depression continued and cash invoice dwindled, the small tenants found it difficult to pay the rent. They wanted the unpaid rent to the landlords to be remitted and thus they joined the movement.
  5.  Merchants and industrialists supported the movement by giving financial assistance and also by refusing to buy and sell the imported goods.
  6.  The industrial working class of Nagpur region also participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement. Railway workers, dock workers, mineral of Chota Nagpur etc. participated in protest rallies and boycott campaigns .

 

Q.23. Classify communication services into two categories? Explain main features of each.

Answer. Two types of means of communication are—A. Personal communication,’ B. Mass communication.

A. Features of Personal communication:

  1.  It is the communication between two or more persons at personal level.
  2. The Indian postal network handles parcels as well as personal written communication.
  3.  It includes cards and envelops, posts and telegraph, email etc.
  4. Telephone services like STD, ISD provide easy and comfortable network to a large number of people.

A. Features of Mass communication:

  1.  It is communication through which one can communicate with several people at the same time.
  2. It provides entertainment and creates awareness among people about various National programmes and policies.
  3.  It includes print media like newspapers, magazines, books etc. and electronic media like radio, television etc.

 

Q.25. “Democracy stands much superior in promoting dignity and freedom of the citizens”. Justify the statement.

Answer. Examples to illustrate that dignity and freedom of citizens are best guaranteed in a democracy:

  1. Dignity of women. Democracy recognises dignity of women as a necessary ingredient of society. The one way to ensure that women related problems get adequate attention is’+o have more women as elected representatives. To achieve this, it is legally binding to have a fair proportion of women in the elected bodies. Panchayati Raj in India has reserved one-third seats in local government bodies for women. In March 2010, the Women’s Reservation Bill was passed in the Rajya Sabha ensuring 33% reservation for women in Parliament and State legislative bodies.
  2.  Democracy has strengthened the claims of disadvantaged and discriminated castes. When governments are formed, political parties usually take care that representatives of different castes and tribes find a place in it. Some political parties are known to favour some castes. Democracy provides for equal status and opportunities for all castes.
  3. Democracy transforms people from the status of a subject into that of a citizen. A democracy is concerned with ensuring that people will have the right to choose their rulers and people will have control over the rulers. Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision-making that affects them all.
  4. A citizen has the right and the means to examine the process of decision-making. There is transparency in a democracy like India. In October 2005, the Right to Information (RTI) law was passed which ensures all its citizens the right to get all the information about the functions of the government departments. In a democracy, people also have the right to complain about its functioning.

CDS(I) Exam 2019 Maths Previous Year Paper

CDS(I) Exam 2019 

ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS

प्रश्न 1. जब (1729 + 1929) को 18 से विभाजित किया जाता है, तो शेषफल क्या आता है ?

(a) 6 

(b) 2

(c) 1

(d) 0

 

प्रश्न 2. n का वह सबसे बड़ा मान क्या है कि नीचे दिया गया गुणनफल 10n से विभाजित हो जाए

25 × 33 × 48 × 53 × 67 × 76 × 812 × 99  × 106 × 1512 × 2014 × 2211 × 2515?

(a) 65 

(b) 55 

(c) 50 

(d) 45 

 

प्रश्न 3. संख्या 479865AB में कितने युग्म (A, B) संभव है यदि संख्या 9 द्वारा विभाज्य है और यह दिया हुआ है कि संख्या का अन्तिम अंक विषम है ? 

(a) 5 

(b) 6 

(c) 9

(d) 11

 

प्रश्न 4. दशमलव संकेत पद्धति में गुणनफल 999 × abc = def132 पर विचार कीजिए, जहाँ a, b, c, d, e और f अंक हैं। a, b, c, d, e और f के मान क्रमश: क्या हैं? 

(a) 6, 6, 8, 6, 8, 7 

(b) 8, 6, 8, 6, 7, 8

(c) 6, 8, 8, 7, 8, 6 

(d) 8, 6, 8, 8, 6, 7 

 

प्रश्न 5. तीन गाड़ियाँ A, B और C एक स्थान-बिन्दु से क्रमश: 5 p.m., 6 p.m. और 7 p.m. पर चलना आरम्भ करती हैं और क्रमश: 60 km/hr, 80 km/hr और x km/hr की एकसमान गति से एक ही दिशा में यात्रा करती हैं । यदि यात्रा के दौरान सभी तीनों एक अन्य स्थान-बिन्दु पर एक साथ मिलती हैं, तब x का मान क्या है ? 

(a) 120 

(b) 110 

(c) 105 

(d) 100

 

प्रश्न 6. प्रिया की आयु चार वर्ष पहले 1 से भिन्न किसी पूर्णांक का घन (क्यूब) थी और चार वर्ष बाद किसी पूर्णांक का वर्ग है । उसे कितनी देर तक इंतजार करना चाहिए ताकि उसकी आयु पूर्ववर्ती वर्ष में किसी संख्या का वर्ग और उत्तरवर्ती वर्ष में किसी संख्या का घन (क्यूब) बन जाए? 

(a) 7 वर्ष 

(b) 12 वर्ष 

(c) 14 वर्ष 

(d) 21 वर्ष 

 

प्रश्न 7. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है ? 

(a) 2 से बड़ी दो अभाज्य संख्याओं का अंतर 2 द्वारा विभाज्य है। 

(b) दो भिन्न पूर्णांकों m, n और एक अभाज्य संख्या p के लिए, यदि p गुणनफल m x n को विभाजित करता है, तब p या तो m को या n को विभाजित करता है। 

(c) यदि एक संख्या 6n – 1 के रूप में है (n एक धनपूर्ण संख्या है), तब यह एक अभाज्य संख्या है।

(d) तीन अभाज्य संख्याओं का केवल एक ही ऐसा समुच्चय है जिसमें दो निकटवर्ती अभाज्य संख्याओं में 2 का अंतर है। 

 

प्रश्न 8.  x > 0 के लिए, x + (x+2)/2x का न्यूनतम मान क्या है ?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 2½ 

(d) निर्धारित नहीं किया जा सकता

 

प्रश्न 9. यदि (1+ px)/(1-px) √(1-qx)/(1+qx) = 1 है, तब x के शून्येतर हल क्या हैं ?

(a) ±1/p √(2p-q)/q , 2p ≠ q

(b) ±1/pq √(p-q) , p ≠ q

(c) ±p/q √(p-q) , p ≠ q

(d) ±q/p √(2p-q) , 2p ≠ q

 

प्रश्न 10. एक छात्रावास में प्रति कमरा किराये में 20% की वृद्धि की गई है यदि छात्रावास में कमरों की संख्या में भी 20% की वृद्धि की जाती है और छात्रावास सदैव भरा रहता है, तब कैश काउंटर में कुल संचयन में कितने प्रतिशत बदलाव हुआ ?

(a) 30%

(b) 40%

(c) 44%

(d) 48%

 

प्रश्न 11. राधा और हेमा पड़ोसी हैं और एक ही विद्यालय में पढ़ती हैं । विद्यालय जाने के लिए दोनों ही साइकिल का प्रयोग करती हैं । राधा की गति 8 km/hr है जबकि हेमा की गति 10 km/hr है । विद्यालय पहुँचने के लिए हेमा राधा से 9 मिनट कम लेती है । राधा और हेमा के इलाके से विद्यालय कितना दूर है? 

(a) 5 km 

(b) 5.5 km 

(c) 6 km 

(d) 6.5 km 

 

प्रश्न 12. संख्याओं का निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा युग्म, समीकरण 3x+2 + 3x = 10 का हल है ? 

(a) 0,2 

(b) 0,-2 

(c) 1,-1 

(d) 1,2

 

प्रश्न 13. यह दिया हुआ है कि log10 2 = 0.301 तथा log10 3 = 0.477 है। (108)10 में कितने अंक हैं ? 

(a) 19 

(b) 20

(c) 21

(d) 22

 

प्रश्न 14. तीन अभाज्य संख्याओं का योगफल 100 है । यदि इनमें से एक किसी दूसरी संख्या से 36 अधिक है, तब इन संख्याओं में से एक संख्या है 

(a) 17 

(b) 29 

(c) 43

(d) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं

 

प्रश्न 15. यदि a, b और c धनात्मक पूर्ण संख्याएँ इस प्रकार हैं कि 

है, तब a, b और का माध्य क्या है ?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 1.33

(d) 2.33

 

अगले तीन (03) प्रश्नांशों के लिए निम्नलिखित पर विचार कीजिए: 

1,00,000 जनसंख्या वाले किसी शहर में तीन प्रकार के समाचार-पत्र (I, II और III) उपलब्ध हैं । इस शहर में इन समाचार-पत्रों को पढ़ने वाले लोगों का प्रतिशत इस प्रकार है :

समाचार-पत्र  पाठकों का अनुपात
I 10%
II 30%
III 5%
दोनों I और II  8%
दोनों II और III 4%
दोनों I और III  2%
सभी तीनों (I, II और III) 1%

प्रश्न 16. केवल एक समाचार-पत्र पढ़ने वाले लोगों की संख्या क्या  है ?

(a) 20,000

(b) 25,000

(c) 30,000

(d) 35,000

 

प्रश्न 17. कम-से-कम दो समाचार-पत्रों को पढ़ने वाले लोगों की संख्या क्या है ? 

(a) 12,000 

(b) 18,000 

(c) 14,000 

(d) 15,000 

 

प्रश्न 18. उन लोगों की संख्या क्या है जो इन तीन समाचार-पत्रों में से कोई भी समाचार-पत्र नहीं पढ़ते हैं ?

(a) 62,000 

(b) 64,000 

(c) 66,000

(d) 68,000 

 

प्रश्न 19.773 के प्रसार में इकाई का अंक क्या है ? 

(a) 1

(b) 3

(c) 7

(d) 9

 

प्रश्न 20. मान लीजिए n इस प्रकार का एक धनात्मक पूर्णांक है कि (n2 + 48) एक पूर्ण वर्ग है । इस प्रकार के n की संख्या क्या है ? 

(a) एक

(b) दो

(c) तीन

(d) चार

 

प्रश्न 21. x =  4/√6 /(√2 + √3) के लिए, (x+2√2)/(x-2√2) + (x+2√3)/(x-2√3) का मान क्या है ? 

(a) 1 

(b) √2 

(c) √3 

(d) 2

 

प्रश्न 22. तीन संख्याओं x, y और z इस प्रकार हैं कि x, z का 30% है और y, z का 40% है । यदि x, y का p% है, तो p का मान क्या है? 

(a) 45

(b) 55

(c) 65

(d) 75

 

प्रश्न 23. एक विमान एक हवाई पत्तन के चारों ओर वृत्ताकार चक्कर लगा रहा है। एक चक्कर पूरा करने में विमान 3 मिनट लेता है । भूमि पर बिन्दु P से समय t सेकण्ड पर और समय (t + 30) सेकण्ड पर विमान के उन्नयन कोण बराबर हैं । समय (t + x) सेकण्ड पर, विमान बिन्दु P के ठीक ऊर्ध्वाधर उड़ता है । x किसके बराबर है ? 

(a) 75 सेकण्ड 

(b) 90 सेकण्ड 

(c) 105 सेकण्ड 

(d) 135 सेकण्ड

 

प्रश्न 24. दो पूर्णांकों p और (दोनों > 1), जो कि सापेक्षतः अभाज्य हैं, के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. p और q दोनों अभाज्य संख्याएँ हो सकती हैं। 

2. p और q दोनों भाज्य संख्याएँ हो सकती हैं। 

3. p और q में से एक अभाज्य और दूसरी भाज्य हो सकती है। 

उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं? 

(a) केवल 1 और 2

(b) केवल 2 और 3

(c) केवल 1 और 3

(d) 1,2 और 3

 

प्रश्न 25. एक कक्षा में 100 विद्यार्थी हैं, जिनका औसत वज़न 30 kg है । यदि लड़कियों का औसत वज़न 24 kg है और लड़कों का 32 kg है, तो कक्षा में लड़कियों की संख्या कितनी है? 

(a) 25 

(b) 26 

(c) 27 

(d) 28 

 

प्रश्न 26. किन्हीं दो वास्तविक संख्याओं a और b के लिए, √(a-b)2 + √(b-a)2 होगा

(a) हमेशा शून्य 

(b) कभी भी शून्य नहीं 

(c) धनात्मक केवल यदि a≠b 

(d) धनात्मक यदि और केवल यदि a > b 

 

प्रश्न 27. यदि a : b = c : d = 1 : 6 है, तो (a2 + c2)/(b2 +d2) का मान क्या है ?

(a) 1/600 

(b) 1/60 

(c) 1/36 

(d) 1/6

 

प्रश्न 28. किसके बराबर है ? 

 

प्रश्न 29. असमिका 3N– N3 तभी होती है, जब 

(a) N कोई धनपूर्ण संख्या हो 

(b) N, 2 से बड़ी एक धनपूर्ण संख्या हो 

(c) N, 3 से बड़ी एक धनपूर्ण संख्या हो 

(d) N, 3 के अलावा एक धनपूर्ण संख्या हो 

 

प्रश्न 30. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी एक अपरिमेय संख्या है ? 

(a) √59049 

(b) 231/ 598 

(c) 0.45454545…… 

(d) 0.12112211122211112222.. 

 

प्रश्न 31. एक दौड़ के तीन हिस्से हैं । अलग-अलग हिस्सों को पूरा करने के लिए एक धावक की आवश्यक गति और उसका समय, निम्नलिखित सारणी में दर्शाए गए हैं :

  भाग I भाग II भाग III
गति (kmph) 9 8 7.5
समय (मिनटों में) 50 80 100

इस धावक की औसत गति क्या है ? 

(a) 8.17 kmph 

(b) 8.00 kmph 

(c) 7.80 kmph 

(d) 7.77 kmph 

 

प्रश्न 32. यदि a/(b + c) = b/(c + a) = c/(a + b) है, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही है ?  

(a) प्रत्येक भिन्न 1 या -1 के बराबर है। 

(b) प्रत्येक भिन्न ½ या 1 के बराबर है।

(c) प्रत्येक भिन्न 1 या -1 के बराबर है । 

(d) प्रत्येक भिन्न केवल ½ के बराबर है। 

 

प्रश्न 33. संख्या 3521 को 8 से विभाजित किया जाता है । शेषफल क्या है ? 

(a) 1 

(b) 3 

(c) 7 

(d) 9 

 

प्रश्न 34. एक अभाज्य संख्या में इकाई के स्थान पर अंक x है। इस प्रकार के कितने अंक x हो सकते हैं ? 

(a) 3 

(b) 4 

(c) 5 

(d) 6

 

प्रश्न 35. यदि एक वस्तु को 6% हानि के बजाय 6% लाभ पर बेचा जाए, तो विक्रेता को रु.6 अधिक प्राप्त होते हैं । वस्तु का क्रय मूल्य क्या है ?

(a) रु. 18

(b) रु. 36 

(c) रु. 42

(d) रु. 50 

 

प्रश्न 36. एक खेत की कटाई 12 पुरुषों अथवा 18 महिलाओं के द्वारा 14 दिनों में की जा सकती है। 8 पुरुष और 16 महिलाएं इस खेत की कटाई कितने दिनों में कर सकते हैं? 

(a) 26 दिन

(b) 24 दिन 

(c) 9 दिन

(d) 8 दिन

 

प्रश्न 37. यदि 3x = 4y = 12z है, तो z किसके बराबर है ? 

(a) xy 

(b) x +y

(c) xy / (x +y)

(d) 4x +3y

 

प्रश्न 38. यदि (4a + 7b) (4c-7d) = (4a – 7b) (4c+ 7d) है, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है? 

(a) a/c = c/d 

(b) a/d = c/b

(c) a/b = d/c

(d) 4a/7b = c/d

 

प्रश्न 39. दिया गया है कि बहुपद (x2 + ax + b)को (x – 1) अथवा (x + 1) से विभाजित करने पर शेषफल समान रहता है। a और b के मान क्रमश: क्या हैं?

(a) 4 और 0 

(b) 0 और 3 

(c) 3 और 0 

(d) और कोई भी पूर्णांक 

 

प्रश्न 40. किसी कार्य को पूरा करने में तुषार को 6 घंटे लगते हैं, जबकि अमर उसी कार्य को 10 घंटों में पूरा करता है । यदि वे दोनों मिलकर काम करें, तो उस कार्य को पूरा करने में कितना समय लगेगा ? 

(a) 3 घंटे 

(b) 3 घंटे 15 मिनट 

(c) 3 घंटे 30 मिनट 

(d) 3 घंटे 45 मिनट 

 

प्रश्न 41. 2 + √[2+{√2 + (√…….. )}] का मान क्या है ? 

(a) 1 

(b) 2 

(c) 3

(d) 4

 

प्रश्न 42. एक परीक्षा में, 52% परीक्षार्थी अंग्रेजी में फेल हुए और 42% गणित में फेल हुए । यदि 17% दोनों विषयों में फेल हुए, तो दोनों विषयों में कितने प्रतिशत परीक्षार्थी पास हुए ? 

(a) 77 

(b) 58 

(c) 48

(d) 23 

 

प्रश्न 43. एक व्यक्ति जिसकी हाल ही में मृत्यु हुई, रु. 3,90,000/ की धनराशि छोड़ गया जिसे उसकी पत्नी, पाँच बेटों और चार बेटियों में बाँटा जाना था । उसने निर्देश दिया था कि जितनी धनराशि प्रत्येक बेटी को मिलती है, प्रत्येक बेटे को उसकी तीन गुना धनराशि मिलनी चाहिए और जितनी धनराशि माँ को मिलती है, प्रत्येक बेटी को उसकी दुगुनी राशि मिलनी चाहिए । पत्नी का हिस्सा कितना था ? 

(a) रु. 14,000

(b) रु. 12,000

(c) रु. 10,000 

(d) रु. 9,000

 

प्रश्न  44. 40% वार्षिक चक्रवृद्धि ब्याज की दर पर रखी गई धनराशि कम-से-कम कितने पूर्ण वर्षों में तिगुनी से ज़्यादा हो जाएगी?

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 6

 

प्रश्न 45. एक व्यक्ति ने रु. 17,200 की धनराशि को तीन भागों में  विभाजित कर, उसे 5%, 6% और 9% वार्षिक साधारण ब्याज की दर पर निवेश किया । दो वर्षों की समाप्ति पर, उसे सभी तीनों स्थितियों में एकसमान ब्याज प्राप्त हुआ। 9% ब्याज पर निवेश की गई धनराशि कितनी है

(a) रु.3,200 

(b) रु. 4,000 

(c) रु.4,800 

(d) रु. 5,000 

 

प्रश्न 46. [(x – y)3 + (y – z)3 + (z – x)3] / 3(x – y)(y – z)(z – x) किसके बराबर है?

(a) 1

(b) 0

(c) ⅓ 

(d) 3

 

प्रश्न  47. यदि ax = by = cz और b2 = ac है, तो 1/x + 1/z किसके बराबर है?

(a) 1/y

(b) -1/y

(c) 2/y 

(d) -2/y

 

प्रश्न 48. यदि p और q, समीकरण x2 – 15x + r = 0 के मूल हैं और p – q= 1 है, तो r का मान क्या है ? 

(a) 55

(b) 56

(c) 60

(d) 64 

 

प्रश्न 49. असमिका x2 – 7x + 12 > 0 के लिए, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही है?

(a) 3 < x < 4 

(b) केवल – ∞ <  x  < 3 

(c) केवल 4 < x < ∞

(d) – ∞<  x  < 3 अथवा 4 < x < ∞ 

 

प्रश्न 50. व्यंजक 52n -23n का गुणनखंड है 

(a) 3 

(b) 7 

(c) 17 

(d) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं

 

प्रश्न 51. यदि tan x = 1, 0 < x < 90° है, तो 2 sin x cos x का मान क्या है ? 

(a) ½ 

(b) 1 

(c) √3/2 

(d) √3 

 

प्रश्न 52. sin 46° cos 44° + cos 46° sin 44° का मान क्या है ? 

(a) sin 2° 

(b) 0 

(c) 1 

(d) 2 

 

प्रश्न 53. मान लीजिए 0 < θ < 90° है, तो प्रत्येक θ के लिए, 4 sin2θ + 1 किससे बड़ा अथवा बराबर है ? 

(a) 2 

(b) 4sinθ 

(c) 4 cos θ 

(d) 4tan θ

 

प्रश्न 54. एक समषड्भुज ABCDEF पर विचार कीजिए । B और C पर दो टावर स्थित हैं । A से, B पर स्थित टावर के शीर्ष का उन्नयन कोण 30° है, और C पर स्थित टावर के शीर्ष का उन्नयन कोण 45° है । B और C पर स्थित टावरों की ऊँचाइयों का अनुपात क्या है ? 

(a) 1:√3

(b) 1:3 

(c) 1:2

(d) 1:2√3

 

प्रश्न 55. tan 1° tan 2° tan 3° …… tan 89° का मान क्या है ? 

(a) 0 

(b) 1

(c) 2 

(d) ∞

 

प्रश्न 56. दो समांतर गलियाँ हैं, प्रत्येक गली उत्तर से दक्षिण की ओर दिष्ट है । पहली गली में दक्षिण से उत्तर की ओर जाता हुआ एक व्यक्ति दूसरी गली में जाना चाहता है जो उसके दायीं और है । किसी जगह पर वह दायीं ओर 150° मुड़ता है और 15 मिनट तक 20 km/hr की गति से चलता है। उसके बाद वह 60° बायीं ओर मुड़ता है और 20 मिनट तक 30 km/hr की गति से चलकर दूसरी गली में पहुँच जाता है। दोनों गलियों के बीच की दूरी कितनी है? 

(a) 7.5 km 

(b) 10.5 km 

(c) 12.5 km 

(d) 15 km 

 

प्रश्न 57. यदि 3 tanθ = cot θ जहाँ 0 < θ < π/2 है, तो θ का मान क्या है?

(a) π/6 

(b) π/4 

(c) π/3 

(d) π/2

 

प्रश्न 58. sin2 25° + sin2 65° का मान क्या है ? 

(a) 0 

(b) 1

(c) 2 

(d) 4 

 

प्रश्न 59. sin6 θ + cos6 θ + 3 sin2 θ cos2 θ – 1 का मान क्या है ?

(a) 0 

(b) 1

(c) 2 

(d) 4

 

प्रश्न 60. वास्तविक संख्याओं α, β, γ और δ के लिए, निम्नलिखित पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. sec α = 1/4 

2. tan β = 20 

3. cosec γ = 1/2 

4. cos δ =2 

उपर्युक्त में से कितने विवरण संभव नहीं हैं ? 

(a) एक 

(b) दो 

(c) तीन 

(d) चार

 

प्रश्न 61. निम्नलिखित वर्गीकृत बारंबारता बंटन पर विचार कीजिए: 

x f
0 – 10 8
10 – 20 12
20 – 30 10
30 – 40 p
40 – 50 9

यदि उपर्युक्त दत्त का माध्य 25.2 है, तो p का मान क्या है ?

(a) 9 

(b) 10 

(c) 11 

(d) 12

 

प्रश्न 62. निम्नलिखित बारंबारता बटन पर विचार कीजिए : 

x f
8 6
5 4
6 5
10 8
9 9
4 6
7 4

इस बंटन की माध्यिका क्या है ? 

(a) 6 

(b) 7

(c) 8 

(d) 9 

 

प्रश्न 63. 50 क्रमागत धन पूर्णांकों का औसत x है । यदि अगले चार धन पूर्णांकों को भी शामिल कर लिया जाए, तो नया औसत (माध्य) क्या होगा ?

(a) x + 1

(b) x + 2

(c) x + 4

(d) x + (x/54)

 

प्रश्न 64.  दो अंकों वाली ऐसी संख्याओं पर विचार कीजिए जो उनके अंकों का स्थान बदल देने पर भी, वैसी ही बनी रहती हैं । इस प्रकार की दो अंकों की संख्याओं का औसत क्या है?

(a) 33

(b) 44

(c) 55

(d) 66

 

प्रश्न 65. दत्त के आरेखी निरूपण में निम्नलिखित में से क्या-क्या सम्मिलित होते हैं ? 

1. स्तंभ आरेख (बार डाइग्राम) 

2. वृत्तारेख (पाई-डाइग्राम) 

3. चित्रीय आरेख (पिक्टोग्राम) 

नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 और 2

(b) केवल 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 1 और 

(d) 1,2 और 3

 

प्रश्न 66. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी एक विधि से एकत्रित किए गए आँकड़े, प्राथमिक आँकड़े नहीं होते हैं ? 

(a) प्रत्यक्ष व्यक्तिगत साक्षात्कारों द्वारा 

(b) अप्रत्यक्ष व्यक्तिगत साक्षात्कारों द्वारा 

(c) गणनाकारों के माध्यम से भेजी गई सूचियों द्वारा 

(d) प्रकाशित शोध-प्रबंध से 

 

प्रश्न 67. एक व्यक्ति का मासिक व्यय रु.6,000 है । विभिन्न मदों पर व्यय का बंटन निम्नानुसार है : ? 

व्यय की मद राशि (रु. में)
1. खाद्य 2,000
2. वस्त्र 660
3. ईंधन और किराया 1,200
4. शिक्षा  480
5. विविध 1,660

यदि उपर्युक्त आँकड़ों को 15 cm ऊँचाई के एक प्रतिशतता स्तंभ आरेख से निरूपित किया जाए, तो शिक्षा और विविध से संबंधित स्तंभ आरेख के दोनों खंडों की लम्बाइयाँ क्रमश: क्या होंगी?

(a) 1.25 cm और 5 cm

(b) 1.2 cm और 4.15 cm

(c) 1.2 cm और 3.5 cm

(d) 4.15 cm और 6 cm

 

प्रश्न 68. यदि n प्रेक्षणों में से m प्रेक्षणों का माध्य n है और शेष प्रेक्षणों का माध्य m है, तो सभी n प्रेक्षणों का माध्य क्या  है ?

(a) 2m – m2/n

(b) 2m + m2/n

(c) m – m2/n

(d) m + m2/n

 

प्रश्न 69. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक युग्म सही रूप से सुमेलित है?

(a) माध्यिका – आलेखी स्थिति

(b) माध्य – आलेखी स्थिति

(c) गुणोत्तर माध्य – ओज़ाइव

(d) बहुलक – ओज़ाइव

 

प्रश्न 70. निम्नलिखित युग्म एक असंतत चर के बारंबारता बंटन और उसके बारंबारता बहुभुज से संबंधित हैं । निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक युग्म सही रूप से सुमेलित नहीं है ? 

(a) बहुभुज की आधार रेखा  –  x-अक्ष 

(b) बहुभुज के शीर्षों की कोटियाँ   –   वर्ग बारंबारताएँ

(c) बहुभुज के शीर्षों के भुज – बारंबारता बंटन के वर्ग अंक (क्लास मार्क्स)

(d) बहुभुज का क्षेत्रफल – बंटन की कुल बारंबारता

 

प्रश्न 71. एक आयत में, लम्बाई इसकी चौड़ाई की तीन गुना है । यदि आयत की लम्बाई और चौड़ाई क्रमश: 30% और 10% बढ़ा दी जाएँ, तो इसका परिमाप कितना बढ़ जाएगा ?

(a) 40/3%

(b) 20% 

(c) 25% 

(d) 27% 

 

प्रश्न 72. यदि किसी त्रिभुज की प्रत्येक भुजा को आधा कर दिया जाए, तो उसके क्षेत्रफल में कितने प्रतिशत कमी हो जाएगी? 

(a) 75% 

(b) 50% 

(c) 25% 

(d) कोई परिवर्तन नहीं 

 

प्रश्न 73. एक गोलाकार गुब्बारे का आयतन 700% बढ़ा दिया जाता है । इसके पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल में प्रतिशतता वृद्धि कितनी है?

(a) 300%

(b) 400%

(c) 450%

(d) 500%

 

प्रश्न 74. यदि 10 cm त्रिज्या वाले एक वृत्त में दो समानान्तर जीवाओं की लम्बाइयाँ 12 cm और 16 cm हैं, तो इन दो जीवाओं के बीच की दूरी कितनी है ? 

(a) 1 cm अथवा 7 cm 

(b) 2 cm अथवा 14 cm 

(c) 3 cm अथवा 21 cm 

(d) 4 cm अथवा 28 cm

 

प्रश्न 75. ‘a’ भुजा वाले एक वर्ग के दो सम्मुख शीर्षों को केन्द्र मानकर, दो वृत्तीय चाप वर्ग के अंदर इस प्रकार खींचे गए हैं कि वे अन्य दो शीर्षों को जोड़ते हैं, और दो सेक्टर बनाते हैं। इन दोनों सेक्टरों का सर्वनिष्ठ क्षेत्रफल कितना है ? 

(a) a2(π + ½)

(b) a2(π – ½)

(c) a2(π/2  – 1)

(d) a2(π/2  + 1) 

 

प्रश्न 76. ‘a’ भुजा वाले एक वर्ग के कोनों को इस प्रकार काटा गया है कि एक सम अष्टभुज बनता है । अष्टभुज की एक भुजा की लम्बाई कितनी है ?

(a) a(√2 – 1) 

(b) a(√3 – 1)

(c) a/ (√2 + 2) 

(d) a /3 

 

प्रश्न 77. तीन क्रमागत पूर्ण संख्याएँ एक समकोण त्रिभुज की लम्बाइयाँ दर्शाती हैं । इस तरह की तीन क्रमागत पूर्ण संख्याओं के कितने समुच्चय संभव हो सकते हैं? 

(a) केवल एक

(b) केवल दो 

(c) केवल तीन 

(d) अनंतत: अनेक

 

प्रश्न 78. एक ही बिन्दु को केन्द्र मानकर दो वृत्त खींचे गए हैं छोटे वृत्त की परिधि 44 cm है और बड़े वृत्त की परिधि छोटे वृत्त की परिधि की दुगुनी है । इन दोनों वृत्तों के बीच का क्षेत्रफल कितना है ? 

(a) 154 cm2 

(b) 308 cm2 

(c) 462 cm2

(d) 616 cm2

 

प्रश्न 79. एक 6 ft × 12 ft आकार के आयताकार लाल कालीन में 6 इंच चौड़ी गहरे लाल रंग की सीमा पट्टी है । गहरे लाल रंग की सीमा पट्टी का क्षेत्रफल कितना है? 

(a) 9 वर्ग फुट 

(b) 15 वर्ग फुट 

(c) 17 वर्ग फुट 

(d) 18 वर्ग फुट 

 

प्रश्न 80. एक समकोण त्रिभुज का परिमाप उसकी सबसे छोटी भुजा का k गुना है। यदि अन्य भुजा का कर्ण के साथ अनुपात 4:5है, तो k का मान क्या है ? 

(a) 2 

(b) 3 

(c) 4 

(d) 5 

 

प्रश्न 81. एक 12 m लम्बे तार के दो टुकड़े किए गए हैं, इनमें से एक को एक वृत्त के रूप में मोड़ा जाता है और दूसरे को एक वर्ग के रूप में, वृत्त को परिबद्ध करते हुए मोड़ा जाता है। वृत्त की त्रिज्या क्या है? 

(a) 12/ (π + 4) 

(b) 6/ (π + 4) 

(c) 3/ (π + 4) 

(d) 6/ (π + 2√2)

 

प्रश्न 82. एक त्रिभुज के कोण 1 : 1 : 4 के अनुपात में हैं । यदि त्रिभुज की परिमाप उसकी सबसे बड़ी भुजा की k गुना है, तो k का मान क्या है ? 

(a) 1 + 2/√3

(b) 1 – 2/√3

(c) 2 + 2/√3

(d) 2 

 

प्रश्न 83. एक समकोण त्रिभुज का कर्ण 10 cm है और उसका क्षेत्रफल 24cm2 है । यदि उसकी छोटी भुजा को आधा और बड़ी भुजा को दोगुना कर दिया जाता है, तो नया कर्ण कितना हो जाता है ?

(a) √245 cm

(b) √255 cm

(c) √265 cm

(d) √275 cm

 

प्रश्न 84. 8 cm त्रिज्या वाले एक वृत्त में, AB और AC दो जीवाएँ इस प्रकार हैं कि AB = AC = 12 cm है। जीवा BC की लम्बाई कितनी है ? 

(a) 2√6 cm

(b) 3√6 cm

(c) 3√7 cm

(d) 6√7 cm

 

प्रश्न 85. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. एक समद्विबाहु समलंब हमेशा चक्रीय होता है।

2. कोई भी चक्रीय समांतर चतुर्भुज एक आयत होता है।

उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं ? 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल-2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) नतो 1,न ही 2 

 

प्रश्न 86. एक सीढ़ी एक ऊर्ध्वाधर दीवार के सहारे खड़ी हुई है, और इसका तला दीवार से 2.5 m दूर है । यदि यह दीवार पर 0.8 m नीचे की ओर सरक जाती है, तो इसका तला दीवार से 1.4 m और अधिक दूर हो जाता है । सीढ़ी की लम्बाई कितनी है ? 

(a) 6.2 m 

(b) 6. 5m 

(c) 6.8 m 

(d) 7.5m 

 

प्रश्न 87. दो समान वृत्त एक-दूसरे को इस प्रकार प्रतिच्छेद करते हैं कि उनमें से प्रत्येक वृत्त दूसरे वृत्त के केन्द्र से होकर गुज़रता है । यदि दोनों वृत्तों की सर्वनिष्ठ जीवा की 

लम्बाई 10√3 cm है, तो वृत्त का व्यास कितना है? 

(a) 10 cm 

(b) 15 cm 

(c) 20 cm 

(d) 30 cm 

 

प्रश्न 88. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. तीन असंरेखीय बिन्दुओं से गुज़रकर खींचे जा सकने वाले वृत्तों की संख्या अनंत है। 

2. किसी वृत्त के लघु खण्ड (सेगमेंट) में बनने वाला कोण न्यून कोण होता है।

उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों

(d) न तो 1, न ही 2

 

प्रश्न 89. किसी त्रिभुज ABC के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित असमिकाओं पर विचार कीजिए :

1. AC – AB < BC

2. BC – AC <AB

3. AB – BC <AC

उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से सही हैं ?

(a) केवल 1 और 2 

(b) केवल 2 और 3

(c) केवल 1 और 3 

(d) 1, 2 और 3

 

प्रश्न 90. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. किसी त्रिभुज की परिमाप उसकी तीन माध्यिकाओं (मीडियन) के योगफल से बड़ी होती है । 

2. किसी त्रिभुज ABC में, यदि BC पर कोई बिन्दु D है, तो AB + BC + CA>2AD होता है।

उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं ? 

(a) केवल 1

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों

(d) न तो 1, न ही 2

 

आगे आने वाले तीन (03) प्रश्नांशों के लिए निम्नलिखित पर विचार कीजिए: 

एक घन किसी गोले के अंतर्गत है । घन के अन्दर एक लंब-वृत्तीय बेलन है जो उसके सभी ऊर्ध्वाधर फलकों को स्पर्श करता है । बेलन के अन्दर एक लंब-वृत्तीय शंकु है । उनकी ऊँचाइयाँ बराबर हैं और शंकु का व्यास बेलन के व्यास के बराबर है। 

प्रश्न 91. गोले के आयतन का शंकु के आयतन से क्या अनुपात हैं ?

(a) 6√3:1 

(b) 7:2 

(c) 3√3 :1 

(d) 5√3:1 

 

प्रश्न 92. घन के आयतन का बेलन के आयतन से क्या अनुपात हैं ?

(a) 4:3 

(b) 21:16 

(c) 14 : 11 

(d) 45: 32 

 

प्रश्न 93. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. गोले का पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल, शंकु के वक्र पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल का √5 गुना है। 

2. घन का पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल, बेलन के वक्र पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल के बराबर है। 

उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं ?

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) न तो 1, न ही 2 

 

आगे आने वाले तीन (03) प्रश्नांशों के लिए निम्नलिखित पर विचार कीजिए:

ABCD एक चतुर्भुज है जिसमें AB = 9 cm, BC = 40 cm, CD = 28 cm, DA = 15 cm और कोण ABC (a) 15 cm एक समकोण है।

प्रश्न 94. त्रिभुज ADC का क्षेत्रफल कितना है? 

(a) 126 cm2 

(b) 124 cm2 

(c) 122 cm2 

(d) 120 cm2

 

प्रश्न 95. चतुर्भुज ABCD का क्षेत्रफल कितना है ?

(a) 300 cm2 

(b) 306 cm2 

(c) 312 cm2 

(d) 316 cm2

 

प्रश्न 96. त्रिभुज ABC के परिमाप और त्रिभुज ADC के परिमाप के बीच कितना अंतर है ?

(a) 4 cm

(b) 5 cm

(c) 6 cm

(d) 7 cm

 

आगे आने वाले दो (02) प्रश्नांशों के लिए निम्नलिखित पर विचार कीजिए : 

एक समबाहु त्रिभुज ABC, 20√3 cm की त्रिज्या वाले एक वृत्त के अंतर्गत है। 

प्रश्न 97. त्रिभुज की भुजा की लम्बाई क्या है ? 

(a) 30 cm 

(b) 40 cm 

(c) 50 cm 

(d) 60 cm

 

प्रश्न 98. त्रिभज ABC का केन्द्रक, शीर्ष A से d दरी पर है। d किसके बराबर है? 

(a) 15 cm 

(b) 20 cm

(c) 20√3 cm

(d) 30√3 cm

 

आगे आने वाले दो (02) प्रश्नांशों के लिए निम्नलिखित पर विचार कीजिए: 

एक लंबकोणिक समांतर षट्फलक की लम्बाई, चौड़ाई और ऊँचाई का योगफल 22 cm है और उसके विकर्ण की लम्बाई 14 cm है। 

प्रश्न 99. लंबकोणीय समांतर षट्फलक का पृष्ठीय क्षेत्रफल कितना है? 

(a) 288 cm2 

(b) 216 cm2 

(c) 144 cm2 

(d) अपर्याप्त दत्त के कारण निर्धारित नहीं किया जा सकता

 

प्रश्न 100. यदि लंबकोणिक समांतर षट्फलक की विमाओं (विस्तार) के घनों (क्यूब) का योगफल S, और उसका आयतन Vहै, तो (S- 3V) किसके बराबर है ?

(a) 572 cm3 

(b) 728 cm3 

(c) 1144 cm3 

(d) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं

CDS(I) Exam 2019 Maths Previous Year Paper

CDS(I) Exam 2019 

ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS 

Q 1.What is the remainder when (1729 + 1929) is divided by 18? 

(a) 6 

(b) 2

(c) 1 

(d) 0

 

Q 2.What is the largest value of n such that 10n divides the product 25 × 33 × 48 × 53 × 67 × 76 × 812 × 99  × 106 × 1512 × 2014 × 2211 × 2515

(a) 65 

(b) 55

(c) 50 

(d) 45

 

Q 3. How many pairs (A, B) are possible in the number 479865AB if the number is divisible by 9 and it is given that the last digit of the number is odd ? 

(a) 5

(b) 6

(c) 9 

(d) 11

 

Q 4.Consider the multiplication 999 × abc = def132 in decimal notation, where a, b, c, d, e and f are digits. What are the values of a, b, c, d, e and f respectively? 

(a) 6, 6, 8, 6, 8, 7 

(b) 8, 6, 8, 6, 7, 8 

(c) 6, 8, 8, 7, 8,6

(d) 8, 6, 8, 8, 6, 7 

 

Q 5. Three cars A, B and C started from a point at 5 p.m., 6 p.m. and 7 p.m. respectively and travelled at uniform speeds of 60 km/hr, 80 km/hr and x km/hr respectively in the same direction. If all the three met at another point at the same instant during their journey, then what is the value of x ? 

(a) 120

(b) 110

(c) 105

(d) 100 

 

Q 6. Priya’s age was a cube of an integral number (different from 1) four years ago and square of an integral number after four years. How long should she wait so that her age becomes a square of a number in the previous year and a cube of a number in the next year? 

(a) 7 years 

(b) 12 years 

(c) 21 years

(d) 21 years

 

Q 7.Which of the following statements is not true ? 

(a) The difference of two prime numbers, both greater than 2, is divisible by 2. 

(b) For two different integers m, n and a prime number p, if p divides the product m × n, then p divides either m or n.

(c) If a number is of the form 6n – 1 (n being a natural number), then it is a prime number. 

(d) There is only one set of three prime numbers such that there is a gap of 2 between two adjacent prime numbers. 

 

Q 8. For x > 0, what is the minimum value of x + (x+2)/2x ?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 2½ 

(d) Cannot be determined

 

Q 9. If (1+ px)/(1-px) √(1-qx)/(1+qx) = 1, then what are the non-zero solutions of x ?

(a) ±1/p √(2p-q)/q , 2p ≠ q

(b) ±1/pq √(p-q) , p ≠ q

(c) ±p/q √(p-q) , p ≠ q

(d) ±q/p √(2p-q) , 2p ≠ q

 

Q 10. In a hostel the rent per room is increased by 20%. If number of rooms in the hostel is also increased by 20% and the hostel is always full, then what is the percentage change in the total collection at the cash counter ?

(a) 30%

(b) 40% 

(c) 44%

(d) 48%

 

Q 11. Radha and Hema are neighbours and study in the same school. Both of them use bicycles to go to school. Radha’s speed is 8 km/hr whereas Hema’s speed is 10 km/hr. Hema takes 9 minutes less than Radha to reach the school. How far is the school from the locality of Radha and Hema ? 

(a) 5 km 

(b) 5.5 km 

(c) 6 km 

(d) 6.5 km

 

Q 12. Which of the following pair of numbers is the solution of the equation 3x+2 + 3x = 10 

(a) 0,2 

(b) 0,- 2 

(c) 1,-1 

(d) 1,2

 

Q 13. It is given that log10 2 = 0.301 and log10 3 = 0.477. How many digits are there in items : (108)10 ?

(a) 19 

(b) 20

(c) 21

(d) 22

 

Q 14. The sum of three prime numbers is 100. If one of them exceeds another by 36, then one of the numbers is 

(a) 17 

(b) 29 

(c) 43 

(d) None of the above

 

Q 15. If a, b and c are positive integers such that 

then what is the mean of a, b and c?

(a) 1 

(b) 2 

(c) 1.33 

(d) 2.33

 

Consider the following for the next three (03) items:

In a certain town of population size 1,00,000 three types of newspapers (I, II and III) are available. The percentages of the people in the town who read these papers are as follows: 

Newspapers Proportion of Readers
I 10%
II 30%
III 5%
Both I and II  8%
Both II and III 4%
Both I and III  2%
All (I, II and III) 1%

Q 16. What is the number of people who read only one newspaper ? 

(a) 20,000 

(b) 25,000 

(c) 30,000 

(d) 35,000 

 

Q 17.What is the number of people who read at least two newspapers ? 

(a) 12,000 

(b) 13,000 

(c) 14,000 

(d) 15,000

 

Q 18. What is the number of people who do not read any of these three newspapers ? 

(a) 62,000 

(b) 64,000 

(c) 66,000 

(d) 68,000 

 

Q 19. What is the unit place digit in the expansion of 773 ?

(a) 1

(b) 3

(c) 7

(d) 9

 

Q 20. Suppose n is a positive integer such that (n2 + 48) is a perfect square. What is the number of such n

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

 

Q 21. For x =  4/√6 /(√2 + √3), what is the value of (x+2√2)/(x-2√2) + (x+2√3)/(x-2√3)

(a) 1

(b) √2

(c) √3

(d) 2

 

Q 22. x, y and z are three numbers such that x is 30% of z and y is 40% of z. If x is p% of y, then what is the value of p?

(a) 45

(b) 55

(c) 65

(d) 75 

 

Q 23. A plane is going in circles around an airport. The plane takes 3 minutes to complete one round. The angle of elevation of the plane from a point P on the ground at time t seconds is equal to that at time (t + 30) seconds. At time (t + x) seconds, the plane flies vertically above the point P. What is x equal to ? 

(a) 75 seconds 

(b) 90 seconds 

(c) 105 seconds 

(d) 135 seconds

 

Q 24. Consider the following statements in respect of two integers p and q (both > 1) which are relatively prime : 

1. Both p and q may be prime numbers.

2. Both p and may be composite numbers.

3. One of p and q may be prime and the other composite. 

Which of the above statements are correct? 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

 

Q 25. In a class of 100 students, the average weight is 30 kg. If the average weight of the girls is 24 kg and that of the boys is 32 kg, then what is the number of girls in the class ? 

(a) 25 

(b) 26 

(c) 27 

(d) 28

 

Q 26. For any two real numbers a and b, √(a-b)2 + √(b-a)2 is

(a) always zero 

(b) never zero 65 

(c) positive only if a ≠ b 

(d) positive if and only if a >b 

 

Q 27. If a : b=c:d=1:6, then what is the value of (a2 + c2)/(b2 +d2)?

(a) 1/600 

(b) 1/60 

(c) 1/36 

(d) 1/6

 

Q 28. What is equal to ?

 

Q 29. The inequality 3N > N3 holds when 

(a) N is any natural number 

(b) N is a natural number greater than 2 

(c) N is a natural number greater than 3

(d) N is a natural number except 3

 

Q 30. Which one of the following is an irrational number?

(a) √59049 

(b) 231/ 598 

(c) 0.45454545…… 

(d) 0.12112211122211112222.. 

 

Q 31. A race has three parts. The speed and time required to complete the individual parts for a runner is displayed on the following chart: 

# Part I Part II Part III
Speed (kmph) 9 8 7.5
Time (minutes) 50 80 100

What is the average speed of this runner ? 

(a) 8.17 kmph 

(b) 8.00 kmph 

(c) 7.80 kmph 

(d) 7.77 kmph 

 

Q 32. If  a/(b + c) = b/(c + a) = c/(a + b), then which one of the following statements is correct? 

(a) Each fraction is equal to 1 or -1. 

(b) Each fraction is equal to ½  or 1.

(c) Each fraction is equal to ½  or -1.

(d) Each fraction is equal to ½ only.

 

Q 33. The number 3521 is divided by 8. What is the remainder ? 

(a) 1 

(b) 3 

(c) 7 

(d) 9 

 

Q 34. A prime number contains the digit X at unit’s place. How many such digits of X are possible? 

(a) 3 

(b) 4 

(c) 5

(d) 6 

 

Q 35. If an article is sold at a gain of 6% instead of a loss of 6%, the seller gets Rs. 6 more. What is the cost price of the article ?

(a) Rs. 18 

(b) Rs. 36

(c) Rs. 42

(d) Rs. 50

 

Q 36. A field can be reaped by 12 men or 18 women in 14 days. In how many days can 8 men and 16 women reap it? 

(a) 26 days 

(b) 24 days 

(c) 9 days 

(d) 8 days

 

Q 37. If 3x = 4y = 12z, then z is equal to 

(a) xy

(b) x+y

(c) xy/(x+y)

(d) 4x+3y

 

Q 38. If (4a + 7b) (4c-7d) = (4a – 7b) (4c + 7d), then which one of the following is correct ?

(a) a/c = c/d 

(b) a/d = c/b

(c) a/b = d/c

(d) 4a/7b = c/d

 

Q 39. Given that the polynomial (x2 + ax + b) leaves the same remainder when divided by (x – 1) or (x + 1). What are the values of a and b respectively? 

(a) 4 and 0 

(b) 0 and 3 

(c) 3 and 0 

(d) 0 and any integer 

 

Q 40. Tushar takes 6 hours to complete a piece of work, while Amar completes the same work in 10 hours. If both of them work together, then what is the time required to complete the work? 

(a) 3 hours 

(b) 3 hours 15 minutes

(c) 3 hours 30 minutes

(d) 3 hours 45 minutes

 

Q 41. What is the value of 2 + √[2+{√2 + (√……..? )}] 

(a) 1 

(b) 2  

(c) 3 

(d) 4

 

Q 42. In the examination, 52% candidates failed in English and 42% failed in Mathematics. If 17% failed in both the subjects, then what percent passed in both the subjects ? 

(a) 77 

(b) 58 

(c) 48 

(d) 23 

 

Q 43. A man who recently died left a sum of Rs. 3,90,000 to be divided among his wife, five sons and four daughters. He directed that each son should receive 3 times as much as each daughter receives and that each daughter should receive twice as much as their mother receives. What was the wife’s share ? 

(a) Rs. 14,000 

(b) Rs. 12,000 

(c) Rs. 10,000 

(d) Rs. 9,000

 

Q 44. What is the least number of complete years in which a sum of money put out at 40% annual compound interest will be more than trebled ? 

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5 

(d) 6

 

Q 45. A person divided a sum of Rs. 17,200 into three parts and invested at 5%, 6% and 9% per annum simple interest. At the end of two years, he got the same interest on each part of the money. What is the money invested at 9% ? 

(a) Rs. 3,200 

(b) Rs. 4,000 

(c) Rs. 4,800 

(d) Rs. 5,000

 

Q 46. What is [(x – y)3 + (y – z)3 + (z – x)3] / 3(x – y)(y – z)(z – x) equal to ?

(a) 1

(b) 0

(c) ⅓ 

(d) 3

 

Q 47. If a ax = by = cz and b2 = ac, then what is 1/x + 1/z equal to ? 

(a) 1/y

(b) -1/y

(c) 2/y 

(d) -2/y

 

Q 48. If p and q are the roots of the equation x2 – 15x + r = 0 and p – 9 = 1, then what is the value of r? 

(a) 55 

(b) 56 

(c) 60 

(d) 64

 

Q 49. For the inequation x2 – 7x + 12 > 0, which one of the following is correct ? (a) 3 < x 4 

(b) – ∞ < x <3 only 

(c) 4 < x <  ∞ only 

(d)  – ∞ < x < 3 or 4 < x <  ∞

 

Q 50. The expression 52n – 23n has a factor 

(a) 3

(b) 7

(c) 17

(d) None of the above

 

Q 51. If tan x = 1, 0 < x < 90°, then what is the value of 2 sin x cos x ? 

(a) ½ 

(b) 1 

(c) √3/2 

(d) √3  

 

Q 52. What is the value of sin 46° cos 449 + cos 46° sin 44° ? 

(a) sin 2° 

(b) 0 

(c) 1 

(d) 2 

 

Q 53. Suppose 0 < θ < 90°, then for every , 4 sin2 θ + 1 is greater than or equal to 

(a) 2 

(b) 4sinθ 

(c) 4 cos θ 

(d) 4tan θ

 

Q 54. Consider a regular hexagon ABCDEF. Two towers are situated at B and C. The angle of elevation from A to the top of the tower at B is 30°, and the angle of elevation to the top of the tower at C is 45′. What is the ratio of the height of towers at B and C ? 

(a) 1:√3

(b) 1:3 

(c) 1:2

(d) 1:2√3

 

Q 55. What is the value of tan 1° tan 2° tan 3° …… tan 89° ? 

(a) 0 

(b) 1 

(c) 2 

(d) ∞ 

 

Q 56. There are two parallel streets each directed North to South. A person in the first street travelling from South to North wishes to take the second street which is on his right side. At some place, he makes a 150° turn to the right and he travels for 15 minutes at the speed of 20 km/hr. After that he takes a left turn of 60° and travels for 20 minutes at the speed of 30 km/hr in order to meet the second street. What is the distance between the two streets ? 

(a) 7.5 km 

(b) 10.5 km 

(c) 12.5 km 

(d) 15 km

 

Q 57. If 3 tanθ = cot θ where 0 < θ < π/2 then what is the value of θ ?

(a) π/6 

(b) π/4 

(c) π/3 

(d) π/2

 

Q 58. What is the value of sin2 25° + sin2 65° ? 

(a) 0 

(b) 1 

(c) 2 

(d) 4

 

Q 59. What is the value of sin6 θ + cos6 θ + 3 sin2 θ cos2 θ – 1?

(a) 0 

(b) 1 

(c) 2 

(d) 4

 

Q 60. Consider the following for real numbers α, β, γ and δ : 

1. sec α = 1/4 

2. tan β = 20 

3. cosec γ = 1/2 

4. cos δ =2 

How many of the above statements are not possible? 

(a) One 

(b) Two 

(c) Three 

(d) Four

 

Q 61.Consider the following grouped frequency distribution : 

x f
0 – 10 8
10 – 20 12
20 – 30 10
30 – 40 p
40 – 50 9

If the mean of the above data is 25.2, then what is the value of p? 

(a) 9 

(b) 10 

(c) 11 

(d) 12 

 

Q 62. Consider the following frequency distribution: 

x f
8 6
5 4
6 5
10 8
9 9
4 6
7 4

What is the median for the distribution ? 

(a) 6 

(b) 7

(c) 8

(d) 9

 

Q 63. The average of 50 consecutive natural numbers is x. What will be the new average when the next four natural numbers are also included ? 

(a) x + 1 

(b) x + 2 

(c) x + 4 

(d) x + (x/54) 

 

Q 64. Consider two-digit numbers which remain the same when the digits interchange their positions. What is the average of such two-digit numbers ? 

(a) 33 

(b) 44 

(c) 55 

(d) 66 

 

Q 65. Diagrammatic representation of data includes which of the following ? 

1. Bar diagram 

2. Pie-diagram 

3. Pictogram 

Select the correct answer using the code given below : 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

 

Q 66. The data collected from which one of the following methods is not a primary data ? 

(a) By direct personal interviews 

(b) By indirect personal interviews 

(c) By schedules sent through enumerators 

(d) From published thesis

 

Q 67. The monthly expenditure of a person is 36,000. The distribution of expenditure on various items is as follows : 

Item of expenditure Amount (in Rs.)
1. Food 2,000
2. Clothing 660
3. Fuel and Rent 1,200
4. Education 480
5. Miscellaneous 1,600

If the above data is represented by a percentage bar diagram of height 15 cm, then what are the lengths of the two segments of the bar diagram corresponding to education and miscellaneous respectively ?

(a) 1.25 cm and 5 cm

(b) 1.2 cm and 4.15 cm

(c) 1.2 cm and 3.5 cm

(d) 4.15 cm and 6 cm 

 

Q 68. If the mean of m observations out of n observations is n and the mean of remaining observations is m, then what is the mean of all n observations ?

(a) 2m – m2/n

(b) 2m + m2/n

(c) m – m2/n

(d) m + m2/n

 

Q 69. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

(a) Median – Graphical location

(b) Mean – Graphical location

(c) Geometric mean – Ogive

(d) Mode – Ogive

 

Q 70. The following pairs relate to frequency distribution of a discrete variable and its frequency polygon. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? 

(a) Base line of the polygon x-axis
(b) Ordinates of the vertices of the polygon Class frequencies
(c) Abscissa of the vertices of the polygon Class marks of the frequency distribution
(d) Area of the polygon Total frequency of the distribution

 

Q 71. In a rectangle, length is three times its breadth. If the length and the breadth of the rectangle are increased by 30% and 10% respectively, then its perimeter increases by 

(a) 40/3%

(b) 20% 

(c) 25% 

(d) 27%

 

Q 72. What is the percentage decrease in the area of a triangle if its each side is halved ? 

(a) 75% 

(b) 50% 

(c) 25% 

(d) No change

 

Q 73. The volume of a spherical balloon is increased by 700%. What is the percentage increase in its surface area?

(a) 300% 

(b) 400%

(c) 450% 

(d) 500%

 

Q 74. If the lengths of two parallel chords in a circle of radius 10 cm are 12 cm and 16 cm, then what is the distance between these two polygon chords? 

(a) 1 cm or 7 cm 

(b) 2 cm or 14 cm 

(c) 3 cm or 21 cm 

(d) 4 cm or 28 cm 

 

Q 75. Considering two opposite vertices of a square of side ‘a’ as centres, two circular arcs are drawn within the square joining the other two vertices, thus forming two sectors. What is the common area in these two sectors?  

(a) a2(π + ½)

(b) a2(π – ½)

(c) a2(π/2  – 1)

(d) a2(π/2  + 1)

 

Q 76. The corners of a square of side ‘a’ are cut away so as to form a regular octagon. What is the side of the octagon ?

(a) a(√2 – 1) 

(b) a(√3 – 1)

(c) a/ (√2 + 2) 

(d) a /3 

 

Q 77. Three consecutive integers form the lengths of a right-angled triangle. How many sets of such three consecutive integers is/are possible ? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) Infinitely many 

 

Q 78. Two circles are drawn with the same centre. The circumference of the smaller circle is 44 cm and that of the bigger circle is double the smaller one. What is the area between these two circles ? 

(a) 154 square cm 

(b) 308 square cm 

(c) 462 square cm 

(d) 616 square cm

 

Q 79. A rectangular red carpet of size 6 ft × 12 ft has a dark red border 6 inches wide. What is the area of the dark red border ? 

(a) 9 square feet 

(b) 15 square feet 

(c) 17 square feet 

(d) 18 square feet 

 

Q 80. The perimeter of a right-angled triangle is k times the shortest side. If the ratio of the other side to hypotenuse is 4:5, then what is the value of k ? 

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5

 

Q 81. A 12 m long wire is cut into two pieces, one of which is bent into a circle and the other into a square enclosing the circle. What is the radius of the circle ? 

(a) 12/ (π + 4) 

(b) 6/ (π + 4) 

(c) 3/ (π + 4) 

(d) 6/ (π + 2√2)

 

Q 82. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1:1: 4. If the perimeter of the triangle is k times its largest side, then what is the value of k? 

(a) 1 + 2/√3

(b) 1 – 2/√3

(c) 2 + 2/√3

(d) 2 

 

Q 83. The hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle is 10 cm and its area is 24 cm2. If the shorter side is halved and the longer side is doubled, the new hypotenuse becomes

(a) √245 cm

(b) √255 cm

(c) √265 cm

(d) √275 cm

 

Q 84. In a circle of radius 8 cm, AB and AC are two chords such that AB = AC = 12 cm. What is the length of chord BC ?

(a) 2√6 cm

(b) 3√6 cm

(c) 3√7 cm

(d) 6√7 cm

 

Q 85. Consider the following statements :

1. An isosceles trapezium is always cyclic. 

2. Any cyclic parallelogram is a rectangle.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(a) l only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 86. A ladder is resting against a vertical wall and its bottom is 2.5 m away from the wall. If it slips 0.8 m down the wall, then its bottom will move away from the wall by 1.4 m. What is the length of the ladder ? 

(a) 6.2 m 

(b) 6.5 m 

(c) 6.8 m 

(d) 7.5 m 

 

Q 87.Two equal circles intersect such that each passes through the centre of the other. If the length of the common chord of the circles is 10√3 cm, then what is the diameter of the circle? 

(a) 10 cm 

(b) 15 cm 

(c) 20 cm 

(d) 30 cm 

 

Q 88. Consider the following statements : 

1. The number of circles that can be drawn through three non-collinear points is infinity. 

2. Angle formed in a minor segment of a circle is acute. 

Which of the above statements is/are correct ? 

(a) l only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

 

Q 89. Consider the following inequalities in respect of any triangle ABC:

1. AC – AB < BC

2. BC – AC < AB

3. AB – BC < AC

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Q 90. Consider the following statements : 

1. The perimeter of a triangle is greater than the sum of its three medians. 

2. In any triangle ABC, if D is any point on BC, then AB + BC + CA > 2AD.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Consider the following for the next three (03) items: 

A cube is inscribed in a sphere. A right circular cylinder is within the cube touching all the vertical faces. A right circular cone is inside the cylinder. Their heights are same and the diameter of the cone is equal to that of the cylinder. 

Q 91. What is the ratio of the volume of the sphere to that of the cone? 

(a) 6√3:1 

(b) 7:2 

(c) 3√3 :1 

(d) 5√3:1  

 

Q 92. What is the ratio of the volume of the cube to that of the cylinder ? 

(a) 4:3 

(b) 21:16 

(c) 14:11 

(d) 45:32 

 

Q 93. Consider the following statements : 

1. The surface area of the sphere is √5 times the curved surface area of the cone. 

2. The surface area of the cube is equal to the curved surface area of the cylinder. 

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Consider the following for the next three (03) items : 

ABCD is a quadrilateral with AB = 9 cm, BC = 40 cm, CD = 28 cm, DA = 15 cm and angle ABC is a right-angle. 

Q 94. What is the area of triangle ADC ? 

(a) 126 cm2 

(b) 124 cm2 

(c) 122 cm2 

(d) 120 cm2

 

Q 95. What is the area of quadrilateral ABCD? 

(a) 300 cm2 

(b) 306 cm2 

(c) 312 cm2 

(d) 316 cm2

 

Q 96. What is the difference between perimeter of triangle ABC and perimeter of triangle ADC ?

(a) 4 cm 

(b) 5 cm 

(c) 6 cm 

(d) 7 cm 

 

Consider the following for the next two (02) items:

An equilateral triangle ABC is inscribed in a circle of radius 20√3 cm.

Q 97. What is the length of the side of the triangle ? 

(a) 30 cm 

(b) 40 cm 

(c) 50 cm 

(d) 60 cm 

 

Q 98. The centroid of the triangle ABC is at a distance d from the vertex A. What is d equal to ? 

(a) 15 cm 

(b) 20 cm

(c) 20√3 cm

(d) 30√3 cm

 

Consider the following for the next two (02) items : 

The sum of length, breadth and height of a cuboid is 22 cm and the length of its diagonal is 14 cm. 

Q 99. What is the surface area of the cuboid ? 

(a) 288 cm2 

(b) 216 cm2 

(c) 144 cm2

(d) Cannot be determined insufficient data 

 

Q 100. If S is the sum of the cubes of the dimensions of the cuboid and V is its volume, then what is (S-3V) equal to ?

(a) 572 cm3 

(b) 728 cm3 

(c) 1144 cm3 

(d) None of the above

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