SSC GD 6th March 2019 Shift-III
Reasoning
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 1 The statements below are followed by conclusions labeled I, II and III. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements.
Statements:
Some women are weaks.
Some weaks are female.
All female are iron.
All iron are gold.
Conclusions:
I. Some weaks are iron.
II. Some gold are weaks.
III. Some women are female.
(A) All I, II and III follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) Only I and II follow
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Conclusions:
I. Some weaks are iron- True
II. Some gold are weaks- True.
III. Some women are female- False
Only Conclusion I and II follows.
Q. 2 Four options have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one.
(A) 125
(B) 75
(C) 729
(D) 1331
Answer: (B)
Q. 3 Find the missing number from the below options.
(A) 80
(B) 70
(C) 140
(D) 77
Answer: (A)
Q. 4 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
21, 43, 85, 171, 341, …….
(A) 683
(B) 675
(C) 684
(D) 680
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Logic of Q. is..
21-43 = 22 (previous number 21+1 =22)
43-85 = 42 (previous number 43-1=42)
85-171 = 86 (previous number 85+1 =86)
171-341 = 170 (previous number 171-1=170)
Hence, 341+1=342
342 + 341 = 683
Q. 5 Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one.
(A) Robbery
(B) Snobbery
(C) Larceny
(D) Burglary
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Robbery, Larceny, Burglary are same form of group related to thief.
But Snobbery does not form to group meaning of Snobbery=”someone who doesn’t have a degree from a fancy university,”. Hence Snobbery is odd one out.
Q. 6 Which of the following answer figure will complete the given figure?
Answer: (D)
Q. 7 Four letter clusters have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one.
(A) YZBE
(B) DEGI
(C) JKNQ
(D) QRTW
Answer: (C)
Q. 8 Select the related word pair from the given alternatives.
Afghanistan : Kabul :: ……. : ………
(A) Iran : Dublin
(B) Nepal : Monaco
(C) Pakistan : Islam Nagar
(D) China : Beijing
Answer: (D)
Q. 9 Find the missing analogous numbers pair :
1000 : 121 :: ?
(A) 64 : 8
(B) 125 : 36
(C) 27 : 64
(D) 343 : 81
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
First Number is perfect cube, Second number is square of the next number of the first number. 1000 : 121 :: 125 : 36
10 :3 11 :2: 5 :3 62
Q. 10 Choose the option figure in which the problem figure is hidden/embedded.
Answer: (B)
Q. 11 Select the related word pair from the given alternatives.
Month : Year :: ………. : ……….
(A) Litre : Liquid
(B) Speed : Vehicle
(C) Time : Distance
(D) Minute : Hour
Answer: (D)
Q. 12 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements.
Statements:
Some teaspoons are glasses.
All teddies are teaspoons.
Conclusions:
I. Some teddies are glasses.
II. Some glasses are teddies.
(A) Either I or II follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Only conclusion I follows
(D) Neither I nor II follows
Answer: (D)
Q. 13 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.
GPLS : 54 :: WGSK : ………
(A) 70
(B) 60
(C) 65
(D) 53
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
GPLS : 54
Add all the alphabet series numbers together
G-7 , P-16 , L-12 , S-19
(7+16+12+19 = 54)
Similarly,
Lets add up WGSK alphabet series numbers.
To W-23 , G-7 , S-19 , K -11
(23+7+19+11=60)
Hence WGSK=60
Q. 14 In a certain code, NAP is coded as MZO,then how is SNEEZE coded in the same way as:
(A) RQDFYG
(B) RMDDYD
(C) RMDFYD
(D) RNDDYD
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
NAP is coded as MZO as Logic is N-1=m, A-1=z, P-1=o.
Lets bring ‘SNEEZE’ in some coded form of -1 in every alphabet
S-1 =r, N-1 =m, E-1 =d, E-1 =d, Z-1=y, E-1=d.
Hence, Sneeze will be coded as ‘RMDDYD’.
Q. 15 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, how will it appear when opened?
Answer: (D)
Q. 16 Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace ‘*’ signs and to balance the given equation:
54 * 6 * 5 * 14
(A) + ÷ =
(B) = ×+
(C) − = ×
(D) ÷ + =
Answer: (D)
Q. 17 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given figure when mirror is placed at left side
Answer: (B)
Q. 18 Ina class of 35 children, Ameya’s rank is sixth from the top. Annie is seven ranks below Ameya. What is Annie’s rank from the bottom?
(A) 22
(B) 20
(C) 23
(D) 19
Answer: (C)
Q. 19 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
3 5 7 9 11
2 2 2 2 2 ?
(A) 12/2
(B) 17/2
© 13/2
(D) 10/2
Answer: (C)
Q. 20 Six kids are sitting in two rows facing north. Their names are Fuji, Ukain, Yam and Krish, Charlie. Mac. Fuji and Mac are sitting diagonally opposite. Ukain is in the top row and to the immediate right of Fuji. Krish is second to the left of Mac while Yam and Krish are not in the same row.
Who is sitting diagonally opposite to Yam?
(A) Charlie
(B) Krish
(C) Ukain
(D) Mac
Answer: (B)
Q. 21 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the three given classes. Clothes, T-shirt, Trousers
Answer: (A)
Q. 22 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
FKP, GMQ, HOR, ?
(A) IQS
(B) IRT
(C) JNK
(D) JYI
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
FKP, GMQ, HOR, ?
First letter of each alphabet logic is as follows F+1 = G+1 = H+1 = I
Second letter of each alphabet Logic is as follows K+2 = M+2 = O+2 = Q
Third letter of each alphabet logic is as follows P+1 = Q+1 = R+1 = S
Hence Consolidating all together the last digit IQS
Q. 23 If NAMAN is written as 12321 and VINESH as 671489, how will NIMESH be written?
(A) 174583
(B) 173486
(C) 167893
(D) 173489
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Let do numbering to each alphabet.
N=1,A=2,M=3,V=6,I=7,E=4,S=8,H=9.
Hence Nimesh we will be numbered as 173489.
Q. 24 Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table. A and B are facing towards the center while the other six people are facing opposite the center. A is sitting second to the right of H.B sits third to the left of A. D sits second to the right of G. G is neither immediate neighbour of B nor A. E and F are immediate neighbours and are facing outside. What is the position of C with respect to D?
(A) Third to the right
(B) Fourth to the left
(C) Fourth to the right
(D) Third to the left
Answer: (D)
Q. 25 Choose the option which comes next in the given figure series.
Answer: (D)
General knowledge
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 26 Which hormone is secreted by the pituitary gland?
(A) Adrenaline
(B) Growth hormone
(C) Insulin
(D) Thyroxin
Answer: (B)
Q. 27 Most classical dances of India combine three main facets namely, “Bhava”, “Raga” and “ …..
(A) Svasara
(B) Tala
(C) Sopana
(D) Mala
Answer: (B)
Q. 28 National Youth Day is celebrated on the birthday of:
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Swami Abhedananda
(C) Swami Ashokananda
(D) Swami Rajesgwaranand Maharaj
Answer: (A)
Q. 29 Which of the following reasons for why construction of huge dams is opposed?
(A) They are not cost effective
(B) No support in producing hydroelectricity
(C) Lack of manual labour
(D) Large scale displacement of peasants and tribals
Answer: (D)
Q. 30 Who has been Honoured with Ashoka Chakra at the 69th Republic Day 2018?
(A) Hangpan Dada
(B) Mukund Varadarajan
(C) Mohan Goswami
(D) Jyoti Prakash Nirala
Answer: (D)
Q. 31 How many members were there in the Constituent Assembly that wrote the Indian Constitution?
(A) 199
(B) 299
(C) 298
(D) 198
Answer: (B)
Q. 32 Which of the following policy falls under right to work?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(B) Ayushman Bharat
(C) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwal Yojna
(D) Saubhagya Scheme
Answer: (A)
Q. 33 Which of the following sea ports declined after the emergence of East India Company?
(A) Calcutta
(B) Bombay
(C) Vishakapatnam
(D) Surat
Answer: (D)
Q. 34 Which type of farming is practiced in areas of high population pressure on land?
(A) Extensive subsistence farming
(B) Commercial farming
CPrimitive subsistence farming
(D) Intensive subsistence farming
Answer: (D)
Q. 35 The festival associated with the worship of the sun, rivers and ponds is:
(A) Makar Sankranti
(B) Chhath
(C) Diwali
(D) Teej
Answer: (B)
Q. 36 The major economic attribute for comparing countries is their:
(A) income
(B) human development index
(C) population
(D) mortality rate
Answer: (A)
Q. 37 On which river is the Bhakra Nangal Dam situated?
(A) Sutlej
(B) Ravi
(C) Jhelum
(D) Chenab
Answer: (A)
Q. 38 Detention of political prisoners without trial for two years wasa feature of:
(A) Rowlatt Act
(B) East India Stock Dividend Redemption Act
(C) British India Regulating Act
(D) Governmentof India Act
Answer: (A)
Q. 39 Mushrooms and other micro organisms feed on dead plant and animal tissues and convert them into ………..
(A) Sod
(B) Peat
(C) Clod
(D) Humus
Answer: (D)
Q. 40 Which of the following Indian artists has been awarded the Lifetime Achievement Grammy Award?
(A) Zakir Hussain
(B) A.R Rahman
(C) Ravi Shankar
(D) Lata Mangeshkar
Answer: (C)
Q. 41 Who setup the first iron and steel works in India in 1912 at Jamshedpur?
(A) R. J. Tata
(B) R. D. Tata
(C) D. J. Tata
(D) J. N. Tata
Answer: (D)
Q. 42 Which Indian state has made solar plants mandatory for housing societies, industries and other specified categories of buildings?
(A) Manipur
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Nagaland
(D) Haryana
Answer: (D)
Q. 43 In which year was the Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY) scheme launched?
(A) 1993
(B) 1995
(C) 1992
(D) 1994
Answer: (A)
Q. 44 Who is the fastest Asian to traverse the globe riding a bicycle?
(A) Vedangi Kulkarni
(B) Rameshwori Devi
(C) Mayuri Lute
(D) E Chaoba Devi
Answer: (A)
Q. 45 Which Indian cultural site is NOT included in the World Heritage List?
(A) Humayun’s Tomb
(B) Red Fort Complex
(C) Qutub Minar
(D) Jama Masjid
Answer: (D)
Q. 46 Which gas is flushed in a bag of chips to prevent the chips from getting oxidized?
(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Helium
Answer: (B)
Q. 47 Dhop is a seasonal game played in:
(A) Meghalaya
(B) Nagaland
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Assam
Answer: (D)
Q. 48 Who was the founder chairperson of Central Social Welfare Board?
(A) G. Durgabai Deshmukh
(B) Aruna Asaf Ali
(C) Annie Besant
(D) Sarojini Naidu
Answer: (A)
Q. 49 Which of the following High Courts has the largest number of seats?
(A) Mumbai High Court
(B) Kolkata High Court
(C) Allahabad High Court
(D) Guwahati High Court
Answer: (D)
Q. 50 Twinkling of stars is due to:
(A) atmospheric reflection
(B) scattering of light
(C) internal reflection
(D) atmospheric refraction
Answer: (D)
Quant
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 51 The average age of 3 persons is 30 years.If their ages are in the ratio of 3:5:7 respectively, then the age of the eldest person is:
(A) 25 Years
(B) 42 Years
(C) 28 Years
(D) 21 Years
Answer: (B)
Q. 52 The L.C.M. of two different numbers are 30. Which of the following cannot be their H.C.F.?
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 6
(D) 10
Answer: (A)
Q. 53 DIRECTIONS: What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
1072 + [{8240 + (-9213)} – {(2863 – (4329 – 2143)}] = ?
(A) 578
(B) -576
(C) 576
(D) -578
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
1072 + [{8240 + (-9213)} – {(2863 – (4329 – 2143)}]
=1072 + [{8240 + (-9213)} – {(2863 – 2186}]
=1072 + [{8240 + (-9213)} – 677]
=1072-1650
=-578
Q. 54 On a certain sum, rate of interest per annum for the first two years is 4%. The rate of interest for next four years is 6% and for the next three years is 8%. If total simple interest earned at the end of 9 years is ₹ 1120, then the sum is:
(A) ₹2240
(B) ₹1600
(C) ₹1800
(D) ₹2000
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Let the principle be P
For the first 2 years rate of interest is 4% and so total of 8% of P is collected in first 2 years
For the next 4 years rate of interest is 6% and so total of 24% of P is collected in next 4 years
For the next 3 years rate of interest is 8% and so total of 24% of P is collected in first 3 years
Total interest=(8+24+24)% of P
(56/100)*P=1120
P=2000
Q. 55 Sales of books from four shops (B1, B2, B3, B4) in thousands are given as below. Study the graph and answer the following questions.
If each shop can increases the sales of books by 10%,then the total number of books(in thousands) sold by all the shop are:
(A) 215.5
(B) 214.5
(C) 240.0
(D) 228.0
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Total sales=20000+40000+80000+55000
=195000
Given all the sales increase by 10% and so new total sales count is
=195000*1.1
=214.5k sales
Q. 56 If ten men can do a job in ten days, what fraction of the job can be done by one man in one day?
(A) 1/20
(B) 1/10
(C) ½
(D) 1/100
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Total work =10*10 men days
=100 men days
In one day one man can do 1*1 men day work=1 men day work
It is (1/100)th part of total work
Q. 57 In a colony 5 families have 1 child, 7 families have 2 children, 8 families have 3 children and 3 families have 4 children. What is the mode of the number of children.
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 5
(D) 3
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Mode is the value which has highest frequency in the group
Here 8 families have 3 children and so it has the highest frequency
therefore 3 is the mode
Q. 58 Sales of books from four shops (B1, B2, B3, B4) in thousands are given as below. Study the graph and answer the following questions.
The number of shop in which sales of books are below the average level is:
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 3
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Sales of B1=20000
Sales of B2=40000
Sales of B3=55000
Sales of B4=80000
Average=(20000+40000+55000+80000)/4
=195000/4
=48750
so B1 and B2 are below average level.
Q. 59 What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
? = (45 × 11) ÷ 3
(A) 162
(B) 165
(C) 144
(D) 235
Answer: (B)
Q. 60 If x : y = 2 : 3 then the value of 3x+2y / 9x+5y will be:
(A) 4/11
(B) 11/2
(C) ½
(D) 5/14
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Given x:y=2:3
let us assume x=2 and y=3 then
3x+2y
9x+5y
=(6+6)/(18+15)
=12/33
=4:11
Q. 61 Sales of books from four shops (B1, B2, B3, B4) in thousands are given as below. Study the graph and answer the following questions.
The average sales of book from shop B1, B2 and B4 is closest to:
(A) 43633
(B) 48333
(C) 46666
(D) 46333
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Sales of B1=20000
Sales of B2=40000
Sales of B3=80000
Average=(20000+40000+80000)/3
=140000/3
=46666
Q. 62 The income of A and are in the ratio 5: 3. The expenses of A, B and C arein the ratio of 8: 5: 2. If C spends 2000 and B saves ₹ 700, then A saves:
(A) ₹1000
(B) ₹1500
(C) ₹500
(D) ₹250
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
let the incomes of A and B be 5x and 3x respectively
Given C spends Rs 2000 then A spends 8000 and B spends 5000
Given B saves 700
Therefore 3x-5000=700
3x=5700
x=1900
A’s income=5*1900
=9500
(A) saves 9500-8000
=Rs 1500
Q. 63 A dealer buys goods at 10% discount on its list price and sells 10% above the list price. His profit percent is:
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
let the marked price=x
CP=0.9x
SP=1.1x
profit percent=((1.1x-0.9x)/0.9x)*100
=200/9 %
=22.22%
Q. 64 The area of an equilateral triangle is (√3/4)a2 sq cm. What is its perimeter?
(A) 16 cm
(B) 12 cm
(C) 24 cm
(D) 32 cm
Answer: (C)
Q. 65 Rekha sells a DVD player to Liza at a profit of 15% and Liza sells it Megha at a profit of 25%. If Megha pays ₹ 2875 for it, then what was the cost price for Rekha.
(A) ₹1800
(B) ₹2000
(C) ₹1500
(D) ₹1900
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Let the Rekha’s cost price =x
Rekha’s selling price=1.15x
Liza’s cost price=1.15x
Liza’s selling price=1.15x
Megha’s cost price=1.25*1.15x
=1.4375x
1.4375x=2875
x=2875/1.4375
x=Rs 2000
Q. 66 If the curved surface area of a sphere increased by 44%, then by what percentage would its volume increase?
(A) 20%
(B) 44%
(C) Cannot be determined
(D) 72.8%
Answer: (D)
Q. 67 A customer is given a discount of 2½ % on the marked price of an item. He purchased it in ₹ 39. Marked price of the item is:
(A) ₹36.5
(B) ₹42
(C) ₹40
(D) ₹41.5
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
MP-discount=SP
MP=SP+discount
SP=Rs 39
Discount=5/2 %=2.5%
MP=39+39*(2.5/100)
=39+0.975
=Rs 39.975
Q. 68 A Train of 300 m length passes a pole in 15 second. What is the speed of the Train?
(A) 72 km/hr
(B) 75 km/hr
(C) 65 km/hr
(D) 60 km/hr
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Speed=distance/time
=300/15
=20 m/s
To convert it into km/hr we have to multiply it with 18/5
=20*18/5
=72 km/hr
Q. 69 Smith travels along four sides of a square at speeds of 10, 12, 15 and 20 km/hr. The average speed of the Smith is:
(A) 13⅓ km/hr
(B) 12½ km/hr
(C) 14¼ km/hr
(D) 10 km/hr
Answer: (A)
Q. 70 What will be the cost of fencing a circular garden of radius 35 m at the rate of ₹16 per meter?(Take π = 22/7)
(A) ₹3520
(B) ₹3240
(C) ₹2850
(D) ₹3160
Answer: (A)
Q. 71 A solution of milk and water contains milk and water in the ratio of 3 : 2. Another solution of milk and water contains milk and water in the ratio of 2 : 1. 40 liters of the first solution is mixed with 30 liter of the second solution. The ratio of milk and water in the resultant solution is:
(A) 22:13
(B) 13:22
(C) 6:5
(D) 5:6
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Ratio of milk to water in solution 1 is 3:2
Solution 1 contains 40 liters.
Milk content in solution 1 =(3/5)*40
=24 liters
Water content=40-24=16 liters
Ratio of milk to water in solution 2 is 2:1
Solution 2 contains 30 liters.
Milk content in solution 2 =(2/3)*30
=20 liters
Water content=30-20=10 liters
Total milk content=24+20=44 liters
Total water content =16+10=26 liters
Ratio=22:13
Q. 72 Had been one man less, then the number of days required to do a piece of work would have been one more. If the number of Man. Days required to complete the work is 56, how many workers were there?
(A) 14
(B) 9
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer: (D)
Q. 73 A certain sum becomes ₹ 650 at the end of one year and ₹ 676 at the end of second year. What is the Principle :
(A) 560
(B) 624
(C) 600
(D) 540
Answer: (B)
Q. 74 The average temperature on Friday, Saturday and Sunday was 26∘ and on saturday, Sunday and Monday it was 24∘. If on Monday it was exactly 25∘. Then what was the temperature on Friday?
(A) 33∘
(B) 32∘
(C) 30∘
(D) 31∘
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Sum of temperatures on Friday, Saturday and Sunday =78
Sum of temperatures on Monday,Saturday and Sunday=72
Difference between temperature on Friday and Monday=6
On Monday=25
Friday=25+6 =31
Q. 75 A cylinder of height 4 cm and base radius 3 cm is melted to form a sphere. The radius of sphere is:
(A) 3 cm
(B) 3.5 cm
(C) 4 cm
(D) 2.5 cm
Answer: (A)
English
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 76 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.
Whenever there is raining, desert flowers bloom and the sight can be rewarding.
(A) Whenever it rains
(B) No substitution required
(C) When its rains
(D) When raining
Answer: (A)
Q. 77 Select the synonym of the given word.
VAIN
(A) Useful
(B) Useless
(C) Nutritious
(D) Beneficial
Answer: (B)
Q. 78 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
He offered us ………. food items for lunch and we were happy.
(A) delicious
(B) pungent
(C) lucrative
(D) big
Answer: (A)
Q. 79 Select the meaning of the given idiom.
Play it safe
(A) play a game peacefully
(B) play indoors
(C) play for pleasure
(D) avoid risks
Answer: (D)
Q. 80 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.
As the tree comes crashing down, monkeys woke from its sleep and run from branch to branch.
(A) wakes from it sleep
(B) woke in their sleep
(C) No substitution required
(D) wake from their sleep
Answer: (D)
Q. 81 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. We used to keep large plates of fruit on a table nearer a window in the dining-room.
(A) We used to
(B) nearer a window
(C) on a table
(D) large plates of
Answer: (B)
Q. 82 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
The man insisted on buying the doves ……….. he was fond of birds.
(A) because
(B) due to
(C) though
(D) as if
Answer: (A)
Q. 83 Select the wrongly spelt word.
(A) Perspiration
(B) Paralysis
(C) Platform
(D) Perseverance
Answer: (C)
Q. 84 Select the meaning of the given idiom.
Drawa Blank
(A) Unable to remember
(B) Be an artist
(C) Lose money
(D) Display skills
Answer: (A)
Q. 85 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
We went to see the butterfly farm ………… was very closeto our hotel.
(A) It
(B) Us
(C) Them
(D) They
Answer: (A)
Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No substitution required.
The most pleasant way was to going and having a good dinner at some fine restaurant.
(A) was going to have
(B) No substitution required
(C) is to have gone and eat
(D) was to go and have
Answer: (D)
Q. 87 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. An ant usesit’s feelers or antennae to ‘talk’ to other ants by passing messages through them.
(A) to other ants
(B) An ant
(C) it’s feelers
(D) Through them
Answer: (C)
Instructions
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number.
Passage:
The National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s (NASA) Viking Mission to Mars was(1)………. of two spacecraft. Viking 1 and Viking 2, (2)…………. consisting of an orbiter and (3)………. lander. The primary objectives (4)………… to obtain images and samples(5)…………. the Martian surface andsoil.
Q. 88 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1.
(A) composed
(B) making
(C) consist
(D) including
Answer: (A)
Q. 89 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2.
(A) both of
(B) one of
(C) equally
(D) each
Answer: (D)
Q. 90 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3.
(A) a
(B) the
(C) an
(D) No article required
Answer: (A)
Q. 91 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4.
(A) was
(B) were
(C) is
(D) has been
Answer: (B)
Q. 92 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5.
(A) on
(B) of
(C) for
(D) at
Answer: (B)
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 93 Select the antonym of the given word.
DESPAIR
(A) Hope
(B) Distress
(C) Hopelessness
(D) Desperation
Answer: (A)
Q. 94 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
(A) false or assumed identity
(A) Annals
(B) Alien
(C) Archive
(D) Alias
Answer: (D)
Q. 95 Select the synonym ofthe given word.
SUBSTANTIAL
(A) Considerable
(B) Worthless
(C) Slight
(D) Negligible
Answer: (A)
Q. 96 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
Last year the performance of this production unit was ………..
(A) fantastic
(B) tall
(C) staggered
(D) below
Answer: (A)
Q. 97 Select the antonym of the given word.
ARID
(A) Dry
(B) Scorched
(C) Wet
(D) Parched
Answer: (C)
Q. 98 Select the wrongly spelt word.
(A) Dilemma
(B) Disaster
(C) Disappear
(D) Develope
Answer: (D)
Q. 99 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
One who loves books
(A) Librarian
(B) Bibliophile
(C) Orator
(D) Veteran
Answer: (B)
Q. 100 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. The chameleon’s tongue is too long that it keeps it folded in the mouth.
(A) too long that
(B) The chameleon’s
(C) in the mouth
(D) it keeps
Answer: (A)
