AIPMT 2007 Prelims Previous Year Paper

AIPMT 2007 Prelims

Q. 1 The primary and secondary coil of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the magnetic flux φ linked with the primary coil is given by φ = φ0 + 4t, where φ is in webers, t is time in seconds and φ0 is a constant, the output voltage across the secondary coil is

A. 120 volts

B. 220 volts

C. 30 volts

D. 90 volts

 

Q. 2 A beam of electron passes undeflected through mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields. If the electric field is switched off, and the same magnetic field is maintained, the electrons move

A. in a circular orbit

B. along a parabolic path

C. along a straight line

D. in an elliptical orbit

 

Q. 3 The position x of a particle with respect to time t along x-axis is given by x = 9t^2 – t^3 where x is in metres and t in second. What will be the position of this particle when it achieves maximum speed along the +ve x direction?

A. 54 m

B. 81 m

C. 24 m

D. 32 m

 

Q. 4 A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in a straight line in the (x, y) plane. Its coordinates at at a later time are (√3, 3). The path of the particle makes with the x-axis an angle of

A. 45°

B. 60°

C. 0°

D. 30°

 

Q. 5 A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed vu and returns to Y with a uniform speed vd. The average speed for this round trip is

A. √(vu vd)

B. (vd vu)/(vd + vu)

C. (vu + vd)/2

D. (2vd vu)/(vd + vu)

 

Q. 6 Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants 5λ and λ respectively. At t = 0 they have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of nuclei of A to those of B will be (1/e)^2 after a time interval

A. 4λ

B. 2λ

C. 1/2λ

D. 1/4λ

 

Q. 7 In the following circuit given in figure (1), the output Y for all possible inputs A and B is expressed by the truth table given as (a), (b), (c), (d):

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 8 In a radioactive decay process, the negatively charged emitted β – particles are

A. the electrons produced as a result of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus

B. the electrons produced as a result of the decay of collisions between atoms

C. the electrons orbiting around the nucleus

D. the electrons present inside the nucleus

 

Q. 9 The phase difference between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is

A. π

B. 0.707 π

C. zero

D. 0.5 π

 

Q. 10 In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated by an electric potential V and then made to describe semicircular path of radius R using a magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant, the ratio (charge on the ion / mass of the ion) will be proportional to

A. I/R^2

B. R^2

C. R

D. 1/R

 

Q. 11 A wheel has angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/sec^2 and an initial angular speed of 2.00 rad/sec. In a time of 2 sec it has rotated through an angle (in radian) of

A. 10

B. 12

C. 4

D. 6

 

Q. 12 A hollow cylinder given in figure has a charge q coulomb within i. If φ is the electric flux in units of voltmeter associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in units of voltmeter will be

A. q/2εo

B. φ/3

C. q/εo – φ

D. 1/2 (q/εo – φ)

 

Q. 13 The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 × 10^14 Hz and wavelength is 5000 Å. The refractive index of material will be

A. 1.50

B. 3.00

C. 1.33

D. 1.40

 

Q. 14 A nucleus ⁿᵢX has mass represented by M(n,i). If M₁ and M₂ denote the mass of proton and neutron respectively and B.E. the binding energy in Mev, then

A. B.E. = [ZM₁ +(n-i)M₁ – M(n,i)]c²

B. B.E. = [ZM₁ +(n-i)M₂ – M(n,i)]c²

C. B.E. = M(n,i) – ZM₁ – (n-i) M₂

D. B.E. = [M(n,i) – Z M₁ – (n-i) M₂] c²

 

Q. 15 The total power dissipated in watts in the circuit shown in figure (1) is

A. 40

B. 54

C. 4

D. 16

 

Q. 16 If the nucleus ²⁷₁₃ Al has nucleus radius of about 3.6 fm, then ¹²⁵₃₂Te would have its radius approximately as

A. 9.6 fm

B. 12.0 fm

C. 4.8 fm

D. 6.0 fm

 

Q. 17 A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity V (given in figure (1)). If μ is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come to rest after a time

A. gμ/V

B. g/V

C. V/g

D. V/(gμ )

 

Q. 18 A particle moving along x-axis has acceleration f, at time t, given by f = fo (1 – t/T), where fo and T are constants. The particle at t = 0 has zero velocity. In the time interval between t = 0 and the instant when f = 0, the particle’s velocity (Vx) is

A. 1/2 foT^2

B. foT^2

C. 1/2foT

D. foT

 

Q. 19 A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100Ω and an output impedance of 200Ω. The power gain of the amplifier is

A. 1000

B. 1250

C. 100

D. 500

 

Q. 20 Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2Ω and an unknown resistance S form the four arms of a Wheatstone bridge circuit. When a resistance of 6Ω is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value of S?

A. 3Ω

B. 6Ω

C. 1Ω

D. 2Ω

 

Q. 21 A steady current of 1.5 amp flows through a copper voltmeter for 10 minutes. If the electrochemical equivalent of copper is 30 × 10^-5 g coulomb^-1, the mass of copper deposited on the electrode will be

A. 0.50 g

B. 0.67 g

C. 0.27 g

D. 0.40 g

 

Q. 22 A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker filled with liquid. A ray of light from the coin travels upto the surface of the liquid and moves along its surface. How fast is the light travelling in the liquid?

A. 2.4 × 10^8 m/s

B. 3.0 × 10^8 m/s

C. 1.2 × 10^8 m/s

D. 1.8 × 10^8 m/s

 

Q. 23 A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 V lamp from a 220 V mains. If the main current is 0.5 amp, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately

A. 50%

B. 90%

C. 10%

D. 30%.

 

Q. 24 Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, in terms of dimension of mass M, of length L, of time T and of current I, would be

A. ML^2T^-2

B. ML^2T^-1I^-1

C. ML^2T^-3I^-2

D. ML^2T^-3I^-1

 

Q. 25 A uniform rod AB of length l, and mass m is free to rotate about point A (shown in figure (1)). The rod is released from rest in the horizontal position. Given that the moment of inertia of the rod about A is ml^2/3, the initial angular acceleration of the rod will be

A. mgl/2

B. 3/2gl

C. 3g/2l

D. 2g/3l

 

Q. 26 A particle of mass m moves in the XY plane with a velocity v along the straight line AB. If the angular momentum of the particle with respect to origin O is LA when it is at A and LB when it is at B, then

A. LA = LB

B. the relationship between LA and LB depends upon the slope of the line AB

C. LA < LB

D. LA > LB

 

Q. 27 The particle executing simple harmonic motion has a kinetic energy K0 cos^2 ωt. The maximum values of the potential energy and the total energy are respectively

A. K0/2 and K0

B. K0 and 2K0

C. K0 and K0

D. 0 and 2K0

 

Q. 28 Charges +q and –q are placed at points A and B respectively (shown in figure (1)) which are a distance 2L apart, C is the midpoint between A and B. The work done in moving a charge +Q along the semicircle CRD is

A. qQ/2πεoL

B. qQ/6πεoL

C. -qQ/6πεoL

D. qQ/4πεoL

 

Q. 29 Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 10^14 Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2 × 10^-3 ω. The number of photons emitted, on the average, by the sources per second is

A. 5 × l 0^16

B. 5 × 10^17

C. 5 × 10^14

D. 5 × 10^15

 

Q. 30 Three point charges +q, –q and +q are placed at points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The magnitude and direction of the electric dipole moment vector of this charge assembly are

A. √2qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)

B. qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)

C. √2qa along +ve x direction

D. √2qa along +ve y direction

 

Q. 31 Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2 are moving in the same orbit. The mass of S1 is four times the mass of S2. Which one of the following statements is true?

A. The potential energies of earth satellites in the two cases are equal.

B. S1 and S2 are moving with the same speed

C. The kinetic energies of the two satellites are equal

D. The time period of S is four times that of S2

 

Q. 32 A→ and B→ are two vectors and θ is the angle between them , if |A→ x B→ | = √3(A→ . B→ ), the value of θ is

A. 45°

B. 30°

C. 90°

D. 60°

 

Q. 33 A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to a vertical spring fixed on t1he  ground as shown in the figure(1). The mass of the spring and the pan is negligible. When pressed slightly and released the mass executes a simple harmonic motion. The spring constant is 200 N/m. What should be the minimum amplitude of the motion so that the mass gets detached from the pan (take g = 10 m/s^2)?

A. 10.0 cm

B. any value less than 12.0 cm

C. 4.0 cm

D. 8.0 cm

 

Q. 34 A charged particle (charge q) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The associated magnetic moment μ is given by

A. qvR^2

B. qvR^2/2

C. qvR

D. qvR/2

 

Q. 35 The total energy of electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is – 13.6 eV. The kinetic energy of an electron in the first excited state is

A. 6.8 eV

B. 13.6 eV

C. 1.7 eV

D. 3.4 eV

 

Q. 36 A 5 watt source emits monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 Å. When placed 0.5 m away, it liberates photoelectrons from a photosensitive metallic surface. When the source is moved to a distance of 1.0 m, the number of photoelectrons liberated will be reduced by a factor of

A. 8

B. 16

C. 2

D. 4

 

Q. 37 A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude from the equilibrium position is

A. T/8

B. T/12

C. T/2

D. T/4

 

Q. 38 For a cubic crystal structure which one of the following relations indicating the cell characteristics is correct?

A. a ≠ b ≠ c and α = β = γ = 90°

B. a = b = c and α ≠ β ≠ γ = 90°

C. a = b = c and α = β = γ = 90°

D. a ≠ b ≠ c and α ≠ β and γ ≠ 90°

 

Q. 39 Two condensers, one of capacity C and other of capacity C/2 are connected to a V-volt battery, as shown in figure:

The work done in charging fully both the condensers is

A. 1/4CV^2

B. 3/4CV^2

C. 1/2CV^2

D. 2CV^2

 

Q. 40 A black body is at 727° C. It emits energy at a rate which is proportional to

A. (1000)^4

B. (1000)^2

C. (727)^4

D. (727)^2

 

Q. 41 The resistance of an ammeter is 13 Ω and its scale is graduated for a current upto 100 amps. After an additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure currents upto 750 amperes by this meter. The value of shunt-resistance is 

A. 2 Ω

B. 0.2 Ω

C. 2 k Ω

D. 20 Ω

 

Q. 42 An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature os sink is reduced by 62°C, its efficiency is doubled. Temperature of the source is

A. 37°C

B. 62°C

C. 99°C

D. 124°C

 

Q. 43 The electric and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave are

A. in opposite phase and perpendicular to each other

B. in opposite phase and parallel to each other

C. in phase and perpendicular to each other

D. in phase and parallel to each other

 

Q. 44 What is the value of inductance L for which the current is maximum in a series LCR circuit with

C = 10 μF and ω = 1000s^-1

A. 1 mH

B. cannot be calculated unless R is known

C. 10 mH

D. 100 mH

 

Q. 45 Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room temperature. If the temperature is increased beyond Curie temperature, then it will show

A. anti ferromagnetism

B. no magnetic property

C. diamagnetism

D. paramagnetism

 

Q. 46 A vertical spring with force constant k is fixed on a table. A ball of mass m at a height h above the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on the spring so that the spring is compressed by a distance d. The net work done in the process is

A. mg(h + d) – 1/2 kd^2

B. mg(h – d) – 1/2 kd^2

C. mg(h – d) + 1/2 kd^2

D. mg(h + d) + 1/2 kd^2

 

Q. 47 Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charged particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant speed v. The time period of the motion

A. depends on both R and v

B. is independent of both R and v

C. depends on R and not on v

D. depends on v and not on R

 

Q. 48 If the cold junction of a thermo-couple is kept at 0°C and the hot junction is kept at T°C then the relation between neutral temperature (Tn) and temperature of inversion (Ti) is

A. Tn = 2Ti

B. Tn = Ti – T

C. Tn = Ti + T

D. Tn = Ti/2

 

Q. 49 Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer surface of radius r, radiating like a black body at temperature t°C, the power received by a unit surface, (normal to the incident rays) at a distance R from the centre of the sun is

A. r^2σ(t + 273)^4/4πR^2

B. 16π^2r^2σt^4/R^2

C. r^2σ(t + 273)^4/R^2

D. 4πr^2σt^4/R^2

 

Q. 50 In the energy band diagram of a material shown in figure (1), the open circles and filled circles denote holes and electrons respectively. The material is

A. an insulator

B. a metal

C. an n-type semiconductor

D. a p-type semiconductor

 

Q. 51 Which one of the following on reduction with lithium aluminium hydride yields a secondary amine?

A. Methyl isocyanide

B. Acetamide

C. Methyl cyanide

D. Nitroethane

 

Q. 52 RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their chirality is due to

A. chiral bases

B. chiral phosphate ester units

C. D-sugar component

D. L-sugar component

 

Q. 53 The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is deduced using the assumption

A. the adsorption sites are equivalent in their ability to adsorb the particles

B. the heat of adsorption varies with coverage

C. the adsorbed molecules interact with each other

D. the adsorption takes place in multilayers

 

Q. 54 A weak acid, HA, has a Ka of 1.00 × 10^-5. If 0.100 mole of this acid dissolved in one litre of water, the percentage of acid dissociated at equilibrium is closest to

A. 1.00%

B. 99.9%

C. 0.100%

D. 99.0%

 

Q. 55 The reaction of hydrogen and iodine monochloride is given as:

H2(g) + 2ICl(g) → 2HCl(g) + I2(g)

The reaction is of first order with respect to H2(g) and ICI(g), following mechanisms were proposed.

Mechanism A:

H2(g) + 2ICl(g) → 2HCl(g) + I2(g)

Mechanism B:

H2(g) + ICl(g) →HI(g) ;slow

HI(g) + ICl(g) → HCl(g) + I(g) ;fast

Which of the above mechanism(s) can be consistent with the given information about the reaction?

A. A and B both

B. neither A nor B

C. A only

D. B only

 

Q. 56 The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by

A. ΔG/ΔS

B. ΔG/ΔH

C. ΔS/ΔG

D. ΔH/ΔG

 

Q. 57 Consider the following reactions:

(i) H^+(aq) + OH^-(aq) = H2O(l), ΔH = -X1 kJ mol^-1

(ii) H2(g) + 1/2O2(g) = H2O(l), ΔH = -X2 kJ mol^-1

(iii) CO2(g) + H2(g) = CO(g) + H2O, ΔH = -X3 kJ mol^-1

(iv) C2H5(g) + 5/2O2(g) = 2CO2(g) + H2O(l), ΔH = -X3 kJ mol^-1

Enthalpy of formation of H2O(l) is

A. +X3 kJ mol^-1

B. -X4 kJ mol^-1

C. +X1 kJ mol^-1

D. -X2 kJ mol^-1

 

Q. 58 The correct order of increasing thermal stability of K2CO3, MgCO3, CaCO3 and BeCO3 is 

A. BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3

B. MgCO3 < BeCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3

C. K2CO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < BeCO3

D. BeCO3 < MgCO3 < K2CO3 < CaCO3

 

Q. 59 In which of the following pairs, the two species are iso-structure?

A. SO3^2- and NO3^-

B. BF3 anD NF3

C. BrO^3- and XeO3

D. SF4 and XeF4

 

Q. 60 Which of the following oxidation states are the most characteristic for lead and tin respectively?

A. + 2, + 4

B. + 4, + 4

C. + 2, + 2

D. + 4, + 2

 

Q. 61 Which of the following statements, about the advantage of roasting of sulphide ore before reduction is not true?

A. The ΔGf°of the sulphide is greater than those for CS2 and H2 S.

B. The ΔGf° is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to oxide

C. Roasting of the sulphide to the oxide is thermodynamically feasible

D. Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides

 

Q. 62 In a first-order reaction A → B, if k is rate constant and initial concentration of the reactant A is 0.5 M, then the half-life is

A. log2/k

B. log2/k√o.5

C. ln2/k

D. 0.693/0.5k

 

Q. 63 Consider the following compounds given as (i), (ii), (iii), (iv).

The correct decreasing order of their reactivity towards hydrolysis is

A. (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

B. (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)

C. (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)

D. (ii) > (iv) > (iii) > (i)

 

Q. 64 Predict the product C among (a), (b), (c), (d), obtained in the following reaction given in figure (1) of butyne-1.

.

CH subscript 3 CH subscript 2 space minus space straight C identical to CH space plus space HCl space rightwards arrow straight B space rightwards arrow with HI on top space straight C

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 65 Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H2SO4 by mass and has a density of 1.80 gmL^-1. Volume of acid required to make one litre of 0.1M H2SO4 solution is

A. 16.65 mL

B. 22.20 mL

C. 5.55 mL

D. 11.10 mL

 

Q. 66 Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and conc. HCl is called

A. Cope reduction

B. Dow reduction

C. Wolf-Kishner reduction

D. Clemmensen redcution

 

Q. 67 Given that bond energies of H – H and Cl – Cl are 430 kJ mol-^1 and 240 kJ mol^-1 respectively and ΔHf for HCl is -90 kJ mol^-1, bond enthalpy of HCl is

A. 380 kJ mol^-1

B. 425 kJ mol^-1

C. 245 kJ mol^-1

D. 290 kJ mol^-1

 

Q. 68 Which of the following represents the correct order of the acidity in the given compounds?

A. FCH2COOH > CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH

B. BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH > CH3COOH

C. FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH > CH3COOH

D. CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH

 

Q. 69 If there is no rotation of plane polarised light by a compound in a specific solvent, though to be chiral, it may mean that

A. the compound is certainly meso

B. there is no compound in the solvent

C. the compound may be a racemic mixture

D. the compound is certainly a chiral

 

Q. 70 CH3 – CHCl – CH2 – CH3 has a chiral centre. Which one of the following represents its Rconfiguration among (a), (b), (c), (d)?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 71 Which of the following is water-soluble?

A. Vitamin E

B. Vitamin K

C. Vitamin A

D. Vitamin B

 

Q. 72 Identify the correct order of the size of the following:

A. Ca^2+ < K^+ < Ar < Cl^- < S^2-

B. Ar < Ca^2+ < K^+ < Cl^- < S^2-

C. Ca^2+ < Ar < K^+ < Cl^- < S^2-

D. Ca^2+ < K^+ < Ar < S^2- < Cl^-

 

Q. 73 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is 20% ionised. If Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol^-1,the lowering in freezing point of the solution is

A. 0.56 K

B. 1.12 K

C. -0.56 K

D. -1.12 K

 

Q. 74 Sulphide ores of metals are usually concentrated by froth flotation process. Which one of the following sulphide ores offer an exception and its concentrated by chemical leaching?

A. Galena

B. Copper pyrite

C. Sphalerite

D. Argentite

 

Q. 75 If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes, 50% of the same reaction would be completed in approximately ?

(log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69)

A. 45 minutes

B. 60 minutes

C. 40 minutes

D. 50 minutes

 

Q. 76 Which of the following will give a pair of enantiomorphs?

(en =NH2CH2CH2NH2)

A. [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6]

B. [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl

C. [Pt(NH3)4][PtCl6]

D. [Co(NH3)4Cl2]NO2

 

Q. 77 If NaCl is doped with 10^-4 mol % of SrCl2, the concentration of cation vacancies will be (NA = 6.02 × 10^23 mol^-1)

A. 6.02 × 10^16 mol^-1

B. 6.02 × 10^17 mol^-1

C. 6.02 × 10^14 mol^-1

D. 6.02 × 10^15 mol^-1

 

Q. 78 The d electron configurations of Cr^2+, Mn^2+, Fe^2+ and Ni^2+ are 3d^4, 3d^5, 3d^6 and 3d^8 respectively. Which one of the following aqua complexes will exhibit the minimum paramagnetic behaviour?

(At. No. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Ni = 28)

A. [Fe(H2O)6]^2+

B. [Ni(H2O)6^2+

C. [Cr(H2O)6]^2+

D. [Mn(H2O)6]^2+

 

Q. 79 In which of the following the hydration energy is higher than the lattice energy? 

A. MgSO4

B. RaSO4

C. SrSO4

D. BaSO4

 

Q. 80 Which of the compounds with molecular formula C5H10 yields acetone on ozonolysis?

A. 3-methyl-1-butene

B. cyclopentane

C. 2-methyl-1-butene

D. 2-methyl-2-butene

 

Q. 81 With which of the following electronic configuration an atom has the lowest ionisation enthalpy?

A. 1s^2 2s^2 sp^3

B. 1s^2 2s^2 2p^5 3s^1

C. 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6

D. 1s^2 2s^2 2p^5

 

Q. 82 Which one of the following ionic species has the greatest proton affinity to form stable compound?

A. NH2^-

B. F^-

C. I^-

D. HS^-

 

Q. 83 The following equilibrium constants are given:

N2 + 3H2 ⇔ 2NH3; K1

N2 + O2 ⇔ 2NO; K2

H2 + 1/2 O2 ⇔ H2O; K3

The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of NH3 by oxygen to give NO is

A. K2K3^2/K1

B. K2^2K3/K1

C. K1K2/K3

D. K2K3^3/K1

 

Q. 84 Which one of the following ions is the most stable in aqueous solution?

(At.No. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25)

A. V^3+

B. Ti^3+

C. Mn^3+

D. Cr^3+

 

Q. 85 The correct order of C – O bond length among

CO, CO3^2-, CO2 is

A. CO < CO3^2- < CO2

B. CO3^2- < CO2 < CO

C. CO < CO2 < CO3^2-

D. CO2 < CO3^2- < CO

 

Q. 86 Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid strengths of the given acids?

A. HOClO < HOCl < HOClO3 < HOClO2

B. HOClO2 < HOClO3 < HOClO < HOCl

C. HOClO3 < HOClO2 < HOClO < HOCl

D. HOCl < HOClO < HOClO2 < HOClO3

 

Q. 87 Which one of the following among (1), (2), (3), (4) on treatment with 50% aqueous sodium hydroxide yields the corresponding alcohol and acid?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 88 For (i) I^-, (ii) Cl^-, (iii) Br^-, the increasing order of nucleophilicity would be

A. Cl^- < Br^- < I^-

B. I^- < Cl^- < Br^-

C. Br^- < Cl^- < I^-

D. I^- < Br^- < Cl^-

 

Q. 89 Calculate the pOH of a solution at 25°C that contains 1× 10^10 M of hydronium ions, i.e. 

H3O^+.

A. 4.000

B. 9.0000

C. 1.000

D. 7.000

 

Q. 90 Consider the following sets given in figure (1) of quantum numbers:

Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible?

A. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

B. (ii), (iv) and (v)

C. (i) and (iii)

D. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

 

Q. 91 The equilibrium constant of the reaction:

Cu(s) + 2Ag^+ → Cu^2+(aq) + 2Ag(s);

E° = 0.46 V at 298 K is

A. 2.0 × 10^10

B. 4.0 × 10^10

C. 4.0 × 10^15

D. 2.4 × 10^10

 

Q. 92 Which one of the following polymers is prepared by condensation polymerisation?

A. Teflon

B. Natural rubber

C. Styrene

D. Nylon-66

 

Q. 93 The order of decreasing reactivity towards an electrophilic reagent, for the following would be

(i) benzene

(ii) toluene

(iii) chlorobenzene

(iv) phenol

A. (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)

B. (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)

C. (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)

D. (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

 

Q. 94 Which of the following anions is present in the chain structure of silicates?

A. (Si2O5^2–)n

B. (SiO3^2–)n

C. SiO4^4–

D. Si2O7^6–

 

Q. 95 An element, X has the following isotopic composition :

²⁰⁰X : 90% ¹⁹⁹X : 8.0% ²⁰²X : 2.0%

The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X is Closest to

A. 201 amu

B. 202 amu

C. 199 amu

D. 200 amu

 

Q. 96 The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present in a simple cube is

A. π/3√2

B. π/4√2

C. π/4

D. π/6

 

Q. 97 In the reaction given in figure (1):

Which of the following compounds will be formed among (a), (b), (c), (d)?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 98 The product formed in Aldol condensation is

A. a beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxyketone

B. an alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone

C. an alpha, beta unsaturated ester

D. a beta-hydroxy acid

 

Q. 99 The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in acidic solution is,

A. 4/5

B. 2/5

C. 1

D. 3/5

 

Q. 100 Identify the incorrect statement among the following:

A. Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation of successive shrinkages

B. As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the properties of 4d series of the transition elements have no similarities with the 5d series of elements

C. Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak

D. There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu

 

Q. 101 ICBN stands for

A. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature

B. International congress of Biological Names

C. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature

D. Indian Congress of Biological Names

 

Q. 102 Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes

A. Puffballs and Claviceps

B. Peziza and stink borns

C. Morchella and mushrooms

D. Bird’s nest fungi and puffballs

 

Q. 103 Biological organisation starts with

A. cellular level

B. organismic level

C. atomic level

D. submicroscopic molecular level

 

Q. 104 Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned.

A. Sunderbans – Bengal Tiger

B. Periyar – Elephant

C. Rann of Kutch – Wild Ass

D. Dachigam National park – Snow Leopard

 

Q. 105 If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?

A. serum globulins

B. fibrinogen in the plasma

C. haemocytes

D. serum albumins

 

Q. 106 A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by

A. crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent

B. studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies

C. crossing of one F1 progeny with male parent

D. crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent

 

Q. 107 The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth

A. polymerize in the 3’ – to – 5’ direction and forms replication fork

B. prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication

C. polymerize in the 5’ – to – 3’ direction and explain 3’ – to – 5’ DNA replication

D. result in transcription

 

Q. 108 Which one of the following statement is correct?

A. there is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogensis of mammals

B. all plant and animal cells are totipotent

C. ontogeny repeats phylogeny

D. stem cells are specialize cells

 

Q. 109 In which one of the following the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand ) of sewage (s), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged in ascending order ?

A. SE < PE < S < DE

B. PE < S < SE < DE

C. S < DE < PE < SE

D. SE < S < PE < DE

 

Q. 110 The concept of chemical evolution is based on

A. interaction of water, air and clay under intense heat

B. effect of solar radiation on chemicals

C. possible origin of life by combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions

D. crystallization of chemicals

 

Q. 111 Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall?

A. male gamete

B. egg

C. pollen grain

D. microspore mother cell

 

Q. 112 Probiotics are

A. cancer inducing microbes

B. new kind of food allergens

C. live microbial food supplement

D. safe antibiotics

 

Q. 113 One of endangered species of Indian medicinal plants is that of plants is that of

A. ocimum

B. garlic

C. nepenthes

D. podophyllum

 

Q. 114 What is true about Nereis, scorpion, cockroach and silver fish ?

A. they all posses dorsal heart

B. none of them is aquatic

C. they all belong to the same phylum

D. they all have jointed paired appendages

 

Q. 115 The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for

A. interaction with the environment and progressive evolution

B. reproduction

C. growth and movement

D. responsiveness to touch

 

Q. 116 A person who is one along hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have

A. less amino acids in his urine

B. more glucose in his blood

C. less urea in his urine

D. more sodium in his urine

 

Q. 117 The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?

A. super-coiling in nucleosomes

B. DNA digestion

C. through elimination of repetitive DNA

D. deletion of non-essential genes

 

Q. 118 A sequential expression of a set of human genes

A. messenger RNA

B. DNA sequence

C. ribosome

D. transfer RNA

 

Q. 119 In a coal fired power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission of 

A. NO×

B. SPM

C. CO

D. SO2

 

Q. 120 Select the wrong statement fom the following.

A. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thyllakoid space bounded by the thylakoid membrane

B. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA

C. The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria

D. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner and an outer membrane

 

Q. 121 Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of

A. population

B. landscape

C. ecosystem

D. biotic community

 

Q. 122 During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and assumes a saddle-like structure, what is it’s DNA-binding sequence?

A. AATT

B. CACC

C. TATA

D. TTAA

 

Q. 123 A plant requires magnesium for

A. protein synthesis

B. chlorophyll synthesis

C. cell wall development

D. holding cells together

 

Q. 124 In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at different times. 

As a result

A. there is high degree of sterility

B. one can conclude that the plant is apomictic

C. self-fertilization is prevented

D. there is no change in success rate of fertilization

 

Q. 125 Ergot of rye is caused by a species of

A. uncimula

B. ustilago

C. claviceps

D. phytophthora

 

Q. 126 The finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in favour of

A. evolution due to mutation

B. retrogressive evolution

C. biogeographical evolution

D. special creation

 

Q. 127 Which one of the following is a slime mould?

A. physarum

B. Thiobacillus

C. Anabaena

D. Rhizopus

 

Q. 128 The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?

A. the food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season

B. its population growth curve is of J-type

C. the population of its predators increases enormously

D. S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect

 

Q. 129 Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous nitrogenfixing micro-organism

A. Crotalaria juncea

B. Cycas revoluta

C. Cicer arietinum

D. Casuarina equisetifolia

 

Q. 130 Which one of the following is being utilized as a source of biodiesel in the Indian countryside?

A. betroot

B. sugarcane

C. pongamia

D. euphorbia

 

Q. 131 For a critical study of secondary growth in plants. which one of the following pairs is suitable?

A. teak and pine

B. deodar and fern

C. wheat and maiden hair fern

D. sugarcane and sunflower

 

Q. 132 Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease? 

A. Retinol – Xerophtahalmia

B. Cobalamine – Beri-beri

C. Calciferol – Pellagra

D. Ascorbic acid – Scurvy

 

Q. 133 Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will

A. no movement of water

B. equilibrium between the two

C. movement of water from cell A to B

D. movement of water from cell B to A

 

Q. 134 In which one of the following preparations are your likely to come across cell junctions most frequently ?

A. thrombocytes

B. tendon

C. hyaline cartilage

D. ciliated epithelium

 

Q. 135 If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you should choose?

A. nature of stored food materials in the cell

B. structural organization of thallus

C. chemical composition of the cell wall

D. types of pigments present in the cell

 

Q. 136 About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six element including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and

A. sulphur and magnesium

B. magnesium and sodium

C. calcium and phosphorus

D. phosphorus and sulphur

 

Q. 137 Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants

B. Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and for plant nutrition in soil

C. At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers

D. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies

 

Q. 138 In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (x) numbers of chromosomes are

A. n = 21 and x = 21

B. n = 21 and x = 14

C. n = 21 and x = 7

D. n = 7 and x = 21

 

Q. 139 Passage cells are thin walled cells found in

A. Phloem elements that serve as entry points for substance for transport to other plants parts

B. testa of seeds to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed germination

C. central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary

D. endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle

 

Q. 140 What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo?

A. toothless jaws

B. functional post-end tail

C. ovoparity

D. homoiothermy

 

Q. 141 Bowman’s glands are located in the

A. anterior pituitary

B. female reproductive system of cockroach

C. olfactory epithelium of our nose

D. proximal end of uriniferous tubules

 

Q. 142 Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

A. yeast – ethanol

B. streptomycetes – antibiotic

C. coliforms – vinegar

D. methanogens – gobar gas

 

Q. 143 Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovulation ?

A. stroma

B. germinal epithelium

C. vitelline membrane

D. Graafian follicle

 

Q. 144 Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of

A. autonomic movement of variation

B. paratonic movement of growth

C. autonomic movement of growth

D. autonomic movement of locomotion

 

Q. 145 Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it ?

A. ventral central nervous system – Leech

B. Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo – Chamaeleon

C. Ventral heart – Scorpion

D. Post – end tail – Octopus

 

Q. 146 All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is

A. isocitrate dehydrogenase

B. malate dehydrogenase

C. succinate dehydrogenase

D. lactate dehydrogenase

 

Q. 147 The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is

A. iron-sulphur protein

B. ferredoxin

C. quinone

D. cytochrome

 

Q. 148 Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is associated with

A. differential expession of genes

B. lethal mutations

C. deletion of genes

D. developmental mutations

 

Q. 149 Which one of the following statements about mycoplasma is wrong ?

A. They are pleomorphic

B. They are sensitive to penicillin

C. They cause diseases in plants

D. They are also called PPLO

 

Q. 150 Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?

A. Apis indica – honey

B. Kenia lacca – lac

C. Bombyx mori – silk

D. Pila globosa – pearl

 

Q. 151 A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorus metabolism in his body. Which one of following glands may not be functioning properly ?

A. parotid

B. pancreas

C. thyroid

D. parathyroid

 

Q. 152 A genetically engineered micro-organism use successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a species of

A. Trichoderma

B. Xanthomonas

C. Bacillus

D. Pseudomonas

 

Q. 153 In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of

A. bundle sheath

B. phloem

C. epidermis

D. mesophyll

 

Q. 154 Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following sets ?

A. Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla

B. Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis

C. Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas

D. Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra

 

Q. 155 In the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of the same value, which of the following is most likely to occur

A. a bi-modal distribution

B. a T-shaped curve

C. a skewed curve

D. a normal distribution

 

Q. 156 One gene-one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in

A. Salmonella typhimurium

B. Escherichia coli

C. Diplocococcus pneumoniae

D. Neurospora crassa

 

Q. 157 Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will show

A. segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio

B. segregation in 3 : 1 ratio

C. higher number of the parental types

D. higher number of the recombinant types

 

Q. 158 In cloning of cattle, a fertillized egg is taken out of the mother’s womb and

A. in the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are formed which are implanted into the womb of other cow

B. in the eight cell stage the individual cells are separated under electrical field for further development in culture media

C. from this upto eight identical twins can be produced

D. the egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells which are implanted into the womb of other cows

 

Q. 159 Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into human body for sonography ?

A. 15 – 30 MHZ

B. 1 – 15 MHZ

C. 45 – 70 MHZ

D. 30 – 45 MHZ.

 

Q. 160 Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they.

A. have more than 90 per cent similar genes

B. look similar and possess identical secondary metabolites

C. have same number of chromosomes

D. can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds.

 

Q. 161 Inheritances of skin colour in humans is an example of

A. point mutation

B. polygenic inheritance

C. codominance

D. chromosomal aberration

 

Q. 162 When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed

A. microevolution

B. co-evolution

C. convergent evolution

D. divergent evolution

 

Q. 163 Increased asthmatics attacks in certain seasons are related to

A. eating fruits preserved in tin containers

B. inhalation of seasonal pollen

C. low temperature

D. hot and humid environment

 

Q. 164 Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 CC in

A. Homo erectus

B. Ramapithecus

C. Homo habilis

D. Homo neanderthalensis

 

Q. 165 Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that

A. the melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial area

B. the lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area or non-polluted area

C. melanism is a pollution-generated feature

D. the true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation

 

Q. 166 A high density of elephant population in an area can result in

A. intra specific competition

B. inter specific competition

C. predation on one another

D. mutualism

 

Q. 167 A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?

A. blood serum

B. sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system

C. Whole blood from pulmonary vein

D. blood plasma

 

Q. 168 Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?

A. tropical deciduous forest

B. temperate evergreen forest

C. temperate deciduous forest

D. tropical rain forest

 

Q. 169 In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct?

A. Collar bones – 3 pairs

B. Salivary glands – 1 pairs

C. Cranial nerves – 10 pairs

D. Floating ribs – 2 pairs

 

Q. 170 Telomere repetitive DNA sequences control the function of eukaryotic chromosomes because they

A. are RNA transcription initiator

B. help chromosome pairing

C. prevent chromosome loss

D. act as replicons

 

Q. 171 Spore diseminiation in some liverworts is aided by

A. indusium

B. calyptra

C. peristome teeth

D. elaters

 

Q. 172 Which one of the following elements is not an essential micronutrient for plant growth?

A. Zn

B. Cu

C. Ca

D. Mn

 

Q. 173 The overall goal of glycolysis, krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the formation of

A. ATP in one large oxidation reaction

B. Sugar

C. nucleic acids

D. ATP in small stepwise units

 

Q. 174 Adaptive radiation refers to

A. evolution of different species from a common ancestor

B. migration of members of a species to different geographical areas

C. power of adaptation in an individual to a different geographical areas

D. adaptations due to geographical isolation

 

Q. 175 Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?

A. Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall

B. Cytokinin – Cell wall elongation

C. IAA – Cell wall elongation

D. Abscissic acid – Stomatal closure

 

Q. 176 Select the correct statement from the following?

A. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature

B. All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrae

C. Mutations are random and directional

D. Darwinian variations are small and directionless

 

Q. 177 Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of

A. generative cell

B. vegetative cell

C. microspore mother cell

D. microspore

 

Q. 178 In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you expect in F1 generation?

A. 9 : 1

B. 1 : 3

C. 3 : 1

D. 50 : 50

 

Q. 179 Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon dioxide aerobically?

A. unstraited muscle cells

B. liver cells

C. red blood cells

D. white blood

 

Q. 180 A human male produces sperms with the genotypes AB, Ab, aB, and ab pertaining to two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this person?

A. AaBB

B. AABb

C. AABB

D. AaBb

 

Q. 181 What is common to whale, seal and shark?

A. thick subcutaneous fat

B. convergent evolution

C. homoiothermy

D. seasonal migration

 

Q. 182 One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is

A. preventing speciation

B. speciation through reproductive isolation

C. random creation of new species

D. no change in the isolated fauna

 

Q. 183 Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys

A. certain types of bacteria

B. all viruses

C. most virus-infected cells

D. certain fungi

 

Q. 184 In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of

A. combination of FSH and LH

B. combination of estrogen and progesterone

C. FSH only

D. LH only

 

Q. 185 Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?

A. glycolipids

B. proline

C. phospholipids

D. cholesterol

 

Q. 186 Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of

A. higher levels of cortisone

B. lower levels of blood testosterone

C. lower levels of adrenaline/ noradrenaline in its blood

D. higher levels of thyroxine

 

Q. 187 During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric change?

A. first positive, then negative and continue to be positive

B. first negative, then positive and continue to be positive

C. first positive, then negative and again back to positive

D. first negative, then positive and again back to negative

 

Q. 188 Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic introduced in India?

A. lantana camara, water hyacinth

B. water hyacinth, prosopis cinereria

C. nile perch, licus religiosa

D. ficus religiosa, lantana camara

 

Q. 189 In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents

A. a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination

B. an opening in the megagametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg

C. the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop

D. a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed

 

Q. 190 Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in transcription by 

A. ribosome

B. transcription factor

C. anticodon

D. RNA polymerase

 

Q. 191 Which of the following is an example of negative feedback loop in humans?

A. secretion of tears after falling of sand particles into the eye

B. salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food

C. secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot

D. constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal mucles when it is too cold

 

Q. 192 The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are

A. discontinuous

B. antiparallel

C. semiconservative

D. parallel

 

Q. 193 Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Animals – Morphological features

(i) Crocodile – 4-chambered heart

(ii) Sea urchin – Parapodia

(iii) Obelia – Thecodont

(iv) Lemur _ Thecodont

 

A. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

B. only (i) and (iv)

C. only (i) and (ii)

D. (i), (iii) and (iv)

 

Q. 194 Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cells?

A. vacuoles and fibres

B. flagellum and modulloary sheath

C. nucleus and mitochondria

D. perikaryon and dendrites

 

Q. 195 In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by

A. crossing of two inbred parental lines

B. harvesting seeds from the most productive plants

C. inducing mutations

D. bombarding the seeds with DNA

 

Q. 196 Which one of the following is a viral disease of poultry ?

A. coryza

B. new castle disease

C. pasteurellosis

D. salmonellosis

 

Q. 197 The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of phytochrome is

A. 680 nm

B. 720 nm

C. 620 nm

D. 640 nm

 

Q. 198 Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution?

A. blood-worms

B. stone flies

C. sewage fungus

D. sludge-worms

 

Q. 199 Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a multistoryed building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action ?

A. adrenaline

B. glucagon

C. gastrin

D. thyroxine

 

Q. 200 “Foolish seedling’’ disease of rice led to the discovery of

A. ABA

B. 2, 4-D

C. IAA

D. GA

 

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer A A A B D C C A D A
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer A D B A B D D C B A
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer C D B C C A C C D A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B D A D D D B C B A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A C C D D A B D C D
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer A C A A D B D A C A
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer D C C C C D B C A B
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer D A B D A B B B A D
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer B A D D C D A A A B
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer C D C B D D C A B B
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer A D D D A C C C B C
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer D C D A B C A B B A
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer A A B C C C A B D C
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer A A C D D C D C D D
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer C C D C A C C A B D
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer D D D C D D C A B D
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer B C B D D A A D D C
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer D C D A A A A D C D
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer B B A B B B D A C D
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer D B D D A B A B A D

 

 

AIPMT 2006 Prelims Previous Year Paper

AIPMT 2006 Prelims

Q. 1 In producing chlorine through electrolysis 100W power at 125 V is being consumed. How much chlorine per min is liberated ? ECE of chlorine is 0.367 x 10⁻⁶ kg/C :

A. 17.6 mg

B. 34.3 mg

C. 24.3 mg

D. 39.6 mg

 

Q. 2 In the circuit shown, if a conducting wire is connected between points A and B, the current in this wire will :

A. flow from A to B

B. flow in the direction which will be decided by the value of V

C. be zero

D. flow from B to A

 

Q. 3 A rectangular block of mass m and area of cross-section A floats in a liquid of densityρ. If it is given a small vertical displacement from equilibrium it undergoes oscillation with a time period T. Then :

A. T ∝√ρ

B. T ∝ (1/√A)

C. T ∝ (1/ρ)

D. T ∝ (1/√m)

 

Q. 4 A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an efficiency of 40%. By how much should the temperature of source be increased so as to increase its efficiency by 50% of original efficiency ?

A. 275 K

B. 175 K

C. 250 K

D. 225 K

 

Q. 5 When a charged particle moving with velocity v̅ is subjected to a magnetic field of induction B̅, the force on it is non-zero. This implies that :

A. angle between v̅ & B̅ is necessarily 90°

B. angle between v̅ & B̅ can have any value other than 90°

C. angle between v̅ & B̅ can have any value other than zero and 180°

D. angle between v̅ & B̅ is either zero or 180°

 

Q. 6 Two cells, having the same emf, are connected in series through an external resistance R. Cells have internal resistances r₁ and r₂ (r₁ > r₂) respectively. When the circuit is closed, the potential difference across the first cell is zero, The value of R is :

A. r₁ – r₂

B. (r₁ + r₂)/2

C. (r₁ – r₂)/2

D. r₁ + r₂

 

Q. 7 A black body at 1227°C emits radiations with maximum intensity at a wavelength of 5000 Ȧ. If the temperature of the body is increased by 1000°C, the maximum intensity will be observed at :

A. 7500 Ȧ

B. 1500 Ȧ

C. 6000 Ȧ

D. 3000 Ȧ

 

Q. 8 Two circular coils 1 and 2 are made from the same wire but the radius of the 1st coil is twice that of the 2nd coil. What is the ratio of potential difference applied across them so that the magnetic field at their centres is the same ?

A. 5

B. 4

C. 7

D. 2

 

Q. 9 A transistor-oscillator using a resonant circuit with an inductor L (of negligible resistance) and a capacitor C in series produce oscillations of frequency f. If L is doubled and C is changed to 4C, the frequency will be :

A. f/4

B. 8f

C. f/2√2

D. 2f

 

Q. 10 The binding energy of deuteron is 2.2 MeV and that of 42He is 28 MeV. If two deuterons are fused to form one 42He then the energy released is :

A. 21.6 MeV

B. 23.6 MeV

C. 17.2 MeV

D. 28.2 MeV

 

Q. 11 In a radioactive material the activity at time t₁ is R₁ and at a later time t₂, it is R₂. If the dacay constant of the material is λ, then :

A. R₁ = R₂ e-λ(t₁ -t₂)

B. R₁ = R₂ eλ(t₁ -t₂)

C. R₁ = R₂ eλ(t₂/t₁)

D. R₁ = R₂

 

Q. 12 Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited by monochromatic radiation of photon energy 12.1 eV. According to Bohr’s theory, the spectral lines emitted by hydrogen will be :

A. two

B. three

C. four

D. one

 

Q. 13 The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8cm the potential energy stored in it is :

A. 4U

B. U/8

C. 16U

D. U/4

 

Q. 14 For angles of projection of a projectile at angles (45°θ) and (45° +-θ), the horizontal ranges described by the projectile are in the ratio of :

A. 1 : 1

B. 2 : 3

C. 1 : 2

D. 3 : 2

 

Q. 15 A body of mass 3 kg is under a constant force which causes a displacement s in metres in it, given by the relation s = (1/3) t₂, where t is in s. Work done by the force in 2 s is :

A. (17/3)J

B. (3/8)J

C. (8/3)J

D. (3/17)J

 

Q. 16 A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t (in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of the particle from O is given by x = 40 + 12t – t3 How long would the particle travel before coming to rest ?

A. 14 m

B. 28 m

C. 56 m

D. 70 m

 

Q. 17 The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by v = at + (b/t + c), where a, b and c are constants, The dimensions of a, b and c are respectively :

A. [LT⁻²], [L] and [T]

B. [L], [T] and [LT²]

C. [L²T²], [LT] and [L]

D. [L], [LT] and [T²]

 

Q. 18 A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3 cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should the

microscope be moved to get the mark in focus again ?

A. 1 cm upward

B. 0.5 cm downward

C. 1 cm downward

D. 0.5 cm upward

 

Q. 19 300 J of work is done in sliding a 2 kg block up an inclined plane of height 10 m. Taking g =10 m/s², work done against friction is :

A. 50 J

B. 100 J

C. zero

D. 150 J

 

Q. 20 A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration at constant collector voltage Vc = 1.5 V such that a change in the base current from 100 μA to 150 μA produces a change in the collector current from 5 mA to 10 mA. The current gain (β) is: 

A. 50

B. 75

C. 100

D. 125

 

Q. 21 A forward biased diode is :  

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

 

Q. 22 A photo-cell employs photoelectric effect to convert :

A. change in the frequency of light into a change in electric voltage

B. change in the intensity of illumination into a change in photoelectric current

C. change in the intensity of illumination into a change in the work function of the photocathode

D. change in the frequency of light into a change in the electric current

 

Q. 23 The core of a transformer is laminated because :

A. energy losses due to eddy currents may be minimised

B. the weight of the transformer may be reduced

C. rusting of the core may be prevented

D. ratio of voltage in primary and secondary may be increased

 

Q. 24 Two coils of self-inductances 2 mH and 8 mH are placed so close together that the effective flux in one coil is completely linked with the other. The mutual inductance between these coils is :

A. 8 mH

B. 12 mH

C. 4 mH

D. 16 mH

 

Q. 25 In a discharge tube ionization of enclosed gas is produced due to collisions between : 

A. positive ions and neutral atoms/molecules

B. negative electrons and neutral atoms/molecules

C. photons and neutral atoms/molecules

D. neutral gas atoms/molecules

 

Q. 26 When photons of energy hv fall on an aluminium plate (of work function E₀), photoelectrons of maximum kinetic energy K are ejected. If the frequency of the radiation is doubled, the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons will be :

A. K + E₀

B. 2K

C. K

D. k + hv

 

Q. 27 The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C. The voltage waveforms of A, B and C are as shown below :

The logic circuit gate is :

A. AND gate

B. NAND gate

C. NOR gate

D. OR gate

 

Q. 28 A coil of inductive reactance 31 has a resistance of Ω. It is placed in series with a condenser of capacitative reactance 25Ω. The combination is connected to an a.c. source of 110 V. The power factor of the circuit is :

A. 0.40

B. 0.128

C. 0.80

D. 0.66

 

Q. 29 A 0.5 kg ball moving with a speed of 12 m/s strikes a hard wall at an angle of 30° with the wall. It is reflected with the same speed and at the same angle. If the ball is in contact with the wall for 0.25 s, the average force acting on the wall is :

A. 8 N

B. 24 N

C. 16 N

D. 96 N

 

Q. 30 The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass M about an axis touching the disc at its diameter and normal to the disc is :

A. MR²

B. (2/5)MR²

C. (3/5)MR²

D. (5/6)MR²

 

Q. 31 The momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV in kg m/s, will be :

A. 0.33 x 10⁶

B. 8 x 10⁻²⁴

C. 5 x 10⁻²³

D. 5 x 10⁻²²

 

Q. 32 The radius of germanium (Ge) nuclide is measured to be twice the radius of ₉₄Be. The number of nucleons in Ge are :

A. 73

B. 74

C. 76

D. 72

 

Q. 33 The molar specific heat at constant pressure of an ideal gas is (7/2)R. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure to that at constant volume is :

A. 7/5

B. 6/7

C. 9/7

D. 4/7

 

Q. 34 The earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius R. A platform is arranged at a height R from the surface of the earth. The escape velocity of a body from this platform is fvₑ, where vₑ is its escape velocity from the surface of the earth. The value of f is :

A. 2

B. 1/√2

C. 1/3

D. 1

 

Q. 35 Two sound waves with wavelengths 5.0 m and 5.5 m respectively, each propagate in a gas with velocity 330 m/s. We expect the following number of beats per second :

A. 12

B. 0

C. 3

D. 6

 

Q. 36 Power dissipated across the 8 resistor Ω in the circuit shown here is 2W. The power dissipated in watt units across the 3 Ω resistor is :

A. 6.0

B. 1.5

C. 0.45

D. 3.0

 

Q. 37 Kirchhoff’s first and second laws for electrical circuits are consequences of :

A. conservation of energy

B. conservation of electric charge and energy respectively

C. conservation of electric charge

D. conservation of energy and electric charge respectively

 

Q. 38 A transverse wave propagating along x-axis is represented by :

y(x, t) = 8.0 sin (0.5πx – 4πt – (π/4))

where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The speed of the wave is :

A. 8π m/s

B. 0.5π m/s

C. (π/4) m/s

D. 8 m/s

 

Q. 39 The time of reverberation of a room A is one second. What will be the time (in seconds) of reverberation of a room, having all the dimensions double of those of room A ?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 1/2

D. 8

 

Q. 40 Which one of the following statements is true ?

A. Both light and sound waves in air are transverse

B. The sound waves in air are longitudinal while the light waves are transverse

C. Both light and sound waves in air are longitudina

D. Both light and sound waves can travel in vacuum

 

Q. 41 Above Curie temperature :

A. a ferromagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic

B. a paramagnetic substance becomes diamagnetic

C. a diamagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic

D. a paramagnetic substance becomes ferromagnetic

 

Q. 42 A convex lens and a concave lens, each having same focal length of 25 cm, are put in contact to form a combination of lenses. The power in diopters of the combination is :

A. 25

B. 50

C. infinite

D. zero

 

Q. 43 An electric dipole of moment p̅ is lying along a uniform electric field . The work done in rotating the dipole by 90° is :

A. √2 pE

B. pE/2

C. 2pE

D. pE

 

Q. 44 A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential difference of V volts. After

disconnecting the charging battery the distance between the plates of the capacitor is increased using an insulating handle. As a result the potential difference between the plates :

A. decreases

B. does not change

C. becomes zero

D. increases

 

Q. 45 A car runs at a constant speed on a circular track of radius 100 m, taking 62.8 s for every circular lap. The average velocity and average speed for each circular lap respectively is : 

A. 0, 0

B. 0, 10 m/s

C. 10 m/s, 20 m/s

D. 20 m/s, 0

 

Q. 46 A square surface of side L m is in the plane of the paper. A uniform electric field E̅ (v/m), also in the plane of the paper, is limited only to the lower half of the square surface, (see figure). The electric flux in SI units associated with the surface is :

A. EL2/(2ε₀)

B. EL2/2

C. zero

D. EL2

 

Q. 47 A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both the ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity ω. The force exerted by the liquid at the other end is :

A. (MLω 2)/(2)

B. (ML2ω)/(2)

C. 2MLω 2

D. (ML2ω 2)/(2)

 

Q. 48 A uniform rod of length l and mass m is free to rotate in a vertical plane about A. The rod initially in horizontal position is released. The initial angular acceleration of the rod is : 

(Moment of inertia of rod about A is (ml2/3))

A. 3g/2l

B. 2l/3g

C. 3g/2l₂

D. mg(l/2)

 

Q. 49 The vectors A̅ & B̅ are such that a :

|A̅ + B̅| = |A̅ – B̅|

The angle between the two vectors is :

A. 90°

B. 60°

C. 30°

D. 0°

 

Q. 50 Two bodies, A (of mass 1 kg) and B (of mass 3 kg) are dropped from heights of 16 m and 25 m, respectively. The ratio of the time taken by them to reach the ground is :

A. 5/4

B. 8/5

C. 5/8

D. 4/5

 

Q. 51 Identify the correct statement for change of Gibbs energy for a system (ΔGsystem) at constant temperature and pressure :

A. If ΔGsystem > 0, the process is spontaneous

B. If ΔGsystem = 0, the system has attained equilibrium

C. If ΔGsystem = 0, the system is still moving in a particular direction

D. If ΔGsystem < 0, the process is not spontaneous

Q. 52 A solution containing 10g per dm³ of urea (molecular mass = 60g mol⁻¹) is isotonic with a 5% solution of a non-volatile solute. The molecular mass of this non-volatile solute is :

A. 200 g mol⁻¹

B. 300 g mol⁻¹

C. 400 g mol⁻¹

D. 500 g mol⁻¹

 

Q. 53 A plot of log x/m versus log p for the adsorption of a gas on a solid gives a straight line with slope equal to :

A. – log k

B. n

C. 1/n

D. log k

 

Q. 54 Assume each reaction is carried out in an open container. For which reaction will ΔH = ΔE ?

A. H₂(g) + Br₂(g) → 2HBr(g)

B. C(s) + 2H₂O(g) → 2H₂(g) + CO₂(g)

C. PCl₅(g) → PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g)

D. 2CO(g) + O₂(g) → 2CO₂(g)

 

Q. 55 In a set of reactions propionic acid yielded a compound D.

The structure of D would be :

A. CH₃CH₂CH₂NH₂

B. CH₃CH₂CONH₂

C. CH₃CH₂NHCH₃

D. CH₃CH₂NH₂

 

Q. 56 During the process of digestion, the proteins present in food materials are hydrolysed to amino acids. The two enzymes involved in the process

A. amylase and maltase

B. diastase and lipase

C. pepsin and trypsin

D. invertase and zymase

 

Q. 57 The human body does not produce :

A. DNA

B. vitamins

C. hormones

D. enzymes

 

Q. 58 CsBr crystallises in a body centred cubic lattice. The unit cell length is 436.6 pm. Given that the atomic mass of Cs = 133 and that of Br = 80 amu and Avogadro number being 6.02 x 1023 mo1⁻¹, the density of CsBr is :

A. 42.5 g/cm³

B. 2.25 g/cm³

C. 0.225 g/cm³

D. 4.25 g/cm³

 

Q. 59 More number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than by the lanthanoids. 

The main reason for this is :

A. more energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals

B. lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals

C. greater metallic character of the lanthanoids than that of the corresponding actinoids

D. more active nature of the actinoids

 

Q. 60 Given : The mass of electron is 9.11 x 10⁻³¹ kg

Planck constant is 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ Js, the uncertainty involved in the measurement of velocity within a distance of 0.1 Ȧ is :

A. 5.79 x 10⁶ ms⁻¹

B. 5.79 x 10⁷ ms⁻¹

C. 5.79 x 10⁸ ms⁻¹

D. 5.79 x 10⁹ ms⁻¹

 

Q. 61 Copper sulphate dissolves in excess of KCN to give :

A. CuCN

B. [Cu(CN)₄]³⁻

C. [Cu(CN)₄]²⁻

D. Cu(CN)₂

 

Q. 62 In which of the following pairs are both the ions coloured in aqueous solution ?

(At. no. : Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Co = 27)

A. Ni²⁺, Ti³⁺

B. Sc³⁺, Ti³⁺

C. Sc³⁺, Co²⁺

D. Ni²⁺, Cu⁺

 

Q. 63 Al₂O₃ can be converted to anhydrous AlCl₃ by heating :

A. Al₂O₃ with HCl gas

B. Al₂O₃ with NaCl in solid state

C. a mixture of Al₂O₃ and carbon in dry Cl₂ gas

D. Al₂O₃with Cl₂ gas

 

Q. 64 The enthalpy and entropy change for the reaction :

Br₂(l) + Cl₂(g) → 2BrCl(g) are 30 kJ mol⁻¹ and 105 JK⁻¹ mol⁻¹ respectively. The temperature at which the reaction will be in equilibrium is :

A. 285.7 K

B. 373 K

C. 250 K

D. 400 K

 

Q. 65 The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally due to :

A. F-centres

B. Schottky defect

C. Frenkel defect

D. Interstitial positions

 

Q. 66 The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanols is :

A. CnH₂nO₂

B. CnH₂nO

C. CnH₂n₊₁O

D. CnH₂n₊₂O

 

Q. 67 See the given figure, then Fe + 2Fe³⁺ → 3Fe²⁺ will be :

A. 0.441 V

B. 1.753 V

C. 1.212 V

D. 0.211 V

 

Q. 68 For the reaction 2A + B → 3C + D

which of the following does not express the reaction rate ?

A. -(d[C]/3dt)

B. -(d[B]/dt

C. d[D]/dt

D. -d[A]/2dt

 

Q. 69 For the reaction,

CH₄(g) + 2O₂ (g) CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(l), ΔrH = -170.8 kJ mol⁻¹ Which of the following statements is not true ?

A. At equilibrium, the concentrations of CO₂ (g) and H₂O (l)are not equal

B. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is given by Kp = [CO₂]/[CH₄][O₂]

C. Addition of CH₄(g) or O₂(g) at equilibrium will cause a shift to the right

D. The reaction is exothermic

 

Q. 70 [NH(CH₂)NHCO(CH₂)4CO]n is a :

A. co-polymer

B. addition polymer

C. thermo-setting polymer

D. homopolymer

 

Q. 71 A carbonyl compound reacts with hydrogen cyanide to form cyanohydrin which on hydrolysis forms a racemic mixture of α-hydroxy acid. The carbonyl compound is :

A. acetaldehyde

B. acetone

C. diethyl ketone

D. formaldehyde

 

Q. 72 Which one of the following is a peptide hormone ?

A. Glucagon

B. Testosterone

C. Thyroxin

D. Adrenaline

 

Q. 73 The major organic product in the reaction,

CH₃ – O – CH(CH₃)₂ + HI → Product is :

A. CH₃OH + (CH₃)₂CHI

B. ICH₂OCH (CH₃)₂

C. CH₃O C(CH₃)₂

D. CH₃I + (CH₃)₂CHOH

 

Q. 74 Nucleophilic addition reaction will be most favoured in :

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

 

Q. 75 The enthalpy of combustion of H₂, cyclohexene (C₆H₁₀) and cyclohexene (C₆H₁₂) are – 241, -3800 and -3920 kJ per mol respectively. Heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is :

A. – 121 kJ per mo

B. + 121 kJ per mol

C. + 484 kJ per mol

D. – 484 kJ per mol

 

Q. 76 Self condensation of two moles of ethyl acetate in presence of sodium ethoxide yields :

A. ethyl butyrate

B. acetoacetic ester

C. methyl acetoacetate

D. ethyl propionate

 

Q. 77 Consider the reaction

N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g)

The equality relationship between (d[NH₃]/dt) and -(d[H₂]/dt) is :

A. (d[NH₃]/dt) = -(1/3)(d[H₂]/dt)

B. +(d[NH₃]/dt) = -(2/3)(d[H₂]/dt)

C. +(d[NH₃]/dt) = -(3/2)(d[H₂]/dt)

D. (d[NH₃]/dt) = -(d[H₂]/dt)

 

Q. 78 Which of the following is not chiral ?

A. 2-butanol

B. 2, 3-dibromopentane

C. 3-bromopentane

D. 2-hydroxypropanoic acid

 

Q. 79 [Co(NH₃)₄(NO₂)₂]Cl exhibits :

A. linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and optical isomerism

B. linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and geometrical isomerism

C. ionization isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism

D. linkage isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism

 

Q. 80 [Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃ (at. no. of Cr = 24) has a magnetic moment of 3.83 BM, the correct distribution of 3d electrons in the chromium of the complex is :

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

 

Q. 81 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute (molar mass 250g mol⁻¹) was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene. If the freezing point depression constant, Kf of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol⁻¹, the freezing point of benzene will be lowered by :

A. 0.4 K

B. 0.8 K

C. 0.12 K

D. 0.24 K

 

Q. 82 Which of the following pairs constitutes a buffer ?

A. HNO₂ and NaNO₂

B. NaOH and NaCl

C. HNO₃ and NH₄NO₃

D. HCl and KCl

 

Q. 83 The hydrogen ion concentration of a 10⁻⁸ M HCl aqueous solution at 298 K (Kw = 10⁻¹⁴) is :

A. 1.0525 x 10⁻⁶ M

B. 1.0525 x 10⁻⁷ M

C. 8.525 x 10⁻⁸ M

D. 1.0525 x 10⁻⁸ M

 

Q. 84 A solution of acetone in ethanol :

A. shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s law

B. shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law

C. behaves like a near ideal solution

D. obeys Raoult’s law

 

Q. 85 A hypothetical electrochemical cell is shown below

A|A+ (xM)|| B+ (yM)| B

The emf measured is +0.20V. The cell reaction is :

A. A⁺ + B → A + B+

B. A⁺ + e- → A; B⁺ + e- → B

C. the cell reaction cannot be predicted

D. A + B⁺ → A⁺ + B

 

Q. 86 Ethylene oxide when treated with Grignard reagent yields :

A. secondary alcohol

B. tertiary alcohol

C. cyclopropyl alcoho

D. primary alcohol

 

Q. 87 During osmosis, flow of water through a semi-permeable membrane is :

A. from solution having higher concentration only

B. from both sides of semi-permeable membrane with equal flow rates

C. from both sides of semi-permeable membrane with unequal flow rates

D. from solution having lower concentration only

 

Q. 88 Which of the following is more basic than aniline ?

A. Diphenylamine

B. Triphenylamine

C. p-nitroaniline

D. Benzylamine

 

Q. 89 In which of the following molecules are all the bonds not equal ?

A. ClF₃

B. BF₃

C. AlF₃

D. NF₃

 

Q. 90 The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater than that between N and H yet the dipole moment of NH₃ (1.5 D) is larger than that of NF₃ (0.2 D). This is because :

A. in NH₃ as well as in NF₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction

B. in NH₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction whereas in NF₃ these are in opposite directions

C. in NH₃ as well as NF₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in opposite directions

D. in NH₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the opposite directions whereas in

NF₃ these are in the same directions

 

Q. 91 The correct order of the mobility of the alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is :

A. Li⁺ > Na⁺ > K⁺ > Rb⁺

B. Na⁺ > K⁺ > Rb⁺ > Li⁺

C. K⁺ > Rb⁺ > Na⁺ > Li⁺

D. Rb⁺ > K⁺ > Na⁺ > Li⁺

 

Q. 92 The corect order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is :

A. sp > sp² < sp³

B. sp > sp² > sp³

C. sp < sp² > sp³

D. sp < sp² < sp³

 

Q. 93 Which of the following species has a linear shape ?

A. NO⁻²

B. SO₂

C. NO⁺²

D. O₃

 

Q. 94 Which of the following is the most basic oxide ?

A. Al₂O₃

B. Sb₂O₃

C. Bi₂O₃

D. SeO₂

 

Q. 95 The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by :

A. azimuthal quantum number

B. spin quantum number

C. magnetic quantum number

D. principal quantum number

 

Q. 96 Which of the following is not a correct statement ?

A. The electron-deficient molecules can act as Lewis acids

B. The canonical structures have no real existence

C. Every AB₅ molecule does in fact have square pyramid structure

D. Multiple bonds are always shorter than corresponding single bonds

 

Q. 97 The number of unpaired electrons in a paramagnetic diatomic molecule of an element with atomic number 16 is :

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 1

 

Q. 98 Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against it?

A. F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂ : Oxidising power

B. HI > HBr > HCl > HF : Acidic property in water

C. F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂ : Electronegativity

D. F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂ : Bond dissociation energy

 

Q. 99 Which of the following is not isostructural with SiCl₄ ?

A. SCl₄

B. SO₂⁻⁴

C. PO₃⁻⁴

D. NH⁺⁴

 

Q. 100 The IUPAC name of the given figure is

A. 3, 4-dimethylpentanoyl chloride

B. 1-chloro-1-oxo-2, 3-dimethylpentane

C. 2-ethyl-3-methylbutanoyl chloride

D. 2, 3-dimethylpentanoyl chloride

 

Q. 101 What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the aleurone layer in a plant species with 8chromosomes in its synergids ?

A. 16

B. 24

C. 32

D. 8

 

Q. 102 Pineapple (annanas) fruit develops from :

A. a unilocular polycarpillary flower

B. a multipistillate syncarpous flower

C. a cluster of compactly borne flowers on a common axis

D. a multilocular monocarpillary flower

 

Q. 103 Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop. When released for cultivation, it will help in :

A. alleviation of vitamin-A deficiency

B. pest resistance

C. herbicide tolerance

D. producing a petrol-like fuel from rice

 

Q. 104 Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by :

A. removing androecium of flowers before pollen grains are released

B. treating the plants with low concentrations of gibberellic acid and auxins

C. raising the plants from vernalized seeds

D. treating the plants with phenylmercuric acetate

 

Q. 105 How does pruning help in making the hedge dense ?

A. It induces the differentiation of new shoots from the rootstock

B. It frees axillary buds from apical dominance

C. The apical shoot grows faster after pruning

D. It releases wound hormones

 

Q. 106 The ‘blue baby’ syndrome results from :

A. excess fo chloride

B. methaemoglobin

C. excess of dissolved oxygen

D. excess of TDS (Total Dissolved Solids)

 

Q. 107 Praying mentis is a good example of :

A. mullerian mimicry

B. warning colouration

C. social insects

D. camouflage

 

Q. 108 Which one of the following statements is correct ?

A. Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice versa

B. Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and nervous system regulates endocrine glands

C. Neither hormones control neural activity nor the neurons control endocrine activity

D. Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but not vice versa

 

Q. 109 Examination of blood of a person suspected of having anaemia, shows large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes without haemoglobin. Supplementing his diet with which of the following, is likely to alleviate his symptoms ?

A. Thiamine

B. Folic acid and cobalamine

C. Riboflavin

D. Iron compounds

 

Q. 110 Farmers in a particular region were concerned that pre-mature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might cause decrease in the yield. Which treatment could be most beneficial to obtain maximum seed yield ?

A. Frequent irrigation of the crop

B. Treatment of the paints with cytokinins along with a small dose of nitrogenous fertilizer

C. Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying the remaining green leaves with 2, 4, 5- trichlorophenoxy acetic acid

D. Application of iron and magnesium to promote synthesis of chlorophyll

 

Q. 111 In which of the following fruits is the edible part the aril ?

A. Custard apple

B. Pomegranate

C. Orange

D. Litchi

 

Q. 112 Which one of the following aminoacids was not found to be synthesized in Miller’s experiment ?

A. Glycine

B. Aspartic acid

C. Glutamic acid

D. Alanine

 

Q. 113 Crop plants grown in monoculture are :

A. low in yield

B. free from intraspecific competition

C. characterised by poor root system

D. highly prone to pests

 

Q. 114 Montreal protocol which calls for appropriate action to protect the ozone layer from human activities was passed in the year :

A. 1986

B. 1987

C. 1988

D. 1985

 

Q. 115 The formula for exponential population growth is :

A. dt/dN = rN

B. dN/rN = dt

C. rN/dN = dt

D. dN/dt = rN

 

Q. 116 Which one of the following is not used for construction of ecological pyramids ?

A. Dry weight

B. Number of individuals

C. Rate of energy flow

D. Fresh weight

 

Q. 117 Niche overlap indicates :

A. active co-operation between two species

B. two different parasites on the same host

C. sharing of one or more resources between the two species

D. mutualism between two species

 

Q. 118 In photosystem-I, the first electron acceptor is :

A. ferredoxin

B. cytochrome

C. plastocyanin

D. an iron-sulphur protein

 

Q. 119 Treatment of seed at low temperature under moist conditions to break its dormancy is called :

A. scarification

B. vernalization

C. chelation

D. stratification

 

Q. 120 Which one of the following is the most suitable, medium for culture of Drosophila melanogaster ?

A. Moist bread

B. Agar agar

C. Ripe banana

D. Cow dung

 

Q. 121 Which one of the following is not included under in situ conservation ?

A. Sanctuary

B. Botanical garden

C. Biosphere reserve

D. National park

 

Q. 122 Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between t-RNA and m-RNA during bacterial protein synthesis ?

A. Erythromycin

B. Neomycin

C. Streptomycin

D. Tetracycline

 

Q. 123 Phenotype of an organism is the result of :

A. mutations and linkages

B. cytoplasmic effects and nutrition

C. environmental changes and sexual dimorphism

D. genotype and environment interactions

 

Q. 124 Photochemical smog pollution does not contain :

A. ozone

B. nitrogen dioxide

C. carbon dioxide

D. PAN (Peroxy Acyl Nitrate)

 

Q. 125 Moss peat is used as a packing material for sending flowers and live plants to distant places because :

A. it is easily available

B. it is hygroscopic

C. it reduces transpiration

D. it serves as a disinfectant

 

Q. 126 A common structural feature of vessel elements and sieve tube elements is :

A. thick secondary walls

B. pores on lateral walls

C. presence of P-protein

D. enucleate condition

 

Q. 127 The thalloid body of a slime mould (Myxomycetes) is known as :

A. protonema

B. Plasmodium

C. fruiting body

D. mycelium

 

Q. 128 In which mode of inheritance do you expect more maternal influence among the off spring ?

A. Autosomal

B. Cytoplasmic

C. Y-linked

D. X-linked

 

Q. 129 What type of placentation is seen in sweet pea ?

A. Basal

B. Axile

C. Free central

D. Marginal

 

Q. 130 Long filamentous threads protruding at the end of a young cob of maize are :

A. anthers

B. styles

C. ovaries

D. hairs

 

Q. 131 Conifers differ from grasses in the :

A. production of seeds from ovules

B. lack of xylem tracheids

C. absence of pollen tubes

D. formation of endosperm before fertilization

 

Q. 132 How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype AABbCC ?

A. Three

B. Four

C. Nine

D. Two

 

Q. 133 In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by :

A. bombarding the protoplast with DNA

B. crossing of two inbreed parental lines

C. harvesting seeds from the most productive plants

D. inducing mutations

 

Q. 134 Which of the following statements regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct ?

A. The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules

B. The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane

C. The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings

D. The outer membrane resembles a sieve

 

Q. 135 Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is decided by the sequence of :

A. t-RNA

B. m-RNA

C. c-DNA

D. r-RNA

 

Q. 136 How many ATP molecules could maximally be generated from one molecule of glucose, if the complete oxidation of one mole of glucose to CO₂ and H₂O yields 686 kcal and the useful chemical energy available in the high energy phosphate bond of one mole of ATP is 12 kcal ?

A. Two

B. Thirty

C. Fifty seven

D. One

 

Q. 137 An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its acvity is called :

A. coenzyme

B. holoenzyme

C. apoenzyme

D. isoenzyme

 

Q. 138 Bowman’s glands are found in :

A. olfactory epithelium

B. external auditory canal

C. cortical nephrons only

D. juxtamedullary nephrons

 

Q. 139 The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that causes botulism is :

A. a facultative anaerobe

B. an obligate anaerobe

C. a facultative aerobe

D. an obligate aerobe

 

Q. 140 Which one of the following is the correctly matched pair of an endangered animal and a National Park ?

A. Lion — Corbett National Park

B. Rhinoceros — Kaziranga National Park

C. Wild ass — Dudhwa National Park

D. Great Indian bustard —Keoladeo National Park

 

Q. 141 A person showing upredictable moods, outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with others is suffering from :

A. schizophrenia

B. borderline personality disorder (BPD)

C. mood disorders

D. addictive disorders

 

Q. 142 Sulphur is an important nutrient for optimum growth and productivity in :

A. pulse crops

B. cereals

C. fibre crops

D. oilseed crops

 

Q. 143 Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers, bicarpillary ovary with oblique septa, and fruit a capsule or berry, are characteristic features of :

A. Asteraceae

B. Brassicaceae

C. Solanaceae

D. Liliaceae

 

Q. 144 In a moss the sporophyte :

A. is partially parasitic on the gametophyte

B. produces gametes that give rise to the gametophyte

C. arises from a spore produced from the gametophyte

D. manufactures food for itself, as well as for the gametophyte

 

Q. 145 Curing of tea leaves is brought about by the activity of :

A. bacteria

B. mycorrhiza

C. viruses

D. fungi

 

Q. 146 People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas those living at an altitude of 5400 metres have around 8 million. This is because at high altitude :

A. people get pollution-free air to breathe and more oxygen is available

B. atmospheric O₂ level is less and hence more RBCs are needed to absorb the required amount of O₂ to survive

C. there is more UV radiation which enhances RBC production

D. people eat more nutritive food, therefore more RBCs are formed

 

Q. 147 An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of :

A. homologous and vestigial organs

B. analogous and vestigial organs

C. homologous organs only

D. homologous and analogous organs

 

Q. 148 Which one of the following is not a living fossil ?

A. King crab

B. Sphenodon

C. Archaeopteryx

D. Peripatus

 

Q. 149 Annual migration does not occur in the case of :

A. salmon

B. Siberian crane

C. salamander

D. arctic tern

 

Q. 150 A major breakthrough in the studies of cells came with the development of electron microscope. This is because :

A. the resolution power of the electron microscope is much higher than that of the light microscope

B. the resolving power of the electron microscope is 200 – 350 nm as compared to 0.1 – 0.2 nm for the light microscope

C. electron beam can pass through thick materials, whereas light microscopy requires thin sections

D. the electron microscope is more powerful than the light microscope as it uses a beam of electrons which has wavelength much longer than that of photons

 

Q. 151 Which one of the following is a matching set of a phylum and its three examples ?

A. Cnidaria — Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia

B. Platyhelminthes — Planaria, Schistosoma, Enterobius

C. Mollusca — Loligo, Teredo, Octopus

D. Porifera — Spongilla, Euplectella, pennatula

 

Q. 152 Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of :

A. Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda

B. Echinodermata and Annelida

C. Annelida and Arthropoda

D. Mollusca and Chordata

 

Q. 153 Which of the following pairs of an animal and a plant represents endangered organisms in India ?

A. Bentinckia nicobarica and red panda

B. Tamarind and rhesus monkey

C. Cinchona and leopard

D. Banyan and black buck

 

Q. 154 Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is characterized by :

A. gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear

B. radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal like reptiles

C. dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appear

D. flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear

 

Q. 155 What is common about Trypanosoma, Noctiluca, Monocystis and Giardia ?

A. These are all unicellular protists

B. They have flagella

C. They produce spores

D. These are all parasites

 

Q. 156 Which of the following statements regarding cilia is not correct ?

A. The organized beating of cilia is controlled by fluxes of Ca²⁺ across the membrane

B. Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages

C. Microtubules of cilia are composed of tubulin

D. Cilia contain an outer ring of nine doublet microtubules surrounding two single microtubules

 

Q. 157 Microbes found to be very useful in genetic engineering are :

A. Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens

B. Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage

C. Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp

D. Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis elegans

 

Q. 158 Which of the following environmental conditions are essential for optimum growth of Mucor on a piece of bread ?

A. Temperature of about 25°C

B. Temperature of about 5°C

C. Relative humidity of about 5%

D. Relative humidity of about 95%

E. A shady place

F. A brightly illuminated place

Choose the answer from the following options :

 

A. A, C and E only

B. A, D and E only

C. B, D and E only

D. B, C and F only

 

Q. 159 Evolutionary history of an organism is known as :

A. Phylogeny

B. Ancestry

C. Paleontology

D. Ontogeny

 

Q. 160 Which of the following is considered a hot-spot of biodiversity in India ?

A. Western ghats

B. Indo-Gangetic plain

C. Eastern ghats

D. Aravalli hills

 

Q. 161 During photorespiration, the oxygen consuming reaction(s) occur in :

A. stroma of chloroplasts and mitochondria

B. stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes

C. grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes

D. stroma of chloroplasts

 

Q. 162 Which one of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance ?

A. Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa

B. Production of male honey bee

C. Pod shape in garden pea

D. Skin colour in humans

 

Q. 163 Which one of the following not act as a neurotransmitter ?

A. Acetylcholine

B. Epinephrine

C. Nor epinephrine

D. Cortisone

 

Q. 164 Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as :

A. FSH

B. GH

C. Prolactin

D. LH

 

Q. 165 A steroid hormone which regulates glucose metabolism is :

A. cortisol

B. corticosterone

C. 11-deoxycorticosterone

D. cortisone

 

Q. 166 The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is :

A. tropomyosin

B. myosin

C. α-actinin

D. troponin

 

Q. 167 Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action ?

A. cGMP

B. Calcium

C. Sodium

D. cAMP

 

Q. 168 In Mendel’s experiments with garden pea, round seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled seeds (rr), yellow cotyledon (YY) was dominant over green cotyledon (yy). What are the expected phenotypes in the F₂ generation of the cross RRYY x rryy ?

A. Only round seeds with green cotyledons

B. Only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons

C. Only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons

D. Round seeds with yellow cotyledons and wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons

 

Q. 169 One gene – one enzyme hypothesis was postulated by :

A. R. Franklin

B. Hershey and Chase

C. A. Garrod

D. Beadle and Tatum

 

Q. 170 One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately :

A. 20 nm

B. 0.34 nm

C. 3.4 nm

D. 2 nm

 

Q. 171 Test cross involves :

A. crossing between two genotypes with recessive trait

B. crossing between two F₁ hybrids

C. crossing the F₁ hybrid with a double recessive genotype

D. crossing between two genotypes with dominant trait

 

Q. 172 Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that :

A. one strand turns anti-clockwise

B. the phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position

C. the phosphate groups at thestart of two DNA strands are in opposite position (pole)

D. one strand turns clockwise

 

Q. 173 Areolar connective tissue joins :

A. fat body with muscles

B. integument with muscles

C. bones with muscles

D. bones with bones

 

Q. 174 Mast cells secrete :

A. hippurin

B. myoglobin

C. histamine

D. haemoglobin

 

Q. 175 If a colourblind woman marries a normal visioned man, their sons will be :

A. all normal visioned

B. one-half colourblind and one-half normal

C. three-fourths colourbling and one-fourth normal

D. all colourblind

 

Q. 176 Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the :

A. fertilization of an XX egg by a normal Y-bearing sperm

B. loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5

C. loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5

D. trisomy of 21st chromosome

 

Q. 177 Restriction endonuclease :

A. cuts the DNA molecule randomly

B. cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites

C. restricts the synthesis of DNA inside the nucleus

D. synthesizes DNA

 

Q. 178 Antibodies in our body are complex :

A. lipoproteins

B. steroids

C. prostaglandins

D. glycoproteins

 

Q. 179 Limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution Control Board for the discharge of industrial and municipal waste water into natural surface water, is :

A. < 3.0 ppm

B. < 10 ppm

C. < 100 ppm

D. < 30 ppm

 

Q. 180 Earthworms are :

A. ureotelic when plenty of water is available

B. uricotelic when plenty of water is available

C. uricotelic under conditions of water scarcity

D. ammonotelic when plenty of water is available

 

Q. 181 Which of the following is an accumulation and release centre of neurohormones ?

A. Posterior pituitary lobe

B. Intermediate lobe of the pituitary

C. Hypothalamus

D. Anterior pituitary lobe

 

Q. 182 Withdrawal of which of the following hormones is the immediate cause of menstruation ?

A. Eastrogens

B. FSH

C. FSH-RH

D. Progesterone

 

Q. 183 Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?

A. The residual air in lungs slightly decreases the efficiency of respiration in mammals

B. The presence of non-respiratory air sacs, increases the efficiency of respiration in birds

C. In insects, circulating body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues

D. The principle of countercurrent flow facilitates efficient respiration in gills of fishes

 

Q. 184 Which one of the following has an open circulatory system ?

A. Pheretima

B. Periplaneta

C. Hirudinaria

D. Octopus

 

Q. 185 Which hormone causes dilation of blood vessels, increased oxygen consumption and glycogenolysis ?

A. ACTH

B. Insulin

C. Adrenalin

D. Glucagon

 

Q. 186 The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a :

A. bacterium

B. prion

C. worm

D. virus

Q. 187 The translocation of organic solutes in sieve tube members is supported by :

A. root pressure and transpiration pull

B. P-proteins

C. mass flow involving a carrier and ATP

D. cytoplasmic streaming

 

Q. 188 Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are the characteristics of :

A. Starfish and sea anemone

B. Ctenoplana and Beroe

C. Aurelia and Paramecium

D. Hydra and starfish

 

Q. 189 The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac in the dicot plants is :

A. 2 + 4 + 2

B. 3 + 2 + 3

C. 2 + 3 + 3

D. 3 + 3 + 2

 

Q. 190 An enzyme that can stimulate germination of barley seeds is :

A. α-amylase

B. lipase

C. protease

D. invertase

 

Q. 191 In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo is represented by :

A. coleorhiza

B. scutellum

C. prophyll

D. coleoptile

 

Q. 192 The majority of carbon dioxide produced by our body cells is transported to the lungs :

A. dissolved in the blood

B. as bircarbonates

C. as carbonates

D. attached to haemoglobin

 

Q. 193 Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has been obtained by crossing wheat with :

A. rye

B. pearl millet

C. sugarcane

D. barley

 

Q. 194 In order to obtain virus-free plants through tissue culture the best method is :

A. protoplast culture

B. embryo rescue

C. anther culture

D. meristem culture

 

Q. 195 HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying :

A. B-lymphocytes

B. leucocytes

C. thrombocytes

D. helper T-lymphocytes

 

Q. 196 In which one of the following sets of animals do all the four give birth to young ones ?

A. Lion, bat, whale, ostrich

B. Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus

C. Shrew, bat, cat, kiw

D. Kangaroo, hedgehog, dolphin, loris

 

Q. 197 Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated from the African population because :

A. it is controlled by recessive genes

B. it is not a fatal disease

C. it provides immunity against malaria

D. it is controlled by dominant genes

 

Q. 198 Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach and crab are :

A. compound eyes and anal cerci

B. jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton

C. green gland and tracheae

D. book lungs and antennae

 

Q. 199 Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s chorea are :

A. bacteria-related diseases

B. congenital disorders

C. pollutant-induced disorders

D. virus-related diseases

 

Q. 200 Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by :

A. macula densa cells

B. endothelial cells (cells lining the blood vessels)

C. liver cells

D. juxtaglomerular (JG) cells

 

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer A D B C C A D B C B
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer A B C A C C A A B C
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer D B A C B D A C B C
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer D D A B D D B D A B
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A D D D B C A A A D
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer B B C A D C B D B A
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer B A C A A D C A B A
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer A A D D A B B C B C
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer A A B B D D D D A B
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer D B C C C C A D A D
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer B C A B B B C A D D
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer D C D B D D B D D C
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer B D D C B B B B D B
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer D D B B B B A A B B
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer A A C A A B A C C A
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer C C A A A C A B A A
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer B D D A A B C D D C
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer C C B C D B B D B D
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer C D A B C B C B B A
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer B B A D D C B B C

AIIMS UG 2013 Previous Year Paper

AIIMS UG 2013

Section

Questions

Marks

Physics

60 Questions (1 – 60)

60

Chemistry

60 Questions (61 – 120)

60

Biology

60 Questions (121 – 180)

60

General Knowledge

20 Questions (181 – 200)

20

Q : 1 For Satellite Communication which wave is used ?

A . Space Wave

B . Sky Wave

C . Ground Wave

D . Microwave

 

Q. 2 In nuclear fission, which of the following quantity is conserved?

A. Energy

B. Mass

C. Momentum

D. Energy and Mass

 

Q. 3 When a slow neutron is captured by a ²³⁵U₉₂nucleus, a fission energy releasing 200 MeV. If power of nuclear reactor is 100W then rate of nuclear fission is

A. 3.6 x 10⁶ s⁻¹

B. 3.1 x 10¹² s⁻¹

C. 1.8 x 10⁴ s⁻¹

D. 4.1 x 10⁶ s⁻¹

 

Q. 4 A ball of mass m is tied up with string and rotated along a horizontal circle of radius r . At an instant, its velocity is v, and tension in string is T, force required for circular motion is

A. T – mv²/r

B. T + mv²/r

C. mv²/r

D. 0

 

Q. 5 If modulated index is 1/2 and power of carrier wave is 2 w. Then what will be the total power in modulated wave?

A. 0.5 W

B. 1 W

C. 0.25 W

D. 2.25 W

 

Q. 6 If velocity of particle is 3 times of that of electron and ratio of Broglie wavelength of particle to that of electron is 1.814 x 10⁻⁴. The particle will be

A. Neutron

B. Deutron

C. Alpha

D. Tritium

 

Q. 7 A dipole of dipole moment ‘p’ is placed in non-uniform electric field along with x-axis, electric field is increasing at the rate of 1 V/m then the forrce on dipole is?

A. 0

B. 2p

C. p/2

D. p

 

Q. 8 Dimentional formula of Angular momentum is

A. ML²T⁻¹

B. M²L²T⁻²

C. ML²T⁻³

D. MLT⁻¹

 

Q. 9 Relation between magnetic moment and angular velocity is

A. M ∝ w

B. M ∝ w²

C. M ∝ √w

D. None of these

 

Q. 10 In an intrinsic semi conductor band gap is 1.2 eV then the ratio of no. of charge carriers at 600k and 300k is

A. 10⁴

B. 10⁷

C. 10⁵

D. 10³

 

Q. 11 Gravitation potential of mass m at height h from surface of earth of radius r is (Take g= acceleration due to gravity of earth’s surface)

A. -g(r+h)

B. -g(r-h)

C. g(r+h)

D. g(r-h)

 

Q. 12 Which method is best to reduce eddy current?

A. Laminating Core

B. Using thick wires

C. Using Hysterisis Loss

D. None of these

 

Q. 13 In a cyclic process. work done by a system is

A. 0

B. more than heat given to system

C. equal to heat given to system

D. independent of heat given to system

 

Q. 14 In a cylinder there are 60 g Ne and 60 g O₂. If pressure of mixture of gases in cylinder is 30 bar then in this cylinder partial pressure of O₂ is (in bar)

A. 30

B. 20

C. 15

D. 12

 

Q. 15 A gas mixture containing one mole of O₂ gas and 1 mole of He gas. Find ratio of specific heat at constant pressure to that at constant volume of the gaseous mixture.

A. 2

B. 1.5

C. 2.5

D. 4

 

Q. 16 1 mole of oxygen of volume 1 litre at 4 atm pressure to attain 1 atm pressure by result of isothermal expansion. Find work done by the gas.

A. 155 J

B. 206 J

C. 355 J

D. 552 J

 

Q. 17 Graph of specific heat at constant volume for a monoatomic gas is

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 18 given that force (5i + 7j – 3k) N acts on a particle at position (i+j-k) m. Find torque of this force on this particle about origin.

A. 4i -2j +2k

B. 2i – 3j +4k

C. 5i – 2j + 3k

D. 6i – 4j +4k

 

Q. 19 Astronomical wavelength increase due to droppler effect known as

A. Red Shift

B. Violet Shift

C. UV

D. IR Shift

 

Q. 20 Long distance communication between 2 point on earth is achieved by

A. Space Wave communication

B. Sky Wave communication

C. Satellite Wave communication

D. Line of sight transmission

 

Q. 21 Which of the following is not a state function?

A. Work Done in adiabatic process

B. Work Done in isothermal process

C. Heat at constant pressure

D. Heat at constant volume

 

Q. 22 In an oscillating system, a restoring force is a must. In an LC circuit, restoring force is provided by

A. Capacitor

B. Inductance

C. Resistance

D. Both a and b

 

Q. 23 Polaroid glass is used in sun glasses because

A. It reduces the light intensity to half on account of polarisation

B. it is fasionable

C. it has good color

D. it is cheaper

 

Q. 24 Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. Neutron is less stable than proton

B. Neutron can cause fission in nuclear reactors but proton can not.

C. A free proton can emit beta particle.

D. A bound proton can emit beta particle.

 

Q. 25 Electric field at a distance r from infinity log conducting sheet is proportional to

A. 1/r

B. r^2

C. r^(3/2)

D. independent of r

 

Q. 26 Given that the mobility of electrons in Ge is 0.4 m²V⁻¹s⁻¹ and electronic charge is 1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹C. The no. of donor atom (per m³) semiconductor of conductivity 500 mho/m is

A. 8 x 10²¹

B. 8 x 10¹⁵

C. 5 x 10²¹

D. 8 x 10¹⁶

 

Q. 27 In a young’s double slit experiment the spacing between the slits is 0.3 mm and the screen is kept at a distance of 1.5 m. The second bright fringe is found 6 mm from the central fringe. The wavelength of the light used in experiment is

A. 625 nm

B. 600 nm

C. 550 nm

D. 500nm

 

Q. 28 In beta plus decay

A. antineutrino is produced with electron

B. neutrino is produced with positron

C. neutron is produced with electron

D. none of these

 

Q. 29 A simple pendulum performs SHM about x= 0 with an amplitude ‘a’ and time period ‘T’. The speed of the pendulum at x = a/2 will be

A. πa/T

B. 3πa²/T

C. πa√3/T

D. πa√3/2T

 

Q. 30 A particle s projected from ground with an initial speed of ‘v’ at angle θ with horizontal. The average velocity of the particle between its point of projection and height point of trajectory is

A. v (√1+2cos² θ) /2

B. v (√1+cos² θ) /2

C. v (√1+3cos² θ) /2

D. v cos θ

 

Q. 31 The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 x 10¹⁴ Hz and wavelength is 5000 A. The refractive index of material will be

A. 1.5

B. 3

C. 1.33

D. 1.4

 

Q. 32 2 solenoids of equal number of turns having their length and the radii in the same ratio 1: 2. The ratio of their self-inductance will be

A. 1:2

B. 2:1

C. 1:1

D. 1:4

 

Q. 33 A circuit consisting of five resistors each of resistance R, forming a Wheatstone bridge. What is equivalent resistance of circuit?

A. 2R

B. R

C. 2R/3

D. R/2

 

Q. 34 The gate is?

A. NOR

B. OR

C. AND

D. NAND

 

Q. 35 An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature of sink is reduced by 62⁰ C, its efficiency is doubled. The temperature of source will be

A. 37⁰ C

B. 62⁰ C

C. 99⁰ C

D. 124⁰ C

 

Q. 36 If vector 2i + 3j +8k is perpendicular to the vector 4i – 4j +αk, then value of α is

A. -1

B. 1/2

C. -1/2

D. 1

 

Q. 37 1 g of steam is sent to 1 g of ice. At thermal equilibrium, the resultant temperature of mixture is

A. 270 C

B. 230 C

C. 100 C

D. 120 C

 

Q. 38 Ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is

A. 7/29

B. 9/31

C. 5/27

D. 3/23

 

Q. 39 The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by Cp and Cv respectively. If γ= Cp/Cv and R is the universal gas constant, then Cv is

A. (γ-1)/R

B. γR

C. (1+γ)/(1-γ)

D. R/(γ-1)

 

Q. 40 A body of mass m is taken from the earth’s surface to the height equal o twice the radius (R) of the earth. The change in potential energy of body will be

A. 3mgR

B. 1/3 mgR

C. 2 mgR

D. 2/3 mgR

 

Questions: 41 – 60

In the following questions (41-60), a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

A: If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B: If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C: If assertion is true but reason is false.

D: If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 41 Assertion: In a communication system based on amplitude modulation the modulation index is kept < 1.

Reason: It ensures minimum distortion of signal.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 42 A: If optical density of a substance is more then the mass density of substance can be less than water.

R: Optical density and mass density are not related.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 43 A: On going away from a point charge or a small electric dipole, electric field decreases at the same rate in both the cases.

R: Electric field is inversely proportional to square of distance from the charge or on electric dipole.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 44 A: If a conductor is given charge then no excess inner charge appears.

R: Electric field inside conductor is 0.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 45 A: Water kept in an open vessel will quickly evaporate on the surface of the moon.

R: The Temperature at the surface of the moon is much higher than boiling point of water.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 46 A:Moment of inertia is always constant.

R: Angular moment is conserved that is why moment of inertia is constant.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 47 A: Magnetic lines forms closed loops in nature.

R: Mono-magnetic pole does not exist in nature.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 48 A:Gaussian surface is considered carefully.

R: The point where electric field to be calculated should be with in the surface.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 49 A: ⁶⁰CO₂₇ is a source of gamma radiation.

R: Gamma emission is due to nuclear decay.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 50 A: When light ray is incident at polarizing angle on glass, refracted light is partially polarized.

R: The intensity of light decreases in polarization

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 51 A: A laser beam of 0.2 W power can drill holes through a metal sheet, whereas a 1000 W torch-light can’t.

R: The frequency of laser light is much higher than that of torch light.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 52 A: Electromagnetic radiations exert pressure.

R: Electromagnetic- waves carry both momentum and energy.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 53 A: Electric appliances with metallic body e.g. heaters, presses etc, have three pin connections, whereas light bulb has a two pin connection.

R: Three pin connection reduce heating of connecting cables.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 54 A: Total current entering a circuit is equal to leaving the circuit by Kirchhoff’s law.

R: It is based on conservation of energy.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 55 A: The sun rises some time before the actual sun-rise.

R: Because of refraction through the different layers of atmosphere.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 56 A: Centre of mass of a system does not move under the action of internal forces.

R: Internal forces are non conservative forces.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 57 A: Total energy is negative for a bound system.

R: Potential energy of a bound system is negative and more than kinetic energy.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 58  A: A undamped spring mass system is simplest free vibration system.

R: It has 3 degrees of freedom.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 59 A: Magnetic field is useful in producing parallel beam of charged particle.

R: Magnetic field inhibits the motion of charged particle moving across it.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 60 A: Resolving power of a telescope depends only on wavelength.

R: This is proportional to square of wavelength

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 61 The plot of a concentration of reactant versus time for a reaction is a straight line with a negative slope. The reaction follows

A. First order rate equation

B. Zero order rate equation

C. Second order rate equation

D. Third order rate equation

 

Q. 62 Which of the following element has lowest melting point?

A. Cr

B. Fe

C. Ni

D. Cu

 

Q. 63 Maximum number of unpaired electrons are present in

A. Gd 3+

B. Yb 2+

C. Tb 2+

D. Pm 3+

 

Q. 64 The first ionization enthalpy of Na, Mg and Si are 496 737, 776 KJ/mol respectively. What will be the first ionization enthalpy potential of Al in KJ/ mol?

A. > 766

B. ?496 and < 737

C. >737 and <766

D. > 496

 

Q. 65 When calomel is treated with ammonium hydroxide, a black substance is formed. The black substance is

A. Hg + HgO

B. HgO.HgCl2

C. H2N-Hg-Cl +Hg

D. Hg(NH2)2 + HgO

 

Q. 66 total no. of antibonding electrons present in O2 will be

A. 6

B. 8

C. 4

D. 2

 

Q. 67 If BF3, the B- F bond length is 1.30A, when BF3 is allowed to be treated with Me3N, it forms an adduct, Me3N-BF3, the bond length of B – F in the adduct is

A. greater than 1.3 A

B. smaller than 1.3 A

C. equal to 1.3 A

D. None of these

 

Q. 68 Oxidation state of iron in haemoglobin is

A. 0

B. 2

C. -2

D. 3

 

Q. 69 Which of the following statement is not true for hydrolysis of XeF6?

A. XeOF4 is formed

B. XeO2F2

C. It is a redox reaction

D. XeO3 is formed.

 

Q. 70 Which is most basic?

A. Al(OH)3

B. Cr(OH)3

C. La(OH)3

D. Fe(OH)3

 

Q. 71 Bleaching powder does not contain

A. CaCl2

B. Ca(OH)2

C. Ca(OCl)2

D. Ca(ClO3)2

 

Q. 72 Which of the following metal ion forms unstable complex with CN?

A. Ag(I)

B. Zn(II)

C. Cu(II)

D. Cr(II)

 

Q. 73 Which of the following ion does not exist?

A. [CuI4]^2-

B. [VO4 ]^3-

C. [WO4]^2-

D. [CrO4]^2-

 

Q. 74 K2Cr2O7 in acidic medium converts into

A. Cr^2+

B. Cr^3+

C. Cr^4+

D. Cr^5+

 

Q. 75 Which of the following is not a green house gas?

A. Hydrogen

B. Carbon Dioxide

C. Methane

D. Nitrous Oxide or N2O

 

Q. 76 Major Product?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 77 Which is non reducing sugar?

A. Sucrose

B. Maltose

C. Lactose

D. Mannose

 

Q. 78 Arrange compounds in increasing order of reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reaction.

i. C6H5COCH3

ii. CH3CO-C2H5

iii. C6H5CHO

iv. Cl-CH2-CHO

A. IV>III>II>I

B. IV>II>III>I

C. I>II>III>IV

D. III>IV>II>I

 

Q. 79 Product A is?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 80 The Product ?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 81 Which of the following reaction among (1), (2), (3), (4) will not produce ethylene glycol?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 82 Salicylic acid can be easily prepared by reaction between

A. phenol and CO₂

B. benzoic acid and H₂O₂

C. benzoic diazonium chloride and CO₂

D. phenol and formic acid

 

Q. 83 Reaction of aniline with HNO₂ followed by treatment of dilute acid gives

A. C₆H₅NHOH₂

B. C₆H₅OH

C. C₆H₅NHNH₂

D. C₆H₅

 

Q. 84 Which of the following will give carbylamine test?

A. CH₃NH₂

B. CH₃NHCH₃

C. CH₃N(CH₃)CH₃

D. CH₃CONH₂

 

Q. 85 When trans-2-butene is reacted with Br₂ then product formed is (among (a), (b), (c), (d)):

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 86 Which of the following does not give nitroalkane?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 87 A compound containing two -OH groups attached with one carbon atom is unstable but which one of the following (a), (b), (c), (d) is stable?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 88 Which of the following is true for an ideal solution?

A. ΔH(mix) = 0

B. ΔS(mix) = 0

C. ΔG(mix) = 0

D. None of these

 

Q. 89 Boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When 1.8 g of non-volatile solute is dissolved in 90 g of benzene. Then boiling point is raised to 354.11 K. Given Kb (benzene) = 2.53 mol^-1. The molecular mass of non-volatile substance is

A. 58 g mol^-1

B. 120 g mol^-1

C. 116 g mol^-1

D. 60 g mol^-1

 

Q. 90 In a solid, atom M occupies ccp lattice and 1/3rd of tetrahedral voids are occupied by atom N. Find the formula of solid formed by M and N.

A. M₃N₂

B. M₂N₃

C. M₄N₃

D. M₃N₄

 

Q. 91 Hair cream is

A. gel

B. emulsion

C. solid sol

D. sol

 

Q. 92 A particle is moving 3 times faster than the speed of electron. If the ratio of wavelength of particle and electron is 1.8 x 10⁻¹, then particle is

A. Neutron

B. α – particle

C. Deuteron

D. Tritium

 

Q. 93 Electrode potential of hydrogen electrode is 18 mV, then [H⁺] is

A. 0.2

B. 1

C. 2

D. 5

 

Q. 94 What will be the solubility product of AX₃?

A. 27S⁴

B. 4S³

C. 36⁴

D. 9S³

 

Q. 95 Which thermodynamics parameter is not a state function?

A. q at constant pressure

B. q at constant volume

C. W at adiabatic

D. W at isothermal

 

Q. 96 According to Hardy schulze law, the flocculation power of an ion increases with

A. decrease in size

B. increase in size

C. decrease in charge

D. increase in charge

 

Q. 97 Strength of H₂O₂ is 15.18 g L⁻¹, then it is equal to

A. 1 volume

B. 10 volume

C. 5 volume

D. 7 volume

 

Q. 98 Enthalpy of activation of forward reaction for an endothermic process is 50 kJ. If enthalpy change for forward reaction is 20kJ then enthalpy change for backward reaction will be

A. 30 kJ

B. 20 kJ

C. 70 kJ

D. 50 kJ

 

Q. 99 What is the role of aniline or cresol when added in a froth floatation process?

A. Stabilizer

B. Depressant

C. Wetting agent

D. All of these

 

Q. 100 Non-stick cookwares generally have a coating of a polymer, whose monomer is

A. CH₂ = CH₂

B. CH₂ = CHCN

C. CH₂ = CHCl

D. CF₂ = CF₂

 

Q. 101 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Bond dissociation energy is F₂ > Cl₂

Reason: Cl₂ has more electronic repulsion than F₂

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 102 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Bond lengths of P-Cl bonds in gaseous PCl₅ and solid PCl₅ are not equal.

Reason: Because in solid state two PCl₅ molecules are associated

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 103 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: EDTA forms complex with divalent metals of 3d – series in the ratio of 1 : 1

Reason: EDTA has 4- COOH groups

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 104 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: In a mixture of Cd(II) and Cu(II), Cd²⁺ gets precipitated in presence of KCN by H₂S

Reason: The stability constant of [Cu(CN)₄]³⁻ is greater than [Cd(CN)₄]²⁻

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 105 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Aq. solution of CoCl₂ is pink in colour. It turns blue in presence of conc. HCl.

Reason: It is due the formation of [CoCl₄]²⁻

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 106 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Acetamide on reaction with KOH and Bromide gives acetic acid

Reason: Bromide catalyses hydrolysis of acetamide

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 107 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Mixture of benzaldehyde and acetaldehydde in hot alkaline medium gives cinnamaldehyde

Reason: Benzaldehyde is strong electrophile than acetaldehyde

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 108 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: cis-3-chloroprop-2-enoic-acid is less stable than its trans-form.

Reason: Dipole moment of cis-form is greater than trans-form

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 109 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Aryl sulphonic acid gives phenol on reacting with NaOH at high temperature.

Reason: This reaction is electrophilic substitution reaction.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 110 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: All enzymes are made up of proteins and all proteins have three dimensional structures.

Reason: Secondary structures or protein are sequence of amino acids.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 111 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: The presence of a large number of Schottky defects in NaCl lowers its density.

Reason: In NaCl, there are approximately 10⁶ pairs per cm³ at room temperature.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 112 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: For an isolated system, q is zero.

Reason: In an isolated system, change in U and V is zero

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 113 Assertion: At critical point the densities of substances in gaseous and liquid states are same.

Reason: Critical temperature is the temperature at which the real gas exhibit ideal behaviour for considerable range of pressure.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 114 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Entropy of system increases for a spontaneous reaction.

Reason: Enthalpy of reaction always decreases for spontaneous reaction.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 115 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Catalyst changes Gibbs free energy of system.

Reason: Catalyst changes pre-exponential factor of a chemical reaction.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 116 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: A process is called adiabatic if the system does not exchange heat with the surroundings.

Reason: It does not involve increase or decrease in temperature of the system.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 117 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Number of radial and angular nodes for 3p-orbital are 1, 1 respectively.

Reason: Number of radial and angular nodes depends only on principal quantum number.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 118 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Cu is stronger reducing agent than H₂.

Reason: E° of Cu²⁺/Cu is negative.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 119 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Magnesium is extracted by the electrolysis of fused mixture of MgCl₂, NaCl and CaCl₂.

Reason: Phosphoric acid does not contain P-H bonds.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 120 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Phosphoric acid has no reducing properties.

Reason: Phosphoric acid does not contain P-H bonds

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 121 Stinging capsules (nematocysts) are found in

A. wasp and honeybee

B. scorpion and cobra

C. sea pen and sea fan

D. cactus and Venus flytrap

 

Q. 122 Which of the following is a cloning vector?

A. DNA of Salmonella typhimurium

B. Ti plasmid

C. Amp ‘and Tet’ loci

D. Ori minus pBR322

 

Q. 123 India is one of the twelve megadiversity countries with _________________ of genetic resources of the world.

A. 12.1%

B. 18.1%

C. 38.1%

D. 8.1%

 

Q. 124 Which of the following is not an invasive species?

A. Parthenium hysterophorus

B. Nelumbo (lotus)

C. Lantana camara

D. Eichhornia crassipes

 

Q. 125 Intercalated discs are characteristic of muscles found in

A. heart

B. thigh

C. urinary bladder

D. stomach

 

Q. 126 In which of the following sets of organisms, does the external fertilisation occur?

A. Echinodermata and mosses

B. Hemichordata and ferns

C. Amphibians and algae

D. Reptiles and gymnosperms

 

Q. 127 Starting from the maximum, arrange the following male reproductive accessory organs in the correct order, based on the amount of secretion poured into urethra

(i) Prostrate gland

(ii) Seminal vesicle

(iii) Bulbourethral gland

A. (i) > (ii) > (iii)

B. (iii) > (ii) > (i)

C. (ii) > (iii) > (i)

D. (ii) > (i) . (iii)

 

Q. 128 Which of the following contraceptive devices make uretus unsuitable for implantation?

A. Progestasert

B. CuT

C. Lippe’s loop

D. Multiload

 

Q. 129 In Miller’s experiment, he used a mixture of CH₄, NH₃, H₂ and water vapour in a closed flask to mimic early earth conditions. What was kept the temperature at which this flask was kept?

A. 800°C

B. 1200°C

C. 200°C

D. 400°C

 

Q. 130 Sexual stage (gametocytes) of Plasmodium occurs in

A. Salivary glands of mosquito

B. Human RBC

C. Intestine of mosquito

D. Human liver

 

Q. 131 Occurrence of triploid (3n) primary endoderm nucleus is a characteristic feature of

A. Algae

B. Gymnosperms

C. Angiosperms

D. Bryophytes

 

Q. 132 From the following groups, select the one which has only secondary metabolites?

A. Arbrin, cellulose, arginine, tyrosine

B. Glycine, gums, serine, tyrosine

C. Carotenoids, phenylalnine, curcumin, rubber

D. Conclavein-A, morphine, codeine, vinblastin

 

Q. 133 In a diploid cell at which stage of cell cycle, the amount of DNA is doubled?

A. G₁ and G₂ phase

B. G₀ phase

C. S, G₂ and M phase

D. S phase

 

Q. 134 Sporopollenin is a constituent of pollen exine. It can be degraded by the action of

A. enzymes

B. high temperatures

C. strong acids

D. cannot be degraded

 

Q. 135 The pollen grains of rice and wheat lose their viability in ________ minutes of their release

A. 30

B. 10

C. 60

D. 90

 

Q. 136 After double fertilisation, a mature ovule has

A. 1 diploid and 1 haploid cell

B. 1 diploid and 1 triploid cell

C. 2 haploid and 1 triploid cell

D. 1 haploid and 1 triploid cell

 

Q. 137 Genetically modified (GM) crops can be produced by

A. recombinant DNA technology

B. somatic hybridisation

C. cross breeding

D. micropropagation

 

Q. 138 Which of the following is a palindromic sequence?

A. 5′- CGTATG -3′ 3′- GCATAC -5′

B. 5′- CGAATG -3′ 3′- CGAATG -5′

C. 5′- GAATTC -3′ 3′- CITAAG – 5′

D. 5′- GACTAC -3′ 3′- TACGAC -5′

 

Q. 139 C₄ plants have better productivity because

A. C₄ plants absorb more light

B. C₄ plants absorb more CO₂

C. C₄ plants does not carry photorespiration

D. C₄ plants have more amount of RuBisCO

 

Q. 140 Match the source gland with its respective hormone and function given in the figure and select the correct option among (a), (b), (c), (d):

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 141 Which off the following microbes is correctly paired with its function?

A. Aspergillus niger – Production of lactic acid

B. Trichoderma polysporum – Lowers blood cholesterol

C. Saccharomyces cerevisiae – Production of citric acid

D. Methanogenic – Gobar gas formation bacteria

 

Q. 142 Match Column – I with Column – II (Given in figure) and select the correct option from the codes given:

A. A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i)

B. A – (iv), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iii)

C. A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (iv)

D. A – (iv), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (ii)

 

Q. 143 Which of the following gastric secretions is correctly matched with its source?

A. Pepsin – Chief cells

B. Chymotrypsin – Parietal cells

C. HCl – Goblet cells

D. Mucus – Oxyntic cells

 

Q. 144 Which of the following is true for a recessive disease in family A and B (Given in figure)?

A. In family A, both the parents are homozygous recessive

B. In family B, both the parents are homozygous dominant.

C. In family B, both the parents are heterozygous recessive.

D. In family A, both the parents are heterozygous recessive.

 

Q. 145 Which of the following is true for excretion in humans?

A. Glucose ad amino acids are reabsorbed in PCT by simple diffusion.

B. DCT is impermeable to water.

C. On an average, 25-30 gm of urea is excreted out per day.

D. Maximum reabsorption occurs in the loop of Henle.

 

Q. 146 Which of the following is not true for inbreeding?

A. It causes inbreeding depression after a few generations.

B. It always increases the productivity.

C. It is used to produce a pure line.

D. It leads to homozygosity.

 

Q. 147 Which of the following is the correct floral formula (among (a), (b), (c), (d)) for the floral diagram.

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 148 Which of the following is true for the function of labelled parts in the diagram?

A. A – Blind spot – Image is formed here

B. B – Fovea – No visual activity is present

C. C – Cornea – Helps to hold lens in place

D. D – Iris – Visible coloured portion of eye

 

Q. 149 Which of the following is true for the labelled parts in the figure?

A. A – Z – line – located at centre of I – band

B. B – Thin filament – occurs in A – band only

C. C – Thick filament – confined to I – band

D. D – H – zone – located at centre of M – line

 

Q. 150 Which of the following is correctly matched without exception in regard to plant classification?

A. Family – Poaceae – ae

B. Division – Pteridophyta – phyta

C. Class – Bryosida – sida

D. Genus – Solanum – um

 

Q. 151 What is the oxidation state of iron in haemoglobin ?

A. Fe⁻

B. Fe²⁺

C. Fe³⁺

D. Fe⁴⁺

 

Q. 152 In the table given in the figure, some organisms are classified into categories. However, there is one exception. Select the option with correctly mentioned exceptional organism.

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 153 Select the correct pair amongst the following:

A. Spring wood – light colour, high density

B. Spring wood – dark colour, low density

C. Autumn wood – light colour, high density

D. Autumn wood – dark colour, high density

 

Q. 154 Which of the following organelles contains DNA?

(i) Mitochondria

(ii) Chloroplast

(iii) Chloroplasts

(iv) Golgi bodies

(v) Ribosomes

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (ii) and (iii)

C. (i) only

D. (iv) only

 

Q. 155 Carbon dioxide (CO₂) diffuses into blood from tissue site and passes to alveolar site in the form of

A. bicarbonates; 70%

B. bicarbonate; 20 – 25%

C. carbaminohaemiglobin; 60 – 70%

D. carbaminohaemoglobin; 7%

 

Q. 156 Select the option having all the correct characteristic among (a), (b), (c), (d):

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 157 Chromatin is made up of:

A. DNA and protein

B. DNA and histone

C. DNA, RNA, protein

D. RNA, histone and oil bodies

 

Q. 158 A large quantity of urban sewage is drained to nearby village river. Which among the given conditions would happen after mixing of sewage into the river?

(i) Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of receiving water body increases.

(ii) Dissolved oxygen of receiving water body decreases.

(iii) It will not cause mortality among fishes and other aquatic creatures.

(iv) It will lead to nutrient enrichment of receiving water body.

A. (i), (ii) and (iii)

B. (i), (ii) and (iv)

C. (ii) and (iii)

D. (iii) and (iv)

 

Q. 159 Which of the following plant growth regulators (PGRs) promotes root initiation, flowering and induced parthenocarpy?

A. Gibberellin

B. Auxin

C. Cytokinin

D. Ethylene

 

Q. 160 Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Nitrogen oxides

C. Peroxyacyl nitrates

D. All of these

 

Q. 161 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: A mutual exchange of sperms occur between two earthworms during mating.

Reason: Mature sperms and egg cells and nutritive fluid are deposited in cocoons produced by gland cells of clitellum.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 162 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: On plotting the length of the root against time, a linear curve is obtained.

Reason: An elongation root exemplifies arithmetic progression.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 163 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Small intestine is the principal organ for absorption of nutrients.

Reason: Absorption of water, simple sugars and alcohol etc takes place in small intestine.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 164 Assertion: On touching radial artery in our wrist, we feel pulse waves.

Reason: The heart beats originate from the sinoatrial node (SA node) on the right atrium.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 165 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: In a regular medical examination of a small population, a 35 years old lady was found to have higher levels of oestrogens, progesterone in her blood.

Reason: The lady is 12 weeks pregnant.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 166 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: While working on Staphylococci, Alexander Fleming observed that Penicillium notatum inhibits the growth of the bacteria.

Reason: This inhibiting chemical was commercially extracted and its full potential was established by Alexander Fleming.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 167 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Saccharomyces cerevisiae produces acetic acid.

Reason: Trichoderma polysporum produces blood cholestrol lowering agent.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 168 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Protostele is the simplest stele.

Reason: Protostele is the most advanced type of stele.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 169 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Rice field is an ecosystem for plants and animals.

Reason: Gut of human/animals is an ecosystem for flora and fauna.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 170 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own genome.

Reason: Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi body are the cell org

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 171 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Now-a-days, the biodiversity is declining with an accelerated rate.

Reason: Exotic’s species are confused to be a major cause of extinction of species.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 172 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Meiosis II is similar to mitosis.

Reason: Meiosis I cannot occur in haploid cells.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 173 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Periodic abstinence is a natural method where couples abstain from coitus.

Reason: Coitus from day 5-10 should be avoided because this is the time of ovulation.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 174 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Corpus callosum connects the two cerebral hemispheres.

Reason: Association areas are responsible for complex functions like intersensory

association of memory and communication

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 175 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Only a boy child could be born with a substituon of glutamic acid by valine on 6th codon of beta-chain of haemoglobin.

Reason: The gene for the above mutation is found on Y-chromosome .

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 176 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: The efficiency of C₄ plant is more than those of C₃ plant

Reason: C₄ plants are more efficient in picking CO₂

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 177 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Cattles feed on leaves of maize to get nutrition for growth and development.

Reason: A number of symbiotic bacteria are present in rumen of cattle

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 178 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: All proteinecous enzymes have a three-dimensional structures.

Reason: The secondary structure of protein is according to amino acid present inside the polypeptides.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 179 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Glutamine contains amide group.

Reason: Isoelectric point of glutamine is 7.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 180 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Duodenum is the main organ of small intestine.

Reason: In duodenum, digestion and absorption mainly occurs.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 181 From whom does the Indian government take advice on legal issues?

A. Chief Justice of Court apex

B. Solicitor General

C. Chairman of Planning Commission

D. Attorney General

 

Q. 182 The Vice President of India is the Chairman of

A. Lok Sabha

B. Rajya Sabha

C. Vidhan Sabha

D. Legislative Assembly

 

Q. 183 Which of the following players won Miami Men’s Double Tennis – 2012 title?

A. Daniel Nestor and Radek Stepanek

B. Radek Stepanek and Leander Paes

C. Daniel Nestor and Max Mirnyi

D. Rohan Bopanna and Mahesh Bhupathi

 

Q. 184 Which ancient Indian sage authored ‘Yog Sutra’?

A. Patanjali

B. Kapil Muni

C. Saatchi Dananda

D. Gautam

 

Q. 185 Which Indian Mathematician first time in the world used zero as a number and showed its mathematical operation?

A. Aryabhatt

B. Ramanuja

C. Bhaskaracharya

D. Brahmagupta

 

Q. 186 Which Indian freedom fighter was popularly called ‘Mahamana’?

A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

B. Madan Mohan Malviya

C. Jawahar lal Nehru

D. Mahatma Gandhi

 

Q. 187 The book “Big Egos, Small Men” is written by

A. Mani Shankar Aiyr

B. Kapil Sibal

C. Ram Jethmalani

D. Soli Sorabjee

 

Q. 188 Which is the largest buddhist monastery in India?

A. Rumtek Monastery, Sikkim

B. Tawang Monastery, Arunachal Pradesh

C. Thisksey Monastery, Jammu and Kashmir

D. Ghoom Monastery, West Bengal

 

Q. 189 ‘Van Mahotsav Day’ is observed on

A. 1st December

B. 1st July

C. 23rd February

D. 14th March

 

Q. 190 The famous Kashi Vishwanath temple at Varanasi is dedicated to which Hindu god?

A. Lord Shiva

B. Lord Vishnu

C. Lord Brahma

D. Lord Krishna

 

Q. 191 Which Indian State celebrated its 77the foundation day on 1st April, 2013?

A. Gujarat

B. Odisha

C. Rajasthan

D. Tamil Nadu

 

Q. 192 According to Mahabharat who constructed the unparalled palace of the Pandavas?

A. Vishwakarma

B. Krishna

C. Indra

D. Manya Danava

 

Q. 193 Where was first share market of India established?

A. Mumbai

B. Kolkata

C. Delhi

D. Chennai

 

Q. 194 Garampani Sanctuary is located at

A. Diphu, Assam

B. Junagarh, Gujrat

C. Kohima, Nagaland

D. Gangtok, Sikkim

 

Q. 195 Maximum sugarcane production occurs in which country?

A. India

B. China

C. Brazil

D. Indonesia

 

Q. 196 Which of the following is not a green house gas?

A. Carbon dioxide (CO₂)

B. Nitrous oxide (N₂O)

C. Methane (CH₄)

D. Hydrogen (H₂)

 

Q. 197 Which first woman singer got the Bharat Ratna award and is also known as nightinagle of carnatic music?

A. M. S. Subbulaxmi

B. Shubha Mudgal

C. N. Rajam

D. Vasundhara Devi

 

Q. 198 For seeing objects on the surface of water from submarine, the instrument used is

A. kaleidoscope

B. periscope

C. telescope

D. spetroscope

 

Q. 199 Under the tenure of which Prime Minister did Indo-Pak war (1965) take place which ended with Tashkent Treaty?

A. Lal Bahadur Shastri

B. Jawaharlal Nehu

C. Gulzarilal Nanda

D. Morarji Desai

 

Q. 200 A famous writer who travelled to India with Mahmood Ghazni and wrote a book “Tareekhal- Hind”.

A. Abdul Hai Lakhnawi

B. Al- Biruni

C. Riyad-us-Saliheen

D. Ibn Kathir

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer A D B C D A D A A C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer B A C D B D C A A B
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer D B A C D A B B C C
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B A B A C B C C D D
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A A D B C D C A C D
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer C B C A A D A C A D
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer B D A C C A A B C C
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer D A A B A A A A D B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C A B A D A C A A A
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B A C A D D C A A D
Question 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer D A B A A D A B C D
Question 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer B B C A D C C D C A
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer C D D B A C D A A B
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer C D D D A B A C C C
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer D A A D C B C D A A
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer B C D A A B C B B C
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer B A C B A C D C B C
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer B B C B D A A B C D
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer D B B B D B C B B A
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer B D A A C D A B A B

 

AIIMS UG 2012 Previous Year Paper

AIIMS UG 2012

Section

Questions

Marks

Physics

60 Questions (1 – 60)

60

Chemistry

60 Questions (61 – 120)

60

Biology

60 Questions (121 – 180)

60

General Knowledge

20 Questions (181 – 200)

20

 

Q : 1 Which of the following current must be zero in an unbiased ON junction diode ?

A. Current due to majority charge carriers (both electrons and holes)

B. Current due to minority charge carriers (both electrons and holes)

C. Current due to majority and minority charge carriers

D. Current due to majority and minority charge carriers (only holes)

 

Q. 2 In an AC circuit, voltage V = V₀sinωt and inductor L is connected across the circuit. Then the instantaneous power will be

A. (V₀²/2ωL)sinωt

B. (-V₀²/2ωL)sinωt

C. (V₀²/2ωL)sin2ωt

D. (V₀²/ωL)sin2ωt

 

Q. 3 Two sinusoidal waves of intensity I having same frequency and same amplitude interferes constructively at a point. The resultant intensity at a point will be

A. l

B. 2l

C. 4l

D. 8l

 

Q. 4 In a convex lens of focal length F, the minimum distance between an object and its real image must be

A. 3F

B. 4F

C. 3/2F

D. 2F

 

Q. 5 In Young’s double slit experiment, fringe order is represented by m, then fringe width is

A. Independent of m

B. Directly proportional to m

C. Directly proportional to (2m + 1)

D. Inversely proportional to (2m + 1)

 

Q. 6 Half life of a radio-active element is 8 years, how much amount will be present after 32 years?

A. 1/4

B. 1/8

C. 1/16

D. 1/32

 

Q. 7 In the circuit given in figure, the voltage across the load is maintained at 12 V. The current in the zener diode varies from 0.50 mA. What is the maximum wattage of the diode?

A. 12 W

B. 6 W

C. 0.6 W

D. 1.2 W

 

Q. 8 A photon is incident having frequency 1 x 10¹⁴ sec⁻¹. Threshold frequency of metal is 5 x 10¹³sec⁻¹. Find the kinetic energy of the ejected electron.

A. 3.3 x 10⁻²¹ J

B. 6.6 x 10⁻²¹ J

C. 3.3 x 10⁻²⁰ J

D. 6.6 x 10⁻²⁰ J

 

Q. 9 In a given series LCR circuit R = 4Ω, XL = 5Ω and XC = 8Ω, the current

A. Leads the voltage by tan⁻¹(3/4)

B. Leads the voltage by tan⁻¹(5/8)

C. Lags the voltage by tan⁻¹(3/4)

D. Lags the voltage by tan⁻¹(5/8)

 

Q. 10 A wire of mass 100 g, length 1m and current 5A in balanced in mid air by a magnetic field B, then find the value of B.

A. 0.2 T

B. 0.1 T

C. 0.5 T

D. 0.6 T

 

Q. 11 Dimensional formula of ΔQ, heat supplied to the system is given by

A. [M¹L²T⁻²]

B. [M¹L¹T⁻²]

C. [M¹L²T⁻¹]

D. [ML¹T⁻¹]

 

Q. 12 A toroid with mean radius rₒ diameter 2a have N turns carrying I. What is the magnetic field B inside the toroid?

A. NI/2πrₒ

B. NI/2π(rₒ + a)

C. NI/π(rₒ + a)

D. Zero

 

Q. 13 Identify incorrect for electric charge q

A. quantised

B. conversed

C. additive

D. non-transferable

 

Q. 14 Which of the following parameter in the series LCR circuit is analogous to driving force F(t) in mechanics?

A. Vₒ/L

B. inductance L

C. capacitance C

D. voltage Vₒ

 

Q. 15 The minimum magnetic dipole moment electron in hydrogen atom is

A. eh/2πm

B. eh/4πm

C. eh/πm

D. 0

 

Q. 16 A 4 kg roller is attached to a massless spring of spring constant k = 100 N/m. It rolls without slipping along a frictionless horizontal road. The roller is displaced from its equilibrium position by 10 cm and then released. Its maximum speed will be

A. 0.5 m s⁻¹

B. 0.6 m s⁻¹

C. 0.4 m s⁻¹

D. 0.8 m s⁻¹

 

Q. 17 Total energy of the electron in hydrogen atom above 0 eV leads to

A. continuation of energy states

B. large number of discrete ionised states

C. balmar series

D. paschen series

 

Q. 18 Two wires carrying

A. Parallel current repel each other

B. Antiparallel current attract each other

C. Antiparallel current repel each other

D. Equal magnitudes of antiparallel current attract each other

 

Q. 19 A particle is thrown vertically upwards with velocity 11.2 s⁻¹ from the surface of earth. Calculate its velocity at height 3R. Where R is the radius of earth.

A. ≈ 9.25 km s⁻¹

B. ≈ 5.6 km s⁻¹

C. ≈ 11.2 km s⁻¹

D. ≈ 4.3 km s⁻¹

 

Q. 20 Gamma decay takes place

A. Prior to alpha decay

B. Prior to beta decay

C. Prior to positron decay

D. Due to de-excitement of nuclear levels

 

Q. 21 Calculate the kinetic energy of the electron having wavelength 1 nm.

A. 2.1 eV

B. 3.1 eV

C. 1.5 eV

D. 4.2 eV

 

Q. 22 A spherical body of diameter D is falling in viscous medium. Its terminal velocity is

proportional to

A. V₁ ∝ D^1/2

B. V₁ ∝ D^3/2

C. V₁ ∝ D^2

D. V₁ ∝ D^5/2

 

Q. 23 Electric field outside a long wire carrying charge q is proportional to

A. 1/r

B. 1/r^2

C. 1/r^3/5

D. 1/r^3/2

 

Q. 24 If 2 kg mass is rotating on a circular path of radius 0.8 m with angular velocity of 44 rad/sec. If radius of the path becomes 1 m, then what will be the value of angular velocity?

A. 28.16 rad/sec

B. 19.28 rad/sec

C. 8.12 rad/sec

D. 35.26 rad/sec

 

Q. 25 A light ray is incident on a glass slab, it is partially reflected and partially transmitted. Then the reflected ray is

A. completely polarised and highly intense

B. partially polarised and poorly intense

C. partially polarised and highly intense

D. completely polarised and poorly intense

 

Q. 26 An electron projected with velocity v⃗ = v₀î in the electric field E⃗ = E₀ĵ. Trace the path followed by the E₀

A. Parabola

B. Circle

C. Straight line in +y direction

D. Straight line in -y direction

 

Q. 27 Find out the correct relation for the dependance of change in acceleration due to gravity on the angle at the latitude, due to rotation of earth

A. dg ∝ cosø

B. dg ∝ cos²ø

C. dg ∝ cos^3/2ø

D. dg ∝ 1/cosø

 

Q. 28 Two conductors having same width and length, thickness d₁ and d₂, thermal conductivity K₁ and K₂ are placed one above the another. Find the equivalent thermal conductivity.

A. (d₁ + d₂)(K₁d₂ + K₂d₁)/2(K₁ + K₂)

B. (d₁ – d₂)(K₁d₂ + K₂d₁)/2(K₁ – K₂)

C. (k₁d₁ + k₂d₂)/(d₁ + d₂)

D. (K₁ + K₂)/(d₁ + d₂)

 

Q. 29 Calculate I for the given circuit diagram.

A. 10 A

B. 5 A

C. 2.5 A

D. 20 A

 

Q. 30 A solid cylinder, a circular disc, a solid sphere and a hollow cylinder of the same radius are placed on an inclined plane. Which of the following will have maximum acceleration at the bottom of the plane?

A. Circular disc

B. Solid cylinder

C. Solid sphere

D. Hollow cylinder

 

Q. 31 Calculate the heat emitted by a bulb of 100 W in 1 min.

A. 100 J

B. 1000 J

C. 600 J

D. 6000 J

 

Q. 32 Degree of freedom for polyatomic gas

A. ≥ 4

B. ≥ 5

C. ≥ 6

D. ≥ 7

 

Q. 33 A particle moving about its equilibrium position with equation y = -ax – bt. Interpret the condition.

A. It will always perform the SHM.

B. It can never perform the SHM.

C. It can perform SHM only when t ≥ bx/a

D. It can perform SHM only when t ≤ bx/a

 

Q. 34 Conversion of water to steam is accompanied by which process?

A. Adiabatic

B. Isothermal

C. Isochoric

D. Cyclic

 

Q. 35 An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A → B → C → A, as shown in figure. If the net heat supplied to the gas in the cycle is 5 J the work done by the gas in the process A → B is

A. 2 J

B. 3 J

C. 4 J

D. 5 J

 

Q. 36 What is the slope for an isothermal process?

A. P/V

B. -P/V

C. Zero

D. ∞

 

Q. 37 The frequency order for X-rays (A), γ-rays (B), UV rays (C) is

A. B > A > C

B. A > B > C

C. C > B > A

D. A > C > B

 

Q. 38 For a common-emitter transistor, input current is 5 μA, β = 100 circuit is operated at load resistance of 10 kΩ, then voltage across collector emitter will be

A. 5 V

B. 10 V

C. 12.5 V

D. 7.5 V

 

Q. 39 Find the voltage drop across a capacitor connected with a resistance and a battery of 60 V in series after a long time

A. 0 V

B. 60 V

C. 30 V

D. 38 V

 

Q. 40 the nucleus ⁱ ₐX emits one α particle and one 2β particle. The resulting nucleus is

A. ⁱ⁻⁴ₐ₋₂ Y

B. ⁱ⁻⁶ₐ₋₄ Z

C. ⁱ⁻⁶ₐ Z

D. ⁱ⁻⁴ₐ X

 

Q. 41 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Maximum air flow due to convection does not occur at the north pole but it

occurs 30°N.

Reason: There is maximum temperature difference between equator and 3.

A. 0°N If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 42 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: A thick lens shows more chromatic aberration.

Reason: Thick lens behave as many thin lenses.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 43 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Surface energy of an oil drop is same whether placed on glass or water surface.

Reason: Surface energy is dependent only on the properties of oil.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 44 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Magnetic force is always perpendicular to the magnetic field.

Reason: Electric force is along the direction of electric field.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 45 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Animate object can accelerate in the absence of external force.

Reason: Newton’s second law is not applicable on animate object.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 46 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: A planar circular loop of area A and carrying current I is equivalent to magnetic dipole of dipole moment M = IA.

Reason: At large distances, magnetic field of circular loop and magnetic dipole is same.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 47 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: In elastic collision, kinetic energy is conserved.

Reason: Energy is always conserved.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 48 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Bohr’s atomic model cannot be used to explain multiple electron species. Reason: It does not take inter-electronic interactions in account.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 49 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: The focal length of objective lens in telescope is much more than that of eye piece.

Reason: Telescope has high resolving power due to large focal length.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 50 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Total energy of electron is an hydrogen atom is negative.

Reason: It is bounded to the nucleus.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 51 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Vibrational energy of diatomic molecule corresponding to each degree of freedom is kBT.

Reason: For every molecule, vibrational degree of freedom is 2.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 52 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: A superconductor is a perfect diamagnetic substance.

Reason: A superconductor is a perfect conductor.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 53 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: An electrostatic field line never form closed loop.

Reason: Electrostatic field is a conservative field.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 54 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: A charged particle can be accelerated in a cyclotron by the alternate distribution of the field.

Reason: Energy of charged particle is increased by the field applied.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 55 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: At rest, radium is decayed into Radon and an α-particle. They both moves back to back of each other.

Reason: Splitting of radioactive particle is based on conservation of linear momentum.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 56 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: In electromagnetic waves electric field and magnetic field lines are perpendicular to each other.

Reason: Electric field and magnetic field are self sustaining.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 57 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Gauss’s law shows diversion when inverse square law is not obeyed.

Reason: Gauss’s law is a consequence of conservation of charges.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 58 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: More energy is released in fusion than fission.

Reason: More number of nucleolus take part in fission.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 59 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: γ-radiation emission occurs after α and β decay.

Reason: Energy levels occur in nucleus.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 60 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Turbulence is always dissipative.

Reason: High reynold number promotes turbulence.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 61 Threshold frequency of a metal is 5 x 10¹³ s⁻¹ upon which 1 x 10¹⁴ s ⁻¹ frequency light is focused. Then the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron is

A. 3.3 x 10⁻²¹

B. 3.3 x 10⁻²⁰

C. 6.6 x 10⁻²¹

D. 6.6 x 10⁻²⁰

 

Q. 62 Which is the major product formed among (a), (b), (c), (d) when C₆H₅CONHC₆H₅ undergoes nitration?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 63 How many P = O bond present in (HPO₃)₃?

A. 0

B. 3

C. 6

D. 9

 

Q. 64 At equilibrium which is correct?

A. ΔG = 0

B. ΔS = 0

C. ΔH = 0

D. ΔG° = 0

 

Q. 65 If phthalic acid is treated with NH₃ and then it is first heated weakly then strongly, the final product formed among (A), (B), (C), (D) is

A. (A)

B. (B)

C. (C)

D. (D)

 

Q. 66 In bcc structure contribution of corner and central atom is

A. 1/8, 1

B. 1/4, 1/8

C. 1/8, 1/2

D. 1, 1/2

 

Q. 67 Arrange the following gases in order of their critical temperature

NH₃, H₂O, CO₂, O₂

A. NH₃ > H₂O > CO₂ > O₂

B. O₂ > CO₂ > H₂O > NH₃

C. H₂O > NH₃ > CO₂ > O₂

D. CO₂ > O₂ > H₂O > NH₃

 

Q. 68 Bond dissociation energy of CH₄ is 360 kJ/mol and C₂H₆ is 620 kJ/mol. Then bond

dissociation energy of C-C bond is

A. 170 kJ/mol

B. 50 kJ/mol

C. 80 kJ/mol

D. 220 kJ/mol

 

Q. 69 For silicon which is not correct?

A. It is a type of silicate

B. It is thermally unstable

C. It is hydrophilic

D. Repeating unit is R₂SiO

 

Q. 70 In Bohr’s orbit, nh/2π indicates

A. Momentum

B. Kinetic energy

C. Potential energy

D. Angular momentum

 

Q. 71 Which id not stable under ambient condition?

A. TiO₂, Ti⁺⁴

B. VO, V⁺⁴

C. VO₂, V⁺⁵

D. Cu₂O, Cu⁺²

 

Q. 72 For a reaction, r = k(CH₃COCH₃)^3/2 then unit of rate of reaction and rate constant

respectively is

A. mol L^-1 s^-1, mol^-1/2 L^1/2 s^-1

B. mol^-1 L^-1 s^-1, mol^-1/2 L^1/2 s^-1

C. mol L^-1 s^-1, mol^+1/2 L^1/2 s^-1

D. mol L s, mol^+1/2 L^1/2 s

 

Q. 73 Which of the following is the correct statement for PH₃?

A. It is less poisonous than NH₃

B. It is less basic than NH₃

C. Electronegativity of PH₃ > NH₃

D. It does not show reducing properties

 

Q. 74 If Si is doped with B,

A. n-type semiconductor is formed

B. p-type semiconductor is formed

C. insulator is formed

D. polymer is formed

 

Q. 75 Which has the highest pH?

A. CH₃COOK

B. Na₂CO₃

C. NH₄Cl

D. NaNO₃

 

Q. 76 Living in the atmosphere of CO is dangerous, because it

A. combines with O₂ present inside to form CO₂

B. reduces organic matter of tissues

C. combines with haemoglobin and makes it incapable to absorb tissues

D. dries up the blood

 

Q. 77 In a set of reactions given in figure, acetic acid yielded a product S. The structure of S among (a), (b), (c), (d) would be

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 78 Which of the following is a chiral compound?

A. Hexane

B. n-Butane

C. Methane

D. 2,3,4-Trimethylhexane

 

Q. 79 For Zn²⁺ | Zn, E° = -0.76 V then EMF of the cell Zn | Zn²⁺ (1M) | 2H⁺ (1M) | H₂ (1 atm) will be

A. -0.76 V

B. 0.76 V

C. 0.38 V

D. -0.38 V

 

Q. 80 Kp/Kc for the following reaction will be

CO(g) + 1/2O₂(g) → CO₂(g)

A. RT

B. 1/RT

C. 1/√RT

D. RT/2

 

Q. 81 If t1/2 vs 1/a² is a straight line graph then determine the order of reaction

A. zero order

B. first order

C. second order

D. third order

 

Q. 82 CsCl has bcc arrangement. Its unit cell edge length is 400 pm. Its inter-ionic distance is

A. 400 pm

B. 800 pm

C. √3 x 100 pm

D. √3/2 x 400 pm

 

Q. 83 A colloidal solution is kept in dark and is illuminated by a beam of light then brightness appears at the right angle of direction of light. This effect is called

A. Tyndall effect

B. Brownian effect

C. Hardy-Schulze effect

D. None of these

 

Q. 84 Mno₃ in an acidic medium dissociates into

A. MnO₂ and MnO₄⁻

B. MnO and MnO₄⁻

C. MnO₂ and MnO

D. MnO₂ and MnO₃

 

Q. 85 Magnetic moment of Cr²⁺ is nearest to

A. Fe²⁺

B. Mn²⁺

C. Co²⁺

D. Ni²⁺

 

Q. 86 Which of the following compounds are optically active among (1), (2), (3), (4)?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 1 and 4

 

Q. 87 Which will not form precipitation after addition of (NH₄)₂CO₃ in presence of NH₄Cl?

A. Mg

B. Ba

C. Sn

D. Sr

 

Q. 88 Difference in atomic radius is maximum for

A. Rb-Cs

B. K-Rb

C. Na-K

D. Li-Na

 

Q. 89 The dipole moment is minimum in

A. NH₃

B. NF₃

C. SO₂

D. BF₃

 

Q. 90 Number of isomers of C₅H₆

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

 

Q. 91 At 60° and 1 atm, N₂O₄ is 50% dissociated into NO₂ then Kp is

A. 1.33 atm

B. 2 atm

C. 2.67 atm

D. 3 atm

 

Q. 92 pKₐ increases in benzoic acid when substituent “x” is bonded at para-position, then “x” is

A. -COOH

B. -NO₂

C. -CN

D. -OCH₃

 

Q. 93 S₂O₈²⁻ have

A. S-S bond

B. S-O bridge

C. O-O bridge

D. All S-O bond lengths are same

 

Q. 94 N-N bond length is minimum in

A. N₂O

B. N₂O₃

C. N₂O₄

D. N₂O₅

 

Q. 95 Which is correct example of condensation polymer?

A. Nylon, Buna-S

B. Teflon, Buna-N

C. Nylon 6,6, Dacron

D. Neoprene, Buna-S

 

Q. 96 The product formed among (a), (b), (c), (d) in the reaction given in the figure is:

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 97 What will be the product (P) of the reaction given in the figure

A. C₆H₅NH₂

B. C₆H₅NHOH

C. C₆H₅-N=O

D. C₆H₆

 

Q. 98 Which is correct order of solubility in water?

A. Ba(OH)₂ < Mg(OH)₂

B. BaCO₃ > CaCO₃

C. CaSO₄ < MgSO₄

D. Ca(OH)₂ ≈ Mg(OH)₂

 

Q. 99 The final product (U) of the reaction given in the figure is

A. C₆H₅CH₂CH₂NH₂

B. C₆H₅CH₂CONH₂

C. C₆H₅CH₂NH₂

D. C₆H₅CH₂NHCH₃


Q. 100 An aromatic compound C₇H₆Cl₂ (A), gives AgCl on boiling with alcoholic AgNO₂ solution yields C₇H₇OCl on treatment with Sodium hydroxide. (A) on oxidation gives monochlorobenzoic acid. The compound (A) is among (a), (b), (c), (d):

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 101 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Rate of reaction doubles when concentration of reactant is doubled if it is a first order reaction.

Reason: Rate constant also doubles

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 102 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Sodium acetate on Kolbe’s electrolysis gives methane.

Reason: Methyl free radical is formed at cathode.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 103 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: H₃PO₂ has strong reducing property but H₃PO₄ does not.

Reason: P-OH bond present in H₃PO₄

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 104 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Diamond and graphite do not have the same crystal structure.

Reason: Diamond is crystalline while graphite is amorphous

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 105 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Bohr model fails in case of multielectron species.

Reason: It does not mention electron-electron interactions

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 106 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: 1,2-dichloroethane is optically active.

Reason: Meso compound is optically active.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 107 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: CIF₃ has T-shaped structure.

Reason: It has two lone pairs arranged at 180° angle.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 108 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: O₂ is paramagnetic

Reason: It has one unpaired electron.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 109 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution reaction.

Reason: In the case of phenol, the intermediate carbocation is more resonance stabilised.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 110 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: H₂Se is less acidic than H₂S

Reason: S is less electronegative than Se

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 111 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Flourine is a stronger oxidizing agent than iodine.

Reason: Flourine has greater electronegativity than iodine.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 112 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Ce⁴⁺ is used as an oxidising agent in volumetric analysis

Reason: Ce⁴⁺ has the tendency of attaining +3 oxidation state

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 113 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: The spectrum of He⁺ is expected to be similar to that of hydrogen.

Reason: He⁺ is also one electron system

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 114 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Cl₂ gas bleaches the articles permanently.

Reason: Cl₂ is a strong reducing agent

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 115 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: La(OH)₃ is more basic than Lu(OH)₃.

Reason: Size of Lu³⁺ increases and shows more covalent character.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 116 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: F-ion is a weak ligand and forms outer orbital complex.

Reason: F-ion cannot force the electrons of dz² and dx² – y² orbitals of the inner shell to

occupy dxy, dyz and dzx orbitals of the same shell.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 117 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: [Fe(H₂O)₅NO]SO₄ is paramagnetic

Reason: The Fe in [Fe(H₂O)₅NO]SO₄ has three unpaired electrons.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 118 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: The solubility of a gas in a liquid increases with increase of pressure.

Reason: The solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 119 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion : HC≡C⁻ is more stable than H₂C=CH⁻

Reason : HC≡C⁻ is more s character than H₂C=CH⁻

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 120 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: In a pressure cooker, the water is brought to boil. The cooker is then removed

from the stove. Now on removing the lid of pressure cooker, the water starts boiling again.

Reason: The impurities in water bring down its boiling point.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 121 Which of the following is correct regarding respiration in adult frog?

A. In water – Skin, gills

B. On land – Skin, buccal cavity

C. In water – Skin, buccal cavity

D. On land – Skin, lungs, gills

 

Q. 122 Which of the following is correctly matched?

A. Monstera – Fibrous root

B. Dahlia – Fasciculated roots

C. Azadirachta – Adventitious root

D. Basil – Prop roots

 

Q. 123 The ‘cells of Rauber’ are

A. secretory cells of endometrium in uterus

B. inner cell mass of blastocoel

C. outer cells of trophoblast in contact with uterine wall

D. cells of trophoblast, in contact with inner cell mass of blastocyst.

 

Q. 124 Which is correctly labelled with respect to the given diagram?

A. B: Logistic curve

B. C: Carrying capacity

C. C: Exponential curve

D. A: Carrying capacity

 

Q. 125 Deuteromycetes are known as fungi imperfecti because

A. their zygote undergoes meroblastic and holoblastic cleavage

B. only asexual stages are known

C. they have aseptate mycelium

D. they are autotrophic

 

Q. 126 Abscisic acid is known as the stress hormone because it

A. Breaks seed dormancy

B. Induces flowering

C. Promotes leaf fall

D. Promotes closure of stomata

 

Q. 127 Choose the correct statement.

A. hPl plays a major role in parturition

B. Foetus shows movements first time in the 7th month of pregnancy

C. Signal for parturition comes from fully developed foetus and placenta

D. Embryo’s heart is formed by the 2nd month of pregnancy

 

Q. 128 One of the world’s most poisonous fish toxins is released by

A. clown fish

B. sword fish

C. eel fish

D. puffer fish

 

Q. 129 Na⁺/K⁺ pump is associated with

A. passive transport

B. active transport

C. osmosis

D. imbibition

 

Q. 130 Which one has the largest species variety in India?

A. Wheat

B. Maize

C. Rice

D. Potato

 

Q. 131 Photorespiration shows formation of

A. sugar but not ATP

B. ATP but not sugar

C. both ATP and sugar

D. Neither ATP nor sugar

 

Q. 132 The microscope usually used for seeing living cells or tissues is

A. compound microscope

B. electron microscope

C. phase contrast microscope

D. light microscope

 

Q. 133 Which of the following in the diagram is correctly labelled?

A. A: Reissner’s membrane

B. B: Scala vestibuli

C. C: Basilar membrane

D. D: Tectorial membrane

 

Q. 134 In aerobic respiration, total number of ATP molecules formed from 1 glucose molecule is

A. 28

B. 32

C. 36

D. 30

 

Q. 135 Which of the following cartoon characters does not shares its name with that of a gene?

A. Tintin

B. Popeye

C. Asterix

D. Obelix

 

Q. 136 Apiculture is associated with which of the following groups of plants?

A. Grapes, maize, potato

B. Sugarcane, paddy, banana

C. Guava, sunflower, strawberry

D. Pineapple, sugarcane, strawberry

 

Q. 137 Which of the following is correctly labelled for the given figure?

A. A: PS II; B: PS I; C: e⁻ acceptor; D: LHC

B. A: LHC; B: e⁻ acceptor; C: PS I; D: PS II

C. A: PS I; B: PS II; C: e⁻ acceptor; D: LHC

D. A: e⁻ acceptor; B: LHC; C: PS II; D: PS I

 

Q. 138 During muscular contraction, which of the following events occur?

(i) H-zone disappears

(ii) A band widens

(iii) I band reduces in width

(iv) Width of A band is unaffected

(v) M line and Z line come closer

A. (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)

B. (i), (ii) and (v)

C. (ii), (iv) and (v)

D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

 

Q. 139 The release of chemical messenger from synaptic vesicles is under the influence of these ion(s).

A. Cl⁻

B. Fe⁺⁺ and S⁺⁺

C. Ca⁺⁺

D. Mg⁺⁺ and Sr⁺⁺

 

Q. 140 Cattle ranches are known to causes acute green house effect. This is due to

A. mechanizes milking practices

B. methanogenic bacteria in rumen

C. decomposition of left over fodder

D. decomposition of organic remains in faeces

 

Q. 141 Kranz anatomy is usually associated with

A. C₃ plants

B. C₄ plants

C. CAM plants

D. C₃-C₄ intermediate plants.

 

Q. 142 Microtubule depolymerizing drug such as colchicine is expected to

A. inhibit spindle formation during mitosis

B. inhibit cytokinesis

C. allow mitosis beyond metaphase

D. induce formation of multiple contractile rings

 

Q. 143 Catecholamine in a normal person induces

A. intense salivation

B. alertness

C. decrease in heart beat

D. excessive urination

 

Q. 144 Select the option among (a), (b), (c), (d) having all the correct characteristics.

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 145 Plants with inferior ovary usually bear

A. pseudocarps

B. berries

C. aggregate fruits

D. seedless fruits

 

Q. 146 Oxygen binding to haemoglobin in blood is

A. directly proportional to the concentration of CO₂ in the medium

B. inversely proportional to the concentration of CO₂ in the medium

C. directly proportional to the concentration of CO in the medium

D. independent to the concentration of CO in the medium

 

Q. 147 Leghaemoglobin is produced in response to

A. respiration

B. photosynthesis

C. fatty acid synthesis

D. N₂ fixation

 

Q. 148 The extinct human ancestor, who ate only fruits and hunted with stone weapons was

A. Ramapithecus

B. Australopithecus

C. Dryopithecus

D. Homo erectus

 

Q. 149 What is common between earthworm and Periplaneta?

A. Both have red coloured blood

B. Both possess anal styles

C. Both have malpighian tubules

D. Both have segmented body

 

Q. 150 In a normal adult, ascending order of concentrated of following molecules is

A. K > Na > Fe > Cu

B. Na > K > Cu > Fe

C. Fe > Na > K > Cu

D. Na > Fe > K > Cu

 

Q. 151 Which of the following statements is incorrect about G₀ phase?

A. Mitosis occurs after G₀ phase.

B. Biocatalyst can be used to exit G₀ phase.

C. Cell volume keeps on increasing during this phase.

D. Cell metabolism occurs continuously in G₀ phase.

 

Q. 152 Beads on string like structures of A are seen in B, which further condense to form

chromosomes in C stage of cell division.

A. (A) Chromonema, (B) Chromatin, (C) Metaphase

B. (A) Chromatin, (B) Chromatid, (C) Metaphase

C. (A) Chromonema, (B) Chromosome, (C) Anaphase

D. (A) Chromonema, (B) Chromatid, (C) Anaphase

 

Q. 153 RNA interference is essential for the

A. cell proliferation

B. cell defence

C. cell differentiation

D. micropropagation

 

Q. 154 Select the option having all correctly matched pairs.

A. Alkaloids (i) Carotenoid; Anthocyanin

B. Pigments (ii) Vinblastin; Curcumin

C. Drugs (iii) Morphine; Codeine

A. A-i, B-ii, C-iii

B. A-ii, B-iii, C-i

C. A-iii, B-i, C-ii

D. A-i, B-iii, C-ii

 

Q. 155 Dust, oolong and brick are varieties of

A. coffee

B. pepper

C. tea

D. lavang

 

Q. 156 Ventricular diastole occurs due to a/an

A. organ system

B. cell organelle

C. tissue

D. organ

 

Q. 157 Plants having the floral diagram given in the figure are

A. leguminous

B. dicots

C. medicinal and perennial

D. having pinnately compound leaves

 

Q. 158 Select the correct statement.

A. Particulate matter of size 10 μm can create severe damage to the lungs

B. Particulate matter of size greater than 2.5 μm can get trapped in lungs and cause problems

C. Particulate matter of size less than 2.5 μm penetrate deep into lungs

D. None of the above

 

Q. 159 Pebrine in silkworm is caused by

A. Dugesia

B. Monocystis

C. Nosema

D. Plasmodium

 

Q. 160 Which of the following is a homopolysaccharide?

A. Heparin

B. Inulin

C. Pectin

D. Hyaluronic acid

 

Q. 161 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: There are 34 biodiversity hotspots in the world.

Reason: High level of species richness is a criteria for selection of a biodiversity hotspot.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 162 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Inbreeding increases homozygosity, thus exposes harmful recessive genes,

which are eliminated by selection.

Reason: Continued inbreeding reduces fertility and productivity

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 163 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Some marine animals find it difficult to live in fresh water and vice versa.

Reason: Some animals can tolerate a narrow salinity range, while others can tolerate a

wide salinity range.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 164 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Mylein sheath insulates the nerve fibre and prevents its depolarisation.

Reason: Nerve impulses are conducted more rapidly in non-myelinated nerve fibres than in myelinated ones.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 165 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Frog can change its colour, according to its surroundings.

Reason: It is a way of mimicry to capture preys.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 166 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Less iodine intake causes goitre.

Reason: Less iodine in body decreases thyroxine secretion.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 167 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Hb⁵Hb⁵ denotes the homozygous condition for sickle-cell anaemia.

Reason: It occurs due to substitution of glutamic acid by valine at the 6th position of β- chain of Hb.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 168 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Excess Mn in soil, can adversely decrease Mg, Fe and Cu concentrations in the soil.

Reason: Mn increases rate of photosynthesis, thereby increasing absorption of Mg, Fe and Ca from soil.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 169 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: A middle aged women is reported to have small breasts and undersized uterus.

Reason: Her genotypic analysis shows XO condition of allosomes.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 170 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: In proximal convoluted tubule glomerular filtrate becomes hypertonic to blood plasma.

Reason: HCO₃⁻ is absorbed only in the proximal convoluted tubule

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 171 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Complexity of classification increases from kingdom to species.

Reason: Common characters increase from kingdom to species.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 172 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: In a terrestrial ecosystem, detritus food chain is the major conduit for energy flow.

Reason: Solar energy is the direct source for energy supply in a detritus food chain.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 173 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Filarial worm is transmitted to humans by Culex mosquito.

Reason: Culex prefers to breed in fresh water.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 174 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: AIDS is caused by the HIV, a retrovirus.

Reason: Retroviruses have RNA genome.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 175 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: A male is found to be lacking facial hair and pubic hair.

Reason: It is a case of hyposecretion of testosterone from Leydig’s cells of testes.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 176 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Extra oxygen consumption in human body is known as oxygen debt.

Reason: The extra oxygen is required by the body to oxidise the accumulated lactic acid produced during strenuous exercise.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 177 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Emulsification is necessary for the digestion of fats.

Reason: After fats are emulsified, the action of enzyme amylase gets significantly increased.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 178 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: In jaundice, the skin and mucous membranes assume a yellowish hue.

Reason: Yellow pigment bilirubin imparts pale yellow colour to blood plasma.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 179 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: No taste sensation is evoked when drop of distilled water is put on human tongue.

Reason: Man does not possess taste buds for tasting water.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 180 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:

Assertion: Oxytocin is also known as Anti diuretic hormone (ADH).

Reason: Oxytocin can cause an increase in the renal reabsorption of water.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 181 The birth place of philosopher Ramanuja is the death place of which Prime Minister?

A. Indira Gandhi

B. Rajiv Gandhi

C. Jawaharlal Nehru

D. Morarji Desai

 

Q. 182 Which breed of dog does not bark?

A. Doberman

B. Basenji

C. German Shephard

D. Dalmation

 

Q. 183 Which author of Indian origin was born in the Caribbean Nation of Trinidad and Tobago?

A. Salman Rushdie

B. V. S. Naipaul

C. Shashi Tharoor

D. Nirad C. Chaudhuri

 

Q. 184 Tezpur in north-east is famous for

A. hottest chilli in the world

B. sweetest apple

C. largest producer of gold

D. largest producer of coal

 

Q. 185 Belt and Jacket, Catch-hold and loose styles are the basic types of which sport?

A. Boxing

B. Wrestling

C. Kho-Kho

D. Kabaddi

 

Q. 186 Kashmiri stag is also known as

A. Hangul

B. Nilgai

C. Sambhar

D. Chital

 

Q. 187 Who was the first Indian Prime Minister to lose an election?

A. Lal Bahadur Shastri

B. V. P. Singh

C. Morarji Desai

D. Indira Gandhi

 

Q. 188 The city of Mysore has derived its name from the sanskrit word, for which of these?

A. Beautiful town

B. Buffalo town

C. Great town

D. Golden town

 

Q. 189 Which of the following persons founded Indian National Orchestra?

A. Zubin Mehta

B. Shankar Mahadevan

C. A. R. Rehman

D. Ravi Shankar

 

Q. 190 Which is the second highest civilian award in India?

A. Bharat Ratna

B. Padma Vibhushan

C. Padma Bhushan

D. Padma Shri

 

Q. 191 Surface of which gemstone is called orient?

A. Emarald

B. Amethyst

C. Pearl

D. Diamond

 

Q. 192 Which of the following states is the highest producer of soyabean in India?

A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Rajasthan

D. Madhya Pradesh

 

Q. 193 Who captained India in woman cricket world cup 2000?

A. Anju Jain

B. Neetu David

C. Shantha Rangaswami

D. Poornima Rao

 

Q. 194 Which Union Territory has its name of the basis of a temple in the village Manimajra?

A. Chandigarh

B. Lakshdweep

C. Pondicherry

D. Daman and Diu

 

Q. 195 In tricolour flag of India, saffron colour is a symbol of

A. unity

B. sacrifice

C. peace

D. prosperity

 

Q. 196 Which of the following languages is not based on Devanagari script?

A. Hindi

B. Sanskrit

C. Nepali

D. Urdu

 

Q. 197 Which one of the following is a military alliance?

A. ASEAN

B. SAARC

C. NATO

D. NAFTA

 

Q. 198 ‘Fanning and Dust’, these terms are associated with

A. tea

B. coffee

C. soup

D. cold drink

 

Q. 199 Which one of the following footballers is awarded Arjuna Award 2011?

A. Sunil Chhetri

B. Baichung Bhutia

C. Bruno Coutinho

D. I. M. Vijayan

 

Q. 200 ‘Cix’s Bazar’ is situated in

A. Pakistan

B. Sri Lanka

C. Bnagladesh

D. Indonesia

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer B C C B A C C C B A
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer A D D A B A A C B D
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer C C A A B A B AC C D
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer D C B B B B A A B D
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A C D B A A B B B A
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer C B B A A B B B A B
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer B B B A D A C C C D
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer D A B B B C A D B C
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer D C A A A B C C D B
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B D C A C B B C A A
Question 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer C D B C B D C C B C
Question 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer B A A A C A A A A C
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer B B D D B D C D B C
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer D C D C A C C A C B
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer B A B B A B D B D A
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer A A B C C C C C C B
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer B B A C C A B D A D
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer B C C B B A C B A D
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer B B B A B AA D B D B
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer C D A A B D C A A C

 

AIIMS UG 2011 Previous Year Paper

AIIMS UG 2011

Section

Questions

Marks

Physics

60 Questions (1 – 60)

60

Chemistry

60 Questions (61 – 120)

60

Biology

60 Questions (121 – 180)

60

General Knowledge

20 Questions (181 – 200)

20

Q. 1 What is the dimension of magnetic field B in terms of C (= coulomb), M, L, T ?

A. [M¹L¹T⁻¹C]

B. [M¹L⁰T⁻¹C⁻¹]

C. [M¹L⁰T⁻²C]

D. [M¹L⁰T⁻¹C]

 

Q. 2 What is the mechanical equivalent of the spring constant K in LC oscillating circuit?

A. 1/L

B. 1/C

C. L/C

D. 1/LC

 

Q. 3 What is the moment of inertia for a solid sphere w.r.t to a tangent touching to its surface ?

A. 2/5 MR²

B. 7/5 MR²

C. 2/3 MR²

D. 5/3 MR²

 

Q. 4 Water is flowing with velocity 4 m s⁻¹ in a cylinder of diameter 8 cm, it is connected to a pipe with it end tip of diameter 2 cm, calculate the velocity of water at this free end.

A. 4 m s⁻¹

B. 8 m s⁻¹

C. 32 m s⁻¹

D. 64 m s⁻¹

 

Q. 5 A cylindrical wire is twisted with an angle θ, what is the torsion produced in it ?

A. c/ θ

B. c θ

C. c/ θ²

D. c θ³⁄²

 

Q. 6 GIven ω = 2k̂ and r= 2î + 2ĵ . Find the linear velocity

A. 4î + 4ĵ

B. 4î + 4k̂

C. -4î + 4ĵ

D. -4î – 4ĵ

 

Q. 7 If maximum speed of a particle in SHM is given by vm, what is the average speed?

A. ∐/2 vm

B. 2/∐ vm

C. ∐/4 vm

D. vm/√2

 

Q. 8 Which of the following equation does not represent a SHM ?

A. coscot + sincot

B. sincot – coscot

C. 1 – sin2cot

D. sincot + cos(ωt + α)

 

Q. 9 In the simple harmonic motion , loss of kinetic energy is proportional to

A. cos ωt + sin ωt

B. sin ωt – cosωt

C. 1-2sinωt

D. sin ωt +(cosωt -A)

 

Q. 10 Emissive and absorptive power of a material at 2000 k is 8 and 10 respectively, calculate the emissivity of IBB (Ideal black body)

A. 0.2

B. 0.4

C. 0.6

D. 0.8

 

Q. 11 Energy stored in between the plates of parallel . plate capacitor of area A, separated by distance .• d~

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 12 Magnetic energy per unit volume is represented by

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 13 Mutual inductance M between two concentric coils of radii 1 m and 2 m is

A. μ₀∐/2

B. μ₀∐/4

C. μ₀∐/8

D. μ₀∐/10

 

Q. 14 In an interference, the intensity of two interfering waves are I and 4l respectively. They produce intensity at two point A and B with phase angle of π/2 and π respectively. Then difference in between them is

A. l

B. 2l

C. 4l

D. 5l

 

Q. 15 In a single slit diffraction with λ = 500 mm and a lens of diameter 0.1 mm then width of central maxima, obtain on screen at a distance of 1 m will be

A. 5mm

B. 1mm

C. 10mm

D. 2.5mm

 

Q. 16 Voltage of modulating wave of 5 V with 10 MHz frequency was superimposed on carrier wave of frequency 20 MHz and voltage 20 V then the modulation index is

A. 0.25

B. 1.25

C. 2.43

D. 64.0

 

Q. 17 The area covered by a transmitting antenna of height 50 m is

A. 320⊓ km²

B. 1440 km²

C. 640⊓ km²

D. 120⊓ km²

 

Q. 18 Hwe assume kinetic energy of a proton is equal to energy of the photon, the ratio of de Broglie wavelength of proton to photon is proportional to

A. E

B. E⁻¹⁄²

C. E¹⁄²

D. E³⁄²

 

Q. 19 The ratio of the masses of the elements having their nuclear radii 2 fermi and 1 fermi is

A. 8

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 20 A proton travels few distance in an electric field, then it enters a crossed magnetic field of 1 T and radius 0.2 m, find the velocity of proton.

A. 0.2 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹

B. 0.2 ×10⁷ m s⁻¹

C. 0.2 ×10⁶ m s⁻¹

D. 2 ×10⁷ m s⁻¹

 

Q. 21 Two lens of focal length -20 cm and +10 cm are put in combination, find the power of the combination

A. – 1 D

B. – 2 D

C. + 5 D

D. + 2 D

 

Q. 22 A far sighted has his near point 50 cm, find the power of lens he should use to see at 25 cm, clearly.

A. + 1 D

B. + 2 D

C. – 2 D

D. – 1 D

 

Q. 23 For a nuclear reactor to run in critical condition the reproduction factor k should be

A. = 1

B. > 1

C. < 1

D. >>> 1

 

Q. 24 Which of the following substances magnetic susceptibility Xm is negative?

A. Diamagnetic

B. paramagnetic

C. ferromagnetic

D. all of these

 

Q. 25 When orientation of dipoles parallel and antiparallel to magnetic field is distributed unequally, then the material is

A. paramagnetic

B. ferromagnetic

C. ferrimagnetic

D. antiferromagnetic

 

Q. 26 S³² absorbs energy and decays into which element after two α-emissions ?

A. Carbon

B. Aluminium

C. Oxygen

D. Magnesium

 

Q. 27 Lenz law is consistent with conservation of

A. energy

B. mass

C. charge

D. momentum

 

Q. 28 In series LCR circuit, the phase difference between applied voltage and current is

A. positive when XL > Xc

B. positive when Xc> XI.

C. 90 deg

D. 0 deg

 

Q. 29 Direction of electric field in P-N junction diode is

A. from P-side to N-side

B. from N-side to P-side

C. randomly oriented

D. electric field does not exist

 

Q. 30 What is your observation when two sources are emitting sound with frequency 499 Hz and 501 Hz ?

A. Frequency of 500 Hz is heard with change in intensity take place twice

B. Frequency of 500 Hz is heard with change in intensity take place once

C. Frequency of 2 Hz is heard with change in intensity take place once

D. Frequency of 2 Hz is heard with change in intensity take place twice

 

Q. 31 A 0.2 kg object at rest is subjected to a force of (0.3î – 0.4ĵ) N. What is the velocity after 6 sec ?

A. 9î – 12ĵ

B. 8î – 16ĵ

C. 12î – 9ĵ

D. 16î – 8ĵ

 

Q. 32 If man were standing unsymmetrically between parallel cliffs, claps his hands and starts hearing a series of echoes at intervals of 1 s. If speed of sound in air 340 m s⁻¹, the distance between two cliffs would be

A. 340 m

B. 510 m

C. 170 m

D. 680 m

 

Q. 33 Half life of a radioactive material is 5 years, then the percentage of it remained after 25 years will be

A. 3.125%

B. 6.25%

C. 1.25%

D. 25%

 

Q. 34 For an adiabatic process

A. ΔS = 0

B. ΔU = 0

C. Q = 0

D. W = 0

 

Q. 35 For cyclic process which of the following quantity is zero ?

A. ΔV

B. ΔU

C. W

D. ΔQ

 

Q. 36 Magnetic field at n distance a from long current carrying wire is proportional to

A. 1/n

B. 1⁄n²

C. 1⁄√n

D. 1⁄n³/²

 

Q. 37 When a positively charged particle enters into a uniform magnetic field with uniform velocity, its trajectory can be

(i) a straight line

(ii) a circle

(iii) a helix

A. (i) only

B. (i) or (ii)

C. (i) or (iii)

D. any one of (i), (ii) and (iii)

 

Q. 38 Among the following which is used to control the rate of reaction in nuclear fission reactions ?

A. Water

B. Heavy water

C. Cadmium

D. Graphite

 

Q. 39 The series corresponding to minimum wavelength in H-atom

A. Balmer series

B. Lyman series

C. Paschen series

D. Brackett series

 

Q. 40 Pressure head in Bernoulli’s equation is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Questions: 41 – 60

In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).Mark the correct choice as:

Q. 41 Assertion: Transverse sound wave does not occurs in gases.

Reason: Gases cannot sustain shearing strain.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 42 Assertion: When white light fall on the compact disc, multicolours are seen after reflection.

Reason: CD disc behaves like a prism.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 43 Assertion: Total energy is conserved in moving a satellite to higher orbit.

Reason: Sum of change in PE and KE is same in magnitude and opposite in nature.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 44 Assertion: KE is conserved at every instant of (elastic) collision.

Reason: No deformation of matter occurs in elastic collision.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 45 Assertion: Cp is always greater than Cv in gases.

Reason: Work done at constant pressure is more than at constant volume.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 46 Assertion: During rapid pumping of air in tyres, air inside the tyre is hotter than atmospheric air.

Reason: Adiabatic process occurs at very high rate.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 47 Assertion: For nuclear reactor, it is desirable to have k = 1

Reason: Sustained chain reaction occur at this critical condition.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 48 Assertion: Gauss’s law can’t be used to calculate electric field near an electric dipole.

Reason: Electric dipole don’t have symmetrical charge distribution.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 49 Assertion: Photodiode and photovoltaic cell are based on the same principle.

Reason: Both use same method of operation to work.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 50 Assertion: Transistor can be used as a switch.

Reason: Both linear and non-linear voltage bias dependence occurs in it.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 51 Assertion: When a white light is passed through a lens, violet light is more reflected than red light.

Reason: Focal length for re light is greater than violet.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 52 Assertion: Microscope magnifies the image.

Reason: Angular magnification for image is more than object in microscope.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 53 Assertion: Mass defect in nuclear reactions is less than 1%.

Reason: In nuclear reaction, change in BE/N is generally less than 1%.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 54 Assertion: It is very easy to detect neutrino in nature.

Reason: It has high affinity to interact with matter.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 55 Assertion: In the transmission of long distance radio signals, short wave band is used.

Reason: In shorter wavelength, attenuation is very less.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 56 Assertion: There is a physical significance of matter waves.

Reason: Both interference and diffraction occurs in it.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 57 Assertion: It is desirable to slow down fast moving neutrons to sustain controlled chain reactions.

Reason: Slow moving neutrons efficiently collides with U²³⁵.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 58 Assertion: Magnetic field lines are continuous and closed.

Reason: Magnetic monopole does not exist.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 59 Assertion: Magnification of a convex mirror is always positive, but that of a concave mirror may be both positive or negative.

Reason: It depends on the sign convention chosen.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 60 Assertion: Magnetic force between two short magnets, when they are co-axial follows inverse square law of distance.

Reason: The magnetic forces between two poles do not follow inverse square law of distance.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 61 The compound which does not exist as hydrate form

A. ferrous sulphate

B. copper sulphate

C. magnesium sulphate

D. sodium chloride

 

Q. 62 Iodine oxidises sodium borohydride to give

A. B₂H₆

B. sodium hydride

C. HI

D. I₃⁻

 

Q. 63 The wrong statement about fullerene is

A. it has 5-membered carbon ring

B. it has 6-membered carbon ring

C. it has sp² hybridization

D. it has 5-membered rings more than 6-membered rings

 

Q. 64 The wavelength of light absorbed is highest in

A. [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]²⁺

B. [Co(NH₃)₅H₂O]³⁺

C. [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺

D. [Co(en)₃]³⁺

 

Q. 65 PCl₃ on hydrolysis gives fumes of

A. H₃PO₃ + HCl

B. H₃PO₄ + HCl

C. H₃PO₂ and H₃PO₃

D. H₃PO₂ + HCl

 

Q. 66 In solid ice, oxygen atom is surrounded

A. tetrahedrally by 4 hydrogen atoms

B. octahedrally by 2 oxygen and 4 hydrogen atoms

C. tetrahedrally by 2 hydrogen and 2 oxygen atoms

D. octahedrally by 6 hydrogen atoms

 

Q. 67 Predict the product of reaction of I₂ with H₂O₂ in basic medium.

A. I⁻

B. I₂O₃

C. IO₃⁻

D. I₃⁻

 

Q. 68 First compound of Xe synthesized was

A. [XeF]⁺ [XePtF₅]⁻

B. [XeO₂]

C. Xe[PtF₆]

D. O₂[XeF₆]

 

Q. 69 Which of the following is diamagnetic ?

A. [Cu[NH₃)₄]²⁺

B. [NiCl₄]²⁻

C. [PtCl₄]²⁻

D. [Cu(H₂O₄]²⁺

 

Q. 70 Which of the following is not hygroscopic ?

A. CsCl

B. MgCl₂

C. CaCl₂

D. LiCl

 

Q. 71 Decreasing order of bond angle is

A. BeCl₂ >NO₂ > SO₂

B. BeCl₂ > SO₂ > NO₂

C. SO₂ >BeCl₂ > NO₂

D. SO₂ > NO₂ > BeCl₂

 

Q. 72 When KMn04 reacts with KBr in alkaline medium gives bromate ion. Then oxidation state of Mn changes from +7 to

A. +6

B. +4

C. +3

D. +2

 

Q. 73 When KMnO₄ react with KBr in alkaline medium gives bromate ion. Then oxidation state of Mn change from +7 to

A. +6

B. +4

C. +3

D. +2

 

Q. 74 How much amount of CuSo₄.5H₂O is required for liberation of 2.54 g I₂ when titrated with Kl ?

A. 2.5 g

B. 4.99 g

C. 2.4 g

D. 1.2 g

 

Q. 75 Which of the following is incorrect for physisorption ?

A. Reversible

B. Increase with increase in temperature

C. Low heat of adsorption

D. Increase with increase in surface area

 

Q. 76 Smallest wavelength occurs for

A. Lyman series

B. Balmer series

C. Paschen series

D. Brackett series

 

Q. 77 Ksp of CaSO₄. 5H₂O is 9 x 10⁻⁶ , find the volume of 1gm CaSO₄ (M. wt. = 136)

A. 2.45 litre

B. 5.1 litre

C. 4.52 litre

D. 3.2 litre

 

Q. 78 Which of the following is not a characteristic of equilibrium ?

A. Rate is equal in both directions

B. Measurable quantities are constant at equilibrium

C. Equilibrium occurs in reversible condition

D. Equilibrium occurs only in open vessel at constant temperature

 

Q. 79 Which of the following is wrong for Bohr model ?

A. It establishes stability of atom

B. It is inconsistent with Heisenberg uncertainty principle

C. It explains the concept of spectral lines for hydrogen like species

D. Electrons behave as particle and wave

 

Q. 80 In the van der Waals equation, ‘a’ signifies

A. intermolecular attraction

B. intramolecular attraction

C. attraction between molecules and wall of container

D. volume of molecules

 

Q. 81 For adiabatic process, which is correct ?

A. ΔT = 0

B. ΔS = 0

C. q = 0

D. Qp = 0

 

Q. 82 25 mL, 0.2 M Ca (OH)₂ is neutralised by 10 mL of 1 m HCl. Then pH of resulting solution is

A. 1.37

B. 9

C. 12

D. 7

 

Q. 83 Schotky defect is

A. vacancy of ions

B. delocalization of ions

C. interstitial vacancy of ions

D. vacancy of only cations

 

Q. 84 Which material is used as a neutron moderator ?

A. Graphite

B. Cadmium

C. Boron

D. Uranium

 

Q. 85 Which of the following is not a thermodynamic function ?

A. Internal energy

B. Work done

C. Enthalpy

D. Entropy

 

Q. 86 Which of the following is following is intense property ?

A. Enthalpy

B. Entropy

C. Specific heat

D. Volume

 

Q. 87 For a first order gas phase reaction

A(g)+ 2B(g) + C(g)

Po be initial pressure of A and PI the total pressure at time ‘f. Integrated rate equation is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 88 Decreasing order of nucleophilicity is

A. OH⁻> NH⁻₂ > CH₃O⁻ > RNH₂

B. NH₂ > OH⁻ > CH⁻₃ > RNH₂

C. NH₂ > CH₃O⁻> OH⁻ > RNH₂

D. CH₃O⁻ >NH₂ >OH⁻ > RNH₂

 

Q. 89 Find the number of stereoisomers of 1,2-dihydroxy cyclopentane.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 90 Find the hydrolysis product when a phosphodiester bond of nucleotide breaks.

A. 3-OH-deoxyribose-5PO₄³⁻

B. 5-OH-deoxyribose-3PO₄³⁻

C. 2-OH-deoxyribose-2PO₄³⁻

D. 4-OH-deoxyribose-2PO₄³⁻

 

Q. 91 Find the hydrolysis product of maltose.

A. α-D-glucose + α-D-glucose

B. α-D-glucose + α-D-fructose

C. α-D-glucose + α-D-galactose

D. α-D-fructose + α-D-galactose

 

Q. 92 Isoprene is

A. 3-methyl-12-butadience

B. 2-methyl-1,3-butadience

C. 3-chloro-1,2-butadience

D. 2-chloro-1,3-butadience

 

Q. 93 Find the product for CH₃CH₂-O-CH₂-CH₂-O-CH₂-C₆H₅ + Hl

A. HO-CH₂-CH₂OH,C₆H₅CH₂-I,CH₃CH₂-I

B. C₆H₅CH₂-OH,CH₃CH₂-I,I-CH₂CH₂-OH

C. I-CH₂CH₂-I,C₆H₅CH₂-I,CH₃CH₂-OH

D. HO-CH₂CH₂-OH,C₆H₅CH₂-I,CH₃CH₂-OH

 

Q. 94 Best method to form aromatic iodide is

A. ArN⁺₂ + HI —>

B. RnH₂ + I₂−>

C. ArN⁺₂ + KI —>

D. ArN⁺₂ +I₃ —>

 

Q. 95 Maximum decarboxylation occurs in

A. CH₃COOH

B. C₆H₅COOH

C. C₆H₅CH₂COOH

D. CH₃COCH₂COOH

 

Q. 96 The correct increasing order of reactivity for the following molecules towards electrophilic aromatic substitution is

A. I < IV <II < III

B. I < IV < III < II

C. I < III < II < IV

D. I < III < IV < II

 

Q. 97 The correct decreasing order of pKh is

A. I:> II :> III :> IV

B. III> IV> II :> I

C. II > In > IV > I

D. IV > II > I > III

 

Q. 98 The correct decreasing order of pK. Is

A. II > IV > I > III

B. IV > II > III > I

C. III > II > IV :> I

D. IV > I > II > III

 

Q. 99 SN2 reaction readily occurs in

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 100 The number of σ- and ⊓-bond present in pent -4-ene-1-yne is

A. 10, 3

B. 4, 9

C. 3, 10

D. 9, 4

 

Questions: 101 – 120

In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

Q. 101 Assertion: H₂S is less acidic than H₂Te.

Reason: Te has larger radius than S.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 102 Assertion: R₃P=O exists but R₃N=O does not exist.

Reason: P is more electronegative than N.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 103 Assertion: AgCl is more soluble in NH₃ than in water.

Reason: Ammonia is more polar than water.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 104 Assertion: BCC and HCP has same packing efficiency.

Reason: Both have same number of atoms per unit cell and same arrangement.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 105 Assertion: Reduction potential of Mn (+3 to +2) is more positive than Fe (+3 to +2).

Reason: Ionisation potential of Mn is more than that of Fe.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 106 Assertion: Helium is used in diving apparatus.

Reason: Solubility of helium is less in blood.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 107 Assertion: A reaction is spontaneous if Ecell = + ve.

Reason: For Ecell = + ve. ΔG is always -ve.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 108 Assertion: Sulphur is oxidised by H₂O₂ in presence of Fe (III).

Reason: Fe (III) oxidises sulphur to sulphate.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 109 Assertion: Chlorine unergoes disproportionation reaction in alkaline medium.

Reason: Cl₂ is an oxidising agent.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 110 Assertion: Entropy is always constant for a closed system.

Reason: Closed system is always reversible.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 111 Assertion: Two different reactions can never have same rate of reaction.

Reason: Rate of reaction always depends only on frequency of collision and Arrhenius

factor.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 112 Assertion: The formal oxidation no. of sulphur in Na₂S₄O₆ is 2.5.

Reason: Two-S-atoms are not directly linked with O-atoms.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 113 Assertion: A non volatile solute is mixed in a solution then elevation in boiling point and depression in freezing point both are 2 k.

Reason: Elevation in boiling point and depression in freezing point both depend on melting point of non-volatile solute.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 114 Assertion: Rate of reaction of alkyl halide in Williamson’s synthesis reaction is 1˚RX > 2˚RX > 3˚RX.

Reason: It is a type of bimolrcular sustitution reaction (Sn2).

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 115 Assertion: Dehydration of alcohals always takes place in basic medium.

Reaction: OH⁻ is a better leaving group.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 116 Assertion: Toluene in presence of UV rays forms benzaldehyde.

Reason: Dichlorotoluene is formed as an intermediate.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 117 β-pleated sheet structure of protein shows maximum extension.

Reason: Intermolecular hydrogen bonding is present in them.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 118 Assertion: Fructose is a reducing sugar.

Reason: It has a ketonic group.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 119 Assertion: p-Nitrophenol gives more electrophilic substituted compound than mmethoxyphenol.

Reason: Methoxy group shows only negative I-effect.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 120 Assertion : p-Nitrophenol gives marc electrophilic substituted compound than mmethoxyphenol.

Reason :Methoxy group shows only negative I-effect.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 121 What is the source of Eco R I ?

A. Escherichia coli R I

B. Escherichia coli R I 13

C. Escherichia coli RY 13

D. Escherichia coli R X 13

 

Q. 122 First clinical gene therapy was given in 1992 to a 4 years old girl for

A. adenine deficiency

B. growth deficiency

C. adenosine deaminase deficiency

D. adenosine deficiency

 

Q. 123 Bacteria, Fungi, lower plants survive in adverse conditions by

A. diapause

B. suspended growth

C. migration

D. formation of thick walled spores

 

Q. 124 What are labelled phase A, B and C in given sigmoidal growth curve ?

A. Stationary Log lag

B. lag stationary Log

C. Log Lag stationary

D. Lag Log Stationary

 

Q. 125 Monarch butterfly escapes from predators by

A. foul smell

B. bitter taste

C. colour combination

D. rough skin

 

Q. 126 What is the characteristic of tapezium ?

A. It does not store food

B. It is multi-nucleated

C. It is multi-layered structure

D. It nourishes the megaspore

 

Q. 127 In vehicles, catalytic converters are used

A. to increase mileage of vehicles

B. to convert CO₂ into carbonates

C. to increase the efficiency of lead mixed petrol

D. to convert CO to CO₂-

 

Q. 128 Cell theory was proposed by

A. a botanist

B. a zoologist

C. a botanist and a zoologist

D. a psychologist

 

Q. 129 Identify the given figures A, B, C, D and E.

A. Marginal Axile Free central Parietal Basal

B. Marginal Parietal Free central Axile Basal

C. Marginal Parietal Free central Axile Basal

D. Marginal Axile Parietal Basal Free central

 

Q. 130 Given figures shows

A. structure of lentical

B. hydathode showing gaseous vapour exchange

C. fungus reproducing by spore formation

D. algae reproducing by spore formation

 

Q. 131 In the given diagram A and B represent

A. Mineralisation Demineralisation

B. Ammonification Denitrification

C. Denitrification Ammonification

D. Denitrification Mineralisation

 

Q. 132 In active transport, carrier proteins are used, which use energy in the form of ATP, to

A. transport molecules against concentration gadient of cell wall.

B. transport molecules along concentration gradient of cell membrane

C. transport molecules against concentration gradient of cell membrane

D. transport molecules along concentration gradient of cell wall

 

Q. 133 In a 50 gm living tissue, what would be the amount of water ?

A. 15 – 25 gm

B. 25 – 30 gm

C. 35 – 45 gm

D. 70 – 90 gm

 

Q. 134 PS – II occurs only in

A. stroma

B. grannal thylakoids

C. stromal lamella

D. matrix

 

Q. 135 After glycolysis, fate of glucose in mitochondrial matrix

A. oxidation

B. reduction

C. oxidative decarboxylation

D. hydrolysis

 

Q. 136 Cleistogamy is leading over anthesis because

A. pollination agent is not required

B. it assures heterozygosity

C. it favours insect pollination

D. it allows xenogamy

 

Q. 137 Which of the following statement is correct ?

A. Photorespiration is useful process

B. C₄ plants are more efficient than C₃ plants

C. C₃ plants are more efficient than C₄ plants

D. Photorespiration is absent in C₃ plants but present in C₄ plants

 

Q. 138 Which of following statement is incorrect regarding fermentation ?

A. Propionibacterium is used to ferment the cheese

B. The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to the production of CO₂ gas

C. Fermentation in muscle produces ethanol

D. Toddy is mad by fermenting sap from palms

 

Q. 139 Which of the following statement is correct ?

A. Aspergillus niger is used for producing for cyclosporin A

B. Activated sludge is digested by aerobic bacteria to produce marsh gas

C. Fleming, Chain & Florey were awarded with Nobel Prize for discovering penicillin

D. BOD is amount of oxygen produced by bacteria on decomposition

 

Q. 140 Which of the following elements is present in very less quantity in the body ?

A. K

B. Ca

C. Mg

D. Cu

 

Q. 141 Which of the following is best method of germplasm conservation ?

A. herbarium

B. botanical garden

C. seed bank

D. zoological park

 

Q. 142 Which one of the following option is a correct match of phenomenon and its explanation ?

A. Reverse Tanscription PCR — Many copies of a DNA sequence

B. Central dogma — RNA — DNA — Protein — RNA

C. RNA silencing – Use of ds-RNA to stop the expression of ss-RNA

D. Transcription — Process of formation of RNA & proteins

 

Q. 143 Which of the following is not a characteristic of meiosis ?

A. It involves two stages of DNA replication one before meisosis-I and another before meiosis-II

B. It involves recombination and crossing over

C. Sister chromatids separate during anaphase-II

D. Nuclear membrane disappears during prophase

 

Q. 144 Which of the following is correct ?

A. Henking discovered the small Y-chromosome

B. Drosophilia also shows XX-XY sex determination like human

C. Birds have ZZ-ZW sex determination, where femals are ZZ % males are ZW

D. Grasshoppers show XX-XY sex determination

 

Q. 145 Which statement is correct regarding mosses ?

A. They have dominant and independent sporophyte

B. Their antherozoids require water for fertilization

C. Their archegonia produce many eggs

D. Their antherozoids are multiflagellated

 

Q. 146 Which of the following statement is correct ?

A. Catalytic converter can separate particulate matter of diameter less than 2.5 micrometers

B. Histones are acidic in nature that forms core for DNA packaging

C. Lactobacillus is not present in dough used in idle formation

D. Template with polarity 5′ — 3′ has continuous DNA replication

 

Q. 147 Which of the following statement is correct ?

1. Common cold – Droplet Infection

2. Typhoid – Contaminated food & water

3. AIDS – Shaking hands

4. Ringworm – Using infected towels

A. 1 and 2

B. 3 and 4

C. 1 and 3

D. 1,2 and 4

 

Q. 148 Which of the following statements is correct ?

A. Lion and leopard show convergent evolution

B. Cryptic camouflage is seen in Biston betularia.

C. Natural selection is responsible for extinction of dinosaurs.

D. Homo habilis and Homo erectus are closely related.

 

Q. 149 Tendon and Ligament are example of

A. dense regular connective tissue

B. dense irregular connective tissue

C. loose connective tissue

D. specialised connective tissue

 

Q. 150 Kingdom Animalia is characterised by

A. direct dependence on autotrophs

B. indirect dependence on autotrophs

C. absence of chlorophyll

D. absence of cell wall

 

Q. 151 If medulla oblongata is destroyed then which of the following functions will be affected ?

A. No thermoregulation

B. No vision

C. No memory

D. No response when pricked with needle

 

Q. 152 Which of the following statements is correct ?

A. Monkey, apes and humans exhibit estrous cycle

B. Urine is pale yellow and slightly alkaline

C. Lots of enzymes are present in bile juice

D. Ovulation in humans is spontaneous

 

Q. 153 Which of the following evidences does not favour the Lamarckian concept of inheritance of acquired characters ?

A. absence of limbs in snakes

B. melanization in peppered moth

C. presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds

D. lack or pigment in cave-dwelling animals

 

Q. 154 Which of the following is a correct match ?

A. Frog – External ears

B. Earthworm – Muscular gizzard, typhlosole

C. Human – Fat globule, 10 pairs of cranial nerves

D. Cockroach – Chilopoda

 

Q. 155 Which of the following is an incorrect statements ?

A. Blood group ‘O’ person have A and B antigens on RBCs

B. Eosinophils resist infections and are associated with allergic infection

C. RBC’s contain carbonic anhydrase

D. T wave of normal ECG represent of depolarization of ventricle

 

Q. 156 Which one of the following is correct regarding the excretion ?

A. Large amount of water from renal filtrate is reabsorbed in DCT and a less amount is reabsorbed by PCT

B. The descending limb of loop of Henle is competely impemeable to salts

C. Malpighian corpuscle is found in medulla region of kidney

D. The colour of urine is pale yellow and is slightly alkaline in nature

 

Q. 157 In assisted reproductive technology where gametes have fertilized in vitro, which of the following is practicable for embryo transplantation in Fallopian tube ?

A. Only embryo up to 8 blastomeres if zygote is not transplanted

B. only zygote is transplanted not embryo

C. either embryo or zygote with 8 blastomerephase transplanted

D. morulla with 8-24 celled stage is transplanted in Fallopian tube

 

Q. 158 Which of the following features can be said to be a true defining features of living beings without any exception ?

A. they can digest their food

B. all of them can reproduce

C. they can regenerate

D. they can respond to external stimuli

 

Q. 159 The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by the valve named

A. biscuspid valve

B. tricupid valve

C. mitral valve

D. semilunar valve

 

Q. 160 Skeletal muscles appear striated due to presence of two characteristic proteins in

alternating dark and light bands. Which of the following is a correct match of the proteinwith its light refractive property and colour?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Questions: 161 – 180

In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

Q. 161 Assertion: Enzymes lower down the activation energy of the reactant molecule to make its transition into product easier.

Reason: Enzymes are highly substrate specific catalysts.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 162 Assertion: Water that enters into a plant cell through diffusion makes it turgid.

Reason: Entry of water into the cell through diffusion develops wall pressure inside the cell.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 163 Assertion: Movement of materials inside phloem is bidirectional i.e. it can both upwards or downwards.

Reason: Movement of molecules inside xylem is unidirectional i.e. always upwards.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 164 Assertion: protons or hydrogen ions produced by photolysis of water accumulate in the lumen of thylakoids.

Reason: Photolysis of water takes place in inner membrane of thylakoid.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 165 Assertion: Plant growth as a whole is indefinite.

Reason: Plants retain the capacity of continuous growth throughout their life.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 166 Assertion: Amount of organic biodegradable compounds present in water is measured by BOD of that water.

Reason: During biodegradation of biodegradable organic compounds, oxygen is released by bacteria.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 167 Assertion: In angiosperms, transport of food and water is more efficient than gymnosperms and pteridophytes.

Reason: In angiosperms longitudinally arranged sieve elements and vessels with perforated end walls are present.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 168 Assertion: In some species of asteraceae and poaceae seeds are formed without

fertilization.

Reason: Formation of fruits without fertilization is called parthenocarpy.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 169 Assertion: Algal blooms are formed in nutrients-less water.

Reason: Algal blooms in water turn it unfit for human consumption, but cause enormous

growth of fish.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 170 Assertion: A mangrove tree growing in marshy place has pneumatophores.

Reason: Pneumatophores help in better anchorge to marshy soil.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 171 Assertion: A geneticist crossed two plants, he got 50% tall and 50% dwarf progenies.

Reason: It follows Mendelian law as one of the parent plant might be heterozygous.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 172 Assertion: Now-a-days amniocentesis is banned.

Reason: Amniocentesis gives the information of any abnormality in the foetus and many

other complications regarding pregnancy can be detected.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 173 Assertion: A gene from Bacillus thuringiensis is incorporated in plant genome to increase their yield.

Reason: Bacillus thuringgiensis has Bt toxin producing gene, which kills the larva of insects.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 174 Assertion: Glycerides are important nutrients for body.

Reason: Glycerides are hydrolysed into glycerol and fatty acids which are further absorbed in intestine by the formation of chylomicron.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 175 Assertion: Blood in cockroach is colourless haemolymph with no respiratory pigment.

Reason: Reaspiration in cockroach occurs through diffusion in haemolymph.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 176 Assertion: Blood group ‘O’ have anti-A & anti-B antibodies.

Reason: It does not have any antigens.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 177 Assertion: S.A. node induces excitatory impulses in heart.

Reason: S.A. node is self excitatory.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 178 Assertion: Organ of Corti rests on tectorial membrane.

Reason: It helps to maintain equilibrium of body.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 179 Assertion: Corpus luteum is produced by Graafian follicide after ovulation.

Reason: It secretes estrogen which is necessary to maintain pregnancy.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 180 Assertion: Sporozoites of malarial parasite enter in the human body due to biting of freshly born female Anopheles mosquito, Whose mother was a carrier of malarial parasite.

Reason: Male and female gametocytes in the human intestine.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

C. If assertion is true but reason is false

D. If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 181 Which river derives its name from Sanskrit word “Lavanavari”?

A. Luni

B. Kosi

C. Sabarmati

D. Kaveri

 

Q. 182 Which river’s name means “containing reed”

A. Gangad

B. Betwa

C. Narmada

D. Luni

 

Q. 183 First Indian woman grand master in chess is

A. Saheli Dhar

B. Bhagyashree Thipse

C. Vijaylakshmi Pandit

D. Amrit Kaur

 

Q. 184 Two letters printed on first postal stamp of India are

A. Jai Hind

B. Jai kisan

C. Jai Bharat

D. Vande Mataram

 

Q. 185 Which of the following is called ‘Floating sanctuary of India’?

A. Keibul Lamjao

B. Manas

C. Kaziranga

D. Bharatpur

 

Q. 186 “India wins freedom” this book was written by

A. Jawahar Lal Nehru

B. Maulana Azad

C. Sardar Patel

D. Rajendra Prasad

 

Q. 187 Which fruit is often called “love apple”?

A. Pineapple

B. Orange

C. Tomato

D. Papaya


Q. 188 Which country was first to adopt family planning programme?

A. India

B. China

C. USA

D. Indonesia

 

Q. 189 After whom the atomic energy programme is commissioned in India?

A. S. N. Bose

B. C. V. Raman

C. H. G. Khurana

D. H. J. Bhabha

 

Q. 190 After the death of which prime minister did Guljarilal Nanda joined as acting PM for second time?

A. Indira Gandhi

B. Jawahar Lal Nehru

C. Lal Bahadur Shastri

D. Charan Singh

 

Q. 191 Whom did Jawahar Lal Nehru called father of Indian Revolution?

A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

B. Vipin Chandra Pal

C. Dhondo Keshave Karve

D. Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

 

Q. 192 Among these, who had been the last governor general of India?

A. Dr. Radhakrishnan

B. R. Gopalachari

C. Sardar Patel

D. Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar

 

Q. 193 With which of the following reigions, “Karamappa” is related?

A. Jainism

B. Buddhism

C. Hinduism

D. Christiniism

 

Q. 194 Which of the following authors is not born in India

A. Rudyard Kipling

B. Ruskin Bond

C. Gorge Orwell

D. V.S Naipal

 

Q. 195 Which of the following actress won the best actress award 3 times consecutively?

A. Rekha

B. Jaya Bachhan

C. Smita Patil

D. Shabana Azmi

 

Q. 196 Which woman won the Sahitya Kala Academy award first first time?

A. Amrita Pritam

B. Sarojini Naidu

C. Kamla Mehta

D. Geeta Das

 

Q. 197 To which gharana “Kishori Amonkar” belongs to?

A. Kirana

B. Jaipur-Attrivi

C. Lucknow

D. Gwalior

 

Q. 198 Who is the author of the book “Sidhhant Shiromani”?

A. Bhaskaracharya – II

B. Bhaskaracharya -I

C. Aryabhatt

D. Ramanujan

 

Q. 199 Which of the following has introduced transcendental meditation ?

A. Rajneesh Osho

B. Swami Chinmiyanand

C. Vivekanand

D. Maharishi Mahesh Yogi

 

Q. 200 Which of the following animal’s body secretion is oily red, commonly known as ”Sweat blood” ?

A. Rhinoceros

B. Hippopotamus

C. Cow

D. Tiger

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer B B B D B C B B D D
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer A A B C C A C C A A
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer C B A A C D A A B A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer A B A A B A D C B B
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer B A C D A A A A A B
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer A A A A D A A C B D
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer D A D A A A A C C A
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer A D D B B B A D D A
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C D A A B C B C C A
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer A B A C D B D A A A
Question 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer B C C D C A A A B D
Question 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer D A D A D D A B B D
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer C C D D B B D C C A
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer C C C B A A B C C D
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer C A A B B A D B A D
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer A D B B D B A D B D
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer B C B B A C A B D C
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer A B A C C B B D B B
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer A B C A A B C A D C
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer A B B D D A B A D B

 

AIIMS UG 2010 Previous Year Paper

AIIMS UG 2010

Section

Questions

Marks

Physics

60 Questions (1 – 60)

60

Chemistry

60 Questions (61 – 120)

60

Biology

60 Questions (121 – 180)

60

General Knowledge

20 Questions (181 – 200)

20

Q. 1 Transmission lines transmit a voltage of V volt to our houses from power stations, then the power P is supplied by them is proportional to :

A. 1/V

B. V

C. V²

D. 1/V²

 

Q. 2 Whenever a stream of electrons collides with a stream of photons, in the collision , which of the following is not conserved?

A. linear momentum

B. total energy

C. no. of photons

D. no. of electrons

 

Q. 3 The logic gate represented in following figure is:

A. OR gate

B. NOT gate

C. NAND gate

D. XOR gate

 

Q. 4 for a person near point of vision is 10cm. Then the power of lens he must wear so as to have normal vision.should be

A. +1 D

B. -1 D

C. +3 D

D. -3 D

 

Q. 5 Two projectiles of same mass have their maximum kinetic energies in ratio 4:1 and ratio of their maximum heights is also 4: 1 then what is the ratio of their ranges?

A. 2:1

B. 4:1

C. 8:1

D. 16:1

 

Q. 6 An unchanged particle is moving with a velocity of v̅ is non uniform magnetic field as shown. velocity v̅ would be

A. maximum at A and B

B. minimum at A and B

C. maximum at M

D. same at all points

 

Q. 7 which of the following is true regarding diamagnetic substances (symbols have their usual meaning)

A. χᵥ> 1, μᵣ > 1

B. χᵥ < 1, μᵣ > 1

C. χᵥ < 0, μᵣ < 1

D. χᵥ > 0, μᵣ < 1

 

Q. 8 what is moment of inertia of a cylinder of radius r, along its height?

A. mr²

B. mr²/2

C. 2mr²/5

D. mr²/5

 

Q. 9 A uniform string is vibrating with a fundamental frequency ‘f’. The new frequency, if its radius and length both are doubled would be:

A. 2f

B. 3f

C. f/4

D. f/3

 

Q. 10 Two spherical soap bubbles of radii a and b vacuum coaleasce under isothermal

conditions. The resulting bubbles has a radius given by:

A. (a+b)/2

B. ab/(a+b)

C. √(a²+b²)

D. a + b

 

Q. 11 What would be the voltage across C₃ ?

A. (C₁ + C₂)V/C₁ + C₂ + C₃

B. C₁V/ C₁ + C₂ + C₃

C. C₂V/C₁ + C₂ + C₃

D. C₃V/C₁ + C₂ + C₃

 

Q. 12 What would be maximum wavelength for Brackett series of hydrogen – spectrum?

A. 74582 A⁰

B. 22790 A⁰

C. 40519 A⁰

D. 18753 A⁰

 

Q. 13 what would be the radius of second orbit of He⁺ ion?

A. 1.058 A⁰

B. 3.023 A⁰

C. 2.068 A⁰

D. 4.458 A⁰

 

Q. 14 The position of a particle moving in the x-y plane at any time t is given by ; x = (3t² – 6t ) meters; y = (t²-2t) meters. select the correct statement.

A. acceleration is zero at t = 0

B. velocity is zero t = 0

C. velocity is zero at t = 1s

D. velocity and acceleration of the particle are never zero

 

Q. 15 Two masses M₁ = 5 kg and M₂ = 10kg are connected at the ends of an inextensible string passing over a firctionless pulley as shown. when the masses are released, then the acceleration of the masses will be:

A. g

B. g/2

C. g/3

D. g/4

 

Q. 16 A block of mass m is pulled along a horizontal surface by applying a force at an angle θ with the horizontal. If the block travels with a uniform velocity has a displacement d and the coefficient of friction μ is , then the work done by the applied force is

A. μmgd/cos θ + μ sin θ

B. μmgd cos θ/cos θ + μ sin θ

C. μmgd sin θ/ cos θ + μ sin θ

D. μmgd cos θ/ cos θ-μ sin θ

 

Q. 17 pressure versus temperature graph of an ideal gas is as shown in figure. Density of the gas at point A is ρₒ . density at point B will be

A. 3ρₒ/4

B. 3ρₒ/2

C. 4ρₒ/3

D. 2ρₒ

 

Q. 18 The latent heat of vaporisation of a substance is always:

A. greater than its latent heat of fusion

B. greater than its latent heat of sublimation

C. equal to its latent heat of sublimation

D. less than its latent heat of fusion

 

Q. 19 A reversible engine converts one -sixth of the heat input into work. when the temperature of the sink is reduced by 62⁰C, the efficiency of the engine is doubled. The temperature of the source and sink are:

A. 99⁰ C,37⁰ C

B. 80⁰ C, 37⁰ C

C. 95⁰ C, 37⁰ C

D. 90⁰ C, 37⁰ C

 

Q. 20 Graph of specific heat at constant volume for a mono atomic gas is:

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 21 In figure , a particle having mass m = 5 g and charge q’ = 2 x 10⁻⁹ C starts from rest at point a and moves in a straight line to point b. What is its speed v at point b?

A. 2.65 cm/s

B. 3.65 cm /s

C. 4.65 cm /s

D. 5.65 cm /s

 

Q. 22 A galvanometer has a current sensitivity of 1mA per division . A variable shunt is connected across the galvanometer and the combination is put in series with a resistance of 500 ohms and cell of internal resistance 1 ohm. It gives a deflection of 5 division for shunt of 5 ohm and 20 division for shunt of 25 ohm. The emf of cell is :

A. 47.1V

B. 57.1 V

C. 67.1 V

D. 77.1V

 

Q. 23 A circular coil with a cross-sectional area of 4 cm² has 10 turns. It is placed at the centre of a long solenoid that has 15 turns/cm and a cross-sectional area of 10 cm², as shown in the figure. The axis of the coil coincides with the axis of the solenoid. what is their mutual inductance?

A. 7.54 μH

B. 8.54 μH

C. 9.54 μH

D. 10.54 μH

 

Q. 24 If K₁ and K₂ are maximum kinetic energies of photo electrons emitted when lights of wavelengths λ₁ and λ₂ respectively incident on a metallic surface. If λ₁ = 3λ₂,then

A. K₁ > K₂/3

B. K₁ < K₂/3

C. K₁ = 2K₂

D. K₂ = 2K₁

 

Q. 25 Two radio active substances A and B have decay constants 5λ and λ respectively. At t = 0, they have the same number of nuclei of A to those of B will be (1/e²) after a time

A. 4λ

B. 2λ

C. 1/2λ

D. 1/4λ

 

Q. 26 The intensity of gamma radiation from a given source is l. On passing through 36mm of lead, it is reduced to l/8. The thickness of lead which will reduce the intensity to l/2 will be:

A. 18mm

B. 12mm

C. 6mm

D. 9mm

 

Q. 27 An electric charge 10⁻¹ μC is placed at the origin (0,0) of (x-y) co-ordinate system. Two points A and B are situated at (√2,√2) and (2,0) respectively. The potential difference between the points A and B will be:

A. 4.5 volt

B. 9 volt

C. zero

D. 2 volt

 

Q. 28 If the energy, E = Gⁿ₁hⁿ₂cⁿ₃ , where G is the universal gravitational constant, h is the planks constant and c is the velocity of light, then the values of ⁿ₁, ⁿ₂, ⁿ₃ are respectively:

A. -1/2,1/2 and 5/2

B. 1/2,-1/2 and -5/2

C. -1/2,1/2 and 3/2

D. 1/2, -1/2 and -3/2

 

Q. 29 Four holes of radius R are cut from a thin square plate of side 4R and mass M. The moment of inertia of the remaining portion about z-axis is:

 

A. πMR²/12

B. (4/3 – π/4 ) MR²

C. (4/3 – π/6) MR²

D. (8/3 – 10π/16) MR²

 

Q. 30 A liquid is kept in a cylindrical vessel which is being rotated about a vertical axis through the centre of the circular base. If the radius of the vessel is r and angular velocity of rotation is ω , then the difference in the heights of the liquid at the centre of the vessel and the edge is:

A. rω/2g

B. r²ω²/2g

C. √(2grω)

D. ω²/2gr²

 

Q. 31 A block of mass 10 kg is moving in x-direction with a constant speed of 10m/s. It is subjected to a retarding force F = 0.1x joule/meter during its travel from x = 20 m to x = 30 m. Its final K.E will be :

A. 475 J

B. 450 J

C. 275 J

D. 250 J

 

Q. 32 A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of water in the capillary tube 5g. Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise in this tube is :

A. 2.5 g

B. 5.0 g

C. 10 g

D. 20 g

 

Q. 33 Which of the following pairs does not have same dimensions?

A. impulse and momentum

B. moment of inertia and moment of force

C. angular momentum and planck’s constant

D. work and torque

 

Q. 34 The wave length of Lymen series for first number is

A. (4 x 1.097 x 10⁷)m/3

B. 3m/(4×1.097×10⁷)

C. 4m/(3×1.097×10⁷ )

D. (3/4)m x 1.097 x 10⁷

 

Q. 35 In the circuit shown, current flowing through 25 V cell is

A. 7.2 A

B. 10 A

C. 12 A

D. 14.2 A

 

Q. 36 Five sinusoidal waves have the same frequency 500Hz but their amplitudes are in the ratio 2 : 1/2 : 1/2 : 1: 1 and their phase angles 0,π/6,π/3,π/2, and respectively. The phase angle of resultant wave obtained by the super position of these five wave is:

A. 30⁰

B. 45⁰

C. 60⁰

D. 90⁰

 

Q. 37 The second overtone of an open pipe has the same frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe 2m long. The length of the open pipe is :

A. 8m

B. 4m

C. 2m

D. 1m

 

Q. 38 Let T₁ and T₂ be the time periods of springs A and B mass M is suspended from the series combination, the time period is T, then

A. T₁ + T₂ + T₃

B. 1/T = 1/T₁ + 1/T₂

C. T² = T₁² + T₂²

D. 1/T² = 1/T₁² + 1/T₂²

 

Q. 39 Alternating current cannot be measured by D.C. ammeter because

A. A.C. cannot pass through D.C. ammeter

B. A.C. changes direction

C. average value of current for complete cycle is zero

D. D.C.ammeter will get damaged

 

Q. 40 The core of any transformer is laminated so as to

A. reduce the energy loss due to eddy currents

B. make it light weight

C. make it robust and strong

D. increase the secondary voltage

 

Questions: 41 – 60

Directions: In the following questions(41-60), a statement of assertion(A) is followed by a statement of a reason (R). Mark the correct choice is:

a. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

b. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of reason

c. If assertion is true but reason is false

d. If both assertion and reason are false.

 

Q. 41 Assertion: Two balls of different masses are thrown vertically upward with same speed. They will pass though their point of projection in the downward direction with the same period.

Reason: The maximum height and downward velocity attained at the point of projection are independent of the mass of the ball.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 42 Assertion: In javelin throw, the athlete throws the projectile at an angle slightly more than 45⁰ .

Reason: The maximum range does not depend upon angle of projection.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 43 Assertion: The assertion weight of a body in an elevator moving with some downward acceleration is less than the actual weight weight of a body.

Reason: The part of the weight is spent in producing downward acceleration, when body is in elevator.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 44 Assertion: An electric field is preferred in comparison to magnetic field for detecting the electron beam in a television picture tube.

Reason: Electric field requires low voltage.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 45 Assertion : A horse has to pull a cart harder during the first few steps of his motion.

Reason: The first few steps are always difficult.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 46 Assertion : The magnetic poles of earth do not coincide with the geographic poles.

Reason: The discrepancy between the orientation of a compass and the true north-south

direction is known as magnetic declination.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 47 Assertion: Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature.

Reason : The electric and magnetic fields of an e.m wave are perpendicular to each other and also perpendicular to the direction of wave propogation.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 48 Assertion: A wheel moving down a perfectly frictionless inclined plane will undergo slipping (not rolling motion)

Reason: For perfect rolling motion, work done against friction is zero.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 49 Assertion: A hollow shaft is found to be stronger than a solid shaft made of same material.

Reason : The torque required to produce a given twist in hollow cylinder is greater than

that required to twist a solid cylinder of same size and material.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 50 Assertion : Water kept in an open vessel will quickly evaporate on the surface of the moon.

Reason : The temperature at the surface of the moon is much higher than boiling point of water.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 51 Assertion : A pure semiconductor has negative temperature coefficient of resistance.

Reason : On raising the temperature, more charge carriers are released, conductance

increases and resistance decreases.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 52 Assertion: At a fixed temperature, silicon will have a minimum conductivity when it has smaller acceptor doping.

Reason : The conductivity of an intrinsic semi conductor is slightly higher than that of a lightly doped p-type

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 53 Assertion : communication in UHF/VHF regions can be established by space wave or troposhpheric wave.

Reason: communication in UHF/VHF regions is limited to line of sight distance.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 54 Assertion : If objective and eye lenses of a microscope are interchanged then it can work as telescope.

Reason: The objective lens of telescope has small focal length.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 55 Assertion: If a proton and an alpha-particle enter a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly with a same speed the time period of revolution of alpha-particle is double that of proton.

Reason: In a magnetic field, the period of revolution of a changed particle is directly proportional to the mass of the particle and is inversely proportional to change of particle.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 56 Assertion: If momentum of a body increases by 50% its kinetic energy will increase by 125%.

Reason: Kinetic energy is proportional to square of velocity.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 57 Assertion : The difference between in the value of acceleration due to gravity at pole and equator is proportional to square of angular velocity.

Reason : The value of acceleration due to gravity is minimum at the equator and maximum at the pole.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 58 Assertion : It is advantageous to transmit electriv power at high voltage.

Reason: High voltage implies high current.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 59 Assertion : X-ray astronomy is possible only from satellites orbiting the earth.

Reason : Efficiency of x-rays telescope is large as compared to any other telescope.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 60 Assertion : The de broglie equation has significance for any microscopic or submicroscopic particles.

Reason : The de broglie wave lengths inversely proportional to the mass of the object if velocity is constant.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 61 Butter is an example of which type of colloid?

A. solid in liquid

B. liquid in solid

C. liquid in liquid

D. gas in liquid

 

Q. 62 What are constituents of misch metal?

A. La,Fe

B. La,Ce

C. Fe,Ce

D. Ce,Cu

 

Q. 63 For a 1st order reaction if concentration is doubled then rate of reaction becomes:

A. doubles

B. half

C. four times

D. remains same

 

Q. 64 In tetragonal crystal system,which of the following is not true?

A. All axial lengths and all axial angles are equal

B. all three axial length are equal

C. all three axial angles are equal

D. two axial angles are equal but the third is different

 

Q. 65 Which of the following is correct?

A. ionic radius is proportional to atomic number

B. ionic radius is inversely proportional to atomic mass

C. Ionic radius is inversely proportional to effective nuclear charge

D. all are correct

 

Q. 66 The strained tetracyclic alkane is isomerize thermally to the cyclic alkene. The reaction involves:

A. free radical

B. carbocation

C. carbanion

D. carbene

 

Q. 67 The product is:

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 68 For a reaction X → Y , the graph of the product concentration (x) versus time (t) came out to be a straight line passing through the origin. Hence the graph of -d[X]/dt and time would be:

A. straight line with a negative slope and intercept on y-axis

B. straight line with a positive slope and an intercept on y-axis

C. a straight line parallel to x-axis

D. a hyperbola

 

Q. 69 A factory produces 40 kg of calcium in two hours by electrolysis. How much a aluminium can be produced by same current in 2 hours if current efficiency is 50% ?

A. 22 kg

B. 18 kg

C. 9 kg

D. 27 kg

 

Q. 70 Equal weight of CO and CH₄ are mixed together in an empty container at 300K. The fraction of total pressure exerted by CH₄ is

A. 16/17

B. 7/11

C. 8/9

D. 5/16

 

Q. 71 Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

A. A-1,B-3,C-5,D-4

B. A-2,B-3,C-5,D-1

C. A-4,B-3,C-5,D-1

D. A-4,B-5,C-3,D-1

 

Q. 72 which of the following reactions does not yield an amine?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 73 The chemical name for melamine is :

A. 1,3,5-Triamino-2,4,6-triazine

B. 2,4,6-Triamino-1,3,5-triazine

C. 2-Amino-1,3,5-triazine

D. 2,4-Diamino-1,3,5-triazine

 

Q. 74 Bromine is added to cold the dilute aqueous solution of NaOH. The mixture is boiled. Which of the following statements is not true?

A. During the reaction bromine is present in four different oxidation states

B. The greatest difference between the various oxidation states of bromine is 5

C. on acidification of the final mixture bromine is formed

D. disproportionation of bromine occurs during the reaction

 

Q. 75 A complex PtCl₄ 5NH₃ shows a molar conductance of 402 ohm⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹ in water and precipitates three moles of AgCl with AgNO₃ solution. The formula of the complex is

A. [pt(NH₃)₆]Cl₄

B. [pt(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl₂

C. [Pt(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₃

D. [Pt(NH₃)₃Cl₃]Cl

 

Q. 76 using appropriate molar conductances of the electrolytes listed above at infinite dilution in H₂O at 25⁰ C

A. 517.2

B. 552.7

C. 390.7

D. 217.5

 

Q. 77 In the ground state of Cu, the number of shells occupied, sub shells occupied, filled orbitals and unpaired electrons respectively are:

A. 4,8,15,0

B. 3,6,15,1

C. 3,6,14,0

D. 4,7,14,2

 

Q. 78 Which of the following conditions is not correct for reasoning structures?

A. the contributing structures must have the same number unpaired electrons

B. the contributing structures should have similar energies

C. the contributing structures should be so written that unlike charges reside on atoms that are far apart

D. The positive charge should be present on the electro positive element and the negative charge on the electronegative element

 

Q. 79 CaO and NaCl have the same crystal structure and approximately the same ionic radii. If U is lattice energy of Nacl, the appropriate lattice energy of CaO is:

A. U/2

B. U

C. 2U

D. 4U

 

Q. 80 The phosphate of a metal has the formula MHPO₄. The formula of its chloride would be:

A. MCl

B. MCl₂

C. MCl₃

D. M₂Cl₃

 

Q. 81 Two flasks X and Y have capacity 1L and 2L respectively and each of them contains 1 mole of a gas. The temperature of the flasks are so adjusted that average speed of molecules in X is twice as those in Y.The pressure in flask X would be:

A. same as that Y

B. half of that in Y

C. twice of that in Y

D. 8 times of that Y

 

Q. 82 Match the list I and list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

A. A-5,B-1,C-2,D-4

B. A-5,B-3,C-2,D-4

C. A-3,B-5,C-2,D-1

D. A-5,B-3,C-2,D-1

 

Q. 83 What of the following sequence contains atomic number of only representative elements?

A. 55,12,48,53

B. 13,33,54,80

C. 3,33,53,87

D. 22,33,55,66

 

Q. 84 Which of the following contains atomic number of only representative elements?

A. 55, 12, 48, 53

B. 13, 33, 54, 80

C. 3, 33, 53, 87

D. 22, 33, 55, 66

 

Q. 85 100 cm³ of a given sample of H₂O₂ gives 1000 cm³ of O₂ at S.T.P. The given sample is :

A. 10% H₂O₂

B. 90% H₂O₂

C. 10 volume H₂O₂

D. 100 volume H₂O₂

 

Q. 86 Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many properties which are similar . But the two elements differ in:

A. maximum covalency in compounds

B. exhibiting atmospheric nature in their oxides

C. forming covalent halides

D. forming polymeric hydrides

 

Q. 87 Cyclohexene on ozonolysis followed by reaction with zinc dust and water gives compound E. Compound E further treatment with aqueous KOH yields compound F. Compound F is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 88 The product P will be:

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 89 The compound which on reaction with aqueous nitrous acid at low temperature produces an oily nitrosoamine is:

A. methyl amine

B. ethyl amine

C. diethyl amine

D. triethyl amine

 

Q. 90 Compound A (molecular formula C₃H₈O) is treated with acidified potassium dichromate to form a product B(molecular formula C₃H₆O). B forms a shining silver mirror on warming with ammoniacal silver nitrate. B when treated with an aqueous solution of H₂NCONHNH₂. HCl and sodium acetate gives a product C. Identify the structure of C.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 91 Assume that you are travelling at speed of 90km/h in a small car with a mass of 1050 kg. If the uncertainty in the velocity of the car is 1%(Δv=0.9 km/h), what is the uncertainty (in meters) in the position of the car?

A. Δx ≥1 x 10⁻³⁵m

B. Δx ≥2 x 10⁻³⁷m

C. Δx ≥2 x 10⁻³⁶m

D. Δx≥4 x 10⁻³m

 

Q. 92 When 25g of Na₂SO₄ is dissolved in 10³ kg of solution, its concentration will be:

A. 2.5 ppm

B. 25 ppm

C. 250 ppm

D. 100 ppm

 

Q. 93 Degree of unsaturation of A =2 , it contains no double or triple bonds.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 94 The shape and hybridisation of some xenon oxyfluorides are given. Choose the wrong set.

A. XeOF₂- T -shape-sp³d

B. XeOF₄-square pyramidal-sp³d²

C. XeO₂F₂-Distorted trigonal bipyramidal-sp³d

D. XeO₃F₂-Octahedral-sp³d

 

Q. 95 The standard half cell reduction potential for Ag’ I Ag is 0.7991 V at 25⁰ C . Given the experimental value K = 1.56 x 10 for AgCl, calculate the standard half cell potential for the Ag IAgCl electrode.

A. 0.2192 V

B. -0.2192 V

C. -1.2192 V

D. 1.2192 V

 

Q. 96 Which of the following acids will not evolve H₂ gas on reaction with alkali metals?

A. hydrazoic acids

B. perxenic acid

C. boric acid

D. none of these

 

Q. 97 The major product of the following reaction is:

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 98 Stomach acid, a dilute solution of HCl in water, can be neutralized by reaction with sodium hydrogen carbonate,how many millimeters of 0.125 M NaHCO₃ solution are needed to neutralize 18.0mL of 0.100 M HCl?

A. 14.4mL

B. 12.0mL

C. 14.0mL

D. 13.2mL

 

Q. 99 For the electrochemical cell, M I M⁺ II X⁻ I X , E(M⁺ I M) = 0.44 V and E⁰(X I X⁻) = 0.33 V. From this data one can deduce that

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 100 Which is optically inactive?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Questions: 101 – 120

Directions:In the following (101-120), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of a reason(R). Mark the correct choice as :

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) If the assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

(c) If assertion is true but reason is false

(d) If both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 101 Assertion : Magnesium is extracted by the electrolysis of fused mixture of MgCl₂ NaCl and CaCl₂.

Reason : calcium chloride acts as a reducing agent.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 102 Assertion : The equilibrium constant is fixed and a characteristic any given chemical reaction at a specified temperature.

Reason : The composition of the final equilibrium mixture at a particular temperature

depends upon the starting amount of reactants.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 103 Assertion : PCl₅ is covalent in gaseous and liquid states but ionic in solid state. Reason : PCl₅ in solid state consists of tetrahedral PCl₄⁺ cation and octahedral PCl₆⁻ anion.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 104 Assertion : Zinc displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.

Reason : The E⁰ of zinc is -0.76 V and that of copper is + 0.34 V.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 105 Reason : Principle functional group gets lowest number followed by double bond or triple bond.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 106 Assertion : Helium has the highest value of ionisation energy among all the elements known.

Reason : Helium has the highest value of ionisation energy among all the elements known.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 107 Assertion : The nuclear isomers are the atoms with the same atomic number and same mass number , but with different radioactive properties.

Reason : The nucleus in the excited state will evidently have a different half-life as compared to that in a ground state.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 108 Assertion : Conductivity of silicon increases by doping it with group -15 elements.

Reason : Doping means introduction of small amount of impurities like P, As or Bi into the pure crystals.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 109 Assertion : The overall order of the reaction is the sum of the exponents of all the reactants in the rate expressions.

Reason : There are many higher order reactions.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 110 Assertion : Transition metals are poor reducing agents.

Reason : Transition metals form numerous alloys with other metals.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 111 Assertion : Aldol condensation can be catalysed both by acids and bases.

Reason : β-hydroxy aldehydes or ketones readily undergo acid catalysed dehydration.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 112 Assertion : The position of an element in periodic table after emission of the one α- and two β-particles remains unchanged.

Reason : Emission of one α- and two β-particles give isotope of the element which acquires same position in periodic table.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 113 Assertion : S.I unit of atomic mass and molecular mass in kilograms.

Reason : Atomic mass is equal to the mass of 6.023 x 10²⁴ atoms.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 114 Assertion : Bond energy and bond dissociation energy have identical value for diatomic molecules.

Reason : Greater the bond dissociation energy, less reactive is the bond.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 115 Assertion : The degree of complex formation in actinides decreases in the order M⁺⁴ > MO₂⁺² > M⁺³ > MO₂⁺

Reason : Actinides form complexes with π- bonding ligands such as alkyl phosphines and thioethers.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 116 Assertion : Benzene on heating with conc.HSO gives benzene sulphonic acid which when heated with superheated steam under pressure gives benzene.

Reason : Sulphonation is a reversible process.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 117 Assertion : The molarity of the solution does not change with change in temperature.

Reason : The molarity is expressed in units of moles per 1000 g of solvent.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 118 Assertion : Due to Frenkel defect, density of the crystalline solid decreases.

Reason : In Frenkel defect, cation or anion leaves the crystal.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 119 Assertion : is named as tetrakis (ethylene-diammine) μ- hydroxo-μ -midodicobalt(III) ion.

Reason : In naming polynulear complexes i.e.,containing two or more metal atoms joined by briging ligands, the word μ is added with hyphen before the name of such ligands.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 120 Assertion : 2,3 – Dimethyl but-2-ene is more stable than but-2-ene.

Reason : Six hyper conjugation structures can be written for 2,3-dimethyl but-2-ene while but-2-ene has twelve.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 121 Vitamin B₆ is also called as

A. thiamine

B. pantothenic acid

C. pyridoxine

D. retinol

 

Q. 122 Protista differs monera in having

A. cell wall

B. autotrophic nutrition

C. flagella

D. nuclear membrane

 

Q. 123 What does ‘T’ stands for in DTP for in DTP vaccine?

A. tuberculosis

B. autotrophic nutrtion

C. trachoma

D. tetanus

 

Q. 124 Why are vascular bundles closed in monocots?

A. xylem and phloem are present

B. xylem and phloem occur in separate bundles

C. vascular and cambium is separate between xylem and phloem

D. vascular cambium is not present

 

Q. 125 Who invented electron microscope?

A. Janssen

B. edison

C. knoll and ruska

D. landsteiner

 

Q. 126 What do A,B,C,D represent in the following figure?

A. A: carrier protein, B : symport, C : uniport, D : antiport

B. A: carrier protein,B: uniport,C: antiport,D:symport

C. A:carrier protein,B:antiport,C:symport,D:uniport

D. A:carrier protein,B:uniport, C: symport,D:antiport

 

Q. 127 Gametophyte and sporophyte are independent of each other in which of the following groups?

A. pteridophytes

B. anangiosperms

C. gymnosperms

D. bryophytes

 

Q. 128 Which of the following is correct?

A. paneth cells secrete pepsiniogen

B. parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid

C. argentaffin cells secrete mucus

D. chief cells secrete gastrin

 

Q. 129 Which of the following has highest diversity in India?

A. mango

B. dolphin

C. tiger

D. orchids

 

Q. 130 Which of the following is correct about the given figure?

A. the length of the thick and thin myofilaments has changes

B. length of both anisotropic and isotropic band has changed

C. the myosin cross-bridges move on the surface of actin and the thin and thick myofilaments slide past each other

D. length of the sarcomere remains same

 

Q. 131 Which of the following disorders are caused due to recessive autosomal mutations?

A. turners’s syndrome and sickle cell anaemia

B. Edward’s syndrome and Down’s syndrome

C. cystic fibrosis and phenylketonuria

D. Alzheimer’s disease and Huntington’s chorea

 

Q. 132 What is correct about the movement of substance across the membrane in facilitated diffusion?

A. it is an active transport

B. it doesn’t cause transport of molecules from low concentration to high concentration

C. it is insensitive to inhibitors

D. it is a very specific transport

 

Q. 133 Which one is correct?

A. salmonella typhi and haemophilus influence cause pneumonia

B. widal test is done for malaria

C. entamoea histolytica causes amoebiasis

D. wucheria causes enterobiasis

 

Q. 134 What is greek word for ecology?

A. ethology

B. oekologie

C. synecology

D. hexicology

 

Q. 135 Which of the following is correct regarding genetic code?

A. UUU is the initiation codon which also codes for phenylalanine

B. there are 64 triplet codons and only 20 amino acids

C. three random nitrogen bases specify the placement of one amino acid

D. UAA is the non sense codon which also codes methionine

 

Q. 136 The given figure shows L.S of the seed of maize, What do A,B,C and D represent?

A. A:endosperm, B:scutellum, C:plumule,D:coleoptile

B. A:scutellum,B:pericarp,C:radicle,D:coleoptile

C. A:endosperm,B:scutellum,C:radicle,D:coleorrhiza

D. A:scutellum,B:pericarp,C:plumule,D:coleorrhiza

 

Q. 137 Refer the given figures on photoperiodism and select the correct opinion:

A. A-no correlation between light period and flowering B-long light exposure period Cshort light exposure period

B. A-long light exposure period, B-no correlation between light period and flowering Cshort light exposure period

C. A-short light exposure period, B-long light exposure, C-no correlation between light period and flowering

D. A-no correlation between exposure light period and flowering,B-short light exposure period,C-long light exposure period

 

Q. 138 What are singer and nicolson known for?

A. one-gene-one-enzyme hypothesis

B. plasma membrane modifications

C. fluid-mosaic model of plasma membrane

D. structure of DNA

 

Q. 139 Select the correct statement.

A. Acetobacter aceti produces citric acid

B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used as clot buster

C. penicillium notatum restrict thje growth of staphylococci

D. methanogens are found in aerobic conditions

 

Q. 140 Which of the following disease is also called chritistmas disease?

A. sickle-cell anaemia

B. haemoglobinunuria

C. myocardial infarction

D. haemophilia -B

 

Q. 141 Which of the following is correct ?

A. all fungi are filamentous

B. transfer of DNA from one bacteria to another bacteria cannot take place

C. Virus cannot have both DNA and RNA

D. protists reproduce asexually only

 

Q. 142 Which of the following have porous body and are diploblastic?

A. Aurelia and obelia

B. Adamsia and Euplectella

C. lenucosolenia and spongilla

D. sycon and hydra

 

Q. 143 CD-4 receptor is associated with

A. AIDS

B. cancer

C. malaria

D. pneumonia

 

Q. 144 Which one is orrect regarding electrocardigraph (ECG)?

A. P-wave represents the electrical excitation of the ventricle

B. QRS complex represents repolarisation of the ventricles

C. T-wave represnts repolarisation of the atria

D. by counting the number of QRS complexes one can determine the pulse rate

 

Q. 145 Animals take phosphorous from

A. water

B. plants

C. rock

D. soil

 

Q. 146 What is the effect of GnRH produced by hypothalamus?

A. stimulate the synthesis asnd secretion of androgens

B. stimulates secretion of milk in mammary glands

C. stimulate foetal ejection reflex

D. stimulates synthesis of carbohydrates from non-carbohydrates in liver

 

Q. 147 Chemosensitive area of respiratory centre in medulla is affected by:

A. less CO₂ and H⁺ ions

B. less O₂ and H⁺ ions

C. excess CO₂ and H⁺ ions

D. excess O₂ and H⁺ ions

 

Q. 148 what do A,B,C and D represent?

A. A-infundibulum,B-fertilization,C-myometrium,D-morula

B. A-infundibulum,B-fertilization,C-myometrium,D-blastocyst

C. A-isthmus,B-fertilization,C-myometrium,D-blastocyst

D. A-isthmus,B-fertilization,C-endometrium,D-morula

 

Q. 149 Microvilli of intestinal epithelium are similar in function with:

A. typhlosole in earthworm

B. hepatic caecae in cockroach

C. intenstinal caecum in earth worm

D. malpighian tubules in cockroach

 

Q. 150 The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and bronchi are known as:

A. squamous epithelium

B. ciliated epithelium

C. columnar epithelium

D. cubical epithelium

 

Q. 151 cyclic photo phosphorylation involves:

A. PS I

B. PS II

C. PS I and PS II

D. PS₆₈ᵤ

 

Q. 152 Which animal has the longest gestation period?

A. shark

B. walrus

C. elephant

D. dog

 

Q. 153 What is a plasmid?

A. bacterial, linear,dsDNA

B. extrachromosomal linear RNA

C. ectrachromosomal circular dsDNA

D. autonomously replicating circular RNA

 

Q. 154 The concept of chemical evolution is based on

A. interaction of water,air and clay under intense heat

B. effect of solar radiation on chemicals

C. possible origin of life by combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions

D. crystallization of chemicals

 

Q. 155 Which of the following is a correct match between crop, variety and resistance to diseases?

A. crop-wheat,variety-himgiri,resistance to diseases-white rust

B. crop-brassica,variety-pusa sadabahar,resistance to disease-black rot

C. crop-cowpea,variety-pusa komal, resistance to diseases-bacterial blight

D. crop-chilli,variety-pusa swarnim, resistance to diseases-chilly mosaic virus

 

Q. 156 Recombinant DNA technology involves several steps in which initial step is of isolation of the DNA.Which enzymes are used in the process for the vreak down of fungal cell,plant cell and bacterial cell respectively?

A. lysozyme, lipases, trypsin

B. chitinase, cellulase, lysozyme

C. chitinase, cellulase, trypsin

D. tripsin, lipases, cellulase

 

Q. 157 The taxon which includes related species is

A. class

B. order

C. family

D. genus

 

Q. 158 Match the following columns and select the correct option:

A. A-(ii), B-(v),C-(i),D-(iii),E-(iv)

B. A-(iv), B-(i),C-(v),D-(iii),E-(ii)

C. A-(ii), B-(v),C-(iii),D-(i),E-(iv)

D. A-(iv), B-(i),C-(v),D-(ii),E-(iii)

 

Q. 159 Which of the following is correct regarding HIV, hepatitis B, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis?

A. trichomoniasis is a STD whereas other are not

B. gonorrhoea is a viral disease whereas others are bacterial

C. HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases

D. Hepatitis B is eradicated completely whereas others are not

 

Q. 160 The first stable product of calvin cycle is

A. 3-phopsphoglycerate

B. 1,3 biphosphoglycerate

C. glyceraldehyde-3 phosphate

D. ribulose – 5 – phosphate

 

Questions: 161 – 180

Directions: In the following questions(161-180),a statement of assertion(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

(c) if assertion is true but reason is false

(d)if both assertion and reason are false

 

Q. 161 Assertion : Adernaline is called an emergency harmone.

Reason: It acts on the cells of skeletal, cardiac, smooth muscles, blood vessels and fat cells.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 162 Assertion : cork prevents the loss of water by evaporation.

Reason : cork cells contain tannins.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 163 Assertion : In cockroach respiratory gases directly comes in contact with the various organs of the body.

Reason : Cockroaches do not have respiratory pigment

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 164 Assertion : interferons are antiviral proteins.

Reason : Interferons are secreted by virus infected cells.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 165 Assertion : while on going down the loop of henle, the filtrate becomes hypotonic.

Reason : The descending limb of loop of henle is impermeable to both water and electrolytes.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 166 Assertion: Shrinkage of the protoplast of a cell occurs under the influence of hypertonic solution.

Reason : Hypertonic solution causes plasmolysis.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 167 Assertion : In breeding produces pureline.

Reason : It causes homozygosity.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 168 Assertion : parturition is induced by neural signal in meternal pituitary.

Reason: At the end of gestation period, the maternal pituitary release prolactin which causes uterine contractions.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 169 Assertion : Commelina shows cleistogamy.

Reason : This reduces chances of inbreeding.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 170 Assertion : antirrhinum is a good example to understand incomplete dominance.

Reason : Heterozygotes show characteristics of both the alleles.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 171 Assertion : presence of large amounts of nutrients in water body causes excessive growth of planktonic algae.

Reason : It is due to planktonic algae.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 172 Assertion : bile is essential for the digestion of lipids.

Reason : bile juice contains enzymes bilirubin and biliverdin.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 173 Assertion : emphysema is a chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged.

Reason : emphysema is closely related to cigaretta smoking.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 174 Assertion : DNA finger printing involves identifying differences in specific regions in DNA sequence.

Reason : DNA fingerprinting is the basis of peternity testing.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 175 Assertion : all pathogens are parasites but all parasites are not pathogens.

Reason : majority of the parasites confer benefits to the host.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 176 Assertion : due to pollution atmospheric concentration of CO₂ is increasing which will be harmful for C₄ plants whereas productive for C₃ plants.

Reason : C₄ plants have greater efficiency for CO₂ as CO₂ is fixed by PEP oxygenase.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 177 Assertion : insulin is antagonistic to glucagon.

Reason : It is an anabolic harmone.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 178 Assertion : auditory ossicles are small bones present in the cavity of inner car.

Reason : Auditory ossicles maintain the balance of air pressure between two sizes of ear drum.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 179 Assertion : pharyngeal nephridia play a role in the conservation of water in the earthworm. Reason : they help the earthworm in keeping the skin moist for cutaneous respiration.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 180 Assertion : pantothenic acid defeciency is probably the most common vitamin deficiency.

Reason : Macrocytic anaemia is a characteristic feature of pantothenic acid deficiency.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 181 Which country has three capitals?

A. S.Africa

B. switzerland

C. netherland

D. australia

 

Q. 182 which is the largest desert in the world?

A. atacama

B. thar

C. sahara

D. kalahri

 

Q. 183 Which is the largest lake in the world?

A. caspian sea

B. wular

C. lake superior

D. baikal

 

Q. 184 which country has won ‘Fifa world cup’ maximum times?

A. germany

B. brazil

C. france

D. italy

 

Q. 185 ‘world population day’ is on

A. 8th marh

B. 21st march

C. 11th july

D. 3rd october

 

Q. 186 who invented the stethescope?

A. reni laennec

B. hopkins

C. louis pasteur

D. hausen

 

Q. 187 which country has largest number of coal reserves?

A. USA

B. russia

C. china

D. india

 

Q. 188 What term is given to the relationship between culture and food?

A. astronomy

B. agronomy

C. gastronomy

D. geology

 

Q. 189 one-rupee note bears the signature of the

A. governor of reserve bank

B. finance ministry

C. secretary, ministry of finance

D. president of india

 

Q. 190 Which of the following classical dance forms originated in Andhra Pradesh?

A. bharatnatyam

B. kathakali

C. kuchipudi

D. odissi

 

Q. 191 on adding salt to water, the boiling point and freezing point of water will:

A. increases

B. increase and decrease respectively

C. decrease

D. decrease and increase respectively

 

Q. 192 chocolates can be bad for health because of a high contentof

A. cobalt

B. nickel

C. zinc

D. lead

 

Q. 193 The novel coolie is written by

A. R.k.Narayan

B. prem chand

C. jainendra kumar

D. mulk raj anand

 

Q. 194 Beirut is the capital of :

A. syria

B. jordan

C. lebanon

D. libya

 

Q. 195 The first month of saka year is

A. vaisakh

B. chaitra

C. jyeshtha

D. paush

 

Q. 196 chameli devi award is given to an outstanding woman who is a:

A. vocalist

B. lawyer

C. journalist

D. scientist

 

Q. 197 “olive branch” is a sign of

A. war

B. peace

C. defeat

D. conquest

 

Q. 198 800 in roman number is written as

A. DDCC

B. DDDC

C. DCCC

D. DCCD

 

Q. 199 santosh trophy is associated with

A. hockey

B. cricket

C. badminton

D. football

 

Q. 200 Which river carries maximum quantity of water in the world?

A. nile

B. amazon

C. thames

D. missisippi

 

Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer B C A C B D C B C C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer A C A C C B B A A C
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer C A A B C B C A D B
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer A C B A C B B C C A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A D B D C A A B A A
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer A C B D A A B C C A
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer C B A C C A C C C B
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer C C B B C C C C D B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer D D C C C A A A C A
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B B A D A D B A B B
Question 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer C B A A C A B C B B
Question 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer A D B B B A A D A C
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer C D D D C A A B A C
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer C D C B B C A C C D
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer C C A D B A C B C B
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer A C C C C B D B C A
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer B B A A D A A D C C
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer C D A B C C A D C D
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer A C A B C A A C C C
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer B D D C B C B C D B

 

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