SSC GD 21st Feb 2019 Shift-I
Reasoning
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 1 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements.
Statements:
1) Some stores are rooms.
2) Some rooms are posters.
Conclusion:
I. Some rooms are stores.
II. Some posters are rooms.
(A) Only conclusion I follows.
(B) Both conclusions follow.
(C) Only conclusion II follows.
(D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The venn diagram for above statements is :
Conclusion:
I. Some rooms are stores = true
II. Some posters are rooms = true
Thus, both conclusion follows.
=> Ans – (B)
Q. 2 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.
Initial : Final :: Mourn : ?
(A) Recall
(B) Recap
(C) Murmur
(D) Rejoice
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The given pairs are antonyms, final is opposite of initial, similarly opposite of mourn is rejoice.
=> Ans – (D)
Q. 3 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series.
0, 8, 24, 48, ?
(A) 81
(B) 87
(C) 89
(D) 80
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Multiples of 8 are added.
0 + 8 = 8
8 + 16 = 24
24 + 24 = 48
48 + 32 = 80
=> Ans – (D)
Q. 4 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.
12 : 180 :: 14 : ?
(A) 144
(B) 221
(C) 169
(D) 238
Answer: (D)
Q. 5 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word if the mirror is placed at the right side.
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
If the mirror is placed at right side, the object at the right will appear at left and vice-versa. Hence the first letter H will appear at right side, and since its symmetrical, its shape won’t be changed. Thus, second option is eliminated.
Also, in the last two options, the shape of G is changed as such the mirror is placed below it, hence the correct image is shown in first option.
=> Ans – (A)
Q. 6 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements.
Statements:
1) All customers are clients.
2) All clients are medicines.
Conclusion:
I. Some medicines are customers.
II. Some medicines are clients.
(A) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
(B) Both conclusions follow.
(C) Only conclusion II follows.
(D) Only conclusion I follows.
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The venn diagram for above statements is :
Conclusion:
I. Some medicines are customers = true
II. Some medicines are clients = true
Thus, both conclusion follow.
=> Ans – (B)
Q. 7 In certain code, VIROLOGY is written as LOGYVIRO. How will SEMANTIC be written in that code?
(A) NTICSEMA
(B) CITNAMES
(C) NTJCSEMA
(D) NTICSFMA
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
VIROLOGY is written as LOGYVIRO
The pattern followed is that the word is divided into two halves, and in the final output, the two halves are interchanged. ≡
Eg :- VIROLOGY VIRO and LOGY
Output : LOGY + VIRO = LOGYVIRO
Similarly, SEMANTIC : NTICSEMA
=> Ans – (A)
Q. 8 There is only one runway which will be used by seven flights one by one. P and Q will use the runway neither first nor last. S will use it second after R. M will use it second before O. N will use it after O and before R. Q will use it just before S. Who will use the runway in the middle?
(A) O
(B) N
(C) P
(D) Q
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
P and Q will not use the runway either first or last.
S will use it second after R and Q will use it just before S, => Order is RQS
N will use it after O and before R and M will use it second before O, S will be at end. Final arrangement :
∴ N will use the runway in the middle.
=> Ans – (B)
Q. 9 Choose the odd one out of the given options.
(A) Silicon
(B) Magnesium
(C) Tungsten
(D) Aurum
Answer: (A)
Q. 10 Choose the odd one out of the given options.
(A) AGD
(B) IHL
(C) EKM
(D) QSC
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Except for QSC, all the other letters start with a vowel, hence it is the odd one.
=> Ans – (D)
Q. 11 Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, H and G are sitting around a circular table facing each other for a group discussion. A is opposite F and second to the right of E. G is between C and A.H is to the left of E. Who is sitting to the immediate left of A?
(A) Either G or D
(B) B
(C) C
(D) Either B or D
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
A is opposite F and second to the right of E, => E is sitting second to the left of A.
G is between C and A, => G is to the immediate right of A, and C is opposite of E.
Also, H is to the left of E. Thus, final arrangement :
∴ Either (B) or (D) is sitting to the immediate left of A.
=> Ans – (D)
Q. 12 Seven friends O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are watching a cricket match sitting in a stadium.P is sitting at one extreme end. T is sitting between Q and U,and is sitting to the immediate right of S and immediate left of Q. is sitting second to the left of P. Who is sitting between U and P?
(A) R
(B) O
(C) S
(D) Q
Answer: (B)
Q. 13 Choose the option that would follow next in the given figure series.
Answer: (D)
Q. 14 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term.
AC : CI :: GH : ?
(A) UY
(B) UX
(C) UU
(D) UV
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Expression = AC : CI :: GH : ?
According to the numerical representation of the alphabets, we get A=1, B=2, C=3 and so on. Now, thrice of each letter of first term is equal to the subsequent letters of the second term.
Eg :- A ≡ 1(×3) = 3 ≡ C
C ≡ 3(×3) = 9 ≡ I
and
G ≡ 7(×3) = 21 ≡ U H ≡ 8(×3) = 24 ≡ X
Similarly, and
Thus, GH : UX
=> Ans – (B)
Q. 15 In a certain code, OPTIMIST is written as 121. How will PESSIMIST be written in that code?
(A) 129
(B) 105
(C) 131
(D) 127
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
If we add the numbers represented by the English alphabets, i.e. A=1, B=2, C=3, ….., Y=25, Z=26 ≡ 15 + 16 + 20 + 9 + 13 + 9 + 19 + 20 = 121
OPTIMIST
≡ 16 + 5 + 19 + 19 + 9 + 13 + 9 + 19 + 20 = 129
=> PESSIMIST
=> Ans – (A)
Q. 16 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series.
PRL, QPM, RNN, SLO, ?
(A) TIO
(B) TKP
(C) TJP
(D) TIP
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Series : PRL, QPM, RNN, SLO, ?
The pattern followed in each letter of the terms is :
1st letter : P (+1 letter) = Q (+1 letter) = R (+1 letter) = S (+1 letter) = T
2nd letter : R (-2 letters) = P (-2 letters) = N (-2 letters) = L (-2 letters) = J
3rd letter : L (+1 letter) = M (+1 letter) = N (+1 letter) = O (+1 letter) = P
Thus, missing term : TJP
=> Ans – (C)
Q. 17 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes.
Animals, Mammals, Deer
Answer: (D)
Q. 18 Choose the odd number out of the given options.
(A) 151
(B) 163
(C) 157
(D) 161
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Among the given numbers, except 161, all are prime numbers.
161 = 7 × 23
=> Ans – (D)
Q. 19 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed).
Answer: (C)
Q. 20 Find out the two signs to be interchanged to make the following equation correct.
18 + 3 × 27 − 9 ÷ 3 = 78
(A) + and ×
(B) + and ÷
(C) − and ÷
(D) + and −
Answer: (A)
Q. 21 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series.
12, 22, 42, 82, ?
(A) 172
(B) 182
(C) 152
(D) 162
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The pattern followed is :
12 + 10 = 22
22 + 20 = 42
42 + 40 = 82
82 + 80 = 162
=> Ans – (D)
Q. 22 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the given pattern.
(A) 6
(B) 24
(C) 36
(D) 8
Answer: (A)
Q. 23 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line?
Answer: (A)
Q. 24 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.
Blend : Mix :: Request : ?
(A) Deny
(B) Noting
(C) Solicit
(D) Accept
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The first two words are synonyms of each other, similarly request and solicit have similar meanings.
=> Ans – (C)
Q. 25 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed).
Answer: (D)
General knowledge
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 26 Which of the following statements about the Indus Valley Civilization is NOT true?
(A) It was an urban civilisation where people lived in well planned towns
(B) Animal meat was the staple food
(C) It flourished around 2500 BCin the present day Pakistan and Western India
(D) The houses were made of baked bricks
Answer: (B)
Q. 27 Dry Ice is the solid form of:
(A) methane
(B) carbon dioxide
(C) oxygen
(D) ozone
Answer: (B)
Q. 28 Timur invaded India during the reign of:
(A) Akbar
(B) Alauddin Khilji
(C) Feroz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughluq
Answer: (D)
Q. 29 Who wrote the book ‘War and Peace’?
(A) Viadimir Lenin
(B) Leo Tolstoy
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Anton Chekhov
Answer: (B)
Q. 30 India has won 8 Olympic gold medals for field hockey. When was the last time India won a gold medal for hockey in Olympics?
(A) 1976
(B) 1984
(C) 1988
(D) 1980
Answer: (D)
Q. 31 Which of the following statements is NOT true about angiosperms?
(A) They have stems, leaves and roots
(B) Conifers, Cycads and Ginkgo are examples of angiosperms
(C) They have to undergo pollination before they can reproduce
(D) The flowers carry the reproductive organs
Answer: (B)
Q. 32 The economic survey is usually presented ……… before the Union Budget.
(A) 1 day
(B) 15 days
(C) 7 days
(D) 2 days
Answer: (A)
Q. 33 Gita Gopinath became the first woman to occupy the position of Chief Economist of:
(A) World Trade Organisation
(B) UNESCO
(C) World Bank
(D) International Monetary Fund
Answer: (D)
Q. 34 The holy place of the Jains, Shravanabelagola is situated in which district of Karnataka?
(A) ShimogaDistrict
(B) Bellary District
(C) Mysore District
(D) Hassan District
Answer: (D)
Q. 35 The Government of India releases MSP of agricultural produce from time to time. What is the full form of MSP?
(A) Minimum Selling Price
(B) Minimum Support Price
(C) Maximum Selling Price
(D) Maximum Support Price
Answer: (B)
Q. 36 Golconda Fort was built in the 13th century by the …………. Dynasty.
(A) Kakatiya
(B) Chola
(C) Periyar
(D) Chalukya
Answer: (A)
Q. 37 In the context of climate. what is the full form of ITCZ?
(A) Indian Trough Conversation Zone
(B) Inter Tropical Convergence Zone
(C) Intra Temperate Control Zone
(D) Islandic Tropical Climate Zone
Answer: (B)
Q. 38 The Indian athlete Dutee Chand is associated to which of the following sporting events?
(A) Shotput
(B) Javelin
(C) Jumping
(D) Sprinting
Answer: (D)
Q. 39 A special property of acids and bases is their ability to ……… each other’s properties.
(A) Crystalize
(B) Neutralize
(C) Amortize
(D) Naturalize
Answer: (B)
Q. 40 According to the report published by the World Health Organization (WHO)in 2017, approximately how many people in the world do NOT have access to safe drinking water at home?
(A) 4.2 billion
(B) 900 million
(C) 500 million
(D) 2.1 billion
Answer: (D)
Q. 41 ‘Kuchipudi’ derives its roots from:
(A) Kerala
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Puducherry
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (B)
Q. 42 Swachh Bharat Abhiyan was launched by the government of India on the birth anniversary of:
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Vallabhbhai Patel
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Answer: (A)
Q. 43 The Constitution of India came into force on 26 January 1950. Which act or governing document did it replace?
(A) Government of India Act, 1858
(B) Government of India Act, 1935
(C) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(D) Regulating Act, 1773
Answer: (B)
Q. 44 The parliament has powers to amend the provisions of the Constitution of India. Which article of the constitution confers this power on the parliament?
(A) Article 1
(B) Article 256
(C) Article 55
(D) Article 368
Answer: (D)
Q. 45 The first major nation wide Satyagraha launched by Mahatma Gandhi was against:
(A) Rowlatt Act
(B) Partition of Bengal
(C) Tax on Khadi products
(D) Salt tax
Answer: (A)
Q. 46 Which of the following is NOT true about the ‘Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005’?
(A) Injury can be physical, emotional or economic.
(B) It also applies to violence at workplace.
(C) It applies in case of injury or harm or threat of injury or harm by the adult male member of the house hold.
(D) The term ‘Domestic’ includes all women who liveor have lived in a shared household with the accused male member.
Answer: (B)
Q. 47 The host country for 2022 FIFA World Cup is:
(A) Japan
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Qatar
Answer: (D)
Q. 48 ‘Slash and burn’ type of farming is also known as:
(A) shifting farming
(B) intensive subsistence farming
(C) extensive farming
(D) commercial farming
Answer: (A)
Q. 49 What is the monthly salary of the President of India as per 2018 Budget?
(A) 4 lakhs
(B) 2 lakhs
(C) 5 lakhs
(D) 3 lakhs
Answer: (C)
Q. 50 Which of the following is NOT a method of soil conservation?
(A) Intercropping
(B) Mulching
(C) Contour Ploughing
(D) Weathering
Answer: (D)
Quant
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 51 A sector is cut from a circle of diameter 42 cm. If the angle of the sector is 150∘ then what is its area in cm2. (Take π = 22/7)
(A) 584.8
(B) 577.5
(C) 564.6
(D) 580.4
Answer: (B)
Q. 52 The present ages of A and are in the ratio 15 : 8. After 8 years their ages will be in the ratio 17 : 10. What will be the ratio of ages of A and B after 10 years from now?
(A) 10 : 7
(B) 8 : 5
(C) 5 : 3
(D) 7 : 4
Answer: (C)
Q. 53 A circus tent is cylindrical to a height of 3 meters and conical above it. If the radius of the base is 52.5 m and the slant height of the cone is 52 m,then the total area of the canvas required to make it is:
(A) 3048π
(B) 3045π
(C) 2730π
(D) 2842π
Answer: (B)
Q. 54 The compound interest on a sum of ₹ 24500 at 10% p.a for 2⅖ years interest compounded yearly is:
(A) ₹ 6338.40
(B) ₹ 6342
(C) ₹ 6330.80
(D) ₹ 6340
Answer: (C)
Instructions
Study the following table, which shows the number of units of a product manufactured and sold by a company in five years, and answer questions.
Q. 55 What percent of total units of the product manufactured in 2013 and 2015 is the total units unsold during the five years? (correct to one decimal place)
(A) 30.8
(B) 30.3
(C) 29.6
(D) 29.4
Answer: (B)
Q. 56 The ratio of the total number of units sold in 2014 and 2015 to the number of units manufactured in 2017 is:
(A) 17:12
(B) 19:14
(C) 9:8
(D) 14:17
Answer: (A)
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 57 The value of
1.6 ÷ 1.6 of 1.6 + 0.6 of 1.4 ÷ 0.5 − 0.001 × 1.5 ÷ 0.075
lies between:
(A) 3.4 and 3.6
(B) 3.6 and 3.8
(C) 3.2 and 3.4
(D) 3 and 3.2
Answer: (C)
Q. 58 The average of 10 numbers is 41. The average of first 3 numbers is 39.4 and the average of last 4 numbers is 43.5. 4th number is 2 more than the 5th number and 0.2 more than the 6th number. What is the average of the 4th and 6th numbers .
(A) 38.7
(B) 38.9
(C) 39.6
(D) 39.9
Answer: (D)
Q. 59 The average age of 24 students in a class is 15.5 years. The age of their teacher is 28 years more than the average of all twenty five. What is the age of the teacher in years?
(A) 40⅓
(B) 41⅔
(C) 44⅔
(D) 42⅓
Answer: (C)
Q. 60 If 12, x, 8 and 14 are in proportion, then what is the mean proportional between (x – 12) and (x + 4) ?
(A) 12
(B) 11
(C) 16
(D) 15
Answer: (D)
Q. 61 A 280 m long train is running at 108 km/hr. In how much time will it cross a bridge of length 170 m ?
(A) 10 sec
(B) 15 sec
(C) 16 sec
(D) 12 sec
Answer: (B)
Q. 62 A shopkeepers made a profit of 16% on his goods .If the price at which he buys decreases by 20% while he reduces his selling price by 23%, what is now his percentage of profit ? (correct to one decimal place)
(A) 11.6
(B) 15.4
(C) 12.9
(D) 14.6
Answer: (A)
Q. 63 The largest sphere is carved out of a cube of side 7 cm. What is the volume of the sphere in cm3 (Take π = 22/7 )
(A) 179⅔
(B) 182⅓
(C) 179⅓
(D) 182⅔
Answer: (A)
Q. 64 Two vessels A and B contain solution of acid and water. In A and B the ratio of acid and water are 7 : 3 and 4 : 1, respectively. They are mixed in the ratio 1 : 2. What is the ratio of acid and water in the resulting solution?
(A) 15 : 8
(B) 16 : 7
(C) 23 : 7
(D) 25 : 9
Answer: (C)
Q. 65 Let x be the least multiple of 29 which when divided by 20, 21, 22, 24 and 28 then the remainders are 13, 14, 15, 17 and 21 respectively. What is the sum of digits of x?
(A) 18
(B) 22
(C) 19
(D) 23
Answer: (D)
Q. 66 At what percentage above the cost price must an article be marked so as to gain 38% after allowing a customer a discount of 8% on the marked price?
(A) 48
(B) 46
(C) 50
(D) 45
Answer: (C)
Q. 67 The numbers 6, 8, 11, 12, 2x – 8, 2x + 10, 35, 41, 42, 50 are written in ascending order. If their median is 25, then what is the mean of the numbers?
(A) 24.8
(B) 24.6
(C) 25.5
(D) 25.2
Answer: (C)
Q. 68 A takes 6 hours more than B to cover a distance of 60 km. But if A doubles his speed, he takes 3 hours less than B to cover the same distance. The speed (in km/hr) of A is:
(A) 3⅓
(B) 4⅔
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: (A)
Q. 69 A sum of ₹ 1518 is divided among A, B, and C, such that A receives 20% more than B and B receives 20% less than C. What is the share of C in the sum?
(A) ₹ 528
(B) ₹ 440
(C) ₹ 550
(D) ₹ 572
Answer: (C)
Q. 70 Study the following table, which shows the number of units of a product manufactured and sold by a company in five years, and answer questions.
In which year the number of units of the product sold is 19000 more than the average number of units manufactured per year?
(A) 2016
(B) 2015
(C) 2017
(D) 2014
Answer: (C)
Q. 71 The simple interest on a certain sum is 1119% of the sum and the number of years is equal to the rate percent per annum. What will be the simple interest on a sum of ₹ 12600 at the same rate for 2⅘ years?
(A) ₹1216
(B) ₹1224
(C) ₹1176
(D) ₹1164
Answer: (C)
Q. 72 A can complete ⅔ of a work in 8 days. B can complete ⅗ of the same work in 12 days and C can complete 4/9 of the same work in 8 days. A and B worked together for 5 days. How much time(in days) will C alone take to complete the remaining work?
(A) 6
(B) 7½
(C) 8½
(D) 9
Answer: (A)
Q. 73 The ratios of efficiencies of A and B of doing a certain work is 5 : 8. Working together they can complete the work in 20 days, A alone will complete 25% of that work in:
(A) 14 days
(B) 12 days
(C) 11 days
(D) 13 days
Answer: (D)
Q. 74 If 20% more would be gained by selling an article for ₹ 93 than selling it for ₹ 85, then the cost price of the article is:
(A) ₹64
(B) ₹40
(C) ₹56
(D) ₹60
Answer: (B)
Q. 75 The value of
35/6 ፥7/2 ✖21/10 +3/5 of 15/2 ፥2/3 – 2/3 ፥8/15 ✖6/5
(A) 8¾
(B) 2⅗
(C) 8⅗
(D) 1¾
Answer: (A)
English
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 76 Select the antonym of the given word.
GRANT
(A) Refuse
(B) Approve
(C) Reject
(D) Sanction
Answer: (A)
Q. 77 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.
(A) team of doctors is focusing over treatment of cancer at an early age.
(A) is focusing on to treatment of cancer
(B) is focusing on treatment of cancer
(C) No improvement
(D) is focusing in treatment of cancer
Answer: (B)
Q. 78 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. As a painter he are good if not better than Suresh.
(A) he are good
(B) than Suresh
(C) if not better
(D) As a painter
Answer: (A)
Q. 79 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.
He have been working on and off for two years to complete a book.
(A) has work
(B) have worked
(C) No improvement
(D) has been working
Answer: (D)
Q. 80 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
One who makes an eloquent public speech
(A) Leader
(B) Debater
(C) Speaker
(D) Orator
Answer: (D)
Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.
Would you mind help me with these questions?
(A) Would you mind helping
(B) Would you mind for helping
(C) No improvement
(D) Would you mind to help
Answer: (A)
Q. 82 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
The absence of government in a country
(A) Bureaucracy
(B) Anarchy
(C) Autocracy
(D) Democracy
Answer: (B)
Q. 83 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom.
In black and white
(A) In writing
(B) In colour
(C) Scanned
(D) Photocopied
Answer: (A)
Instructions
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help ofthe alternatives given.
Passage:
In 1893, Lokmanya Tilak converted the Ganapati festival …………(1) a national celebration. He campaigned for ………….(2) wide celebration of this public festival throughout Maharashtra. It was …………(3) this festival that he …………..(4) mobilise public support for the nationalist …………(5)
Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1.
(A) with
(B) into
(C) for
(D) to
Answer: (B)
Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2.
(A) a
(B) some
(C) the
(D) one
Answer: (C)
Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3.
(A) with
(B) through
(C) without
(D) throughout
Answer: (B)
Q. 87 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4.
(A) may
(B) can
(C) will
(D) could
Answer: (D)
Q. 88 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5.
(A) movement
(B) term
(C) season
(D) festival
Answer: (A)
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 89 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
‘Discovery of India’ ……… by Jawaharlal Nehru.
(A) have been written
(B) has written
(C) has been written
(D) have written
Answer: (C)
Q. 90 Select the correctly spelt word.
(A) Aquaintance
(B) Acquantance
(C) Acquaintance
(D) Acquaintence
Answer: (C)
Q. 91 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. When I asked for directions, he gave me many wrong informations.
(A) When I asked
(B) for directions
(C) wrong informations
(D) gave me many
Answer: (C)
Q. 92 Select the synonym of the given word.
ZENITH
(A) Peak
(B) Border
(C) Brink
(D) Edge
Answer: (A)
Q. 93 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom.
Hit the nail on the head
(A) Accurately right
(B) Hit the nail exactly
(C) Use hammer and nail
(D) Use some tools
Answer: (A)
Q. 94 Select the synonym of the given word.
RESISTANCE
(A) Approval
(B) Recognition
(C) Refusal
(D) Enthusiasm
Answer: (C)
Q. 95 Select the antonym of the given word.
HUMILITY
(A) Cruelty
(B) Shyness
(C) Obedience
(D) Modesty
Answer: (D)
Q. 96 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
One should be careful to check the grease and oil in ……….. car occasionally for it’s smooth functioning
(A) ones
(B) their
(C) our
(D) one’s
Answer: (D)
Q. 97 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Is the older person always more wiser than the younger one?
(A) Is the
(B) more wiser
(C) older person always
(D) than the younger one?
Answer: (B)
Q. 98 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
Many tourists to India visit the beautiful valley of Kashmir ………. in spring and summer.
(A) generally
(B) rarely
(C) especially
(D) frequently
Answer: (C)
Q. 99 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
Our society is ………. by the evil of corruption; the integrity of even senior officials is disputed.
(A) indicated
(B) endangered
(C) specified
(D) identified
Answer: (B)
Q. 100 Select the correctly spelt word.
(A) Millennium
(B) Milennium
(C) Millenniam
(D) Millenium
Answer: (A)
