Supreme Court declines interim relief in plea to extend validity of expired FCRA licences of NGOs
The Supreme Court on Tuesday declined to pass an interim order directing the government to extend the validity of licences of NGOs under the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) which expired on September 30 last year, instead opting to pronounce its judgment first in a pending case challenging the very constitutionality of the amendments to the law on the flow of foreign funds into India. A Bench led by Justice A.M. Khanwilkar was hearing a plea made by a U.S.–based organisation, Global Peace Initiative, represented by senior advocate Sanjay Hegde, which challenged the expiry of the FCRA licences of nearly 6,000 NGOs. The organisation urged the court to let these NGOs continue with their licences until further orders. Countering the plea, Solicitor General Tushar Mehta said the government had extended the licences of 11,594 NGOs which applied within time. Mehta further questioned the locus standi of the petitioner, asking how an organisation based in Houston was concerned with the FCRA licences in India. The court refused to intervene in the issue though it allowed the petitioner to approach the authorities with a representation which would be considered on its merits. The court said the petition would be taken up after it had pronounced its judgment in the pending Noel Harper versus Union of India case on the validity of the amendments made to the FCRA in 2020. The apex court had reserved its verdict on the question of validity of the amendments on November 9, last year. The government, through the Ministry of Home Affairs, had maintained that the NGOs had no fundamental right to receive unbridled foreign contributions.
Supreme Court notice on parties’ promises of ‘irrational freebies’ before elections
The Supreme Court on Tuesday sought responses from the Union government and the Election Commission of India (ECI) on the continued ‘tamasha’ of political parties promising or distributing ‘irrational freebies’ using public funds. A Bench of Chief Justice of India N.V. Ramana, Justices A.S. Bopanna and Hima Kohli issued notice to the Centre and the top poll body on a petition filed by advocate Ashwini Kumar Upadhyay, represented by senior advocate Vikas Singh, to issue stringent guidelines to deregister the errant political parties and seize their election symbols. The ‘tamasha’ has been going on for decades. Promises always remain as promises. Most of them, except freebies, are not implemented, the petition said and contended that the offer of these freebies amounted to bribery and undue influence. The court, however, drew a skeptical note about how Upadhyay, in his petition, named only a few, select political parties and States. Upadhyay said he did not mean to target only a few parties and offered to make all political parties respondents in the petition. The court said it would start, for the time being, by issuing notice to the Centre and the ECI, which have been named respondents now. The court listed the case after four weeks. In the hearing, Singh submitted that parties, even in debt-ridden States, were promising/distributing these freebies to garner votes and to create an uneven playing field before the elections. Singh said the election commission’s guidelines on the freebies, issued after a Supreme Court judgment in the Subramaniam Balaji case, reported in 2013, were toothless. Promise/distribution of irrational freebies from public fund before election unduly influences the voters, shakes the roots of free-fair election, disturbs level playing field, vitiates the purity of election process and also violates Articles 14, 162, 266(3) and 282, the plea said.
U.P. Assembly polls: Polarisation suits both BJP and SP to consolidate vote bases, says Priyanka Gandhi
Alleging that polarisation suits both the BJP and the SP to consolidate their vote bases in Uttar Pradesh, Congress leader Priyanka Gandhi Vadra on Tuesday said the ruling party may end up being the largest beneficiary of this divisive rhetoric and therefore people need to be given a choice of another kind of politics that doesn’t divide society on religious or caste lines. Citing that farm laws and the Lakhimpur Kheri incident caused immense pain to farmers, she also said the government’s indifference’’ and hostile approach towards the farmers will play an important part in determining the outcome of the assembly polls in Uttar Pradesh’s western belt. In an exclusive interview to PTI, Priyanka Gandhi said her party will take a call on whether to forge a post-poll alliance once the election results are out and if and when such a situation should arise. With her party going to the polls with a focus on women and announcing that it will give 40% of tickets to them, she said women are 50% of the population and if they consolidate into a political and electoral force by recognising their own value and strength in political terms, they can change the politics of our nation. The saffron party, in turn, has accused the Akhilesh Yadav-led party SP of invoking Mohammad Ali Jinnah and Pakistan to vitiate the discourse. Priyanka Gandhi said people are suffering and they have to be made to connect this suffering to the lack of governance. Event management is not the same as effective governance. People have to be made to understand that, and demand good governance. Despite the crores it spends on advertising itself as one of the leading state governments in India, the truth is that the BJP government in UP does not know how to govern, she alleged.
In West Bengal, parents demand reopening of schools, colleges
A campaign is on in West Bengal in favour of reopening of educational institutions, with many angry parents demanding to know why it is always the students who are made to sit home whenever pandemic–related restrictions are imposed. Schools and colleges, which had reopened late last year, were to resume classes on January 2 after winter vacations but were shut again after the Omicron-driven third wave caused an explosion in the number of COVID-19 cases. As of now, they are to remain shut till January 31 but there is no official word yet on whether they will reopen after that date. The campaign is reflecting online, with demands for re–opening of institutions being made under the hashtag #openschoolcollegeuniversities. There was a time when the closure was a necessity. But now that we are trying to normalise ourselves, why are students being made to stay home? asked Sunetra Mitra, a professor of history at the Ramakrishna Sarada Mission Vivekananda Vidyabhavan in Kolkata. You see the young people go everywhere — on vacations, to malls, to restaurants, to pandals — to seem to be going everywhere except to their schools or colleges. Also, it is not possible for a vast majority of students to afford online classes. How many of them actually have access to a smartphone or laptop? Such students are eventually dropping out. Bandyopadhyay, who recently wrote in the letters-to-the-editor column of a leading Bengali daily calling for resumption of offline classes, said closure of educational institutions was necessary two years ago because no one was prepared for a pandemic but now schools and colleges must reopen with COVID protocols in place. Closure is not a solution. The biggest disadvantage of online teaching is I cannot see the faces of my students. I have no idea how receptive they are. The online mode also compromises on the assessment during exams — meritorious students are at a great disadvantage, Bandyopadhyay said.
Pfizer starts Omicron-specific COVID-19 vaccine trial Pfizer and its partner
BioNTech have begun enrolment for a clinical trial to test the safety and immune response of their Omicron-specific COVID-19 vaccine in adults aged up to 55, the companies said in a statement on January 25. Pfizer’s CEO Albert Bourla has previously said that the pharmaceutical giant could be ready to file for regulatory approval of the shot by March. The company’s head of vaccine research Kathrin Jansen said in a statement that while current data showed that boosters against the original COVID-19 strain continued to protect against severe outcomes with Omicron, the company was acting out of caution. We recognise the need to be prepared in the event this protection wanes over time and to potentially help address Omicron and new variants in the future, she said. Ugur Sahin, CEO of BioNTech, added that the protection of the original vaccine against mild and moderate COVID-19 appeared to wane rapidly against Omicron. Combo photo shows logos Pfizer and BioNTech. This study is part of our science-based approach to develop a variant-based vaccine. The trial will involve 1,420 people aged 18-55. A spokesperson for Pfizer said that it did not include people older than 55 because the goal of the study was to examine the immune response of participants dosed, rather than estimate vaccine efficacy. The trial is taking place across the United States and South Africa, and the first participant was dosed in North Carolina. The Pfizer-BioNTech vaccine was the first COVID-19 shot to be authorised in the West, in December 2020. Because it is based on messenger RNA technology, it is relatively easy to update to reflect the genetic code of new variants. Several countries have begun to emerge from their latest waves driven by Omicron, the most transmissible strain to date, even though global new cases are still rising. The coronavirus has killed some 5.6 million people since the outbreak emerged in China in December 2019.
INTERNATIONAL NEWS
NATO sends ships, fighter jets to eastern Europe as Russia continues troop build-up near Ukraine
NATO said Monday that it’s putting extra forces on standby and sending more ships and fighter jets to eastern Europe as Russia continues its troop build-up near Ukraine. It said that it’s beefing up its deterrence presence in the Baltic Sea area. A number of members of the 30-country military organisation have offered troops and equipment. Denmark is sending a frigate to the Baltic Sea and deploying F-16 war planes to Lithuania. Spain is sending ships to join NATO’s standing maritime force and considering sending fighter jets to Bulgaria. France stands ready to send troops to Bulgaria, NATO said. NATO will continue to take all necessary measures to protect and defend all Allies, including by reinforcing the eastern part of the Alliance. We will always respond to any deterioration of our security environment, including through strengthening our collective defence, NATO Secretary General Jens Stoltenberg said in a statement.
Julian Assange granted appeal in UK to fight extradition to US WikiLeaks founder Julian Assange’s battle to avoid extradition to the US will go to Britain’s Supreme Court after he was granted the right on Monday to appeal a lower court ruling. The High Court in London allowed Assange to appeal its decision that he could be sent to the US to stand trial on espionage charges. The decision is the latest step in Assange’s long battle to avoid trial on a series of charges related to WikiLeaks’ publication of classified documents more than a decade ago. Just over a year ago, a district court judge in London rejected a US extradition request on the grounds that Assange was likely to kill himself if held under harsh US prison conditions. US authorities later provided assurances that the WikiLeaks founder wouldn’t face the severe treatment his lawyers said would put his physical and mental health at risk. The High Court last month overturned the lower court’s decision, saying that the US promises were enough to guarantee Assange would be treated humanely. The court on Monday gave Assange permission to appeal that ruling to the Supreme Court.
Group opposes protection from caste discrimination in California Varsity’s faculty union.
A group of faculties in the California State University (CSU) system has written to the Board of Trustees asking that caste not be added as a ‘protected category’ to the system’s collective bargaining agreement (CBA), on the grounds that it would apply to Indian-origin faculty alone and single them out for targeted scrutiny. A protected category in the U.S., refers to a category that has specific protections against discrimination. The proposed changes to the agreement with the union follow from a change across the system’s 23 campuses announced on January 20, in which caste was specifically made part of the institutions’ anti-discrimination policy. The faculty letter, a copy of which was released by the Hindu American Foundation (HAF), was, according to the writers, written by over 80 CSU faculty (the list of names was withheld, so the number has not been verified by The Hindu). The letter requests that the CBA only be approved after caste, as a category, is taken out. Meetings to ratify the agreement between the CSU and the union (the California Faculty Association or CFA), are scheduled for Monday and Tuesday. The reason why caste oppressed people are asking for the category to be made explicit, is that when institutions make it explicit, they’re extending the existing rights more clearly, for caste oppressed people, she told The Hindu on Monday over the phone. Because once it’s listed, institutions then will build competency around it. The faculty letter alleges that Equality Labs is an anti-Hindu activist organization and that a member of the group was called in as a witness to the January 14 Union meeting.
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are likely to function with staggered timing during the budget session of the Parliament, which is scheduled to start from January 31, 2022 amid rising number of COVID Cases in the country. While the Rajya Sabha is likely to meet in the first half of the day, the Lok Sabha is likely to meet in the second half of the day. President Ram Nath Kovind will address the joint sitting of the two Houses on January 31st. The budget will be presented on February 1st.
National Voters Day 2022
The 12th National Voters Day was observed today to commemorate the foundation day of the Election Commission of India. The Election Commission was set up on January 25, 1950. The National Voters Day aims to encourage the new voters to enroll themselves in the electoral process.
Air India likely to be handed over to Tata on January 27
National carrier Air India is likely to be handed over to the Tata Group on January 27, 2022. The government has decided to complete the disinvestment process by then, as per sources. Talace Pvt Ltd, which is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Tata Sons Pvt Ltd, had won the bid last year to acquire 100 per cent equity shareholding of government-owned Air India.
Health Minister to hold meeting with health ministries of 9 states/ Uts
The Union Health Minister Mansukh Mandaviya will hold virtual meeting with health ministers of nine states and union territories today over the COVID-19 situation. These states and Uts include Delhi, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand, Ladakh and Chandigarh.
President Kovind to address the nation on eve of 73rd Republic Day
President Ram Nath Kovind will address the nation on Tuesday on the eve of the 73rd Republic Day, a Rashtrapati Bhavan communique issued on Monday night said. The address will be broadcast from 7 pm on the entire national network of All India Radio (AIR) and telecast over all channels of Doordarshan in Hindi followed by the English version, it said.
Delhi HC to hear plea on PM’s security on April 30
The Delhi High Court on Monday posted for hearing on a petition on issue of safety and security of the Prime Minister on April 30. At the outset of the hearing, a Bench of Chief Justice D.N. Patel and Justice Jyoti Singh said petitioner Ashish Kumar could seek representation with the Central government on the issue. The Bench noted that the top court was awaiting the report of the committee appointed by it.
FCRA registration: SC to hear plea against Centre’s decision on Tuesday
The Supreme Court Monday said it would hear on Tuesday a petition which has sought quashing of the Centre’s alleged decision by which 5,789 entities lost their Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) registration. The FCRA registration is mandatory for any association and NGO to receive foreign funding.
More restrictions in Kerala as COVID-19 cases continue to rise. As Kerala continues to register a steep rise in COVID-19 cases, the State government on Monday said the educational institutions which have less than 40%attendance for consecutive three days will be closed for two weeks. The COVID-19 evaluation meeting, chaired by Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan virtually from the USA where he is undergoing treatment, decided to declare the educational institutions with less than 40% attendance as clusters.
PM Modi to interact with BJP workers on Tuesday
Prime Minister Narendra Modi will interact with BJP workers from across the country via NaMo app on Tuesday. The interaction comes in the run-up to the assembly polls in five states, including Uttar Pradesh, with the Election Commission not allowing physical rallies by political parties due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
Houses of Parliament to work in shifts
During the upcoming Budget Session, Parliament will function in two shifts, with Rajya Sabha functioning from 10 a.m. to 3 p.m. and Lok Sabha from 4 p.m. till 9 p.m. The two Houses are sitting in shifts to enable the members to be seated across both chambers of Parliament to ensure social distancing.
Japan to widen virus measures and boost testing amid omicron
Japan’s government plans to put the majority of the country under pre-emergency status and extend COVID-19 restrictions as omicron cases have surged and threatened to disrupt basic services like hospitals and schools. Prime Minister Fumio Kishida said Monday that he will tighten anti-virus measures in 18 more prefectures, including Hokkaido in the north to Osaka and Kyoto in western Japan, until Feb 20. This will be in addition to areas where similar restrictions are already in place or to be further extended — including Tokyo, Okinawa, Yamaguchi, and Hiroshima.
Saina top attraction in Odisha Open beginning on Tuesday
London Olympics bronze medallist Saina Nehwal will be the star attraction in Odisha Open Super 100, the state’s first-ever international tournament under Badminton World Federation, which begins on Tuesday. Saina has been seeded first in the women’s singles while P Kashyap is the top seed in men’s singles of the tournament to be played at Jawaharlal Nehru Indoor Stadium. More than 300 players from 17 countries are participating in this tournament. The event begins with the qualifying round on Tuesday and will continue till January 30. Morning Filter will return tomorrow. Follow up on the day’s biggest stories and get concise analysis by The Hindu with the Evening Wrap newsletter. Today’s Top Picks Justice Ayesha Malik takes oath as first woman judge of Pakistan’s Supreme Court What you need to know about the 2022 Goa polls | Talking Politics with Nistula Hebbar ‘Emergency’ movie review: Carey Williams’ satire on racial politics is a knockout Lucknow IPL team to be called Lucknow Super Giants Copyright @ 2021, THG PUBLISHING PVT LTD. If you are facing any trouble in viewing this newsletter, please try hereIf you do not wish to receive such emails go here
INTERNATIONAL NEWS
Meta’s new AI supercomputer to be the world’s fastest by mid-2022
Meta, Facebook’s parent company, said recently that its new artificial intelligence supercomputer is expected to be the world’s fastest by the middle of this year. The company also stated that developing the next generation AI will require supercomputers capable of performing quintillions of operations per second.
US places 8,500 troops on ‘heightened alert’ over Russia-Ukraine standoff
The Pentagon informed on January 24, 2022 that US Defense Secretary Lloyd Austin has placed up to 8,500 troops on heightened alert to prepare them for deployment if needed amid fears of Russia invading Ukraine. This comes after Russia has amassed almost 100,000 soldiers along its border with Ukraine.
Vice President of India tests positive for COVID-19
Vice President M Venkaiah Naidu tested positive for COVID-19 on January 23, 2022. The Vice President is currently under self-isolation in Hyderabad. He had earlier paid floral tributes to Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose on his 125th birth anniversary yesterday in Hyderabad. The VP had also attended the first convocation ceremony of the Indian Institute of Petroleum and Energy (IIPE) in Visakhapatnam on January 22nd.
National Girl Child Day 2022 observed today
National Girl Child Day is celebrated in India every year on January 24th since 2008. The day aims to spread awareness among the public about inequities faced by girls in the Indian society. It also aims to promote awareness about girl child’s rights and the importance of female education, health, and nutrition.
India suffers 3-0 ODI series whitewash against South Africa
N suffered 3-0 whitewash in its ODI series against South Africa after a narrow loss in the third and final ODI against South Africa by four runs at the Newlands Cricket ground on January 23, 2022. India had won the toss and chosen to field first. Chasing 288 runs to win, India stumbled early after losing captain KL Rahul in the 5th over for 9 runs. India fell short of the target by 4 runs after being bowled out for 283.
Omicron wave to turn to villages after metros: Expert
The Omicron variant of COVID-19 is likely to spread in small towns and villages after its transmission in metro cities, said Dr Rajeev Jayadevan who is advising the COVID-19 task force at IMA Kochi, Kerala. The medical expert said that each time, a wave first hit mobility areas that include metro cities and then smaller areas and villages.
India withdraws from AFC Women’s Asia Cup 2022
The Indian women’s football team has withdrawn from the ongoing AFC Women’s Asian Cup 2022. The decision came after several players tested positive for COVID-19. India is the host of the ongoing football tournament. The Asian Football Confederation (AFC) confirmed that India has withdrawn and their remaining matches stand canceled.
Health Minister Mandaviya launches revamped central govt health schemes websites
The Union Health Minister Mansukh Mandaviya launched the revamped Central Government Health scheme website and the mobile app. The Minister stated that the mobile app has several features which will benefit more than 40 lakh beneficiaries with the real-time information from the convenience of their homes. Among the various features of the upgraded website is also that it has been made bilingual with Hindi and English with a provision to make it multi-lingual in the future. The website also has a link to the beneficiary login to access various online facilities such as tracking of the grievances, medical claims, downloading of CGHS card, and the online appointment system.
12th National Voters’ Day to be observed on January 25
The 12th National Voters’ Day will be observed on January 25. The theme is ‘Making Elections Inclusive, Accessible and Participative’. Vice-President Venkaiah Naidu will be the Chief Guest for the event. The National Awards for the Best Electoral Practices for 2021-22 will also be conferred on the State and District Level Officers for their outstanding performance in the conduct of elections. During the National Voters’ Day function, the newly enrolled voters will also be felicitated and will be handed over their Elector Photo Identity Card. National Voters’ Day in India has been celebrated since 2011 on January 25 to mark the foundation day of Election Commission of India.
INTERNATIONAL NEWS
Russia planning to install pro-Russian leader in Ukraine: UK
The UK foreign office informed on January 22, 2022 that it has information that the Russian government is planning to install a pro-Russian leader in Ukraine while it considers whether to invade and occupy the country. Former Ukrainian MP Yevhen Murayev is reportedly being considered as a potential candidate for the role.
New Zealand PM Jacinda Ardern cancels her wedding amid new Omicron restrictions
New Zealand Prime Minister Jacinda Arden has cancelled her wedding as the nation imposes new restrictions to slow the community spread of the COVID-19 Omicron variant, she told reporters on Sunday. New Zealand will impose mask rules and limit gathering from midnight on Sunday after a cluster of nine COVID-19 Omicron cases showed community spread from the North to South islands after a wedding. New Zealand will move to a red setting under its COVID-19 protection framework, with more mask wearing. Indoor hospitality settings such as bars and restaurants and events like weddings will be capped at 100 people. The limit is lowered to 25 people if venues are not using vaccine passes, Ms. Arden said. The country has kept its borders shut to foreigners since March 2020. The government pushed back plans for a phased reopening from mid-January to the end of February out of concern about a potential Omicron outbreak in neighbouring Australia. About 94% of New Zealand’s population over the age of 12 is fully vaccinated and about 56% of those eligible have had booster shots.
Beijing to test 2 million ahead of Winter Olympics
China’s capital, Beijing, will test more than two million residents as it deals with a new cluster of COVID-19 cases just two weeks before it hosts the Winter Olympics, city officials said on Sunday. Beijing’s Fengtai district, the centre of the latest outbreak, reported nine new cases on Sunday — a small number in most places but a break from normalcy in a city where a strict zero-COVID strategy has been in place — with the total number over the weekend nearing two dozen. Xu Hejian, a spokesperson for the Beijing government, said all of Fengtai’s two million residents would be tested in coming days. Under China’s Zero-COVID approach, the country still maintains tight restrictions on international travel, and carries out mass testing and quarantining of all close contacts in centralised facilities until cases are brought to zero. The approach has helped China avoid a major second wave and maintain normalcy at home for much of the past year, although it has come at the cost of continued international isolation. Beijing is particularly on edge ahead of the Winter Olympics, which President Xi Jinping will open on February 4. Russia’s Vladimir Putin and Pakistan’s Imran Khan are among foreign leaders expected to attend.
PM Modi asks districts to set time-bound targets for Government programmes to increase ease of living
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has asked District Magistrates (DMs) to work on time-bound targets for 100% saturation of government services and facilities and urged every district to prepare a vision for next two years that aims to increase ease of living for people. Mr. Modi, who virtually interacted with DMs and Chief Ministers of select States after reviewing the the implementation of various government schemes, said the teamwork of Centre, States and local administration has yielded good results in the Aspirational Districts. Prime Minister Narendra Modi interacts with District Magistrates through video conference, in New Delhi on January 22, 2022. In his closing remarks, the Prime Minister dwelt upon the successes of the Aspirational Districts programme — aimed at quickly and effectively transforming 112 most under-developed districts across the country — and lauded the officials as well as the State governments. While the Prime Minister sought direct feedback from the DMs about the key steps taken by them that has resulted in success in the districts and the challenges faced by them, the officials shared their experiences, the PMO said in a statement.
Plea in Supreme Court seeks action against political parties that promise ‘irrational’ freebies from public funds
A petition has been filed in the Supreme Court seeking a direction to the Election Commission of India (ECI) to seize the election symbol or de-register a political party that promises or distributes irrational freebies from public funds before elections. It said there should be a total ban on such populist measures to gain undue political favours from the voters as they violate the Constitution and the ECI should take suitable deterrent measures. The plea urged the court to declare that the promise of irrational freebies from public funds before elections unduly influences the voters, disturbs the level playing field and vitiates the purity of the poll process. The petition has also sought a direction to the ECI to insert an additional condition in the relevant paragraphs of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order 1968, which deals with conditions for recognition as a State party, that a political party shall not promise/distribute irrational freebies from the public fund before the election. The plea has referred to the promises being made by certain political parties in the ongoing Assembly poll process in some States.
Mahatma Gandhi’s favourite hymn ‘Abide with me’ dropped from Beating Retreat tunes
The traditional Christian hymn ‘Abide with me’, a favourite of Mahatma Gandhi, has been dropped from the list of tunes for this year’s Beating Retreat (BTR) ceremony. The tune had been played at the annual ceremony every year since 1950. ‘Abide with me’ is played by the Massed Bands at the end of the ceremony, and this year there are three tunes without it instead of the four tunes played in 2021 including the hymn. Members of the Indian military band rest before rehearsals for the Beating Retreat ceremony in New Delhi on January 21, 2022. The three tunes to be played by Massed Bands this year are ‘Kadam kadam badhaye ja’, ‘Drummers call’ and ‘Ae mere watan ke logon’. In contrast, the four tunes in 2021 were ‘Bharat ke jawan’ (new composition in 2021), ‘Kadam kadam badhaye ja’, ‘Drummers call’ and ‘Abide with me’. Beating Retreat is a centuries-old military tradition going back to the days when troops disengaged from battle at sunset. As soon as the buglers sounded the ‘retreat’, troops ceased fighting, sheathed their arms and withdrew from the battlefield.
Why have States raised questions about Centre’s proposed changes on IAS deputation?
The Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) sent a communication to all States on January 12 seeking their opinion on the proposal to amend Rule 6 (deputation of cadre officers) of the Indian Administrative Service (Cadre) Rules 1954. Similar letters were also sent proposing changes in cadre rules of the other two All India Services (AIS): the Indian Police Service and the Indian Forest Service (IFoS). Through the amendments, the Union government plans to acquire powers to depute IAS/IPS and IfoS officers to the Central Government and Ministries without necessarily taking the State government’s nod. The Centre proposes four amendments including two new insertions, including one that says if the State government delays posting a State cadre officer to the Centre and does not give effect to the Central government’s decision within the specified time, the officer shall stand relieved from cadre from the date as may be specified by the Central government. The DoPT says in spite of existing provisions, States are not sponsoring adequate numbers of officers for Central deputation and the available officers are not sufficient to meet requirements, and has sent multiple letters in this regard to the States. However, half-a-dozen States opposed the move and the rest did not respond. The Centre then revised its proposal and States have been given time till January 25 to reply. Read our explainer here.
Covid Watch: Numbers and Developments
A team of researchers, including an Indian-origin scientist at the prestigious University of British Columbia, has become the first in the world to conduct a molecular-level structural analysis of the Omicron spike protein, which could help accelerate the development of more effective treatments against the variant. Spike protein helps the virus enter and infect cells. Dr. Sriram Subramaniam, professor in UBC faculty of medicine’s department of biochemistry and molecular biology, said that Omicron has greater binding affinity than the original SARS-CoV-2 virus, with levels more comparable to what seen with the Delta variant. The findings, published in Science journal, sheds new light on why Omicron is highly transmissible and will help accelerate the development of more effective treatments, according to a statement issued by the Vancouver-based university. The number of reported coronavirus cases from India stood at 3,89,06,225 at the time of publishing this newsletter, with the death toll at 4,88,923.
INTERNATIONAL NEWS
Louie Anderson, an Emmy winning comedian, dies at 68
The Emmy-winning comedian, actor, and game show host Louie Anderson passed away at the age of 68 after battling cancer. He was undergoing treatment after he was diagnosed with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. Anderson was one of America’s most beloved comedians.
Family of four, believed to be Indians, frozen to death along U.S.-Canada border
In a heartbreaking tragedy, a family of four, including a baby, all believed to be Indians, has died from exposure to cold weather on the Canadian side of the border with the U.S. in an apparent human smuggling operation, according to media reports. Manitoba Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) on Thursday said that the bodies of four people — two adults, a teen and an infant — were found on the Canadian side of the U.S./Canada border near Emerson on Wednesday. U.S. officials say the dead are believed to be a family from India. They are thought to have been attempting to cross into the U.S., according to media reports. RCMP Assistant Commissioner Jane MacLatchy shared the discovery with reporters in a news conference on Thursday. What I am about to share is going to be difficult for many people to hear, she said, calling it an absolute and heartbreaking tragedy. At this very early stage of the investigation, it appears that they all died due to exposure to the cold weather, MacLatchy said, adding RCMP believe the four people are connected to the group that was apprehended on the U.S. side of the border. She said all four were located within 9-12 metres of the border. MacLatchy said that the group was on their own in the middle of a blizzard and faced not only the cold weather but endless fields, large snowdrifts and complete darkness.
Election Commission of India to take call on holding physical poll rallies today
The Election Commission of India will hold a meeting with the Health Secretaries and the Chief Health Secretaries of the five-poll bound states on January 22, 2022. The officials will review a ban on holding physical roadshows and rallied by the political parties before assembly elections.
Ladakh gets its first open synthetic track
Ladakh has got its open synthetic track and the football turf in Leh under Khelo India Programme. According to a coach, before this, the athletes had to run on the roads but now they can witness improvement because they can now measure distance and speed easily.
Government releases guidelines for management of COVID-19 in children
The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has issued guidelines for the management of COVID-19 in children. The Government has recommended not to use antivirals or monoclonal antibodies for children less than 18 years of age irrespective of the severity of infection.
Supreme Court to steer ex gratia payment to kin of COVID-19 deceased
The Supreme Court on Wednesday decided to take the reins and marshal the efforts to pay compensation to families that lost their relatives to COVID-19, after noticing some States responded to the humanitarian move in a lukewarm fashion. A Bench of Justices M.R. Shah and Sanjiv Khanna told the States that many of these families were economically challenged. They may have been further crippled by the fact that COVID-19 took away their sole breadwinner. The court said payment of ₹ 50,000 each as ex gratia to the loved ones of every COVID-19 patient was a welfare gesture and essential to a welfare state. File The court said payment of ₹50,000 each as ex gratia to the loved ones of every COVID-19 patient was a welfare gesture, and so, essential to a welfare State. Delays and bureaucratic red-tape to release the money or process the application did not augur well. Moreover, applications for compensation ought not to be rejected merely on technical glitches. Every reason for denying a claim should be recorded, it noted. The court ordered the States to reach out especially to children orphaned by the pandemic and whose details have been uploaded in the Bal Swaraj portal of the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR). The Commission, through its web portal, is identifying and collecting information from across the country about children orphaned, abandoned or left with one parent.
No foreign dignitary as Republic Day chief guest this year too Prime Minister Narendra Modi will host a meeting with five Central Asian leaders virtually next week, the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) announced on Wednesday, formally indicating that they will not travel to Delhi, as planned, as chief guests at the Republic Day celebrations. An official also confirmed that there will be no foreign dignitary as chief guest during the events around January 26. The MEA had not officially confirmed their presence, but sources said the Presidents of Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan had in December accepted an invitation to jointly attend the parade and Republic Day reception. They were due to also participate in the first India-Central Asia summit meeting during their visit to Delhi. Sources said proposals to this effect had been sent out to Presidents Kassym-Jomart Tokayev (Kazakhstan), Sadyr Japarov (Kyrgyzstan), Emomali Rahmon (Tajikistan), Gurbanguly Berdimuhamedov (Turkmenistan) and Shavkat Mirziyoyev (Uzbekistan), suggesting changing the summit to the virtual format. This is the second year in a row the government has had to cancel invitations to chief guests due to the COVID-19 pandemic after U.K. Prime Minister Boris Johnson was unable to attend the celebrations in 2021. Foreign leaders have graced the Republic Day parades every year barring 1952, 1953 and 1966. The then Indonesian President Sukarno was the first chief guest to grace Republic Day in 1950. In 2020, Brazil President Jair Bolsonaro was the chief guest.
INTERNATIONAL NEWS
WEF announces annual meeting to be held in person in May 2022
The World Economic Forum has announced its annual meeting to be held in person for the first time during the pandemic. The meeting will be from May 22 to May 26, 2022, at Davos in Switzerland. The annual gathering of the forum has not been held since January 2020 due to the pandemic.
World faces shortage of lithium for electric vehicle batteries
Lithium is in hot demand due to rapidly growing production of electric vehicles that use lithium-ion batteries, but there is a global supply shortage of the metal, with western countries racing to bring on new mines to compete with China. The Serbian government on Thursday cancelled licenses for a major lithium project owned by Anglo-Australian miner Rio Tinto Plc, which industry experts said is likely to prolong the supply shortage to mid-decade. Lithium is currently produced from hard rock or brine mines. Australia is the world’s biggest supplier, with production from hard rock mines. Argentina, Chile and China are mainly producing it from salt lakes. Total global production, measured as lithium carbonate equivalent, was forecast in December at 485,000 tonnes in 2021, growing to 615,000 tonnes in 2022 and 821,000 tonnes in 2023, according to Australia’s Department of Industry.
Q. 1. According to Albert Bandura, four conditions are necessary in ODSC learning. The right sequence of these conditions is re necessary in observational
अल्बर्ट बाण्डूरा के अनुसार निरीक्षणात्मक अधिगम हेत चार परिस्थितियाँ आवश्यक हैं। इन परिस्थितियों का सही क्रम है
(A) अनुप्रेरणा – अवधान – धारणा – पुनरुत्पादन
(B) अवधान – अनुप्रेरणा – धारणा — पुनरुत्पादन
(C) अवधान – धारणा – पुनरुत्पादन – अनुप्रेरणा
(D) अवधान – धारणा – अनुप्रेरणा — पुनरुत्पादन
Q. 2. According to Sigmund Freud, which method is most appropriate for identifying the characteristics of unconscious mind ? .
(A) Case study
(B) Dream analysis
(C) Sociometry technique
(D) Interview
सिग्मण्ड फ्रायड के अनुसार अचेतन मन की विशेषताओं को ज्ञात करने की सर्वाधिक उपयक्त विधि कौन-सी है ?
(A) वैयक्तिक-अध्ययन
(B) स्वप्न विश्लेषण
(C) समाजमिति तकनीक
(D) साक्षात्कार
Q. 3. A.D.H.D. means
(A) children with speaking difficulty
(B) children with hearing deficiency
(C) children with disorder of attention
(D) children with visual impairment
ए.डी.एच.डी. का अर्थ है ..
(A) वाचिक कठिनाई वाले बालक
(B) श्रवण दुर्बलता वाले बालक
C) ध्यान विकार वाले बालक
(D) दष्टिहीनता वाले बालक
Q. 4. A test designed to reveal a person’s strength or weakness son’s strength or weakness in one or more areas called
(A) Remedial test
(B) Diagnostic test
(C) Achievement test
(D) Formative test
एक परीक्षण जो व्यक्ति की किसी एक किसी एक या अधिक क्षेत्रों में उसकी विशेषताओं और कमियों को व्यक करने के लिये बनाया गया है, कहलाता है
(A) उपचारात्मक परीक्षण
(B) निदानात्मक परीक्षण
(C) उपलब्धि परीक्षण
(D) रचनात्मक परीक्षण
Q. 5. By which constitutional amendment the ‘Right to Education’ was added in the Constitution of India ?
(A) 86th Amendment
(B) 74th Amendment
(C) 891h Amendment
(D) 91st Amendment
भारतीय संविधान में कौन-से संशोधन द्वारा ‘शिक्षा का अधिकार’ सम्मिलित किया गया ?
(A) 86 वाँ संशोधन
(B) C 74 वाँ संशोधन
(C) 89 वाँ संशोधन
(D) 91 वाँ संशोधन
Q. 6. What is the minimum number of hours of work per week for teachers in the Right to Education Act, 2009?
(A) 30
(B) 56
(C) 45
(D) 70
शिक्षा के अधिकार अधिनियम, 2009 में शिक्षक के लिए प्रति सप्ताह न्यूनतम कार्य घण्टों की संख्या क्या है ?
(A) 30
(B) 56
(C) 45
(D) 70
Q. 7. Which kind of research is done by the principal of school to identify and remove the causes of various emotional problems of the students ?
(A) Action Research
(B) Qualitative Research
(C) Historical Research
(D) Descriptive Research
मालय के प्रधानाचार्य द्वारा विद्यार्थियों की विभिन्न संवेगात्मक समस्याओं के कारणों को पहचानने व उन्हें दूर करने हेतु कौन-सा अनुसंधान किया जाता है ?
(A) क्रियात्मक अनुसंधान
(B) गुणात्मक अनुसंधान
(C) ऐतिहासिक अनुसंधान
(D) वर्णनात्मक अनुसंधान
Q. 8. Which of the following theories is related to learning by consequences ?
(A) Operant conditioning
(B) Insight learning
(C) Classical conditioning
(D) Cognitive learning
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सिद्धान्त परिणामों द्वारा सीखने से सम्बन्धित है ?
(A) क्रिया-प्रसूत अनुबन्धन
(B) अंतर्दृष्टि अधिगम
(C) शास्त्रीय अनुबन्धन
(D) संज्ञानात्मक सीखना
Q. 9. When we use our current ‘schema’ to interpret the external world, it is called
(A) Assimilation
(B). Association
(C) Adaptation
(D) Equilibrium
जब हम वर्तमान ‘स्कीमा’ का प्रयोग बाह्य जगत् के विश्लेषण हेतु करते हैं, तब उसे कहा जाता है
(A) आत्मसात्मीकरण
(B) सम्बन्ध
(C) अनुकूलन
(D) संतुलन
Q. 10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of projective test?
(A) Ambiguous stimulus
(B) Freedom to respond
(C) Subjective perception
(D) Objective interpretation
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी प्रक्षेपीय परीक्षण की विशेषता नहीं है ?
(A) अस्पष्ट उद्दीपक
(B) अनुक्रिया की स्वतन्त्रता
(C) व्यक्तिपरक प्रत्यक्षण
(D) वस्तुनिष्ठ व्याख्या
Q. 11. Child centered pedagogy means
(A) asking the children to follow and imitate the teacher
(B) Hitting the children be totally free
(C) giving moral education to the children
(D) giving importance to children’s voices and their active participation
बाल केन्द्रित शिक्षण विधि का अर्थ है
(A) बच्चों को शिक्षक का अनुसरण और अनुकरण करने के लिये कहना
(B) बच्चों को पूर्ण रूप से स्वतन्त्रता देना
(C) बच्चों को नैतिक शिक्षा देना
(D) बच्चों की अभिव्यक्ति और उनकी सक्रिय भागीदारी को महत्त्व देना
Q. 12. Raven Progressive Matrices are used to measure
(A) Personality
(B) Learning
(C) Intelligence
(D) Creativity
रैविन प्रोग्रेसिव मैटिसेज का प्रयोग ……….. के मापन के लिये किया जाता है।
(A) व्यक्तित्व .
(B) अधिगम
(C) बुद्धि
(D) सृजनात्मकता
Q. 13. According to Vygotsky, children learn
(A) by imitation
(B) by interacting with adults and peers.
(C) when reinforcement is offered
(D) by maturation
वाइगोत्स्की के अनुसार बालक सीखते हैं
(A) अनुकरण से
B) वयस्कों और समवयस्कों के साथ परस्पर क्रिया से
(C) जब पुनर्बलन प्रदान किया जाता है
(D) परिपक्व होने से
Q. 14. Which psychologist first created the intelligence test ?
(A) Wechsler
(B) Binet
(C) Spearman
(D) Cattell
किस मनोवैज्ञानिक के द्वारा सर्वप्रथम बुद्धि परीक्षण का निर्माण किया गया ?
(A) वेक्सलर
(B) बिने
(C) स्पीयरमैन
(D) कैटल
Q. 15. What effort should a teacher make for the upliftment of Gifted children?
(A) Slow to teach
(B) Special classes and motivation
(C) Punishing them.
(D) Ignoring them
एक शिक्षक द्वारा प्रतिभाशाली बालकों के उत्थान हेतु कौन-सा प्रयास किया जायेगा ?
(A) पढ़ाने की धीमी गति
(B) विशिष्ट कक्षाएँ व प्रोत्साहन
(C) उन्हें दण्ड देना
(D) उन पर ध्यान नहीं देना
Q. 16. If the actual age of the child is 13 years and mental age is 14 years, then what will be the Intelligence Quotient ?
(A) 112.50
(B) 107.69
(C) 110-25
(D) 100-50
यदि बालक की वास्तविक आयु 13 वर्ष हो और मानसिक आयु 14 वर्ष हो तो बुद्धिलब्धि क्या होगी ?
(A) 112.50
(B) 107.69
(C) 110-25
(D) 100-50
Q. 17. The ‘Classical conditioning theory’ of learning was propounded by
(A) Skinner
(B) Pavlov
(C) Thorndike
(D) Kohlberg
सीखने का ‘क्लासिकल कंडीशनिंग सिद्धान्त’ प्रतिपादित किया था
(A) स्किनर ने
B) पावलॉव ने
(C) थार्नडाइक ने
(D) कोहलबर्ग ने
Q. 18. Cause of juvenile delinquency is
(A) parental conflict
(B) sympathetic behavior of family members
(C) working in family with mutual consent
(D) wealthy family
बाल-अपराध का कारण है
(A) माता-पिता में अनबन रहना
(B) परिवार के सदस्यों का सहानुभूतिपूर्ण व्यवहार
(C) परिवार में आपस की सहमति से कार्य होना
(D) समृद्ध परिवार
Q. 19. Which of the following has been ignored in children’s Free and CompulsoryEducation Rights Act, 2009 ?
(A) Facilitate training of teachers
(B) Ensuring entry of roaming boys
(C) Defining Academic calender
(D) Arrangement of education after 14 years
बालकों के मुफ्त एवं अनिवार्य शिक्षा अधिकार अधिनियम, 2009 में निम्न में से किस पर ध्यान नहीं बालक दिया गया है ?
(A) अध्यापकों को प्रशिक्षण सुविधा प्रदान करना
(B) घुमन्तु बालकों के प्रवेश को सुनिश्चित करना
(C) एकेडमिक कैलेण्डर को निर्धारित करना
(D) 14 वर्ष के पश्चात शिक्षा व्यवस्था . .
Q. 20. Which of the following steps make owing steps makes research, action research?
(A) Construction of sub-concepts
(B) Programme implementation and evaluation
(C) Generalization
(D) Review of Literature
निम्न में से कौन-सा चरण शोध को क्रियात्मक अनुसंधान बनाता है ?
(A) उपकल्पनाओं का निर्माण .
(B) प्रोग्राम का क्रियान्वयन एवं मूल्यांकन
(C) सामान्यीकरण
(D) साहित्य का पुनरीक्षण
Q. 21. The aim of adding Art Education in N.C.F.-2005 is
(A) to improve logical reasoning
(B) to develop scientific outlook
(C) to appreciate cultural heritage
(D) to visit historical sights
एन.सी.एफ. -2005 में कला शिक्षा को जोड़ने का उद्देश्य है
(A) तार्किक चिन्तन में अभिवृद्धि
(B) वैज्ञानिक दृष्टिकोण का विकास
IS) सांस्कृतिक विरासत की सराहना
(D) ऐतिहासिक जगहों का परिभ्रमण
Q. 22. Development is never ending process, this idea is associated with
(A) Principle of continuity
(B) Principle of interrelation
(C) Principle of interaction
(D) Principle of integration
विकास कभी न समाप्त होने वाली प्रक्रिया है, यह विचार सम्बन्धित है
(A) निरन्तरता के सिद्धान्त से
(B) अन्तः सम्बन्ध के सिद्धान्त से
(C) अन्योन्य क्रिया के सिद्धान्त से
(D) एकीकरण के सिद्धान्त से
Q. 23. Which of the following is not a component of intelligence ?
(A) Logical thinking
(B) Vocational choices
(C) Memory
(D) Learning from experiences
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा बुद्धि का घटक नहीं है ?
(A) तार्किक चिन्तन .
(B) व्यावसायिक रुचियाँ
(C) स्मृति
(D) अनुभवों से सीखना
Q. 24. Which of the following is not a psycho-motor activity of a child ?
(A) Thinking
(B) Writing
(C) Throwing a ball
(D) Playing
निम्नलिखित में से बालक की कौन-सी प्रक्रिया मनोगत्यात्मक नहीं है ?
(A) सोचना
(B) लिखना
(C) गेंद फेंकना
(D) खेलना
Q. 25. Who gave 16 P.F. questionnaire to assess personality ?
(A) Gordon Allport
(B) Sheldon
(C) R.B. Cattell
(D) Sprenger
व्यक्तित्व को मापने के लिये सोलह पी.एफ. प्रश्नावली किसने दी ?
(A) गोर्डन आलपोर्ट
(B) शैल्डन
(C) आर.बी. कैटल
(D) स्प्रैन्जर
Q. 26. Which of the following is a characteristic of a gifted learner ?
(A) He can feel understimulated and bored if the class activities are not challenging enough
(B) He gets aggressive and frustrated
(C) He engages in ritualistic behavior like hand flapping and rocking etc.
(D) He is highly temperamental
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी विशेषता प्रतिभावान शिक्षार्थी की है ?
(A) यदि कक्षा की गतिविधियाँ अधिक चुनौतीपूर्ण नहीं होती हैं, तो वह कम प्रेरित अनभव करता है और ऊब जाता है
(B) वह आक्रामक और कुंठित हो जाता है
(C) वह रस्मी व्यवहार करता है जैसे हाथ थपथपाना, हिलना आदि
(D) वह बहुत ही तुनकमिज़ाजी होता है
Q. 27. Inclusion of children with special needs
(A) is an unrealistic goal
(B) will increase the burden on the schools
(C) requires a change in attitude, content and approach to
(D) is detrimental to children without disabilities
विशेष आवश्यकता वाले बच्चों को शामिल करना
(A) एक अवास्तविक लक्ष्य है ।
(B) विद्यालयों पर भार बढ़ा देगा ..
(C) शिक्षण के प्रति दृष्टिकोण, विषय-वस्तु और धारणा परिवर्तन की अपेक्षा रखता है ।
(D) जिनमें अक्षमता न हो, उन बच्चों के लिये हानिकारक है
Q. 28. Problem solving is not
(A) goal directed
(B) a skill that can be learned and practised
(C) based on the understanding and use of sequential steps
(D) about musical ability
समस्या समाधान नहीं है
(A) लक्ष्योन्मुखी
(B) एक कौशल है जो सीखा जा सकता है और जिसका अभ्यास किया जा सकता है
(C) समझ और क्रमिक चरणों के प्रयोग पर आधारित है
(D) संगीत सम्बन्धी योग्यता के बारे में
Q. 29. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) of measuring personality is a …
(A) subjective technique
(B) objective technique
(C) projective technique
(D) experimental technique
प्रासंगिक अन्तर्बोध परीक्षण व्यक्तित्व को मापने की
(A) आत्मनिष्ठ विधि है
(B) वस्तुनिष्ठ विधि है
(C) प्रक्षेपीय विधि है
(D) प्रयोगात्मक विधि है
Q. 30. Which of the following leads to creativity ?
(A) Emotional thinking
(B) Convergent thinking
(C) Divergent thinking.
(D) Egoistic thinking
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सृजनात्मकता की ओर ले जाता है ?
(A) सांवेगिक चिन्तन
(B) अभिसारी चिन्तन
(C) अपसारी चिन्तन
(D) अहंवादी चिन्तन
खण्ड – II
भाषा – I
हिन्दी
इस खण्ड में कुल 30 प्रश्न हैं ।
सभी प्रश्न अनिवार्य हैं ।
Q. 31. निम्नलिखित में से रचना शिक्षण का उद्देश्य नहीं है
(A) साहित्य सृजन की प्रेरणा देना
(B) क्रमबद्धता बनाना
(C) विविध भाषाओं का ज्ञान कराना
(D) व्याकरण सम्मत कार्य करना
Q. 32. ‘अभिक्रमित अनुदेशन विधि’ के सिद्धांत में सम्मिलित है
(A) स्व-गति का सिद्धांत
(B) परगति का सिद्धांत
(C) समूह गति का सिद्धांत
(D) कक्षीय एकता का सिद्धांत
Q. 33. निम्न में से कौन-सा ‘सस्वर वाचन’ का भेद नहीं है ?
(A) आदर्श वाचन
(B) अनुकरण वाचन
(C) समवेत वाचन
(D) गहन वाचन
Q. 34. एक अच्छे मूल्यांकन की विशेषता नहीं है
(A) वैधता
(B) वस्तुनिष्ठता
(C) आत्मनिष्ठता.
(D) व्यापकता
Q. 35. वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न का प्रकार है
(A) आलोचनात्मक प्रश्न
(B) विश्लेषणात्मक प्रश्न
(C) मिलान प्रश्न
(D) व्याख्यात्मक प्रश्न
Q. 36. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शिक्षाशास्त्री पढ़ाने से पहले लिखना सिखाने के पक्ष में हैं ?
(A) हेलन पार्कहर्स्ट
(B) किलपैट्रिक
(C) स्टीवेन्सन
(D) मारिया मॉण्टेसरी
Q. 37. मौन पठन का लाभ है .
(A) उच्चारण अभ्यास हेतु अवसर मिलता है ।
B) स्वाध्याय की प्रवृत्ति विकसित होती है ।
(C) पठन की शुद्धता का संवर्द्धन होता है ।
(D) एकाग्रचित्त होकर ध्वनियों का शुद्ध उच्चारण करना ।
Q. 38. बुलेटिन बोर्ड है
(A) श्रव्य सामग्री
(D) दृश्य सामग्री
(C) आयामी सामग्री
(D) कोमल सामग्री
Q. 39. सी०सी०ई० में व्यापकता का आशय निम्नांकित में से नहीं है
(A) विषयों की व्यापकता
(B) उपकरणों की व्यापकता
(C) दायरे की व्यापकता
(D) प्रश्नों की व्यापकता
Q. 40. वर्तनी की विधिवत शिक्षा का ज्ञान किस स्तर पर होना चाहिए ?
(A) प्राथमिक स्तर
(B) उच्च प्राथमिक स्तर
(C) माध्यमिक स्तर
(D) उच्च माध्यमिक स्तर
Q. 41. ‘डॉ० चंद्रा अदम्य साहस की धनी थी’ वाक्य में प्रयुक्त ‘साहस’ शब्द किस व्याकरणिक कोटि का है?
(A) अव्यय
(B) भाववाचक संज्ञा
(C) क्रिया-विशेषण
(D) गुणवाचक विशेषण
Q. 42. “गोमूत्र असाध्य रोगों के उपचार में ‘भी’ उपयोगी है ।” रेखांकित शब्द के संदर्भ में उपयुक्त विकल्प है
(A) कारक चिह्न
(B) क्रिया
(C) अव्यय
(D) समुच्चय-बोधक
Q. 43. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन त्रुटिपूर्ण है ? .
(A) सरल वाक्य में एक उद्देश्य और एक ही विधेय होता है ।
(B) संयुक्त वाक्य में दो सरल वाक्यों को ‘और’, ‘या’ आदि समुच्चय-बोधक अव्ययों से जोड़ दिया जाता है ।
(C) ऐसे वाक्य जिनमें एक प्रधान उपवाक्य हो तथा अन्य उपवाक्य उस पर आश्रित हो, उसे मिश्रवाक्य कहते हैं ।
(D) वर्णों के सार्थक समूह से वाक्य बनते हैं ।
Q. 44. “यवन सैनिक घोड़े पर बैठकर आया; पर किले का दरवाजा बंद था । जैसे ही उसने दरवाजा खटखटाया, चिड़िया पर फड़फड़ाकर उड़ गई ।” उपर्युक्त वाक्यों में प्रयुक्त ‘पर’ शब्द के अर्थों का सही क्रम है
(A) किन्तु, ऊपर, पक्षी
(B) ऊपर, पंख, किन्तु
(C) पंख, ऊपर, किन्तु
(D) ऊपर, किन्तु, पंख
Q. 45. “प्रकृति ने ग्रेनाइट तथा संगमरमर से मेरे क्षेत्र को नवाज़ा है ।”
इस वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्दों का क्रमशः सही भाषाई रूप बताइए :
(A) विदेशी, विदेशी, विदेशी
(B) विदेशी, देशज, देशज
(C) देशज, देशज, देशज
(D) विदेशी, विदेशी, देशज
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश के आधार पर प्रश्न संख्या 46 से 50 तक के उत्तर दीजिए :
क्रोध सब मनोविकारों से फुर्तीला है, इसी से अवसर पड़ने पर यह और मनोविकारों का भी साथ देकर उनकी तुष्टि का साधक होता है । कभी वह दया के साथ कूदता है कभी घृणा के । एक क्रूर कुमार्गी किसी अनाथ अबला पर अत्याचार कर रहा है । हमारे हृदय में उस अनाथ अबला के प्रति दया उमड़ रही है । पर दया की अपनी शक्ति तो त्याग और कोमल व्यवहार तक होती है । यदि वह स्त्री अर्थकष्ट में होती तो उसे कुछ देकर हम अपने दया के वेग को शांत कर लेते । ।
Q. 46. निम्नलिखित में से ‘स्त्री’ शब्द का पर्यायवाची है
(A) ईहा
(B) आपगा
(C) शिला
(D) अबला
Q. 47. ‘अत्याचार’ शब्द में कौन-सा उपसर्ग है ? .
(A) अत्
(B) अति
(C) अती
(D) अत्य
Q. 48. निम्नलिखित में से भाववाचक संज्ञा है
(A) अपनी
(B) अवसर
(C) दया
(D) यह
Q. 49. निम्नलिखित में से किस शब्द में प्रत्यय लगा हुआ है ?
(A) वेग
(B) फुर्तीला
(C) अनाथ
(D) उमड़
Q. 50. ‘मनोविकार’ शब्द का समास-विग्रह होगा
(A) मन से विकार
(B) मन और विकार
(C) मन का विकार
(D) मन के द्वारा विकार
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश के आधार पर प्रश्न संख्या 51 से 55 तक के प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए :
हमें स्वराज्य मिल गया, परंतु सुराज हमारे लिए सुखद स्वप्न ही है । इसका प्रधान कारण यह है कि देश को समृद्ध बनाने के उद्देश्य से कठोर परिश्रम करना हमने अब तक नहीं सीखा । श्रम का महत्व और मूल्य हम जानते ही नहीं । हम अब भी आरामतलब हैं । हम कम से कम काम द्वारा जीविका उपार्जित करना चाहते हैं । यह दूषित मनोवृत्ति राष्ट्र की आत्मा में जा बैठी है । यदि हम इससे मुक्त नहीं होते तो देश आगे नहीं बढ़ सकता और स्वराज्य सुराज में परिणत नहीं हो सकता
Q. 51. ‘हमें स्वराज्य मिल गया’ वाक्य में कौन-सा काल है ?
(A) सामान्य भूतकाल
(B) संभाव्य भविष्यत्
(C) संभाव्य भूतकाल
(D). आज्ञार्थ वर्तमान
Q. 52. निम्न में से कौन-सा शब्द ‘पुल्लिंग’ है ? .
(A) मनोवृत्ति
(B) जीविका
(C) बैठी
(D) स्वप्न
Q. 53. गद्यांश के अनुसार ‘परिणत’ शब्द का अर्थ है
(A) विनम्र
(B) विवाहित
(C) रूपान्तरित
(D), विनीत
Q. 54. ‘मनोवृत्ति’ शब्द का बहुवचन है
(A) मनोवृत्तों
(B) मनोवृत्तियाँ
(C) मनोवृत्तिओं
(D) मनोवृत्ताओं
Q. 55. ‘दूषित’ शब्द का अर्थ है
(A) दोषयुक्त
(B) दोषरहित
(C) दोषमुक्त
(D). दोष से विरक्त
Q. 56. वाक्य के मुख्यतः कितने अंग होते हैं ?
(A) एक
(B) दो
(C) तीन
(D) चार
Q. 57. ‘वस्तु की पूर्ति की तुलना में माँग अधिक’ आशय की लोकोक्ति कौन-सी है ?
(A) एक अनार सौ बीमार
(B) आधा तीतर आधा बटेर
(C) ऊँची दुकान फीके पकवान
(D) नौ कनौजिया तेरह चूल्हे
Q. 58. ‘घास काटना’ मुहावरे का सही अर्थ है
(A) कठिनतापूर्वक कार्य करना
(B) गैर-जिम्मेदार होना
(C) कुछ भी असर न होना
(D) गुणवत्ता का ध्यान रखे बिना जैसे-तैसे काम निपटाना
Q. 59. ‘वे मेरे घर आएँगे, क्योंकि उन्हें अजमेर शहर घूमना है ।’ रचना की दृष्टि से यह का है ?
(A) मिश्र वाक्य
(B) सरल वाक्य
(C) संयुक्त वाक्य
(D) विधानवाचक वाक्य
Q. 60. ‘शगुन मेरी सहेली है’ अर्थ के आधार पर इस वाक्य का प्रकार है
(A) संभावनार्थक वाक्य
(B) विधानवाचक वाक्य
(C) इच्छावाचक
(D) संकेतार्थक
SECTION – II
LANGUAGE – I
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this section.
All questions are compulsory.
Q. 31. True or False answer type question is a type of …………. question.,
(A) Essay type
(B) Objective type
(C) Descriptive type
(D) Short answer type
Q. 32. Unit test is an expression of ………… evaluation.
(A) normative
(B) effective
(C) formative
(D) conative
Q. 33. Evaluation is a process of
(A) Ascertaining the quality, value of outcomes
(B) Determining the extent of the achievement of objectives
(C) Comparing the outcomes of instructions
(D) All of these
Q. 34. Which of the following is a disadvantage of Situational Approach ?
(A) It creates interest in teaching,
(B) It is action based approach
(C) Text-books cannot be taught by this method
(D) Material aids are used in this approach
Q. 35. The text-books help the teachers in which of the following ways ?
(A) It makes the teaching of English systematic
(B) It checks the teacher from going astray
(C) It facilitates self-learning and self-study
(D) All of these
Q. 36. In which of the following sentences is ‘have used as main verb ?
(A) I have a shower every morning
(B) I have lost the faith now
(C) I have never been to Delhi before
(D) I have admitted my fault
Q. 37. In which active and. I the following methods of teaching English language Deductive techniques’ of teaching are used ?
(A) Grammar cum Translation method
(B) Direct method
(C) Substitution method
(D) Bilingual method
Q. 38. Which commission in 1948 accepted the importance of English language in our curriculum ?
(A) Dr. Radhakrishnan Commission
(B) The Secondary Education Commission
(C) Central Advisory Board of Education
(D) Kothari Education Commission
Q. 39. Who of the following proposed Listening-Speaking-Writing-Reading order of teaching for learning English as foreign language ?
(A) E. C. Kittson
(B) Robert Paul
(C) J. A. Bright
(D) P. Gurrey
Q. 40. Which of the following approaches aims at teaching English by establishing thorough drill and repetition of about 275 graded structures ?
(A) Structural Approach
(B) Situational Approach
(C) Bilingual Approach
(D) Communicative Approach
Q. 41. Dr. West’s New Method’ of teaching English emerged to overcome the limitations of which of the following methods ?
(A) Grammar cum Translation method
(B) Substitution method
(C) Direct method
(D) Situational method
Q. 42. In which of the following types of substitution the variables cannot be interchanged ?
(A) Simple substitution
(B) Compound substitution
(C) Complex substitution
(D) Grammatical substitution
Q. 43. Which of the following is an advantage of Communicative Approach ?
(A) It teaches ways of expression
(B) It ignores grammar and structures of our languages
(C) Its practical utility is yet to be awaited
(D) It is not properly and scientifically developed as yet
Q. 44. Which of the following is related to the mental development of the learner ?
(A) Exposition
(B) Imitation
(C) Characterization
(D) Comprehension
Q. 45. Which of the following is an audio-visual teaching aid ?
(A) Gramophone
(B) Flannel-board
(C) Television
(D) Radio
Q. 46. Which of the following prefixes can be used to form the opposite of the word ‘legal’?
(A) il –
(B) dis –
(C) un –
(D) im –
Q. 47. Correct one word for “That which never fails” is
(A) unfailable
(B) infailable
(C) unfallible
(D) insallible
Q. 48. Which of the following has a correct structure of a question ?
(A) Does Ann has a car ?
(B) Does Ann have a car ?
(C) Have Ann a car ?
(D) Dịd Ann has a car ?
Q. 49. Which of the following is correct ?
(A) I hope he’ll succeed at his work
(B) I hope he’ll succeed on his work
(C) I hope he’ll succeed in his work
(D) I hope hell succeed for his work
Q. 50. Which of the following is correct?
(A) The old car moved much more faster than the new car.
(B) The old car moved more faster than the new car
(C) The old car moved much faster than the new car
(D). The old car moved much more fast than the new car
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow : Prose Passage ( Q. Nos, 51-55 ) :
Too much importance must not be attached to the wrong acts done by children, particularly if they happen to be of minor nature. Many boys and girls at a young age are likely to be in the habit of stealing, neglecting their studies, slipping out of their classes or using bad language. In nearly every case, the root cause of the trouble is the fact that proper care of the child is not taken in the house or sufficient interest is not shown to him. But if the parents were wise, they would correct the faults of their children by paying more attention to them. Whatever the case, one thing should never be done. Bad things in the children should never be repressed, that is, they should not be compelled to change for the better under fear of the rod. Physical punishment does not improve them. It only makes them worse than before.
Q. 51. Which of the following phrases has a determiner in it?
(A) Cause of the trouble
(B) Change for the better
(C) Worse than before
(D) Many boys and girls
Q. 52. ………… the root cause of the trouble is the fact …… ‘is’ in this part of sentence has been.
(A) main verb
(B) helping verb
(C) conjunction
(D) preposition
Q. 53. Which of the following has the three degrees of the adjective in their correct form ?
(A) Much, more, most
(B) Many, much, most
(C) Bad, badder, baddest
(D) Like, likelier, likeliest
Q. 54. ‘…………. in the habit of stealing, neglectin their studies, slipping out of their classes ….’. Underlined words in this part of sentence are used as
(A) main verbs
(B) conjunction
(C) gerunds
(D) adjectives
Q. 55. Which of the following has a possessive pronoun in it ?
(A) Bad things in the children
(B) Faults of their children
(C) They would correct the faults
(D) Whatever the case
Q. 56. Which of the following structures of a question is correct ?
(A) Why didn’t you told me that ?
(B) Why you didn’t tell me that ?
(C) Why didn’t you that tell me?
(D) Why didn’t you tell me that ?
Q. 57. Which of the following structures of a question is correct ?
(A) Will be they arrested if they refuse to leave ?
(B) Will they be arrested if they refuse to leave ?
(C) Will they be arrested if they refused to leave ?
(D) Will they be arrested if they will refuse to leave ?
Q. 58. Which of the following passive voice of thc given sentence is correct ?
‘All his friends laughed at him.’
(A) He was laughed by all his friends
(B) He was laughed at by all his friends
(C) He was laugh at by all his friends
(D) He was laughed at all his friends.
Q. 59. Which of the following words has a diphthong sound ?
(A) Speed
(B) Liquid
(C) Paternal
(D) Out
Q. 60. Which of the following words begins with the consonant sound /j/?
Q. 62. भाषायी कौशल के निर्धारित पक्षों में कौन-सा उपयुक्त नहीं है ? . .
(A) देखना
(B) सुनना
(C) बोलना
(D) पढ़ना
Q. 63. खेल विधि को प्रचलित करने का श्रेय है
(A) रायबर्न को
(B) मॉरीसन को
(C) थॉमस एम०रस्क को
(D) हैनरी कोल्डवेल कुक को
Q. 64. ‘मैं कलम से किताब लिखता हूँ’ में कारक का भेद है
(A) कर्म कारक
(B) संबंध कारक
(C) करण कारक
(D) अपादान कारक
Q. 65. व्याकरण शिक्षण की किस प्रणाली को विकृत रूप में ‘सुग्गा प्रणाली’ भी कहते हैं ?
(A) अव्याकृति प्रणाली
(B) सहयोग प्रणाली
(C) पाठ्यपुस्तक प्रणाली
(D) निगमन प्रणाली
Q. 66. ‘हस्तलिखित’ शब्द में कौन-सा समास है ?
(A) तत्पुरुष
(B) बहुव्रीहि
(C) अव्ययीभाव
(D) द्विगु
Q. 67. किंडरगार्टन शिक्षण पद्धति में प्रयुक्त ‘किंडरगार्टन’ शब्द का अर्थ है
(A) बच्चों का उद्यान
(B) निर्वैयक्तिक भाव
(C) आन्तरिक शक्ति
(D) उद्यान के बच्चे
Q. 68. मौखिक अभिव्यक्ति की दक्षता में सहायक है
(A) प्राथना-पत्र
(B) वाद-विवाद
(C) निबंध
(D) पत्र
Q. 69. जीवन के आरंभिक दौर में मातृभाषा सीखने का सबसे प्रमुख स्रोत है
(A) पुस्तक
(B) विद्यालय
(C) परिवार
(D) संचार साधन
Q. 70. निम्नलिखित में से वाचन शिक्षण का उद्देश्य है
(A) विद्यार्थियों की कल्पनाशक्ति का विकास करना
(B) विद्यार्थियों की लेखनशक्ति का विकास करना
(C) प्रत्येक शब्द पर उचित बल देकर पठनशक्ति का विकास
(D) विभिन्न संदर्भो में द्रुतलेखन का विकास करना
Q. 71. ‘भाषा प्रयोगशाला शिक्षक के स्थान पर प्रतिस्थापन नहीं है यह वाक्य है
(A) असत्य
(B) अस्पष्ट
(C) सत्य
(D) अनुपयुक्त
Q. 72. पाठ्यपुस्तक का बाह्य गुण है
(A) विषयवस्तु
(B) भाषा
(C) शैली
(D) शीर्षक
Q. 73. निम्नलिखित में से श्रव्य उपकरण है
(A) पोस्टर
(B) चार्ट
(C) ग्रामोफोन
(D) मानचित्र
Q. 74. वस्तुनिष्ठ परीक्षा में सम्मिलित है
(A) निबंधात्मक परीक्षा
(B) मिलान पद परीक्षा
(C) लघूत्तरात्मक परीक्षा
(D) पर्यवेक्षण
Q. 75. विद्यार्थी के लगातार मूल्यांकन हेतु उपयुक्त परीक्षा पद्धति है
(A) सतत् एवं व्यापक मूल्यांकन पद्धति
(B) सत्रांत परीक्षा पद्धति
(C) वार्षिक परीक्षा पद्धति
(D) मौखिक परीक्षा पद्धति
निम्नलिखित पद्यांश के आधार पर प्रश्न संख्या 76 से 79 तक के उत्तर दीजिए :
हम पंछी उन्मुक्त गगन के, पिंजरबद्ध न गा पाएँगे,
कनक-तीलियों से टकराकर
पुलकित पंख टूट जाएँगे।
स्वर्ण-श्रृंखला के बंधन में
अपनी गति, उड़ान सब भूले,
बस सपनों में देख रहे हैं
तरु की फुनगी पर के झूले ।
हम बहता जल पीने वाले
मर जाएँगे भूखे-प्यासे,
कहीं भली है कटुक निबौरी
कनक कटोरी की मैदा से ।
Q. 76. उपर्युक्त कविता का केन्द्रीय भाव है
(A) स्वातन्त्र्य प्रेम
(B) देश प्रेम
(C) समाजवाद
(D) मातृभक्ति
Q. 77. ‘कहीं भली है कटुक निबौरी, कनक कटोरी की मैदा से’ पंक्ति में कौन-सा अलंकार है ?
(A) यमक
(B) अनुप्रास
(C) सन्देह
(D) श्लेष
Q. 78. ‘स्वर्ण-शृंखला के बंधन में, अपनी गति, उड़ान सब भूले’ पंक्ति में स्वर्ण-शृंखला’ किसे कहा गया
(A) वैभव-विलासयुक्त गुलामी को
(B) सोने की जंजीरों को
(C) वैभव रहित गुलामी को
(D) संपन्नता के सुख को
Q. 79. निम्न में से तद्भव शब्द है
(A) स्वर्ण
(B) पंछी
(C) कटुक
(D) किरण
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश के आधार पर प्रश्न संख्या 80 से 84 तक के उत्तर दीजिए :
इतिहास प्रमाणित कर देता है कि ऐसे दासत्व बहुत काल के उपरान्त एक अद्भुत संहारक शक्ति को जन्म देते हैं, जिसकी बाढ़ को रोकने में शक्तिशाली भी समर्थ नहीं हो सके । मनुष्य स्वभावतः जीवन से बहुत प्यार करता है, परन्तु जब सहयोगियों के निष्ठुर उत्पीड़न से वह नितान्त दुवह हो उठता है, तब उसकी ममता घोरतम विरक्ति में परिवर्तित हो जाती है । पीड़ितों का समाधान संभव हो सकता है, परन्तु ऐसे में हताश और जीवन के प्रति निर्मम व्यक्तियों का संभाषण संभव नहीं है । ऐसे व्यक्तियों का वेग आँधी के समान चक्षुहीन, बाढ़ के समान दिशाहीन और विद्युत के समान लक्ष्यहीन हो जाता है।
Q. 80. निम्न में से स्त्रीलिंग शब्द है
(A) मनुष्य
(B) ममता
(C) निष्ठुर
(D) सबल
Q. 81. ‘संहारक’ शब्द का संधि-विच्छेद है
(A) सम् + हारक
(B) सम + हारक
(C) सन + हारक
(D) सन् + हारक
Q. 82. निम्न में से कौन-सा विकल्प जातिवाचक संज्ञा से भाववाचक संज्ञा बनने का है ?
(A) शून्यता
(B) उत्पीड़न
(C) उपयोगिता
(D) दासत्व
Q. 83. ‘बाढ़ के समान दिशाहीन’ वाक्यांश में रेखांकित पद है
(A) संज्ञा
(B) सर्वनाम
(C) क्रिया
(D) विशेषण
Q. 84. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द ‘दुर्वह’ का समानार्थी है ?
(A) सिंचित
(B) असह्य
(C) गन्तव्य
(D) दिशाहीन
Q. 85. निम्नलिखित में से असंगत कथन है :
(A) सरल वाक्य में एक उद्देश्य व एक ही विधेय होता है ।
(B) मिश्र वाक्य में एक से अधिक मुख्य उपवाक्य तथा अन्य आश्रित उपवाक्य होते हैं।
(C) संयुक्त वाक्य में दो या दो से अधिक साधारण वाक्य किसी संयोजक से जुड़े रहते हैं ।
(D) मिश्र वाक्य व उपवाक्यों को जोड़ने का काम समुच्चयबोधक करत
Q. 86. ‘वाह ! कितना सुन्दर दृश्य है ।’ यह वाक्य अर्थ की दृष्टि से है :
(A) संभावनार्थक
(B) संकेतार्थक
(C) विस्मयादिबोधक
(D) प्रश्नवाचक
Q. 87. ‘आँखें बिछाना’ मुहावरे का अर्थ है
(A) प्रेमपूर्वक स्वागत करना
(B) अत्यन्त प्रिय होना
(C) जरा भी कष्ट न आने देना
(D) वश में न रह पाना
Q. 88. ‘एक तो करेला, दूसरा नीम चढ़ा’ लोकोक्ति का अभिप्राय है
(A) सब ओर कष्ट होना
(B) दूसरे पर दोष मढ़ना
(C) एकाधिक दोष होना
(D) मात्र दिखावा
Q. 89. ‘पुलिस ने चोर को दण्ड दिया’ वाक्य में प्रयुक्त विभक्ति रूप है
(A) कर्ता एवं कर्म
(B) कर्म एवं अपादान
(C) कर्ता एवं करण
(D) कर्ता एवं संप्रदान
Q. 90. ‘धीरे-धीरे’ किस व्याकरणिक कोटि का शब्द है ?
(A) क्रिया
(B) क्रिया-विशेषण
(C) विशेषण
(D) सर्वनाम
SECTION – III
LANGUAGE – II
ENGLISH
There are 30 questions in all in this section.
All questions are compulsory.
Q. 61. ‘An elegy is
(A) a joyful lyric
(B) a poem on death of someone dear
(C) a sonnet on nature
(D) a marriage song
Q. 62. The speaker / narrator in the Pastoral elegy is
(A) a musician
(B) a shepherd
(C) a painter
(D) a sculptor
Q. 63 ………….. is the rhyme scheme of the English sonnet.
(A) abab, cdcd, efef, gg
(B) abab, abab, abc, cde
(C) abc, abc, def, def, gg
(D) abcde, abcde, efef
Q. 64. The drama that developed from religious rituals was
A) Classical drama
(B) Elizabethan drama
(C) Medieval drama
(D) Melodrama
Q. 65. /’beri/ is the correct transcription of
(A) beri
(B) berry
(C) bury
(D) beary
Q. 66. “Exist’ is transcribed as
(A). /egjhist
(B) /egziest/
(C) /egʻzıst/ –
(D) /Ig’zist/
Q. 67. The correct transcription of ‘virtue’ is
(A) /warchu:/
(B) /v3:t∫u:/
(C) /vərt∫u:/
(D) /w3:t∫u:/
Q. 68. Remedial classes play an important role for
(A) society
(B) bright students.
(C) disabled ones
(D) intelligent ones
Q. 69. An important feature of an adequate evaluation is
(A) it is irresponsible
(B) it is diagnostic
(C) it enhances learning
(D) it harasses students
(Q. Nos. 70-72 ):
“The wind lies asleep in the arms of the dawn
Like a child that has cried all night.”
Q. 70. The second line is an example of
(A) Simile
(B) Metaphor
(C) Personification
(D) Alliteration
Q. 71. Metaphor’ is defined as
(A) far fetched simile
(B) implied simile
(C) covert simile
(D) explicit simile
Q. 72. ……… is an example of personification in the above lines.
(A) Wind
(B) Child
(C) Night
(D) That
Q. 73. Blank verse is iambic pentameter
(A) without rhyme
(B) with rhyme
(C) with alternate rhyme
(D) without alternate rhyme
Q. 74. O wild west wind, thou breath of Autumn’s being.’
The above line contains
(A) Personificațion and alliteration
(B) Simile and alliteration
(C) Personification and simile a
(D) Metaphor and personification
Q. 75. …. I was no better than a dead man, I was alive and wa the shore.
(A) Thought
(B) If
(C) Yet
(D) Moreover
Q. 76. Measles ………… an infectious disease.
(A) are
(B) is
(C) will
(D) have
Q. 77. My friend and his father ……………. meeting us tomorrow.
(A) are
(B) is
(C) will
(D) have
Q. 78. The fisherman cast his net for two whole days but ………….. not get a good lot.
(A) can
(B) might
(C) could
(D) may
Q. 79. Ravi’s uncle guided him how he ………. attempt his test.
(A) can
(B) should
(C) may
(D) will
Q. 80. “Flying in the face of means
(A) respect
(B) pray
(C) reward
(D) insult
Q. 81. By fits and starts’ means
(A) not fit to start.
(B) good omen
(C) not regular
(b) speedily
(Q. Nos. 82-83): Read the following passage and answer the questions :
Watching television for a long time could lower academic performance. It ‘steals’ away the reading time. Time management is about self-discipline. Time must be managed between filled and unfilled time.’
Q. 82. …………….. may be an appropriate title for the given extract.
(A) Discipline
(B) Self-respect
(C) Time-management
(D) Television
‘His father never starved, but he couldn’t cast any doubt on the story. So he had to make an effort to hold his tongue.’
Q. 83. The linking devices used in the above extract belong to
(A) concession and contrast
(B) opinion and purpose
(C) condition and adding ideas
(D) contrast and consequence
Q. 84. ‘Adjust’ is transcribed as
Q. 85. Velar’ is the sound formed by
(A) the front of the tongue and the hard palate
(B) the lower lip and the upper teeth
(C) the blade of the tongue and teeth ridge
(D) the back of the tongue and the soft palate
Q. 86. Sounds ‘f’, ‘v’, ‘0’, ‘r’ etc. are
(A) semi-vowels
(B) lateral
(C) fricatives
(D) nasals.
Q. 87. Which of the following plays the basic role in learning a mother tongue ?
(A) Motivation
(B) Naturalness
(C) Habit formation
(D) Purpose
Q. 88. ……….. is one of the chief characteristics of Communicative Approach.
(A) Examples are given to make the things clear
(B) It does not need trained teachers
(C) Learner learns the target language as mother tongue v
(D) Textbook plays an important role
Q. 89. Linguistic variability or multilingualism is a …………. to acquire the knowledge of a foreign language.
In this Section, there are 2 sub-sections i.e. IV(a) Mathematics and Science and IV(b) Social Studies. Both the sub-sections consist of 60 Multiple choice Questions cach.
The candidate has to choose either IV(a) Mathematics and Science OR IV(b) Social studies as selected in the Online Application Form and answer all the 60 questions,
इस खण्ड में दो उपखण्ड अर्थात Va) गणित तथा विज्ञान एवं IV(b) सामाजिक अध्ययन हैं। दोनों उपखण्डों के प्रत्येक में 60 बहविकल्पीय प्रश्न हैं। परीक्षा या का IV(b) गणित तथा विज्ञान अथवा IVIb) सामाजिक अध्ययन, जिनका चयन ऑनलाइन पत्र में किया है, में से किसी एक उपखण्ड को चुनना है एवं सभी 60 प्रश्नों का उत्तर देना है।
SECTION – IV(a) / खण्ड – IV(a)
MATHEMATICS & SCIENCE / गणित तथा विज्ञान
There are 60 questions in all in this section. The candidates who have selected this subject must answer all the questions.
इस कुल 60 प्रश्न हैं। जिन अभ्यर्थियों ने इस विषय का चयन किया है उन्हें सभी प्रश्न करना अनिवार्य है।
Q. 91. The disease caused by virus is
(A) Typhoid
(B) Malaria
(C) Rabies
(D) Diarrhoea
वायरस जनित रोग है
(A) टॉयफाइड
(B) मलेरिया
(C) रेबीज
(D) दस्त
Q. 92. Yeast ( Khameer ) is an example of
(A) Bacteria
(B) Fungi
(C) Virus
(D) Algae
यीस्ट (खमीर) एक उदाहरण है
(A) जीवाणु का
(B) कवक का
(C) विषाणु का
(D) शैवाल का
Q. 93. Which of the following is a cold habitat plant ?
अंतरराष्ट्रीय मात्रक पद्धति में पास्कल किसका मात्रक है ?
(A) दाब
(B) कार्य
(C) ऊर्जा
(D) शक्ति
Q. 97. Method of heat transfer, by which heat emitted by the Sun reaches the Earth
(A) convection
(B) conduction
(C) radiation
(D) convection and conduction both
ऊष्मा संचरण की किस विधि द्वारा सर्य से उत्सर्जित ऊष्मा पृथ्वी तक पहुँचती है ?
(A) संवहन
(B) चालन
(C) विकिरण
(D) संवहन और चालन दोनों
Q. 98. An object is placed between two plane mirrors which are kept at 60° with each other. The number of images formed will be
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 7
परस्पर 60° के कोण पर रखे दो समतल दर्पणों के मध्य एक वस्त रखी है। बनने वाले प्रतिबिम्बों की संख्या होगी
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 7
Q. 99. Loudness of sound is determined by …………….. of sound.
(A) amplitude
(B) frequency
(C) pitch
(D) time period
ध्वनि की तीव्रता ध्वनि के/की …………… द्वारा निर्धारित की जाती है।
(A) आयाम
(B), आवृत्ति
(C) तारत्व
(D) आवर्त काल
Q. 100. When an object is placed in front of a concave mirror at its center of curvature, the image formed will be
(A) real, inverted and smaller than object
(B) real, inverted and equal to the size of object
(C) virtual, erect and smaller than object
(D) virtual, erect and equal to the size of object
जब किसी वस्तु को अवतल दर्पण के समक्ष उसके वक्रता केन्द्र पर रखा जाता है, तो बना प्रतिबिम्ब होगा
(A) वास्तविक, उलटा और वस्तु से छोटा
(B) वास्तविक, उलटा और वस्तु के साइज के बराबर
(C) आभासी, सीधा और वस्तु से छोटा
(D) आभासी, सीधा और वस्तु के साइज के बराबर
Q. 101. Which of the following features of mathematics makes it a global subject ?
(A) Language complexity
(B) Brevity of language
(C) Uniformity of language
(D) All of these
गणित की निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी विशेषता उसे एक वैश्विक विषय बनाती है ?
(A) भाषा की जटिलता
(B) भाषा की संक्षिप्तता
(C) भाषा की एकरूपता
(D) इनमें से सभी
Q. 102. Through mathematics teaching, children develop skills to control which of the following emotions ?
(A) Login
(B) Self-confidence
(C) Thinking power
(D) All of these
गणित शिक्षण के माध्यम से, बच्चे निम्नलिखित में से किस भावना को नियंत्रित करने के लिए कौशल विकसित करते हैं?
(A) तर्कशक्ति
(B) आत्मविश्वास
(C) विचार-शक्ति
(D) इनमें से सभी
Q. 103. What is the method of mathematics teaching in which the move is from unknown and in which the tendency to search is encouraged ?
(A) Synthetic method
(B) Analytic method
(C) Project method
(D) Laboratory method
गणित शिक्षण की कौन-सी विधि है जिसमें अज्ञात से ज्ञात की ओर चलते हैं व जिसमजान की प्रवृत्ति को प्रोत्साहन मिलता है ?
(A) संश्लेषण विधि
(B) विश्लेषण विधि
(C) परियोजना विधि
(D) प्रयोगशाला विधि
Q. 104. The community objective of defining mathematical terms is
(A) Cognitive
(B) Emotional
(C) Practical
(D) Functional
गणितीय पदों को परिभाषित करने का सामुदायिक उद्देश्य है
(A) संज्ञानात्मक
(B) भावुक
(C) व्यावहारिक
(D) कार्यात्मक
Q. 105. ………….. is necessary to find out mathematical errors in children.
(A) Remedial test
(B) Diagnostic test
(C) Oral test
(D) Nature test
बालकों में गणितीय त्रुटियों का पता लगाने के लिए आवश्यक है
(A) उपचारात्मक परीक्षण
(B) नैदानिक परीक्षण
(C) मौखिक परीक्षण
(D) स्वभाव परीक्षण
Q. 106. Denominator of a rational number exceeds its numerator by 8. If 17 is added to the numerator and 1 is subtracted from denominator we get the rational number 3/2 then the rational number is
(A) 13/21
(B) 21/13
(C) 13/7
(D) 7/13
एक परिमेय संख्या का ही उसके अंश से 8 अधिक है। यदि अंश में 17 जोड़ने पर और हर में से. 1 घटाने पर परिमेय संख्या 3/2 प्राप्त होती है, तब परिमेय संख्या है
(A) 13/21
(B) 21/13
(C) 13/7
(D) 7/13
Q. 107. The smallest square number which is divided by each of the numbers 7, 14 and 21 is
(A) 98
(B) 1764
(C) 394
(D) 2056
छोटी से छोटी वर्ग. संख्या जो संख्या 7, 14 और 21 में से प्रत्येक से विभाजित होती है, वह है
(A) 984
(B) 1764
(C) 394
(D) 2056
Q. 108. The valtheor 1380.000216+30.000343is
(A) 1.0
(B) 0.01
(C) 0.1
(D) 2.0
Q. 109. Shankar took a loan of Rs. 25,000 for purchasing a machine. How much amount will he repay after 1 year 6 months at annual rate of 12%, when interest is accumulated annually ?
(A) Rs. 25,850
(B) Rs. 27,680
(C) Rs. 30,000
(D) Rs. 29,680
शंकर मशीन खरीदने के लिए 25,000 रु० ऋण लेता है। वह 1 वर्ष 6 माह बाद 12% वार्षिक दर से कितना धन लौटायेगा जबकि ब्याज वार्षिक संयोजित होता है ?
(A) 25,850 रु०
(B) 27,680 रु०
(C) 30,000 रु०
(D) 29,680 रु०
Q. 110. Rajan purchased two ceiling fans at the rate Rs. 2,500 each. Out of which one fan was sold at 15% profit and other was sold at 8% loss. How much profit or loss percentage is obtained in the whole transaction ?
(A) 3.5% loss
(B) 7% profit
(C) 3.5% profit
(D) 1.5% loss
राजन दो छत पंखे 2,500 रु० प्रति पंखे की दर से खरीदे। उसमें से एक पंखे को 15% लाभ और दूसरे को 8% हानि से बेचा। इस सौदे में कितने प्रतिशत लाभ अथवा हानि हुई
(A) 3.5% हानि
(B) 7% लाभ
(C) 3.5% लाभ
(D) 1.5% हानि
Q. 111. A tank of 30 metre long, 20metre wide and 12 metre deep is dug in a rectangular field of length 588 metre and breadth 50 metre. The earth sand so dug out is spread evenly on the remaining part of the field. The height of the field raised by it is
(A) 25 meter
(B) 2.5 cm
(C) 2.5 metre
(D) 25 cm
588 मीटर लम्बे और 50 मीटर चौड़े एक आयताकार खेत में एक 30 मीटर लम्बा, 20 मीटर चौड़ा व 12 मीटर गहरा टांका खोदा जाता है। इस प्रकार खोद कर निकाली गई मिट्टी बालू को खेत के शेष भाग में एक समान रूप से फैला दिया जाता है। इससे खेत की बढ़ी हुई ऊँचाई होगी ।
(A) 25 मीटर
(B) 2-5 सेमी
(C) 2.5 मीटर
(D) 25 सेमी
Q. 112. Dimensions of a cuboid are 60 cm × 54 cm × 30 cm. How many cubes of side 6 cm can be placed in the cuboid ?
(A) 360
(B) 2700
(C) 450
(D) 300
एक घनाभ की विमाएँ 60 सेमी × 54 सेमी × 30 सेमी हैं। उस घनाभ के अन्दर 6 सेमी भुजा के कितने घन रखे जा सकते हैं।
(A) 360
(B) 2700
(C) 450
(D) 300
Q. 113. For the following frequency table, the number of persons whose weights are less than 60 kg is
(A) 26
(B) 21
(C) 29
(D) 32
Q. 114. Following pie chart represents expenses on different items in construction of a room. If total expenses in construction of the room are Rs. 2,00,000, then how much money was expended on labour ?
(A) Rs. 10,000
(B) Rs. 50,000
(C) Rs. 60,000
(D) Rs. 40,000
निम्न पाई चार्ट एक कमरे के निर्माण में विभिन्न मदों में खर्च को दर्शाता है। यदि कमरे के निर्माण में कुल 2,00,000 रु० लगते हैं तब मजदूरी पर कितने रुपये व्यय किये गये ?
(A) 10,000 रु०
(B) 50,000 रु०
(C) 60,000 रु०
(D) 40,000 रु०
Q. 115. A bag contains 15 red balls and some green balls. If the probability of drawing a green ball is , then the number of green balls is
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
एक थैले में 15 लाल गेंदें और कुछ हरी गेंदें हैं। यदि एक हरी गेंद निकालने की प्रायिकता तब हरी गेंदों की संख्या है
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
Q. 116. The value of is
(A) 25
(B) 5
(C) 125
(D) 625
का मान है
(A) 25
(B) 5
(C) 125
(D) 625
Q. 117. If (6)2x+1 ÷ 216 = 36 then the value of x is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 0
(D) 0.5
यदि (6)2x+1 ÷ 216 = 36 तब x का मान है
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 0
(D) 0.5
Q. 118. By subtracting -5x2 -7y2 – 4xy from 3xy +2y2 – 2x2 we get the expression
(A) 7xy-5y2 + 3x2
(B) -7xy + 7y2 – 3x2
(C) 7xy +7y2 -3x2
(D) xy – 9y2 – 7x2
Q. 119. Factors of expression 9a2 – 9ab – 40b2 are
(A) (3a-5b) (3a-5b)
(B) (3a+5b) (3a-8b)
(C) (3a-5b) (3a-8b)
(D) (3a+8b) (3a-8b)
व्यंजक 942-9ab-400-का गुणनखण्ड है
(A) (3a-5b) (3a-5b)
(B) (3a+5b) (3a-8b)
(C) (3a-5b) (3a-8b)
(D) (3a+8b) (3a-8b)
Q. 120. The value of (x2-7x-10) ÷ (x-2) is
(A) (x+1)
(B) (x+3). ‘
(C) (x+2)
(D) (x-5)
Q. 121. Fuse wire works on the basis of
(A) magnetic effect of current
(B) chemical effect of current
(C) thermal effect of current
(D) electromagnetic induction
फ्यूज़ तार जिस आधार पर कार्य करता है, वह है
(A) धारा का चुम्बकीय प्रभाव
(B) धारा का रासायनिक प्रभाव
(C) धारा का ऊष्मीय प्रभाव
(D) विद्युत चुम्बकीय प्रेरण
Q. 122. The escape velocity for any object on the Earth is
(A) 12.1 km/hour
(B) 12.1 km/sec
(C) 11.2 km/hour
(D) 11.2 km/sec
पृथ्वी पर किसी वस्तु का पलायन वेग होगा
(A) 12.1 किलोमीटर/घंटा
(B) 12.1 किलोमीटर/सेकंड
(C) 11-2 किलोमीटर/घंटा
(D) 11.2 किलोमीटर/सेकंड
Q. 123. A device used to store documents or pictures available on any o storc documents or pictures available on any paper into digital
(A) OMR
(B) Scanner
(C) Plotter
(D) MICR
कागज पर उपलब्ध दस्तावेज अथवा चित्रों को कंप्यूटर की डिजिटल मेमोरी में संग्रहित करने के लिए उपयोग में ली जाने वाली युक्ति है
(A) ओ एम आर (OMR)
(B) स्कैनर
(C) प्लॉटर
(D) एम आई सी आर (MICR)
Q. 124. Sb is the symbol for the element
(A) antimony
(B) selenium
(C) strontium
(D) tin
किस तत्व का प्रतीक है ?
(A) एंटीमनी
(B) सेलेनियम
(C) स्ट्रॉन्शियम
(D) टिन
Q. 125. Compound among the following is
(A) diamond
(B) graphite
(C) ozone
(D) water
निम्नलिखित में से यौगिक है
(A) हीरा
(B) ग्रेफाइट
(C) ओज़ोन
(D) जल
Q. 126. The site of fertilization in human female is
(A) Vagina
(B) Uterus
(C) Fallopian tube
(D) Ovary
मादा मानव में निषेचन स्थल है
(A) योनि
(B) गर्भाशय
(C) अण्ड वाहिनी (फेलोपियन) नलिका
(D) अण्डाशय
Q. 127. Most common mode of asexual reproduction in Hydra is
(A) Sporulation
(B) Binary fission
(C) Multiple fission
(D) Budding
हाइडा में सामान्यतया अलैंगिक जनन का प्रकार है
(A) बीजाणुकजनन
(B) द्वि-विखण्डन
(C) बहु-विखण्डन
(D) मुकुलन
Q. 128. The term ‘Hot spot’ was given by
(A) Ernst Haeckel
(B) A. G. Tansley
(C) Walter G. Rosen
(D) Norman Myers
‘तप्त स्थल’ शब्द दिया था
(A) अर्नस्ट हैकेल ने
(B) ए. जी. टेन्सले ने
(C) वाल्टर जी. रोसेन ने
(D) नॉरमन मेयरस ने
Q. 129. Which of the following techniques is most suitable for the disposal of biomedical waste?
(A) Land fill
(B) Incineration
(C) Recycling
(D) Disposal in water
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी तकनीक जैव चिकित्सीय अपशिष्ट के निस्तारण हेतु सर्वाः उपयुक्त है ?
(A) भूमि भराव
(B) भस्मीकरण
(C) पुनर्चक्रण
(D) जल में निस्तारण
Q. 130. Which of the following is known as ‘Birdman of India’?
(A) Salim Ali
(B) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(C) Homi Jehangir Bhabha
(D) C. V. Raman
निम्नलिखित में से किसको ‘भारत के बर्डमेन’ के रूप में जाना जाता है ?
(A) सलीम अली
(B) ए. पी. जे. अब्दुल कलाम
(C) होमी जहाँगीर भाभा
(D) सी. वी. रमन
Q. 131. Under Swachh Bharat Mission 20 volunteers can clean their village in 8 days. If village needs to be cleaned in 5 days, then how many volunteers will be required ?
(A) 20
(B) 32
(C) 15
(D) 30
स्वच्छ भारत अभियान के तहत 20 स्वयंसेवक अपने गांव को 8 दिन में स्वच्छ कर सकते हैं। यदि को 5 दिन में स्वच्छ करना है, तब कितने स्वयंसेवकों की आवश्यकता होगी ?
(A) 20
(B) 32
(C) 15
(D) 30
Q. 132. Partha moves from Jhunjhunu to Jodhpur by car to reach in 6 hours with an average speed of 60 km/hour. What will be average speed while returning, if it takes 4½ hours ?
(A) 80 km/hour
(B) 70 km/hour
(C) 90 km/hour
(D) 60 km/hour
पार्थ कार द्वारा झुन्झुनु से जोधपुर 60 किमी/घण्टा की औसत चाल से 6 घन्टे में पहुँचता है। वापस लौटते समय कार की औसत चाल क्या रही होगी यदि उसे 4½ घण्टे लगे ?
(A) 80 किमी/घण्टा
(B) 70 किमी/घण्टा
(C) 90 किमी/घण्टा
(D) 60 किमी/घण्टा
Q. 133. Three years back, the population of a village was 50000. After that, in the first year the rate of growth of population was 5%. In the second vear. due to epidemic, the population decreased by 10% and in the third year, the population growth rate was noticed to be by 4%. The present population of the village is
(A) 50000
(B) 53000
(C) 49140
(D) 51140
एक गांव की जनसंख्या तीन वर्ष पहले 50000 थी। उसके पश्चात् पहले वर्ष में जनसंख्या में 5% की बढ़ोतरी हुई। दूसरे वर्ष में महामारी के कारण जनसंख्या 10% घट गई तथा तीसरे वर्ष बढ़ोतरी की दर 4% पाई गई। गांव की वर्तमान जनसंख्या है
(A) 50000
(B) 53000
(C) 49140
(D) 51140
Q. 134. In given figure if p || q then the value of x is
(A) 55
(B) 95°
(C) 65°
(D) 105°
दिये गये चित्र में p || q तब x का मान है
(A) 55°
(B) 95°
(C) 65°
(D) 105°
Q. 135. It is given that ΔABC ≅ ΔFDE and AB = 5 cm, ∠B = 40° and ∠A = 80°. Which is of the following is true ?
(A) DF=5cm; ∠F = 60°
(B) DF = 5 cm; ∠E= 60°
(C) DE= 5cm; ∠E=60°
(D) DE = 5 cm; ∠D = 40°
दिया है कि ΔABC ≅ ΔFDE तथा AB = 5 सेमी, ∠B = 40° व ∠A = 80°, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सही है ?
(A) DF=5cm; ∠F = 60°
(B) DF = 5 cm; ∠E= 60°
(C) DE= 5cm; ∠E=60°
(D) DE = 5 cm; ∠D = 40°
Q. 136. The main cumin producing districts of Rajasthan are
(A) Baran, Chittorgarh, Jhalawar
(B) Alwar, Jaipur, Nagaur
(C) Sri Ganganagar, Hanumangarh, Bikaner
(D) Jalore, Jodhpur, Barmer
राजस्थान में जीरा के प्रमुख उत्पादक जिले हैं
(A) बारां, चित्तौड़गढ़, झालावाड़
(B) अलवर, जयपुर, नागौर
(C) श्री गंगानगर, हनुमानगढ़, बीकानेर
(D) जालोर, जोधपुर, बाड़मेर
Q. 137. Which of the following cell organelles has forming face and maturation face ?
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Golgi body
(C) Lysosome
(D) Plastid
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से कोशिकांग में संरूपण तल तथा परिपक्वन तल पाये जाते हैं ?
(A) माइटोकोन्ड्रिया
(B) गॉल्जी काय
(C) लाइसोसोम
(D) लवक
Q. 138. The number of molar teeth present in upper jaw of an adult man is
(A) two
(B) four
(C) Six
(D) eight
वयस्क मनुष्य के ऊपरी जबड़े में उपस्थित चर्वणक दाँतों की संख्या होती है
(A) दो
(B) चार
(C) छः
(D) आठ
Q. 139. Out of the following which comes under ‘product of science’ ?
(A) Scientific attitude
(B) Formulation of hypothesis
(C) Scientific laws
(D) Experimentation
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा, विज्ञान के उत्पाद, के अन्तर्गत आता है ?
(A) वैज्ञानिक अभिवृत्ति
(B) परिकल्पना बनाना
(C) वैज्ञानिक नियम
(D) प्रयोग करना
Q. 140. In science teaching, which type of learning should be planned after diagnostic the learning difficulties of the students ?
(A) Team teaching.
(B) Remedial teaching
(C) Micro-teaching
(D) Diagnostic teaching
विद्याथियो की अधिगम कठिनाइयों के निदान के उपरान्त विज्ञान शिक्षण में, किस प्रकार की व्यवस्था की जानी चाहिये ?
(A) दल शिक्षण
(By उपचारात्मक शिक्षण
(D) निदानात्मक शिक्षण
(C) सूक्ष्म शिक्षण
Q. 141. Chemical formula of aluminum sulfate is
(A) Al2SO4
(B) Al3(SO4)2
(C) Al2(SO4)3
(D) Al(SO4)3
ऐलुमिनियम सल्फेट का रासायनिक सूत्र है
(A) Al2SO4
(B) Al3(SO4)2
(C) Al2(SO4)3
(D) Al(SO4)3
Q. 142. The metal having lowest melting point an
(A) gallium
(B) bismuth
(C) antimony
(D) arsenic
निम्नलिखित में से सबसे कम गलनांक वाला धातु है
(A) गैलियम
(B) बिसमथ
(C) एंटीमनी
(D) आर्सेनिक
Q. 143. Colour of phenolphthalein indicator in halein indicator in alkaline medium is
(A) white
(B) pink
(C) yellow
(D) light green
क्षारीय माध्यम में फीनॉलफ्थेलिन सूचक का रंग होता है
(A) सफेद
(B) गुलाबी
(C) पीला
(D) हलका हरा
Q. 144. Which of the following synthetic fibers is a polymer of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid ?
(A) Arlon
(B) Dacron
(C) Nylon
(D) Rayon
निम्नलिखित संश्लेषित रेशों में से कौन-सा एथिलीन ग्लाइकॉल और टेरीफ्थैलिक अम्ल का बहुलक है ?
(A) आरलॉन
(B) डेकरॉन
(C) नाइलॉन
(D) रेयॉन
Q. 145. One of the teaching maxims of inductive method is
(A) from general to specific
(B) from part to whole
(C) from rule to example
(D) from known to unknown
आगमन विधि का एक शिक्षण सूत्र है
(A) सामान्य से विशिष्ट की ओर
(B) सूक्ष्म से स्थूल की ओर
(C) नियम से उदाहरण की ओर
(D) ज्ञात से अज्ञात की ओर
Q. 146. The main drawback of objective testing is
(A) lack of comprehensiveness
(B) lack of credibility
(C) lack of expression
(D) lack of validity
वस्तुनिष्ठ परीक्षण का प्रमुख दोष है
(A) व्यापकता का अभाव ।
(B) विश्वसनीयता का अभाव
(C) अभिव्यक्ति का अभाव
(D) वैधता का अभाव
Q. 147. Which qualities are accurate in the examination ?
(A) Discrimination
(B) Validity
(C) Objectivity
(D) Reliability
किस गुण के कारण परीक्षा में शुद्धता रहती है ?
(A) विभेदाकारिता
(B) वैधता
(C) वस्तुनिष्ठता.
(D) विश्वसनीयता
Q. 148. The main aim of exercise drill work in mathematics teaching is
(A) to understand new formula
(B) to enhance computation skill
(C) to clear the new concept
(D) to utilise the knowledge in new circumstances
गणित शिक्षण में अभ्यास कार्य का प्रमुख उद्देश्य है
(A) नये सूत्र को समझना
(B) गणना सम्बन्धी कौशल बढ़ाना
(C) नयी धारणा को स्पष्ट करना
(D) ज्ञान को नयी परिस्थिति में लागू करना
Q. 149. Inductive method is suitable
(A) for establishing the formula.
(B) to solve the problem through formula
(C) to search the solution of problem
(D) to understand the solution of problem
आगमन विधि उपयुक्त है
(A) सूत्र स्थापना के लिए
(B) सूत्र द्वारा समस्या हल
(C) समस्या का हल खोजने के लिए
(D) समस्या का हल
Q. 150. Important characteristic(s) of Textbook of Mathe
(A) Subject matter
(B) Language and style
(C) Form of Textbook
(D) All of these
गणित की पाठ्यपुस्तकों की महत्वपूर्ण विशेषता(एँ) है/है
(A) पाठ्यवस्तु
(B) भाषा एवं शैली
(C) पुस्तक की आकृति
(D) इनमें से सभी
SECTION – IV(b) / खण्ड – IV(b)
SOCIAL STUDIES / सामाजिक अध्ययन
There are 60 questions in all in this section. The candidates who have selected this subject must answer all the questions.
इस खंड में कुल 60 प्रश्न हैं। जिन अभ्यर्थियों ने इस विषय का चयन किया है उन्हें सभी प्रश्न करना अनिवार्य है।
Q. 91. When did Chauri-Chaura incident take place?
(A) January, 1922
(B) February, 1922
(C) November, 1922
(D) April, 1922
चौरी-चौरा की घटना कब हुई ?
(A) जनवरी, 1922
(B) फरवरी, 1922
(C) नवम्बर, 1922
(D) अप्रैल, 1922
Q. 92. Which ruler of Alwar appointed Pandit Harinarayan Sharma as his advisor ?
(A) Udai Singh
(B) Jai Singh
(C) Ram Singh
(D) Man Singh
पंडित हरिनारायण शर्मा को अलवर के किस शासक ने अपना सलाहकार नियुक्त किया ?
(A) उदयसिंह
(B) जयसिंह
(C) रामसिंह
(D) मानसिंह
Q. 93. Who said that ‘religion is the development of the divinity which is inherent in human beings, religion is neither in the books nor in religious principles ?
(A) Raja Rammohan Roy
(B) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(C) Swami Vivekananda
(D) Dadu Dayal
यह किसने कहा था कि “धर्म मनुष्य के भीतर निहित देवत्व का विकास है, धर्म न तो पुस्तकों में है | और न धार्मिक सिद्धान्तों में” ?
(A) राजा राममोहन राय
(B) स्वामी दयानन्द सरस्वती
(C) स्वामी विवेकानन्द
(D) दादूदयाल
Q. 94. …………. Who is called the first poet of the deprived class of India?
(A) Dadu
(B) Jayanak
(C) Ramdas
(D) Chokhamela
भारत के वंचित वर्ग का पहला कवि किसे कहा जाता है ?
(A) दादू
(B) जयानक
(C) रामदास
(D) चोखामेला
Q. 95. Which ruler wrote a letter opposing Aurangzeb’s imposition of Jiziya tax?
(A) Raj Singh
(B) Jaswant Singh
(C) Man Singh
(D) Durgadas Rathore
औरंगजेब द्वारा जजिया कर लगाए जाने पर किस शासक ने पत्र लिखकर विरोध किया ?
(A) राजसिंह
(B) जसवतं सिंह
(C) मान सिंह
(D) दुर्गादास राठौर
औरंगजेब द्वारा जजिया कर लगाए जाने पर किस शासक ने पत्र लिखकर विरोध किया।
(A) राजसिंह
(B) जसवंत सिंह
(C) मानसिंह
(D) दुर्गादास राठौड़
Q. 96. What is the proposed National Assessment Center named in the National Education Policy, 2020?
(A) DIKSHA
(B) NIKHAR
(C) DISHA
(D) PARAKH
राष्ट्रीय शिक्षा नीति, 2020 में प्रस्तावित राष्ट्रीय आकलन केंद्र को क्या नाम दिया गया है ?
(A) दीक्षा
(B) निखार
(C) दिशा
(D) परख
Q. 97. When was the ‘CALP’ programme initiated in upeer primary school in Rajsthan ?
(A) 2007-08
(B) 2010-11
(C) 2015-16
(D) 2004-05
राजस्थान में उच्च प्राथमिक विद्यालयों में कल्प (CALP) कार्यक्रम का प्रारम्भ कब हुआ ?
(A) 2007-08
(B) 2010-11
(C) 2015-16
(D) 2004-05
Q. 98. When was the ‘objective resolution’ accepted by the Constituent Assembly as presented by Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru ?
(A) December 9, 1946
(B) December 13, 1946
(C) January 22, 1947
(D) January 26, 1947
पं. जवाहरलाल नेहरू द्वारा प्रस्तावित ‘उद्देश्य प्रस्ताव’ को संविधान सभा द्वारा कब स्वीकार किया गया?
(A) 9 दिसम्बर, 1946
(B) 13 दिसम्बर, 1946
(C) 22 जनवरी, 1947
(D) 26 जनवरी, 1947
Q. 99. The ‘Right to Education’ was made the part of which Fundamental Right by 86th Constitution Amendment Act ?
(A) Right to Freedom
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Cultural and Educational Rights
(D) Right against Exploitation
86 वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम द्वारा शिक्षा के अधिकार’ को किस मौलिक अधिकार का भाग बनाया है ?
(A) स्वतंत्रता का अधिकार
(B) समानता का अधिकार
(C) शिक्षा एवं संस्कृति का अधिकार
(D) शोषण के विरुद्ध अधिकार
Q. 100. When was the ‘Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act’ enacted in India?
(A) In 2010
(B) In 2012
(C) In 2014
(D) In 2016
भारत में ‘लैंगिक अपराधों से बालकों का संरक्षण का अधिनियम’ कब बनाया गया ।
(A) 2010
(B) 2012
(C) 2014
(D) 2016
Q. 101. The principle of curriculum which emphasizes on ‘learning by doing’ is
(A) Principle of motivation
(B) Principle of broadness
(C) Principle of activity
(D) Principle of utility
पाठ्यक्रम के जिस सिद्धान्त में करके सीखने’ पर बल दिया जाता है, वह है
(A) अभिप्रेरणा का सिद्धान्त
(B) व्यापकता का सिद्धान्त
(C) क्रिया का सिद्धान्त
(D) उपयोगिता का सिद्धान्त
Q. 102. The direction of trade winds in northern hemisphere is
(A) North East to South West
(B) South West to North East
(C) South East to North West
(D) North West to South East
उत्तरी गोलार्ध में व्यापारिक पवनों के प्रवाह की दिशा होती है
(A) उत्तर पूर्व से दक्षिण पश्चिम
(B) दक्षिण पश्चिम से उत्तर पूर्व
(C) दक्षिण पूर्व से उत्तर पश्चिम
(D) उत्तर पश्चिम से दक्षिण पूर्व
Q. 103. The maximum distance between maximum distance between the sun and the earth is called
(A) Perihelion
(B) Perigee
(C) Aphelion
(D) Apogee
सूर्य एवं पृथ्वी के मध्य अधिकतम दूरी कहलाती है
(A) उपसौर
(B) उपभू
(C) अपसौर
(D) अपभू
Q. 104. In a food chain a ‘rat’ comes under the category of
(A) primary consumer
(B) secondary consumer
(C) tertiary consumer
(D) producer
खाद्य श्रृंखला में ‘चूहा’ जिस श्रेणी में आता है, वह है
(A) प्राथमिक उपभोक्ता
(B) द्वितीयक उपभोक्ता
(C) तृतीयक उपभोक्ता
(D) उत्पादक
Q. 105. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) The direction of the wind in a cyclone in the northern hemisphere clockwise
(B) The direction of the wind in a cyclone in the southern hemisphere anticlockwise
(C) The direction of winds in cyclones on the earth’s surface is both clock and anticlockwise
(D) The direction of winds in cyclones on the earth’s surface anticlockwise
निम्न में से कौन-सा कथन सही है ?
(A) उत्तरी गोलार्द्ध में चक्रवात में पवन की दिशा घड़ी की सुई की दिशा में होती है
(B) दक्षिणी गोलार्द्ध में चक्रवात में पवन की दिशा घड़ी की सुई की दिशा के विपरीत होती है
(C) पृथ्वी की सतह पर चक्रवातों में पवनों की दिशा घड़ी की सुई की दिशा एवं घडी की सुई की दिशा के विपरीत, दोनों ही दिशाओं में होती है
(D) पृथ्वी की सतह पर चक्रवातों में पवनों की दिशा केवल घड़ी की सुई की दिशा के विपरीत ही होती है
Q. 106. The question-answer technique can be quite effective in teaching social science as it ensures
(A) students’ ability to respond better in examinations
(B) students come to class well-prepared
(C) active participation by learners
(D) a more disciplined classroom
प्रश्नोत्तर तकनीक सामाजिक विज्ञान के शिक्षण में काफी प्रभावी हो सकती है क्योंकि यह सुनिश्चित करती है कि
(A) विद्यार्थियों की परीक्षा में बेहतर प्रत्युत्तर देने की क्षमता
(B) विद्यार्थी कक्षा में अच्छी तैयारी के साथ आते हैं
(C) शिक्षार्थियों द्वारा सक्रिय भागीदारी
(D) एक अधिक अनुशासित कक्षा कक्ष
Q. 107. The word ‘Assurance’ is used for
(A) Life Insurance
(B) Fire Insurance
(C) Marine Insurance
(D) Medical Insurance
‘एश्योरेन्स’ शब्द का प्रयोग होता है
(A) जीवन बीमा के लिये
(B) अग्नि बीमा के लिये
(C) समुद्री बीमा के लिये
(D) चिकित्सा बीमा के लिये
Q. 108. Which of the following settles the consumer disputes at district level ?
(A) Sessions Court
(B) District Court
(C) District Forum
(D) District Collector
निम्नलिखित में से जिला स्तर पर उपभोक्ता विवादों का निपटारा कौन करता है।
(A) सत्र न्यायालय
(B) जिला न्यायालय
(C) जिला फोरम
(D) जिलाधीश
Q. 109. Central bank of our country is
(A) State Bank of India
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Central Bank of India
(D) Bank of Baroda
हमारे देश का केन्द्रीय बैंक है
(A) भारतीय स्टेट बैंक
(B) भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक
(C) सेन्ट्रल बैंक ऑफ इण्डिया
(D) बैंक ऑफ बड़ोदा
Q. 110. The headquarters of Rajasthan State Cooperative Bank is located at
(A) Jodhpur
(B) Jaipur
(C) Ajmer
(D) Kota
राजस्थान राज्य सहकारी बैंक का मुख्यालय स्थित है
(A) जोधपुर
(B) जयपुर
(C) अजमेर
(D) कोटा
Q. 111. City of hundred islands’ is located in which district of Rajasthan ?
(A) Dungarpur
(B) Udaipur
(C) Pratapgarh
(D) Banswara
‘सौ टापुओं का शहर’ राजस्थान के किस जिले में स्थित है ?
(A) डूंगरपुर
(B) उदयपुर
(C) प्रतापगढ़
(D) बांसवाड़ा
Q. 112. Which of the following tribes of Rajasthan has been included in the list of primitive tribal group by Government of India ?
(A) Bhil
(B) Saharia
(C) Garasia
(D) Meena
राजस्थान की निम्न में से कौन-सी जनजाति को भारत सरकार द्वारा आदिम जनजाति समूह की सूची में शामिल किया गया है ?
(A) भील
(B) सहरिया
(C) गरासिया
(D) मीणा
Q. 113. The largest sweet water lake in Rajasthan is
(A) Jaisamand
(B) Rajsamand
(C) Kayalana
(D) Silised
राजस्थान में मीठे पानी की सबसे बड़ी झील है।
(A) जयसमन्द
(B) राजसमन्द
(C) कायलाना
(D) सिलीसेड़
Q. 114. Rajasthan is the largest producer state of which of the following crops in India ?
(A) Maize
(B) Groundnut
(C) Mustard
(D) Cotton
राजस्थान भारत में निम्न में से कौन-सी फसल का सर्वाधिक उत्पादक राज्य है ?
(A) मक्का
(B) मूंगफली
(C) सरसों
(D) कपास
Q. 115. Which is the best means of explaining the shape of the earth in a classroom ?
(A) Globe
(B) Map
(C) Diagram
(D) Chart
अध्यापन कक्ष में पृथ्वी की आकृति को समझाने का सर्वश्रेष्ठ साधन क्या है ?
(A) ग्लोब
(B) मानचित्र
(C) रेखाचित्र
(D) चार्ट
Q. 116. How many members are nominated by the Governor in the State Legislative Council ?
(A) 1/3
(B) 1/12
(C) 1/9
(D) 1/6
राज्य विधान परिषद् में राज्यपाल द्वारा कितने सदस्यों का मनोनयन किया जाता है?
(A) 1/3
(B) 1/12
(C) 1/9
(D) 1/6
Q. 117. The first Deputy Speaker of the first Lok Sabha in independent India, was
(A) Sardar Hukum Singh
(B) S. V. Krishnamoorthy Rao
(C) Anant Shyanam Ayyangar
(D) G. G. Swell
स्वतंत्र भारत की पहली लोक सभा के प्रथम उपाध्यक्ष थे ?
(A) सरदार हुकुम सिंह
(B) एस. वी. कृष्णामूर्ती राव
(C) अनन्त शयनम अयंगर
(D) जी. जी. स्वेल
Q. 118. Who is the in-charge of the Voter Register’ at polling station during polling in India ?
(A) The first Polling Officer
(B) The second Polling Officer
(C) The third Polling Officer
(D) The Presiding Officer
भारत में मतदान के दौरान मतदान केन्द्र पर ‘मतदाता रजिस्टर’ का प्रभारी कौन होता है ?
(A) प्रथम मतदान अधिकारी
(B) द्वितीय मतदान अधिकारी
(C) तृतीय मतदान अधिकारी
(D) पीठासीन अधिकारी
Q. 119. In which form of the Government the executive is responsible to the legislature ?
(A) Parliamentary Government
(B) Presidential Government
(C) Totalitarian Government
(D) Military rule
किस शासन प्रणाली में कार्यपालिका विधायिका के प्रति उत्तरदायी होती है ?
(A) संसदीय सरकार
(B) अध्यक्षीय सरकार
(C) सर्वाधिकारवादी सरकार
(D) सैनिक शासन
Q. 120. Which one of the following is an example of ‘knowledge objective’?
(A) Explain
(B) Construct
(C) Define
(D) Analyse
निम्न में से कौन-सा ‘ज्ञान उद्देश्य’ का उदाहरण है ?
(A) व्याख्या करना
(B) रचना करना
(C) परिभाषित करना
(D) विश्लेषण करना
Q. 121. In which state Durgadas Rathore’s Chhatri is situated ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B). Uttar Pradesh
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Gujarat
Q. 122. In which area did the CHawand painting style develop ?
(A) Mewar
(B) Haroti
(C) Marwar
(D) Shekhawati
Q. 123. Smt. Kishori Devi was associated with which peasant movement ?
(A) Barar
(B) Sikar
(C) Bijolia
(D) Bikaner
श्रीमती किशोरी देवी किस किसान आन्दोलन से सम्बद्ध रही ?
(A) बरड़
(B) सीकर
(C) बिजौलिया
(D) बीकानेर
Q. 124. In which part of the body is which part of the body is the ornament ‘Bajatti’ worn ?
(A) Nose
(B) Teeth
(C) Ear
(D) Neck
‘बजट्टी’ नामक आभूषण शरीर के किस भाग में धारण किया जाता है ?
(A) नाक
(B) दांत
(C) कान
(D)
Q. 125. Edward Thorndike ( 1898 ) is famous for which principle in Educational Psychology ?
(A) Memory theory
(B) Forgetting theory
(C) Learning theory
(D) Adjusting theory
एडवर्ड थॉर्नडायक ( 1898 ) को शिक्षा मनोविज्ञान में किस सिद्धान्त के लिए जाना जाता है ?
(A) स्मृति का सिद्धान्त
(B) विस्मृति का सिद्धान्त
(C) सीखने का सिद्धान्त
(D) समायोजन का सिद्धान्त
Q. 126. Which of the following musical instruments is like a flute?
(A) Alagoja
(B) Bhapang
(C) Ravanhattha
(D) Tandoora
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा वाद्य यंत्र बांसुरी की तरह होता है ?
(A) अलगोजा
(B) भपंग
(C) रावणहत्था
(D) तंदूरा
Q. 127. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Mahajanapada
Town
(A) Gandhara
Mathura
(B) Anga
Ujjain
(C) Avanti
Sotthavati
(D) Kamboja
Rajpur
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक युग्म सही सुमेलित है ?
महाजनपद
नगर
(A) गांधार
मथुरा
(B) अंग
उज्जैन
(C) अवन्ति
सोत्थवती
(D) कम्बोज
राजपुर
Q. 128. The Bhandadevara Temple is located in which district?
(A) Bundi
(B) Kota
(C) Baran
(D) Jhalawar
भण्डदेवरा मंदिर किस जिले में स्थित है ?
(A) बूंदी
(B) कोटा
(C) बारा
(D) झालावाड़
Q. 129. Consider the following statements about Chandragupta Maurya :
1. He married the daughter of Seleucus
2. He accepted Buddhism in the last period of his life
3. He made Ashoka his successor
Which of the statements given above is / are true ?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1,2
(D) 1, 2, 3
चन्द्रगुप्त मौर्य के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. उसने सेल्यूकस की पुत्री के साथ विवाह किया
2. उसने अपने जीवन के अंतिम काल में बौद्ध धर्म स्वीकार किया
3. उसने अशोक को अपना उत्तराधिकारी बनाया
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं ?
(A) केवल 1
(B) केवल 2
(C) 1,2
(D) 1, 2, 3
Q. 130. Consider the following statements following statements about Ashoka’s inscriptions :
cost of the inscriptions are in Prakrit language Most of the inscriptions are in the Brahmi script Which of the statements given above is / ar itements given above is / are true ?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) None of these
अशोक के अभिलेखों के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. अधिकांश अभिलेख प्राकृत भाषा में हैं
2. अधिकांश अभिलेख ब्राह्मी लिपि में हैं
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं ?
(A) केवल 1
(B) केवल 2
(C) 1 और 2 दोनों
(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
Q. 131. Which states’ army did Doong Ji and Jawahar Ji fight against?
(A) Bikaner and Jodhpur
(B) Bharatpur and Jodhpur
(C) Bharatpur and Bikaner
(D) Udaipur and Banswara
डूंगजी व जवाहर जी ने किन राज्यों की सेना के विरुद्ध संघर्ष किया ?
(A) बीकानेर व जोधपुर
(B) भरतपुर व जोधपुर
(C) भरतपुर व बीकानेर
(D) उदयपुर व बांसवाड़ा
Q. 132. Who of the following revolutionaries assumed the pseudo name ‘Amardas Vairagi’ to avoid arrest?
(A) Arjunlal Sethi
(B) Pratap Singh Barhath
(C) Kesari Singh Barhath
(D) Jorawar Singh Barhath
निम्न में से किस क्रांतिकारी ने गिरफ्तारी से बचने के लिए ‘अमरदास वैरागी’ का छद्म नाम धारण किया?
(A) अर्जुनलाल सेठी
(B) प्रतापसिंह बारहठ
(C) केसरी सिंह बारहठ
(D) जोरावर सिंह बारहठ
Q. 133. Which revolutionary of Rajasthan was imprisoned in Tihar Jail ?
(A) Arjun Lal Sethi
(B) Gopal Singh Kharwa
(C) Kesari Singh Barhath
(D) Pratap Singh Barhath
राजस्थान के किस क्रांतिकारी को तिहाड़ जेल में रखा गया था।
(A) अर्जुनलाल सेठी
(B) गोपाल सिंह खरवा
(C) केसरी सिंह बारहठ
(D) प्रतापसिंह बारहठ
Q. 134. Who among the following were in the Chandrawal Squad of Maharana Pratap in the Battle of Haldighati ?
1. Purohit Gopinath
2. Rana Punja
3. Jaimal Mehta
4. Hakim Khan
5. Charan Jaisa
6. Krishnadas Chundawat
(A) 1,2,3,4
(B) 2, 3,4,5
(C) 2,3,5,6
(D) 1,2,3,5
निम्नलिखित में से कौन हल्दीघाटी के युद्ध में महाराणा प्रताप के चंदावल दस्ते में शामिल थे ?
1. पुरोहित गोपीनाथ.
2. राणा पूंजा
3. जयमल मेहता
4. हकीम खां
5. चारण जैसा
6. कृष्णदास चूंडावत
(A) 1, 2, 3,4
(B) 2, 3, 4,5
(C) 2, 3, 5,6
(D) 1,2,3,5
Q. 135. Which of the following Chhatris is considered as the largest Chhatri of Shekhawati ?
(A) Chhatri of Ram Gopal Poddar
(B) Chhatri of Kalyan Singh
(C) Chhatri of Hardayal Singh
(D) Chhatri of Gopal Singh
निम्नलिखित में से किस छतरी को शेखावाटी की सबसे बड़ी छतरी माना जाता है ?
(A) रामगोपाल पोद्दार की छतरी
(B) कल्याण सिंह की छतरी
(C) हरदयाल सिंह की छतरी
(D) गोपाल सिंह की छतरी
Q. 136. Which of the following Indus-Saraswati civilization sites are located in Pakistan?
1. Mohenjo Daro
2. Harappa
3. Prabhas Patan
4. Alamgirpur
5. Chanhudaro
(A) 1, 3, 5, 6
(B) 1,2,4,5
(C) 1, 2, 5,6
(D) 1,2,3,4
निम्नलिखित सिंध-सरस्वती सभ्यता स्थलों में से कौन-से पाकिस्तान में स्थित है।
1. मोहनजोदड़ो
2. हड़प्पा
3. प्रभास पाटन
4. आलमगीरपुर
5. चन्हुदड़ो
6. कोटदीजी
(A) 1,3,5,6
(B) 1, 2,4,5
(C) 1, 2, 3,4
(D) 1, 2, 5,6
Q. 137. The great mathematician Brahmagupta was born in which district of Rajasthan ?
(A) Jalore
(B) Churu
(C) Sikar
(D) Bikaner
महान गणितज्ञ ब्रह्मगुप्त का जन्म राजस्थान के किस जिले में हुआ।
(A) जालौर
(B) चूरू
(C) सीकर
(D) बीकानेर
Q. 138. Consider the following statements about about the Vedic period :
1. Grihastha Ashram was the feeder of all other Ashrams
2. The village officer was called ‘Gramani’
3. The merchant class was called ‘Vish’
Which of the statements given above
(A) Only 1
(B) 1, 2
(C) 1,3
(D) 1, 2, 3
वैदिक काल के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए।
1. गृहस्थ आश्रम अन्य सभी आश्रमों का पोषक था
2. ग्राम के अधिकारी को ‘ग्रामणी’ कहा जाता था
3. व्यापारी वर्ग को ‘विश’ कहा जाता था
उपर्यक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/ह ?
(A) केवल 1
(B) 1,2
(C) 1,3
(D) 1,2,3
Q. 139. Where was the branch was the branch of Ramsnehi sect established by Sant Dariyavy (A) Shahpura
(B) Sinhthal
(C) Rain
(D) Khedapa
सत दरियावजी द्वारा रामस्नेही सम्प्रदाय की शाखा कहाँ स्थापित की गई ?
(A) शाहपुरा
(B) सिंहथल
(C) रैण
(D) खेड़ापा
Q. 140. Consider the following statements about Mahaveer Swami :
1. He was born in Lumbini
2. His childhood name was Vardhamana
3. His mother’s name was Mahamaya
4. He was the first Tirthankara of Jainism.
Which of the statements given above is / are true ?
(A) Only 2
(B) 2,3
(C) 1, 2
(D) 1,4
महावीर स्वामी के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
1. उनका जन्म लुम्बिनी में हुआ
2. उनके बचपन का नाम वर्द्धमान था
3. उनकी माता का नाम महामाया था
4. वे जैन धर्म के प्रथम तीर्थंकर थे
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं ?
(A) केवल 2
(B) 2,3
(C) 1, 2
(D) 1,4
Q. 141. The ‘National Voter Day’ is celebrated in India on
(A) 25th January
(B) 25th March
(C) 25th September
(D) 25th November
भारत में राष्ट्रीय मतदाता दिवस’ मनाया जाता है
(A) 25 जनवरी
(B) 25 मार्च
(C) 25 सितम्बर
(D) 25 नवम्बर
Q. 142. Agriculture and Irrigation’ are included in the list of the Constitution of India, which is
(A) the Union list
(B) the State list
(C) the Concurrent list
(D) residual subjects
भारतीय संविधान की जिस सूची में ‘कृषि एवं सिंचाई’ को शामिल किया गया है. वह है
(A) संघ सूची
(B) राज्य सूची
(C) समवर्ती सूची
(D) अवशिष्ट विषय
Q. 143. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has been given place as the ‘Court of Records’?
(A) 129
(B) 130
(C) 137
(D) 143
संविधान के किस अनुच्छेद के अन्तर्गत सर्वोच्च न्यायालय को ‘अभिलेख न्यायालय का स्थान दिया गया है ?
(A) 129
(B) 130
(C) 137
(D) 143
Q. 144. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, executive power of the union is vested in the President ?
(A) 53
(B) 54
(C) 55
(D) 56
भारतीय संविधान के किस अनुच्छेद के अन्तर्गत राष्ट्रपति में संघ की कार्यपालिका शक्ति निहित होती है ?
(A) 53
(B) 54
(C) 55
(D) 56
Q. 145. Chapter 2A of Rajasthan Panchayat Raj Act, 1994 provides the formation
(A) Gram Panchayat
(B) Panchayat Samiti
(C) Zila Parishad
(D) Gram Sabha
राजस्थान पंचायत राज अधिनियम, 1994 के अध्याय 2 क में जिसके गठन का प्रावधान है, वह है
(A) ग्राम पंचायत
(B) पंचायत समिति
(C) जिला परिषद्
(D) ग्राम सभा
Q. 146. Which of the following decades registered negative population growth in India ?
(A) 1911 – 1921
(B) 1901 – 1911
(C) 1921 – 1931
(D) 1971 – 1981
निम्न में से किस दशक में भारत में नकारात्मक जन दशक में भारत में नकारात्मक जनसंख्या वृद्धि दर्ज की गई ?
(A) 1901 – 1911
(B) 1911 – 1921
(C) 1921 – 1931
(D) 1971 – 1981
Q. 147. Which of the following is the oldest iron and stec
(A) TISCO
(B) IISCO
(C) VISL
(D) SAIL
निम्न में से कौन-सा लौह-इस्पात कारखाना भारत में सर्वाधिक पुराना है ?
(A) TISCO
(B) IISCO
(C) VISL
(D) SAIL
Q. 148. The correct order of location of given physiographic features from north to south is
(A) Tarai – Bhabar — Khadar — Delta
(B) Tarai – Bhabar – Delta – Khadar
(C) Bhabar – Khadar – Delta – Tarai
(D) Bhabar – Tarai – Khadar – Delta
दी गई भू-आकृतियों का उत्तर से दक्षिण दिशा में अवस्थिति का सही क्रम है.
(A) तराई – भाबर – खादर – डेल्टा
(B) तराई – भाबर – डेल्टा – खादर
(C) भाबर – खादर – डेल्टा – तराई
(D) भाबर – तराई – खादर – डेल्टा
Q. 149. Which state is the largest producer of Gypsum in India ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Madhya Pradesh
भारत में जिप्सम का सर्वाधिक उत्पादक राज्य कौन-सा है ?
(A) राजस्थान
(B) गुजरात
(C) झारखण्ड
(D) मध्य प्रदेश
Q. 150. Zanskar river is used for irrigation and power generation in which region ?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Sikkim
(C) Ladakh
(D) Garhwal-Kumaon
गॅस्कर नदी का उपयोग सिंचाई एवं विद्युत उत्पादन हेतु किस प्रदेश में किया जाता है ?
(A) अरुणाचल प्रदेश
(B) सिक्किम
(C) लद्दाख
(D) गढ़वाल-कुमाऊँ
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Q. 1. According to Albert Bandura, four conditions are necessary in ODSC learning. The right sequence of these conditions is re necessary in observational 
is 
का मान है 
