IB ACIO Grade-II Tier-I 2017 Previous Year Paper

Q. 1 The average price of 80 mobile phones is Rs. 30,000. If the highest and lowest price mobile phones are sold out  then the average price of remaining 78 mobile phones is Rs. 29,500. The cost of the highest mobile is Rs. 80,000.  The cost of lowest price mobile is? 

1) Rs. 18000 

2) Rs. 15000 

3) Rs. 19000 

4) Can’t be determined 

 

Q. 2 In a Company the average income of all the employees is Rs. 20000 per month. Recently the company announced  increment of Rs. 2000 per month for all the employees. New average income of all the employees is? 

1) Rs. 22000 

2) Rs. 24000 

3) Rs. 28000 

4) Rs. 26000 

 

Q. 3 Pranav went to the bank at the speed of 60 km/h while returning for his home he covered the half of the distance at  the speed of 10 km/h, but suddenly he realised that he was getting late so he increased the speed and reached the  home by covering rest half of the distance at the speed of 30 km/h. The average speed of the Pranav in the whole  length of journey is? 

1) 24 km/h 

2) 14 km/h 

3) 16 km/h 

4) 10 km/h 

 

Q. 4 The average expenditure of Mr. Sharma for January to June is Rs. 4200 and he spent Rs. 1200 in January and Rs.  1500 in July. The average expenditure for the months of February to July is? 

1) Rs. 2750 

2) Rs. 3250 

3) Rs. 4250 

4) Rs. 4500 

 

Q. 5 At the end of a business conference the ten people present all shake hands with each other once. How many  handshakes will there be altogether? 

1) 20 

2) 45 

3) 55 

4) 90

 

Q. 6 The average presence of students of a class in a College on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday is 32 and on the  Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and Saturday is 30. If the average number of students on all the six days is 26 then  the number of students who attended the class on Wednesday is? 

1) 50 

2) 40 

3) 60 

4) 70 

 

Q. 7 Suresh started his journey form P to Q by his bike at the speed of 40 km/h and then, the same distance he travelled  on his foot at the speed of 10 km/h from Q to R. Then he returned from R to P via Q at the speed of 24 km/h. The  average speed of the whole trip is: 

1) 18.5 km/h 

2) 19.8 km/h 

3) 18.2 km/h 

4) 19.2 km/h 

 

Q. 8 Ramesh walked 6 km to reach the station from his house, then he boarded a train whose average speed was 60 km/h  and thus he reached his destination. In this way he took a total time of 3 hours. If the average speed of the entire  journey was 32 km/h then the average speed of walking is: 

1) 5 km/h 

2) 8 km/h 

3) 2 km/h 

4) 4 km/h 

 

Q. 9 Bala travels first one-third of the total distance at the speed of 10 km/h and the next one-third distance at the speed  of 20 km/h and the last one – third distance at the speed of 60 km/h. What is the average speed of Bala? 

1) 18 km/h 

2) 19 km/h 

3) 16 km/h 

4) 12 km/h 

 

Q. 10 The distance of the School and house of Suresh is 80 km. One day he was late by 1 hour than the normal time to  leave for the college, so he increased his speed by 4km/h and thus he reached to college at the normal time. What is  the changed speed of Suresh? 

1) 28 km/h 

2) 25 km/h 

3) 20 km/h 

4) 24 km/h 

 

Q. 11 Anita goes to College at 20 km/h and reaches college 4 minutes late. Next time she goes at 25 km/h and reaches the  college 2 minutes earlier than the scheduled time. What is the distance of her school?  

1) 16 km 

2) 12 km 

3) 15 km 

4) 10 km 

 

Q. 12 Two places R and S are 800 km apart from each other. Two persons start form towards S at an interval of 2 hours.  Whereas A leaves R for S before B. The speeds of A and B are 40 km/h and 60 km/h respectively. B overtakes A at  M, which is on the way from R to S. What is the ratio of time taken by A and B to meet at M?

1) 1 : 3 

2) 1 : 2 

3) 1 : 4 

4) 3 : 2 

 

Q. 13 Ajay covers certain distance with his own speed but when he reduces his speed by 10 km/h, his time duration for  the journey increases by 40 hours while if, he increases speed by 5 km/h from his original speed, he takes 10 hours  less than the original time taken. Find the distance covered by him. 

1) 1000 km 

2) 1200 km 

3) 1500 km 

4) 1800 km 

 

Q. 14 The driver of an ambulance sees a bus 40 m ahead of him, after 20 seconds, the bus is 60 meter behind. If the speed  of the ambulance is 30 km/h what is the speed of the bus? 

1) 10 km/h 

2) 12 km/h 

3) 15 km/h 

4) 22 km/h 

 

Q. 15 Two rabbits start running towards each other, one from A to B and another from B to A. They cross each other after  one hour and the first rabbit reaches B, 5/6 hour before the second rabbit reaches A. If the distance between A and  B is 50 km, what is the speed of the slower rabbit? 

1) 20 km/h 

2) 10 km/h 

3) 15 km/h 

4) 25 km/h 

 

Q. 16 Pranav walked at 5 km/h for certain part of the journey and then he took an auto for the remaining part of the  journey travelling at 25 km/h. if he took 10 hours for the entire journey, what part of journey did he travelled by  auto if the average speed of the entire journey be 17 km/h? 

1) 750 km 

2) 100 km 

3) 150 km  

4) 200 km 

 

Q. 17 Find the sum of first 30 natural numbers 

1) 470 

2) 468 

3) 465 

4) 463 

 

Q. 18 56% of Y is 182. What is Y? Y? 

1) 350 

2) 364 

3) 325 

4) 330 

 

Q. 19 Which of the following two ratios is greater 17 : 18 and 10 : 11? 

1) 17/18 

2) 10/11 

3) Both are same 

4) Cannot determine 

 

Q. 20 In a palace, supplies are available for 35 days for only 75 people. 15 Guests arrive in the place for vacation on day  1 itself. For how many days will these supplies be sufficient for all these people. 

1) 90 days 

2) 11.25 days 

3) 42 days 

4) 29.16 days 

 

Q. 21 If difference between Compound interest & Simple Interest on a certain sum of money for 2 yrs. @ 5% p.a is Rs.  122. Find the sum? 

1) Rs. 14000 

2) Rs. 15000 

3) Rs. 16000 

4) None of these 

 

Q. 22 David divides 78 by half and adds 11. What number he gets at the end? 

1) 50 

2) 44 ½ 

3) 167 

4) 83 ½  

 

Q. 23 In a knockout football competition 23 teams participated. What was the least number of matches they needed to  play to decide the winner? 

1) 11 

2) 21 

3) 22 

4) 62 

 

Q. 24 At half past 5 in the evening, the smaller angle between the hour & minute hands of a clock is

1) 10° 

2) 12° 

3) 15° 

4) 18° 

 

Q. 25 Angles of a given triangle are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4 What kind of triangle is the given triangle? 

1) Right-angled 

2) Obtuse angle 

3) Isosceles 

4) Acute angle 

 

Q. 26 2017 India-ASEAN Youth Summit was held from 14th– 19th August, 2017 in: 

1) New Delhi 

2) Mumbai 

3) Bhopal 

4) Chennai 

 

Q. 27 Under project ‘Navika Sagar Parikrama’, which will commence in September 2017, a team of women officers of the  Indian Navy would circumnavigate the globe on an Indian-built sail boat named ________.

1) INSV Durga 

2) INSv Sindhu 

3) INSV Amba 

4) INSV Tarini 

 

Q. 28 On August 18, 2017, which Asian country launched its first cyber court specializing in handling Internet-related  cases? 

1) Japan 

2) China 

3) South Korea 

4) Thailand  

 

Q. 29 On August 18, 2017, Power Grid Corporation announced that it will get a loan of $500 million from which  international financial institution for its various projects? 

1) Asian Development Bank 

2) World Bank 

3) International Monetary Fund 

4) New Development Bank 

 

Q. 30 Who among the following cricketer has continued to be the world’s top-ranked One-day batsman in the latest ICC  ODI rankings, released in Dubai on August 18, 2017? 

1) Virat Kohli 

2) David Warner 

3) AB De Villiers 

4) Joe Root 

 

Q. 31 Who among the following has won a silver medal in the javelin throw at the first World Para Athletics Junior  Championships in Nottwil, Switzerland? 

1) Prince Ahuja 

2) Jatinder Singh 

3) Prakash Jaishankar 

4) Rinku Hooda 

 

Q. 32 ‘Requisitioning & Acquisition of Immovable Property (Amendment) Bill, 2017, a bill providing for amendment to  the regulations governing compensation amount payable at the time of acquisition of immovable property by the  central government was introduced in the Lok Sabha on July 18, 2017. This bill is an amendment to the original act  that came into force in: 

1) 1952 

2) 1951 

3) 1950 

4) 1949 

 

Q. 33 A bill providing for setting up of the Indian Institute of Petroleum and Energy in ______ was introduced in the Lok  Sabha on July 18, 2017. 

1) Punjab 

2) Haryana 

3) Telangana 

4) Andhra Pradesh 

 

Q. 34 The best example of the extinction of species due to man’s intervention is _______. 

1) Kiwi 

2) Dodo 

3) Przewalski’s horse  

4) Bustard 

 

Q. 35 Which of the following utilises sunlight in a direct fasion? 

1) Photovoltaic cell 

2) Solar thermal cells 

3) Bio gas production 

4) Both A and B 

 

Q. 36 In Internet, the term WWW, the 3rd W stands for ________. 

1) Web 

2) Worm 

3) Wreck 

4) Wsjk 

 

Q. 37 IPv6 addresses have a size of: 

1) 64 bits 

2) 128 bits 

3) 256 bits 

4) 512 bits 

 

Q. 38 The Constitution of India recognises ________. 

1) Only religious minorities 

2) Only linguistic minorities 

3) Religious and Linguistic minorities 

4) Religious, Linguistic & Ethnic minorities 

 

Q. 39 During which of the following Mughal Emperor’s rule, the number of Hindus employee by the Emperor’s  Administration was the highest? 

1) Humayun 

2) Akbar 

3) Shahjahan 

4) Aurangzeb 

 

Q. 40 The Mansabdari system introduced by Akbar was borrowed from the system followed in ________. 

1) Afghanistan 

2) Turkey 

3) Mongolia 

4) Persia 

 

Q. 41 Who among the following is said to have witnessed the reigns of eight Delhi Sultans? 

1) Ziauddin Barani 

2) Shams-i-Siraj Afif 

3) Minhaj-us-Siraj 

4) Amir Khusrau 

 

Q. 42 The President of India referred the Ayodhya issue to the Supreme Court under which Article? 

1) 143 

2) 132 

3) 138 

4) 136 

 

Q. 43 Right to privacy as a Fundamental Right is implied in ________. 

1) Right to Freedom 

2) Right to Life & Personal Liberty 

3) Right to Equality 

4) Right against Exploitation 

 

Q. 44 The interval between two sessions of parliament must not exceed ________. 

1) 3 months 

2) 6 months 

3) 4 months 

4) 100 days 

 

Q. 45 With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct? 

1) Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only

2) The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation 

3) Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation 

4) Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation 

 

Q. 46 Which of the following brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers’? 

1) The Reserve Bank of India 

2) The Department of Economic Affairs 

3) The Labour Bureau 

4) The Department of Personnel and Training 

 

Q. 47 ‘Golden Revolution’ is related to ________. 

1) Precious minerals 

2) Pulses 

3) Jute 

4) Horticulture and Honey 

 

Q. 48 A country is said to be in a dept trap if _________. 

1) It has to abide by the conditionalities imposed by the International Monetary Fund 

2) It has to borrow to make interest payments on outstanding loans 

3) It has been refused loans or aid by creditors abroad 

4) The World Bank charges a very high rate of interest on outstanding & new loans 

 

Q. 49 With respect to GST, consider the following statements: 

1. Reduces cascading effect 

2. Is a comprehensive indirect tax 

3. Aimed at forging a common domestic market 

4. Alcohol and petroleum are exempted from GST 

1) 1, 2, 3 correct 

2) 2, 3 correct 

3) 2, 3, 4 correct 

4) All the above are correct 

 

Q. 50 India’s current account deficit in Balance of Trade is mainly due to: 

(a) Increasing imports of oil and petroleum 

(b) Increasing imports of gold and silver 

(c) Increasing imports of food grains 

(d) Increasing imports of iron and steel 

1) (a), (b) and (c) 

2) (a) and (c) 

3) (a) and (b) 

4) (a) and (d) 

 

Q. 51 Find the minimum number of straight lines required to make the given figure. 

1) 16 

2) 17 

3) 18 

4) 19 

 

Q. 52 Which of the following figures best depicts the relationship among criminals, thieves and judges?

 

Q. 53 Find the number of triangles in the given figure. 

1) 18 

2) 20 

3) 24 

4) 27 

 

Q. 54 Of the following two statements, both of which cannot be true, both can also be false. Which are these two  statements? 

I. All machines make noise 

II. Some machines are noisy 

III. No machine makes noise 

IV. Some machines are not noisy 

1) I & II 

2) III & IV 

3) I & III  

4) II & IV 

 

Q. 55 Insert arithmetical signs in the equation for it to be correct 

8 ? 4 ? 2 = 16 

1) +, × 

2) -, + 

3) ÷, + 

4) +, ÷ 

 

Q. 56 If 84 × 13 = 8, 37 × 13 = 6, 26 × 11 = 6, then 56 × 22 = ? 

1) 3 

2) 5 

3) 7 

4) 9 

 

Q. 57 If + means divide, × means -, ÷ means multiply and – means plus, then find the value of 9 + 3 ÷ 4 – 8 × 2

1) 15 

2) 17 

3) 18 

4) 20 

 

Q. 58 Find the next term of the sequence 1, 8, 4, 27, 9, …… 

1) 8 

2) 9 

3) 64 

4) 16 

 

Q. 59 David divides 78 by half and adds 11. What number he gets at the end? 

1) 50 

2) 44 ½ 

3) 167 

4) 83 ½ 

 

Q. 60 In a knockout football competition 23 teams participated. What was the least number of matches they needed to  play to decide the winner? 

1) 11 

2) 21 

3) 22 

4) 62  

 

Q. 61 At half past 5 in the evening, the smaller angle between the hour & minute hands of a clock is: 

1) 10° 

2) 12° 

3) 15° 

4) 18° 

 

Q. 62 Fill in the blanks BA_BA_BAC_ACB_CBAC 

1) AACB 

2) BBCA 

3) CCBA 

4) CBAC 

 

Q. 63 Angles of a given triangle are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4 What kind of triangle is the given triangle? 

1) Right-angled 

2) Obtuse angle 

3) Isosceles 

4) Acute angle 

 

Q. 64 The houses of A and B face each other on a road going north-south, A’s being on the western side. A comes out of  his house, turns left, travels 5 km, turns right, travels 5 km to the front of D’s house. B does exactly the same and  reaches the front of C’s house. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct? 

1) C and D live on the same street 

2) C’s house faces south. 

3) Houses of C & D are less then 20 km apart. 

4) None of the above. 

 

Q. 65 BEH, DGJ, (?), EJO, GLQ, INS. 

1) FLR 

2) FIS 

3) FKO 

4) FIL 

 

Q. 66 H, V, G, T, F, R, E, P,?, ? 

1) K, L 

2) D, N 

3) C, D 

4) L, K 

 

Q. 67 Select the related number from the given alternatives. 

3 : 10 ∷ 8 : ? 

1) 10 

2) 13 

3) 17 

4) 14 

 

Q. 68 If TOUR is written as 1234, CLEAR is written as 56784 and SPARE is written as 90847, find the code for CARE 

1) 1247 

2) 4847 

3) 5247 

4) 5847 

 

Q. 69 CALANDER is coded in a code as CLANAEDR. Find the code for CIRCULAR under the same rule. 

1) LACANDER 

2) CRIUCALR 

3) CLANADER 

4) None of these 

 

Q. 70 a) Either he is happy or he is poor. 

b) He is happy. 

Inference : He is poor. 

1) The inference is definitely true 

2) The inference is definitely false 

3) The inference is probably false or true 

4) The inference can not be drawn 

 

Q. 71 a) Those who are honest are good teachers. 

b) Hard working people are honest. 

Inference: Hard work is the necessary quality of a good teacher. 

1) The inference is definitely true 

2) The inference is definitely false 

3) The inference is probably false or true 

4) The inference cannot be drawn 

 

Q. 72 Based on the following statements, which is the correct conclusion drawn. 

Only gentlemen can become members of the club. Many of the members of the club are officers. Some of the  officers have been invited for dinner. 

1) All the members of the club have been invited for dinner 

2) Some of the officers are not gentlemen  

3) All gentlemen are members of the club 

4) Only gentlemen have been invited for dinner 

 

Q. 73 In a family there are husband, wife, two sons and two daughters, all the ladies were invited to a dinner. Both sons  went out to play. Husband did not return form office. Who was at home? 

1) Only wife was at home 

2) All ladies were at home 

3) Only sons were at home 

4) Nobody was at home 

 

Q. 74 If A is the son of Q, Q and Y are sisters, Z, is the mother of Y, P is the son of Z, then which of the following  statements is correct? 

1) P is maternal uncle of A; 

2) P and Y are sisters; 

3) A and P are cousins: 

4) None of the above; 

 

Q. 75 There are 5 books A, B, C, D & E placed on table. If A is placed below E, C is placed above D, B is placed below  A and D is placed above E, then which of the following books touches the surfaces of the table? 

1) C 

2) B 

3) A 

4) E 

 

Q. 76 ‘To decamp’ would mean: 

1) To remove tent 

2) To evict campers 

3) To decrease pressure 

4) To leave suddenly 

 

Q. 77 Which pair is wrongly matched? 

1) Discrete : Separate 

2) Gamut : Whole 

3) Exacerbated : Increased 

4) Allude : Escape 

 

Q. 78 Identify the correct pair of synonyms: 

1) Elude : Dodge 

2) Allude : Escape 

3) Forbear: Left  

4) Latter : Afterwards 

 

Q. 79 A devil’s advocate would be: 

1) An evil person 

2) A counter argument presenter 

3) Advocate of a criminal 

4) Unregistered advocate 

 

Q. 80 Satish heard it from the horse’s mouth means: 

1) From an authoritative source 

2) From a close friend 

3) From the closest family member 

4) From his boss 

 

Q. 81 Satish is seated _______ Sunita. 

1) Besides 

2) Beside 

3) Clearly 

4) Closest 

 

Q. 82 Identify the incorrect pair: 

1) Moot : Debatable 

2) Singularly : Individually 

3) Regimen : Prescription 

4) Sever : Detach 

 

Q. 83 ‘I haven’t studied a lot lately’. Here, ‘lately’ is a/an 

1) Adverb 

2) Adjective 

3) Noun 

4) Preposition 

 

Q. 84 Which of the following sentences is correct? 

1) The flowers was arranged carefully 

2) The meeting start promptly at 1100 

3) Computers save time 

4) Lightning strike indiscriminately 

 

Q. 85 Identify the incorrect sentence: 

1) None of the minutes was wasted 

2) None of the time was wasted 

3) Is any of the pizza left? 

4) None of the above 

 

Q. 86 Among the two statements: 

(i) Either Satish of Sejal takes out the garbage. 

(ii) Each of these prescriptions have side effects. 

1) Both are correct 

2) (i) is correct, (ii) is incorrect 

3) (i) is incorrect, (ii) is correct 

4) Both are incorrect 

 

Q. 87 Choose the sentence that has incorrect form of words: 

1) When will you bring you’re pictures to work? 

2) It is your responsibility to go into details. 

3) If you’re planning to attend, do let me know. 

4) None of above 

 

Q. 88 I ______ her speak on Friday night about the advantages of organic gardening. 

1) will have heard 

2) would hear 

3) would have heard 

4) will hear 

 

Q. 89 Choose an incorrect/incomplete sentence: 

1) The children in the park, including all those on the swings. 

2) Sarita is an excellent school teacher 

3) She couldn’t believe the premise of the story 

4) I saw Dr. Ghosh because Dr. Khan was on leave 

 

Q. 90 What is not correct if ‘nest is to bird’? 

1) Hangar is to aircraft 

2) Vault is to money 

3) Orchestra is to music 

4) Wine is to bees 

 

Q. 91 The exact opposite of ‘Lascivious’ would mean:  

1) Devoted 

2) Chaste 

3) Fluid 

4) Manifest 

 

Q. 92 ‘Repercussion’ would mean: 

1) Reaction 

2) Concussion 

3) Recollection 

4) Clever reply 

 

Q. 93 _______ to go out to an Italian restaurant tonight? 

1) Do you like 

2) Are you liking 

3) You like 

4) Would you like 

 

Q. 94 Excuse me, _______ time please? 

1) You have the 

2) What is 

3) Have you got the 

4) What 

 

Q. 95 He likes reading. He was a ______ reader. (Fill in the best fitting word) 

1) Anxious 

2) Enthusiastic 

3) Voracious 

4) Fervent 

 

Q. 96 I remember my sister taking me to the museum. 

(Choose the best fit among the alternatives) 

1) I remember I was taken to the museum. 

2) I remember being taken to the museum by my sister 

3) I remember myself being taken to the museum by my sister 

4) I remember taken to the museum by my sister 

 

Q. 97 ‘To make a clean breast of’ means: 

1) To gain prominence 

2) To praise oneself  

3) To confess everything 

4) To destroy everything 

 

Q. 98 ‘To be above board’ means: 

1) To have a good height 

2) To be honest 

3) To have no debts 

4) To be beautiful 

 

Q. 99 That which cannot be corrected means: 

1) Unintelligible 

2) Indelible 

3) Illegible 

4) Incorrigible 

 

Q. 100 State in which the few govern the many is called: 

1) Monarchy 

2) Oligarchy 

3) Plutocracy 

4) Autocracy 

 

Answer Key

Q. 1 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 2 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 3 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 4 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 5 Correct Option – 2 

Q. 6 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 7 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 8 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 9 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 10 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 11 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 12 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 13 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 14 Correct Option – 2 

Q. 15 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 16 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 17 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 18 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 19 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 20 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 21 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 22 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 23 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 24 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 25 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 26 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 27 Correct Option – 4  

Q. 28 Correct Option – 2 

Q. 29 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 30 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 31 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 32 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 33 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 34 Correct Option – 2 

Q. 35 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 36 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 37 Correct Option – 2 

Q. 38 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 39 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 40 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 41 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 42 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 43 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 44 Correct Option – 2 

Q. 45 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 46 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 47 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 48 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 49 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 50 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 51 Correct Option – 2 

Q. 52 Correct Option – 2 

Q. 53 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 54 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 55 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 56 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 57 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 58 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 59 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 60 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 61 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 62 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 63 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 64 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 65 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 66 Correct Option – 2 

Q. 67 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 68 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 69 Correct Option – 2 

Q. 70 Correct Option – 2 

Q. 71 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 72 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 73 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 74 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 75 Correct Option – 2 

Q. 76 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 77 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 78 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 79 Correct Option – 2 

Q. 80 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 81 Correct Option – 2 

Q. 82 Correct Option – 2 

Q. 83 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 84 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 85 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 86 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 87 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 88 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 89 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 90 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 91 Correct Option – 2 

Q. 92 Correct Option – 1 

Q. 93 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 94 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 95 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 96 Correct Option – 2 

Q. 97 Correct Option – 3 

Q. 98 Correct Option – 2 

Q. 99 Correct Option – 4 

Q. 100 Correct Option – 2

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