SSC CGL Tier-I 09March 2020 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL 9th March 2020 Shift-1 

Q. 1 Identify the number that does NOT belong to the following series. 

2, 6, 14, 30, 62, 126, 250 

(A) 14 

(B) 126 

(C) 250 

(D) 62 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The series follows pattern as, 

2 + 22 = 2 + 4 = 6 

6 + 23 = 6 + 8 = 14 

14 + 23 = 14 + 16 = 30 

30 + 24 = 30 + 32 = 62 

62 + 25 = 62 + 64 = 126 

126 + 26 = 126 + 128 = 254 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

 

Q. 2 A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’. 

A × B means ‘A is the father of B’: 

A ÷ B means ‘A is the brother of B’: 

Which of the following expressions means ‘H is the grandson of P’? 

(A) P + K + D × H ÷ M 

(B) H + K + D × P ÷ M 

(C) D + H + K × M ÷ P 

(D) K + P × D × H × M 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

In the diagram, Circle shows the female, square shows the male, vertical lines show the generation, single horizontal line shows the brother/sister and double horizontal lines show the couple. 

From the option D, 

So, ‘H is the grandson of P’. 

∴ The correct answer is option D. 

 

Q. 3 A cube is made by folding the given sheet. In the cube so formed, which of the following pairs of letters will be on opposite sides?

(A) Q and E 

(B) A and Q 

(C) L and U 

(D) B and E 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 4 60 students participated in one or more of the three competitions,i.e. Quiz, Extempore and Debate. A total of 22 students participated either in Quiz only or in Extempore only. 4 students participated in all three competitions. A total of14 students participated in any of the two competitions only. How many students participated in Debate only? 

(A) 11 

(B) 20 

(C) 14 

(D) 22 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Total students = 60 

Students participated either in Quiz only or in Extempore only = 22 

Students participated in all three competitions = 4 

Students participated in any of the two competitions only = 14 

Students participated in Debate only = 60 – 22 – 4 – 14 = 20 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

 

Q. 5 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. 

Statements: 

1. Some dancers are writers. 

2. All writers are students. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some students are dancers. 

II. Some students are writers. 

III. No student is a dancer. 

(A) Either conclusion I or III follows. 

(B) Only conclusions II and III follow. 

(C) Only conclusions I and II follow. 

(D) All conclusions I, II and III follow. 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

From the Venn diagram, 

Only conclusion I and II follow. 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

 

Q. 6 Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 7 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

56 : 30 :: 78 : ? 

(A) 46 

(B) 41 

(C) 50 

(D) 53 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

30 × 2 – 4 = 60 – 4 = 56 

Similarly, 

41 × 2 – 4 = 82 – 4 = 78 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

 

Q. 8 Arrange the following words in the order in which they would appear in an English dictionary.

1. Realistic 

2. Realism 

3. Restore 

4. Research 

5. Resurge 

(A) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 

(B) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5 

(C) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 

(D) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Word according to English dictionary, 

Realism, Realistic, Research, Restore, Resurge 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

 

Q. 9 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster. 

(A) JNQS 

(B) TVXZ 

(C) RSTU 

(D) ADGJ 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

J + 4 = N + 3 = Q + 2 = S 

T + 2 = V + 2 = X + 2 = Z 

R + 1 = S + 1 = T + 1 = U 

(A) + 3 = (D) + 3 = G + 3 = J 

Except option A, remaining all letter-clusters have same difference in between the letters. 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

 

Q. 10 In a certain code language, ‘DRONE’ is written as ‘SERFO’. How will ‘HOUSE’ be written as in that language? 

(A) QJXG(B) 

(B) PIXFT 

(C) PQWGS 

(D) PIVFT 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Similarly, 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

 

Q. 11 Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

DJQC, ELTG, FNWK, GPZO, ? 

(A) HRBU 

(B) HRCS 

(C) HQCT 

(D) GRDS 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The series follows pattern as, 

((D) + 1)(J + 2)(Q + 3)((C) + $) = ELTG 

(E + 1)(L +2)(T + 3)(G + 4) = FNWK 

(F + 1)(N +2)(W + 3)(K + 4) = GPZO 

(G + 1)(P +2)(Z + 3)(O + 4) = HRCS 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

 

Q. 12 Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words. Audition : Selection 

(A) Loyalty : Fraud 

(B) Examination : Pass 

(C) Machine: Fault 

(D) Competition : Poem 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Audition related to selection similarly, examination related to pass. 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

 

Q. 13 How many triangles are there in the given figure? 

(A) 23 

(B) 22 

(C) 24 

(D) 21 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 14 If ‘A’ stands for ‘subtraction’, ‘B’ stands for ‘multiplication’, ‘C’ stands for ‘addition’ and “D’ stands for ‘division’, then what is the value of the following expression? 

32B4A 12 B(35A24)C52D4 

(A) 47 

(B) 39 

(C) 19 

(D)

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

32B4(A) 12 B(35A24)C52D4 

On applying the instructions, 

= 32 × 4 − 12 × (35 − 24) + 52 ÷ 4 

= 128 – 12 \times 11 + 13$$ 

= 128 – 132 + 13 

= 9 

 

Q. 15 Select the letter that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

Y, R, L, G, ?, Z 

(A)

(B)

(C) C

(D)

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The series follows pattern as, 

Y – 7 = R 

R – 6 = L 

L – 5 = G 

G – 4 = C 

C – 3 = Z 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

 

Q. 16 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is not allowed). 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 17 In a certain code language, ‘POUND’ is coded as ‘106’ and ‘CLEAN’ is coded as ’41’. How will ‘MAKER’ be coded as in that language? 

(A) 112 

(B) 78 

(C) 50 

(D) 54 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

POUN(D) = 16 +15 × 2 + 21 × 2 + 14 + 4 = 106 

CLEAN = 3 + 12 + 5×2 + 1×2 + 14 = 41 

Similarly, 

MAKER = 13 + 1 × 2 + 11 + 5 × 2 + 18 = 54 

∴ The correct answer is option D. 

 

Q. 18 Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-pair that is different from the rest. 

(A) 37 : 266 

(B) 53 : 378 

(C) 45 : 322 

(D) 43 : 318 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 19 Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship between the classes? Tables, Wooden objects, Chairs 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 20 Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers in the given set. 

(88, 60, 37) 

(A) (56, 38, 28) 

(B) (36, 70, 38) 

(C) (94, 42, 34) 

(D) (43, 49, 27) 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

In (88, 60, 37) 

8 + 8 = 16 

6 + 0 = 6 

16 – 6 = 10 = (3 + 7) 

Similarly, 

In (94, 42, 34) 

9 + 4 = 13 

4 + 2 = 6 

13 – 6 = 7 = (3 + 4) 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

 

Q. 21 Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

(A) 55 

(B) 69 

(C) 205 

(D) 108 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 22 Select the correct mirror image of the given letter-cluster when a vertical mirror is placed on the right side of the cluster.

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 23 Apiece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. Select from the given answer figures, how it will appear when unfolded? 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 24 Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd word. 

(A) Volume 

(B) Gallon 

(C) Weight 

(D) Distance 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Only ‘Gallon’ is the unit of measurement(volume). 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

 

Q. 25 ‘Ethiopia’ is related to ‘Africa’ in the same way as ‘Brazil’ is related to ‘_____’, 

(A) Africa 

(B) Brasilia 

(C) North America 

(D) South America 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

‘Ethiopia’ is related to ‘Africa’ in the same way as ‘Brazil’ is related to ‘South America” 

∴ The correct answer is option D. 

General Awareness 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 The Paithan Hydro – Electric Project is on river _____. 

(A) Brahmaputra 

(B) Yamuna 

(C) Narmada 

(D) Godavari 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 27 Who designed the logo for Lokpalin India? 

(A) B.P. Raju 

(B) Prashant Mishra 

(C) Deepak Punia 

(D) Kamareddy 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 28 The India Meteorological Department (IMD) celebrated _____ its foundation day on January 15, 2020. 

(A) 145 th 

(B) 139 th 

(C) 135 th 

(D) 140 th 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 29 What does GNP stand for? 

(A) Gramin Nigam Parishad 

(B) Gramin Nisak Praman 

(C) Gross National Product 

(D) Gross National Produce 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 30 Which of the following years is called the Year of the Great Divide in the demographic history of India? 

(A) 1921 

(B) 1931 

(C) 1951 

(D) 1911 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 31 In which year did the Portuguese capture Goa? 

(A) 1610 AD

(B) 1475 AD

(C) 1540 AD

(D) 1510 AD 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 32 Name the author of the book ‘Ain-i-Akbari’? 

(A) Todar Mal 

(B) Abu’ Faz! 

(C) Dara Shikoh 

(D) Abdul Rahim Khan-I-Khana 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 33 Protium, deuterium and tritium are the naturally occurring isotopes of: 

(A) nitrogen 

(B) hydrogen 

(C) carbon 

(D) gold 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 34 Name the Indian equestrian to qualify for the Tokyo Olympics officially after a wait / span of two decades. 

(A) Ghulam Mohammed Khan 

(B) Raghubir Singh 

(C) Fouaad Mirza 

(D) Bishal Singh 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 35 What is the yellow dust present in the middle of a flower called? 

(A) Zygote 

(B) Pollen 

(C) Stomata 

(D) Sperm 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 36 In which of the following is citric acid present? 

(A) Tamarind 

(B) Lemon 

(C) Black Gram 

(D) Curd 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 37 Who launched the first phase of the Mumbai Trans Harbour Link (MTHL) on 15th January 2020? 

(A) Ajit Pawar 

(B) Devendra Fadnavis 

(C) Narendra Modi 

(D) Uddhav Thackeray 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 38 ______ are called the ‘Power houses’ of the cell. 

(A) Lungs 

(B) Pituitary glands 

(C) Arteries 

(D) Mitochondria 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 39 In which year was the first Round Table Conference held in London? 

(A) 1907 

(B) 1930 

(C) 1919 

(D) 1923 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 40 The Legislative Assembly of which state adopted a new logo on the 9th January 2020? 

(A) Tripura 

(B) Assam 

(C) Andhra Pradesh 

(D) Arunachal Pradesh 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 41 Name the first actor to win the Oscar Awards. 

(A) Emil Jannings 

(B) Warner Baxter 

(C) Charlie Chaplin 

(D) Lionel Barrymore 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 42 Shaukat Kaifi passed away in 2019. She was the mother of which famous actress? 

(A) Dia Mirza 

(B) Shabana Azmi 

(C) Fatima Sana Shaikh 

(D) Urmila Matondkar 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 43 What does the writ of ‘Mandamus’ mean? 

(A) To be Certified 

(B) We Command 

(C) You May Have the Body 

(D) By What Warrants 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 44 On which country has the World Anti-doping Agency recently imposed a 4-year ban? 

(A) Russia 

(B) Pakistan 

(C) Brazil 

(D) China 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 45 Deficiency of which of the following vitamins causes Night Blindness? 

(A) Vitamin B 

(B) Vitamin D 

(C) Vitamin C 

(D) Vitamin A 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 46 What is the pass at the southern end of the Nilgiri hills called? 

(A) Chorla ghat pass 

(B) Malshej ghat pass 

(C) Palakkad gap 

(D) Goran ghat pass 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 47 Jai Prakash Narayan Museum of Socialism is situated in: 

(A) Vadodara 

(B) New Delhi 

(C) Lucknow 

(D) Amritsar 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 48 Which of the following Acts was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting (FIT) framework? 

(A) The Industrial Finance Corporation ofIndia Act, 1948 

(B) Banking Regulation Act, 1949 

(C) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 

(D) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 49 Fatehabad district derives its name from the eponymous headquarters town founded by _____ in the 14th century, who named it after his son Fateh Khan. 

(A) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq 

(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq 

(C) Humayun 

(D) Allauddin Khilji 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 50 The wood of which of the following trees is used to make the large plucked string instrument used in Carnatic classical music known as Bobbili Veena / Saraswathi Veena? 

(A) Walnut wood 

(B) Jackfruit wood 

(C) Teak wood 

(D) Sandal wood 

Answer: (B) 

Quantitative Aptitude 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 Ram makes a profit of 30% by selling an article. What would be the profit percent if it were calculated on the selling price instead of the cost price? (Correct to one decimal! place) 

(A) 22.4 % 

(B) 23.1 % 

(C) 20.1 % 

(D) 24.2 % 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Let the cost price be Rs.100. 

Selling price = 100  × 130/100 = Rs.130 

Profit when it calculated on the selling price = 30/130  × 100 = 23.07% ≈ 23.1% 

 

Q. 52 Ram and Shyam can complete a task in 6⅔ days and 15 days, respectively. They work together for 4 days, and then Ram leaves. In how many days after Ram leaves, will Shyam complete the remaining task alone? 

(A) 1½ days 

(B) 3 days 

(C) 4 days 

(D) 2 days 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 53 The following table represents the number of candidates that appeared and qualified in a competitive examination from different states over five years. Study the table and answer the questions that follow. 

The total number of candidates that qualified from all the states together in 1998 is approximately what percentage of the total 

number of candidates that qualified from all the states together in 2001? (Correct to Two decimal points) 

(A) 94.7 % 

(B) 97.72 % 

(C) 90.72 % 

(D) 96.70 % 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 54 If (A) + (B) = 12 and A(B) = 17 , What is the value of A3 + B3

(A) 1116 

(B) 1166 

(C) 1106 

(D) 1213 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

A3 + B3 

= ((A) + B)3 − 3AB((A) + B) 

= (12)3 − 3 × 17(12) 

= 1728 – 612 = 1116 

 

Q. 55 In the given figure △ABC, if θ = 80, the measure of each of the other two angles will be:

(A) 60 

(B) 40 

(C) 50 

(D) 80 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 56 If 3A = 4B = 5C, then A : B : C is equal to: 

(A) 10 : 5 : 4 

(B) 10 : 7 : 6 

(C) 20 : 15 : 16 

(D) 20 : 15 : 12 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

3A = 4B = 5C 

3A= 4B = 5C = k 

let the 

(A) = k/3 

(B) = K/4 

(C) = K/5 

k/3 :k/4 :k/5 

(A) : (B) : (C) = = 20 : 15 : 12 

 

Q. 57 What is the area of a sector of a circle of radius 14 cm and central angle 450? (Take π = 22/7) 

(A) 70 cm2 

(B) 77 cm2 

(C) 11 cm2 

(D) 67 cm2 

Answer: (B) 

Instructions 

The following table represents the number of candidates that appeared and qualified in a competitive examination from different states over five years. Study the table and answer the questions that follow. 

 

Q. 58 What is the difference between the number of candidates qualifying in the year 1998, in the states M and P? 

(A) 40 

(B) 50 

(C) 44 

(D) 60 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The difference between the number of candidates qualifying in the year 1998, in the states M and P = 1020 – 980 = 40 

 

Q. 59 What is the average number of candidates that appeared from State Q during the given years? 

(A) 8880 

(B) 9000 

(C) 8990 

(D) 8980 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Number of candidates that appeared from State Q in all years = 8100 + 9500 + 8700 + 9700 + 8950 = 44950 Average number of candidates that appeared from State Q during the given years = 44950/5 = 89990 (Average = sum of terms/number of terms) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 60 Ravi scores 72 % marks in examinations. If these are 360 marks, then the maximum marks are: 

(A) 500 

(B) 450 

(C) 400 

(D) 350 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

According to question, 

72% = 360 

Maximum marks(100%) = $$\frac{360}{72} \times 100 = 500 

 

Q. 61 The average age of A and B is 20 years. and that of B and C is 25 years. What is the age of A? 

(A) 25 years 

(B) 10 years 

(C) 15 years 

(D) 20 years 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 62 The single discount equivalent to two successive discounts of 20%and 15% is: 

(A) 28% 

(B) 30% 

(C) 32% 

(D) 22% 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Single discount for successive discounts 

= 20% + 15% – 20%×15%100 20% + 15% – 3% = 32% 

 

Q. 63 What is the smallest integer that is a multiple of 5, 8 and 15? 

(A) 600 

(B) 120 

(C) 60 

(D) 40 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Smallest integer that is a multiple of 5, 8 and 15 = 120 

(LCMof5,8and15is120.

 

Q. 64 The simple interest on a sum of money for 3 years at an interest rate of 6% p.a. is Rs.6,750. What will be the compound interest rounded off on the same sum at the same rate for the same period, compounded annually is closest to : 

(A) Rs. 7,133 

(B) Rs. 7,163 

(C) Rs. 7,103 

(D) Rs. 7,663 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Simple interest = prt100 

r = 6% 

t = 3 years 

6750 = p×6×3100 

p = Rs.37500 

Compound interest = p(1 + r100)tp 

= 37500(1 + 6100)337500 

= 37500 ×106100×106100×10610037500 

= 44663.1 – 37500 = 7361.1 Rs.7361 

 

Q. 65 In the figure, PA is a tangent from an external point P to the circle with centre O. If PO(B)=110°, then the measure of APO is: 

(A) 25° 

(B) 40° 

(C) 20° 

(D) 30° 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 66 Ty the right triangle shown in the figure ,what is the value of \cosecθ

(A) 135 

(B) 513 

(C) 511 

(D) 1213 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 67 Triangle PDC is drawn in side the square ABCD of side 24 cm where PP lies on AB. What is the area of the triangle? 

(A) 280 cm2 

(B) 288 cm2cm^{2} 

(C) 200 cm2cm^{2} 

(D) 298 cm2cm^{2} 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 68 The value of 1800÷20×[(126)+(2412)] is: 

(A) 2720 

(B) 840 

(C) 1720 

(D) 1620 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

1800÷20×[(126)+(2412)]1800\div20\times [(12-6)+(24-12)] 

= 1800÷20×[(6)+(12)] 

= 90×[(6)+(12)] 

= 90×18 = 1620 

 

Q. 69 (3a4b)3 is equal to: 

(A) 9a216b2 

(B) 27a364b3108a2b+144ab2 

(C) 27a364b3 

(D) 9a224ab+16b2 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

(3a4b)3(3a-4b)^{3} 

= (3a)3(4b)33(3a.4b)(3a4b) 

((ab)3=a3b33ab(ab)

= 27a364b336ab(3a4b) 

= 27a364b3108a2b+144ab2 

 

Q. 70 Expand: (4a+3b+2c)2 

(A) 16a29b2+4c224ab+12bc16ca 

(B) 16a2+9b2+4c2+24ab+12bc+16ca 

(C) 4a2+3b2+2c2+24ab+12bc+16ca 

(D) 16a2+9b2+4c224ab12bc16ca 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

(4a+3b+2c)2(4a+3b+2c)^{2} 

= (4a)2+(3b)2+(2c)2+2(4a.3b+3b.2c+2c.4a) 

((a+b+c)2=a2+b2+c2+2(a+b+c)) 

= 16a2+9b2+4c2+2(12ab+6bc+8ac) 

= 16a2+9b2+4c2+24ab+12bc+16ac 

 

Q. 71 The length, breadth and height of a cuboidal box are in the ratio 7 : 5 : 3 and its whole surface area is 27832 cm2cm^{2}. Its volume is: 

(A) 288120 cm3 

(B) 280120 cm3cm^{3} 

(C) 208120 cm3cm^{3} 

(D) 288100 cm3cm^{3} 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Let the length, breadth and height of a cuboid box be 7x, 5x and 3x respectively. 

Surface area = 27832 cm2cm^{2} 

2[(length × breadth) + (breadth ×\times height) + (height ×\times length)] = 27832 [(7x ×\times 5x) + (5x ×\times 3x) + (3x ×\times 7x)] = 13916 

35x2+15x2+21x2=13916 

71x2=13916 

x2=13916/71=196 

x = 14 

Volume = length ×\times breadth ×\times height 

= 7x ×\times 5x ×\times 3x = 105x3 

On putting the value of x, 

= 105 ×(143)=105×2744=288120cm3 

 

Q. 72 If 6tanθ53secθ+12cotθ=0,00<θ<900, hen the value of (cosecθ+secθ) is: 

(A) 3+232 

(B) 2(3+23)3 

(C) 23(3+3) 

(D) 3+32 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

6tanθ53secθ+12cotθ=0,00<θ<9006tan\theta-5\sqrt3sec\theta+12cot\theta=0,0^{0}<\theta<90^{0} 

6sinθcosθ53(1cosθ)+12cosθsinθ=0\frac{6sin^2\theta – 5\sqrt3sin\theta + 12cos^2\theta}{sin\theta cos\theta}$$ = 0 

6sin2θ+6cos2θ53sinθ+6cos2θsinθcosθ = 0 653sinθ+6cos2θsinθcosθ = 0 

653sinθ+6(1sin2θ)=0 

6sin2θ+53sinθ12=0 

From LHS, 

Put the θ=60\degree 

6sin2θ+53sinθ12 

6sin260\degree+53sin60\degree12 

6(32)2+53×3212 

184+15212 = 0 

= RHS 

(cosecθ+secθ)(cosec\theta+sec\theta) 

Put the θ=60\degree\theta = 60 \degree

= (cosec60\degree+sec60\degree) 

= 23+2 

= 2+233 

= 23+63 

= 23(3+3) 

 

Q. 73 The following table represents the number of candidates that appeared and qualified in a competitive examination from different states over five years. Study the table and answer the questions that follow. 

What was the total number of candidates appearing from all the states in the year 1997? 

(A) 27,000 

(B) 72,200 

(C) 27,200 

(D) 2,700 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Total number of candidates appearing from all the states in the year 1997 

= 5200 + 7500 + 6400 + 8100 = 27,200 

 

Q. 74 Seema flies a kite on a 16 m string at an inclination of 600. What is the height (h) of the kite above the ground? 

(A) 43

(B) 83

(C) 63

(D) 163

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 75 X and Y are two stations which are 280 km apart. A train starts at a certain time from X and travels towards Y at 60 km/h. After 2 hours, another train starts from Y and travels towards X at 20 km/h. After how many hours does the train leaving from X meets the train which left from Y? 

(A) 2 hours 

(B) 6 hours 

(C) 3 hours 

(D) 4 hours 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Distance between X and Y = 280 km 

Speed of train which starts from station (A) = 60 km/hr 

Distance covered in 2 hours = 60 ×\times 2 = 120 km 

Remaining distance = 280 – 120 = 160 km 

Relative speed in opposite direction = 60 + 20 = 80 km/hr 

Time taken to cover 160 km = 160/80 = 2 hr 

Time taken when train leaving from X meets the train which left from Y = 2 + 2 = 4 hr 

English Comprehension 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

Solemn 

(A) Furious 

(B) Ignorant 

(C) Serious 

(D) Ordinary 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

You will not learn cycling unless you don’t try . 

(A) unless you try 

(B) until you are not trying 

(C) until you don’t try 

(D) unless you didn’t try 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 78 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Kill two birds with one stone 

(A) To achieve two results with a single effort 

(B) To try something impossible 

(C) To be an expert shooter 

(D) To plan two murders simultaneously 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 79 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. 

Fortunately, the fire did not cause much damage. 

(A) Fortunately, not much damage is caused by the fire 

(B) Fortunately, not much damage was caused by the fire 

(C) Fortunately, not much damage is being caused by the fire. 

(D) Fortunately, not much damage was being caused by the fire. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 80 Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. 

Rahul said to his mother, “Can | go out and play now?” 

(A) Rahul asked his mother if can he go out and play now. 

(B) Rahul asked his mother that could he go out and play then 

(C) Rahul asked to his mother could he go out and play now. 

(D) Rahul asked his mother if he could go out and play then. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Our new office will become operational from a weeks time. 

(A) in a week’s time 

(B) No improvement 

(C) by the week’s time 

(D) for a weeks time 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Tourism can cause social, cultural or environmental disruption. The greatest concern is (1)_____ damage to environment. In order to attract more tourists, (2)_____ resorts are built which take neither the local architecture (3)_____ the ecology into consideration. Natural systems get (4)_____ as a result of indiscriminate construction to provide water (5)_____ waste disposal facilities along with recreational arrangements to tourists. 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number(1). 

(A) an 

(B) one 

(C)

(D) the 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number(2). 

(A) sprawling 

(B) scheming 

(C) spreading 

(D) stretching 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number(3). 

(A) none 

(B) no 

(C) nor 

(D) or 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number(4). 

(A) destroyed 

(B) distracted 

(C) dismayed 

(D) displayed 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number(5). 

(A) and 

(B) but 

(C) also 

(D) as 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 87 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. Central character in a story or play 

(A) Hedonist 

(B) Cartoonist 

(C) Protagonist 

(D) Opportunist 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 88 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

Eradicate 

(A) Condense 

(B) Approve 

(C) Magnify 

(D) Uproot 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 89 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

A. These baits were temptations that people couldn’t resist. 

B. He evolved a theory that the world was a rat-trap. 

C. Once,a peddler sat looking at his rat-traps. 

D. Here, people lay baits for others. 

(A) BDA(C) 

(B) CAD(B) 

(C) DAC(B) 

(D) CBD(A) 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Makeoff with 

(A) To run away 

(B) To transfer 

(C) To discover 

(D) To understand 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 91 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. 

If a few drops of lemon are put in the milk, it has turned sour. 

(A) it has turned sour 

(B) drops of lemon 

(C) If a few 

(D) are put in the milk 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 92 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. 

(A) Potraite 

(B) Pageant 

(C) Pamphlet 

(D) Persevere 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 93 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word. 

Do you want to _____ to Reader’s Digest magazine? 

(A) ranscribe 

(B) describe 

(C) subscribe 

(D) prescribe 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 94 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. 

(A) Failure 

(B) Furious 

(C) Journy 

(D) elicious 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 95 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 

Rear 

(A) Lower 

(B) Front 

(C) Hind 

(D) Back 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 96 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

A. Their prestige and glory spread far and wide. 

B. The first Olympics were held at Olympia in Greece in 776 B.C. 

C. It was because the Christians believed that they encouraged pagan worship in temples.

D. However, with the advent of Christianity, the games lost their importance. 

(A) DCAB 

(B) BADC 

(C) BCDA 

(D) ACDB

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 97 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 

Persuade 

(A) Dissuade 

(B) Pervade 

(C) Induce 

(D) Impress 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 98 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

Person or animal living on another 

(A) Parasite 

(B) Pupil 

(C) Heir 

(D) Successor 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 99 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. 

Mohit did not went to school yesterday as he was unwell. 

(A) yesterday as he 

(B) was unwell 

(C) Mohit did not 

(D) went to school 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 100 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word. 

Your demands are bound to lead to _____ in the family. 

(A) absence 

(B) discord 

(C) decrease 

(D) barrier 

Answer: (B) 

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