SSC CGL Tier-I 26 June 2011 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2011 26 Jun Shift 1

Q. 1  6:64::11:?

A. 144

B. 169

C. 121

D. 124

Q. 2  123:4::726:?

A. 23

B. 26

C. 14

D. 12

Q. 3 Fish:Scales::Bear:?

A. Feathers

B. Leaves

C. Fur

D. Skin

Q. 4 Writer:Pen::?

A. Needle:Tailor

B. Artist:Brush

C. Painter:Canvas

D. Teacher:Class

Q. 5 NUMERAL:UEALRMN::ALGEBRA:?

A. LRBAGEA

B. BARLAGE

C. LERAGBA

D. LERABGA

Q. 6 BDAC:FHEG::NPMO:?

A. RQTS

B. QTRC

C. TRQS

D. RTQS

Q. 7 FGHI:OPQR::BCDE:?

A. KLMJ

B. KLMN

C. IUVW

D. STUW

Q. 8 PNLJ:IGEC::VTRP:?

A. OMKI

B. RSTU

C. QSRC

D. QROM

Q. 9 19:60::20:?

A. 57

B. 69

C. 81

D. 93

Q. 10 Find the odd number from the given alternatives

A. 162

B. 405

C. 567

D. 644

Q. 11 Find the odd number from the given alternatives

A. 156

B. 201

C. 273

D. 645

Q. 12 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. Flute

B. Violin

C. Guitar

D. Sitar

Q. 13 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. Prod

B. Sap

C. Jab

D. Thrust

Q. 14 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. JKOP

B. MNST

C. CABD

D. OPWX

Q. 15 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. CAFD

B. TSWV

C. IGLJ

D. OMRP

Q. 16 In the following question, number of letters are skipped in between by particular rule. What of the following series observes the rules?

A. ABFGJK

B. ACFJOU

C. MPQSTV

D. ADFHJL

Q. 17 Find out the pair of numbers that does not belong to the group for lack of common property.

A. 11-115

B. 10-90

C. 9-72

D. 8-56

Q. 18 Which one of the following responses would be a meaning full descending order of the following?

1 Major

2 Captain

3 Colonel

4 Brigadier

5 Lt.General

A. 5,4,3,1,2

B. 5,1,4,2,3

C. 4,5,1,3,2

D. 3,4,2,5,1

Q. 19 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary

1 Dissident

2 Dissolve

3 Dissent

4 Dissolute

5 Dissolution

A. 3,1,4,5,2

B. 3,2,1,4,5

C. 3,1,4,2,5

D. 3,2,4,5,1

Q. 20 Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

__cb__cab__baca__cba__ab

A. cabcb

B. abccb

C. bacbc

D. bcaba

Q. 21 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series. 

4,196,16,169,?,144,64

A. 21

B. 81

C. 36

D. 32

Q. 22 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

8,15,36,99,288,……?….

A. 368

B. 676

C. 855

D. 908

Q. 23 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

XYZCBAUVWFE….?…..?….

A. DR

B. RS

C. DS

D. MN

Q. 24 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

reoc,pgme,nikg,lkii….?….

A. acef

B. jmgk

C. efgh

D. wxyz

Q. 25 Among her children, Ganga’s favourites are Ram and Rekha. Rekha is the mother of sharat, who is loved by his uncle mithun. The head of the family is Ram lal, who is succeeded by his sons Gopal and Mohan, Gopal and Ganga have been married for 35 years and have 3 children. What is the relation between Mithun and Mohan?

A. Uncle

B. Son

C. Brother

D. No relation

Q. 26 Find the wrong number in the series.

6,9,15,22,51,99

A. 99

B. 51

C. 22

D. 15

Q. 27 In a row of girls, Kamla is 9th from the left and Veena is 16th from the right. If they interchange their positions, Kamla becomes 25th from the left. How many girls are there in the row?

A. 34

B. 36

C. 40

D. 41

Q. 28 Ravi has spend a quarter of his life as a boy, one fifth as a youth, one third as a man and 13 years in old age, What is his present age?

A. 70 years

B. 80 years

C. 60 years

D. 65 years

Q. 29 Five boys A,B,C,D,E are sitting in a park in a circle. A is facing south-west, D is facing southeast, B and E are right opposite A and D respectively and C is equidistant between D and B. Which direction is C facing?

A. West

B. South

C. North

D. East

Q. 30 At what time are the hands of clocks together between 6 and 7?

A. 32 8/11 minutes past 6

B. 34 8/11 minutes past 6

C. 30 8/11 minutes past 6

D. 32 5/7 minutes past 6

Q. 31 Out of 100 families in the neighbourhood, 50 have radios, 75 have Tvs and 25 has VCRs. Only 10 families has all 3 and each VCR owner also has a TV. If some families have radio only, how many have TV only?

A. 30

B. 35

C. 40

D. 45

Q. 32 Suresh was born on 4th october 1999. Shashikanth was born 6 days before Suresh. The independence day of that year fell on Sunday. Which day was Shashikanth born?

A. Tuesday

B. Wednesday

C. Monday

D. Sunday

Q. 33 From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

‘CONCENTRATION’

A. CONCERN

B. NATION

C. TRAIN

D. CENTRE

Q. 34 In a certain office, 1/3 of the workers are women, 1/2 of the mend are married and 1/3 of the married women have children. If 3/4 men are married and 2/3 men have children, then what part of workers is without children?

A. 5/18

B. 4/9

C. 11/18

D. 17/36

 

Q. 35 If a man on a moped starts from a point and 4 km south, then turns and rides 2 km to turn again to the right to ride 4 km more, towards which direction is he moving?

A. North

B. West

C. East

D. South

 

Q. 36 Ganesh cycles towards south-west a distance of 8 m, then he moves towards east a distance of 20 m, from there he moves towards north-east a distance of 8 m, then he moves towards west a distance of 6 m. From there he moves towards north-east a distance of 2 m. Then he moves towards west a distance of 4 m and then he moves towards southwest a distance of 2 m and stops at that point. How far is he from the starting point?

A. 12 m

B. 10 m

C. 8 m

D. 6 m

 

Q. 37 Two statements are given by 4 inferences. Select the alternative which is most appropriate.

Statements:

1 India is becoming industrial.

2 Pollution is a problem associated with industrialization.

Inferences:

1 All industrial centers are polluted.

2 India is polluted

3 Polluted nations are industrialized

4 India may become polluted

A. All are appropriate

B. None is appropriate

C. only 4 is appropriate

D. Only 2 is appropriate

 

Q. 38 From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word:

‘DETERMINATION’

A. DECLARATION

B. NATIONAL

C. TERMINATED

D. DEVIATED

 

Q. 39 If in a certain code HYDROGEN is written as JCJZYSSD, then how ANTIMONY be written in that code?

A. CPVKOQPA

B. CRZQWABO

C. ERXMQSRC

D. GTZOSUTE

 

Q. 40 If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662 then how can CALICUT coded?

A. 5279431

B. 5978013

C. 8251896

D. 8543691

 

Q. 41 Select the missing numbers from the given responses

A. 8

B. 3

C. 6

D. 36

 

Q. 42 Select the missing numbers from the given responses

A. 60

B. 68

C. 55

D. 65

 

Q. 43 How many rectangles are there in the given diagram?

A. 4

B. 7

C. 9

D. 18

 

Q. 44 Which of the following diagrams represents the relationship among Sun , Moon and Star?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 45 Some equations have been solved on the basis of a certain system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

If 9*7 = 32, 13*7 = 120, 17*9 = 208, then 19*11 = ?

A. 150

B. 180

C. 210

D. 240

 

Q. 46 Forecast the growth rate for the year 1995 from the following data:

A. 7.8

B. 8.6

C. 9.7

D. 9.9

 

Q. 47 If ‘-‘ stands for ‘/’ , ‘+’ stand for ‘*’, ‘/’ for ‘-‘ and ‘*’ for ‘+’, which one of the following equation is correct?

A. 30-6+5*4/2 = 27

B. 30+6-5/4*2 = 30

C. 30*6/5-4+2 = 32

D. 30/6*5+4-2 = 40

 

Q. 48 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the questions figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 49 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the correct image of the given question figures?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 50 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

 

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 51 Judicial review in the indian constitution is based on :

A. Rule of law

B. Due process of law

C. Procedure established by law

D. Precedents and conventions

 

Q. 52 The drafting of the constitution was completed on:

A. 26th jan 1950

B. 26th dec 1949

C. 26th nov 1949

D. 30th nov 1949

 

Q. 53 Who was the president of the constitution assembly?

A. pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru

B. Sardar patel

C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

D. Dr. B.R.Ambedkar

 

Q. 54 Which innovative discussion process is introduced by the Indian parliament to the world parliamentary system?

A. Question hour

B. Zero hour

C. Resolutions

D. Presidential speech

 

Q. 55 The judges of the supreme court retire at the age of:

A. 60 years

B. 65 years

C. 62 years

D. 58 years

 

Q. 56 When there is an official change in the exchange rate of domestic currency, then it is called:

A. Appreciation

B. Depreciation

C. Revalution

D. Deflation

 

Q. 57 Inflation redistributes income and wealth in favour of:

A. Pensioners

B. Poor

C. Middle class

D. rich

 

Q. 58 The fringe benefit tax was introduced in the budget of:

A. 2003-04

B. 2004-05

C. 2005-06

D. 2006-07

 

Q. 59 In the budget estimates for 2011-12, an allocation of: 400 crore has been made to bring in green revolution in the east in the cropping system of:

A. Wheat

B. Rice

C. Jowar

D. Pulses

 

Q. 60 As announced by finance minister in his budget speech on 28-2-2011, the income tax exemption limit for individuals other than senior citizens and women has been raised to

A. Rs. 1,80,000

B. Rs. 1,90,000

C. Rs. 2,00,000

D. Rs. 2,50,000

 

Q. 61 Who among the following british persons, admitted the revolt of 1857 as a national revolt?

A. Lord Dalhousie

B. Lord Canning

C. Lord Ellenborough

D. Lord Disraeli

 

Q. 62 The greek ambassador sent to chandragupta maurya’s court was:

A. Kautilya

B. Seleucus Nicator

C. Megasthenes

D. Justin

 

Q. 63 Identify the European power from whom shivaji obtained cannons and ammunitions

A. The french

B. The Portuguese

C. The dutch

D. The English

 

Q. 64 The call of “Back to vedas” was given by

A. Swami vivekananda

B. swami dayanand saraswati

C. aurobindo ghosh

D. raja ram mohan roy

 

Q. 65 Simon commission was boycotted by the, nationalist leaders of india because

A. they felt it was only an eyewash

B. all the members of the commission were english

C. the members of the commissions were biased against india

D. it did not meet the demands of indians

 

Q. 66 The lowest layer of atmosphere is

A. Stratosphere

B. thermosphere

C. Troposphere

D. Mesosphere

 

Q. 67 The konkan railway connects

A. Goa – mangalore

B. Roha – mangalore

C. Kanyakumari – mangalore

D. Kanyakumari – Mumbai

 

Q. 68 Bark of this tree is used as a condiment

A. Cinnamon

B. Clove

C. Neem

D. Palm

 

Q. 69 How much of the earth’s land surface is desert?

A. 1/10th

B. 1/5th

C. 1/3rd

D. 1/6th

 

Q. 70 Which of the following is called the ‘shrimp capital of India’?

A. Mangalore

B. Nagapatnam

C. Kochi

D. Nellore

 

Q. 71 River indus originates from

A. Hindukush range

B. Himalayan range

C. Karakoram range

D. Kailash range

 

Q. 72 The atmospheric air is held to the earth by

A. gravity

B. winds

C. cloud

D. rotation of earth

 

Q. 73 The function of ball bearings in a ring is

A. to increase friction

B. to convert kinetic friction into rolling friction

C. to convert static friction into kinetic friction

D. just for convenience

 

Q. 74 ‘Shock – absorbers’ are usually made of steel as it

A. is not brittle

B. has lower elasticity

C. has higher elasticity

D. hasno ductile property

 

Q. 75 The first computer made available for commercial use was

A. MANIAC

B. ENIAC

C. UNIVAC

D. EDSAC

 

Q. 76 A communications network which is used by large organisations over regional, national or global area is called

A. LAN

B. WAN

C. MAN

D. VAN

 

Q. 77 Who was the architecture of north and south blocks of the central secretariat in Delhi?

A. Sir edward lutyens

B. Herbert Baker

C. Robert tor Russell

D. Antonin Raymond

 

Q. 78 Saliva helps in the digestion of

A. Fats

B. Starch

C. Proteins

D. Vitamins

 

Q. 79 The longest bone in the human body is

A. Ulna

B. Humerus

C. Femur

D. Tibia

 

Q. 80 Red data book gives information about species which are

A. extinct

B. endangered

C. dangerous

D. rare

 

Q. 81 Which of the following is the smallest bird?

A. pigeon

B. parrot

C. Humming bird

D. Houise sparrow

 

Q. 82 The time period of a pendulum when taken to the moon would

A. remain the same

B. decrease

C. become zero

D. increase

 

Q. 83 Indian army’s operation ‘Saiyam’ was related to

A. Kashmir

B. Indo-China border in central region

C. North-East

D. Indo-pak border in punjab and rajasthan

 

Q. 84 Which of the following can be used as fuel in propellant or rockets?

A. Liquid Hydrogen + Liquid Nitrogen

B. Liquid oxygen + Liquid argon

C. Liquid nitrogen + Liquid oxygen

D. Liquid hydrogen + Liquid oxygen

 

Q. 85 The addition of gypsum of portland cement helps in

A. increasing the strength of cement

B. rapid setting of cement

C. preventing rapid setting of cement

D. reduction in the cost of cement

 

Q. 86 White lung disease is prevalent among the workers of

A. paper industry

B. cement industry

C. Cotton industry

D. pesticide industry

 

Q. 87 Iodoform is used as an

A. antipyretic

B. analgestic

C. antiseptic

D. anaesthetic

 

Q. 88 An artificial ecosystem is represented by

A. pisciculture tank

B. agricultural land

C. zoo

D. aquarium

 

Q. 89 The constituents of automobile exhaust that can cause cancer are

A. Oxides of nitrogen

B. Carbon monoxide

C. Polycyclic hydrocarbon

D. lead

 

Q. 90 The optimum dissolved oxygen level required for survival of aquatic organisms is

A. 4 – 6

B. 2 – 4

C. 8 – 10

D. 12 – 16

 

Q. 91 The world’s only floating national park is situated in

A. Manipur

B. Kuala Lumpur

C. Bilaspur

D. Dispur

 

Q. 92 According to the latest ‘Education development Index’ based on a series of surveys conducted by the national university of education, planning and administration and released in feb 2011, the state with the highest development index is 

A. Tamil naidu

B. Kerala

C. Punjab

D. Gujarat

 

Q. 93 The ‘project snow leopard’ to conserve the endangered species, launched by the union ministry of environment and forests covers the states of

A. Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal pradesh only

B. Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal pradesh and uttarakhand only

C. Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal pradesh, uttarakhand and arunachal pradesh only

D. Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal pradesh, uttarakhand and arunachal pradesh and sikkim

 

Q. 94 In the railway budget for 2011-2012, an outlay of Rs.57,630 crore has been announced for adding new lines with length of

A. 1000 km

B. 1200 km

C. 1300 km

D. 1500 km

 

Q. 95 The strong earthquake-cum-tsunami which has moved japan’s main island by a few feet and has caused the earth’s axis to wobble is expected to lead to the shortening of the day by

A. 1.6 microseconds

B. 2.3 microseconds

C. 3.1 microseconds

D. 3.4 microseconds

 

Q. 96 Which of the following folk/tribal dances is associated with uttar pradesh

A. veedhi

B. thora

C. tamasha

D. rauf

 

Q. 97 Which of the following books has been written by atiq rahimi

A. earth and ashes

B. This savage rite

C. The red devil

D. Witness the night

 

Q. 98 Who is the recipient of the sahitya akademi award 2010 in hindi literatur category?

A. uday prakash

B. laxman dubey

C. nanjil nandan

D. mangat badal

 

Q. 99 The 2010 FIFA World cup final was held at

A. Paris

B. Berlin

C. Johannesburg

D. London

 

Q. 100 Who received sangeet natak akademi’s ustad bismillah khan yuva puruskar for 2009 in ‘hindustani vocal music’?

A. Omkar shrikant dadarkar

B. ragini chander shekar

C. abanti chakravorty and sukracharya rabha

D. k. nellai Manikandan

 

Q. 101 The value of given equation is

A. 4

B. 0

C. √2

D. 3√6

 

Q. 102 What is the answer of the given equation

A. 2.3

B. 3

C. 6

D. 6.3

 

Q. 103 What is the square root of the given equation

A. √3 + √2

B. √3 – √2

C. √2 +_ √3

D. √2 – √3

 

Q. 104 The remainder when 3²¹ is divided is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 105 What is the value of the given equation?

A. 38/109

B. 109/38

C. 1

D. 116/109

 

Q. 106 The last digit of (1001)²⁰⁰⁸ + 1002 is

A. 0

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

 

Q. 107 The given equation is equal to?

A. 5/9

B. 1-1/7

C. 4/7

D. 1-2/7

 

Q. 108 If the sum of two numbers be multiplied by each number separately, the product so obtained are 247 and 114. The sum of the numbers is

A. 19

B. 20

C. 21

D. 23

 

Q. 109 Find a number, one-seventh of which exceeds its eleventh part by 100

A. 1925

B. 1825

C. 1540

D. 1340

 

Q. 110 If x*y = (x+3)²(y-1) then the value of 5 * 4 is

A. 192

B. 182

C. 180

D. 172

 

Q. 111 Answer of the given equation is

A. 10

B. 100

C. 1000

D. none of these

 

Q. 112 If 9√x = √12 + √147 then x = ?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

 

Q. 113 A and B can complete a piece of work in 8 days, B and C can do it in 12 days, C and A can do it in 8 days.A,B and C together can complete it in

A. 4 days

B. 5 days

C. 6 days

D. 7 days

 

Q. 114 X is 3 times as fast as Y and is able to complete the work in 40 days less then Y. Then the time in which they can complete the work together is

A. 15 days

B. 10 days

C. 7.5 days

D. 5 days

 

Q. 115 A copper wire is bent in the shape of a square of area 81 cm². If the same wire is bent in the form of a semicircle, the radius of the semicircle is (take pie = 22/7)

A. 16

B. 14

C. 10

D. 7

 

Q. 116 The volume (in m³) of rain water that can be collected from 1.5 hectares of ground in a rainfall of 5 cm is

A. 75

B. 750

C. 7500

D. 75000

 

Q. 117 A river 3 m deep and 40 m wide is flowing at the rate of 2 km per hour. How much water (in liters) will fall in the sea in a minute?

A. 4,00,000

B. 40,00,000

C. 40,000

D. 4,000

 

Q. 118 The L.C.M of three different number is 120. Which of the following cannot be their H.C.F?

A. 8

B. 12

C. 24

D. 35

 

Q. 119 A number when divided by 49 leaves 32 as reminder. This number when divided by 7 will have the reminder as

A. 2

B. 3

C. 2

D. 5

 

Q. 120 In an examination a student scores 4 marks for every correct answers and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer. If he attempts all 75 questions and secures 125 marks, the number of questions he attempted correctly is

A. 35

B. 40

C. 42

D. 46

 

Q. 121 The traffic lights at three different road crossings changes after 24 seconds, 36 seconds and 54 seconds respectively. If they all change simultaneously at 10:15:00 am, then at what time will then change again

A. 10:16:54 am

B. 10:18:36 am

C. 10:17:02 am

D. 10:22:12 am

 

Q. 122 A can do a work in 12 days. When he had worked for 3 days, B joined him. If they can complete the work in 3 days, in how many days can B alone finish the work?

A. 6 days

B. 12 days

C. 4 days

D. 8 days

 

Q. 123 Among three numbers, the first is twice the second and thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 49.5, then the difference between the first and the third number is 

A. 54

B. 28

C. 39.5

D. 41.5

 

Q. 124 The mean of 50 numbers is 30. Later it was discovered that two entries were wrongly entered as 82 and 13 instead of 28 and 31. Find the correct mean.

A. 36.12

B. 30.66

C. 29.28

D. 38.21

 

Q. 125 A bicycle wheel makes 5000 revolutions in moving 11 km. Then the radius of the wheel (in am) is (take pie = 22/7)

A. 70

B. 35

C. 17.5

D. 140

 

Q. 126 The perimeter of a triangle is 40 cm and its area is 60 cm². If the largest side measures 17cm, then the length (in cm ) of the smallest side of the triangle is

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 15

 

Q. 127 A shopkeeper allows a discount of 10 % to his customers and still gains 20%. Find the market price of the article which costs?

A. Rs 600

B. Rs 540

C. Rs 660

D. 580

 

Q. 128 What single discount is equivalent to two successive discounts of 20 % and 15%?

A. 35%

B. 32%

C. 34%

D. 30%

 

Q. 129 In a business partnership among A,B,C and D the profit is hard as follows:

What is the total profit

A. Rs 21,12,500

B. Rs 1,37,500

C. Rs 90,000

D. Rs 2,70,000

 

Q. 130 A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in ratio 7:5. When 9 liters of mixture are drawn off the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7:9. Liters of liquid A contained by the can initially was

A. 10

B. 20

C. 21

D. 25

 

Q. 131 What number should be added to or subtracted from each term of the ratio 17 : 24 so that it becomes equal to 1 : 2?

A. 5 is subtracted

B. 10 is added

C. 7 is added

D. 10 is subtracted

 

Q. 132 The ratio of weekly income of A and B is 9 : 7 and the ratio of their expenditures is 4 : 3. If each saves Rs. 200 per week, then the sum of their weekly income is?

A. Rs 3600

B. Rs 4200

C. Rs 4800

D. Rs 5600

 

Q. 133 If 30% of A is added to 40% of B, the answer is 80 % of B. What percent of A is B?

A. 30%

B. 40%

C. 70%

D. 75%

 

Q. 134 A man can row 6 km/h in still water. If the speed of current is 2 km/h , it takes 3 hours more in upstream than in downstream for the same distance. The distance is

A. 30 km

B. 24 km

C. 20 km

D. 32 km

 

Q. 135 If the selling price of 10 articles is equal to the cost price of 11 articles, then the gain percentage is

A. 10

B. 11

C. 15

D. 25

 

Q. 136 While selling a watch, a shopkeeper gives discount of 5%. If he gives discount of 6%, he earns Rs.15 less as profit. What is the marked price of the watch?

A. Rs 1250

B. Rs 1400

C. Rs 1500

D. Rs 750

 

Q. 137 Krishna purchased a number of articles for Rs.10 for each and the same number for Rs.14 each. He mixed them together and sold them for Rs.13 each. Then his gain or loss percent is :

A. Loss 8 1/3 %

B. Gain 8 2/3%

C. Loss 8 2/3%

D. Gain 8 1/3%

 

Q. 138 A trader bought two horses for Rs.19500. He sold one at a loss of 20% and other at a profit of 15%. If the selling price of each horse is the same then the cost price of them respectively are

A. Rs.10000 and Rs.9500

B. Rs.11500 and Rs.8000

C. Rs.12000 and Rs.7500

D. Rs.10500 and Rs.9000

 

Q. 139 The cost price of an article is 40% of the selling price. What percent of the cost price is the selling price?

A. 140%

B. 200%

C. 220%

D. 250%

 

Q. 140 IF 90% of A = 30% of B and B = 2x% of A, then the value of x is

A. 450

B. 400

C. 300

D. 150

 

Q. 141 When the price of sugar decreases by 10%, a man could by 1 kg more for Rs.270. Then the original price of sugar per kg is

A. Rs. 25

B. Rs. 30

C. Rs. 27

D. Rs. 32

 

Q. 142 If the price of sugar is raised by 25%, find by how much percent a householder must reduce his consumption of sugar so as not to increase his expenditure?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 18

D. 25

 

Q. 143 The difference between the compound interest and simple interest on Rs. 10000 for two years is Rs. 25. The rate of interest per annum is

A. 5%

B. 7%

C. 10%

D. 12%

 

Q. 144 A student goes to school at the rate of 2-1/2 km/h and reaches 6 minutes late. If he travels at the speed of 3km/h, he is 10 minutes early. The distance between the school and his house is (in km)

A. 5

B. 4

C. 3

D. 1

 

Q. 145 A sum of money placed at compound interest doubles itself in 4 years. In how many years will it amount to 4 times itself?

A. 12 years

B. 13 years

C. 8 years

D. 16 years

 

Q. 146 The simple interest on a sum for 5 years is one-fourth of the sum. The rate of interest per annum is

A. 5%

B. 6%

C. 4%

D. 8%

 

Q. 147 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

The production of company D is how many times that of the production of company A?

A. 1.8

B. 1.5

C. 0.5

D. 0.4

 

Q. 148 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

The demand of company B is what percent of demand for company C?

A. 1.5

B. 2.5

C. 25

D. 30

 

Q. 149 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

What is the ratio of companies having more demand than production to those having

more production then demand?

A. 2:3

B. 4:1

C. 3:2

D. 1:4

 

Q. 150 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

What is the difference (in tonnes) between average demand and average production of the five companies taken together?

A. 320

B. 420

C. 2100

D. 1050

 

Q. 151 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. His son

B. is working

C. very hardly

D. no error

 

Q. 152 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. Do you know that it was I

B. who has done

C. this piece of beautiful work?

D. no error

 

Q. 153 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. The company has ordered

B. some

C. new equipments

D. no error

 

Q. 154 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. The future of food companies

B. seems quite secure

C. owed to ever growing demand

D. no error

 

Q. 155 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. The vaccine

B. When hit the indian market

C. is dogged by controversy

D. no error

 

Q. 156 If you had followed the rules, you _______ disqualified.

A. will not be

B. would not be

C. will not have been

D. would not have been

 

Q. 157 The housewife ____ the cakes burning, and ran to switch off the oven

A. Smell

B. Smells

C. Smelt

D. Smelling

 

Q. 158 _____ an old legend, King Shirharm lived in India.

A. In the event of

B. Due to

C. According to

D. In reference to

 

Q. 159 _____ you leave no, you will be late.

A. Until

B. Till

C. Unless

D. Although

 

Q. 160 The ____ were arrested for illegally hunting the bears.

A. Poachers

B. rangers

C. soldiers

D. villagers

 

Q. 161 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

GENIAL

A. cordial

B. Unselfish

C. Careful

D. Specific

 

Q. 162 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

ACCRUE

A. Accumluate

B. Accommodate

C. Grow

D. Suffice

 

Q. 163 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

LOQUACIOUS

A. Talkative

B. slow

C. Content

D. Unclear

 

Q. 164 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

VINDICTIVE

A. Imaginative

B. Accusative

C. Spiteful

D. Aggressive

 

Q. 165 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

INCLEMENT

A. Selfish

B. Active

C. Unfavorable

D. Inactive

 

Q. 166 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

SYNTHETIC

A. Natural

B. Plastic

C. Cosmetic

D. Apathetic

 

Q. 167 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

ACCORD

A. Disagreement

B. Welcome

C. Disrespect

D. Confromity

 

Q. 168 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

INFIRMITY

A. Employment

B. Indisposition

C. Strength

D. Weakness

 

Q. 169 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

FEASIBLE

A. Useful

B. Impractical

C. Uneven

D. Important

 

Q. 170 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

METICULOUS

A. Forgetful

B. Destructive

C. Careless

D. Flagrant

 

Q. 171 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

To be all at sea

A. a family voyage

B. lost and confused

C. in the middle of the ocean

D. a string of islands

 

Q. 172 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

TO take to one’s heels

A. to walk slowly

B. to run away

C. to march forward

D. to hop and jump

 

Q. 173 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

To bite the dust

A. cat voraciously

B. have nothing to eat

C. cat roots

D. none of the above

 

Q. 174 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

A bolt from the blue

A. a delayed event

B. an inexplicable event

C. an unexpected event

D. an unpleasant event

 

Q. 175 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

Cold comfort

A. absurdity

B. deception

C. slight satisfaction

D. foolish proposal

 

Q. 176 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

My friend lives in a nearby street WHOSE NAME i have forgotten

A. the name of which

B. which name

C. of which name

D. no improvement

 

Q. 177 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

HE BOTH WON A MEDAL AND A SCHOLARSHIP

A. He won a medal and a scholarship both

B. Both he won a medal and a scholarship

C. He won both a medal and a scholarship

D. No improvement

 

Q. 178 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

HE HAS FOR GOOD LEFT INDIA

A. He has left for good

B. He has left india for good

C. Good he has left india

D. No improvement

 

Q. 179 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

WE ARE CREDIBLY INFORMED THAT THE MURDERER HAS GIVEN HIMSELF UP.

A. We are informed that the murderer has credibly given himself up

B. We are informed that the murderer has given credibly himself up

C. We are informed that credibly the murderer has given up himself

D. No improvement

 

Q. 180 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

We generally select ONE OF THE MOST INTELLIGENT STUDENT OF THE SCHOOL for this award

A. one of the most intelligent student of school

B. one of the intelligent most student of school

C. one of the intelligent most students of the school

D. no improvement

 

Q. 181 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

Pertaining to cattle

A. Canine

B. Feline

C. Bovine

D. Verminous

 

Q. 182 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

To look at someone in an angry or threatening way

A. Glower

B. Gnaw

C. Gnash

D. Grind

 

Q. 183 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

A post with little work but high salary

A. Director

B. Trustee

C. Sinecure

D. Ombudsman

 

Q. 184 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

Something that causes death

A. Dangerous

B. Fatal

C. Brutal

D. Horrible

 

Q. 185 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

A person who writes decoratively

A. Calligrapher

B. Collier

C. Choreographer

D. Cartographer

 

Q. 186 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. malaign

B. arraign

C. asigne

D. degine

 

Q. 187 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. harrassment

B. embarrasment

C. fulfillment

D. denoument

 

Q. 188 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. agnostik

B. accomplice

C. advercity

D. acrimonous

 

Q. 189 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. dysentery

B. momentary

C. cementary

D. comentary

 

Q. 190 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. ebulient

B. jubilant

C. iminent

D. tolemt

 

Q. 191 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. problem

B. question

C. matter

D. query

 

Q. 192 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. around

B. out

C. about

D. on

 

Q. 193 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. since

B. during

C. around

D. from

 

Q. 194 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. ideas

B. opinions

C. stories

D. matters

 

Q. 195 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. solution

B. novel

C. book

D. answer

 

Q. 196 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. read

B. think

C. open

D. guess

 

Q. 197 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. now

B. time

C. then

D. ago

 

Q. 198 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. moon

B. time

C. earth

D. mars

 

Q. 199 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. part

B. division

C. opening

D. center

 

Q. 200 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. end

B. begin

C. think

D. work

 

 

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer B D C C C D B A B D
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer A A B C B B A A A C
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer C C A B D C C C D A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer C B D C D B C C A C
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C D D D D C A C C C
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer C C C C B C D C B A
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer D C B B B C B A B D
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer D A B C C B B B C B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C D D D B D C D D A
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer A B D C C B A A C A
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer B B A C A B B A A A
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer B B C A D B D D A
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer B A A C B C A B C C
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer D C D B A C D B D D
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer B B A B C A A C C B
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer C B D C C D C C C A
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer A A A C C A A C B C
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer B B D C C D C B A A
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer C A C B A B C B A B
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer C C D B D B D C A C

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