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IBPS PO 2015 Prelims Previous Year Paper
June 18, 2019
AIIMS UG 2008 Previous Year Paper
June 18, 2019






60 Questions (1 – 60)



60 Questions (61 – 120)



60 Questions (121 – 180)


General Knowledge

20 Questions (181 – 200)


Q. 1 In refraction , light waves are bent on passing from one medium to the second medium , because in the second medium

A. the frequency is different

B. the coefficient of elasticity is different

C. the speed is different

D. the amplitude is smaller


Q. 2 Two spheres of same size, one of mass 2 Kg and another of mass 4 Kg are dropped

simultaneously from the top of Qutab minar(height = 72 m). When they are 1 m above the ground the two spheres have the same

A. momentum

B. kinetic energy

C. potential energy

D. acceleration


Q. 3 The moment of inertia of a rod about an axis through its centre and perpendicular to it is 1ML²/12(where M is the mass and L, the length of the rod). The rod is bent in the middle so that the two halves make an angle of 60⁰. The moment of inertia of the bent rod is about the same axis would be

A. ML²/48

B. ML²/12

C. ML²/24

D. ML²/8√3


Q. 4 A boat at anchor is rocked by waves whose crests are 100 m apart and velocity is 25 m/sec. The boat bounces up once in every

A. 2500 s

B. 75 s

C. 4 s

D. 0.25 s


Q. 5 By sucking through a straw, a student can reduce the pressure in his lungs to 750 mm of Hg (density -13.6 g/cm³). Using the straw, he can drink water from a glass upto maximum depth of

A. 10 cm

B. 75 cm

C. 13.6 cm

D. 1.36 cm


Q. 6 Two parallel large thin metal sheets have equal surface charge densities(σ= 26.4 x 10⁻¹² C/m²) of opposite signs. The electric field between these sheets is

A. 1.5 N/C

B. 1.5 X 10⁻¹⁰ N/C

C. 3 N/C

D. 3 X 10⁻¹⁰ N/C


Q. 7 The magnetic moment has dimensions of

A. [LA]

B. [L²A]

C. [LT⁻¹A]

D. [L²T⁻¹A]


Q. 8 A wire mesh containing of very small squares is viewed at a distance of 8 cm through a magnifying converging lens of focal length 10 cm, kept close to the eye. The magnification produced by the lens is

A. 5

B. 8

C. 10

D. 20


Q. 9 Hard X-rays for the study of fractures in bones should have a minimum wavelength of 10⁻¹¹ m. The accelerating voltage for elections in X-ray machine should be

A. < 124.2 kV

B. > 124.2 kV

C. between 60 kV and 70 kV

D. = 100 kV


Q. 10 In photoelectric effect, the electrons are ejected from metals if the incident light has certain minimum

A. wavelength

B. frequency

C. amplitude

D. angle of incidence


Q. 11 A lens is made of flint glass(refractive index 1.5). When the lens is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.25, the focal length

A. increases by a factor of 1.25

B. increases by a factor of 2.5

C. increases by a factor of a 1.2

D. decreases by a factor of 1.2


Q. 12 The voltage of clouds is 4 x 10 volt with respect to ground. In a lightning strike lasting 100 m sec. A charge of 4 coulombs is delivered to the ground. The power of the lightning strike is

A. 160 MW

B. 80 MW

C. 20 MW

D. 500 MW


Q. 13 Five capacitors, each of capacitors value C are connected as shown in the figure. The ratio of capacitance between the P and R, and the capacitance between the P and Q is

A. 3 : 1

B. 5 : 2

C. 2 : 3

D. 1 : 1


Q. 14 A stone thrown in still water, creates a circular wave pattern moving radially outwards. If r is the distance measured from the centre of the pattern, the amplitude of the wave varies as

A. r⁻½

B. r⁻¹

C. r⁻²

D. r^-3/2


Q. 15 For inelastic collision between two spherical rigid bodies

A. the total kinetic energy is conserved

B. the total potential energy is conserved

C. the linear momentum is not conserved

D. the linear momentum is conserved


Q. 16 When a p-n diode is reverse biased, then

A. no current flows

B. the depletion region is increased

C. the depletion region is reduced

D. the height of the potential barrier is reduced


Q. 17 Which of the following diagrams represents the variation of electric field vector with time for a circularly polarized light.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 18 The operation of a nuclear reactor is said to be critical, if the multiplication factor (K) has a value

A. 1

B. 1.5

C. 2.1

D. 2.5


Q. 19 The circuit given below represents which of the logic operation ?







Q. 20 A person used force(F), shown in figure to move a load with constant velocity on surface. Identify the correct surface profile.


A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 21 Three objects coloured black, grey and white can withstand hostile conditions upto 2800⁰ C . These objects are thrown into a furnace where each of them attains a temperature of 2000⁰ C. Which object will glow with equal brightest?

A. the white object

B. the black object

C. all glow with equal brightness

D. grey object


Q. 22 Two balloons are filled, on with pure He gas and other by air, respectively. If the pressure and temperature of these balloons are same then the number of molecules per unit volume is:

A. more in the He filled balloons

B. same in both balloons

C. more in air filled balloon

D. in the ratio of 1:4


Q. 23 Flash light equipped with a new set of batteries, produces bright white light. As the batteries wear out,

A. the light intensity gets reduced with no change in its colour

B. light colour changes first to yellow and then red with no change in intensity

C. it stops working suddenly while giving white light

D. colour changes to red and also intensity gets reduced


Q. 24 The spatial distribution of the electric field due to two charges (A,B) is shown in figure. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. A is +ve and B is -ve and IAI>IBI

B. A is -ve and B +ve; IAI-IBI

C. both are +ve but A > B

D. both are -ve but A > B


Q. 25 Circular loop of a wire and a long straight wire carry currents Iᵣ and Iᵤ respectively as shown in figure. Assuming that these are placed in the same plane, the magnetic fields will be zero at the centre of the loop when separation H is

A. IᵣR/Iᵤπ

B. IᵤR/Iᵣπ

C. πIᵤ/IᵣR

D. Iᵣπ/IᵤR


Q. 26 If a street light mass M is suspended from the end of a uniform rod of length L in different possible patterns as shown in figure, then

A. pattern A is more sturdy

B. pattern B is more sturdy

C. pattern C is more sturdy

D. all will have same sturdiness


Q. 27 ²³⁸₉₂U has 92 protons and 238 nucleons. It decays by emitting an alpha particle and becomes

A. ₉₂²³⁴U

B. ₉₀²³⁴Th

C. ₉₂²³⁵U

D. ₉₃²³⁷Np


Q. 28 The fossil bone has a ¹⁴C : ¹²C ratio, which is [1/16] of that in a living animal bone. If the half life time of ¹⁴C is 5730 years, then the age of the fossil bone is:

A. 11460 years

B. 17190 years

C. 22920 years

D. 45840 years


Q. 29 Which of the following is a possible nuclear reaction?

A. ₃¹⁰B + ₂⁴He —> ¹³₇N + ₁¹H

B. ₁₁²³Na + ₁¹H —> ₁₀²⁰Ne + ₂⁴He

C. ₉₃²³⁹Np —> ₉₄²³⁹Pu +β⁻ +⊽

D. ¹¹N + ₁¹H —> ¹²₆C +β⁻ +⊽


Q. 30 When a guitar string is sounded with a 440 Hz tuning fork, a beat frequency of 5 Hz is heard. If the experiment is repeated with a tuning fork of 437 Hz, the beat frequency is 8 Hz. The string frequency(Hz) is

A. 445

B. 435

C. 429

D. 448


Q. 31 A metallic ring is dropped down, keeping its plane perpendicular to a constant and horizontal magnetic field. The ring enters the region of magnetic field at t = 0 and

completely emerges out at t = T sec. The current in the ring varies as:

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 32 If alpha, beta and gamma rays carry same momentum, which has the longest wavelength

A. alpha rays

B. beta rays

C. gamma rays

D. none, all have same wavelength


Q. 33 An amplifier has a voltage gain Aᵥ = 1000. The voltage gain in dB is

A. 30 dB

B. 60 dB

C. 3 dB

D. 20 dB


Q. 34 When you make ice cubes, the entropy of water

A. does not change

B. increases

C. decreases

D. may either increase or decrease depending on the process used


Q. 35 A bimetallic strip consists of metals X and Y. It is mounted rigidly at the base as shown. The metal X has a higher coefficient of expansion compared to that for metal Y. When the bimetallic strip is placed in a cold bath

A. it will bend towards the right

B. it will bend towards the left

C. it will not bend but shrink

D. it will neither bend nor shrink


Q. 36 For a wave propagating in a medium, identifying the property that is independent of the others.

A. velocity

B. wavelength

C. frequency

D. all these depend on each other


Q. 37 A leaf which contains only green pigments is illuminated by a laser light of wavelength 0.6328 μm. It would appear to be:

A. brown

B. black

C. red

D. green


Q. 38 A light emitting diode(LED) has a voltage drop of 2 volt across it and passes a current of 10 mA when it operates with a 6 volt battery through a limiting resistor R. The value of R is

A. 40 k ohm

B. 4 k ohm

C. 200 ohm

D. 400 ohm


Q. 39 The minimum potential difference between the base and emitter required to switched a silicon transistor ON is approximately

A. 1 V

B. 3 V

C. 5 V

D. 4.2 V


Q. 40 Given below is the circuit diagram of an AM demodulator. For good demodulation of AM signal of carrier frequency f, the value of RC should be

A. RC = 1/f

B. RC < 1/f

C. RC ≥ 1/f

D. RC >> 1/f


Questions: 41 – 60

Directions: In the following questions(41-60), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by the reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

(c) if assertion is true , but reason is false

(d) both assertion and reason are false statements


Q. 41 Assertion: Electromagnetic waves with frequencies smaller than the critical frequency of ionosphere cannot be used for communication using sky wave propagation.

Reason: The refractive index of the ionosphere becomes very high for frequencies higher than the critical frequency.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 42 Assertion : The binding energy per nucleon , for nuclei with atomic mass number A> 100  decreases with A.

Reason : The nuclear forces are weak for heavier nuclei.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 43 Assertion : In common base configuration, the current gain of the transistor is less than unity.

Reason : The collector terminal is reverse biased for amplification.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 44 Assertion : In an isolated system the entropy increases.

Reason :The processes in an isolated system are adiabatic.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 45 Assertion : Magnetic resonance imagining (MRI) is a useful diagnostic tool for producing images of various parts of human body.

Reason : Protons of various tissues of human body play a role in MRI.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 46 Assertion : A judo fighter in order to throw his opponent on to the mat tries to initially bend his opponent and then rotate him around his hip.

Reason : As the mass of the opponent is brought closer to the fighters hip, the force required to throw the opponent is reduced.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 47 Assertion : The root mean square and most probable speeds of the molecules in a gas are the same.

Reason : The maxwell distribution of the speed of molecules in a gas is symmetrical.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 48 Assertion : Use of the ball bearings between the two moving parts of a machine is a common practice.

Reason : Ball bearings reduce vibrations and provide good stability.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 49 Assertion : Standard optical diffraction gratings cannot be used for discriminating between the different X-ray wavelengths.

Reason : The grating spacing is not of the order of X-ray wavelengths.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 50 Assertion : Diamagnetic materials can exhibit magnetism.

Reason : Diamagnetic materials have permanent magnetic dipole moment.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 51 Assertion : A man in a closed cabin which is falling freely does not experience gravity.

Reason : Inertial and gravitational mass have equivalence

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 52 Assertion : The photoelectrons produced by a monochrome light beam incident on a metal surface, have a spread in their kinetic energies.

Reason : The work function of the metal varies as a function of depth from the surface.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 53 Assertion : The carnot cycle is useful in understanding the performance of heat engines.

Reason : The carnot cycle provides a way of determining the maximum possible efficiency achievable with reservoirs of given temperatures.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 54 Assertion : A p-n junction with reverse bias can be used as a photodiode to measure light intensity.

Reason : In a reverse bias condition the current is small but is more sensitive to changes in incident light intensity.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 55 Assertion : perspiration from human body helps in cooling the body.

Reason : A thin layer of water on the skin enhances its emissivity.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 56 Assertion : When a glass of hot milk is placed in a room and allowed to cool, its entropy decreases.

Reason : Allowing hot object to cool does not violate the second law of thermodynamics.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 57 Assertion : Cobalt -60 is useful in cancer therapy.

Reason : Cobalt-60 is a source of gamma-radiations capable of killing cancerous cells.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 58 Assertion : A thin stainless steel needle can lay floating on a still water surface.

Reason : Any object floats when the buoyancy force balances the weight of the object.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 59 Assertion : An emf E̅ is induced in a closed loop where magnetic flux is varied. The induced E̅ is not a conservative field.

Reason : The line integral E̅ dl̅ around the closed loop is non-zero.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 60 Assertion : In optical fibre, the diameter of the core is kept small.

Reason : This smaller diameter of the core ensures that the fibre should have incident angle more than the critical angle required for total internal reflection.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 61 The pair in which both species have same magnetic moment (spin only value) is

A. [Cr(H₂O)₆]²⁺ , [CoCl₄]²⁻

B. [Cr(H₂O)₆]²⁺,[Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺

C. [Mn(H₂O)₆]²⁺,[Cr(H₂O)₆]²⁺

D. [CoCl₄]²⁻,[Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺


Q. 62 The pair in which both species have iron is

A. nitrogenase, cytochromes

B. carboxypeptidase, haemoglobin

C. haemocyanin, nitrogenase

D. haemoglobin, cytochromes


Q. 63 Borax is used as a cleansing agent because on dissolving in water it gives

A. alkaline solution

B. acidic solution

C. bleaching solution

D. basic solution


Q. 64 The incorrect statement among the following is

A. C₆₀ is an allotropic form of carbon

B. O₃ is an allotropic form of oxygen

C. S₈ is only allotropic form of sulphur

D. red phosphorus is more stable in air than white phosphorus


Q. 65 The pair whose both species are used in anti-acid medicinal preparation is

A. NaHCO₃ and Mg(OH)₂

B. Na₂CO₃ and Ca(HCO₃)₂

C. Ca(HCO₃)₂ and Mg(OH)₂

D. Ca(OH)₂ and NaHCO₃


Q. 66 The colour imparted by Co(II) compounds to glass is

A. green

B. deep-blue

C. yellow

D. red


Q. 67 The number of possible isomers of an octahedral complex [Co(C₂O₄)₂(NH₃)₂]⁻ is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 68 The ligands in anti-cancer during cisplatin are

A. NH₃, Cl

B. NH₃, H₂O

C. Cl, H₂O

D. NO, Cl


Q. 69 Given below, catalyst and corresponding process/ reaction are matched. The mismatch is

A. [RhCl(PPh₃)₂] : hydrogenation

B. TiCl₄ + Al(C₂H₅)₃ : polymerisation

C. V₂O₅ : Haber-bosch process

D. nickel : hydrogenation


Q. 70 Among the following, the species having square planar geometry for central atom are

(i) XeF₄ (ii) SF₄ (iii) [NiCl₄]⁻², (iv) [PdCl₄]⁻²

A. (i) and (iv)

B. (i) and (ii)

C. (ii) and (iii)

D. (iii) and (iv)


Q. 71 Tincture iodine is

A. aqueous solution of I₂

B. solution of I in aqueous KI

C. alcoholic solution of I₂

D. aqueous solution KI


Q. 72 In [Ag(CN)₂]⁻, the number of bonds is

A. PCl₅

B. CCl₄

C. PCl₃

D. POCl₃


Q. 73 Which two of the following salts are used for preparing iodized salt?

(i) KIO₃ (ii)KI (iii) I₂ (iv) HI

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (i) and (iii)

C. (ii) and (iv)

D. (iii) and (iv)


Q. 74 Which two of the following salts are used for preparing iodized salt?

(i) KIO₃ (ii)KI (iii) I₂ (iv) HI

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (i) and (iii)

C. (ii) and (iv)

D. (iii) and (iv)


Q. 75 The compound used in enrichment of uranium for nuclear power plant is

A. U₃O₈

B. UF₆

C. UO₂(NO₃)₂

D. UCl₄


Q. 76 The de broglie wavelength associated with a ball of mass 1 kg having kinetic energy 0.5 J is

A. 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ m

B. 13.20 x 10⁻³⁴ m

C. 10.38 x 10⁻²¹ m

D. 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ A


Q. 77 Dominance of strong repulsive forces among the molecules of the gas (Z = compressibility factor)

A. depends on Z and indicated by Z = 1

B. depends on Z and indicated by Z > 1

C. depends on Z and indicated by Z < 1

D. is independent of Z


Q. 78 40 ml of 0.1M ammonia solution is mixed with 20 ml of 0.1 M HCl. What is the pH of the mixture?(pKₐ of ammonia solution is 4.74)

A. 4.74

B. 2.26

C. 9.26

D. 5.00


Q. 79 For a spontaneous process the correct statement is

A. entropy of the system always increases

B. free energy of the system always increases

C. total energy change is always negative

D. total energy change is always positive


Q. 80 The Ca²⁺ and F⁻ are located in CaF₂ crystal.respectively at face centred cubic lattice points and in

A. tetrahedral

B. half of tetrahedral voids

C. octahedral voids

D. half of octahedral voids


Q. 81 The charge required for reduction of 1 mol of MnO₄⁻ to MnO₂ is

A. 1F

B. 3F

C. 5F

D. 6F


Q. 82 For the reaction,2N₂O₅—> 4NO₂ + O₂ rate of reaction is

A. 1/2 d[N₂O₅]/dt

B. 2 d[N₂O₅]/dt

C. 1/4 d[NO₂]/dt

D. 4 d[NO₂]/dt


Q. 83 For a phase change

A. ΔG=0

B. ΔS=0

C. ΔH=0

D. ΔU=0


Q. 84 A 5% solution(by mass) of cane sugar in water has freezing point of pure water is 273.16 K .The freezing point of a 5% solution(by mass) of glucose in water is

A. 271 K

B. 273.15 K

C. 269.07 K

D. 277.23


Q. 85 The energy gap(Eᵤ) between valence band and conduction band for diamond,silicon and germanium are in the order

A. Eᵤ(diamond)>Eᵤ(silicon)>Eᵤ(germanium)

B. Eᵤ(diamond)<Eᵤ(silicon)<Eᵤ(germanium)

C. Eᵤ(diamond)=Eᵤ(silicon)=Eᵤ(germanium)

D. Eᵤ(diamond)>Eᵤ(germanium)>Eᵤ(silicon)


Q. 86 The enthalpy change(ΔH) for the reaction,

N₂ + 3H₂ ——> 2NH₃

is -92.38 kJ at 298 K.The internal energy change ΔU at 298 K

A. -92.38kJ

B. -87.42kJ

C. -97.34kJ

D. -89.9kJ


Q. 87 The products formed when an aqueous solution of NaBr is electrolysed in a cell having inert electrodes are

A. Na and Br₂

B. Na and O₂

C. H₂,Br₂ and NaOH

D. H₂ and O₂


Q. 88 Among the following L-serine is

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 89 Among the following which one can have a meso form?






Q. 90 Which of the following sequence of reactions can be used for the conversion of

A. SOCl₂ ; H₂O

B. SOCl₂ ; KOH

C. Cl₂/hv; HO

D. SOCl₂ ;alc KOH


Q. 91 Isopropyl benzene on air oxidation in the presence of dilute acid gives






Q. 92 The major product obtained on the monobromination(with Br₂/FeBr₃) of the following compound A

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 93 The following sequence of reactions on A gives

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 94 Nitrobenzene on treatment with zinc dust and aqueous ammonium chloride gives

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 95 Thymine is

A. 5-methyluracil

B. 4-methyluracil

C. 3-methyluracil

D. 1-methyluracil


Q. 96 lysine is least soluble in water in pH range

A. 3 to 4

B. 5 to 6

C. 6 to 7

D. 8 to 9


Q. 97 Methyl–D-glucoside and methyl–D-glucoside are

A. epimers

B. anomers

C. enantiomers

D. conformational diastereomers


Q. 98 Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?




D. (CH₃)₃CCl


Q. 99 The correct increasing order of the reactivity of halides for SᵤI reaction is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 100 The major product formed in the following reaction is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Questions: 101 – 120

In the following questions (161-180),

statement of assertion is given a and a corresponding statement of reason is given just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as –

(a) If both Assertion & Reason (Ire true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

(d) It both Assertion and Reason are false statements.


Q. 101 Assertion : In the iodometric titration starch is used as an indicator.

Reason : starch is a polysaccharide.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 102 Assertion : molecular nitrogen is less reactive than molecular oxygen.

Reason : The bond length N₂ is shorter than that of oxygen.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 103 Assertion : [Co(NO₂)(NH₃)₃] does not show optical isomerism.

Reason : It has a plane of symmetry.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 104 Assertion : E⁰ for Mn³⁺/ Mn²⁺ is more positive than Cr³⁺/Cr²⁺

Reason : The third ionization energy of Mn is larger than of Cr.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 105 Assertion : K₂Cr₂O₇ is used as primary standard volumetric analysis.

Reason : It has a good stability in water.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 106 Assertion : Silicones are hydrophobic in nature.

Reason : Si-O-Si linkages are moisture sensitive.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 107 Assertion : According to transition state theory, for the formation of an activated complex, one of the vibrational degrees of freedom is converted into a translational degrees of freedom.

Reason : energy of the activated complex is higher than the energy of reactant molecules.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 108 Assertion : Water in liquid state is more stable than ice at room temperature.

Reason : water in liquid form has higher entropy than ice.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 109 Assertion : Sb₂S₃ is not soluble in yellow ammonium sulphide.

Reason : The common ion effect due S²⁻ ions reduces the solubility of Sb₂S₃

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 110 Assertion : Graphite is an example of tetragonal crystal system.

Reason : For a tetragonal system, a=b≠c, α=β=90° , γ= 120°

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 111 Assertion : For the daniel cell, Zn I ZN²⁺ II Cu I Cu²⁺ with E(cell) = 1.1 V, the application of opposite potential greater than 1.1 V results into flow of electrode from cathode to anode,

Reason : Zn is deposited at anode and Cu is dissolved at cathode.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 112 Assertion : Fe³⁺ can be used for coagulation of As₂S₃ sol.

Reason : Fe³⁺ reacts with As₂S₃ to give Fe₂S₃

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 113 Assertion : If red blood cells were removed from the body and placed in pure water, pressure inside the cells increases.

Reason : The concentration of salt content in the cells increases.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 114 Assertion : Change in colour of acidic solution of potassium dichromate by breath is used to test drunk drivers.

Reason : Change in colour is due to the complexation of alcohol with potassium dichromate.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 115 Assertion : anilinium chloride is more acidic than ammonium chloride.

Reason : Anilinium ion is resonance-stabilised.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 116 Assertion : Diastereomers have different physical properties.

Reason : They are non-superimposable mirror images.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 117 Assertion : The presence of nitro group facilitates nucleophilic substitution reactions in aryl halides.

Reason : The intermediate carbanion ion stabilised due to the presence of nitro group.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 118 Assertion : 1,3-butadiene is the monomer for natural rubber.

Reason : natural rubber is formed through anionic addition polymerization.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 119 Assertion : addition of HBr on 2-butene gives two isomeric products.

Reason : addition of HBr on 2-butene follows Markovnikov’s rule.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 120 Assertion : The water pouch of instant cold pack for treating athletic injuries breaks when squeezed and NH₄NO₃ dissolves lowering the temperature.

Reason : Addition of the depression of freezing point solvent.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 121 Given below is a table comparing the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system for four features(1-4). which one feature correctly described?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 122 Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic and the taxon?

Animal Characteristic Taxon
(a) millipede Ventral nerve cord arachnida
(b) Duckbill platypus oviparous mammalia
(c) silverfish Pectoral & pelvic fins chordata
(d) Sea anemone triploblastic cnidaria

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 123 All mammals without any exception are characterized by

A. viviparity and biconcave red blood cells

B. extra-abdominal testes and a four chambered heart

C. heterodont teeth and 12 pairs of cranial nerves

D. a muscular diaphragm and milk producing glands


Q. 124 Which one of the following pairs of the kind of cells and their secretion is correctly matched?

A. oxyntic cells—a secretion with pH between 2.0 and 3.0

B. alpha cells of islets of langerhans— secretion that decreases blood sugar level

C. kupffer cells—a digestive enzyme that hydrolyzes nucleic acids

D. sebaceous glands— a secretion that evaporates for cooling


Q. 125 Examine the diagram of the two cell types A and B given below and select the correct option:

A. cell A is the rod cell found evenly all over retina

B. cell A is the cone cell more concentrated in the fovea centralis

C. cell B is concerned with colour vision in bright light

D. cell A is sensitive to low light intensities


Q. 126 Which one of the following pairs of features is a good example of polygenic inheritance?

A. human height and skin colour

B. ABO blood group in humans and flowers colour of mirabilis jalapa

C. hair pigment of mouse and tongue rolling in humans

D. human eye colour and sickle cell anaemia


Q. 127 Mating of an organism to a double recessive in order to determine whether it is homozygous or heterozygous for a nuclear under consideration is called

A. reciprocal cross

B. test cross

C. dihybrid cross

D. back cross


Q. 128 In which one of the following sets of three items each belong to the category mentioned against them?

A. lysine, glycine, thiamine—amino acids

B. myosin, oxytocin and gastrin—hormones

C. rennin, helicase and hyaluronidase—enzymes

D. optic nerve, oculomotor, vagus—sensory nerves


Q. 129 A cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the field. Which one of the following groups of bones are directly contributing in this movement.

A. femur, malleus, tibia, metatarsals

B. pelvis, ulna, patella, tarsals

C. sternum , femur, tibia, fibula

D. tarsals, femur, metatarsals, tibia


Q. 130 Given below is a higher simplified representation of the human sex chromosomes from a karyotype.

The gene a and b could be of

A. colour blindness and body height

B. attached car lobe and rhesus blood group

C. haemophilia and red-green colorblindness

D. phenylketonuria and haemophilia


Q. 131 A lizard like member of reptilia is sitting on a tree with its tail coiled around twig. This animal could be

A. hemidactylus showing sexual dimorphism

B. varanus showing mimicry

C. garden lizard(calates) showing camouflage

D. chamaeleon showing protective colouration


Q. 132 The figure given below shows three velocity-substrate concentration curves for an enzyme reaction. What to do the curves a, b and c depict respectively.

A. a-normal enzyme reaction, b-competitive inhibition, c-non-competitive inhibition

B. a-enzyme with an allosteric modulator added, b-competitive inhibition, c-competitive inhibition

C. a-enzyme with an allsteric stimulator, b-competitive inhibition added, c-normal enzyme reaction

D. a-normal enzyme reaction, b-non-competitive inhibitor added, c-allosteric inhibitor added


Q. 133 Pollution from animal excreta and organic waste from kitchen can be most profitably minimized by

A. storing them in underground storage tanks

B. using them for producing biogas

C. vermiculture

D. using them directly as biofertilizers


Q. 134 A person who shows unpredictable moods, outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with others is suffering from

A. borderline personality disorder(BPD)

B. mood disorder

C. addictive disorder

D. schizophrenia


Q. 135 Genes are present in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells are found in

A. mitochondria and inherited via egg cytoplasm

B. lysosomes and peroxisomes

C. golgi bodies and smooth endoplasmic reticulum

D. plastids and inherited via male gamete


Q. 136 The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes. Bronchioles and small bronchi are known as

A. squamous epithelium

B. columnar epithelium

C. ciliated epithelium

D. cubical epithelium


Q. 137 Tadpoles of frog can be made to grow as giant sized tadpoles, if they are:

A. administered antithyroid substance like thiourea

B. administered large amount of thyroxine

C. reared on a diet wich in egg yolk

D. reared on a diet rich in both egg yolk and glucose


Q. 138 When children play barefoot in pools of dirty water and flood water, they may suffer from the disease like

A. leptospirosis and bilharzia

B. malaria, amoebic dysentery and leptospirosis

C. bilharzia, infective hepatitis and diarrhoea

D. guinea worm infection, elephantiasis and amoebic dysentery


Q. 139 Which one of the following is an environment related disorder with the correct main cause?

A. black lung disease(pneumoconiosis) found mainly in workers in stone quarries and crushers

B. blue baby disease(methaemoglobinaemia) due to heavy use nitrogenous fertilizers in the area

C. non-hodgkin’s lymphoma found mainly in workers involved in manufacture of neem based pesticides

D. skin cancer mainly in people exposed to benzene and methane


Q. 140 The given figure shows an angiosperm of the coronary blood vessel.which on of the following describes correctly. what is being done?

A. it is coronary artery which has cancerous growth that is being removed

B. it is coronary artery which is blocked by a plaque and the same is being cracked

C. it is coronary vein in which the defective valves are being opened

D. it is coronary vein blocked by a parasite (blood fluke) that is being removed


Q. 141 In the following table. Identify the correct matching of the crop, its disease and the corresponding pathogen.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 142 In which of the following combinations of the number of chromosomes is the present day hexaploid wheat correctly represented?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 143 Grafting is successful in dicots but not in monocots because the dicots have

A. vascular bundles arranged in a ring

B. cambium for secondary growth

C. vessels with elements arranged end to end

D. cork cambium


Q. 144 In the sieve elements, which one of the following is most likely function of P-proteins?

A. deposition of callose on sieve plates

B. providing energy for active translocation

C. autolytic enzymes

D. sealing mechanism on wounding


Q. 145 Myxomycetes are

A. saprobes or parasites, jhaving mycelia, asexual reproduction by fragmentation, sexual reproduction by fusion of gametes

B. slimy mass of multinucleate protoplasm, having pseudopodia-like structures for engulfing food, reproduction through fragmentation or zoospores.

C. prokaryotic organisms, cellular or acellular,saprobes or autotrophic, reproduce by binary fission

D. eukaryotic, single called or filamentous, saprobes or autotrophic,asexual reproduction by fusion of two cells or their nuclei


Q. 146 “ordines anomali” of bentham and hooker includes

A. seed plants showing abnormal forms of growth and development

B. plants described only in fossil state

C. plants described in the literature but which bentham and hooker did not see in original

D. a few orders which could not be placed satisfactory in the classification


Q. 147 Hirudin is:

A. a protein produced by hordeum vulgare, which is rich in lysine

B. a toxic molecule isolated from gossypium hirsutum, which reduces human fertility

C. a protein produced from transgenic brassica napus, which prevents blood clotting.

D. an antibiotic produced by a genetically engineered bacterium, escherichia coli.


Q. 148 A scion is grafted to a stock. the quality of fruits produced will be determined by the genotype of

A. stock

B. scion

C. both stock and scion

D. neither stock nor scion


Q. 149 In prokaryotes, chromatophores are

A. specialized granules responsible for colouration of cells

B. structures responsible for organizing the shape of the organism

C. inclusion bodies lying free the cells for carrying out various metabolic activities.

D. internal membrane systems that may become extensive and complex in photosynthetic bacteria


Q. 150 Among rust, smut and mushroom all the three

A. are pathogens

B. are saprobes

C. bear ascocarps

D. bear basidiocarps


Q. 151 The function of leg haemoglobin during biological nitrogen fixation in root nodules of legumes is to

A. convert atmospheric N2 to NH3

B. convert ammonia to nitrite

C. transport oxygen for activity of nitrogenase

D. protect nitrogenase from oxygen


Q. 152 Avena curvature test is a bioassay for examining the activity of

A. auxins

B. gibberellins

C. cytokinins

D. ethylene


Q. 153 What is common between chloroplasts, chromoplasts and leucoplasts ?

A. presence of pigments

B. possession of thylakoids and grana

C. storage of starch, proteins and lipids

D. ability to multiply by a fission-like process


Q. 154 Plants of which one of the following groups of genera arc pollinated by the same agency?

A. Triticum. Cocos, Mangifera

B. Ficus, Kigella, Casuarina

C. Salvia, Morus, Euphorbia

D. Bombax, Butea, Bauhinia


Q. 155 The Montreal Protocol refers to

A. persistent organic pollutants

B. global warming and climate change

C. substances that deplete the ozone layer

D. biosafety of genetically modified organisms


Q. 156 Keystone species deserve protection because these

A. are capable of surviving in harsh environmental conditions

B. indicate presence of certain minerals in the soil

C. have become rare due to overexploitation .

D. play an important role in supporting other species


Q. 157 In India, we find mangoes with different flavours, colours, fibre content, sugar content and even shelf- life. The large variation is on account of

A. species diversity

B. induced mutations”

C. genetic diversity

D. hybridization


Q. 158 During protein synthesis in an organism at one point the process comes to a halt. Select the group of the three codons from the following, from which, anyone of the three could bring about this halt






Q. 159 Biosphere reserves differ from National Parks and Wildlife sanctuaries because in the former

A. human beings are not allowed to enter

B. people are an integral part of the system

C. plants are paid greater attention than the animals

D. living organisms are brought from all over the world and preserved for posterity


Q. 160 Somaclonal variation is seen in

A. tissue culture grown plants

B. apornicts

C. polyploids

D. vegetatively propagated plants


Questions: 161 – 180

In the following questions (161-180),

statement of assertion is given a and a corresponding statement of reason is given just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as –

(a) If both Assertion & Reason (Ire true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(c) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.

(d) It both Assertion and Reason are false statements.


Q. 161 Assertion: A person who has received a cut and is bleeding needs to be given anti-tetanus treatment.

Reason: Anti-tetanus injection provides immunity by producing antibodies for tetanus

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 162 Assertion: Cancer cells are virtually immortal until the body in which they reside dies.

Reason : Cancer is caused by damage to genes regulating the cell division cycle.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 163 Assertion : A network of food chains existing together in an ecosystem is known as a food web.

Reason: An animal like kite cannot be a part of a food web

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 164 Assertion: Inflammation of a skeletal joint may immobilize the movements of the joint.

Reason: Uric acid crystals in the joint cavity and ossification of articular cartilage lead to this.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 165 Assertion: The earliest organisms that appeared on the Earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.

Reason: The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 166 Assertion : Escherichia coli, Shigella sp. and I Salmonella sp. are all responsible for diarrhoeal I disease. 1

Reason : Dehydration is common to all types of I diarrhoeal diseases and adequate supply of fluids , I electrolytes should be ensured.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 167 Assertion : Deforestation is one main contributing to global warming.

Reason : Besides CO2, two other gases methane and CFCs are also included under greenhouse gases.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 168 Assertion: LSD and marijuana are clinically used as analgesics.

Reason: Both these drugs suppress brain function.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 169 Assertion: An organism with lethal mutation may not even develop beyond the zygote stage.

Reason: All types of gene mutations are lethal

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 170 Assertion: Our body secretes adrenaline in intense cold.

Reason: Adrenaline raises metabolic rate.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 171 Assertion: When the ambient temperature is high and soil contains excess of water, the plants tend to lose water in the form of droplets from lenticels.

Reason: Root pressure regulates the rate of loss of water form lenticels.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 172 Assertion: In angiosperms the conduction of water is more efficient because their xylem has vessels.

Reason: Conduction of water by vessel clements is an active process with energy supplied by xylem parenchyma rich in mitochondria.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 173 Assertion: Polytene chromosomes have a high amount of DNA:

Reason: Polytene chromosomes arc formed by repeated replication of chromosomal DNA without separation of chromatids.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 174 Assertion: UV radiation causes photodissociation of ozone into 02 and 0, thus causing damage to the stratospheric ozone layer.

Reason: Ozone hole is resulting in global warming and climate change.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 175 Assertion: The concentration of methane in the atmosphere has more than doubled in the last 250 years.

Reason: Wetlands and rice fields arc (he major sources of methane.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 176 Assertion: In tropical rainforests, O-horizon and A-horizon of soil profile are shallow and nutrient poor.

Reason : Excessive growth of microorganisms in the soil depletes its organic content.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 177 Assertion: Gram-negative bacteria do not retain the stain when washed with alcohol.

Reason: The outer face of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria contains lipopolysaccharides, a part of which is integrated into the membrane lipids.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 178 Assertion: Under conditions of high light intensity and limited CO2 supply, photorespiration has a ‘useful role in protecting the plants from photooxidative damage.

Reason : If Enough CO2 is not available to utilize light energy for carboxylation to proceed. the excess energy may not cause damage to plants

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 179 Assertion: Photosynthetically C, plants are less efficient than C] plants.

Reason: The operation of C, pathway requires the involvement of only bundle-sheath cells.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 180 Assertion : Eukaryotic cells have the ability to adopt a variety of shapes and carry out directed movements.

Reason : There are three principal types of protein filaments – microfilaments, microtubules and i ntcrmcd iatc fi laments, which constitute the cytoskeleton

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 181 The term’ CPR’ often used in first aid stands for

A. Clinic for Pulmonary Rehabilitation

B. Chemical Prevention of Rhinitis

C. Chemo-Prophylaxis response

D. Cardio-Pulmonary resuscitation


Q. 182 Alzheimer’s disease affects

A. childhood

B. adolescent

C. young people

D. elderly people


Q. 183 Central Council for Research in Yoga and Naturopathy (CCRYN) is an organization that funds research in the given field in om country. It is located in

A. New Delhi

B. Rishikesh

C. Bangalore

D. Hyderabad


Q. 184 The vaccination for which one of the following diseases is not covered in the immunization schedule so far?

A. tuberculosis

B. diphtheria

C. measles

D. pneumonia


Q. 185 Which one of the following is true and is not a misconception?

A. cutting the top of a bitter cucumber and Rubbing it with the corresponding surface removes bitterness

B. pearl is produced from a drop of rain water fitting into the oyster in Swati Nakshatra

C. while dreaming during sleep at night the eyes move rapidly

D. peahen gets conceived from the tears that drop from the peacock’s eye and she drinks them


Q. 186 A drug called reserpine was discovered by

A. Jal Vakil

B. Paul Ehrlich

C. Hansen

D. Alexander Wood


Q. 187 Biometry refers to

A. identification of humans by scanning face and fingerprints

B. measurement of mechanical displacement in humans

C. a method of lie detection

D. body length relationships across the evolutionary scale


Q. 188 Which one of the following is one of the two days when the sun rises exactly in the east?

A. 14th January

B. 21st March

C. 21st June

D. 23nd December


Q. 189 X-Wilhelm rays were discovered b

A. K. Roentgen

B. H. Kissinger

C. Sir C. V. Raman

D. Meghnad Saha


Q. 190 Which one of the following literary titles is, correctly matched with its author ‘

A. Rumayana – Tulsidas

B. Mahabharat – Vedvyas

C. Kumarasambhava – Ravidas

D. Shakuntala -Bhushan


Q. 191 A very much publicized treatment method “DOTS” is being adopted for the cure of

A. dementia

B. tetanus

C. tuberculosis

D. sexually transmitted disease


Q. 192 Which of the following Indian cricket player after India-Pakistan 001 (One-day International) at : Abudhabi became no.1 001 batsman

A. Rahul Dravid

B. Yuvraj

C. Sachin Tendulkar

D. M.S dhoni


Q. 193 The Jungle in Rudyard Kipling’s Jungle book. describes which part of Indian forest ?

A. central Indian forest ncar Satpura range

B. Uttaranchal thick forest

C. Himalayan forest in Himachal

D. Nilgiri jungles


Q. 194 Sardar Sarovar Dam is built on the river

A. jhelam

B. Narmada

C. Tapti

D. vyas


Q. 195 One ream of paper equals to

A. 100-IIOsheets

B. 256 sheets

C. 80-500 sheets

D. 1000 sheets


Q. 196 Which of the following honour is given by UNESCO?

A. the Kalinga prize

B. Magsaysay award

C. Pulitzer prize

D. order of the Golden Ark award


Q. 197 Bodyline’ in cricket refers to

A. bowling that hits the body

B. the line of body close to wicket line

C. he white line on ground within which the player stands

D. he line of moving ball


Q. 198 Hindu view of life’ is written by

A. S. Radhakrishnan

B. .K. Narayan

C. V.D. Savarkar

D. John Ruskin


Q. 199 Lagoon refers to

A. a full moon

B. the sea breaking into the land and then separated by sand dunes

C. a spot in a desert made fertile by presence of water

D. horseshoe shaped coral reef


Q. 200 Ecology deals with

A. the earth and planets

B. the relationship between organism and their environments

C. he life under the sea

D. economical growth of poor people



Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C D B C C C B A B B
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer B A C A D B B A A C
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer B B D A A A B C C A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B D B C B C B D A D
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C B C B A A D C A D
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer B C A A C B A B A A
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer B D A C A B C A C A
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer B C A A A A B C D A
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer B C A C A B C C B B
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer D B C D A D B B A D
Question 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer B A A B C C A A D D
Question 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer B C C A C C A D D A
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer B B D D B A B C D C
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer D A B A A C A A B B
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer C D B D B D C B D A
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer D A D D C D C C B A
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer A B C A B B B D C A
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer D C A A A B A C D A
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer D D A D C A D B A B
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer C D A B C A A A B B

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