Author: Vidhyarthi Darpan

SSC CHSL 20th October 2020 Shift-1 

English Language (Basic Knowledge) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. 

Gulliver easily pulled all the warships of the enemy after him. 

(A) All the warships of the enemy had been easily pulled by Gulliver after him. 

(B) All the warships of the enemy were easily pulled by Gulliver after him. 

(C) All the warships of the enemy were being easily pulled by Gulliver after him. 

(D) All the warships of Gulliver were easily pulled by the enemy after him. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 2 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. 

(A) Gallop 

(B) Gallary 

(C) Galley 

(D) Gallant 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 3 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 

CANDID 

(A) Truthful 

(B) Frank 

(C) Genuine 

(D) Devious 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 4 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the given sentence. Order was quickly ______ in the area after the scuffle between the two groups. 

(A) rebuilt 

(B) repaired 

(C) restored 

(D) recovered 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

During organised tours, tourists can visit a former Nazi compound 40 kilometres (1)______ Berlin called the ‘Forbidden City’. Twenty thousand people (2)______ here every year to learn about Nazi military history. The Nazis (3)______ militarily active at the compound, (4)______ was kept secret in a forest and behind a fence. The Nazis (5)______ much of World War II from here. 

 

Q. 5 Select the most appropriate option for blank number 1. 

(A) into 

(B) in 

(C) at 

(D) from 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 6 Select the most appropriate option for blank number 2. 

(A) watch 

(B) call 

(C) roam 

(D) visit 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 7 Select the most appropriate option for blank number 3. 

(A) had 

(B) were 

(C) was 

(D) are 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 8 Select the most appropriate option for blank number 4. 

(A) which 

(B) what 

(C) who 

(D) whom 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 9 Select the most appropriate option for blank number 5. 

(A) planned 

(B) fought 

(C) started 

(D) carried 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Look after 

(A) Take care of 

(B) Resemble 

(C) Scold 

(D) Search for 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Make a beeline 

(A) Go straight to 

(B) Be crazy 

(C) Stand in a queue 

(D) Remain busy 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 12 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. 

(A) Serious 

(B) Curious 

(C) Gorgeous 

(D) Ambiteous 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 13 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A ruler with total power over a country, typically one who has obtained control by force 

(A) Democrat 

(B) Dictator 

(C) Protector 

(D) Traitor 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 14 In the given sentence identify the segment which contains a grammatical error. The publics are not satisfied with the new act. 

(A) The publics are 

(B) not satisfied 

(C) new act 

(D) with the 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

RECONCILE 

(A) Refuse 

(B) Resolve 

(C) Scatter 

(D) Agitate 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 16 Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. 

I said to Kirti, “These plants will take about two months to flower.” 

(A) I told Kirti that those plants will be taking about two months to flower. 

(B) I told Kirti that those plants would take about two months to flower. 

(C) I told Kirti that those plants take about two months to flower. 

(D) I told Kirti that these plants will take about two months to flower. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 17 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

SALVAGE 

(A) Save 

(B) Hurt 

(C) Lose 

(D) Waste 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 18 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 

CONVENIENCE 

(A) Enjoyment 

(B) Assistance 

(C) Hindrance 

(D) Satisfaction 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 19 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

(A) The cable was thick as pack-thread, and the bars were the size of knitting needles. 

(B) Then I made fifty hooks by twisting three bars together at a time. 

(C) I ordered a great quantity of strong cable and bars of iron. 

(D) I twisted the cables together and made fifty strong cords. 

(A) CABD 

(B) ADCB 

(C) CADB 

(D) ABDC

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 20 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

Flesh eating animal 

(A) Herbivore 

(B) Carnivore 

(C) Insectivore 

(D) Omnivore 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 21 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No improvement’. 

After switching off the light, he went off to sleep. 

(A) switching off a light 

(B) he has switched off the light 

(C) being switched off the light 

(D) No improvement 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 22 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

(A) In December 2019, Typhoon Kammuri came to the Philippines. 

(B) They closed schools and evacuated hundreds of thousands of people from their homes. 

(C) Officials closed the international airport in the capital city of Manila for 12 hours. 

(D) It flooded streets and damaged many houses and power lines. 

(A) CBAD 

(B) ADCB 

(C) ABCD

(D) CBDA 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 23 In the given sentence identify the segment which contains a grammatical error. 

When the boys were playing the match, it suddenly starts raining. 

(A) When the boys 

(B) it suddenly 

(C) starts raining 

(D) were playing the match 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 24 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No improvement’. 

While my parents talked to the visitor, I made tea in the kitchen. 

(A) parents have talked 

(B) parents are talking 

(C) parents were talking 

(D) No improvement 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 25 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the given sentence. 

He ______ his studies even after leaving college and finally got a Ph.D. degree. 

(A) pursued 

(B) carried 

(C) persisted 

(D) sought 

Answer: (A) 

General Intelligence 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd one. 

(A) Iodine 

(B) Bromine 

(C) Fluorine 

(D) Iron 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Iodine, Fluorine, Bromine are non-metals whereas Iron is a metal. 

∴ Iron is the odd one among the given words. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (D) 

 

Q. 27 A paper is folded and cut as shown in the following figure. How will this paper look when unfolded? 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

When the paper is cut and unfolded, the pattern of cutting will be similar on the four parts of the paper as shown below 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 28 A and B are the brothers of C. B is the son of D and E. D is the daughter of F. P is the father-in-law of E. Q is the son of F. What is the relationship of A to P? 

(A) Grandson 

(B) Son 

(C) Daughter 

(D) Father 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

According to the problem, the family tree is 

∴ (A) is the grandson of P. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 29 Study the given pattern carefully and select the letter that can replace the question mark (?) in it. 

(A) J 

(B) K 

(C) S 

(D) R 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The logic here is 

G + L = 7 + 12 = 19 

(A) + R = 1 + 18 = 19 

The sum of values of the opposite letters is 19. 

Similarly, I + ? = 19 

⇒ 9 + ? = 19 

⇒ ? = 10 = J 

∴ Required letter = J 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 30 Which of the following options is NOT an example of a number triad with the following properties?

1. Sum of the digits of the third number is twice the sum of the digits of the first number.

2. Sum of the digits of the second number is thrice the sum of the digits of the first number. 

(A) (201, 702, 303) 

(B) (400, 660, 800) 

(C) (200, 600, 300) 

(D) (111, 207, 222) 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

By Trial and Error method, 

Option (A) 

Sum of the digits of the first number = 2 + 0 + 1 = 3 

Sum of the digits of the second number = 7 + 0 + 2 = 9 

Sum of the digits of the third number = 3 + 0 + 3 = 6 

(201, 702, 303) follows the given properties. Hence option (A) is incorrect. 

Option (B) 

Sum of the digits of the first number = 4 + 0 + 0 = 4 

Sum of the digits of the second number = 6 + 6 + 0 = 12 

Sum of the digits of the third number = 8 + 0 + 0 = 8 

(400, 660, 800) follows the given properties. Hence option (B) is incorrect. 

Option (C) 

Sum of the digits of the first number = 2 + 0 + 0 = 2 

Sum of the digits of the second number = 6 + 0 + 0 = 6 

Sum of the digits of the third number = 3 + 0 + 0 = 3 

Sum of the digits of the third number is not twice the sum of the digits of the first number. Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 31 Select the correct equation when the signs ‘+’ and ‘ × ’ and the numbers ‘4’ and ‘8’ are interchanged. 

(A) 12 × 4 + 8 = 34 

(B) 6 + 8 × 4 = 38 

(C) 2 × 4 + 8 = 34 

(D) 4 + 8 × 2 = 32 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

By Trial and Error method, 

Option (A) 

12 + 8 × 4 = 34 

12 + 32 = 34 

44 = 34 

Hence Option (A) is incorrect 

Option (B) 

6 × 4 + 8 = 38 

24 + 8 = 38 

32 = 38 

Hence Option (B) is incorrect 

Option (C) 

2 + 8 × 4 = 34 

2 + 32 = 34 

34 = 34 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 32 Two different positions of the same dice are shown. Select the number that will be on the face opposite to the one having ‘4’.

(A) 1 

(B) 3 

(C) 6 

(D) 2 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

From the first position of the dice, 1 and 5 is not opposite to 3 

From the second position of the dice, 1 and 5 is not opposite to 4 

⇒ 1 and 5 are opposite to opposite to numbers 2 and 6 

⇒ The remaining numbers 3 and 4 are opposite to each other 

∴ 3 will be on the face opposite to the one having 4 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (B) 

 

Q. 33 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Malaria : Parasite : : Stomach ulcers : ? 

(A) Insects 

(B) Bacteria 

(C) Parasites 

(D) Protozoa 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Malaria is caused by Parasite. In the same way Stomach ulcer is caused by Bacteria. 

∴ Bacteria is related to Stomach ulcers in the same way Parasite is related to Malaria. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (B) 

 

Q. 34 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right side of the figure. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 35 Find the number of triangles in the following figure. 

(A) 14 

(B) 12 

(C) 10 

(D) 8 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The different triangles in the given figure are JKL, JLM, JMN, JNO, JKM, JLN, JMO, JKN, JLO, JKO 

∴ Number of triangles in the given figure = 10 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 36 In a certain code language, PARK is coded as 6739, ROAD is coded as 3574, POND is coded as 6584 and LANE is coded as 2781. How will LORD be coded as in that language? 

(A) 2534 

(B) 7432 

(C) 5213 

(D) 5304 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 37 In a certain code language, VICTORY is written as XGERQPA. How will KINDLE be written as in that language? 

(A) MGPBNC

(B) BEDRVH 

(C) IKLFJG 

(D) SOWNEQ 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 38 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

29 : 838 :: 14 : ? 

(A) 199 

(B) 196 

(C) 195 

(D) 193 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 39 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster. 

(A) CK 

(B) DP 

(C) ET 

(D) FX 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The number of letters between CK = 7 

The number of letters between DP = 11 

The number of letters between ET = 14 

The number of letters between FX = 17 

The number of letters between CK, DP, FX is odd whereas the number of letters between ET is even. 

∴ ET is the odd letter-cluster among the given letter-clusters. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 40 Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

BDF, DHL, FLR, ? 

(A) HPX 

(B) IQY 

(C) HPY 

(D) HOX 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The logic here is 

(B) + 2 = (D) ⟶ (D) + 2 = F ⟶ F + 2 = H 

(D) + 4 = H ⟶ H + 4 = L ⟶ L + 4 = P 

F + 6 = L ⟶ L + 6 = R ⟶ R + 6 = X 

Similarly, the next letter-cluster in the series is HPX 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 41 ‘Myopia’ is related to ‘Eye’ in the same way as ‘Pyorrhea’ is related to ‘________’. 

(A) Lung 

(B) Gums 

(C) Brain 

(D) Stomach 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Myopia is an Eye illness. Similarly, Pyorrhea is a Gum illness. 

∴ Myopia is related to Eye in the same way Pyorrhea is related to Gums. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (B) 

 

Q. 42 Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it. 

4 (15) 1; 7 (22) 3; ? (57) 4 

(A) 16 

(B) 11 

(C) 14 

(D) 12 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 43 Identify the number that does NOT belong to the following series. 

1, 4, 9, 15, 25, 36 

(A) 4 

(B) 9 

(C) 15 

(D) 25 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 44 Observe the following diagram and answer the question. 

Find the number of students who play any two of the three sports. 

(A) 9 

(B) 15 

(C) 11 

(D) 13 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

From the diagram, 

Number of students who play any two of the three sports = Intersection of circle and rectangle + Intersection of triangle and rectangle = 5 + 6 = 11 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 45 Four number triads have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number triad that is different from the rest. 

(A) (273, 546, 819) 

(B) (291, 438, 657) 

(C) (326, 654, 981) 

(D) (192, 384, 576) 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 46 Select the correct option in which the given figure is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed) 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 47 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. 

Statements: 

1. Most teachers are women. 

2. Some women are managers. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some managers are women. 

II. Some teachers are managers. 

(A) Both conclusions I and II follow. 

(B) Only conclusion I follows. 

(C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows. 

(D) Only conclusion II follows. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 48 Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

6, 10, 18, 34, ? 

(A) 68 

(B) 64 

(C) 66 

(D) 70 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 49 While writing all the natural numbers from 1 to 100, how many times do we write 6? 

(A) 20 

(B) 18 

(C) 21 

(D) 19 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

From the Natural numbers 1 to 100, 

The number of times that 6 will be written in units place = 10 

The number of times that 6 will be written in tens place = 10 

∴ Total number of times that 6 will be written from 1 to 100 = 10 + 10 = 20 Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 50 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right side of the figure. 

Answer: (B) 

Quantitative Aptitude(Basic Arithmetic Skill) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 The given pie-chart represents the percentage of students enrolled in five different sports. The total number of students is 2800. 

If 24 students playing cricket are shifted to Kabaddi, then find the new ratio of the number of students in Cricket to those in Kabaddi. 

(A) 31 : 18 

(B) 30 : 17 

(C) 31 : 16 

(D) 30 : 13 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 52 Malti bought a TV for ₹ 8,800 including GST at 10%. What is the original cost of the TV? 

(A) ₹8,800 

(B) ₹8,000 

(C) ₹7,920 

(D) ₹9,600 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 53 If x³ + y³ = 16 and x + y = 4, then the value of x⁴ + y⁴ is: 

(A) 48 

(B) 32 

(C) 64 

(D) 30 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 54 If 4/3 (x² + 1/x²) = 110 ⅔, find 1/9 (x³ – 1/x³), where > 0. 

(A) 74 

(B) 76 

(C) 84 

(D) 85 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 55 A is point at a distance 26 cm from the centre O of a circle of radius 10 cm. AP and AQ are the tangents to the circle at the point of contacts P and Q. If a tangent BC is drawn at a point R lying on the minor arc PQ to intersect AP at B and AQ at C, then the perimeter of △ABC is: 

(A) 48 cm 

(B) 46 cm 

(C) 42 cm 

(D) 40 cm 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 56 Evaluate: [7 + 7 × (7 + 7 ÷ 7)] + 7 ÷ 7 . 

(A) 10 

(B) 64 

(C) 5 

(D) 63 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

[7 + 7 × (7 + 7 ÷ 7)] + 7 ÷ 7 = [7 + 7 × (7 + 1)] + 7 ÷ 7 

= [7 + 7 × 8] + 7 ÷ 7 

= [7 + 56] + 7 ÷ 7 

= 63 + 7 ÷ 7 

= 63 + 1 

= 64 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (B) 

 

Q. 57 ABC and BDE are two equilateral triangles such that D is the mid-point of BC. If the area of triangle ABC is 136 cm² , then the area of triangle BDE is equal to: 

(A) 36cm² 

(B) 38cm² 

(C) 24cm² 

(D) 34cm² 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 58 If cos 3θ = sin(θ − 34^∘) , then the value of θ as an acute angle is: 

(A) 56^∘ 

(B) 17^∘ 

(C) 31^∘

(D) 34^∘ 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 59 Rahul and Mithun travel a distance of 30 km. The sum of their speeds is 70 km/h and the total time taken by both to travel the distance is 2 hours 6 minutes. The difference between their speeds is: 

(A) 35 km/h 

(B) 20 km/h 

(C) 25 km/h 

(D) 30 km/h 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 60 Study the given bar chart and answer the question that follows. 

Production of Fertilizers by a Company (in 10,000 tonnes) Over the Years 

What was the approximate percentage increase in the production of fertilizers from 1998 to 1999? 

(A) 44.4% 

(B) 50% 

(C) 40% 

(D) 48.4% 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 61 If √3 os θ = sin θ, then the value of (4sin²𝜃-5cos𝜃) / (3cos𝜃 +1) is: 

(A) ¼ 

(B) ⅕  

(C) 5 

(D) ⅖  

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 62 In an isosceles triangle ABC with AB = AC and AD is perpendicular to BC, if AD = 6 cm and the perimeter of △ABC is 36 cm, then the area of △ABC is: 

(A) 54 cm² 

(B) 64 cm² 

(C) 45 cm² 

(D) 48 cm² 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 63 An article was sold at a loss of 12%. If it was sold for ₹ 630 more, then there would have been a gain of 6%. Find the cost price of the article. 

(A) ₹ 3,500 

(B) ₹ 2,800 

(C) ₹ 2,500 

(D) ₹ 3,000 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 64 The given pie-chart represents the percentage of students enrolled in five different sports. The total number of students is 2800.

What is the average number of students enrolled in Hockey and Tennis together? 

(A) 560 

(B) 580 

(C) 540 

(D) 460 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 65 If the difference between the compound interest and simple interest on a certain sum of money for three years at 10% p.a. is ₹ 558, then the sum is: 

(A) ₹ 18,500 

(B) ₹ 15,000 

(C) ₹ 16,000 

(D) ₹ 18,000 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 66 The salaries of Vipin and Dinesh are in the ratio 5 : 8. If the salary of each is increased by ₹ 4,800, then new ratio becomes 7 : 10. What is Vipin’s salary ? 

(A) ₹ 13,000 

(B) ₹ 12,000 

(C) ₹ 12,500 

(D) ₹ 10,000 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 67 If p + 1/p = 112, find (p – 112)¹⁵ + 1/p¹⁵

(A) 1 

(B) 15 

(C) 10 

(D) 0 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 68 If 4M37094267N is divisible by both 8 and 11, where M and N are single digit integers, then the values of M and N are: 

(A) M = 5, N = 6 

(B) M = 5, N = 4 

(C) M = 5, N = 2 

(D) M = 2, N = 5 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Given, 4M37094267N is divisible by both 8 and 11 

If the number is divisible by 8, then the three digits should be divisible by 8 

⇒ 67N is divisible by 8 

⇒ The only possible value for N is 2 

If the number is divisible by 11, then 

Sum of digits at odd place – Sum of digits at even place = 0 or multiple of 11 

⇒ (M+7+9+2+7) – (4+3+0+4+6+N) = 0 or multiple of 11 

⇒ M + 25 – 17 – N = 0 or multiple of 11 

⇒ M – N + 8 = 0 or multiple of 11 

⇒ M – 2 + 8 = 0 or multiple of 11 

⇒ M + 6 = 0 or multiple of 11 

The possible value is M + 6 = 11 

⇒ M = 5 

∴ M = 5, N = 2 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 69 The average of nine 2 digit numbers is decreased by 6 when the digits of one of the 2 digit numbers is interchanged. Find the difference between the digits of that number. 

(A) 6 

(B) 8 

(C) 2 

(D) 4 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 70 Study the given and answer the question that follows. 

Production of Fertilizers by a Company (in 10,000 tonnes) Over the Years 

The average production in 2000 and 2001 was less than the average production of which of the following pairs of years ? 

(A) 2001 and 2002 

(B) 1997 and 1998 

(C) 1999 and 2000 

(D) 1996 and 1997 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 71 The difference of two positive numbers is 1020. If 7.6% of the greater number is 12.4% of the smaller number, then the sum of the two numbers is equal to: 

(A) 3250 

(B) 4520 

(C) 3520 

(D) 4250 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 72 ABC is a right angled triangle, right angled at A. A circle is inscribed in it. The lengths of two sides containing the right angle are 48 cm and 14 cm. The radius of the inscribed circle is: 

(A) 4 cm 

(B) 8 cm 

(C) 6 cm 

(D) 5 cm 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 73 If 3.96 cubic dm of lead is to be drawn in to a cylindrical wire of diameter 0.6 cm, then the length of the wire (in metres), is: 

(A) 140 m 

(B) 120 m 

(C) 130 m 

(D) 125 m 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 74 If x sin³ θ = y cos³ θ sin θ cos θ and x sin θ = cos θ, then the value of x² + y² is: 

(A) 4 

(B) 0 

(C) 2 

(D) 1 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 75 A and B together can complete a piece of work in 15 days. B and C together can do it in 24 days. If A is twice as good a workman as C, then in how many days can B alone complete the work? 

(A) 60 days 

(B) 40 days 

(C) 52 days 

(D) 45 days 

Answer: (A) 

General Awareness 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 On which date International Day of Biological Diversity is celebrated? 

(A) 20th May 

(B) 22nd June 

(C) 22nd May 

(D) 17th May 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 77 Pasi Kongki is folk dance of which state? 

(A) Goa 

(B) Haryana 

(C) Kerala 

(D) Arunachal Pradesh 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 78 Who among the following drafted Article 370 of the Constitution of India? 

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru 

(B) Raghubar Das 

(C) Gopalaswami Ayyangar 

(D) Bhim Rao Ambedkar 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 79 Who proposed Wardha Scheme or Basic Education? 

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru 

(B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 

(C) Mahatma Gandhi 

(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 80 Which is the source of Krishna river? 

(A) Amarkantak 

(B) Tala 

(C) Mahabaleshwar 

(D) Multai 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 81 Which of the following observations DOES NOT help in determining whether a chemical reaction has taken place ? 

(A) Change in state 

(B) Evolution of gas 

(C) Change in height 

(D) Change in colour 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 82 Former finance minister Arun Jaitley passed away in which month of 2019? 

(A) June 

(B) May 

CAugust 

(D) October 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 83 Which of the following is the base year of a new WPI series effective from April 2017? 

(A) 2011-12 

(B) 2013-14 

(C) 2010-11 

(D) 2012-13 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 84 Who is the first IPS officer to be honoured with Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award? 

(A) Aparna Kumar 

(B) Sanjukta Parashar 

(C) Roopa Moudgil 

(D) R Sreelekha 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 85 Who is the first Indian American to become Governor of State of USA? 

(A) Shankara Kurup 

(B) Bobby Jindal 

(C) John Tyler 

(D) Bill Clinton 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 86 Who is the author of the Ben-Hur : A Tale of the Christ? 

(A) Jules Verne 

(B) Ben Jonson 

(C) Lew Wallace 

(D) Lewis Carroll 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 87 Which state does not share its boundary with Myanmar? 

(A) Arunachal Pradesh 

(B) Mizoram 

(C) Manipur 

(D) Sikkim 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 88 Which Article of the Constitution deals with formation of New States? 

(A) Article 3 

(B) Article 5 

(C) Article 4 

(D) Article 2 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 89 When was the Human Development Report first published? 

(A) 1990 

(B) 1980 

(C) 2000 

(D) 1981 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 90 ‘Khuang’ is a traditional musical instrument of which state? 

(A) Assam 

(B) Mizoram 

(C) Jharkhand 

(D) West Bengal 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 91 Which of the following is the basic SI unit of thermo dynamic temperature? 

(A) Kelvin 

(B) Mole 

(C) Metre 

(D) Candela 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 92 Which of the following sites of Indus valley civilization is not on the bank of river Indus? 

(A) Chanhudaro 

(B) Mohenjodaro 

(C) Ropar 

(D) Kot-Diji 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 93 Who had proposed the motto of Olympics? 

(A) Didon 

(B) Moon Jae-in 

(C) Pierre de Coubertin 

(D) Hirohito 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 94 Related area of Golden Revolution is: 

(A) Oilseeds 

(B) Fish 

(C) Eggs 

(D) Fruits 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 95 Which of the following is a group of bacteria found in human intestines, whose presence in water indicates contamination by disease causing microorganisms? 

(A) Pseudomonas 

(B) Coliform 

(C) Clostridium 

(D) Streptococcus 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 96 Who among the following won the World Badminton championship title in 2019? 

(A) Tai Tzu Ying 

(B) Carolina Masin 

(C) Nazomi O Kuhara 

(D) P.V Sindhu 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 97 Which Article of the Constitution of India states the directive principles of state policy on ‘promotion of international peace and security’? 

(A) Article 51 

(B) Article 69 

(C) Article 62 

(D) Article 49 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 98 Transistors belong to which of the following generation of the computers? 

(A) Fourth 

(B) Third 

(C) First 

(D) Second 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 99 Which of the following is not a softcopy devices? 

(A) Plotter 

(B) Projector 

(C) Monitor 

(D) Speaker 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 100 Which state in India was the first to introduce the ‘Mid-day Meal Scheme’ for school children? 

(A) Tamil Nadu 

(B) Maharashtra 

(C) Gujarat 

(D) Kerala 

Answer: (A) 

SSC CHSL 19th October 2020 Shift-2 

English Language (Basic Knowledge) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A period of one thousand years 

(A) Century 

(B) Millennium 

(C) Centenary 

(D) Decade 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 2 Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. 

Mother said to Kavya, “Switch off the light before you go to sleep.” 

(A) Mother told Kavya to switch off the light before you go to sleep. 

(B) Mother told Kavya to switch off the light before she is going to sleep. 

(C) Mother told Kavya to switch off the light before she goes to sleep. 

(D) Mother told Kavya to switch off the light before she went to sleep. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 3 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Look before you leap 

(A) Caution others before taking a step 

(B) Prepare yourself before jumping 

(C) Think carefully of the consequences 

(D) Pull someone out from a disaster 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 4 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 

SACRED 

(A) Solemn 

(B) Divine 

(C) Profane 

(D) Pious 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Roman civilization emerged around the sixth century BC. At the height of (1)______ power, the Roman Empire ruled over a huge chunk of (2)______, and all the present-day Mediterranean countries (3)______ part of ancient Rome. Early Rome was (4)______ by kings, but later, the people took control over their own city and ruled (5)______. They introduced a council known as the Senate which ruled over them. From this point, Rome was referred to as the Roman Republic. 

Q. 5 Select the most appropriate option for blank number 1. 

(A) one’s 

(B) its 

(C) their 

(D) his 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 6 Select the most appropriate option for blank number 2. 

(A) islands 

(B) land 

(C) sea 

(D) country 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 7 Select the most appropriate option for blank number 3. 

(A) were 

(B) have 

(C) had 

(D) are 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 8 Select the most appropriate option for blank number 4. 

(A) conducted 

(B) controlled 

(C) governed 

(D) regulated 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 9 Select the most appropriate option for blank number 5. 

(A) ourselves 

(B) themselves 

(C) himself 

(D) yourself 

Answer: (B) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 10 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

MOROSE 

(A) Cheerful 

(B) Optimistic 

(C) Sullen 

(D) Friendly 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 11 In the given sentence, identify the segment which contains a grammatical error. All these boys have come to college without few knowledge of English. 

(A) of English 

(B) without few knowledge 

(C) have come to college 

(D) All these boys 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 12 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No improvement’. 

The house has a garden in front, is it? 

(A) isn’t it 

(B) hasn’t it 

(C) does it 

(D) No improvement 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 13 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Chill out 

(A) To be nervous 

(B) To fight 

(C) To calm down 

(D) To be angry 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 14 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The important ______ is where to arrange the funds from. 

(A) issue 

(B) result 

(C) solution 

(D) view 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

AFFLUENT 

(A) Wealthy 

(B) Destitute 

(C) Impoverished 

(D) Proficient 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 16 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A plantation of grapes 

(A) VineyardNursery 

(B) Nursery 

(C) Orchard 

(D) Grove 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 17 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No improvement’. 

Many attempts has been made to climb the Everest before Tenzing and Hillary succeeded. 

(A) have been made 

(B) was made 

(C) No improvement 

(D) had been made 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 18 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Several villages in Kashmir have been ______ due to heavy snowfall. 

(A) divided 

(B) isolated 

(C) confined 

(D) engaged 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 19 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. 

(A) Tedious 

(B) Advantageous 

(C) Victorious 

(D) Rebelleous 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 20 In the given sentence, identify the segment which contains a grammatical error. Everyone are asking for passes to the music festival at Nehru Park. 

(A) Everyone are asking 

(B) to the music festival 

(C) for passes 

(D) at Nehru Park. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 21 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. 

(A) Irrelevant 

(B) Irrilegious 

(C) Irritable 

(D) Irrigate 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 22 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. 

He spent a lot of money on movies. 

(A) A lot of money is spent by him on movies. 

(B) A lot of money was spent by him on movies. 

(C) A lot of money was being spent by him on movies. 

(D) A lot of money had been spent by him on movies. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 23 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 

PERISH 

(A) Wither 

(B) Crumble 

(C) Grow 

(D) Vanish 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 24 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

A. When he returned, there was more than just his dog waiting for him. 

B. A koala had joined the dog in the car’s more comfortable climate. 

C. A winemaker in South Australia left his air-conditioned car open to help keep his dog cool in the heat. 

D. Although the human struggled a while to make the koala leave, it did leave his car eventually. 

(A) CABD 

(B) CBAD 

(C) BACD 

(D) BCDA 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 25 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

A. People in a small Chinese town were shocked to see a wild elephant wandering in their town.

B. The elephant eventually left the town. 

C. Authorities followed the large mammal’s every movement. 

D. But the locals will probably never forget this special visit. 

(A) CABD 

(B) ACBD

(C) ABDC 

(D) BDAC

Answer: (B) 

General Intelligence 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Arrange the following names in a logical and meaningful order. 

1. Socks 

2. Necktie 

3. Belt 

4. Spectacle 

5. Armlet 

(A) 4-2-3-1-5 

(B) 4-3-2-5-1 

(C) 4-2-5-3-1 

(D) 4-2-3-5-1 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Spectacle is used for eyes. 

Necktie is used around neck. 

Armlet is used around arm. 

Belt is used around waist. 

Socks are used for legs. 

∴ The logical and meaningful order from top to bottom of human body is Spectacle, Necktie, Armlet, Belt, Socks. Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 27 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed.) 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The given figure is embedded in the third figure as shown below 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

Q. 28 In certain code language, GOGGLE is written as IMIENC. How will PENCIL be written as in that language? 

(A) RCPAKJ 

(B) RGPEKN 

(C) NCLAGJ 

(D) NGLEGN 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Given, GOGGLE is written as IMIENC in the code language 

The logic here is 

Similarly, 

∴ PENCIL is written as RCPAKJ in the code language 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 29 Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

80, 79, 75, 66, ?, 25 

(A) 46 

(B) 57 

(C) 50 

(D) 54 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 30 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

MAKE : AEKM :: JUST : 

(A) UJTS 

(B) UTSS 

(C) JSTU 

(D) UTJS 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

MAKE ⟶ AEKM 

The second term is obtained from the first term by the arranging the letters of the first term in the alphabetical order. Similarly, the fourth term will be obtained from the third term by the arranging the letters of the third term in the alphabetical order. ⇒ 

The fourth term is JSTU. 

∴ JSTU is related to JUST in the same way AEKM is related to MAKE. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 31 Select the option that is related to the third letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter cluster. 

JAPAN : NAQAJ :: INDIA: ? 

(A) NIEAI 

(B) AIENI 

(C) DNIAI 

(D) AIDNI 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

JAPAN ⟶ NAQAJ 

The logic here is 

The first and last letter are interchanged. The second and fourth letter are interchanged. The third letter is increased by 1. Similarly, the fourth letter-cluster will be AIENI. 

∴ AIENI is related to INDI(A) in the same way NAQAJ is related to JAPAN. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (B) 

 

Q. 32 How many triangles are present in the following figure? 

(A) 20 

(B) 16 

(C) 22 

(D) 18 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The different triangles in the given figure are CFG, CDG, DHE, EHJ, JLO, OLN, NKM, MKF, FCD, DEJ, JON, NMF, CIM, CIE, OIE, OIM, CMO, CEO, EMC, EMO 

∴ Number of triangles in the given figure = 20 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 33 Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (26, 144, 18) 

(A) (28, 190, 16) 

(B) (21, 108, 12) 

(C) (32, 196, 24) 

(D) (18, 120, 13) 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Decoding the given question, 

(26, 144, 18) 

here (26-18) × 18=144 

8 × 18=144 

similarly, considering option b (21, 108, 12) 

here, (21-12) × 12=108 

9 × 12= 108 

Therefore, answer is option b 

 

Q. 34 Introducing a boy, Ritika said, “He is the son of my father’s only son”. How is Ritika related to the boy’s mother? 

(A) Cousin 

(B) Sister 

(C) Aunt 

(D) Sister-in-law 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

According to the problem, 

Boy is the son of Ritika’s father’s only son 

⇒ Boy is the son of Ritika’s brother 

The family tree is 

∴ Ritika is Sister-in-law of Boy’s mother 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (D) 

 

Q. 35 If in a coded language ‘ORAL’ is written as ‘1518112’, then in the same coded language, ‘WRITTEN’ will be written as: 

(A) 231892020514 

(B) 221891919514 

(C) 231892020614 

(D) 221792020514 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Given, ORAL is written as 1518112 in the code language The logic here is 

O = 15 

R = 18 

(A) = 1 

L = 12 

The corresponding value of letters is coded in the code language. Similarly, 

W = 23 

R = 18 

I = 9 

T = 20 

T = 20 

E = 5 

N = 14 

∴ WRITTEN is written as 231892020514 in the code language 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 36 The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded? 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 37 Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of numbers. 

512 : 64 

(A) 1728 : 121 

(B) 1331 : 144 

(C) 1000 : 81 

(D) 1331 : 121 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 38 ‘Advocate’ is related to ‘Client’ in the same way as ‘Doctor’ is related to ‘______________’. 

(A) Disease 

(B) Patient 

(C) Nurse 

(D) Treatment 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Client is known as the one who uses the services of Advocate. Similarly, Patient is known as the one who is sick and uses the services of Doctor. 

∴ Advocate is related to Client in the same way Doctor is related to Patient 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (B) 

 

Q. 39 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. 

Statements: 

1. Some trees are silver oaks. 

2. Some silver oaks are tall objects. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some tall objects are silver oaks. 

II. All tall objects are trees. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows. 

(B) Only conclusion II follows. 

(C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows. 

(D) Both conclusions I and II follow. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 40 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster. 

(A) SQOMK 

(B) KMOQS 

(C) FHJLN 

(D) PRTVX 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

In KMOQS, FHJLN, PRTVX, the number of letters between the letters of the letter-clusters is 1 and the letters are in alphabetical order. In SQOMK, the numbers of letters between the letter of the letter-clusters is 1 but the letters are in reverse alphabetical order. ∴ 

SQOMK is the odd letter-cluster among the given letter-clusters 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 41 In a certain code language, COBBLER is coded as 130 and TABLE is coded as 93. How will ALMIRAH be coded as in that language? 

(A) 125 

(B) 127 

(C) 129 

(D) 123 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Given, COBBLER is coded as 130 and TABLE is coded as 93 in the code language 

The logic here is 

(C) opposite is X ⟶ X = 24 

O opposite is L ⟶ L = 12 

(B) opposite is Y ⟶ Y = 25 

(B) opposite is Y ⟶ Y = 25 

L opposite is O ⟶ O = 15 

E opposite is V ⟶ V = 22 

R opposite is I⟶  I = 9 

COBBLER ⟶ XLYYOVI ⟶ (24 + 12 + 25 + 25 + 15 + 22 + 9) – 2 = 132 – 2 = 130 

T opposite is G ⟶ G = 7 

(A) opposite is Z ⟶ Z = 26 

(B) opposite is Y ⟶ Y = 25 

L opposite is O ⟶ O = 15 

E opposite is V ⟶ V = 22 

TABLE ⟶ GZYOV ⟶ (7 + 26 + 25 + 15 + 22) – 2 = 95 – 2 = 93 

The code value is the difference of sum of the values of opposite letters and 2. 

Similarly, 

(A) opposite is Z ⟶ Z = 26 

L opposite is O ⟶ O = 15 

M opposite is N ⟶ N = 14 

I opposite is R ⟶ R = 18 

R opposite is I ⟶ I = 9 

(A) opposite is Z ⟶ Z = 26 

H opposite is S ⟶ S = 19 

The code value for ALMIRAH is (26 + 15 + 14 + 18 + 9 + 26 + 19) – 2 = 127 – 2 = 125 

∴ ALMIRAH is coded as 125 in the code language 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 42 Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Select the number that will be on the face opposite to the face having number ‘5’. 

(A) 6 

(B) 3 

(C) 2 

(D) 4 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

From the second position of dice, 5 is not opposite to 3 and 2. 

From the third position of dice, 5 is not opposite to 1 and 4. 

⇒ 5 is opposite to the remaining number 6 

∴ 6 will be on the face opposite to the face having number 5 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 43 Which two numbers should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct? 

36 ÷ 6 − 15 × 2 + 48 = 14 

(A) 36 and 48 

(B) 6 and 14 

(C) 48 and 15 

(D) 2 and 6 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

By Trial and Error method, 

Option (A) 

48 ÷ 6 − 15 × 2 + 36 = 14 

8 − 15 × 2 + 36 = 14 

8 − 30 + 36 = 14 

14 = 14 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 44 Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

1, 27, 125, 343, 729, ? 

(A) 1244 

(B) 1525 

(C) 1331 

(D) 1029 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 45 Select the figure that will come next in the following series. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 46 Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. 

(31, 18, 7) 

(A) (90, 54, 12) 

(B) (64, 50, 40) 

(C) (70, 38, 20) 

(D) (72, 34, 15) 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 47 Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words. 

Phobia : Fear 

(A) Dengue : Mosquitoes 

(B) Amnesia : Forgetting 

(C) Dyslexia : Disability 

(D) Cough : Infection 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Phobia is a kind of fear. Similarly, Amnesia means forgetting memories. 

∴ Amnesia and Forgetting share the same relationship as Phobia and Fear. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (B) 

 

Q. 48 Train ‘A’ runs at a speed of 80 kmph and leaves station ‘X’ at 11.00 a.m. Train ‘B’ leaves station ‘X’ at 11.15 a.m.in the same direction, on the same day . At what speed train ‘B’ should run in order to catch train ‘A’ at station ‘Y’ located at a distance of 60 km? 

(A) 120 km/h 

(B) 125 km/h 

(C) 115 km/h 

(D) 110 km/h 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 49 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes. 

Fathers, Males, Brothers 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 50 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right side of the figure. 

Answer: (C) 

Quantitative Aptitude(Basic Arithmetic Skill) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 A, B, C are three points so that AB = 4 cm, BC = 6 cm and AC = 10 cm. The number of circles passing through the points A, B, C is: 

(A) 1 

(B) 3 

(C) 0 

(D) 2 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 52 The centroid of an equilateral △XYZ is L. If XY = 12 cm, then the length of XL (in cm), is: 

(A) 5√3

(B) 2√3

(C) 4√3

(D) 3√3

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 53 Given bar graph shows, total expenditure and the gross receipts of a company (in ₹ crores). Study the graph and answer the question that follows 

If profit = gross receipts — total expenditure, then in 1997-98, what percentage of gross receipts is the profit made? (Correct to one decimal place) 

(A) 4.8% 

(B) 5.4% 

(C) 3.9% 

(D) 6.1% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 54 Given bar graph shows, total expenditure and the gross receipts of a company(in ₹ crores). Study the graph and answer the question that follows. 

What is the percentage increase in the gross receipts in 1996-97 as compared to 1994-95? 

(A) 41% 

(B) 44% 

(C) 42% 

(D) 43% 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 55 If 29⁴¹ + 37⁴¹ is divided by 33, then the reminder is: 

(A) 0 

(B) 3 

(C) 2 

(D) 1 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 56 Marked price of an article is 20% more than it’s cost price. At what percent less should it be sold for no profit and no loss ? 

(A) 16⅔% 

(B) 16⅓% 

(C) 14⅓% 

(D) 14⅔% 

 

Q. 57 The sum of the squares of the sides of a rhombus is 900 m². What is the side of the rhombus. 

(A) 17 m 

(B) 14 m 

(C) 16 m 

(D) 15 m 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 58 If 1 + 9r² + 81r⁴ = 256 and 1 + 3r + 9r² = 32 , then find the value of 1 − 3r + 9r² . 

(A) 4 

(B) 8 

(C) 16 

(D) 12 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 59 If 0 < θ < 90^∘ 3b cosec θ = a sec θ, and 3a sec θ − b cosec θ = 8, then the value of 9b² + a² is: 

(A) 7 

(B) 9 

(C) 8 

(D) 6 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 60 Find the value of 309 ÷ [(3/2) of (25 + 35) – 12¾]

(A) 4 

(B) 12 

(C) 8 

(D) 16 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 61 The diameter of a wheel is 49 cm. The number of revolutions in which it will have to cover a distance of 770 m, is: 

(A) 400 

(B) 500 

(C) 700 

(D) 600 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 62 Anil bought some articles at 6 for ₹ 8 and sold them at 10 for ₹ 12. His percentage loss orgain is: 

(A) 10% loss 

(B) 10% gain 

(C) 8% gain 

(D) 8% loss 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 63 If a + 3b = 12 and ab = 9, then the value of (a – 3b) is: 

(A) 9 

(B) 8 

(C) 6 

(D) 4 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 64 Given bar graph shows, total expenditure and the gross receipts of a company (in ₹ crores). Study the graph and answer the question that follows. 

In order to make a profit of 20%, what should have been the gross receipts (in crore ₹) in 1995-96, if the total expenditure remained the same? 

(A) 6445 

(B) 7565 

(C) 6875 

(D) 5776 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 65 If cosec² x − 2 = 0 , then the value of x(0 < x < 90 )^∘ is:

(A) 15^∘ 

(B) 60^∘ 

(C) 30^∘ 

(D) 45^∘ 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 66 Given bar graph shows, total expenditure and the gross receipts of a company (in ₹ crores). Study the graph and answer the question that follows. 

The total expenditure of the company in 1998-99 exceeds that in 1994-95 by (in ₹ crore): 

(A) 3800 

(B) 4800 

(C) 3700 

(D) 5500 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

From the bar graph, 

Expenditure of the company in 1998-99 = 8500 

Expenditure of the company in 1994-95 = 4800 

Difference in expenditures in 1998-99 and 1994-95 = 8500 – 4800 = 3700 

∴ The total expenditure of the company in 1998-99 exceeds that in 1994-95 by (in ₹ crore) 3700 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 67 If a² + 2/a² = 16, then find the value of 72a² / a⁴ + 2 + 8a²

(A) 2 

(B) 4 

(C) 1 

(D) 3 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (D) 

 

Q. 68 The average of 24 numbers is 26. The average of the first 15 numbers is 23 and that of the last 8 number is 33. Find the 16^th number. 

(A) 16 

(B) 17 

(C) 15 

(D) 18 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Given, the average of the first 15 numbers is 23 

⇒ Sum of first 15 numbers = 23 x 15 = 345 

Average of last 8 numbers is 33 

⇒ Sum of last 8 numbers = 33 x 8 = 264 

Average of 24 numbers is 26 

⇒ Sum of 24 numbers = 26 x 24 = 624 

⇒ Sum of first 15 numbers + 16th number + Sum of last 8 numbers = 624 

⇒ 345 + 16th number + 264 = 624 

⇒ 16th number = 15 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 69 The printed price of a cooker is ₹ 2,000, and discounts are 30%, 20% and 10%, respectively. Find the selling price of the cooker. 

(A) ₹ 1,002 

(B) ₹ 1,008 

(C) ₹ 1,004 

(D) ₹ 1,006 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 70 If a : b = 3 : 4, find the value of (7a – 4b) : (8a + 4b). 

(A) 1 : 8 

(B) 2 : 3 

(C) 3 : 8 

(D) 2 : 5 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 71 The value of sin 60^∘ cos 30^∘ − cos 60^∘ sin 30^∘ is: 

(A) 1 

(B) ½ 

(C) √3/2

(D) 1/√2

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 72 10 men working 5 hours/day earn ₹300. How much money will 15 men working 10 hours/day earn? 

(A) ₹ 800 

(B) ₹ 600 

(C) ₹ 650 

(D) ₹ 900 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Given, 10 men working 5 hours/day earn ₹300 

1 man working 5 hours/day earn ₹30 

15 men working 5 hours/day earn 30 x 15 = ₹450 

⇒ 15 men working 10 hours/day earn 450 x 2 = ₹900 

 

Q. 73 Mohan travels three equal distances at speeds of 12 km/h, 18 km/h and 24 km/h.If he takes a total of 13 hours, then what is the total distance covered? 

(A) 214 km 

(B) 212 km 

(C) 216 km 

(D) 218 km 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 74 The sum of simple interest on a sum at 8% p.a. for 4 years and 8 years is ₹960. The sum is: 

(A) ₹800 

(B) ₹1100 

(C) ₹1000 

(D) ₹900 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 75 The side MN of △LMN is produced to X. If ∠LNX = and ∠M = ½ ∠L, then ∠L is: 

(A) 78^∘ 

(B) 76^∘ 

(C) 77^∘ 

(D) 75^∘ 

Answer: (A) 

General Awareness 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Where were the Khelo India Youth Games held between January 10-22, 2020? 

(A) Guwahati 

(B) Nagpur 

(C) New Delhi 

(D) Bhubaneshwar 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 77 Which of these is not an Operating System? 

(A) SQL 

(B) Linux 

(C) Unix 

(D) Mac OS 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 78 In which state did the ‘Saila’ dance originate? The dance is performed by boys after the harvest season. 

(A) Bihar 

(B) Chhattisgarh 

(C) Odisha 

(D) Jharkhand 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 79 In which year was the Dronacharya Award instituted? 

(A) 1985 

(B) 1997 

(C) 1978 

(D) 1991 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 80 Above which layer of the atmosphere does the Exosphere lies? 

(A) Troposphere 

(B) Stratosphere 

(C) Mesosphere 

(D) Thermosphere 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 81 In which year was the Harappan civilization first discovered? 

(A) 1926 

(B) 1932 

(C) 1921 

(D) 1905 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 82 Which of the following trees will you find in the Littoral forests? 

(A) Ebony 

(B) Sundari 

(C) Cypress 

(D) Chinar 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 83 Which environmental phenomenon has been linked to synthetic chemicals like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)? 

(A) Wave propagation 

(B) Tidal flow 

(C) Ozone depletion 

(D) Electromagnetic interference 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 84 What is the shortcut key for the central alignment of a line or text in MS Office software? 

(A) Ctrl+E 

(B) Ctrl+C 

(C) Ctrl+G 

(D) Ctrl+A 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 85 Which among the following states won the final of the 25th Senior Women’s NFC 2019-20 at Arunachal Pradesh? 

(A) Tamil Nadu 

(B) Arunachal Pradesh 

(C) Odisha 

(D) Manipur 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 86 On 7th January 2020, who among the following was the Chairman of the second National GST Conference and Central and State Commissioners that was held to streamline the Goods and Services Tax? 

(A) Amit Shah 

(B) Ajay Bhushan Pandey 

(C) Anurag Thakur 

(D) Nirmala Sitharaman 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 87 Which of the following ministries launched the two campaigns, named Angikaar and E-course? 

(A) Ministry of Home Affairs 

(B) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs 

(C) Ministry of Human Resource and Development 

(D) Ministry of Women and Child Development 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 88 Which of the following states will you go to enjoy the famous Gaura-Gauri Puja that is celebrated every year? 

(A) Chhattisgarh 

(B) Uttarakhand 

(C) Rajasthan 

(D) Gujarat 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 89 Which of these is an excretory organ of the human body? 

(A) Heart 

(B) Skin 

(C) Brain 

(D) Muscles 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 90 In which of the following states of India is the Bomdi-La Pass located? 

(A) Assam 

(B) Himachal Pradesh 

(C) Arunachal Pradesh 

(D) Sikkim 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 91 Which of the following are the 5 groups that plants are divided into? 

(A) Thallophytes, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms 

(B) Arthropoda, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms 

(C) Mollusca, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms 

(D) Annelida, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 92 Who among the following is the 15th Chairman of the Finance Commission of India? 

(A) Vijay L. Kelkar 

(B) Y. V. Reddy 

(C) N.K Singh 

(D) C. Rangarajan 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 93 According to the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill 2019, what is the proposed minimum compensation for hit and run case wherein, the victim die? 

(A) 1,00,000 

(B) 1,50,000 

(C) 2,00,000 

(D) 50,000 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 94 Which of the following Articles ensures to provide free and compulsory education to all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right to Education? 

(A) 20A 

(B) 14 

(C) 21A 

(D)18A 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 95 Which of the following teams did the India Under-15 team defeat with a 7-0 score in the final of the SAFF (South Asian Football Federation) U-15 Championship 2019 held at Kalyani Stadium, West Bengal? 

(A) Sri Lanka 

(B) Uzbekistan 

(C) Turkmenistan 

(D) Nepal 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 96 On January 6, 2020, how many Oman ships arrived at Goa to participate in “Naseem-Al-Bahr”, the Indo-Oman bilateral naval exercise? 

(A) 1 

(B) 2 

(C) 3 

(D) 4 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 97 In which year was the Second Anglo-Mysore war fought between the Kingdom of Mysore and the British East India Company? 

(A) 1766-1769 

(B) 1785-1789 

(C) 1780-1784 

(D) 1769-1775 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 98 Which of these eminent personalities is the one to not receive the Bharat Ratna from the Honorable President in the year 2019? 

(A) Sachin Tendulkar 

(B) Bhupendra Kumar Hazarika 

(C) Nanaji Deshmukh 

(D) Pranab Mukherjee 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 99 What was the name of the mega-ocean that surrounded the single continental mass before the continental drift as described by Alfred Wegener? 

(A) Pangaea 

(B) Pigmalion 

(C) Panama 

(D) Panthalassa 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 100 On August 13, at what cost did the Dikom Tea Estate of Assam sell its ‘Golden Butterfly’ tea at the GTAC, auction centre? 

(A) Rs 25,000 per kg 

(B) Rs 75,000 per kg 

(C) Rs 1,00,000 per kg 

(D) Rs 50,000 per kg 

Answer: (B) 

SSC CHSL 19th March 2020 Shift-3 

English Language (Basic Knowledge) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

PENURY 

(A) Readability 

(B) Temporality 

(C) Compatibility 

(D) Poverty 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 2 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Although they searched for an hour, they were not able to find the ______ easily. 

(A) whereabouts 

(B) space 

(C) location 

(D) meeting 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 3 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

(A) Menifestation 

(B) Eradication 

(C) Manipulation 

(D) Regularization 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 4 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. 

The manager was referring about the previous instances of loss to the employees during his address. 

(A) The manager was referring about 

(B) the previous instances 

(C) during his address 

(D) of loss to the employees 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Art is the use of (1)______, skill and imagination to create something that’s beautiful or emotionally (2)______. This definition needs to be expanded. If you (3)______ a little deeper, you’ll see that any skill can be considered an art, (4)______ if you exercise a little (5)______ and creativity in the process. 

Q. 5 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 1. 

(A) emotion 

(B) creativity 

(C) destruction 

(D) intoxication 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 6 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 2. 

(A) creative 

(B) comforting 

(C) imaginative 

(D) tempting 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 7 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 3. 

(A) move 

(B) play 

(C) dig 

(D) look 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 8 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 4. 

(A) commonly 

(B) at the outset 

(C) generally 

(D) particularly 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 9 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 5. 

(A) imagination 

(B) hope 

(C) desire 

(D) dream 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 10 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The wall fell down with a big ______. 

(A) hiss 

(B) murmur 

(C) screech 

(D) bang 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 11 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 

MAESTRO 

(A) Connoisseur 

(B) Enthusiast 

(C) Teacher 

(D) Amateur 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 12 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

Condition of sleep during certain parts of the year 

(A) Somnambulism 

(B) Dehydration 

(C) Constipation 

(D) Hibernation 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 

UNWORTHY 

(A) Deserving 

(B) Helpful 

(C) Trustworthy 

(D) Unskilled 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 14 Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. 

The lion asked the lioness, “Where will you hide yourself, until I return?” 

(A) The lion asked the lioness where she would hide herself, until he returned. 

(B) The lion asked the lioness where she will hide herself, until he returns. 

(C) The lion asked the lioness whether she would hide herself, until he returned. 

(D) The lion asked the lioness where would she hide herself, until he returned. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 15 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. 

The Inspector had already proved the case before the investigation team took charge of it. 

(A) The investigation team took charge of the case but the Inspector had already proved before it. 

(B) The case had already proved by the Inspector before the investigation team took charge of it. 

(C) The case was already proved by the Inspector before the investigation team took charge of it. 

(D) The case had already been proved by the Inspector before the investigation team took charge of it. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 16 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options select the one that gives their correct order. 

(A) The boat floated down the river and reached the other bank. 

(B) Thinking that she was dead, her friends secretly took her and abandoned her in a boat. 

(C) The people on the bank took her to a hospital and saved her. 

(D) Smelling a flower given by the magician, Shweta fell down unconscious. 

(A) DBAC 

(B) ACDB 

(C) DABC 

(D) BCAD 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 17 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No improvement’. 

Prithvi likes baseball as long as she likes cricket. 

(A) so long as 

(B) as much as 

(C) No improvement 

(D) as many as 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 18 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. 

One of the reason behind malnutrition is the improper way of food intake. 

(A) behind malnutrition 

(B) of food intake 

(C) is the improper way 

(D) One of the reason 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 19 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A person who studies the structure of the earth 

(A) Gynaecologist 

(B) Geographer 

(C) Gemologist 

(D) Geologist 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 20 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

(A) Productive 

(B) Representative 

(C) Palliative 

(D) Lucretive 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 21 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

In a fog 

(A) Trapped in foggy weather 

(B) Sightless and blind 

(C) Confused and dazed 

(D) Disturbed and unhappy 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 22 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options select the one that gives their correct order. 

(A) Their classmate, Koushal, hardly studied and spent much of his time wasting on prattles. 

(B) He made himself busy by collecting old pens and used papers in order to avoid studies. 

(C) Poonam, the class teacher, was very much loved and respected by her students.

(D) Three of them were very intelligent and spent most of their time studying with Poonam. 

(A) DCAB 

(B) CADB

(C) CDAB 

(D) CDBA 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 23 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Neither fish nor fowl 

(A) Something which can neither be purchased nor be grown 

(B) Something which can neither be supplied easily nor be made available readily 

(C) Something which can neither be categorized easily nor be accepted befittingly 

(D) Something which can neither be eaten nor be preserved 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 24 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

FESTIVITY 

(A) Calibration 

(B) Botheration 

(C) Celebration 

(D) Foundation 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 25 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No improvement’. 

As long to funding is not made available, our construction dreams have been deferred. 

(A) No improvement 

(B) As high as 

(C) In as much as 

(D) So long as 

Answer: (D) 

General Intelligence 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 In the given Venn Diagram, ‘Circle’ represents ‘Players’, ‘Triangle’ represents ‘Graduates’ and ‘Rectangle’ represents ‘Managers’. Which of the numbers depicts the area which represents ‘Graduate Players who are not Managers’? 

(A) 1 

(B) 5 

(C) 7 

(D) 2 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

From the Venn diagram, 

The number which represents ‘Graduate Players who are not Managers’ = Intersection of Triangle and Circle but not Rectangle = 2 Hence, the correct answer is Option (D) 

 

Q. 27 The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded? 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

When the paper is unfolded, two circles will appear on the top left similarly. 

When the paper is unfolded again, no cutting part will appear. 

∴ When the paper is unfolded it will appear as shown below 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (D) 

 

Q. 28 Select the figure that will come next in the given series. 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

In the given series, 

The circle is moving one place in anti clockwise direction along the edges of the square. The star is moving one place in clockwise direction along the edges of the square. The black triangle is changing its position alternatively. 

∴ The next figure in the given series is 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 29 Select the option in which the number set shares the same relationship as that shared by the given number set. 

(11, 15, 400) 

(A) (12, 17, 493) 

(B) (10, 12, 244) 

(C) (18, 24, 786) 

(D) (20, 22, 870) 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 30 A cube is made by folding the given sheet. In the cube so formed, what would be the letter on the opposite side of ‘L’? 

(A) Q 

(B) S 

(C) R 

(D) N 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

When the given sheet is folded to form a cube with base as Q, 

Q will be opposite to L 

R will be opposite to S 

N will be opposite to A 

∴ Q will be on the side of L. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 31 In a certain code language, ‘SHARP’ is written as ’73’. How will ‘AUDIT’ be written as in the same language? 

(A) 80 

(B) 72 

(C) 76 

(D) 84 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

 

Q. 32 Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

19, 20, 24, 51, 67, ? 

(A) 190 

(B) 192 

(C) 191 

(D) 195 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 33 Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the given word-pair. 

Admission Card : Examination 

(A) Hotel : chef 

(B) Weather : Winter 

(C) Passenger : Bus Stand 

(D) Ticket : Train Journey 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Admission Card is compulsory for the Examination and it shows the right for Examination. Similarly, Ticket is compulsory for Train Journey and it shows the right for Train Journey. 

∴ Ticket and Train Journey are related in the same way as Admission Card and Examination are related. Hence, the correct answer is Option (D) 

 

Q. 34 Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace the sign (*) and balance the following equation. 

15 * 4 * 26 * 2 * 7 * 66 

(A) +, ×, −, ÷, = 

(B) +, ×, ÷, −, = 

(C) ×, +, ÷, −, = 

(D) ×, +, −, ÷, = 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

By Trial and Error method, 

Option (A) 

15 + 4 × 26 − 2 ÷ 7 = 66 

266 

15 + 4 × 26 − 7 = 

After solving the value will be decimal which is not possible 

Option (B) 

15 + 4 × 26 ÷ 2 − 7 = 66 

15 + 4 × 13 − 7 = 66 

15 + 52 − 7 = 66 

60 = 66 

Hence Option (B) is incorrect 

Option (C) 

15 × 4 + 26 ÷ 2 − 7 = 66 

15 × 4 + 13 − 7 = 66 

60 + 13 − 7 = 66 

66 = 66 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 35 How many triangles are there in the figure given below? 

(A) 9 

(B) 7 

(C) 10 

(D) 8 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 36 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. 

Statements: 

All speakers are equipment. 

All equipment are wires. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some wires are equipment. 

II. No speaker is wire. 

III. Some speakers are not wires. 

(A) Both conclusion I and III follow. 

(B) Only conclusion I follows. 

(C) All conclusions I, II and III follow. 

(D) Only conclusion III follows. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 37 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the gaps of the given letter series will complete the series. 

U_D_UP_M_PDMU_DM 

(A) UMDUD 

(B) MPUDU 

(C) PMUPD

(D) PMDUP 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

By Trial and Error method, 

Option (A) 

UUDM | UPDM | UPDM | UDDM 

The above letters do not form a series. Hence option (A) is incorrect. 

Option (B) 

UMDP | UPUM | PPDM | UUDM 

The above letters do not form a series. Hence option (B) is incorrect. 

Option (C) 

UPDM | UPUM | PPDM | UDDM 

The above letters do not form a series. Hence option (C) is incorrect. 

Option (D) 

UPDM | UPDM | UPDM | UPDM 

The above letters form a series. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (D) 

 

Q. 38 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and sixth term is related to fifth term. 

27 : 6 :: 8 : ? :: 64 : 8 

(A) 3 

(B) 1 

(C) 2 

(D) 4 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 39 In a certain code language, ‘WARDEN’ is written as ‘SJIWFB’. How will ‘OFFICE’ be written as in that language? 

(A) JGNKKS 

(B) KHNJJT 

(C) JHOKKU 

(D) JHNKKT 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 40 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when a vertical mirror is placed on the right of the figure. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 41 Select the option in which the number set shares the same relationship as that shared by the given number set. 

(14, 24, 84) 

(A) (16, 20, 160) 

(B) (22, 34, 176) 

(C) (12, 60, 186) 

(D) (18, 30, 135) 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 42 Select the correct option that arranges the following words in a logical and meaningful sequence. 

1. Prize 

2. Competition 

3. Marking by Judges 

4. Winner 

5. Participants 

(A) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1 

(B) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 

(C) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4 

(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

At first, Participants will participate in the Competition. The Marking will be given by the Judges to the participants. Then the Winner of the competition will be awarded the Prize. 

∴ The logical and meaningful order of the given words is Participants, Competition, Marking by Judges, Winner, Prize. Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 43 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd one. 

(A) SUWY 

(B) YACF 

(C) LNPR 

(D) ZBDF 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

In letter-clusters SUWY, LNPR, ZBDF, the number of letters between the letters of the letter clusters is 1. In YACF, the number of letters between (C) and F is 2. 

∴ YACF is the odd one among the given letter-clusters. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (B) 

 

Q. 44 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Painting : Colour : : Homework : ? 

(A) School 

(B) Ink 

(C) Notebook 

(D) Teacher 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Colour is used to do Painting. Similarly, Ink is used to do Homework. 

∴ Ink is related to Homework in the same way Colour is related to Painting. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (B) 

 

Q. 45 Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd one. 

(A) Second 

(B) Minute 

(C) Time 

(D) Hour 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Second, Minute, Hour are units of Time but the word Time is not unit of Time. 

∴ Time is the odd one among the given words. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 46 In a class, every student participated in one of the three activities i.e. folk song, kathak and quiz. 22% of the total students participated in folk song. 25% of the remaining students participated in kathak. The remaining students participated in quiz. What percentage of students participated in quiz? 

(A) 53% 

(B) 30.6% 

(C) 41.5% 

(D) 58.5% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 47 Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd one. 

(A) 5 : 26 

(B) 13 : 175 

(C) 4 : 17 

(D) 11 : 122 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 48 Himmat is the husband of Kavita. Sharda is the daughter of Ravi whose wife is Ketaki. Kavita is Sharda’s sister. How is Ravi related to Himmat? 

(A) Brother 

(B) Father-in-law 

(C) Paternal Uncle 

(D) Father 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 49 Select the option in which the given figure X is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed)

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 50 Select the option that is related to the third letter cluster in the same way as the second letter cluster is related to the first letter cluster. 

UBQ : XET :: NKE 😕 

(A) QNH 

(B) QMH 

(C) QNG 

(D) PNH 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The logic here is 

U + 3 = X 

(B) + 3 = E 

Q + 3 = T 

Similarly, 

N + 3 = Q 

K + 3 = N 

E + 3 = H 

∴ QNH is related to NKE in the same way XET is related to UBQ. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

Quantitative Aptitude(Basic Arithmetic Skill) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 The given pie chart shows the marks obtained in an examination by a student (in degrees). Observe the pie chart and answer the question that follows. 

If the total marks are 720, then the marks obtained in English is what percentage of the marks obtained in Maths? 

(A) 50% 

(B) 55% 

(C) 75% 

(D) 60% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 52 The difference between the compound interest on a sum of ₹ 8,000 for 1 year at the rate of 10% per annum, interest compounded yearly and half yearly is: 

(A) ₹40 

(B) ₹10 

(C) ₹30 

(D) ₹20 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 53 is equal to 

(A) tan x − sec x 

(B) sec x.tan x 

(C) tan x + sec x

(D) sec x − tan x 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 54 If x sin 30^∘ cos 60^∘ = sin 45 cos 45 , then the value of x is: 

(A) 2 

(B) 0 

(C) 1 

(D) 3 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 55 A sum of ₹1,260 is distributed between Ravi and Mohan. If the shares of Ravi and Mohan are in ratio 5 : 4, then the shares of Ravi and Mohan are respectively: 

(A) ₹680 and ₹580 

(B) ₹800 and ₹460 

(C) ₹700 and ₹560 

(D) ₹750 and ₹510 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Given, Sum = ₹1,260 

Ratio of shares of Ravi and Mohan = 5 : 4 

Let the share of Ravi and Mohan are 5p and 4p respectively. 

⇒ 5p + 4p = 1260 

⇒ 9p = 1260 

⇒ 1p = 140 

Share of Ravi = 5p = 5 x 140 = ₹700 

Share of Mohan = 4p = 4 x 140 = ₹560 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 56 The given pie chart shows the marks obtained in an examination by a student (in degrees). Observe the pie chart and answer the question that follows. 

If total marks are 720, then the marks obtained in Chemistry, Biology and Maths together is what percentage of the total marks ? 

(A) 50% 

(B) 30% 

(C) 60% 

(D) 40% 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 57 The marked price of a toy is ₹450. After a certain discount on the marked price, the selling price of the toy is ₹405. The rate of discount is: 

(A) 8% 

(B) 12% 

(C) 15% 

(D) 10% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 58 Ravi can complete a task in 6 days and Mohan can complete the same task in 9 days. In how many days can Ravi and Mohan together complete the same task? 

(A) 3 ⅗  days 

(B) 9 days 

(C) 15 days 

(D) 3 ⅖ days 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 59 Which number is divisible by both 9 and 11? 

(A) 10,098 

(B) 10,108 

(C) 10,089 

(D) 10,087 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

If a number is divisible by 9, then the sum of the digits of the number should be divisible by 9. 

If a number is divisible by 11, then the difference of sum of the alternate numbers should be divisible by 11. By Trial and Error method, 

Option (A) 

Sum of the digits of 10,098 = 1 + 0 + 0 + 9 + 8 = 18 which is divisible by 9. So 10,098 is divisible by 9. 

Difference of sum of alternate digits = 1 + 0 + 8 – (0 + 9) = 0 which is divisible by 11. So 10,098 is divisible by 11. Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 60 A car covers 15 km, 20 km, 30 km and 12 km at speeds of 20 km/h, 30 km/h, 40 km/h and 30 km/h,respectively. The average speed of the car for the total journey is : 

(A) 88 km/h 

(B) 60 km/h 

(C) 30 km/h 

(D) 40 km/h 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 61 Sohan purchased an old scooter, and sold it for ₹28,000 thus gaining a 12% profit on the cost price. The cost price of the scooter is: 

(A) ₹27,000 

(B) ₹30,000 

(C) ₹25,000 

(D) ₹26,000 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 62 If A = x – 1/x + 1, then the value of (A – 1) /(A) is: 

(A)-4(2x-1) / x²-1

(B) x²-1 / -4(2x-1)

(C)    x²-1 /-4(2x+1)

(D) -4x /  x²-1 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 63 If the angle between two radii of a circle be 130^∘ , then the angle between the tangents at the end of these radii (in degrees)is: 

(A) 50^∘ 

(B) 90^∘ 

(C) 40^∘ 

(D) 70^∘

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 64 In △ABC, AB = AC, and ∠BAC is 50^∘. Then ∠ABC and ∠BCA are, respectively: 

(A) 70^∘ and 75^∘

(B) 65^∘ and 65^∘ 

(C) 50^∘ and 55^∘ 

(D) 55^∘ and 55^∘

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 65 The given pie chart shows the marks obtained in an examination by a student (in degrees). Observe the pie chart and answer the question that follows. 

If the total marks are 720, then the marks obtained in Mathematics are: 

(A) 140 

(B) 160 

(C) 120 

(D) 80 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 66 If x – 1/x = 13 then the value of x² + 1/x²is: 

(A) 165 

(B) 171 

(C) 167 

(D) 169 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 67 In a circle centred at O, AB is a chord and C is any point on AB, such that OC is perpendicular to AB If the length of the chord is 16 cm and OC = 6 cm, the radius of circle is: 

(A) 8 cm 

(B) 12 cm 

(C) 10 cm 

(D) 6 cm 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 68 The volume of a cube is 343 cm³. The edge of cube is: 

(A) 7 cm 

(B) 6 cm 

(C) 5 cm 

(D) 4 cm 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 69 The value of 7 + [44 ÷ 4 + 9 × 2 − 14 ÷ 7 + 5 × 2] is: 

(A) 44 

(B) 55 

(C) 33 

(D) 67 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

7 + [44 ÷ 4 + 9 × 2 − 14 ÷ 7 + 5 × 2] = 7 + [11 + 9 × 2 − 2 + 5 × 2] 

= 7 + [11 + 18 − 2 + 10] 

= 7 + [39 − 2] 

= 7 + [37] 

= 44 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 70 The value of cos 29^∘ cosec 61^∘ tan 45^∘ +2 sin 35^∘ sec 55^∘ / 3 sin 42^∘ +3 sin 48^∘ is 

(A) 0 

(B) 1 

(C) 3 

(D) 2 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 71 Mohan finishes a journey by scooter in 5 hours. He travels the first half of the journey at 30 km/h and the second half of the journey at 20 km/h. The distance covered by him is: 

(A) 130 km 

(B) 120 km 

(C) 140 km 

(D) 100 km 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 72 Each side of a rectangular field is increased by 10%. Then the percentage increase in the area of the field is: 

(A) 21% 

(B) 10% 

(C) 18% 

(D) 15% 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 73 The given pie chart shows the marks obtained in an examination by a student (in degrees). Observe the pie chart and answer the question that follows. 

If the total marks are 720, then the difference between the total marks obtained in Physics, Maths and Physical education and the total marks in Chemistry, Biology, and English out of the total marks is: 

(A) 90 

(B) 100 

(C) 80 

(D) 110 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 74 If x³—6x² + ax + b is divisible by (x²—3x + 2), then the values of a and b are: 

(A) a = -6 and b = -11 

(B) a = -11 and b = 6 

(C) a = 11 and b = -6 

(D) a = 6 and b = 11 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

x³—6x² + ax + b (x²—3x + 2) 

Given, is divisible by 

x³—6x² + ax + b (x²—3x + 2) x − p 

Let the quotient when is divisible by be ⇒ (x²—3x + 2)(x − p) = x³—6x² + ax + b 

⇒ x³ − 3x² + 2x − px² + 3px − 2p = x³—6x² + ax + b ⇒ x³ − (3 + p) x² + (2 + 3p) x − 2p = x³—6x² + ax + b Comparing both sides, 

− (3 + p) = −6 

⇒ p = 3 

2 + 3p = a 

⇒ 2 + 3 (3) = a 

⇒ a = 11 

−2p = b 

⇒ −2 (3) = b 

⇒ b = −6 

∴ a = 11 and b = -6 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 75 The measure of one of the exterior angles of a triangle is twice one of the interior opposite angles and the measure of the other interior opposite angles is 60 . The triangle is a/an: 

(A) equilateral triangle 

(B) right triangle 

(C) scalene triangle 

(D) isosceles triangle 

Answer: (A) 

General Awareness 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Magnus Carlsen is associated with which game? 

(A) Badminton 

(B) Chess 

(C) Squash 

(D) Lawn Tennis 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 77 Proteins are assembled from how many amino acids? 

(A) 5 

(B) 10 

(C) 15 

(D) 20 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 78 When was the Treaty of Amritsar signed? 

(A) 1809 

(B) 1824 

(C) 1819 

(D) 1825 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 79 When was Safari first released by Apple? 

(A) 1998 

(B) 2003 

(C) 2002 

(D) 2001 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 80 Who among the following was one of the recipients of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2019? 

(A) Sania Mirza 

(B) PV Sindhu 

(C) Virat Kohli 

(D) Deepa Malik 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 81 Who was the President of India during the emergency of 1975-1977? 

(A) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed 

(B) Varahagiri Venkatagiri 

(C) R Venkataraman 

(D) Giani Zail Singh 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 82 When was the Eden Gardens Stadium, Kolkata established? 

(A) 1875 

(B) 1864 

(C) 1854 

(D) 1885 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 83 Who wrote the famous book ‘The God of Small Things’? 

(A) Ruskin Bond 

(B) Arundhati Roy 

(C) Kiran Desai 

(D) Chetan Bhagat 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 84 What is the sex ratio of Kerala as per census 2011? 

(A) 1084 

(B) 1044 

(C) 1024 

(D) 1064 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 85 When was the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act enacted? 

(A) 1975 

(B) 1972 

(C) 1976 

(D) 1978 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 86 Which state ranked first in Sustainable Development Goals Index 2019-20 released by NITI Aayog of India? 

(A) Andhra Pradesh 

(B) Tamil Nadu 

(C) Himachal Pradesh 

(D) Kerala 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 87 In the field of computing, what does VGA stand for? 

(A) Video Graphics Array 

(B) Video Graphics Audio 

(C) Visual Graphics Audio 

(D) Visual Graphics Array 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 88 When was the Secretariat of the SAARC set up? 

(A) 1984 

(B) 1987 

C1985 

(D) 1986 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 89 What type of unemployment is generally found in agricultural sector of India? 

(A) Voluntary unemployment 

(B) Disguised unemployment 

(C) Frictional unemployment 

(D) Structural unemployment 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 90 Which award has been given to Narthaki Nataraj in 2019? 

(A) Padma Vibhushan 

(B) Bharat Ratna 

(C) Padma Shri 

(D) Padma Bhushan 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 91 Who is the newest Chief of Indian Army in December 2019? 

(A) Bikram Singh 

(B) Devraj Anbu 

(C) Manoj Mukund Naravane 

(D) Bipin Rawat 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 92 Who has been declared as ‘Men’s Player of the Year 2019’ by the International Hockey Federation? 

(A) Manpreet Singh 

(B) Arthur van Doren 

(C) Aran Zalewski 

(D) Lucas Vila 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 93 The Raleigh Commission (1902) was appointed to recommend reforms in: 

(A) draught management 

(B) the police system 

(C) the education system 

(D) the judicial system 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 94 Dachigam National Park is in which state of India? 

(A) Himachal Pradesh 

(B) West Bengal 

(C) Uttarakhand 

(D) Jammu and Kashmir 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 95 What is the relative density of silver? 

(A) 10.8 

(B) 9.5 

(C) 10.4 

(D) 7.2 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 96 Ustad Alladiya Khan belongs to which gharana of Hindustani music? 

(A) Agra gharana 

(B) Gwalior gharana 

(C) Benaras gharana 

(D) Jaipur gharana 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 97 Which of the following types of organisms have an open circulatory system? 

(A) Mollusca 

(B) Nematoda 

(C) Annelida 

(D) Birds 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 98 Saga Dawa is the festival of which state? 

(A) Tripura 

(B) Manipur 

(C) Sikkim 

(D) Assam 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 99 What is the height of Tehri Dam? 

(A) 250.5 m 

(B) 270.5 m 

(C) 280.5 m 

(D) 260.5 m 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 100 How many Indian states share border with Bhutan? 

(A) 5 

(B) 3 

(C) 2 

(D) 4 

Answer: (D)