SSC CHSL Tier-I 20 October 2020 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL 20th October 2020 Shift-1 

English Language (Basic Knowledge) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. 

Gulliver easily pulled all the warships of the enemy after him. 

(A) All the warships of the enemy had been easily pulled by Gulliver after him. 

(B) All the warships of the enemy were easily pulled by Gulliver after him. 

(C) All the warships of the enemy were being easily pulled by Gulliver after him. 

(D) All the warships of Gulliver were easily pulled by the enemy after him. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 2 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. 

(A) Gallop 

(B) Gallary 

(C) Galley 

(D) Gallant 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 3 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 

CANDID 

(A) Truthful 

(B) Frank 

(C) Genuine 

(D) Devious 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 4 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the given sentence. Order was quickly ______ in the area after the scuffle between the two groups. 

(A) rebuilt 

(B) repaired 

(C) restored 

(D) recovered 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

During organised tours, tourists can visit a former Nazi compound 40 kilometres (1)______ Berlin called the ‘Forbidden City’. Twenty thousand people (2)______ here every year to learn about Nazi military history. The Nazis (3)______ militarily active at the compound, (4)______ was kept secret in a forest and behind a fence. The Nazis (5)______ much of World War II from here. 

 

Q. 5 Select the most appropriate option for blank number 1. 

(A) into 

(B) in 

(C) at 

(D) from 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 6 Select the most appropriate option for blank number 2. 

(A) watch 

(B) call 

(C) roam 

(D) visit 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 7 Select the most appropriate option for blank number 3. 

(A) had 

(B) were 

(C) was 

(D) are 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 8 Select the most appropriate option for blank number 4. 

(A) which 

(B) what 

(C) who 

(D) whom 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 9 Select the most appropriate option for blank number 5. 

(A) planned 

(B) fought 

(C) started 

(D) carried 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Look after 

(A) Take care of 

(B) Resemble 

(C) Scold 

(D) Search for 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 11 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Make a beeline 

(A) Go straight to 

(B) Be crazy 

(C) Stand in a queue 

(D) Remain busy 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 12 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. 

(A) Serious 

(B) Curious 

(C) Gorgeous 

(D) Ambiteous 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 13 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A ruler with total power over a country, typically one who has obtained control by force 

(A) Democrat 

(B) Dictator 

(C) Protector 

(D) Traitor 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 14 In the given sentence identify the segment which contains a grammatical error. The publics are not satisfied with the new act. 

(A) The publics are 

(B) not satisfied 

(C) new act 

(D) with the 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

RECONCILE 

(A) Refuse 

(B) Resolve 

(C) Scatter 

(D) Agitate 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 16 Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. 

I said to Kirti, “These plants will take about two months to flower.” 

(A) I told Kirti that those plants will be taking about two months to flower. 

(B) I told Kirti that those plants would take about two months to flower. 

(C) I told Kirti that those plants take about two months to flower. 

(D) I told Kirti that these plants will take about two months to flower. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 17 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

SALVAGE 

(A) Save 

(B) Hurt 

(C) Lose 

(D) Waste 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 18 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 

CONVENIENCE 

(A) Enjoyment 

(B) Assistance 

(C) Hindrance 

(D) Satisfaction 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 19 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

(A) The cable was thick as pack-thread, and the bars were the size of knitting needles. 

(B) Then I made fifty hooks by twisting three bars together at a time. 

(C) I ordered a great quantity of strong cable and bars of iron. 

(D) I twisted the cables together and made fifty strong cords. 

(A) CABD 

(B) ADCB 

(C) CADB 

(D) ABDC

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 20 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

Flesh eating animal 

(A) Herbivore 

(B) Carnivore 

(C) Insectivore 

(D) Omnivore 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 21 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No improvement’. 

After switching off the light, he went off to sleep. 

(A) switching off a light 

(B) he has switched off the light 

(C) being switched off the light 

(D) No improvement 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 22 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

(A) In December 2019, Typhoon Kammuri came to the Philippines. 

(B) They closed schools and evacuated hundreds of thousands of people from their homes. 

(C) Officials closed the international airport in the capital city of Manila for 12 hours. 

(D) It flooded streets and damaged many houses and power lines. 

(A) CBAD 

(B) ADCB 

(C) ABCD

(D) CBDA 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 23 In the given sentence identify the segment which contains a grammatical error. 

When the boys were playing the match, it suddenly starts raining. 

(A) When the boys 

(B) it suddenly 

(C) starts raining 

(D) were playing the match 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 24 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No improvement’. 

While my parents talked to the visitor, I made tea in the kitchen. 

(A) parents have talked 

(B) parents are talking 

(C) parents were talking 

(D) No improvement 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 25 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the given sentence. 

He ______ his studies even after leaving college and finally got a Ph.D. degree. 

(A) pursued 

(B) carried 

(C) persisted 

(D) sought 

Answer: (A) 

General Intelligence 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd one. 

(A) Iodine 

(B) Bromine 

(C) Fluorine 

(D) Iron 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Iodine, Fluorine, Bromine are non-metals whereas Iron is a metal. 

∴ Iron is the odd one among the given words. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (D) 

 

Q. 27 A paper is folded and cut as shown in the following figure. How will this paper look when unfolded? 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

When the paper is cut and unfolded, the pattern of cutting will be similar on the four parts of the paper as shown below 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 28 A and B are the brothers of C. B is the son of D and E. D is the daughter of F. P is the father-in-law of E. Q is the son of F. What is the relationship of A to P? 

(A) Grandson 

(B) Son 

(C) Daughter 

(D) Father 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

According to the problem, the family tree is 

∴ (A) is the grandson of P. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 29 Study the given pattern carefully and select the letter that can replace the question mark (?) in it. 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The logic here is 

G + L = 7 + 12 = 19 

(A) + R = 1 + 18 = 19 

The sum of values of the opposite letters is 19. 

Similarly, I + ? = 19 

⇒ 9 + ? = 19 

⇒ ? = 10 = J 

∴ Required letter = J 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 30 Which of the following options is NOT an example of a number triad with the following properties?

1. Sum of the digits of the third number is twice the sum of the digits of the first number.

2. Sum of the digits of the second number is thrice the sum of the digits of the first number. 

(A) (201, 702, 303) 

(B) (400, 660, 800) 

(C) (200, 600, 300) 

(D) (111, 207, 222) 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

By Trial and Error method, 

Option (A) 

Sum of the digits of the first number = 2 + 0 + 1 = 3 

Sum of the digits of the second number = 7 + 0 + 2 = 9 

Sum of the digits of the third number = 3 + 0 + 3 = 6 

(201, 702, 303) follows the given properties. Hence option (A) is incorrect. 

Option (B) 

Sum of the digits of the first number = 4 + 0 + 0 = 4 

Sum of the digits of the second number = 6 + 6 + 0 = 12 

Sum of the digits of the third number = 8 + 0 + 0 = 8 

(400, 660, 800) follows the given properties. Hence option (B) is incorrect. 

Option (C) 

Sum of the digits of the first number = 2 + 0 + 0 = 2 

Sum of the digits of the second number = 6 + 0 + 0 = 6 

Sum of the digits of the third number = 3 + 0 + 0 = 3 

Sum of the digits of the third number is not twice the sum of the digits of the first number. Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 31 Select the correct equation when the signs ‘+’ and ‘ × ’ and the numbers ‘4’ and ‘8’ are interchanged. 

(A) 12 × 4 + 8 = 34 

(B) 6 + 8 × 4 = 38 

(C) 2 × 4 + 8 = 34 

(D) 4 + 8 × 2 = 32 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

By Trial and Error method, 

Option (A) 

12 + 8 × 4 = 34 

12 + 32 = 34 

44 = 34 

Hence Option (A) is incorrect 

Option (B) 

6 × 4 + 8 = 38 

24 + 8 = 38 

32 = 38 

Hence Option (B) is incorrect 

Option (C) 

2 + 8 × 4 = 34 

2 + 32 = 34 

34 = 34 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 32 Two different positions of the same dice are shown. Select the number that will be on the face opposite to the one having ‘4’.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

From the first position of the dice, 1 and 5 is not opposite to 3 

From the second position of the dice, 1 and 5 is not opposite to 4 

⇒ 1 and 5 are opposite to opposite to numbers 2 and 6 

⇒ The remaining numbers 3 and 4 are opposite to each other 

∴ 3 will be on the face opposite to the one having 4 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (B) 

 

Q. 33 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Malaria : Parasite : : Stomach ulcers : ? 

(A) Insects 

(B) Bacteria 

(C) Parasites 

(D) Protozoa 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Malaria is caused by Parasite. In the same way Stomach ulcer is caused by Bacteria. 

∴ Bacteria is related to Stomach ulcers in the same way Parasite is related to Malaria. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (B) 

 

Q. 34 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right side of the figure. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 35 Find the number of triangles in the following figure. 

(A) 14 

(B) 12 

(C) 10 

(D)

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The different triangles in the given figure are JKL, JLM, JMN, JNO, JKM, JLN, JMO, JKN, JLO, JKO 

∴ Number of triangles in the given figure = 10 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 36 In a certain code language, PARK is coded as 6739, ROAD is coded as 3574, POND is coded as 6584 and LANE is coded as 2781. How will LORD be coded as in that language? 

(A) 2534 

(B) 7432 

(C) 5213 

(D) 5304 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 37 In a certain code language, VICTORY is written as XGERQPA. How will KINDLE be written as in that language? 

(A) MGPBNC

(B) BEDRVH 

(C) IKLFJG 

(D) SOWNEQ 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 38 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

29 : 838 :: 14 : ? 

(A) 199 

(B) 196 

(C) 195 

(D) 193 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 39 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster. 

(A) CK 

(B) DP 

(C) ET 

(D) FX 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The number of letters between CK = 7 

The number of letters between DP = 11 

The number of letters between ET = 14 

The number of letters between FX = 17 

The number of letters between CK, DP, FX is odd whereas the number of letters between ET is even. 

∴ ET is the odd letter-cluster among the given letter-clusters. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 40 Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

BDF, DHL, FLR, ? 

(A) HPX 

(B) IQY 

(C) HPY 

(D) HOX 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The logic here is 

(B) + 2 = (D) ⟶ (D) + 2 = F ⟶ F + 2 = H 

(D) + 4 = H ⟶ H + 4 = L ⟶ L + 4 = P 

F + 6 = L ⟶ L + 6 = R ⟶ R + 6 = X 

Similarly, the next letter-cluster in the series is HPX 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 41 ‘Myopia’ is related to ‘Eye’ in the same way as ‘Pyorrhea’ is related to ‘________’. 

(A) Lung 

(B) Gums 

(C) Brain 

(D) Stomach 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Myopia is an Eye illness. Similarly, Pyorrhea is a Gum illness. 

∴ Myopia is related to Eye in the same way Pyorrhea is related to Gums. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (B) 

 

Q. 42 Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it. 

4 (15) 1; 7 (22) 3; ? (57) 4 

(A) 16 

(B) 11 

(C) 14 

(D) 12 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 43 Identify the number that does NOT belong to the following series. 

1, 4, 9, 15, 25, 36 

(A)

(B)

(C) 15 

(D) 25 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 44 Observe the following diagram and answer the question. 

Find the number of students who play any two of the three sports. 

(A)

(B) 15 

(C) 11 

(D) 13 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

From the diagram, 

Number of students who play any two of the three sports = Intersection of circle and rectangle + Intersection of triangle and rectangle = 5 + 6 = 11 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 45 Four number triads have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number triad that is different from the rest. 

(A) (273, 546, 819) 

(B) (291, 438, 657) 

(C) (326, 654, 981) 

(D) (192, 384, 576) 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 46 Select the correct option in which the given figure is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed) 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 47 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. 

Statements: 

1. Most teachers are women. 

2. Some women are managers. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some managers are women. 

II. Some teachers are managers. 

(A) Both conclusions I and II follow. 

(B) Only conclusion I follows. 

(C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows. 

(D) Only conclusion II follows. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 48 Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

6, 10, 18, 34, ? 

(A) 68 

(B) 64 

(C) 66 

(D) 70 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 49 While writing all the natural numbers from 1 to 100, how many times do we write 6? 

(A) 20 

(B) 18 

(C) 21 

(D) 19 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

From the Natural numbers 1 to 100, 

The number of times that 6 will be written in units place = 10 

The number of times that 6 will be written in tens place = 10 

∴ Total number of times that 6 will be written from 1 to 100 = 10 + 10 = 20 Hence, the correct answer is Option (A) 

 

Q. 50 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right side of the figure. 

Answer: (B) 

Quantitative Aptitude(Basic Arithmetic Skill) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 The given pie-chart represents the percentage of students enrolled in five different sports. The total number of students is 2800. 

If 24 students playing cricket are shifted to Kabaddi, then find the new ratio of the number of students in Cricket to those in Kabaddi. 

(A) 31 : 18 

(B) 30 : 17 

(C) 31 : 16 

(D) 30 : 13 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 52 Malti bought a TV for ₹ 8,800 including GST at 10%. What is the original cost of the TV? 

(A) ₹8,800 

(B) ₹8,000 

(C) ₹7,920 

(D) ₹9,600 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 53 If x3 + y3 = 16 and x + y = 4, then the value of x4 + y4 is: 

(A) 48 

(B) 32 

(C) 64 

(D) 30 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 54 If 4/3 (x2 + 1/x2) = 110 ⅔, find 1/9 (x3 – 1/x3), where > 0. 

(A) 74 

(B) 76 

(C) 84 

(D) 85 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 55 A is point at a distance 26 cm from the centre O of a circle of radius 10 cm. AP and AQ are the tangents to the circle at the point of contacts P and Q. If a tangent BC is drawn at a point R lying on the minor arc PQ to intersect AP at B and AQ at C, then the perimeter of △ABC is: 

(A) 48 cm 

(B) 46 cm 

(C) 42 cm 

(D) 40 cm 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 56 Evaluate: [7 + 7 × (7 + 7 ÷ 7)] + 7 ÷ 7 . 

(A) 10 

(B) 64 

(C)

(D) 63 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

[7 + 7 × (7 + 7 ÷ 7)] + 7 ÷ 7 = [7 + 7 × (7 + 1)] + 7 ÷ 7 

= [7 + 7 × 8] + 7 ÷ 7 

= [7 + 56] + 7 ÷ 7 

= 63 + 7 ÷ 7 

= 63 + 1 

= 64 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (B) 

 

Q. 57 ABC and BDE are two equilateral triangles such that D is the mid-point of BC. If the area of triangle ABC is 136 cm2 , then the area of triangle BDE is equal to: 

(A) 36cm2 

(B) 38cm2 

(C) 24cm2 

(D) 34cm2 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 58 If cos 3θ = sin(θ − 34) , then the value of θ as an acute angle is: 

(A) 56 

(B) 17 

(C) 31

(D) 34 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 59 Rahul and Mithun travel a distance of 30 km. The sum of their speeds is 70 km/h and the total time taken by both to travel the distance is 2 hours 6 minutes. The difference between their speeds is: 

(A) 35 km/h 

(B) 20 km/h 

(C) 25 km/h 

(D) 30 km/h 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 60 Study the given bar chart and answer the question that follows. 

Production of Fertilizers by a Company (in 10,000 tonnes) Over the Years 

What was the approximate percentage increase in the production of fertilizers from 1998 to 1999? 

(A) 44.4% 

(B) 50% 

(C) 40% 

(D) 48.4% 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 61 If √3 os θ = sin θ, then the value of (4sin2𝜃-5cos𝜃) / (3cos𝜃 +1) is: 

(A) ¼ 

(B) ⅕  

(C)

(D) ⅖  

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 62 In an isosceles triangle ABC with AB = AC and AD is perpendicular to BC, if AD = 6 cm and the perimeter of △ABC is 36 cm, then the area of △ABC is: 

(A) 54 cm2 

(B) 64 cm2 

(C) 45 cm2 

(D) 48 cm2 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 63 An article was sold at a loss of 12%. If it was sold for ₹ 630 more, then there would have been a gain of 6%. Find the cost price of the article. 

(A) ₹ 3,500 

(B) ₹ 2,800 

(C) ₹ 2,500 

(D) ₹ 3,000 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 64 The given pie-chart represents the percentage of students enrolled in five different sports. The total number of students is 2800.

What is the average number of students enrolled in Hockey and Tennis together? 

(A) 560 

(B) 580 

(C) 540 

(D) 460 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 65 If the difference between the compound interest and simple interest on a certain sum of money for three years at 10% p.a. is ₹ 558, then the sum is: 

(A) ₹ 18,500 

(B) ₹ 15,000 

(C) ₹ 16,000 

(D) ₹ 18,000 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 66 The salaries of Vipin and Dinesh are in the ratio 5 : 8. If the salary of each is increased by ₹ 4,800, then new ratio becomes 7 : 10. What is Vipin’s salary ? 

(A) ₹ 13,000 

(B) ₹ 12,000 

(C) ₹ 12,500 

(D) ₹ 10,000 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 67 If p + 1/p = 112, find (p – 112)15 + 1/p15

(A)

(B) 15 

(C) 10 

(D)

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 68 If 4M37094267N is divisible by both 8 and 11, where M and N are single digit integers, then the values of M and N are: 

(A) M = 5, N = 6 

(B) M = 5, N = 4 

(C) M = 5, N = 2 

(D) M = 2, N = 5 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Given, 4M37094267N is divisible by both 8 and 11 

If the number is divisible by 8, then the three digits should be divisible by 8 

⇒ 67N is divisible by 8 

⇒ The only possible value for N is 2 

If the number is divisible by 11, then 

Sum of digits at odd place – Sum of digits at even place = 0 or multiple of 11 

⇒ (M+7+9+2+7) – (4+3+0+4+6+N) = 0 or multiple of 11 

⇒ M + 25 – 17 – N = 0 or multiple of 11 

⇒ M – N + 8 = 0 or multiple of 11 

⇒ M – 2 + 8 = 0 or multiple of 11 

⇒ M + 6 = 0 or multiple of 11 

The possible value is M + 6 = 11 

⇒ M = 5 

∴ M = 5, N = 2 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C) 

 

Q. 69 The average of nine 2 digit numbers is decreased by 6 when the digits of one of the 2 digit numbers is interchanged. Find the difference between the digits of that number. 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 70 Study the given and answer the question that follows. 

Production of Fertilizers by a Company (in 10,000 tonnes) Over the Years 

The average production in 2000 and 2001 was less than the average production of which of the following pairs of years ? 

(A) 2001 and 2002 

(B) 1997 and 1998 

(C) 1999 and 2000 

(D) 1996 and 1997 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 71 The difference of two positive numbers is 1020. If 7.6% of the greater number is 12.4% of the smaller number, then the sum of the two numbers is equal to: 

(A) 3250 

(B) 4520 

(C) 3520 

(D) 4250 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 72 ABC is a right angled triangle, right angled at A. A circle is inscribed in it. The lengths of two sides containing the right angle are 48 cm and 14 cm. The radius of the inscribed circle is: 

(A) 4 cm 

(B) 8 cm 

(C) 6 cm 

(D) 5 cm 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 73 If 3.96 cubic dm of lead is to be drawn in to a cylindrical wire of diameter 0.6 cm, then the length of the wire (in metres), is: 

(A) 140 m 

(B) 120 m 

(C) 130 m 

(D) 125 m 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 74 If x sin3 θ = y cos3 θ sin θ cos θ and x sin θ = cos θ, then the value of x2 + y2 is: 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 75 A and B together can complete a piece of work in 15 days. B and C together can do it in 24 days. If A is twice as good a workman as C, then in how many days can B alone complete the work? 

(A) 60 days 

(B) 40 days 

(C) 52 days 

(D) 45 days 

Answer: (A) 

General Awareness 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 On which date International Day of Biological Diversity is celebrated? 

(A) 20th May 

(B) 22nd June 

(C) 22nd May 

(D) 17th May 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 77 Pasi Kongki is folk dance of which state? 

(A) Goa 

(B) Haryana 

(C) Kerala 

(D) Arunachal Pradesh 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 78 Who among the following drafted Article 370 of the Constitution of India? 

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru 

(B) Raghubar Das 

(C) Gopalaswami Ayyangar 

(D) Bhim Rao Ambedkar 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 79 Who proposed Wardha Scheme or Basic Education? 

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru 

(B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 

(C) Mahatma Gandhi 

(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 80 Which is the source of Krishna river? 

(A) Amarkantak 

(B) Tala 

(C) Mahabaleshwar 

(D) Multai 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 81 Which of the following observations DOES NOT help in determining whether a chemical reaction has taken place ? 

(A) Change in state 

(B) Evolution of gas 

(C) Change in height 

(D) Change in colour 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 82 Former finance minister Arun Jaitley passed away in which month of 2019? 

(A) June 

(B) May 

CAugust 

(D) October 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 83 Which of the following is the base year of a new WPI series effective from April 2017? 

(A) 2011-12 

(B) 2013-14 

(C) 2010-11 

(D) 2012-13 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 84 Who is the first IPS officer to be honoured with Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award? 

(A) Aparna Kumar 

(B) Sanjukta Parashar 

(C) Roopa Moudgil 

(D) R Sreelekha 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 85 Who is the first Indian American to become Governor of State of USA? 

(A) Shankara Kurup 

(B) Bobby Jindal 

(C) John Tyler 

(D) Bill Clinton 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 86 Who is the author of the Ben-Hur : A Tale of the Christ? 

(A) Jules Verne 

(B) Ben Jonson 

(C) Lew Wallace 

(D) Lewis Carroll 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 87 Which state does not share its boundary with Myanmar? 

(A) Arunachal Pradesh 

(B) Mizoram 

(C) Manipur 

(D) Sikkim 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 88 Which Article of the Constitution deals with formation of New States? 

(A) Article 3 

(B) Article 5 

(C) Article 4 

(D) Article 2 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 89 When was the Human Development Report first published? 

(A) 1990 

(B) 1980 

(C) 2000 

(D) 1981 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 90 ‘Khuang’ is a traditional musical instrument of which state? 

(A) Assam 

(B) Mizoram 

(C) Jharkhand 

(D) West Bengal 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 91 Which of the following is the basic SI unit of thermo dynamic temperature? 

(A) Kelvin 

(B) Mole 

(C) Metre 

(D) Candela 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 92 Which of the following sites of Indus valley civilization is not on the bank of river Indus? 

(A) Chanhudaro 

(B) Mohenjodaro 

(C) Ropar 

(D) Kot-Diji 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 93 Who had proposed the motto of Olympics? 

(A) Didon 

(B) Moon Jae-in 

(C) Pierre de Coubertin 

(D) Hirohito 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 94 Related area of Golden Revolution is: 

(A) Oilseeds 

(B) Fish 

(C) Eggs 

(D) Fruits 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 95 Which of the following is a group of bacteria found in human intestines, whose presence in water indicates contamination by disease causing microorganisms? 

(A) Pseudomonas 

(B) Coliform 

(C) Clostridium 

(D) Streptococcus 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 96 Who among the following won the World Badminton championship title in 2019? 

(A) Tai Tzu Ying 

(B) Carolina Masin 

(C) Nazomi O Kuhara 

(D) P.V Sindhu 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 97 Which Article of the Constitution of India states the directive principles of state policy on ‘promotion of international peace and security’? 

(A) Article 51 

(B) Article 69 

(C) Article 62 

(D) Article 49 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 98 Transistors belong to which of the following generation of the computers? 

(A) Fourth 

(B) Third 

(C) First 

(D) Second 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 99 Which of the following is not a softcopy devices? 

(A) Plotter 

(B) Projector 

(C) Monitor 

(D) Speaker 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 100 Which state in India was the first to introduce the ‘Mid-day Meal Scheme’ for school children? 

(A) Tamil Nadu 

(B) Maharashtra 

(C) Gujarat 

(D) Kerala 

Answer: (A) 

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