SSC CGL Tier-I 05 March 2020 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier-I 05 March 2020 

Q. 1 Vineet, Rajesh and Kriti have different amounts of money with them. Rajesh has just double the amount of money than Vineet. The total amount of money that Rajesh and Kriti have is ₹147. Kriti has ₹6 more than the amount Vineet has. How much money does Kriti have ? 

A. ₹64 

B. ₹53 

C. ₹50 

D. ₹72 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

Amount of Rajesh = 2×amount of Vineet 

Amount of Kriti = 6 + amount of Vineet —(1) 

Total amount of Rajesh and Kriti = 147 

Amount of Rajesh + amount of Kriti = 147 

2×amount of Vineet + 6 + amount of Vineet = 147 

Amount of Vineet = 141/3 = 47 

From eq (1), 

Amount of Kriti = 6 + 47 = Rs. 53 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

 

Q. 2 The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded? 

Answer: C. 

 

Q. 3 Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark(?) in the following series. SAT, VEW,YIZ, ? , EUF 

A. BOC. 

B. BUK 

C. FIC. 

D. COD. 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

In the series, middle letter of the letter-cluster is vowels so, 

(S + 3)(A)(T + 3) = VEW 

(V + 3)(E)(W + 3) = YIZ 

(Y + 3)(I)(Z + 3) = BOC. 

(B. + 3)(O)(C. + 3) = EUF 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

 

Q. 4 Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers in the given set. (7, 98, 196) 

A. (15, 190, 380) 

B. (18, 185, 360) 

C. (11, 154, 308) 

D. (20, 267, 520) 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

In (7, 98, 196), 

7×14 = 98 

98×2 = 196 

Similarly, 

In (11, 154, 308), 

11×14 = 154 

154×2 = 308 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

 

Q. 5 Select the dice that can be formed by folding the given sheet along the lines.

A. Only A. and B. 

B. Only A. 

C. Only B. 

D. Only C. and D. 

Answer: B. 

 

Q. 6 Arrange the following words in the order in which they would appear in an English dictionary. 

1. Category 

2. Caption 

3. Captain 

4. Capsule 

5. Capacity 

A. 5,4,3,1,2 

B. 5,4,3,2,1 

C. 4,5,3,2,1 

D. 5,4,1,3,2 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

Order of the words according to the English dictionary, 

Capacity, Capsule, Captain, Caption, Category 

∴ The correct answer is option B.

 

Q. 7 Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it?

A. 14 

B. 24 

C. 30 

D. 28 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

(299+100)/21 = 399/21 = 19

(296+100)/18 = 396/18 = 14

Similarly,

(348+100)/32 = 448/32 = 14

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

 

Q. 8 Four Letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster. 

A. NRW 

B. PTY 

C. ADL 

D. LPU 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

N + 4 = R + 5 = W 

P + 4 = T + 5 = Y 

A + 3 = D + 8 = L 

L + 4 = P + 5 = U 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

 

Q. 9 Four words have been given. out of which three are alike in some manner and is different. 

Select the odd word. 

A. Rabies 

B. Schizophrenia 

C. Polio 

D. Measles 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

Except option B, remaining all are the disease which is caused by the virus. 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

 

Q. 10 Pointing to the photograph of Sanchi, Nitin said, “Her mother’s father’s son’s wife is my mother-in-law’s only daughter”. How is Nitin related to Sanchi’s mother ? 

A. Paternal uncle 

B. Paternal grandfather 

C. Maternal uncle 

D. Brother 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

In the diagram, square shows the males, circle shows the females, vertical lines shows the generation, single horizontal lines shows the brother/sister and double horizontal lines shows the couples. 

From the diagram, 

Nitin is the brother of Sanchi’s mother. 

∴ The correct answer is option D. 

 

Q. 11 Which of the following Venn diagram best represents the relationship between the following classes? 

Income tax payers, Employees, Males 

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: B. 

 

Q. 12 ‘Vertebrate’ is related to ‘Monkey’in the same wayas ‘Invertebrate’is related to ‘ ……..’ 

A. Starfish 

B. Snake 

C. Deer 

D. «Frog 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

‘Vertebrate’ is related to ‘Monkey’in the same wayas ‘Invertebrate’is related to ‘starfish’. 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

 

Q. 13 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

4:69:: 11:2 

A. 1029 

B. 198 

C. 176 

D. 1336 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

(4)3 + 3 = 64 + 5 = 69 

(11)3 + 3 = 1331 + 5 =1336 

∴ The correct answer is option D. 

 

Q. 14 In a certain code language. ‘CAUGHT’ is coded as ‘326212087’. How will ‘SOLDER’ be coded asin that language? 

A. 2012152358 

B. 1912122359 

C. 1915124359 

D. 1812122459 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

‘CAUGHT’ is coded as ‘326212087’, 

C = 3 

A = 27 – 1 = 26 

U = 21 

G = 27 – 7 =20 

H = 8 

T = 27 – 20 = 7 

Similarly, 

S = 19 

O = 27 – 15 = 12 

L = 12 

D = 27 – 4 = 23 

E = 5 

R = 27 – 18 = 9 

‘SOLDER’ is coded as ‘1912122359’ 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

 

Q. 15 Which two signs and two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct? 

11 × 7 ÷ 35 − 64 + 56 = 47

A. + and −; 7 and 11

B. × and ÷; 35 and 11

C. × and ÷; 35 and 56

D. + and −; 35 and 11 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

11 × 7 ÷ 35 − 64 + 56 = 47 

From the option B, 

on changing the sign, 

35 ÷ 7 × 11 − 64 + 56 = 47 

55 – 64 + 56 = 47 

47 = 47 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

 

Q. 16 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when a mirror is placed on its right side. 

Answer: B. 

 

Q. 17 Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

AR, CP, ?, GL, IJ, KH 

A. DM 

B. DN 

C. EN 

D. EM 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

(A + 2)(R – 2) = CP 

(C + 2)(P – 2) = EN 

(E + 2)(N – 2) = GL 

(G + 2)(L – 2) = IJ 

(I + 2)(J – 2) = KH 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

Q. 18 Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

61, 63, 65, 77, 89, ? , 149, 205 

A. 115 

B. 123 

C. 119 

D. 132 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

61 +(1)2 + 1 = 61 + 2 = 63 

63 +(2)2 – 2 = 63 + 2 = 65  

65 +(3)2 + 3 = 65 + 12 = 77 

77 +(4)2 – 4 = 77 + 12 = 89 

89 +(5)2 + 5 = 89 + 30 = 119 

119 +(6)2 – 6 = 119 + 30 = 149 

149 +(7)2 + 7 = 149 + 56 = 205 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

Q. 19 Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-pair that is different from therest 

A. 17:323 

B. 23: 575 

C. 19:475 

D. 11: 143 

Answer: C. 

Explanation:

17 × (17 + 2) = 17 × 19 = 323 

23 × (23 + 2) = 23 × 25 = 575 

19 × (19 + 2) = 19 × 21 = 399 

11 × (11 + 2) = 11 × 13 = 143 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

Q. 20 Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

Answer: C. 

Q. 21 In a certain code language, ‘SANCTION’ is written as ‘XFSHODIT’. How will ‘PROFOUND’ be written as in that language ? 

A. UWTKJPHJ 

B. UWTKKPIJ 

C. UWTKNQIY 

D. VWUKMPIY 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

S + 5 = X 

A + 5 = F 

N + 5 = S 

C + 5 = H 

T – 5 = O 

I – 5 = D. 

O – 6 = I 

N + 6 = T 

Similarly, 

P + 5 = U 

R + 5 = W 

O + 5 = T 

F + 5 = K 

O – 5 = J 

U – 5 = P 

N – 6 = H 

D + 6 = J 

‘PROFOUND’ is written as ‘UWTKJPHJ’. 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

Q. 22 Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words. Examination: Invigilator 

A. Election : Observer 

B. Bank : Loan 

C. Film : Comedian 

D. Inspection : Approval 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

Examinations are conducted by the invigilator. 

Similarly, 

Elections are conducted by the observer. 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

Q. 23 How many triangles are there in the given figure? 

A. 34 

B. 33 

C. 32 

D. 35 

Answer: C. 

Q. 24 Select the option that is embedded in the given figure X (rotation is not allowed). 

Answer: C. 

Q. 25 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. 

Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the statements. Statements: 

1. Some papers are copies. 

2. No copy is an eraser. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some copies are papers. 

II. Some papers are erasers. 

III. No paper is an eraser. 

A. Only conclusion II and either conclusion I or III follow. 

B. Only conclusions I and II follow. 

C. Only conclusion I and either conclusion II or III follow. 

D. Only conclusions I and III follow. 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

From the Venn diagram, 

Only conclusion I and either conclusion II or III follow 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

General Awareness 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 The Indian Army is set to commission the first batch of women soldiers by year ……. 

A. 2020 

B. 2022 

C. 2021 

D. 2023 

Answer: C. 

Q. 27 Part VIII of the Constitution of India deals with ______. 

A. States 

B. Municipalities 

C. Union Territories 

D. Panchayats 

Answer: C. 

Q. 28 Which of the following is NOT located in Odisha? 

A. Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve 

B. Sambalpur Elephant Reserve 

C. Sonitpur Elephant Reserve 

D. Mahanadi Elephant Reserve 

Answer: C. 

Q. 29 Which of the following is NOT an ore of iron? 

A. Cuprite 

B. Haematite 

C. Magnetite 

D. Siderite 

Answer: A. 

Q. 30 The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was formed by insertion of Article ______ in the Constitution of India. 

A. 328B 

B. 328A 

C. 338A 

D. 338B 

Answer: D. 

Q. 31 

Name the first female amputee to climb Mount Everest. 

A. Premlata Agarwal 

B. Arunima Sinha 

C. Poorna Malavath 

D. Anshu Jamsenpa 

Answer: B. 

Q. 32 Pernicious anaemia is caused by the deficiency of vitamin ……. 

A. B2 

B. B6 

C. B1 

D. B12 

Answer: D. 

Q. 33 India won its ______ successive title at the South Asian Football Federation Women’s Championship in March 2019 

A. fourth 

B. sixth 

C. second 

D. fifth 

Answer: D. 

Q. 34 The excavated remains of ______ found near Patna in Bihar was inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in July 2016. 

A. Ashoka Pillar 

B. Ellora Caves 

C. Sanchi Stupa 

D. Nalanda Mahavihara 

Answer: D. 

Q. 35 The headquarters of the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) are located in 

A. Bengaluru 

B. Mumbai 

C. Kolkata 

D. Delhi 

Answer: B. 

Q. 36 Name the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. 

A. Arif Mohammad Khan 

B. Bhagat Singh Koshyari 

C. Satya Pal Malik 

D. Girish Chandra Murmu 

Answer: D. 

Q. 37 ______ is also known as the ‘Golden City 

A. Dungarpur 

B. Jodhpur 

C. Bundi 

D. Jaisalmer 

Answer: D. 

Q. 38 The aggregate value of goods and services produced in an economy can be calculated by three methods: income method, expenditure method and ______ method. 

A. product / value added 

B. spending 

C. deposit 

D. lending 

Answer: A. 

Q. 39 ……. renounced his knighthood in protest for Jalianwalla Bagh mass killing 

A. Jamsetjee Jejeebhoy 

B. Rabindranath Tagore 

C. Shivajirao Holkar 

D. Surendranath Banerjee 

Answer: B. 

Q. 40 ‘Dharmaraja (Yudhishthir) Ratha’, ‘Bhima Ratha’, ‘Arjuna Ratha’ and ‘Nakula Sahadeva Ratha’ are four of the Panch Rathas at Mahabalipuram. What is the name of the fifth Ratha? 

A. Bhishma Ratha 

B. Krishna Ratha 

C. Karna Ratha 

D. Draupadi Ratha 

Answer: D. 

Q. 41 The ______ in China is the world’s longest man-made waterway 

A. Suzhou Canal 

B. Kiel Canal 

C. Corinth Canal 

D. Grand Canal 

Answer: D. 

Q. 42 The Gadar (or Ghadar) Party was formed in the year ……. 

A. 1921 

B. 1918 

C. 1915 

D. 1913 

Answer: D. 

Q. 43 Alai-Darwaza, the southern gateway of the Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque in Delhi, was constructed by ….. 

A. Mu’izz ad-Din Muhammad Ghori 

B. Ahmad Shāh Durrani 

C. Ala-ud-din Khilji 

D. Muhammad bin Tughlu 

Answer: C. 

Q. 44 The Indus Waters Treaty was signed between India and Pakistan on ……. 

A. 19 September 1960 

B. 12 November 1959 

C. 16 December 1963 

D. 18 October 1969 

Answer: A. 

Q. 45 ______ are homogeneous mixtures of two or more components. 

A. Amalgams 

B. Solutions 

C. Enzymes 

D. Emulsions 

Answer: B. 

Q. 46 The total number of images formed by two mirrors inclined at 120° to each other is …… 

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: C. 

Q. 47 Depreciation is an annual allowance for the wear and tear of ………. 

A. work in progress 

B. land 

C. finished goods 

D. capital goods 

Answer: D. 

Q. 48 The Padma Awards are announced around ______ every year. 

A. Republic Day 

B. Sadbhavana Diwas 

C. Independence Day 

D. Hindi Diwas 

Answer: A. 

Q. 49 Which of the following can be used as a catalyst in Hydrogenation reaction? 

A. Barium 

B. Iron 

C. Tungsten 

D. Palladium 

Answer: D. 

Q. 50 The ‘Hyderabad Fund’ had been held by the ______ in the account of the High Commissioner of Pakistan to the UK, Habib Ibrahim Rahimtoola 

A. Bank of England 

B. National Westminster Bank 

C. Butterfield Private Bank 

D. Kingdom Bank 

Answer: B. 

Quantitative Aptitude 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 In ABC, ∠B = 90, If the points D and E are on the side BC such that BD = DE = EC then which of the following is true? 

A. 5AE2 = 2AC2 + 3AD2

B. 8AE2 = 5AC2 + 3AD2 

C. 8AE2 = 3AC2 + 5AD2

D. 5AE2 = 3AC2 + 2AD2

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

Let the BD, BE and BC. be x, 2x and 3x respectively. 

In △ABD, 

(AD)2 = (AB)2 + (BD)2 

(AD)2 = (AB)2 + (x)2  —-(1)

In △ABE,

(AE)2 = (AB)2 + (BE)2 (AE)2 = (AB)2 + (2x)2 

(AE)2 = (AB)2 + 4x2    —(2)

In △ABC,

(AC)2 = (AB)2 + (BC)2 

(AC)2 = (AB)2 + (3x)2 

(AC)2 = (AB)2 + 9x2 —(3)

Eq(1) multiply by 4, 

4AD2 = 4AB2 + 4x2   —(4)

Eq(4) – (2), 

4AD2 AE2 = 3AB2  —(5)

Eq(1) multiply by 9, 

9AD2 = 9AB2 + 9x2   —(6)

Eq(6) – (3),

9AD2 AC2 = 8AB2  —(7) 

Eq(5) multiply by 8 and Eq(7) multiply by 3, 

32AD2 − 8AE2 = 24AB2 —(8)

27AD2 − 3AC2 = 24AB2 —(9)

From eq(8) and (9), 

32AD2 − 8AE2 = 27AD2 − 3AC2 

8AE2 = 5AD2 + 3AC2 

Q. 52 When a positive integer is divided by d, the remainder is 15. When ten times of the same number is divided by d. the remainder is 6. The least possible value of d is: 

A.

B. 16 

C. 18 

D. 12 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

When a positive integer is divided by d, the remainder is 15 and When ten times of the same number is divided by d. the remainder is 6. So, 

15 will be also ten times so, 

Remainder = 150 

By the option B) 

When 150 is divided by 16 then remainder will be 6. 

Hence, correct answer is option B) 16. 

Q. 53 Reema sold 48 articles for ₹ 2,160 and suffered a loss of 10%. How many articles should she sell for ₹2,016 to earn a profit of 12%? 

A. 36 

B. 40 

C. 28 

D. 32 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

Selling price of 48 articles when loss of 10% = 2160 

Cost price of 48 articles = 2160 / 90 ×100 = 2400 

Cost price of 1 article = 2400/48 = 50 

Selling price of when profit of 12% = 2016 

Cost price = 2016 / 112 ×100 = 1800 

Number of articles = 1800/50 = 36 

Q. 54 A and B together borrowed a sum of ₹51,750 at an interest rate of 7%p.a. compound interest in such a way that to settle the loan, A paid as much amount after three years as paid by B after 4 years from the day of borrowing. The sum (in ₹) borrowed by B was: 

A. 25,650 

B. 26,750 

C. 25,000 

D. 24,860 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

let A borrow be Rs.x. 

Borrowed by B = 51,750 – x 

compound interest rate(r) = 7% 

Amount paid by A after 3 year = amount paid by B after 4 year 

Amount = principal(1 + r/100)t

x(1 + 7/100)3 = (51, 750 − x)(1 + 7/100)4 

x = (51, 750 − x) × 107/100 

100x = 5537250 – 107x 

x = 5537250/207 = 26750 

Borrowed by B = 51,750 – x = 51,750 – 26750 = 25000 

Q. 55 is equal to 

A. (x−4)/(x+4)

B. (x+4)/x(4−x)

C. (x+4)/x(x−4)

D. (x+4)/(x−4)

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

Q. 56 The marked price of an item is 25% above its cost price. A shopkeeper sells it, allowing a discount of x % on the marked price. If he incurs a loss of 8%, then the value of x is 

A. 25.6% 

B. 26.8% 

C. 26.4% 

D. 25.2% 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

Let the cost price of an article be 100. 

Marked price = 100 × 125/100 = 125 

Discount = x% 

Loss = 8% 

Selling price = 100 × 92/100 = 92 

Selling price = marked price – discount 

Discount = 125 – 92 = 33 

x% = 33/125×100 = 26.4% 

Q. 57 What x is added to each of 10, 16, 22 and 32, the numbers so obtained in this order are in proportion? What is the mean proportional between the numbers (x + 1) and (3x + 1)? 

A. 12 

B.

C. 15 

D. 10 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

If x is added to each of numbers, the numbers so obtained in this order are in proportion 

so, (10 + x)/(16 + x) = (22 + x)/(32 + x) 

(10 + x)(32 + x) = (16 + x)(22 + x) 

320 + 10x + 32x + x2 = 352 + 16x + 22x + x2 

320 + 42x = 352 + 38x 

4x = 32 

x = 8 

(x + 1) = 8 + 1 = 9 

(3x + 1) = 24 + 1 = 25 

Mean proportional = √(9×25) = 15 

Q. 58 What is the value of  

A.

B.

C.

D. -1 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

Q. 59 The average of some numbers is 54.6. If 75% of the numbers are increased by 5.6 each, and the rest are decreased by 8.4 each, then what is the average of the numbers so obtained? 

A. 55.6 

B. 55.8 

C. 56.7 

D. 56.3 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

New average of the numbers = (average + increment/decrements) 

The average of some numbers = 54.6 

75% of the numbers are increased by 5.6 each, and the rest are decreased by 8.4 each so, 

New average of the numbers = 54.6 + (5.6 × 75/100 – 8.4 × 25/100) = 54.6 + 4.2 – 2.1 = 56.7 

Q. 60 Diameter AB of a circle with centre O is produced to a point P such that PO = 16.8 cm. PQR is a secant which intersects the circle at Q and R such that PQ = 12 cm and PR = 19.2 cm.The length of AB (in cm) is : 

A. 14.2 

B. 15.2 

C. 15.8 

D. 14.4 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

Q. 61 A boat can go 3.6 km upstream and 5.4 km downstream in 54 minutes, while it can go 5.4 km upstream and 3.6 km downstream in 58.5 minutes. The time (in minutes) taken by the boat in going 10 km downstream is: 

A. 48 

B. 50 

C. 45 

D. 54 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

Let the speed of speed of stream be u and speed of boat in still water be v. 

Speed of boat in upstream = u – v 

Speed of boat in downstream = u + v 

A boat can go 3.6 km upstream and 5.4 km downstream in 54 minutes so, 

Time = distance/speed 

3.6/(u – v) + 5.4/(u + v) = 54/60 

3.6/(u – v) + 5.4/(u + v) = 9/10 

36/(u – v) + 54/(u + v) = 9

4(u + v) + 6(u – v) = u2 – v2 

10u – 2v = u2 – v2 —(1) 

Boat can go 5.4 km upstream and 3.6 km downstream in 58.5 minutes so, 

5.4/(u – v) + 3.6/(u + v) = 58.5/60 

54/(u – v) + 36/(u + v) = 585/60 

6/(u – v) + 4/(u + v) = 13/12

72(u + v) + 48(u – v) = 13(u2 – v2

120u + 24v = 13(u2 – v2

Put the value of eq(1), 

120u + 24v = 13 × (10u – 2v) 

120u + 24v = 130u – 26v 

10u = 50v 

u = 5v —(2) 

put the value of u in eq(1), 

50v – 2v = 25v2 – v2 

48v = 24v2 

v = 2 

put the value of v in eq(2), 

u = 5 × 2 = 10 

Speed of boat in downstream = u + v = 10 + 2 = 12 

The time taken by the boat in going 10 km downstream = distance/speed = 10/12 hours = 60  × 10/12 = 50 min 

Q. 62 If 5cosθ – 12sinθ = 0, then what is the value of (1 + sinθ + cosθ)/(1-sinθ + cosθ

A. 5/4 

B. 3/2 

C. 3/4 

D. 5/2 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

5cosθ – 12sinθ = 0

tan θ =5/12 

We know that tanθ = perpendicular/base 

so, 

By the triplet 5-12-13, 

Hypotenuse = 13 

sin  θ = 5/13 

cos  θ= 12/13 

(1 + sin  θ + cos  θ)/(1 – sin  θ + cos θ

= (1 + 5/13 + 12/13)/(1 – 5/13 + 12/13)

= 30/20=3/2

Q. 63 The given table represents the sale (in thousands) of cars by four companies A, B, C and D in six years. Study the table and answer the question that follows. 

The total number of cars sold by companies A in 2017 and C in 2013 is what percentage of the total number of cars sold by all four companies in 2013 and 2016? (correct to one decimal place) 

A. 23.8 

B. 24.2 

C. 25.6 

D. 23.3 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

The total number of cars sold by companies A in 2017 and C in 2013 = 52 + 65 = 117 

The total number of cars sold by all four companies in 2013 = 45 + 63 + 65 + 67 = 240 

The total number of cars sold by all four companies in 2016 = 72 + 58 + 70 + 63 = 263 

The total number of cars sold by all four companies in 2013 and 2016 = 240 + 263 = 503 

Required percentage = 117/503 × 100 = 23.26% ~ 23.3% 

Q. 64 If 11sin2θ – cos2θ + 4sin θ – 4 = 0, 00<   θ < 900, then what is the value of (cos 2θ + cot 2θ) / (sec 2θ – tan 2θ)

A. (12+7√3)/6 

B. (12+5√3)/3 

C. (10+5√3)/3 

D. (10+7√3)/6 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

11sin2θ – cos2θ + 4sinθ – 4 = 0 

11sin2θ – (1-sin2θ) + 4sinθ – 4 = 0 

12sin2θ + 4sinθ – 5 = 0 

12sin2θ + 10sinθ –6sinθ – 5 = 0 

2sinθ (6sinθ+5)−1(6sinθ+5)= 0

(2sinθ −1) (6sinθ+5) = 0

For  00<   θ < 900

sinθ= ½

θ = 300

(cos 2θ + cot 2θ) / (sec 2θ – tan 2θ

On putting the value of θ

Q. 65 If the radius of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 10%, and the height is increased by 20%, then the percentage increase/decrease in its volume is: 

A. increase by 2.8% 

B. decrease by 1.8% 

C. increase by 1.8% 

D. decrease quadrilateral by in 2.8% 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

Volume of right circular cylinder = π r2

Radius of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 10%, and the height is increased by 20% so, 

r1 = r × 90/100 = 0.9r 

h1 = h × 120/100 = 1.2h 

Volume of new right circular cylinder =π r12h1 = π (0.9r)2(1.2h) = 0.972 π r2

Decrements in volume = π r2h – 0.972π r2h = 0.028π r2

Percentage Decrements in volume = (0.028π r2h)/(π r2h) × 100 = 2.8% 

Q. 66 ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral which sides AD and BC are produced to meet at P, and sides DC and AB meet at Q when produced. If ∠A = 600 and ∠ABC = 720,then ∠PDC – ∠DPC = ? 

A. 240

B. 300 

C. 360 

D. 400 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

In ΔABP, 

∠A + ∠ABC + ∠APB = 1800 

∠APB = 1800 – 600 – 720 = 480 

∠ADC = 1800 – ABC = 1800 – 720 = 1080 

∠PDC = 1800 – ∠ADC = 1800 – 1080 = 720 

∠PDC – ∠DPC = 72 – 48 = 240 

Q. 67 The given table represents the sale (in thousands) of cars by four companies A, B, C and D in six years. Study the table and answer the question that follows. 

The Total number of cars sold by company C in 2018 exceeds the average number of cars sold by company A during 2014 to 2018 by: 

A. 15,000 

B. 14,000 

C. 16,000 

D. 12,000 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

Total number of cars sold by company C. in 2018 = 76000 

Total number of cars sold by company A during 2014 to 2018 = 52000 + 61000 + 72000 + 52000 + 63000 = 300000 

Average number of cars sold by company A during 2014 to 2018 = 300000/5 = 60000 

Required number = 76000 – 60000 = 16000 

Q. 68 A and B spend 60% and 75% of their incomes, respectively. If the savings of A are 20% more than that of B then by what percentage is the income of A less than the income of B? 

A. 15 

B. 20 

C. 10 

D. 25 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

Let the income of A. and B. be X and Y respectively. 

Saving of A = X – 60/100 × X = 0.4X 

Saving of B = Y – 75/100 × Y = 0.25Y 

If the savings of A are 20% more than that of B. then, 

Saving of A = 0.25Y × 120/100 = 3Y/10 

0.4X = 3Y/10 

4X = 3Y 

Ratio of income of A. and B. = 3 : 4 

Required percentage = (4 – 3)/4 × 100 = 25% 

Q. 69 The given table represents the sale (in thousands) of cars by four companies A, B, C and in six years. Study the table and answer the question that follows. 

The total number of cars sold by company B. during 2015, 2017 and 2018 is what percentage less than the total number of cars sold by company C. in 2013, 2015, 2017 and 2018? 

A. 16⅔  

B. 33⅓ 

C. 50 

D. 40 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

The total number of cars sold by company B during 2015, 2017 and 2018 = 60 + 53 + 67 = 180 

The total number of cars sold by company C in 2013, 2015, 2017 and 2018 = 65 + 66 + 63 + 76 = 270 

Required percentage = (270 – 180)/270 × 100 = 33⅓% 

Q. 70 To complete a certain task, X is 40 % more efficient than Y, and Z is 40% less efficient than Y. Working together, they can complete the task in 21 days. Y and Z together worked for 35 days. The remaining work will be completed by X alone in: 

A. 8 days 

B. 4 days 

C. 6 days 

D. 5 days 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

Efficiency of X = 140% of Y = 1.4Y 

Efficiency of Z = 60% of Y = 0.6Y 

Efficiency of X, Y and Z = 1.4 : 1 : 0.6 = 7 : 5 : 3 

They can complete the task in 21 days so, 

Total work = sum of efficiency ratio × times = (7 + 5 + 3) × 21 = 315 

Y and Z together worked for 35 days so, 

Work done by Y and Z = (5 + 3) × 35 = 280 

Remaining work = 315 – 280 = 35 

Remaining work complete by X = work/efficiency = 35/7 = 5 days 

Q. 71 The given table represents the sale (in thousands) of cars by four companies A, B, C and D in six years. Study the table and answer the question that follows. 

What is the ratio of the total number of cars sold by companies A, B and D in 2017 to the total number of cars sold by all four companies in 2018? 

A. 3:4 

B. 6:13 

C. 9:14 

D. 18:23 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

The total number of cars sold by companies A, B and D in 2017 = 52 + 53 + 75 = 180 

The total number of cars sold by all four companies in 2018 = 63 + 67 + 76 + 74 = 280 

The ratio of the total number of cars sold by companies A, B and D in 2017 to the total number of cars sold by all four companies in 2018 = 180 : 280 = 9 : 14 

Q. 72 The value of is: 

A. 4⅓  

B. 5⅚ 

C. 4 5/12 

D. 5 5/12 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

=> 4 5/12 

Q. 73 In ΔPQR, PQ = 24 cm and Q = 580 S and T are the points on side PQ and PR, respectively, such that STR = 1220 and If PS = 14 cm and PT = 12 cm, then the length of RT is : 

A. 14.8 cm 

B. 16 cm 

C. 15 cm 

D. 16.4 cm 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

∠PTS + ∠ STR = 1800 

∠PTS = 180 – 122 = 580 

∠P is a common angle. 

Δ PQR and ∠PTS are similar triangle. SO, 

PT/PQ = PS/PR 

12/24 = 14/PR 

PR = 28 cm 

RT = PR – PT = 28 – 12 = 16 cm 

Q. 74 If then the value of xy is : 

A.

B. 10 

C.

D.

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

Q. 75 If 20x2 — 30x + 1 = 0, then what is the value of 25x2+1/16x2 

A. 58¾  

B. 53¾ 

C. 53½   

D. 58½ 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

English Comprehension 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the correctly spelt word. 

A. Beaureacracy 

B.  Recrutment 

C. Reimbursement 

D. Surveliance 

Answer: C. 

Q. 77 Select the appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

To take the bull by the horns 

A. To speak arrogantly 

B. To murder someone 

C. To surrender to the enemy 

D. To handle difficulties 

Answer: D. 

Q. 78 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order. 

A. Although I had a fear of water, I thought it was an important skill I should learn. 

B. However, what I didn’t realize was that it would also make me a more confident person. 

C. I also thought it would be a good exercise that would make me physically stronger. 

D. One of the hardest things I’ve had to do was to learn how to swim. 

A. DCBA 

B. ACDB 

C. DACB 

D. BADC 

Answer: C. 

Q. 79 Select the correctly spelt word 

A. Definition 

B. Competiter 

C. Proliferete 

D. Beneficiery 

Answer: A. 

Q. 80 Select the correct synonym of the given word. 

Erudite 

A. Learned 

B. Strong 

C. Fashionable 

D. Illiterate 

Answer: A. 

Q. 81 Select the passive form of the given sentence. 

They are constructing a residential youth hostel. 

A. A residential youth hostel is constructed by them 

B. A residential youth hostel was constructed by them. 

C. A residential youth hostel has been constructed by them 

D. A residential youth hostel is being constructed by them 

Answer: D. 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Comprehension: 

Drug addiction is the continued use of a particular drug (1)______ harmful consequences. Drug addiction not only affects an individual’s health and relationship, but also (2)______ the society and the environment. Prevention of a particular list of drugs can be possible by (3)______ their sale without a prescription. Drug addicts should be given proper medical treatment and (4)______ facilities. Motivational and awareness camps should be organized to scale down the consumption (5)______ drugs. 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 1 

A. despite of 

B. though 

C. in spite 

D. despite 

Answer: D. 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 2 

A. .imparts 

B. impacts 

C. reflects 

D. reduces 

Answer: B. 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 3 

A. conducting 

B. restricting 

C. performing 

D. promoting 

Answer: B. 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 4 

A. regeneration 

B. resignation 

C. rehabilitation 

D. regression 

Answer: C. 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 5 

A. for 

B. of 

C. from 

D. by 

Answer: B. 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 87 Select the correct antonym of the given word. 

Allure 

A. Revive 

B. Rewind 

C. Repulse 

D. Attract 

Answer: C. 

Q. 88 Select the word which means the same as the groups of words given. 

A. long and aggressive speech 

A. Harangue 

B. Eloquence 

C. Prologue 

D. Discussion 

Answer: A. 

Q. 89 Select the word which means the same as the groups of words given. 

The school or college in which one has been educated 

A. Alma mater 

B. Alumni 

C. Graduate 

D. Mentor 

Answer: A. 

Q. 90 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order. 

A. During the celebration, many people display a set of ornamental dolls known as ‘Hina’ dolls. 

B. Hinamatsuri is a celebration of the girls in Japan wishing them a bright future. 

C. These royal-looking dolls are dressed in the clothing of the Heian period. 

D. These dolls represent the Emperor, Empress and other royal representatives. 

A. CDBA 

B. ACBD 

C. DBAC 

D. BADC 

Answer: D. 

Q. 91 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. 

The old man did not wanted to eat any food. 

A. to eat 

B. did not wanted 

C. any food 

D. The old man 

Answer: B. 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

All students should express their ______ views in the group discussion without any fear 

A. outspoken 

B. guarded 

C. candid 

D. secluded 

Answer: C. 

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

All his endeavors to win his teacher’s favour proved ______ and did not bring the desired results. 

A. perpetual 

B. futile 

C. apparent 

D. prosperous 

Answer: B. 

Q. 94 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. 

No least than fifty participants were present for the singing competition. 

A. No least than 

B. the singing competition 

C. fifty participants wer 

D. present for 

Answer: A. 

Q. 95 Select the correct antonym of the given word. 

Bizarre 

A. Strange 

B. Usual 

C. Happy 

D. Weird 

Answer: B. 

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement. 

Many of a students were not shortlisted for the personal interview 

A. No improvement 

B. Many of students 

C. The many student 

D. Many of the students 

Answer: D. 

Q. 97 Select the appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

To flog a dead horse 

A. To waste the efforts 

B. To accept the challenge 

C. To complete the work 

D. To make the best use of resources 

Answer: A. 

Q. 98 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement. 

When I was working in a software company, it was mandatory to register my legally as an authorized software developer. 

A. register me legal 

B. register myself legally 

C. register mine legally 

D. No improvement 

Answer: B. 

Q. 99 Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. 

“Hello”, he said to his friend. “What can I do for you?”” 

A. He said hello and asked his friend what can do for him 

B. He asked and greeted his friend that what he can do for him 

C. He greeted his friend and asked what he could do for him 

D. He told hello and asked his friend what he could do for him 

Answer: C. 

Q. 100 Select the correct synonym of the given word. 

Violent 

A. Kind 

B. Mild 

C. Calm 

D. Aggressive 

Answer: D. 

SSC CGL Tier-I 05 March 2020 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier-I Exam 05 March 2020

Q. 1 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the sixth number is related to the fifth number. 

72 : 108 :: 84 : ? :: 102 : 153 

A. 144 

B. 126 

C. 117 

D. 135 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

72 + 72/2 = 72 + 36 = 108 

102 + 102/2 = 102 + 51 = 153 

Similarly, 

84 + 84/2 = 84 + 42 = 126 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

 

Q. 2 Shaan has a total of ₹5,500 with him. He buys product ‘Z’ at ₹5,000 from this sum and then sells it to another person, thus making a profit of 15% onit. With all the money he has now, he buys product ‘X’ and then sells it to another person making a profit of 25% onit. What is the total money Shaan has now? 

A. ₹7,812.50 

B. ₹7,815.50 

C. ₹6,325.50 

D. ₹7,187.50 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

Cost price of product ‘Z’ = 5000 

Profit = 15% 

Selling price = 5000×115/100= 5750 

Cost price of product ‘X’ = 5750 + 500 = 6250 

Profit = 25% 

Selling price = 6250×125/100 = 7812.5 

Shaan has rs. 7812.5. 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

 

Q. 3 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Answer: B. 

Q. 4 Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. aYd, fTi, kOn, pJs, ? 

A. VeX 

B. uEw 

C. uFw 

D. uEx 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

so, next letter-cluster is ‘uJx’. 

∴ The correct answer is option D. 

Q. 5 Four Letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster. 

A. TVW 

B. FHJ 

C. LNP 

D. DFH 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

Except option A. remaining all options have the difference of 1 in each letter. 

So, ‘TVW’ is odd. 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

Q. 6 Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words. 

Blunder : Error 

A. Euphoria : Happiness 

B. War : Peace 

C. Speak : Hear 

D. Anger : Rage 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

Blunder is similar to error. 

Similarly, 

Euphoria is similar to happiness. 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

Q. 7 Arrange the following in a logical sequence from small to big. 

1. Crocodile 

2. Lizard 

3. Whale 

4. Housefly 

5. Monkey 

A. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5 

B. 3, 5, 4, 1, 2 

C. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3 

D. 4, 5, 2, 1, 3 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

Sequence from small to big, 

Housefly, Lizard, Monkey, Crocodile, Whale 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

Q. 8 Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Select the odd word. 

A. Plenty 

B. Indigence 

C. Destitution 

D. Penury 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

Except the ‘Plenty’ remaining all have similar meaning. 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

Q. 9 Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers in the given set. 

(13, 65, 117) 

A. (15, 75, 135) 

B. (12, 55, 109) 

C. (14, 70, 127) 

D. (17, 85, 163) 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

13×5 = 65 

13×9 = 117 

Similarly, 

15×5 = 75 

15×9 = 135 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

Q. 10 Four positions of the same dice are shown. Select the number that will be on the face opposite to the one showing ‘3’.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: B. 

Q. 11 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the statements. 

Statements: 

1. All parakeets are cuckoos. 

2. All cuckoos are rabbits. 

3. All rabbits are snakes. 

Conclusions: 

I. All parakeets are snakes. 

II. All snakes are cuckoos. 

III. All rabbits are parakeets. 

IV. All cuckoos are snakes. 

A. Only conclusions II and III follow. 

B. Only conclusions I and II follow. 

C. Only conclusions I and IV follow. 

D. All the conclusions follow. 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

From the Venn diagram, 

Only conclusions I and IV follow. 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

Q. 12 Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-pair that is different. 

A. 169-197 

B. 121-145 

C. 289-325 

D. 225-241 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

In 169 – 197, 

  (13)2 = 169 

(14)2 + 1 = 196 + 1 = 197

In 121-145, 

(11)2 = 121 

(12)2 + 1 = 144 + 1 = 145 

In 289-325, 

(17)2 = 289 

(18)2 + 1 = 324 + 1 = 325 

In 225-241 

(15)2  = 225 

(16)2 − 15 = 256 – 15 = 241 

∴The correct answer is option D. 

Q. 13 If each letter of the English alphabet is assigned an odd numerical value in increasing order, such as A = 1, B = 3 and so on, then what will be the code of HONEY? 

A. 132725747 

B. 152927949 

C. 132725745 

D. 152927947 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

H = 8 + 7 = 15 

O = 15 + 14 = 29 

N = 14 + 13 = 27 

E = 4 + 5 = 9 

Y = 25 + 24 = 49 

So, Code for ‘HONEY” = 152927949 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

Q. 14 Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

40, 37, 43, 34, 46, ? 

A. 31 

B. 41 

C. 51 

D. 61 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

The series follows the pattern as, 

40 – 3 = 37 

37 + 6 = 43 

43 – 9 = 34 

34 + 12 = 46 

46 – 15 = 31 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

Q. 15 Which of the option figures is the exact mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held at the right side?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: D. 

Q. 16 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. Ministers : Council :: Sailors : ? 

A. Sea 

B. Ship 

C. Captain 

D. Crew 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

As ministers is related to council similarly, 

Sailors are related to crew. 

∴ The correct answer is option D. 

Q. 17 The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded? 

Answer: B. 

Q. 18 

Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it. 

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

(10×14) ÷ 35 = 140/35 = 4 

(15 ×5) ÷ 25= 75/25 = 3 

(14 ×6) ÷ 12 = 84/12 = 7 

(18 ×8) ÷ 16= 144/16 = 9 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

Q. 19 How many triangles are present in the given figure? 

A. 22 

B. 20 

C. 23 

D. 21 

Answer: C. 

Q. 20 There is a family of five members: K, L, M,N and O. Among them,there is one married couple. O is unmarried and is the brother of K. is the sister of O. M is the only married female and the mother of N. L and O are the only males in the group. Who is the father of K? 

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

In the diagram, circle shows the female, the square shows the male, vertical line son the generation, horizontal line shows the brother/sister and double horizontal lines show the couple. 

From the diagram, L is the father of K. 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

Q. 21 Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

Answer: C. 

Q. 22 In the given Venn diagram,the triangle represents students playing table tennis, the rectangle represents students playing badminton, the circle represents female students, and the pentagon represents students playing football. The numbers given in the diagram represent the number of persons in that particular category. 

How many female students play both table tennis and badminton? 

A. 22 

B. 18 

C.

D.

Answer: C. 

Q. 23 The two given expressions on both the side of the ‘=’ sign will have the same value if two numbers from either side or both side are interchanged. Select the correct numbers to be interchanged from the given options. 

3 + 5 × 4 − 24 ÷ 3 = 7 × 4 − 3 + 36 ÷ 6 

A. 6, 3 

B. 5, 7 

C. 4, 7 

D. 24, 36 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

3 + 5 × 4 − 24 ÷ 3 = 7 × 4 − 3 + 36 ÷ 6 

From option B, 

On interchanging 5 and 7, 

3 + 7 × 4 − 24 ÷ 3 = 5 × 4 − 3 + 36 ÷ 6 

3 + 28 − 8 = 20 − 3 + 6 

23 = 23 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

Q. 24 Select the set of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given letter series will complete the series.

f_hg_fh_gf_hg_fh_g 

A. f, g, h, f, g, h 

B. g, h, f, g, h, f 

C. g, f, g, f, h, f 

D. h, f, g, h, f, g 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

Sequence, 

fghghf/hfgfgh/ghfhfg 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

Q. 25 In certain code languages. U is written as C, K is written as H, L is written as U, N is written as E, S is written as L, E is written as K, and C. is written as N. How will ‘KNUCKLES’ be written as in that language? 

A. KECNKUHL 

B. CHUECKN 

C. HECNHUKL 

D. HECNHULK 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

‘KNUCKLES’ is written as ‘HECNHUKL’. 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

General Awareness 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Pongal festival is celebrated for four days in Tamil Nadu. What is the fourth day of Pongal called? 

A. Thai Pongal 

B. Kaanum Pongal 

C. Bhogi Pongal 

D. Mattu Pongal 

Answer: B. 

Q. 27 Name the law in Physics which states that equal volume of all gases under the same conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules. 

A. Avogadro’s Law 

B. Boyles’s Law 

C. Charles’s Law 

D. Ohm’s Law 

Answer: A. 

Q. 28 Which of the following rivers flows through Tiruttani a famous pilgrimage place of South India? 

A. Nandi 

B. Kaveri 

C. Palar 

D. Vaigai 

Answer: A. 

Q. 29 In which year was the Nahargarh Fort in Jaipur built by Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II ? 

A. 1800 

B. 1734 

C. 1805 

D. 1780 

Answer: B. 

Q. 30 As per the government rules, how much percentage of advance tax needs to be paid by 15th June by an individual who is liable to pay advance tax? 

A. 10% 

B. 25% 

C. 15% 

D. 30% 

Answer: C. 

Q. 31 Which dynasty built the pancha rathas of Mahabalipuram? 

A. Satavahana 

B. Pallava 

C. Chola 

D. Chera 

Answer: B. 

Q. 32 In which of the following locations was the Quit India Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1942? 

A. August Kranti Maidan 

B. Shivaji Park 

C. Pragati Maidan 

D. Jallianwala Bagh 

Answer: A. 

Q. 33 What was the theme of the 107th Indian Science Congress held in Bengaluru? 

A. Science and Technology: Rural Development 

B. Reaching the Unreached through Science and Technology 

C. Future India : Science and Technology 

D. Science and Technology for National Development 

Answer: A. 

Q. 34 The researchers of which academic institution employed the nanoscale phenomenon called ‘Electrokinetic streaming potential’ to harvest energy from flowing water on a small scale like water flowing through household water taps? 

A. IIT Guwahati 

B. IIT Delhi 

C. IIT Bombay 

D. IIT Madras 

Answer: A. 

Q. 35 In January 2020, B Sai Deepak set a Guinness World Record for most side lunges in 60 seconds. How many lunges did he do? 

A. 50 

B. 40 

C. 30 

D. 59 

Answer: D. 

Q. 36 Which National Park among the following is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalayan sub-region? 

A. Jim Corbett National Park 

B. Namdapha National Park 

C. Keibul Lamjao National Park 

D. Bandipur National Park 

Answer: B. 

Q. 37 Chiropody is a branch of science related to which part of the body? 

A. Liver 

B. Kidney 

C. Feet 

D. Lungs 

Answer: C. 

Q. 38 G. Babita Rayudu took charge as an Executive Director for which of the following organisations in January 2020? 

A. The Securities and Exchange Board of India 

B. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India 

C. Small Industries Development Bank of India 

D. Bombay Stock Exchange 

Answer: A. 

Q. 39 Which is the first Indian company to hit the ₹10 lakh crore mark in market capitalisation? 

A. HDFC. Bank 

B. ICICI Bank 

C. Tata Consultancy Services 

D. Reliance Industries 

Answer: D. 

Q. 40 The 23rd National Youth Festival (NYF) 2020 was celebrated in Lucknow to commemorate the birth anniversary of ______. 

A. Jawaharlal Nehru 

B. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 

C. Swami Vivekananda 

D. Mahatma Gandhi 

Answer: C. 

Q. 41 The Indian Railways has integrated its helpline numbers into a single number. What is the number? 

A. 139 

B. 145 

C. 150 

D. 160 

Answer: A. 

Q. 42 The police of which state was honoured with the President’s Colours award in December 2019? 

A. Maharashtra 

B. Kerala 

C. Tamil Nadu 

D. Gujarat 

Answer: D. 

Q. 43 In which year was the Currency Building in the BBD. Bagh or Dalhousie area of Kolkata constructed? 

A. 1833 

B. 1910 

C. 1850 

D. 1900 

Answer: A. 

Q. 44 In terms of area, which state has the largest forest cover in India? 

A. Maharashtra 

B. Odisha 

C. Madhya Pradesh 

D. Kerala 

Answer: C. 

Q. 45 VISHWAS, which is a major e-governance initiative launched by the government in January 2020, is the acronym for which of the following? 

A. Video Interface and State Wide Advanced Security 

B. Video Integration and System Wide Advanced Security 

C. Video Integration and State Wide Advanced Security 

D. Video Integration and State Wide Advanced System 

Answer: C. 

Q. 46 What is the colour of the light emitted by the Sun? 

A. Red 

B. White 

C. Orange 

D. Yellow 

Answer: B. 

Q. 47 The famous 11-day long ‘Dhanu Jatra’, considered as the largest open-air theatre of the world is celebrated in which state? 

A. Meghalaya 

B. Assam 

C. Odisha 

D. Manipur 

Answer: C. 

Q. 48 Which district has been awarded the Plastic Waste Management Award – 2020 for being the best district of India in the plastic waste management category during Swachhta Hi Seva 2019? 

A. Hojai 

B. Majuli 

C. Dibrugarh 

D. Jorhat 

Answer: C. 

Q. 49 Jasprit Bumrah has been selected to receive which of the following awards for his performance in international cricket in the 2018- 19 season? 

A. C.K. Nayudu 

B. Polly Umrigar 

C. M.A. Chidambaram 

D. Madhavrao Scindia 

Answer: B. 

Q. 50 Ishwar Sharma has been honoured with the Global Child Prodigy Award 2020. What is this award associated with? 

A. Sports 

B. Yoga 

C. Science 

D. Literature 

Answer: B. 

Quantitative Aptitude 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 In an examination in which the full marks were 500, A scored 25% more marks than B, B scored 60% more marks than C and C scored 20% less marks than D. If A scored 80% marks, then the percentage of marks obtained by is: 

A. 65% 

B. 60% 

C. 50% 

D. 54% 

Answer: C. 

Q. 52 The given table represents the exports (in ₹crores) of four items A, B, C and D over a period of six years. Study the table and answer the question that follows. 

In which year, the exports of item D were 1.4 times the average exports of item B during six years? 

A. 2013 

B. 2012 

C. 2011 

D. 2014 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

Average exports of item B. during six years ={128 + 134 + 138 + 169 + 182 + 209}/6 

(Average = sum of the terms/no. of terms) 

= 960/6 = 160 

1.4 times the average exports of item B. during six years = 1.4×160 = 224 

In 2013, the exports of item D were 1.4 times the average exports of item B during six years. 

Q. 53 If x2 − 2√5x + 1 = 0, then what is the value of x5 + 1/x5

A. 610√5

B. 406√5

C. 408√5

D. 612√5

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

x2 − 2√5x + 1 = 0 Divide by x, 

x − 2√5 + 1/x = 0 

x + 1/x = 2√5  —(1)

(x +1/x)2  = (2√5)2

x2 + (1/x)2 + 2 = 20

x2 + (1/x)2 = 18 —-(2)

From eq(1), 

(x +1/x)3  = (2√5)3

x3 + (1/x)3 + 3(x +1/x) = 40√5

x3 + (1/x)3 = 40√5 – 3(2√5)

x3 + (1/x)3 = 34√5

From eq(2) and (3), 

{x2 + (1/x)2}{x3 + (1/x)3}=(18) (34√5)

x5 + 1/x + x 1/x5 = 612√5

x5 + 1/x5 = 612√5 – 2√5 = 610√5

Q. 54 Sudha sold an article to Renu for ₹576 at a loss of 20%. Renu spent a sum of ₹224 on its transportation and sold it to Raghu at a price which would have given Sudha profit of 24%. The percentage of gain for Renu is: 

A. 13.2% 

B. 10.5% 

C. 12.9% 

D. 11.6% 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

Cost price for Sudha = 576/80 ×100 = 720 

Cost price for Renu = 576 

Final cost price for Renu = 576 + 224 = 800 

Selling price for Renu = 24% profit of sudha 

= 720 × 124/100 = 892.8 

Profit for Renu = 892.8 -800 = 92.8 

The percentage of gain for Renu = 92.8 / 800 ×100 = 11.6% 

Q. 55 If the nine-digit number 708x6y8z9 is divisible by 99, then what is the value of x + y + z? 

A.

B. 27 

C. 16 

D.

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

To be divisible by 99, the number has to be divisible by 11 and 9 both. 

For divisibility by 11, 

7 + 8 + 6 + 8 + 9 – 0 + x + y + z 

(38 – x + y + z) has to be divisible by 11. 

For divisibility by 9, 

(38 + x + y + z) has to be divisible by 9. 

By option C), 

x + y + z = 16 

(38 – x + y + z) = 38 – 16 = 22 is divisible by 11. 

(38 + x + y + z) = 38 + 16 = 54 is divisible by 9. 

Q. 56 The ratio of the ages ofA. and B, 8 years ago, was 2 : 3. Four years ago,the ratio of their ages was 5 : 7. What will be the ratio of their ages 8 years from now? 

A. 4 : 5 

B. 5 : 6 

C. 7 : 8 

D. 3 : 4 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

8 years ago the ratio of the ages of A and B = 2 : 3 

Let the 8 years ago ages of A and B be 2x and 3x respectively. 

4 years age of A = 2x + 4 

4 years age of B = 3x + 4 

Four years ago,the ratio of their ages = 5 : 7 

(2x+4)/(3x+4) = 5/7

14x + 28 = 15x + 20 

x = 8 

8 years from now, Age of A = 2x + 16 = 2×8 + 16 = 32 

8 years from now, Age of B = 3x + 16 = 3×8 + 16 = 40 

Ratio of their ages 8 years from now = 32 : 40 = 4 : 5 

Instructions 

The given table represents the exports (in ₹crores) of four items A, B, C and D over a period of six years. Study the table and answer the question that follows. 

Q. 57 The total exports of item A. from 2012 to 2014 is what percentage less than the total exports of all the four items in 2015? (Correct to one decimal place) 

A. 16.7% 

B. 15.2% 

C. 14.3% 

D. 13.8% 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

The total exports of item A. from 2012 to 2014 = 225 + 370 + 425 = 1020 

The total exports of all the four items in 2015 = 400 + 209 + 306 + 275 = 1190 

Required percentage =(1190−1020)/ 1190×100 =170/ 1190×100 

= 14.28%≈14.3% 

Q. 58 What is the ratio of the total exports of item A in 2014 and 2015 to the total exports of item C in 2011 and 2015? 

A. 7 : 5 

B. 3 : 2 

C. 4 : 3 

D. 5 : 4 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

Total exports of item A. in 2014 and 2015 = 425 + 400 = 825 

Total exports of item C. in 2011 and 2015 = 244 + 306 = 550 

Ratio of the total exports of item A. in 2014 and 2015 to the total exports of item C. in 2011 and 2015 = 825 : 550 = 3 : 2 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 59 The average of 24 numbers is 56. The average of the first 10 numbers is 71.7 and that of the next 11 numbers is 42. The next three ½ :⅓ :5/12 numbers (i.e. 22nd , 23nd, and 24th ) are in the ratio . What is the average of the numbers 22nd and  24th

A. 58 

B. 49.5 

C. 55 

D. 60.5 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

The average of 24 numbers = 56 

Sum of the numbers = 56×24 = 1344 

The average of the first 10 numbers = 71.7 

Sum of the first 10 numbers = 71.7×10 = 717 

The average of the next 11 numbers = 42 

Sum of the next 11 numbers = 42×11 = 462 

Ratio of the next three numbers (i.e.22nd , 23nd, and 24th ) = ½ :⅓ :5/12

Sum of next three numbers (i.e., and ) = 1344 – 717 – 462 = 165 

Q. 60 If , then what is the value of (P ÷ Q) × R

A. 2(x2 + y2)

B. x2 + y2

C. 4xy

D. 2xy 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

(P ÷ Q) ×

Q. 61 A shopkeeper bought 80 kg of rice at a discount of 10%. Besides 1 kg rice was offered free to him on the purchase of every 20 kg rice. If he sells the rice at the marked price, his profit percentage will be: 

A. 16⅔%

B. 15⅓ % 

C. 153/7 %

D. 142/7 %

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

Let the Price of 1 kg rice be Rs.1. 

Total rice bought = 80 kg 

He offered 1 kg rice free on the purchase of every 20 kg rice. Free rice = 80/20 = 4 kg 

Rate of 80 kg rice = Rs.80 

Discount = 10% 

Cost price of rice for shopkeeper = 80×90/100= Rs.72 Selling price of rice for shopkeeper = 80 + 4 = Rs.84 Profit = 84 – 72 = Rs. 12 

 Profit percentage = 12/72×100 =16⅔  % 

Q. 62 D is the mid point of side BC of ABC. Point E lies on AC such that CE =⅓AC. BE and AD. intersect at G. What is AG/GD

A. 5 : 2 

B. 8 : 3 

C. 3 : 1 

D. 4 : 1 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

D is mid point of BC. 

To apply the mid poingt theorem in ADM, 

Q. 63 Two chords AB and CD of a circle with centre O intersect each other at P. If BOC = 70and AOD = 100, then APC is: 

A. 95

B. 70

C. 65

D. 55

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

Q. 64 A train takes hours less for a journey of 300 km, if its speed is increased by 20 km/h from its usual speed. How much time will it take to cover a distance of 192 km at its usual speed? 

A. 3 hours 

B. 2.4 hours 

C. 4.8 hours 

D. 6 hours 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

Let the usual speed of the train be x km/hr. 

Distance = 300 km 

Time = 2½  hours = 5/2 hr = 2.5 hr 

Time = distance/speed 

According to question, 

300/x – 300(x + 20) = 2.5 

(x + 20)×120 – 120x = x(x + 20) 

120x + 2400 – 120x = x2 + 20x 

x2 + 20x – 2400 = 0 

x2 + 60x – 40x – 2400 = 0 

x(x + 60) – 40(x + 60) = 0 

(x + 60)(x- 40) = 0

x = 40 

Distance = 192 km 

Time taken to cover distance by usually speed = 192/40 = 4.8 hours 

Q. 65 If 12cos2θ−2sin2θ+3cosθ=3, 0<θ<90, then what is the value of (cosecθ + secθ)/(tanθ + cotθ)? 

A. (4 +√3)/4 

B. (1 +2√2)/2 

C. (1 +√3)/2 

D. (2 +√3)/4 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

12cos2θ−2sin2θ+3cosθ=3 

12cos2θ−2(1-cos2θ)+3cosθ=3 

14cos2θ+3cosθ=5

Put the value of θ = 60

14cos2 60+3cos 60=5 

14×1/2 + 3 ×1/2 = 5 

5 = 5 

L.H.S. = R.H.S. 

Q. 66 If 16a4 + 36a2b2 + 81b4 = 91 and 4a2 + 9b2 – 6ab = 13, then what is the value of 3ab? 

A. 3/2 

B. -3 

C. 3/2 

D.

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

4a2 + 9b2 – 6ab = 13 

(4a2 + 9b2 – 6ab)2 = (13)2 

[(a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2(ab + bc + ac) ]

(4a2)2 + (9b2)2 + (6ab)2 +2(4a2.9b2 – 9b2.6ab – 6ab.4a2) = 169 

16a4 + 36a2b2 + 81b^4 + 2(36a2b2 – 54ab3 – 24a3b) = 169

91 + 2(36a2b2 – 54ab3 – 24a3b) = 169 

36a2b2 – 54ab3 – 24a2b = (169 – 91)/2 

36a2b2 – 54ab3 – 24a3b = 39 

6ab(6ab – 9b2 – 4a2) = 39

6ab(-13) = 39

6ab = -3 

3ab = -3/2 

Q. 67 In ΔABC, C = 90, AC= 5 cm and BC = 12 cm. The bisector of A meets BC at D. What is the length of AD? 

A. 2/3√13 cm

B. 4/3√13 cm 

C. 2√13 cm 

D. (5√13)/3 cm 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

By the Pythagoras theorem, 

(AB)2 = (AC)2 + (BC)2 

(AB)2 = (5)2 + (12)2 

(AB)2 = (5)2 + (12)2 

(AB)2 = 25 + 144 

AB = 13 cm 

By angle bisector theorem, 

(AB/BD) = AC/CD

Let CD be x cm. 

13/(12 – x) = 5/x 

13x = 60 – 5x 

x = 60/18 = 10/3 

In ΔACD, 

(AD)2 = (AC)2 + (CD)2 

(AD)2 = (5)2 + (10/3)2 

(AD)2 = 25 +100/9 

(AD)2 = 325/9

AD = 5√13/3 

Q. 68 The value of is: 

A. 3/4 

B. 2/3 

C. 1/2 

D.

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

Q. 69 Sides AB and DC of cyclic quadrilateral ABCD are produced to meet at E, and sides AD and BC are produced to meet at F. If BAD = 102 and BEC = 38 then the difference between ADC and AFB is: 

A. 21 

B. 31

C. 22 

D. 23 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

In ΔADE, 

∠ADE=180  − (∠AED + ∠EAD) 

= 180 − (38 + 102

= 40 

⇒∠ADC = 40 

square ABCD. is a cyclic quadrilateral. 

∴∠DCB + ∠DAB=180 

⇒∠DCB = 180 − ∠DAB 

∠DCB = 180 − 102 

∠DCB = 78

In ΔDFC, 

∠DFC=180 – (∠FDC+∠FCD) 

∠DFC = 180 − (40 + 78

∠DFC = 180 − 118 

∠DFC = 62 

∠AFB = ∠DFC = 62 

Difference between ∠BAD and ∠AFB = 62 – 40 = 22 

Q. 70 If 5sinθ = 4, then the value of (secθ+4cotθ)/(4tanθ – 5cosθ) is: 

A. 3/2 

B.

C. 5/4 

D.

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

5sinθ = 4 

sinθ = 4/5 

Perpendicular / hypotenuses = 4/5

By triplet 3-4-5, 

Base = 3 

cosθ = base/hypotenuses = 3/5

tanθ = perpendicular/base = 4/3 

(secθ + 4cotθ)/(4tanθ – 5cosθ) 

= (1/cosθ + 4/tanθ)/(4tanθ – 5cosθ) 

= [1/(3/5) + 4/(4/3)]/[4(4/3) – 5(3/5)]

= [(5/3)+5) / {4×(4/3) – 5×(3/5)}] 

= [(14/3) / {(16/3) – 3)}] 

= 14/7 = 2 

Q. 71 The diagonal of a square A is (a + b) units. What is the area (in square units) of the square drawn on the diagonal of square B whose area is twice the area of A? 

A. (a + b)2 

B. 4(a + b)2 

C. 8(a + b)2 

D. 2(a + b)2 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

Area of square A = (diagonal)2/2 = (a + b)2/2

Area of square B = 2 × area of square A = 2 × (a + b)2 /2 = (a + b)2

Side of B = a + b 

Diagonal of B = √(2side) = √2(a + b) 

Area (in square units) of the square drawn on the diagonal of square B = (side)2 = {√2(a+b)}2 = 2(a + b)2

Q. 72 The given table represents the exports (in ₹crores) of four items A, B, C and D over a period of six years. Study the table and answer the question that follows. 

The total exports of item D in 2010, 2012 and 2014 is what percentage of the total exports of all the four items in 2011 and 2012? 

A. 44.8% 

B. 44% 

C. 45% 

D. 46.2% 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

The total exports of item D. in 2010, 2012 and 2014 = 214 + 247 + 309 = 770 

The total exports of all the four items in 2011 and 2012 = 250 + 134 + 244 + 282 + 225 + 138 + 230 + 247 = 1750 

Required percentage = (770 / 1750) × 100 = 44% 

Q. 73 Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 10 hours and 40 hours, respectively. C is an outlet pipe attached to the tank. If all the three pipes are opened simultaneously, it takes 80 minutes more time than what A and B. together take to fill the tank. A and B are kept open for 7 hours and then closed and C was opened. C will now empty the tank in: 

A. 49 hours 

B. 38.5 hours 

C. 42 hours 

D. 45.5 hours 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

Let the total work be 40 units. 

(∵ L.C.M. of 10 and 40 is 40.) 

Efficiency of A = work/time = 40/10 = 4 units/hour 

Efficiency of B = 40/40 = 1 unit/hour 

Time time taken by pipe A and B = 40/(4 + 1) = 8 hours 

Time time taken by pipe C = 8 hours + 80/60 hours = 28/3 hours 

Efficiency of C = 40/(28/3) = 30/7 units/hour 

Work done by pipe A and B in 7 hours = (1 + 4) × 7 = 35 units 

Time taken by pipe C to empty the tank = 35/(30/7) = 8 5/7 

Q. 74 The compound interest on a certain sum at 16⅔% p.a. for 3 years is ₹6,350. What will be the simple interest on the same sum at the same rate for 5⅔ years? 

A. ₹10,200 

B. ₹11,400 

C. ₹7,620 

D. ₹9,600 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

Compound interest = 6350 

Rate(r) = 16⅔ %= (50/3)% 

Time(t) = 3 years 

Q. 75 The value of is: 

A. 2 6/7 

B. 2 2/9  

C. 3 4/7  

D. 10/21 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

English Comprehension 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. 

Modern man is completely engross in the mad pursuit of material pleasures and luxuries. 

A. mad pursuit of 

B. material pleasures and luxuries 

C. Modern man is 

D. completely engross 

Answer: D. 

Q. 77 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. 

They offered me a chair 

A. I offered a chair to them. 

B. A. chair was being offered to me. 

C. A. chair is offered to me by them. 

D. I was offered a chair by them. 

Answer: D. 

Q. 78 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom 

A. bed of roses 

A. A pleasant perfume 

B. An easy and happy situation 

C. A difficult path 

D. A valley full of flowers 

Answer: B. 

Q. 79 Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. 

“What a good idea!”, Seema remarked. 

A. Seema exclaimed that the idea is good. 

B. Seema exclaimed that it was a very good idea. 

C. Seema said what a good idea it is. 

D. Seema told what an idea! 

Answer: B. 

Q. 80 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

I like both tea and coffee but prefer the ______. 

A. last 

B. later 

C. latter 

D. least 

Answer: C. 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom 

A close-fisted person 

A. A cruel person 

B. A kind person 

C. A strong person 

D. A miserly person 

Answer: D. 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Comprehension: 

A. (1)______ of trucks carrying soldiers was coming down the mountain road. The trucks (2) ______ slowly as there had been heavy snowfall in that area . Suddenly, with a (3) ______ a huge tree on the hill side fell bringing along with it boulders and mud. (4) ______, the driver of first truck stopped in time. The soldiers got down and started (5) ______ the road. 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 1 

A. bevy 

B. crew 

C. convoy 

D. flock 

Answer: C. 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 2 

A. are moving 

B. were moving 

C. was moving 

D. has moved 

Answer: B. 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 3 

A. crash 

B. buzz 

C. scream 

D. splash 

Answer: A. 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 4 

A. Logically 

B. Magically 

C. Fortunately 

D. Similarly 

Answer: C. 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option for blank no. 5 

A. altering 

B. clearing 

C. moving 

D. changing 

Answer: B. 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 87 Select one word for the following group of words. 

One who loves his country 

A. Traitor 

B. Conspirator 

C. Patriot 

D. Collaborator 

Answer: C. 

Q. 88 Select synonym of the given word. 

RETAIN 

A. Convey 

B. Maintain 

C. Destory 

D. Gain 

Answer: B. 

Q. 89 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

A. Aesop was one of them who lived in Greece about 2500 years ago. 

B. He told many interesting stories to the people. 

C. There were many talented people in ancient Greece. 

D. Although he was ugly, he had a very clever brain. 

A. CDBA 

B. BDAC 

C. BADC 

D. CADB 

Answer: D. 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate segment to substitute the underlined segment of the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select ‘No substitution’. 

Hardly had he sit on the chair than it broke. 

A. No substitution 

B. sat onto a chair then 

C. sit in the chair when 

D. sat on the chair when 

Answer: D. 

Q. 91 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

He tried to ______ my ring. 

A. steal 

B. still 

C. stile 

D. steel 

Answer: A. 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate word to substitute the underlined word of the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select ‘No improvement’. 

The diver dive in the pool from a great height. 

A. dived into the pool 

B. dived at the pool 

C. dives to a pool 

D. No improvement 

Answer: A. 

Q. 93 Select antonym of the given word. 

DEXTERITY 

A. Mastery 

B. Skill 

C. Ignorance 

D. Agility 

Answer: C. 

Q. 94 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

A. Chouffer 

B. Champion 

C. Charisma 

D. Choir 

Answer: A. 

Q. 95 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

Incapable of paying debts 

A. Extravagant 

B. Obsolete 

C. Corrupt 

D. Insolvent 

Answer: D. 

Q. 96 Select antonym of the given word. 

DIVIDE 

A. Unite 

B. Break 

C. Split 

D. Engulf 

Answer: A. 

Q. 97 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. 

My brother, who live in Delhi, has written me a letter. 

A. My brother 

B. me a letter 

C. has written 

D. who live in Delhi 

Answer: D. 

Q. 98 Select synonym of the given word. 

EXPENSIVE 

A. Gentle 

B. Dear 

C. Mild 

D. Sober 

Answer: B. 

Q. 99 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

A. Cremator 

B. Cracker 

C. Creater 

D. Cricketer 

Answer: C. 

Q. 100 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

A. He is a gifted volleyball player. 

B. But now a days he does not play international matches. 

C. It is because he had an accident last year. 

D. Sanjay is my best friend. 

A. CDBA 

B. DABC 

C. ABCD 

D. DCAB 

Answer: B. 

Latest Current Affairs 19 August 2021

INTERNATIONAL NEWS

Former Afghan president Karzai meets Taliban faction chief

A Taliban commander and senior leader of the Haqqani Network militant group, Anas Haqqani, has met former Afghan President Hamid Karzai for talks, a Taliban official said on Wednesday, amid efforts by the Taliban to set up a government, Reuters reported. Karzai was accompanied by the old government’s main peace envoy, Abdullah Abdullah, in the meeting, said the Taliban official, who declined to be identified. The Haqqani Network is an important faction of the Taliban, who captured the capital, Kabul, on Sunday. The network, based on the border with Pakistan, was accused over recent years of some of the most deadly militant attacks in Afghanistan. Meanwhile, the United Arab Emirates (UAE) announced that it has accepted Afghan President Ashraf Ghani and his family for humanitarian considerations. Ghani fled Afghanistan just as the Taliban approached Kabul. The statement, carried by the UAE’s state-run WAM news agency on Wednesday, did not say where Ghani was in the country. In this handout photograph released by the Taliban, former Afghan President Hamid Karzai, center left, senior Haqqani group leader Anas Haqqani, center right, Abdullah Abdullah, second right, head of Afghanistan’s National Reconciliation Council and former government negotiator with the Taliban, and others in the Taliban delegation, meet in Kabul, in Afghanistan, on Wednesday, August 18, 2021.  In another development, U.S. President Joe Biden spoke with British Prime Minister Boris Johnson on Tuesday, August 17, 2021, on the situation in Afghanistan and they agreed to hold a virtual G7 leaders’ meeting next week to discuss a common strategy and approach, the White House said. The two leaders discussed the need for continued close coordination among allies and democratic partners on Afghanistan policy going forward, including ways the global community can provide further humanitarian assistance and support for refugees and other vulnerable Afghans, the White House said in a statement. The decision by U.S. President Joe Biden, a Democrat, to stick to the troop withdrawal deal struck by his Republican predecessor Donald Trump has stirred widespread criticism at home and among U.S. allies. The United States and Western allies resumed evacuating diplomats and civilians on Tuesday, the day after scenes of chaos at Kabul airport as Afghans thronged the runway. As they rush to evacuate, foreign powers are assessing how to respond to the transformed situation on the ground after Afghan forces melted away in just days, with what many had predicted as the likely fast unraveling of women’s rights. A Downing Street spokesperson said Johnson in the call with Biden stressed the importance of not losing the gains made in Afghanistan over the last 20 years, of protecting ourselves against any emerging threat from terrorism, and of continuing to support the people of Afghanistan, a Downing Street spokesperson said.

China to curb ‘excessive income’ in push for common prosperity

In the wake of regulatory crackdown targeting alleged monopolistic behaviour of some of China’s biggest private sector companies, China’s Communist Party leadership has signalled that next in its sights are the country’s wealthy. Party General Secretary and President Xi Jinping said measures will be introduced to curb excessive incomes and promote common prosperity, following a meeting on Tuesday of the Central Committee for Financial and Economic Affairs, which he heads. Observers noted the timing of the meeting held particular significance, as the first notable public appearance of the leadership and the first major political announcement following the annual secretive retreat of top present and past leaders in the town of Beidaihe, believed to have taken place in early August. Mr. Xi was quoted as saying by official media that common prosperity is an essential requirement of socialism. Specific measures were not mentioned but an adjustment to the taxation structure is one possibility, analysts said. A readout of the meet said rather than being egalitarian or having only a few people prosperous, common prosperity refers to affluence shared by everyone, both in material and cultural terms, and shall be advanced step by step. Mr. Xi said common prosperity would be essential to strengthen the foundation for the party’s long term governance ahead of the second centenary goal, referring to 2049 when the People’s Republic of China turns 100. Ending absolute poverty was the party’s goal for the first centenary, marked this year when the party turned 100. The meeting called for establishing a scientific public policy system and a reasonable distribution system. The readout said China’s reform and opening period saw the party summarize both positive and negative historical experiences, referring to the turmoil of the Mao years, realizing that poverty is not socialism and allowing some people and regions to get rich first. Since the 18th Party Congress in 2012, the party placed greater importance on gradually achieving common prosperity for all people, the readout said. It also called for implementing the requirements of strict governance across the board and to enhance the supervisory capacity of the financial system, suggesting that the regulatory crackdown of the past year is set to continue.

NATIONAL NEWS

CJI hits out at ‘speculative’ reports on Supreme Court Collegium recommendations 

Chief Justice of India N.V. Ramana on Wednesday voiced in open court his extreme displeasure over speculative reports in certain sections of the media about the Supreme Court Collegium having recommended nine names for judicial appointments to the top court. The CJI said the reports were irresponsible and counter-productive. Today’s reflections in some sections of the media, pending the process, even before formalizing the resolution is counter-productive. There were instances of deserving career progression of bright talents getting marred because of such irresponsible reporting and speculation. This is very unfortunate and I am extremely upset about it, Chief Justice Ramana said. The CJI was heading a Ceremonial Bench convened on the occasion of Justice Navin Sinha’s retirement. The CJI said Collegium meetings were going on. The process of judicial appointment is a sacrosanct function of the Collegium. The media should not harm the integrity and dignity of the process by indulging in speculation. You are all aware we need to appoint judges to this court. The process is ongoing. Meetings will be held and decisions will be taken. The process of appointment of judges is sacrosanct and has certain dignity attached to it. My media friends must understand and recognise the sanctity of this process. As an institution, we hold the freedom of media and the rights of individuals in high esteem, Chief Justice Ramana said, urging the media to report with a certain sense of responsibility and maturity. The CJI also commended journalists who had shown restraint. I must also place on record the tremendous amount of maturity and responsibility displayed by the majority of senior journalists and media houses in showing restraint and not speculating on such a serious matter. Such professional journalists and ethical media are the real strength of the Supreme Court in particular and democracy in general. You are part of our system. I expect all the stakeholders to uphold the integrity and dignity of this institution, the Chief Justice said.

 

Samajwadi Party MP booked on sedition charge for comments on Taliban 

Samajwadi Party MP from Sambhal Shafiqur Rahman Barq was booked on sedition charges for allegedly drawing a parallel between the struggle of freedom fighters during India’s Independence and the takeover of Afghanistan by the Taliban, police said on Wednesday. Dr. Barq was also charged with deliberate and malicious acts intended to outrage religious feelings and promoting enmity between different groups. The FIR was lodged on the complaint of Rajesh Singhal, reportedly a BJP leader, but described as a private person by the police. SP Sambhal Chakresh Mishra said Dr. Barq’s comments were inflammatory. On Monday, the five-time MP from Uttar Pradesh said that the Taliban wanted to run Afghanistan themselves as per their will. He further said that when India was fighting for Independence against the British rule, the entire country came together. Similarly, he said, the Taliban wanted to free their country that was captured by the U.S. and, earlier, Russia. Taliban is a force there.They want to run the country themselves as per their ways, said Barq, who also described it an internal matter of Afghanistan. Mishra said two others, Faizan Chaudhary and Mohammad Muqeem, who allegedly posted comments in support of the Taliban, were also booked in the FIR. They made inflammatory statements regarding the Taliban, said the SP. A private person Rajesh Singhal in a written complaint said that in a media briefing Dr. Barq compared the Taliban to the freedom fighters in India and rejoiced over their victory, he said.

 

Shashi Tharoor cleared of all charges in Sunanda Pushkar death case 

A Delhi court on Wednesday discharged Congress leader Shashi Tharoor from all charges, including abetment to suicide, in connection with the death of his wife Sunanda Pushkar in January 2014. The accused (Mr Tharoor) is discharged, said Special Judge Geetanjli Goel while asking the MP from Thiruvananthapuram to furnish a requisite bond. Most grateful, your honour. It’s been seven-and-half years of absolute torture. I really appreciate it, said Tharoor, who was present during the video conferencing hearing, immediately after the pronouncement of the verdict. Sunanda Pushkar was found dead in a suite of a luxury hotel in the city on the night of January 17, 2014. The Delhi Police’s charge sheet had named Tharoor as an accused for alleged offences under Sections 498A (husband or his relative subjecting a woman to cruelty) and 306 of the Indian Penal Code (abetment of suicide). Tharoor was granted anticipatory bail in the matter by a Sessions court on July 5, 2018. Following that order, a magisterial court converted the anticipatory bail into regular bail after he appeared before it on July 7 in pursuance to the summons issued by the Metropolitan Magistrate in the matter. Earlier, Senior Advocate Vikas Pahwa, appearing for Tharoor, had argued that the investigation conducted by the Special Investigation Team (SIT) completely exonerated his client of all the charges levelled against him. The senior advocate had asked to discharge Tharoor in the case as there was no evidence against him to prove the offences of cruelty or abetment of suicide. Later, Tharoor issued a statement thanking the judge and his lawyers. I would like to express my humble thanks to Judge Geetanjali Goel for her orders today, discharging me from the charges levied by the Delhi police, which I have consistently described as preposterous, Tharoor said. This brings a significant conclusion to the long nightmare which had enveloped me after the tragic passing of my late wife Sunanda. I have weathered dozens of unfounded accusations and media vilification patiently, sustained by my faith in the Indian judiciary, which today stands vindicated, he said.

 

Supreme Court pulls up Army for ‘regressive mindset’, allows women, as interim measure, to take NDA exam

The Supreme Court pulled up the Army for its regressive mindset while allowing women, as an interim measure, to take the National Defence Academy (NDA) examination on September 5. A Bench of Justices Sanjay Kishan Kaul and Hrishikesh Roy found it absurd that women were not allowed to appear for the NDA even after the apex court, in a judgment, directed Permanent Commission for women in the Army. Why are you continuing in this direction? Even after Justice D.Y. Chandrachud’s judgment expanding the horizons and extending Permanent Commission in the Army to women? This is unfounded now! We are finding it absurd! Will the Army only act when a judicial order is passed? Not otherwise? Justice Kaul asked Additional Solicitor General Aishwarya Bhati. Senior advocate Chinmoy Pradip Sharma and advocates Mohit Paul and Sunaina Phul appeared for the petitioners. Bhati said she had, as a private lawyer, represented the women officers who fought for Permanent Commission, in the apex court. She argued that it was a policy decision not to allow women to take the NDA exam while they were permitted entry through the Indian Military Academy (IMA) and the Officers Training Academy (OTA). The court asked why co-education is a problem in the NDA. The policy decision is based on gender discrimination, it observed, asking the Army and the government to take an expansive and constructive view on the issue. It asked the UPSC to give maximum publicity to its interim order. It said it would consider the larger issue of admission of women to the NDA as a policy later on.

 

NHRC expert group concerned over slow pace of criminal justice reform 

A group of experts under the National Human Rights Commission (NJRC) on Wednesday expressed serious concerns over the slow pace of reforms in the criminal justice system to ensure speedy justice, an NHRC statement said. The NHRC core group on the criminal justice system held its first meeting on Wednesday where experts said the delay in disposal of cases was leading to human rights violations of the under-trials and convicts. NHRC member Justice (retired) M.M. Kumar, who chaired the meeting, said despite the Supreme Court directions on police reforms, there had been hardly any changes on the ground. He said special laws and fast-track courts could replace certain offences under the Indian Penal Code, in order to reduce the piling up of cases at every police station.  NHRC chairperson Justice (retd.) A.K. Mishra said not only were trials getting delayed, but court orders convicting a person also take years to implement. He said digitisation of documents would help in speeding up investigations and trials.  According to estimates, there were about 4.4 crore pending cases in the Supreme Court, High Courts and district courts, NHRC secretary general Bimbadhar Pradhan said. Among the suggestions that came up during the meeting were increasing the awareness of laws among police personnel, increasing the number of police personnel and stations in proportion to the number of complaints in an area, and including social workers and psychologists in the criminal justice system.

 

Supreme Court dismisses Maharashtra govt plea against CBI probe into transfer, posting of police by Anil Deshmukh 

The Supreme Court on Wednesday dismissed a plea of the Maharashtra government seeking to set aside two paragraphs related to transfer and posting of police officers and reinstatement of an officer from the CBI’s FIR against former state home minister Anil Deshmukh. A bench of Justices D Y Chandrachud and M R Shah said it is not inclined to interfere with the July 22 order of the Bombay High Court and dismissed the petition. The top court said it cannot dilute the direction of a constitutional court ordering a CBI probe by drawing a line for the agency on which aspect the investigation should be done. CBI has to investigate all aspects of the allegations and we cannot limit them. This will be like denuding the powers of a constitutional court, the bench said. It said that an impression is being created that the state is trying to protect the former home minister by not allowing the probe on the aspect of transfer and posting of police officers and reinstatement of additional police inspector Sachin Waze. Advocate Rahul Chitnis, appearing for the Maharashtra government, said the state has withdrawn consent for the CBI probe and the High Court direction for a probe was limited to allegations of collection of money from bars and restaurants and not on transfer, posting of police officers and reinstatement of Waze into the police force. On July 22, the Bombay HC said the CBI can inquire into the transfer and postings of police personnel and the reinstatement of Waze in the Mumbai Police force so far as this has a nexus with Maharashtra’s former home minister Anil Deshmukh and his associates.

DIFFERENT COURSES AFTER 12TH

DIFFERENT COURSES AFTER 12TH

BY: NIHIR GUPTA, VIDHYARTHI DARPAN

There are several branches in class 11th that can be chosen by the students and then they can complete their education till class 12th. Some students from science background, some from commerce background and some from arts background. These are major backgrounds taken by students in class 11th. Students who take science stream in class 11th and 12th they also have some internal choices like they want to go with Biology (Medical) or with Mathematics (Engineering) and some have both Mathematics and Biology.

Options After Science stream with Maths
  1. B. Tech.
  2. B. Sc.
  3. B. Arch.
  4. B. Tech. in Agriculture Field
  5. B. Plan.
  6. UPSC (NDA)
  7. Indian Army

If they take Mathematics in science stream then students majorly opt for Engineering for their graduation. As Engineering is the most famous career in India. It also have large number of students opted for engineering to opt for this course students have to give entrance exams like JEE Mains and other exams conducted by state universities. Engineering offers B.Tech./B.E. for under-graduation and M.Tech./M.E. for post-graduation. Some colleges also offer dual degree or integrated courses in which they can complete their under-graduation and post-graduation in one course and it take less time than separate study. Its duration is of four years for under-graduation, two years for post-graduation and five years for integrated course. In engineering there are many branches like Computer Science Engineering (CSE), Electronics and Communication Engineering (ECE) and etc. Electrical Engineering, Civil Engineering, Mechanical Engineering and Electronics and Communication Engineering are the core branches of the engineering. In the mentioned branches there are also government job opportunities.

Options After Science stream with Biology
  1. MBBS
  2. BDS
  3. B. Tech. (Biotechnology)
  4. BAMS
  5. B. Sc.

If they take Biology in science stream then students majorly opted for Medical/MBBS field. To take admission in MBBS students have to be appear for entrance exam NEET conducted by NTA. Some other exams also conducted by some universities/colleges by qualifying exams you can take admission. There are different fields in MBBS like Forensic Medicine, Microbiology, Pathology and etc. It also have Bachelors and Masters course. Duration of bachelors course is five years and for Masters it is three years.

Options After Commerce stream
  1. Bachelor of Commerce (B.Com)
  2. Bachelor of Business Administration (B.B.A.)
  3. Chartered Accountancy (CA)
  4. Company Secretary (CS)
  5. Bachelor of Management Studies (BMS)
  6. Bachelor of Information Science (B. Sc. IT)
  7. Bachelor of Commerce in Accounting and Finance (BAF)
  8. Bachelor of Management Studies (BMS)
  9. Bachelor of Business Studies (BBS)
  10. Bachelors of Financial Markets (BFM)
  11. Bachelors in Banking and Insurance (BBI)
  12. Bachelor in Computer Application (BCA)
  13. LAW (LLB)
  14. Bachelor of Economics (B. Eco.)
  15. Bachelor of Design (B. Design)
  16. Hotel Management

If the student is from commerce stream then majority students prepare for Chartered Accountant (CA). There is a dedicated exam for the respective course. There are many other options in which you can opt in or you can choose them as a carrier prospective. Its important that you have to decide what you want to choose as a life carrier and about which you have passionate. You can also go for sports, acting, musician and many more professions.

IBPS PO Main Exam 2019 Previous Year Paper

IBPS PO Main Exam 2019 Previous Year Paper

निर्देश (1 – 4) : निम्नलिखित जानकारी का ध्यानपूर्वक अध्ययन करें तथा तद्नुसार प्रश्नों के उत्तर दें। 

आठ व्यक्ति अर्थात् A, B, C, D, E, F, G और H अलग-अलग पदों अर्थात् टाइपिस्ट, क्लर्क, एसएससी, FA, प्रशासक, प्रबंधक, सीईओ और सीएमडी पद पर काम करते हैं लेकिन आवश्यक नहीं है कि इसी क्रम में हो। ये पदनाम बढ़ते क्रम में हैं चूंकि सीएमडी सबसे वरिष्ठ पद है और टाइपिस्ट सबसे कनिष्ठतम पद है। इनमें से प्रत्येक तीन अलग अलग शहरों अर्थात् दिल्ली, हैदराबाद और मुंबई में काम करते हैं। इन लोगों के बीच कुछ रक्त संबंध है 

और केवल चार महिलाएं हैं। पति और पत्नी एक ही शहर में काम नहीं करते हैं। F, G से वरिष्ठ है। E टाइपिस्ट से वरिष्ठ है और प्रशासक की बहन है लेकिन अपनी बहन के साथ काम नहीं करती है। A, एसएससी से वरिष्ठ है और उस व्यक्ति की पत्नी है, जो मुंबई में काम करता है। प्रबंधक का विवाह प्रशासक से हुआ है और वह सीईओ के साथ काम नहीं करता है। D, एसएससी से कनिष्ठ है। सीएमडी का विवाह B से हुआ है, जो सीईओ के रूप में काम करता है और मुंबई में काम नहीं करता है। वह, जो टाइपिस्ट के रूप में काम करता है, वह हैदराबाद में काम नहीं करता है। C, FA से वरिष्ठ है। H, प्रबंधक से वरिष्ठ है। टाइपिस्ट FA की मां है। सीईओ, FA की बहन है, जो अपने पिता D के साथ दिल्ली में ही काम करती है। 

प्रश्न 1. एसएससी की बहन कौन है? 

(A) टाइपिस्ट 

(B) G 

(C) सीईओ 

(D) A 

(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं 

Ans. D.

 

प्रश्न 2. FA कौन है? 

(A) G का पुत्र 

(B) क्लर्क का भाई 

(C) सीएमडी की बहन 

(D) प्रबंधक का पुत्र 

(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं 

Ans. A

 

प्रश्न 3. में से कौन हैदराबाद में काम करता है? 

(A) B, A 

(B) E, G, F 

(C) H, A 

(D) E, B, A 

(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं 

Ans. A

 

प्रश्न 4. विषम पद का चयन करें। 

(A) प्रशासक 

(B) क्लर्क 

(C) टाइपिस्ट 

(D) एसएससी 

(E) सीईओ 

Ans. B.

 

निर्देश (5 – 7) : निम्नलिखित जानकारी का ध्यानपूर्वक अध्ययन करें तथा तद्नुसार प्रश्नों के उत्तर दें। 

A % B – A, B के या तो 6 या 14 मीटर उत्तर में है 

A $ B – A, B के 12 मीटर दक्षिण में है 

A # B – A, B के 4 मीटर पूर्व में है 

A & B – A, B से या तो 10 मीटर या 15 मीटर पश्चिम में है 

A %# B – का अर्थ है A, B के उत्तर-पूर्व में है 

A $& B – का अर्थ है A, B के दक्षिण-पश्चिम में 

Y %# J, M # K, Y % M, J% K 

 

प्रश्न 5. Y और J के बीच सबसे छोटी दूरी क्या है? 

(A) 11 मी. 

(B) 415 मी. 

(C) 6 मी. 

(D) 815 मी. 

(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं 

Ans. B.

 

प्रश्न 6. यदि N $ M है, तो N और Y के बीच की दूरी क्या है? 

(A) 34 मी. 

(B) 28 मी. 

(C) 23 मी. 

(D) 26 मी. 

(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं 

Ans. D.

 

प्रश्न 7. यदि निम्नलिखित कथन के अनुसार P और R के बीच की सबसे छोटी दूरी 2161 मी. है तो T और P के बीच की दूरी क्या है? T # Q, P & Q, R $ Q 

(A) 15 मी. 

(B) 12 मी. 

(C) 19 मी. 

(D) 14 मी. 

(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं 

Ans. D.

 

निर्देश (8 – 10) : निम्नलिखित जानकारी का ध्यानपूर्वक अध्ययन करें तथा तद्नुसार प्रश्नों के उत्तर दें। एक सोसाइटी में, पश्चिम से पूर्व तक ग्यारह घर हैं और 1 से 11 तक संख्या दी गई है। पश्चिम छोर के घर की संख्या 1 है और पूर्वी छोर में स्थित घर की संख्या 11 है। अलग-अलग आय वाले आठ व्यक्ति इन घरों में रहते हैं (एक घर में एक व्यक्ति) और तीन घर खाली हैं। H, G से 25 वर्ष बड़ा है। E जो D से 3 वर्ष बड़ा है और वह जिसकी आयु 35 वर्ष है, के बीच केवल एक व्यक्ति रहता है। वह, जो A से 7 वर्ष छोटा है, एक खाली घर जो सम संख्या वाला घर है की ठीक दाईं ओर रहता है। वह, जो 64 वर्ष का है और वह, जो 69 वर्ष का है, के बीच कम से कम दो व्यक्ति रहते हैं । खाली घर एक-दूसरे के निकट नहीं हैं। A, जो 46 वर्ष का है, वह संख्या 3 वाले घर के पश्चिम में रहता है, लेकिन अंत में नहीं रहता। खाली घर 64 वर्ष के व्यक्ति के घर के पश्चिम में है। B का घर और वह व्यक्ति जो 64 वर्ष के घर के बीच दो घर हैं। F घर संख्या 11 में रहने वाले व्यक्ति से 4 वर्ष छोटा है। F उस व्यक्ति से 4 वर्ष छोटा है, जो घर संख्यार 11 में रहता है। C उस व्यक्ति से 4 वर्ष छोटा है, जो घर संख्या 5 में रहता है तथा घर संख्या 5 के पश्चिम में रहता है लेकिन अंत में नहीं रहता। A और D जो B से 14 साल बड़ा है, के बीच दो व्यक्ति रहते हैं तथा B के पश्चिम में रहता है। घर संख्या 5 खाली नहीं है। खाली घर तथा जिस घर में 64 वर्ष का व्यक्ति रहता है के बीच केवल एक घर है। B, जो 55 वर्ष का है घर संख्या 6 के पूर्व में एक सम संख्या वाले घर में रहता है। 

प्रश्न 8. कौन 39 वर्ष का है? 

(A) D 

(B) F 

(C) C 

(D) G 

(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं 

Ans. D.

प्रश्न 9. D के पूर्व में कितने व्यक्ति रहते हैं? 

(A) एक 

(B) चार 

(C) दो 

(D) तीन 

(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं 

Ans. (D) 

प्रश्न 10. F के एक निकटतम पड़ोसी की आयु क्या है? 

(A) 60 वर्ष 

(B) 64 वर्ष 

(C) 55 वर्ष 

(D) 39 वर्ष 

(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं 

Ans. (B) 

निर्देश (11 – 15) : दिए गए प्रश्नों का उत्तर देने के लिए निम्नलिखित ग्राफ और तालिका का अध्ययन करें। एक ई-कॉमर्स कंपनी ऑनलाइन उत्पाद बेचती है। सबसे पहले ग्राहक उत्पादों का ऑर्डर करते हैं, फिर उनमे से कछ ग्राहक ऑर्डर रदद कर देते हैं। बाकी ग्राहको का ऑर्डर कंपनी डिलीवर कर देती हैं उसके बाद डिलीवर किए गए ऑर्डरों में से कुछ ग्राहक अपना उत्पाद वापस कर देते हैं। नीचे ग्राफ़ में, दिए गए महीनों के लिए ऑर्डर किए गए उत्पादों में से डिलीवर किए गए उत्पादों का प्रतिशत और डिलीवर किए गए उत्पादों में से वापस किये गए उत्पादों का प्रतिशत दिया गया है। 

नीचे दी गई तालिका में, डिलीवर किए गए उत्पादों की संख्या दी गई है। 

महीना डिलीवर किए गए उत्पादों की संख्या
जनवरी  27000
फरवरी  24000
मार्च 22500 
अप्रैल  21600
मई 24000
जून 32000

प्रश्न 11. जनवरी और मार्च के महीनों में और मार्च और जून के महीनों में रदद किए गए ऑर्डरों की कल संख्या की संख्या का अनुपात क्या है? 

(A) 2 : 3 

(B) 3 : 4 

(C) 4 : 5 

(D) 3 : 5 

(E) 5 : 8 

Ans. (A) 

प्रश्न 12. दिए गए 6 महीनों में किये गए कुल ऑर्डरों की औसत संख्या क्या है? 

(A) 24000 

(B) 27500 

(C) 31500 

(D) 30750 

(E) 31750 

Ans. (E) 

प्रश्न 13. मई के महीने में रद्द किए गए ऑर्डरों की संख्या और वापस आए ऑर्डरों की संख्या में अंतर क्या है? 

(A) 12500 

(B) 16240 

(C) 11280 

(D) 10240 

(E) 11760 

Ans. (D) 

प्रश्न 14. अप्रैल में रद किए गए ऑर्डरों की संख्या फरवरी में रद्द किए गए ऑर्डरों की संख्या से कितने प्रतिशत कम है? 

(A) 75% 

(B) 62.5% 

(C) 85% 

(D) 68% 

(E) 76% 

Ans. C

प्रश्न 15. फरवरी और अप्रैल में ग्राहकों द्वारा स्वीकार किए गए ऑर्डरों की संख्या का योग क्या है? 

(A) 25000 

(B) 24000 

(C) 25600 

(D) 24500 

(E) 22500 

Ans. B.

निर्देश (16 – 20) : दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर के लिए निम्नलिखित जानकारी का अध्ययन करें। तीन बैटरी संचालित रोबोट खिलौने A, B और C हाथ हिलाते हैं और पैर हिलाते हैं। खिलौने A, B और C की बैटरी क्षमता क्रमशः 1500 एमएएच, 1600 एमएएच और 1800 एमएएच है। खिलौनों A, B और C की वर्तमान बैटरी प्रतिशत क्रमशः 80%, 70% और 75% हैं। एक खिलौना के चार बार हाथ हिलाने और तीन बार पैर हिलाने पर 1 एमएएच बैटरी की खपत होती हैं। छः बार हाथ हिलाने और सात बार पैर हिलाने पर 2 एमएएच बैटरी की खपत होती है। 

प्रश्न 16. यदि खिलौना A सुबह 9 बजे शुरु हुआ और 12 बजे दिन में खिलौने की बैटरी ख़त्म हो गयी और इस अवधि के दौरान खिलौना A द्वारा हाथ हिलाने की संख्या, पैर हिलाने की कुल संख्या से 1200 अधिक है, तो औसतन 1 मिनट में खिलौना A द्वारा पैर हिलाने की कुल संख्या कितना हैं? 

(A) 15 

(B) 20 

(C) 25 

(D) 30 

(E) None of these 

Ans. B

प्रश्न 17. यदि खिलौना B का जब तक बैटरी पूरी तरह से खत्म नहीं हो जाती है दवारा हाथ हिलाने की संख्या के दोगुने और पैर हिलाने की संख्या का योग x है, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा x का मान हो सकता है? 

I. 9000 

II. 12600 

III. 9800 

(A) केवल I

(B) केवल II

(C) केवल III

(D) केवल Iऔर III 

(E) तीनों में से कोई नहीं 

Ans. (C) 

प्रश्न 18. खिलौना C, 1500 बार हाथ हिलाता हैं और y बार पैर हिलाता हैं और खिलौना B, y बार हाथ हिलाता हैं और 2000 बार पैर हिलाता है। इसके बाद शेष बैटरी (एमएएच में) दोनों खिलौनों में समान है, तो खिलौना B में कितना प्रतिशत बैटरी शेष है? 

(A) 40% 

(B) 21.5% 

(C) 35% 

(D) 15% 

(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं 

Ans. D.

प्रश्न 19. खिलौना B घूम भी सकता है और 3 बार घूमने में, 1 बार हाथ हिलाने और 7 बार पैर हिलाने में के जितनी बैटरी की आवश्यकता होती है। खिलौना B जब तक बैटरी रहता है, हाथ हिलाने की संख्या, पैर हिलाने की संख्या और घूमने की संख्या का अनुपात 2 : 1 : 2 है, तो खिलौना B द्वारा हाथ हिलाने की संख्या और घूमने की संख्या का योग है 

(A) 1400 

(B) 2800 

(C) 5600 

(D) 3500 

(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं 

Ans. E.

प्रश्न 20. खिलौना D की बैटरी की क्षमता, खिलौने A और B की वर्तमान शेष बैटरी क्षमताओं के औसत के बराबर है और खिलौना D की वर्तमान बैटरी प्रतिशत 75% है। यदि खिलौना D में बैटरी के समाप्त होने तक बराबर संख्या में हाथ और पैर हिलाता हैं, तो खिलौना D कुल कितनी बार हाथ हिलाता हैं? 

(A) 2175 

(B) 1160 

(C) 870 

(D) 2900 

(E) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Ans. D

Direction (21 – 25) : Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these. 

Despite agreeing that flexible working can improve work life balance, just 17 percent of British employees are actively encouraged to do so and many don’t have the tech to work effectively. Microsoft UK calls on organisations to help employees reclaim their work-life balance with the workplace culture, tools and know-how to make the most of flexible working. 

British employees are adopting unhealthy ways of working that are having a profound impact on their personal lives, according to new research from Microsoft UK. Asking the views of more than 2,000 British workers, the study found that 30 per cent of Brits regularly sacrifice their personal lives for work, 56 per cent have answered work-related calls out of office and 8 in 10 (80 percent) have struggled to focus at home due to pressure from work. 

These unhealthy ways of working are going unnoticed by many British employees – only 29 per cent of whom admit their workplace has an ‘always on’ culture – but are leaving people struggling to keep their heads above water. 86 per cent of Brits say they have felt anxious due to work pressure in the last year –whilst 87 percent have trouble switching off) and sleeping (86 per cent), as well as feelings of failure (79 per cent). Meanwhile a third (33 percent) don’t have enough time to spend with their family and 41 per cent struggle to make time for health appointments – all due to workload. 

When it comes to addressing the issue, British employees are clear that flexible working can help improve work life balance, spend more time with family and take care of their personal life. However, few feel in a position to take advantage of flexible working policies today. Of the 50 per cent of UK workers whose organisations offer flexible working, just 35 per cent are actively encouraged to do so and more than a third (35 percent) say they need an ‘official reason’ such as an appointment to work outside the office. 

Meanwhile, for those that do make it out of the office to work more flexibly, outdated tech is slowing people down and preventing employees from doing their best work. Just 18 percent per cent of Brits have not faced tech difficulties when working remotely and almost half (48 per cent) of British employees wish their organisation invested in better tech so that they could work more efficiently. 

The findings also show a lack of support systems available for employees in Britain today. Only 23 per cent of organisations regularly implement initiatives to improve employee wellbeing and 53 per cent disagree that their organisation offers training to help employees embrace a healthy, balanced lifestyle. 

Q 21. Which of the following is not an assumption that supports the arguments presented in the third paragraph? 

(A) Unhealthy work culture might cause tensions in personal lives. 

(B) British people have high probability of falling sick. 

(C) A sense of dread and dissatisfaction is common among the British employees. 

(D) Continuous stress has resulted in the Brits losing motivation. 

(E) None of the above. 

Ans. (E) 

Q 22. Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT TRUE in accordance with the information provided in the passage?

Most of the British employees have been sacrificing their professional life due to faulty equipment. 

British employees are unaware of the flexible work culture. 

III. The work culture in Britain is having an adverse effect on its people. (A) Only I 

(B) Both I & II 

(C) Both II & III 

(D) Only II 

(E) All are incorrect 

Ans. B.

Q 23. Which of the following statements the author is most likely to agree with? 

(A) The present flexible work culture in Britain is not well-defined in order to help the employees. 

(B) Less than a fourth of the employers consider the wellbeing of their employees. 

(C) Proper justifications are not required to work outside the office to prevent employees from slacking off. 

(D) Both A & (B) 

(E) All of the above. 

Ans. (D) 

Q 24. Which of the following is/are correctly inferred from the given passage? 

I. Only proper enforcement of flexible working can solve the issue of stressful work life. 

II. Employers in Britain are supporting a healthy professional life in name only. 

III. Lack of proper means have inhibited the British employees to attain a healthy work culture. 

(A) Only I 

(B) Both I & II 

(C) Both II & III 

(D) Only II 

(E) All are incorrect 

Ans. (C) 

Q 25. Given below is a possible inference that can be drawn from the facts stated in the fourth paragraph. You have to examine the inference in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. 

“Employers use all source of loopholes to keep their employees in office.” 

(A) Definitely true 

(B) Probably true 

(C) The data is inadequate 

(D) Probably false 

(E) Definitely false 

Ans. A

Direction: In the following question, multiple sentences have been given. Each sentence has been divided into a few parts which may or may not carry an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part and the sentence in which it is, will be your answer. If the given sentences carry no error, mark ‘All are correct’ as your answer. Ignore the errors of punctuation if any. 

Q 26. A) The 48-day strike (1)/ of 35,000 workers of engineering units (2)/ on Jamshedpur has drawn (3)/ strong condemnation from JRD Tata. (4) 

B) That wages had become (1)/ an explosive issue in the engineering industry (2)/ has been amply clear (3)/ for a long time. (4) 

C) This is understandable (1)/ since in JRD’s view the long-drawn-out (2)/ strike has tarnished the Tata image (3)/ as an employer. (4) 

(A) B-2 & A-1 

(B) A-3 & B-3 

(C) B-1 & C-4 

(D) A-4 & C-2 

(E) All are correct 

Ans. (B) 

Direction: In the following question, multiple sentences have been given. Each sentence has been divided into a few parts which may or may not carry an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part and the sentence in which it is, will be your answer. If the given sentences carry no error, mark ‘All are correct’ as your answer. Ignore the errors of punctuation if any. 

Q 27. A) The Union Labour Ministry, (1)/ after several infructuous efforts (2)/ to sort out matters, had been compelled (3)/ to pass the deer to the States. (4)

B) Several months had elapsed (1)/ after the settlement in Calcutta and yet employers (2)/ at Jamshedpur had done little (3)/ to seek a negotiated settlement of wages with workers. (4) 

C) The element of inter group rivalries (1)/ between workers also played a part (2)/ in the Jamshedpur strike (3)/ need not be disputed. (4) 

(A) B-2 & A-1 

(B) A-4 & C-2 

(C) B-3 & C-4 

(D) A-3 & C-3 

(E) All are correct 

Ans. (B) 

Direction: In the following question, multiple sentences have been given. Each sentence has been divided into a few parts which may or may not carry an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part and the sentence in which it is, will be your answer. If the given sentences carry no error, mark ‘All are correct’ as your answer. Ignore the errors of punctuation if any. 

 

Q 28. A) Through its actions, (1)/ the Donald Trump administration (2)/ has unequivocally announced (3)/ that 2020 will be a year of violence. (4) 

B) The American elite of all hues, liberal or conservative, (1)/ is blinded by its faith in American military supremacy, (2)/ but remains convinced (3)/ that the world is destined to play by its rules. (4) 

C) The overt military action against a foreign leader (1)/ enjoying diplomatic immunity is a travesty (2)/ of professional military ethics, (3)/ a blatant attempt to extent the battlefield dimensions. (4) 

(A) C-2 & A-1 

(B) A-4 & C-3 

(C) A-3 & C-2 

(D) B-3 & C-4 

(E) All are correct 

Ans. D.

Direction: In the following question, multiple sentences have been given. Each sentence has been divided into a few parts which may or may not carry an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part and the sentence in which it is, will be your answer. If the given sentences carry no error, mark ‘All are correct’ as your answer. Ignore the errors of punctuation if any. 

Q 29. A) The Trump administration’s actions is (1)/ destroying the rule-based international order (2)/ and pushing it towards barbarism and the medieval ages (3)/ where assassination as a tool of statecraft was legal. (4) 

B) The US-led “Middle-East order,” which Henry Kissinger (1)/ erected in the wake of the oil crisis and the growing demand (2)/ for a New International Economic Order by third world countries (3)/ in the mid-1970s, now lies in tatters. (4) 

C) The US is perturbed (1)/ by the nationalistic surge in Iraq (2)/ and the growing demand for the dethroning (3)/ of US troops from Iraqi soil. (4) 

(A) A-1 & C-3 

(B) B-4 & C-1 

(C) B-3 & C-4 

(D) A-2 & C-2 

(E) All are correct 

Ans. (A) 

Direction (30 – 35) : Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. 

Many American employees strive to perform their best in the workplace. They work overtime, agree to take on extra projects and rarely take a step away from their desk. This “work hard” mentality isn’t effective – and it’s unhealthy. Employees who believe that they must work 24/7 to achieve a good standing in the workplace have the wrong idea. And unfortunately, employees often gain this idea through employers’ attitudes. 

Chaining yourself to a desk or ________________ (I) in your cubicle isn’t a recipe for success – it’s a recipe for disaster. Without taking adequate breaks from work, employee productivity, mental well-being and overall work performance begin to suffer. Overworked employees often deal with chronic stress that can easily lead to job burnout. Therefore, it’s important that employers to start encouraging employees to take breaks throughout the workday. These breaks are essential in helping employees de-stress and re-charge for the rest of the workday. A recent survey by Tork shows exactly how important lunch breaks are, along with how rare they are in the North American workplace. 

Though taking breaks might sound counterintuitive but when it comes to boosting productivity, it’s one of the best ways to do so. Besides outlining some awesome benefits of regular breaks such as improved mental well-being, creativity boost and more time for healthy habits, the Tork survey also revealed that North American employees who take a lunch break every day have higher scores on a range of engagement metrics, including job satisfaction, likelihood to continue working at the same company and likelihood to recommend their employer to others. 

I recently spoke with Jennifer Deal, the Senior Research Scientist who said “Energy isn’t unlimited, and just as athletes have halftime to rest during a game, employees need to rest so they can do their best work. Taking a break in the middle of the day for lunch is a recovery period, allowing employees to come back refreshed and reinvigorated for the second half”. 

Q 30. What is the central theme of the passage

I. How North American employees are striving to perform better in their jobs by not taking breaks during work. 

II. How important it is for employers to break the myth of working 24*7 and start taking lunch breaks seriously. 

III. How vital it is for the employees to take lunch break during work, reenergize themselves and resume work with enhanced productivity. 

(A) Only I 

(B) Only II

(C) Only III 

(D) Both I and III 

(E) Both II and III 

Ans. C.

प्रश्न 31. वर्ल्ड डे फॉर ऑडियोविजुअल हेरिटेज 2019 का विषय क्या है? 

(A) प्रोटेक्ट एंड शेयर यूअर विजुअल स्टोरी 

(B) एंगेज द पास्ट श्रू साउंड एंड इमेज 

(C) इट्स यूअर स्टोरी – डोंट लूज़ इट 

(D) डिस्कवर, रिमाइंडर एंड शेयर 

(E) अवर लाइफ – डोंट वेस्ट इट 

Ans. (B) 

प्रश्न 32. मेलबर्न क्रिकेट ग्राउंड (MCG) में किस अभिनेता ने पुरुषों और महिलाओं के टूर्नामेंट के लिए आईसीसी विश्व कप 2020 ट्रॉफी का अनावरण किया? 

(A) करीना कपूर 

(B) अनुष्का शर्मा 

(C) दीपिका पादुकोण 

(D) ऐश्वर्या राय 

(E) प्रियंका चोपड़ा 

Ans. A

प्रश्न 33. विक्रम सोलर लिमिटेड एक भारतीय कंपनी है और भारत में दूसरी सबसे बड़ी सौर ऊर्जा कंपनी किस शहर में स्थित है? 

(A) मुम्बई 

(B) बड़ौदा 

(C) जयपुर 

(D) कोलकाता 

(E) रांची 

Ans. (D) 

प्रश्न 34. कितने देशों ने अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सौर गठबंधन (आईएसए) फ्रेमवर्क पर हस्ताक्षर किए हैं? 

(A) 71 

(B) 75 

(C) 78 

(D) 83 

(E) 85 

Ans. D.

प्रश्न 35. किस संगठन ने सामाजिक न्याय के लिए मदर टेरेसा मेमोरियल अवार्ड 2019 प्रस्तुत किया? 

(A) हार्मोनी फाउंडेशन 

(B) भारती फाउंडेशन 

(C) भूमि 

(D) इपास डेवलपमेंट फाउंडेशन 

(E) मैक ए डिफ्रेंस 

Ans. A

प्रश्न 36. विकार्बनन (डीकार्बोनाइजेशन) के उद्देश्य से, किस कंपनी ने पावर प्रोड्यूसर एनटीपीसी और द एनर्जी एंड रिसोर्सेज इंस्टीट्यूट (टीईआरआई) के साथ समझौता ज्ञापन (एमओयू) पर हस्ताक्षर किए हैं? 

(A) सीमेंस लिमिटेड 

(B) जनरल इलेक्ट्रिक लिमिटेड 

(C) रॉबर्ट बोश लिमिटेड 

(D) हिताची 

(E) लार्सन एंड टुब्रो 

Ans. A.

प्रश्न 37. रोबोटिक सर्जरी सुविधा प्रदान करने वाला पहला केंद्र सरकार का स्वास्थ्य केंद्र कौन सा है? 

(A) पीजीआईएमईआर चंडीगढ़ 

(B) क्रिश्चियन मेडिकल कॉलेज वेल्लोर 

(C) सफदरजंग अस्पताल, नई दिल्ली 

(D) राम मनोहर लोहिया अस्पताल, नई दिल्ली 

(E) टाटा मेमोरियल अस्पताल, मुम्बई 

Ans. (C) 

प्रश्न 38. भारत और एशियाई विकास बैंक ने निम्न में से किस राज्य की सड़कों के विकास के लिए 200 मिलियन डॉलर के ऋण समझौते पर हस्ताक्षर किए हैं? 

(A) महाराष्ट्र 

(B) झारखंड 

(C) तमिलनाडु 

(D) केरल 

(E) राजस्थान 

Ans. A

प्रश्न 39. ‘जितने लोग उतने प्रेम’ कविता के लिए किसे व्यास सम्मान से सम्मानित किया गया है? 

(A) सचिन सिन्हा 

(B) सुरेंद्र वर्मा 

(C) लीलाधर जगूड़ी 

(D) सुजीत साहू 

(E) रमाकांत कैलाश 

Ans. C.

प्रश्न 40. बैंक ऑफ बड़ौदा ने फास्टैग जारी किया है जो इलेक्ट्रॉनिक टोल संग्रह पर समग्र समाधान के रूप में कार्य करेगा। फास्टैग किस तकनीक पर काम करता है? 

(A) आरएफआईडी 

(B) ब्लूटूथ 

(C) एनएफसी 

(D) वाईफाई 

(E) जीपीएस 

Ans. A.

IBPS PO Main Exam 2019 Previous Year Paper

IBPS PO Main Exam 2019 Previous Year Paper

Direction (1 – 4) : Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly. 

Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H works on different designations i.e. Typist, Clerk, SSC, FA, Administrator, Manager, CEO, and CMD but not necessarily in the same order. These designations are in the increasing order as CMD is the senior-most post and Typist is the junior-most post. Each one of them works in three different cities i.e. Delhi, Hyderabad, and Mumbai. These people have some blood relations among them and there are only four females. The husband and wife do not work in the same city. 

F is senior to G. E is senior to the typist and is the sister of the administrator but does not work with her sister. A is senior to the SSC and is the wife of the one, who works in Mumbai. The manager is married to the administrator and he does not work with the CEO. D is junior to SS(C) CMD is married to B, who works as a CEO and does not work in Mumbai. The one, who works as a typist does not work in Hyderabad. C is senior to F(A) H is a senior to the manager. The typist is the mother of F(A) CEO is the sister of FA, who works in Delhi only with his father (D) 

Q 1. Who is the sister of the SSC? 

(A) The typist 

(B) G 

(C) The CEO 

(D) A 

(E) None of these 

Ans. D.

Q 2. Who is the FA? 

(A) The son of G 

(B) The brother of the clerk 

(C) The sister of the CMD 

(D) The son of the manager 

(E) None of these 

Ans. A

Q 3. Who among the following works in Hyderabad? 

(A) B, A 

(B) E, G, F 

(C) H, A 

(D) E, B, A 

(E) None of these 

Ans. A

Q 4. Find the odd one. 

(A) Administrator 

(B) Clerk 

(C) Typist 

(D) SSC 

(E) CEO 

Ans. B.

Direction (5 – 7) : Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly. 

A % B – A is either 6 or 14m north of B 

A $ B – A is 12m south of B 

A # B – A is 4m east of B 

A & B – A is either 10 or 15m west of B 

A %# B – means A is north-east of B 

A $& B – means A is south-west of B 

Y %# J, M # K, Y % M, J % K 

Q 5. What is the shortest distance between Y and J? 

(A) 11m 

(B) 4√5m 

(C) 6m 

(D) 8√5m 

(E) None of these 

Ans. B.

Q 6. If N $ M, then what is the distance between N and Y? 

(A) 34m 

(B) 28m 

(C) 23m 

(D) 26m 

(E) None of these 

Ans. (D) 

Q 7. If the shortest distance between P and R is 2√61m according to the following statement then what is the distance between T and P? 

T # Q, P & Q, R $ Q 

(A) 15m 

(B) 12m 

(C) 19m 

(D) 14m 

(E) None of these 

Ans. (D) 

Direction (8 – 10) : Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly. 

In a society, there are eleven houses from west to east and numbered 1 to 11. The house in the west end is numbered 1 and the house in the east end is numbered 11. Eight persons with different ages live in these houses (one person in one house) and three houses are vacant. 

H is 25 years older than G. Only one person lives between E, who is 3 years older than D and the one who is 35 years old. The one, who is 7 years younger than A, lives immediately right of a vacant house which is even-numbered house. At least two people live between the one, who is 64 years old and the one, who is 69 years old. Vacant houses are not near to each other. A, who is 46 years old, lives to the west of the house numbered 3 but not at the end. The vacant house is to the west of 64 years old person’s house. There are two houses between B‘s house and the person’s house who is 64 years old. F is 4 years younger than the one, who lives in the house number 11. C is 4 years younger than the one, who lives in the house number 5 and lives to the west of the house number 5 but not at the end. The house at the immediate east of house number 6 is vacant. D does not live in the house number 5 and not near to (B) Two persons live between A and D, who is 14 years older than B and lives to the west of (B) House number 5 is not vacant. Only one house is there between the vacant house and the house in which 64 years old person lives. B, who is 55 years old, lives in an even-numbered house to the east of the house number 6. 

Q 8. Who is 39 years old? 

(A) D 

(B) F 

(C) C 

(D) G 

(E) None of these 

Ans. D.

Q 9. How many people live in the east of D? 

(A) One 

(B) Four 

(C) Two 

(D) Three 

(E) None of these 

Ans. (D) 

Q 10. What is the age of the one who is an immediate neighbor of F? 

(A) 60 years 

(B) 64 years

(C) 55 years 

(D) 39 years 

(E) None of these 

Ans. (B) 

Direction (11 – 15) : Study the following graph and table to answer the given questions: 

An e-commerce company sells products online. First of all, customers order the products, then some of them cancel their orders. Remaining orders are delivered by the company, after which some of the customer return their products. 

In the graph given below the percentage of delivered products from ordered products and percentage of product returned from delivered products for the given months. 

 In the table below, the number of products delivered is given. 

Q 11. What is the ratio of number of sum total of the number of orders canceled in the months of January and March to that of March and June? 

(A) 2 : 3 

(B) 3 : 4 

(C) 4 : 5 

(D) 3 : 5 

(E) 5 : 8 

Ans. (A) 

Q 12. What is the average number of total orders for the given 6 months? 

(A) 24000

(B) 27500 

(C) 31500 

(D) 30750 

(E) 31750 

Ans. (E) 

Q 13. What is the difference of the number of orders canceled and number of orders returned in the month of May? 

(A) 12500 

(B) 16240 

(C) 11280 

(D) 10240 

(E) 11760

Ans. (D) 

Q 14. Number of orders canceled in April is what percent less than the number of orders canceled in February? 

(A) 75% 

(B) 62.5% 

(C) 85% 

(D) 68% 

(E) 76% 

Ans. C

Q 15. What is the sum of the number of the orders finally accepted by customers in February and April? 

(A) 25000 

(B) 24000 

(C) 25600 

(D) 24500 

(E) 22500

Ans. (B) 

Direction (16 – 20) : Study the following information to answer the given questions: 

Three battery operated robot toys A, B and C do hand movement and leg movement. Battery capacities of the toys A, B and C are 1500 mAh, 1600 mAh and 1800 mAh respectively. Present battery percentage of the toys A, B and C are 80%, 70% and 75% respectively. Four hand movements and three leg movements of a toy consume 1 mAh unit of battery. Six hand movements and seven leg movements of a toy consume 2 mAh unit of battery. 

Q 16. If toy A started at 9 AM and the battery of the toy discharged at 12 PM and during this period, total number of hand movements done by toy A is 1200 more than the number of leg movements,then on average how many leg movements done by toy A in 1 minute 

(A) 15 

(B) 20 

(C) 25 

(D) 30 

(E) None of these 

Ans. (B) 

Q 17. If sum of the twice of number of hand movements and number of leg movements done by toy B until the battery runs out fully is x, then which of the following can be the value of x 

  1. 9000 
  2. 12600 

III. 9800 

(A) Only I 

(B) Only II 

(C) Only III 

(D) Only I and III 

(E) None of three 

Ans. (C) 

Q 18. Toy C does 1500 hand movements and y leg movements and toy B does y hand movements and 2000 leg movements. After this the remaining battery (in mAh) is same in both the toys, then what percent of the battery is remaining in the toy B? 

(A) 40% 

(B) 21.5% 

(C) 35% 

(D) 15% 

(E) None of these

Ans. (D) 

 

Q 19. Toy B can rotate too and 3 rotations requires as much battery as much required in 1 hand movement and 7 leg movements. Ratio of the number of hand movements, number of leg movements and number of rotations done by toy B till battery lasts is 2 : 1 : 2, then sum of the number of hand movements and number of rotations done by toy B is 

(A) 1400 

(B) 2800 

(C) 5600 

(D) 3500 

(E) None of these 

Ans. (E) 

Q 20. The battery capacity of toy D is equal to the average of the current remaining battery capacities of Toys A and B and the current battery percentage of toy D is 75%. If toy D moves an equal number of hands and feet until the battery runs out, then how many times does toy D move hands? 

(A) 2175 

(B) 1160 

(C) 870 

(D) 2900 

(E) None of these 

Ans. D

Direction (21 – 25) : Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these. 

Despite agreeing that flexible working can improve work life balance, just 17 percent of British employees are actively encouraged to do so and many don’t have the tech to work effectively. Microsoft UK calls on organisations to help employees reclaim their work-life balance with the workplace culture, tools and know-how to make the most of flexible working. 

British employees are adopting unhealthy ways of working that are having a profound impact on their personal lives, according to new research from Microsoft UK. Asking the views of more than 2,000 British workers, the study found that 30 per cent of Brits regularly sacrifice their personal lives for work, 56 per cent have answered work-related calls out of office and 8 in 10 (80 percent) have struggled to focus at home due to pressure from work. 

These unhealthy ways of working are going unnoticed by many British employees – only 29 per cent of whom admit their workplace has an ‘always on’ culture – but are leaving people struggling to keep their heads above water. 86 per cent of Brits say they have felt anxious due to work pressure in the last year –whilst 87 percent have trouble switching off) and sleeping (86 per cent), as well as feelings of failure (79 per cent). Meanwhile a third (33 percent) don’t have enough time to spend with their family and 41 per cent struggle to make time for health appointments – all due to workload. 

When it comes to addressing the issue, British employees are clear that flexible working can help improve work life balance, spend more time with family and take care of their personal life. However, few feel in a position to take advantage of flexible working policies today. Of the 50 per cent of UK workers whose organisations offer flexible working, just 35 per cent are actively encouraged to do so and more than a third (35 percent) say they need an ‘official reason’ such as an appointment to work outside the office. 

Meanwhile, for those that do make it out of the office to work more flexibly, outdated tech is slowing people down and preventing employees from doing their best work. Just 18 percent per cent of Brits have not faced tech difficulties when working remotely and almost half (48 per cent) of British employees wish their organisation invested in better tech so that they could work more efficiently. 

The findings also show a lack of support systems available for employees in Britain today. Only 23 per cent of organisations regularly implement initiatives to improve employee wellbeing and 53 per cent disagree that their organisation offers training to help employees embrace a healthy, balanced lifestyle. 

Q 21. Which of the following is not an assumption that supports the arguments presented in the third paragraph? 

(A) Unhealthy work culture might cause tensions in personal lives. 

(B) British people have high probability of falling sick. 

(C) A sense of dread and dissatisfaction is common among the British employees. 

(D) Continuous stress has resulted in the Brits losing motivation. 

(E) None of the above. 

Ans. (E) 

Q 22. Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT TRUE in accordance with the information provided in the passage?

I. Most of the British employees have been sacrificing their professional life due to faulty equipment. 

II. British employees are unaware of the flexible work culture. 

III. The work culture in Britain is having an adverse effect on its people. (A) Only I 

(B) Both I & II 

(C) Both II & III 

(D) Only II 

(E) All are incorrect 

Ans. B.

Q 23. Which of the following statements the author is most likely to agree with? 

(A) The present flexible work culture in Britain is not well-defined in order to help the employees. 

(B) Less than a fourth of the employers consider the wellbeing of their employees. 

(C) Proper justifications are not required to work outside the office to prevent employees from slacking off. 

(D) Both A & (B) 

(E) All of the above. 

Ans. (D) 

Q 24. Which of the following is/are correctly inferred from the given passage? 

I. Only proper enforcement of flexible working can solve the issue of stressful work life. 

II. Employers in Britain are supporting a healthy professional life in name only. 

III. Lack of proper means have inhibited the British employees to attain a healthy work culture. 

(A) Only I 

(B) Both I & II 

(C) Both II & III 

(D) Only II 

(E) All are incorrect 

Ans. (C) 

Q 25. Given below is a possible inference that can be drawn from the facts stated in the fourth paragraph. You have to examine the inference in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. 

“Employers use all source of loopholes to keep their employees in office.” 

(A) Definitely true 

(B) Probably true 

(C) The data is inadequate 

(D) Probably false 

(E) Definitely false 

Ans. A

Direction: In the following question, multiple sentences have been given. Each sentence has been divided into a few parts which may or may not carry an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part and the sentence in which it is, will be your answer. If the given sentences carry no error, mark ‘All are correct’ as your answer. Ignore the errors of punctuation if any. 

Q 26. A) The 48-day strike (1)/ of 35,000 workers of engineering units (2)/ on Jamshedpur has drawn (3)/ strong condemnation from JRD Tata. (4) 

B) That wages had become (1)/ an explosive issue in the engineering industry (2)/ has been amply clear (3)/ for a long time. (4) 

C) This is understandable (1)/ since in JRD’s view the long-drawn-out (2)/ strike has tarnished the Tata image (3)/ as an employer. (4) 

(A) B-2 & A-1 

(B) A-3 & B-3 

(C) B-1 & C-4 

(D) A-4 & C-2 

(E) All are correct 

Ans. (B) 

Direction: In the following question, multiple sentences have been given. Each sentence has been divided into a few parts which may or may not carry an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part and the sentence in which it is, will be your answer. If the given sentences carry no error, mark ‘All are correct’ as your answer. Ignore the errors of punctuation if any. 

Q 27. A) The Union Labour Ministry, (1)/ after several infructuous efforts (2)/ to sort out matters, had been compelled (3)/ to pass the deer to the States. (4)

B) Several months had elapsed (1)/ after the settlement in Calcutta and yet employers (2)/ at Jamshedpur had done little (3)/ to seek a negotiated settlement of wages with workers. (4) 

C) The element of inter group rivalries (1)/ between workers also played a part (2)/ in the Jamshedpur strike (3)/ need not be disputed. (4) 

(A) B-2 & A-1 

(B) A-4 & C-2 

(C) B-3 & C-4 

(D) A-3 & C-3 

(E) All are correct 

Ans. (B) 

Direction: In the following question, multiple sentences have been given. Each sentence has been divided into a few parts which may or may not carry an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part and the sentence in which it is, will be your answer. If the given sentences carry no error, mark ‘All are correct’ as your answer. Ignore the errors of punctuation if any. 

Q 28.  A) Through its actions, (1)/ the Donald Trump administration (2)/ has unequivocally announced (3)/ that 2020 will be a year of violence. (4) 

B) The American elite of all hues, liberal or conservative, (1)/ is blinded by its faith in American military supremacy, (2)/ but remains convinced (3)/ that the world is destined to play by its rules. (4) 

C) The overt military action against a foreign leader (1)/ enjoying diplomatic immunity is a travesty (2)/ of professional military ethics, (3)/ a blatant attempt to extent the battlefield dimensions. (4) 

(A) C-2 & A-1 

(B) A-4 & C-3 

(C) A-3 & C-2 

(D) B-3 & C-4 

(E) All are correct 

Ans. D.

Direction: In the following question, multiple sentences have been given. Each sentence has been divided into a few parts which may or may not carry an error. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part and the sentence in which it is, will be your answer. If the given sentences carry no error, mark ‘All are correct’ as your answer. Ignore the errors of punctuation if any. 

Q 29. A) The Trump administration’s actions is (1)/ destroying the rule-based international order (2)/ and pushing it towards barbarism and the medieval ages (3)/ where assassination as a tool of statecraft was legal. (4) 

B) The US-led “Middle-East order,” which Henry Kissinger (1)/ erected in the wake of the oil crisis and the growing demand (2)/ for a New International Economic Order by third world countries (3)/ in the mid-1970s, now lies in tatters. (4) 

C) The US is perturbed (1)/ by the nationalistic surge in Iraq (2)/ and the growing demand for the dethroning (3)/ of US troops from Iraqi soil. (4) 

(A) A-1 & C-3 

(B) B-4 & C-1 

(C) B-3 & C-4 

(D) A-2 & C-2 

(E) All are correct 

Ans. (A) 

Direction (30 – 35) : Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. 

Many American employees strive to perform their best in the workplace. They work overtime, agree to take on extra projects and rarely take a step away from their desk. This “work hard” mentality isn’t effective – and it’s unhealthy. Employees who believe that they must work 24/7 to achieve a good standing in the workplace have the wrong idea. And unfortunately, employees often gain this idea through employers’ attitudes. 

Chaining yourself to a desk or ________________ (I) in your cubicle isn’t a recipe for success – it’s a recipe for disaster. Without taking adequate breaks from work, employee productivity, mental well-being and overall work performance begin to suffer. Overworked employees often deal with chronic stress that can easily lead to job burnout. Therefore, it’s important that employers to start encouraging employees to take breaks throughout the workday. These breaks are essential in helping employees de-stress and re-charge for the rest of the workday. A recent survey by Tork shows exactly how important lunch breaks are, along with how rare they are in the North American workplace. 

Though taking breaks might sound counterintuitive but when it comes to boosting productivity, it’s one of the best ways to do so. Besides outlining some awesome benefits of regular breaks such as improved mental well-being, creativity boost and more time for healthy habits, the Tork survey also revealed that North American employees who take a lunch break every day have higher scores on a range of engagement metrics, including job satisfaction, likelihood to continue working at the same company and likelihood to recommend their employer to others. 

I recently spoke with Jennifer Deal, the Senior Research Scientist who said “Energy isn’t unlimited, and just as athletes have halftime to rest during a game, employees need to rest so they can do their best work. Taking a break in the middle of the day for lunch is a recovery period, allowing employees to come back refreshed and reinvigorated for the second half”. 

Q 30. What is the central theme of the passage? 

I. How North American employees are striving to perform better in their jobs by not taking breaks during work. 

II. How important it is for employers to break the myth of working 24*7 and start taking lunch breaks seriously. 

III. How vital it is for the employees to take lunch break during work, reenergize themselves and resume work with enhanced productivity. 

(A) Only I 

(B) Only II 

(C) Only III 

(D) Both I and III 

(E) Both II and III 

Ans. C.

Q 31. What is the theme of the World Day for Audiovisual Heritage 2019? 

(A) Protect and Share Your Visual Story 

(B) Engage the Past Through Sound and Image 

(C) It’s Your Story – Don’t lose it 

(D) Discover, Remember and Share 

(E) Our Life- Don’t waste it 

Ans. (B) 

Q 32. Which actor unveiled the ICC World Cup 2020 trophies for the men’s and women’s tournament at the Melbourne Cricket Ground (MCG)? 

(A) Kareena Kapoor 

(B) Anushka Sharma 

(C) Deepika Padukone 

(D) Aishwarya Rai 

(E) Priyanka Chopra 

Ans. A

Q 33. Vikram Solar Limited is an Indian company and the second-largest solar energy company in India is located in which city? 

(A) Mumbai 

(B) Baroda 

(C) Jaipur 

(D) Kolkata 

(E) Ranchi 

Ans. (D) 

Q 34. How many countries have signed the International Solar Alliance (ISA) framework? 

(A) 71 

(B) 75 

(C) 78 

(D) 83 

(E) 85 

Ans. D.

Q 35. Which organization presented the Mother Teresa Memorial Award 2019 for social justice? 

(A) Harmony Foundation 

(B) Bharti Foundation 

(C) Bhumi 

(D) Ipas Development Foundation 

(E) Make A Difference

Ans. A

 

Q 36.For the purpose of decarbonization, which company has signed Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with power producer NTPC and The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI)? 

(A) Siemens Limited

(B) General Electric Limited 

(C) Robert Bosch Limited 

(D) Hitachi 

(E) Larsen & Toubro

Ans. A.

 

Q 37. Which is the first central government healthcare center to have a robotic surgery facility? 

(A) PGIMER Chandigarh 

(B) Christian Medical College Vellore 

(C) Safdarjung Hospital, New Delhi 

(D) Ram Manohar Lohia Hospital, New Delhi 

(E) Tata Memorial Hospital, Mumbai 

Ans. (C) 

Q 38. India and Asian Development Bank has signed $200 million loan agreement for the development of the roads of which of the following state? 

(A) Maharashtra 

(B) Jharkhand 

(C) Tamil Nadu 

(D) Kerala 

(E) Rajasthan 

Ans. A

Q 39. Who has been awarded the Vyas Samman for ‘Jitane Log Utane Prem’ poem? 

(A) Sachin Sinha 

(B) Surendra Verma 

(C) Liladhar Jagudi 

(D) Sujeet sahu 

(E) Ramakanth Kailash 

Ans. C.

Q 40. Bank of Baroda has issued FASTag that will act as the composite solution on Electronic Toll Collection. FAStag works on which technology? 

(A) RFID 

(B) Bluetooth 

(C) NFC 

(D) WiFi 

(E) GPS

Ans. A.

×

Hello!

Click one of our representatives below to chat on WhatsApp or send us an email to info@vidhyarthidarpan.com

×