NEET 2017 Previous Year Paper

NEET 2017 

Q. 1 A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make electrical measurements of E.M.F. because the method involves :

A. cells

B. potential gradients

C. a condition of no current flow through the galvanometer

D. a combination of cells, galvanometer and resistances


Q. 2 A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O2 and 4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is :

A. 4 RT

B. 15 RT

C. 9 RT

D. 11 RT


Q. 3 Radioactive material ‘A’ has decay constant ‘8 x’ and material ‘B’has decay constant ‘x’. Initially they have same number of nuclei. After what time, the ratio of number of nuclei of material ‘B’ to that ‘A’ will be 1/e?

A. 1/x

B. 1/7x

C. 1/8x

D. 1/9x


Q. 4 A U tube with both ends open to the atmosphere, is partially filled with water. Oil, which is immiscible with water, is poured into one side until it stands at a distance of 10 mm above the water level on the other side. Meanwhile the water level on the other side. Meanwhile the water rises by 65 mm from its original level (see diagram). The density of the oil is:

A. 650 kg m^-3

B. 425 kg m^-3

C. 800 kg m^-3

D. 928 kg m^-3


Q. 5 A 250-turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 uA and subjected to a magnetic field of strength 0.85 T. Work done for rotating the coil by 180 degrees against the torque is :

A. 9.1 uJ

B. 4.55 uJ

C. 2.3 uJ

D. 1.15 uJ


Q. 6 The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T (Kelvin) and mass m, is:

A. h/√(mkT)

B. h/√(3mkT)

C. 2h/√(3mkT)

D. 2h/√(mkT)


Q. 7 One end of string of length l is connected to a particle of mass ‘m’ and the other end is connected to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in circle with speed ‘v’, the net force on the particle (directed towards center) will be (T represents the tension in the string)

A. T

B. T + mv^2/l

C. T – mv^2/l

D. Zero


Q. 8 Figure shows a circuit that contains three identical resistors with resistance R = 9.0 ohm each, two identical inductors with inductance L = 2.0 mH each, and an ideal battery with emf = 18 V. The current ‘i’ through the battery just after the switch closed is, …..

A. 2 mA

B. 0.2 A

C. 2 A

D. 0 ampere


Q. 9 The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time are x = 5t – 2t^2 and y = 10t respectively, where x and y are in meters and t in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at t = 2s is: 

A. 0

B. 5 m/s^2

C. -4 m/s^2

D. -8 m/s^2


Q. 10 Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ slightly. One of them is -e, the other is (e + change in e). If the net of electrostatic force and gravitational force between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance d (much greater than atomic size) apart is zero, then change in e is of the order of [Given mass of hydrogen mh = 1.67 x 10^-27 kg]

A. 10^-20 C

B. 10^-23 C

C. 10^-37 C

D. 10^-47 C


Q. 11 Two rods A and B of different materials are welded together as shown in figure. Their thermal conductivities are K1 and K2. The thermal conductivity of the composite rod will be:

A. K1+K2/2

B. 3(K1+K2)/2

C. K1+K2

D. 2(K1+K2)


Q. 12 The diagrams show regions of equipotentials. A positive charge is moved from A to B in each diagram.

A. Maximum work is required to move q in figure (c).

B. In all the four cases the work done is the same.

C. Minimum work is required to move q in figure (a).

D. Maximum work is required to move q in figure (b).


Q. 13 The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer series and the last line of Lyman series is :

A. 2

B. 1

C. 4

D. 0.5


Q. 14 Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found that 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the medium is nearly:

A. 1.25

B. 1.59

C. 1.69

D. 1.78


Q. 15 A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 3 cm. When the particle is at 2 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity s equal to that of its acceleration. Then its time period in seconds is:

A. Root of 5/pi

B. Root of 5/2pi

C. 4pi/root of 5

D. 2pi/root of 3


Q. 16 Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the given diagram. Match the following: 

Column-1 Column-2

P. Process I a. Adiabatic

Q. Process II b. Isobaric

R. Process III c. Isochoric

S. Process IV d. Isothermal

A. P–>a, Q–>c, R–>d, S–>b

B. P–>c, Q–>a, R–>d, S–>b

C. P–>c, Q–>d, R–>b, S–>a

D. P–>d, Q–>b, R–>a, S–>c


Q. 17 A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical uncharged capacitor is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of resulting system :

A. increases by a factor of 4

B. decreases by a factor of 2

C. remains the same

D. increases by a factor of 2


Q. 18 The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is 3250 x 10^-10 m. The velocity of the electron ejected from a silver surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength 2536 x 10^-10 m is :

(Given h = 4.14 x 10^-15 eVs and c = 3 x 10^8 ms^-1)

A. approximately 6 x 10^5 m/s

B. approximately 0.6 x 10^4 m/s

C. approximately 61 x 10^3 m/s

D. approximately 0.3 x 10^6 m/s


Q. 19 A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can be formed out of c, G and e^2/4piE0 is [c is velocity of light, G is universal constant of gravitation and e is charge] :

A. 1/c^2 [G e^2/4piE0]^(1/2)

B. c^2 [G e^2/4piE0]^(1/2)

C. 1/c^2 [e^2/G4piE0]^(1/2)

D. 1/c [G e^2/4piE0]


Q. 20 Two cars moving in opposite directions approach each other with speed of 22 m/s and 16.5 m/s respectively. The driver of the first car blows a horn having a frequency 400 Hz. The frequency heard by the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound 340 m/s]:

A. 350 Hz

B. 361 Hz

C. 411 Hz

D. 448 Hz


Q. 21 In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio signal voltage across the collector is 3 V. The resistance of collector is 3 k ohm. If current gain is 100 and the base resistance is 2 k ohm, the voltage and power gain of the amplifier is:

A. 200 and 1000

B. 15 and 200

C. 150 and 15000

D. 20 and 2000


Q. 22 Which one of the following represents forward bias diode?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 23 A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio 1:2:3. They are connected in series and the new force constant is k’.Then they are connected in parallel and force constant is k”. Then k’:k”is :

A. 1:6

B. 1:9

C. 1:11

D. 1:14


Q. 24 The given electrical network is equivalent to:

A. AND gate

B. OR gate

C. NOR gate

D. NOT gate


Q. 25 The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km above the earth is the same as at a depth d below the surface of earth. Then :

A. d = 1/2 km

B. d = 1 km

C. d = 3/2 km

D. d = 2 km


Q. 26 Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the centre of gravity of the body.

(b) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which the total gravitational torque on the body is zero.

(c) A couple on a body produce both translational and rotational motion in a body.

(d) Mechanical advantage greater than one means that small effort can be used to lift a

large load.

A. (b) and (d)

B. (a) and (b)

C. (b) and (c)

D. (c) and (d)


Q. 27 A carnot engine having an efficiency of 1/10 as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is 10J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is:

A. 1 J

B. 90 J

C. 99 J

D. 100 J


Q. 28 If x1 and x2 be the apparent angles of dip observed in two vertical planes at right angles to each other, then the true angle of dip x is given by:

A. cot^2(x) = cot^2x(1) + cot^2(x2)

B. tan^(2x) = tan^2(x1) + tan^2(x2)

C. cot^(2x) = cot^2(x1) – cot^2(x2)

D. tan^(2x) = tan^2(x1) – tan^2(x2)


Q. 29 An arrangement of three parallel straight wires placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying same current ‘I’ along the same direction is shown in Fug. Magnitude of force per unit length on the middle wire ‘B’ is given by:

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 30 two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space after having lost contact with their spaceship. The two will:

A. keep floating at the same distance between them.

B. move towards each other.

C. move away from each other.

D. will become stationary.


Q. 31 In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean square value of the electric field is Erms = 6V/m. The peak value of the magnetic field is :

A. 1.41 x 10⁻⁸ T

B. 2.83 x 10⁻⁸ T

C. 0.70 x 10⁻⁸ T

D. 4.23 x 10⁻⁸ T


Q. 32 The bulk modulus of a spherical object is ‘B’. If it is subjected to uniform pressure ‘p’, the fractional decrease in

radius is :

A. p/B

B. B/3p

C. 3p/B

D. p/3B


Q. 33 The ratio of resolving powers of an optical microscope for two wavelengths x1 = 4000 A and x2 = 6000 A is :

A. 8:27

B. 9:4

C. 3:2

D. 16:81


Q. 34 Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g falling from a height of 1 km. It hits the ground with a speed of 50 m/s. Take ‘g’ constant with a value 10 m/s^2. The work done by the (i) gravitational force and the (ii) resistive force of air is :

A. (i) -10 J (ii) -8.25 J

B. (i) 1.25 J (ii) -8.25 J

C. (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J

D. (i) 10 J (ii) -8.75 J


Q. 35 A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm radiates 450 watt power at 500 K. If the radius were halved and the temperature doubled, the power radiated in watt would be :

A. 225

B. 450

C. 1000

D. 1800


Q. 36 Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m respectively are connected by a massless and inextensible string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut, are respectively:

A. g, g/3

B. g/3, g

C. g, g

D. g/3, g/3


Q. 37 Two polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis perpendicular to each other.

Unpolarised light I0 is incident on P1. A third polaroid P3 is kept in between P1 and P2 such that its axis makes an angle 45 degrees with that of P1. The intensity of transmitted light through P2 is :

A. I0/2

B. I0/4

C. I0/8

D. I0/16


Q. 38 A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 x 10^4 turns per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100 turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in the solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0A from 4A in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 10 pip^2 ohm, the total charge flowing through the coil during this time is:

A. 32 pi uC

B. 16 uC

C. 32 uC

D. 16 pi uC


Q. 39 Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regular axis passing through centre and perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular velocities w1 and w2. They are brought into contact face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The expression for loss of energy during this process is:

A. 1/2 I (w1+w2)^2

B. 1/4 I (w1-w2)^2

C. I (w1-w2)^2

D. I/8 (w1-w2)^2


Q. 40 Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked up the stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken by her to walk up on the moving escalator will be :

A. t1+t2/2

B. t1t2/t2-t1

C. t1t2/t2+t1

D. t1 – t2


Q. 41 A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N?

A. 25 m/s^2

B. 0.25 rad/s^2

C. 25 rad/s^2

D. 5 m/s^2


Q. 42 A beam of light from a source L is incident normally on a plane mirror fixed at a certain distance x from the source. The beam is reflected back at a spot on a scale placed just above the source L. When the mirror is rotated through a small angle x, the spot of the light is found to move through a distance y on the scale. The angle x is given by: 

A. y/2x

B. y/x

C. x/2y

D. x/y


Q. 43 The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the system?

A. 10 Hz

B. 20 Hz

C. 30 Hz

D. 40 Hz


Q. 44 A thin prism having refracting angle 10 degrees is made of glass of refractive index 1.42. This prism is combined with another thin prism of glass of refractive index 1.7. This combination produces dispersion without deviation. The refracting angle of second prism should be:

A. 4 degrees

B. 6 degrees

C. 8 degrees

D. 10 degrees


Q. 45 The resistance of a wire is ‘R’ ohm. If it is melted and stretched to ‘n’ times its original length, its new resistance will be:

A. nR

B. R/n

C. n^2R

D. R/n^2


Q. 46 With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?

A. Bond angle remains same but bond length changes

B. Bond angle changes but bond length remains same

C. Both bond angle and bond length change

D. Both bond angles and bond length remains same


Q. 47 Which of the following pairs of compounds is isoelectronic and isostructural?

A. BeCl2, XeI2

B. TeI2, XeF2

C. IBr2^-, XeF2

D. IF3, XeF2


Q. 48 HgCl2 and I2 both when dissolved in water containing I^- ions the pair of species formed is :

A. HgI2, I3^-

B. HgI2, I^-

C. HgI4^2-, I3^-

D. Hg2I2, I^-


Q. 49 Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as :

A. analgesic

B. antiseptic

C. antipyretic

D. antibiotic


Q. 50 Which is the incorrect statement?

A. FeO0.98 has non stoichiometric metal deficiency defect

B. Density decreases in case of crystals with Schottky’s defect

C. NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon is semiconductor, silver is conductor, quartz is piezo

electric crystal

D. Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic compounds in which sizes of cation and

anions are not equal


Q. 51 Concentration of the Ag^+ ions in a saturated solution of Ag2C2O4 is 2.2 x 10^-4 mol L^-1. Solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is:

A. 2.42 x 10^-8

B. 2.66 x 10^-12

C. 4.5 x 10^-11

D. 3.33 x 10^-12


Q. 52 Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation followed by heating?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 53 The species, having bond angles of 120 degrees is :

A. PH3

B. ClF3

C. NCl3

D. BCl3


Q. 54 If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be:

A. doubled

B. halved

C. tripled

D. unchanged


Q. 55 Which one is the most acidic compound?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 56 It is because of nability of ns^2 electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding that:

A. Sn^2+ is reducing while Pb^4+ is oxidising

B. Sn^2+ is oxidising while Pb^4+ is reducing

C. Sn^2+ and Pb^4+ are both oxidising and reducing

D. Sn^4+ is reducing while Pb^4+ is oxidising


Q. 57 Predict the correct intermediate and product in the given reaction.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 58 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Catalyst does not initiate any reaction.

B. The value of equilibrium constant is changed in the presence of a catalyst in the

reaction at equilibrium.

C. Enzymes catalyse mainly bio-chemical reactions.

D. Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of enzyme.


Q. 59 Which one is the wrong statement?

A. de-Broglie’s wavelength is given by h/mv where m = mass of the particle, v = group velocity of the particle

B. The uncertainty principle is change in E x change in t >= h/4pi

C. Half filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange

energy, greater symmetry and more balanced arrangement.

D. The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms.


Q. 60 A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume of 4.50 L. The change in internal energy change in U of the gas in joules will be :

A. 1136.25 J

B. -500 J

C. -505 J

D. +505 J


Q. 61 Consider the reactions. Identify A, X, Y and Z

A. A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanoic acid, Y-Acetate ion, Z-hydrazine

B. A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanol, Y-Ethanoic acid, Z-Semicarbazide

C. A-Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But-2-enal, Z-Semicarbazone

D. A-Ethanol, X-Acetaldehyde, Y-Butanone, Z-Hydrazone

Q. 62 Which one is the correct order of acidity?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 63 In the electrochemical cell :

Zn|ZnSO4(0.01 M)|| CuSO4(1.0 M)|Cu, the emf of this Daniel cell is E1. When the concentration of ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 is changed to 0.01 M, the emf changes to E2. From the followings, which one is the relationship between E1 and E2?

(Given, RT/F = 0.059)

A. E1 = E2

B. E1 < E2

C. E1 > E2

D. E2 = 0 is not = E1


Q. 64 The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is:

A. II < III < I

B. III < I < II

C. III < II < I

D. II < I < III


Q. 65 In which pair of ions both the species contain S – S bond?

A. S2O7^2-, S2O3^2-

B. S4O6^2-, S2O3^2-

C. S2O7^2-, S2O8^2-

D. S4O6^2-, S2O7^2-


Q. 66 The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the complexes: CoCl3.6NH3, CoCl3.5NH3, CoCl2.4NH3 respectively is:

A. 1AGCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl

B. 3AGCl, 1AgCl, 2AgCl

C. 3AGCl, 2AgCl, 1AgCl

D. 2AGCl, 3AgCl, 1AgCl


Q. 67 Match the interhalogen compounds of column I with the geometry in column II and assign the correct code.

Column I Column II

(a) XX (i) T-shape

(b) XX3 (ii) Pentagonal bipyramidal

(c) XX5 (iii) Linear

(d) XX7 (iv) Square-pyramidal

(v) Tetrahedral

A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

C. (a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)


Q. 68 The reason for greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is attributed to:

A. the radioactive nature of actinoids

B. actinoid contraction

C. 5d, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies

D. 4d and 5d levels being close in energies


Q. 69 A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO2(g) at pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the volume of solid SrO). The volume of the container is now decreased by moving the movable piston fitted in the container, when pressure of CO2 attains its maximum value, will be:

A. 5 litre

B. 10 litre

C. 4 litre

D. 2 litre


Q. 70 The correct statement regarding electrophile is:

A. Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

B. Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from another electrophile

C. Electrophile are generally neutral species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

D. Electrophile can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile


Q. 71 Which of the following is a sink for CO?

A. Haemoglobin

B. Micro organisms present in the soil

C. Oceans

D. Plants


Q. 72 The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following family/group and electronic configuration?

A. Halogen family, [Rn] 5f^14 6d^10 7s^2 7p^5

B. Carbon family, [Rn] 5f^14 6d^10 7s^2 7p^2

C. Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f^14 6d^10 7s^2 7p^4

D. Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f^14 6d^10 7s^2 7p^6


Q. 73 Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the complexes of Co^3+ is:

A. [Co(en)3]^3+, [Co(NH3)6]^3+, [Co(H2O)6]^3+

B. [Co(H2O)6]^3+, [Co(en)3]^3+, [Co(NH3)6]^3+

C. [Co(H2O)6]^3+, [Co(NH3)6]^3+, [Co(en)3]^3+

D. [Co(NH3)6]^3+, [Co(en)3]^3+, [Co(H2O)6]^3+


Q. 74 Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of a human body

B. Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white

C. Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting

D. Denaturation makes the proteins more active


Q. 75 An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is:

A. Ruthenocene

B. Grignard’s reagent

C. Ferrocene

D. Cobaltocene


Q. 76 Which of the following is dependent on temperature?

A. Molality

B. Molarity

C. Mole fraction

D. Weight percentage


Q. 77 For a given reaction, change in H = 35.5 kJ mol^-1 and change in S = 83.6 JK^-1 mol^-1. The reaction is spontaneous at: (Assume that change in H and change in S do not vary with temperature)

A. T < 425 K

B. T > 425 K

C. all temperatures

D. T > 298 K


Q. 78 The most suitable method of separation of 1:1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is 

A. Sublimation

B. Chromatography

C. Crystallisation

D. Steam distillation


Q. 79 Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?


B. O2, NO^+

C. CN^-, CO

D. N2, O2^-


Q. 80 Identify A and predict the type of reaction

A. and substitution reaction

B. and elimination addition reaction

C. and cine substitution reaction

D. and cine substitution reaction


Q. 81 A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 10^-2 sec^-1. How much time will it take for 20 g of the reactant to reduce to 5 g?

A. 238.6 sec

B. 138.6 sec

C. 346.5 sec

D. 693.0 sec


Q. 82 Name the gas that can readily decolourise acidified KMnO4 solution :

A. CO2

B. SO2

C. NO2

D. P2O5


Q. 83 The heating of phenyl-methyl ethers with HI produces

A. ethyl chlorides

B. iodobenzene

C. phenol

D. benzene


Q. 84 Pick out the correct statement with respect to [Mn(CN)6]^3- :

A. It is sp^3d^2 hybridised and octahedral

B. It is sp^3d^2 hybridised and tetrahedral

C. It is d^2sp^3 hybridised and octahedral

D. It is dsp^2 hybridised and square planar


Q. 85 Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts are put under an electric field?

A. Na

B. K

C. Rb

D. Li


Q. 86 Using the given information, the equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction will be :

A. K1(K3)^3/K2

B. K2(K3)^3/K1

C. K2K3/K1

D. (K2)^3K3/K1


Q. 87 Which of the following reactions is appropriate for converting acetamide to methanamine?

A. Carbylamine reaction

B. Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction

C. Stephens reaction

D. Gabriels phthalimide synthesis


Q. 88 Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction X2 + Y2 —-> 2XY is given. The overall order of the reaction will be:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 0

D. 1.5


Q. 89 The IUPAC name of the compound

A. 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal

B. 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one

C. 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al

D. 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal


Q. 90 Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with CN^- ion. Silver is later recovered by:

A. liquation

B. distillation

C. zone refining

D. displacement with Zn


Q. 91 Double fertilization in exhibited by:

A. Gymnosperms

B. Algae

C. Fungi

D. Angiosperms


Q. 92 Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions?

A. Archaebacteria

B. Eubacteria

C. Cyanobacteria

D. Mycobacteria


Q. 93 Select the mismatch:

A. Frankia – Alnus

B. Rhodospirillum – Mycorrhiza

C. Anabaena – Nitrogen fixer

D. Rhizobium – Alfalfa


Q. 94 What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel


A. The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves

B. The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves

C. Positively charged fragments move to farther end

D. Negatively charged fragments do not move


Q. 95 Attractants and rewards are required for:

A. Anemophily

B. Entomophily

C. Hydrophily

D. Cleistogamy


Q. 96 Which of the following is made up of dead cells?

A. Xylem parenchyma

B. Collenchyma

C. Phellem

D. Phloem


Q. 97 Which cells of Çrypts of Lieberkuhn’ secrete antibacterial lysozyme?

A. Argentaffin cells

B. Paneth cells

C. Zymogen cells

D. Kupffer cells


Q. 98 Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for this feature?

(a) They do not need to reproduce

(b) They are somatic cells

(c) They do not metabolize

(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen transport

A. Only (d)

B. Only (a)

C. (a), (c) and (d)

D. (b) and (c)


Q. 99 The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from

A. Heart

B. Stomach

C. Kidneys

D. Intestine


Q. 100 The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of:

A. Griffith

B. Hershey and Chase

C. Avery, Mcleod and McCarty

D. Hargobind Khorana


Q. 101 Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen?

A. Bacillus

B. Pseudomonas

C. Mycoplasma

D. Nostoc


Q. 102 Which of the following options gives the correct sequence of events during mitosis?

A. condensation –> nuclear membrane disassembly –> crossing over –> segregation –> telophase

B. condensation –> nuclear membrane disassembly –> arrangement at equator –>

centromere division –> segregation –> telophase

C. condensation –> crossing over –> nuclear membrane disassembly –> segregation –> telophase

D. condensation –> arrangement at equator –> centromere division –> segregation –> telophase


Q. 103 Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to enzymes?

A. Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme

B. Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme

C. Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme

D. Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor


Q. 104 During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate :

A. The leading strand towards replication fork.

B. The lagging strand towards replication fork.

C. The leading strand away from replication fork.

D. The lagging strand away from replication fork.


Q. 105 Which of the following are not polymeric?

A. Nucleic acids

B. Proteins

C. Polysaccharides

D. Lipids


Q. 106 The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed is known as :

A. Core zone

B. Buffer zone

C. Transition zone

D. Restoration zone


Q. 107 The dioecious flowering plant prevents both:

A. Autogamy and xenogamy

B. Autogamy and geitonogamy

C. Geitonogamy and xenogamy

D. Cleistogamy and xenogamy


Q. 108 A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is :

A. Pineal gland

B. Corpus cardiacum

C. Corpus luteum

D. Corpus allatum


Q. 109 Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column-I) with their causative agents

(Column-II) and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV

(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria

(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema

(d) AIDS (iv) Human Papilloma – Virus

A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii, (d)-(i)

D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)


Q. 110 Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient’s body. Which type of immune-response is responsible for such rejections?

A. Autoimmune response

B. Cell-mediated immune response

C. Hormonal immune response

D. Physiological immune response


Q. 111 Spliceosomes are not found in cells of:

A. Plants

B. Fungi

C. Animals

D. Bacteria


Q. 112 An example of colonial alga is:

A. Chlorella

B. Volvox

C. Ulothrix

D. Spirogyra


Q. 113 Which of the following represents order of ‘Horses’?

A. Equidae

B. Perissodactyla

C. Caballus

D. Ferus


Q. 114 Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP?

A. Lysosome

B. Ribosome

C. Chloroplast

D. Mitochondrion


Q. 115 The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called:

A. Upstream processing

B. Downstream processing

C. Bioprocessing

D. Postproduction processing


Q. 116 Mycorrhizae are the example of:

A. Fungistasis

B. Amensalism

C. Antibiosis

D. Mutualism


Q. 117 Viroids differ from viruses in having:

A. DNA molecules with protein coat

B. DNA molecules without protein coat

C. RNA molecules with protein coat

D. RNA molecules without protein coat


Q. 118 Root hairs develop from the region of:

A. Maturation

B. Elongation

C. Root cap

D. Meristematic activity


Q. 119 Coconut fruit is a:

A. Drupe

B. Berry

C. Nut

D. Capsule


Q. 120 Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores and show vivipary belong to:

A. Mesophytes

B. Halophytes

C. Psammophytes

D. Hydrophytes


Q. 121 Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ conservation of threatened animals and plants?

A. Wildlife Safari parks

B. Biodiversity hot spots

C. Amazon rainforest

D. Himalayan region


Q. 122 Select the mismatch:

A. Pinus – Dioecious

B. Cycas – Dioecious

C. Salvinia – Heterosporous

D. Equisetum – Homosporous


Q. 123 Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal aperture?

A. Contraction of outer wall of guard cells

B. Decrease in turgidity of guard cells

C. Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells

D. Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells


Q. 124 The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates :

A. Transcription is occurring.

B. DNA replication is occurring.

C. The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre.

D. The DNA double helix is exposed.


Q. 125 The DNA fragments are:

A. Positively charged

B. Negatively charged

C. Neutral

D. Either positively or negatively charged depending on their size


Q. 126 Capacitation occurs in:

A. Rete testis

B. Epididymis

C. Vas deferens

D. Female Reproductive tract


Q. 127 Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass?

A. Forest ecosystem

B. Grassland ecosystem

C. Pond ecosystem

D. Lake ecosystem


Q. 128 A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunction is:

A. Down’s Syndrome

B. Klinefelter’s Syndrome

C. Turner’s Syndrome

D. Sickle Cell Anemia


Q. 129 Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are:

A. Haplontic, Diplontic

B. Diplontic, Haplodiplontic

C. Haplodiplontic, Diplontic

D. Haplodiplontic, Haplontic


Q. 130 If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?

A. 1

B. 11

C. 33

D. 333


Q. 131 The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of

A. fibrous joint

B. cartilaginous joint

C. synovial joint

D. saddle joint


Q. 132 A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as :

A. Selectable marker

B. Vector

C. Plasmid

D. Structural gene


Q. 133 Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical layers depending on their height can be seen in :

A. Tropical Savannah

B. Tropical Rain Forest

C. Grassland

D. Temperate Forest


Q. 134 A genotypes of a Husband and Wife are (I)^A(I)^B at (I)^Ai.

Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?

A. 3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes

B. 3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes

C. 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes

D. 4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes


Q. 135 Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of :

A. Marchantia

B. Fucus

C. Funaria

D. Chlamydomonas


Q. 136 Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them?

A. Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics

B. Methanobacterium : Lactic acid

C. Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid

D. Sacchromyces cerevisiae : Ethanol


Q. 137 Frog’s heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for sometime. Select the best option from the following statements.

(a) Frog is poikilotherm.

(b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation.

(c) Heart is “myogenic” in nature.

(d) Heart is autoexcitable.

A. Only (c)

B. Only (d)

C. (a) and (b)

D. (c) and (d)


Q. 138 Which statement is wrong for Krebs’ cycle?

A. There are three points in the cycle where NAD^+ is reduced to NADH+H^+

B. There is one point in the cycle where FAD^+ is reduced to FADH2

C. During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised

D. The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid


Q. 139 In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called :

A. ostia

B. oscula

C. choanocytes

D. mesenchymal cells


Q. 140 Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell?

A. r-RNA

B. t-RNA

C. m-RNA

D. mi-RNA


Q. 141 Which among these is the correct combination of aquatic mammals?

A. Seals, Dolphins, Sharks

B. Dolphins, Seals, Trygon

C. Whales, Dolphins, Seals

D. Trygon, Whales, Seals


Q. 142 With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not correct?

A. Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight

B. Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration up to 0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate

C. C3 plants respond to higher temperature with enhanced photosynthesis while C4

plants have much lower temperature optimum

D. Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown in CO2 – enriched atmosphere for higher yield


Q. 143 Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when :

A. The value of ‘r’ approaches zero

B. K = N

C. K > N

D. K < N


Q. 144 Out of ‘X’ pairs of rivs in humans only ‘Y’ pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents values of X and Y and provides their explanation.

A. X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum

B. X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and sternum on the two ends

C. X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on

ventral side.

D. X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on

ventral side.


Q. 145 The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with :

A. Bromophenol blue

B. Acetocarmine

C. Aniline blue

D. Ethidium bromide


Q. 146 Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into :

A. Ovule

B. Endosperm

C. Embryo sac

D. Embryo


Q. 147 Among the following characters, which one was not considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea?

A. Stem – Tall or Dwarf

B. Trichomes – Glandular or non-glandular

C. Seed – Green or Yellow

D. Pod – Inflated or Constricted


Q. 148 Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of :

A. Residual Volume

B. Inspiratory Reserve Volume

C. Tidal Volume

D. Expiratory Reserve Volume


Q. 149 GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on :

A. anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin.

B. anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.

C. posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH.

D. posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin.


Q. 150 In Bougainvillae thorns are the modifications of :

A. Stipules

B. Adventitious root

C. Stem

D. Leaf


Q. 151 Which from those given below is the period for Mendel’s hybridization experiments?

A. 1856 – 1863

B. 1840 – 1850

C. 1857 – 1869

D. 1870 – 1877


Q. 152 Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene-rick food.

Select the best option from the following statements.

(a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene.

(b) The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segment.

(c) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A.

(d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual photopigments.

A. (a) and (b)

B. (a), (c) and (d)

C. (a) and (c)

D. (b), (c) and (d)


Q. 153 Which one of the following statements is not valid for aerosols?

A. They are harmful to human health

B. They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns

C. They cause increased agricultural productivity

D. They have negative impact on agricultural land


Q. 154 A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause he release of :

A. Renin

B. Atrial Natriuretic Factor

C. Aldosterone



Q. 155 Homozygous purelines in cattle can be obtained by:

A. mating of related individuals of same breed

B. mating of unrelated individuals of same breed

C. mating of individuals of different breed

D. mating of individuals of different species


Q. 156 The vascular cambium normally gives rise to :

A. Phelloderm

B. Primary phloem

C. Secondary xylem

D. Periderm


Q. 157 Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water

B. The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water

C. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water

D. The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes


Q. 158 Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by the application of:

A. Cytokinins

B. Ethylene

C. Auxins

D. Gibberellic acid


Q. 159 A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play school and passes through a dental checkup. The dentist observed that the boy had twenty teeth. Which teeth were absent?

A. Incisors

B. Canines

C. Pre-molars

D. Molars


Q. 160 An important characteristic that Hemichordates share with Chordates is:

A. absence of notochord

B. ventral tubular nerve cord

C. pharynx with gill slits

D. pharynx without gill slits


Q. 161 Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents:

A. stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character in the population

B. directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction

C. disruptive as it splits the population into two, one yielding higher output and the

other lower output

D. stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the population to produce higher

yielding cows


Q. 162 Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs:

A. Testes –> Bidder’s canal –> Kidney –> Vasa efferentia –> Urinogenital duct –> Cloaca

B. Testes –> Vasa efferentia –> Kidney –> Seminal Vesicle –> Urinogenital duct –> Cloaca

C. Testes –> Vasa efferentia –> Bidder’s canal –> Ureter –> Cloaca

D. Testes –> Vasa efferentia –> Kidney –> Bidder’s canal –> Urinogenital duct –> Cloaca


Q. 163 Which of the following options best represents the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice?

A. amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin

B. amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase

C. peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin

D. lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase


Q. 164 Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2 acceptor in:

A. C3 plants

B. C4 plants

C. C2 plants

D. C3 and C4 plants


Q. 165 The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut is:

A. Perisperm

B. Cotyledon

C. Endosperm

D. Pericarp


Q. 166 Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, which of the following is expected to occur?

A. Chromosomes will not condense

B. Chromosomes will be fragmented

C. Chromosomes will not segregate

D. Recombination of chromosome arms will occur


Q. 167 MALT constitutes about ________ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.

A. 50%

B. 20%

C. 70%

D. 10%


Q. 168 Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on:

A. membranes of synaptic vescicles

B. pre-synaptic membrane

C. tips of axons

D. post-synaptic membrane


Q. 169 Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does not cause further increase in height, because :

A. Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults

B. Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence

C. Bones loose their sensitivity to Growth Hormone in adults

D. Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth.


Q. 170 Alexander Von Humbolt described for the first time:

A. Ecological Biodiversity

B. Laws of limiting factor

C. Species area relationships

D. Population Growth equation


Q. 171 Myelin sheath is produced by:

A. Schwann Cells and Oligodendrocytes

B. Astrocytes and Schwann Cells

C. Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts

D. Osteoclasts and Astrocytes


Q. 172 In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilisation?

A. Intrauterine transfer

B. Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer

C. Artificial Insemination

D. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection


Q. 173 Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell?

A. Cell wall

B. Nuclear membrane

C. Plasma mebrane

D. Glycoalyx


Q. 174 DNA replication in bacteria occurs:

A. During S phase

B. Within nucleolus

C. Prior to fission

D. Just before transcription


Q. 175 The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD’s is:

A. The suppress sperm mobility and ferilising capacity of sperms

B. They inhibit gametogenesis

C. They make uterus unsuitable for implantation

D. They inhibit ovulation.


Q. 176 Which of the following in sewage treatment removes suspended solids?

A. Tertiary treatment

B. Secondary treatment

C. Primary treatment

D. Sludge treatment


Q. 177 The water potential of pure water is:

A. Zero

B. Less than zero

C. More than zero but less than one

D. More than one


Q. 178 Identify the wrong statement in context of heartwood:

A. Organic compounds are deposited in it

B. It is highly durable

C. It conducts water and minerals efficiently

D. It comprises dead elements with highly lignified walls


Q. 179 Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct statement.

A. Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis

B. Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis

C. Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules

D. Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules


Q. 180 Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by:

A. Water

B. Bee

C. Wind

D. Bat

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C D B D A B A B C C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer A B C D C B B A A D
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer C A C C D A B A D B
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B D C D D B C C B C
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C A B B C D C C B A
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer D B D D D A D B D C
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer C B C D B C B C A D
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer B B A D B B B D C A
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer B B C C D B B A A D
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer D A B B B C B A D B
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer C B B D D A B C A B
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer D B B D B D D A A B
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer A A C C B D A A C C
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer C A B C D D D D C A
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer C C B A D C B A B C
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer A B C B A C A C C C
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer B D D B C C A D B C
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer A C D C A C A C C C


AIPMT 2012 Mains Previous Year Paper

AIPMT 2012  Mains

Q. 1 The instantaneous values of alternating current and voltages in a circuit are given as i = 1/√2 sin (100 πt) ampere 

e =1/√2 sin (100 πt + π/3) volt

The average power in Watts consumed in the circuit is –

A. √3/4

B. 1/2

C. 1/8

D. 1/4


Q. 2 The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the figure is 30 Watts. The value of R is –

A. 15 Ω

B. 10 Ω

C. 30 Ω

D. 20 Ω


Q. 3 The dimensions of (μ0ε0)^–1/2 are –

A. [L–1T]

B. [LT–1]

C. [L1/2T1/2]

D. [L1/2T–1/2] 


Q. 4 An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via three different processes as indicated in the PV diagram –

If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicate the heat absorbed by the gas along the three processes and ΔU1, ΔU2, ΔU3 indicate the change in internal energy along the three processes respectively, then –

A. Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and ΔU1 = ΔU2 = ΔU3

B. Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and ΔU1 > ΔU2 > ΔU3

C. Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and ΔU1 > ΔU2 > ΔU

D. Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and ΔU1 = ΔU2 = ΔU3


Q. 5 To get an output Y = 1 in given circuit which of the following input will be correct

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 6 Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm are given charges of –1 × 10–2 C and 5 × 10–2 C, respectively. If these are connected by a conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger sphere is –

A. 3 × 10–2 C

B. 4 × 10–2 C

C. 1 × 10–2 C

D. 2 × 10–2 C


Q. 7 Two radiations of photons energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV, successively illuminate a

photosensitive metallic surface of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds

of the emitted electrons is –

A. 1 : 2

B. 1 : 1

C. 1 : 5

D. 1 : 4


Q. 8 The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc is maximum about an axis perpendicular to the disc and passing through –

A. C

B. D

C. A

D. B


Q. 9 A train moving at a speed of 220 ms–1 towards a stationary object, emits a sound of frequency 1000 Hz. Some of the sound reaching the object gets reflected back to the train as echo. The frequency of the echo as detected by the driver of the train is – (speed of sound in air is 330 ms–1)

A. 4000 Hz

B. 5000 Hz

C. 3000 Hz

D. 3500 Hz


Q. 10 The half life of a radioactive nucleus is 50 days. The time interval (t2 – t1) between the time t2 when 2/3 of it has decayed and the time t1 when 1/3 of it had decayed is –

A. 50 days

B. 60 days

C. 15 days

D. 30 days


Q. 11 A car of mass m is moving on a level circular track of radius R. If μs represents the static friction between the road and tyres of the car, the maximum speed of the car in circular motion is given by –

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 12 A circular platform is mounted on a frictionless vertical axle. Its radius R = 2m and its moment of inertia about the axle is 200 kg m2. It is initially at rest. A 50 kg man stands on the edge of the platform and begins to walk along the edge at the speed of 1ms–1 relative to the ground. Time taken by the man to complete one revolution is –

A. s 2 3π/2 s

B. 2π s

C. s π/ 2 s

D. π s


Q. 13 If the momentum of an electron is changed by P, then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it changes by 0.5%. The initial momentum of electron will be

A. 400 P

B. P/200

C. `100P

D. 200P


Q. 14 If ve is escape velocity and vo is orbital velocity of a satellite for orbit close to the earth’s surface, then these are related by –

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 15 The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by

y = 3 sin π/ 2 (50t – x)

where x and y are in meters and t is in seconds. The ratio of maximum particle velocity to the wave velocity is –

A. 3/2π

B. 3π

C. 2/3π

D. 2π


Q. 16 A proton carrying 1 MeV kinetic energy is moving in a circular path of radius R in uniform magnetic field. What should be the energy of an α-particle to describe a circle of same radius in the same field ?

A. 1 MeV

B. 0.5 MeV

C. 4 MeV

D. 2 MeV


Q. 17 Three masses are placed on the x-axis : 300 g at origin, 500 g at x = 40 cm and 400 g at x = 70 cm. The distance of the centre of mass from the origin is –

A. 45 cm

B. 50 cm

C. 30 cm

D. 40 cm


Q. 18 In a coil of resistance 10 Ω, the induced current developed by changing magnetic flux through it, is shown in figure as a function of time. The magnitude of change in flux through the coil in Weber is –

A. 2

B. 6

C. 4

D. 8


Q. 19 A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field E in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is d and area of each plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is –

A. E^2Ad/ε0

B. 1/2 ε0E^2Ad

C. ε0EAd

D. 1/2 ε0E^2


Q. 20 A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates so that the instantaneous power delivered to the car has a constant magnitude P0. The instantaneous velocity of this car is proportional to –

A. t^1/2

B. t^–1/2

C. t/√m

D. t²p0


Q. 21 Which one of the following plots represents the variation of gravitational field on a particle with distance r due to a thin spherical shell of radius R ? (r is measured from the centre of the spherical shell)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 22 The input resistance of a silicon transistor is 100 Ω. Base current is changed by 40 μA which results in a change in collector current by 2 mA. This transistor is used as a common emitter amplifier with a load resistance of 4 KΩ. The voltage gain of the amplifier is-

A. 3000

B. 4000

C. 1000

D. 2000


Q. 23 For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material whose refractive index –

A. lies between 2 and 2

B. is less than 1

C. is greater than 2

D. lies between 2 and 1


Q. 24 The transition from the state n = 3 to n = 1 in a hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from –

A. 3 → 2

B. 4 → 2

C. 4 → 3

D. 2 → 1


Q. 25 A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the image is –

A. 15 cm

B. 2.5 cm

C. 5 cm

D. 10 cm


Q. 26 A slab of stone of area 0.36 m2 and thickness 0.1 is exposed on the lower surface to steam at 100ºC. A block of ice at 0ºC rests on the upper surface of the slab. In one hour 4.8 kg of ice is melted. The thermal conductivity of slab is- (Given latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.36 × 105 J kg–1)

A. 1.29 J/m/s/ºC

B. 2.05 J/m/s/ºC

C. 1.02 J/m/s/ºC

D. 1.24 J/m/s/ºC


Q. 27 A stone is dropped from a height h. It hits the ground with a certain momentum P. If the same stone is dropped from a height 100 % more than the previous height, the momentum when it hits the ground will change by –

A. 41 %

B. 200 %

C. 100 %

D. 68 %


Q. 28 A cell having an emf ε and internal resistance r is connected across a variable external resistance R. As the resistance R is increased, the plot of potential difference V across R is given by –

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 29 A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a magnetic field requires 3 J of work to turn it through 60º. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be-

A. 3 J

B. √ 3 J

C. 3/2 J

D. 2√3 J


Q. 30 The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field for an

electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum is equal to – 

A. reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum

B. the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric susceptibility of vacuum

C. unity

D. the speed of light in vacuum


Q. 31 Read the following four statements (A – D) :

(A) In transcription adenosine pairs with uracil

(B) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as positive regulation

(C) The human genome has approximately 50,000 genes

(D) Haemophilia is a sex – linked recessive disease.

How many of the above statements are right?

A. Three

B. Four

C. One

D. Two


Q. 32 How man organisms in the list given below are autotrophs ? Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Sacharomyces,  Trypanosoma, Porphyra, Wolffia

A. Five

B. Six

C. THree

D. Four


Q. 33 How many plants in the list given below have marginal placentation?

Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, arhar, Sun,nemp, Chilli, Colchicine, Onion, Moong,Pea, Tobacco

A. Five

B. Six

C. Three

D. Four


Q. 34 As compared to a dicot root, a monocot root has

A. Many xylem bundles

B. Inconspicous annual rings

C. Relatively thicker periderm

D. More aboundant secondary xylem


Q. 35 A test cross is carried out to :

A. Predict whether two traits are linked

B. Assess the number of alleles of a gene

C. Determine whether two species or varieties will breed successfully

D. Determine the genotype of a plant at F2


Q. 36 Which one of the following categories of animals, is correctly described with no single exception in it ?

A. All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an operculum on each side

B. All sponges are marine and have collared cells

C. All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathi

D. All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathi


Q. 37 The rate of formation of new organic matter by rabbit in a grassland, is called :

A. Secondary productivity

B. Net primary productivit

C. Gross primary productivity

D. Net productivity


Q. 38 In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used :

A. To select healthy vectors

B. As sequences from where replication starts

C. To keep the cultures free of infection

D. As selectable markers


Q. 39 The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called

A. Follicular phase lasting for about 6 days

B. Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days

C. Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days

D. Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days


Q. 40 In gobar gas, the maximum amount is that of :

A. Methane

B. Propane

C. Carbon dioxide

D. Butane


Q. 41 Through their effect on plant growth regulators, what do the temperature and light control in the plants ?

A. Flowering

B. Closure of stomata

C. Fruit elongation

D. Apical dominance


Q. 42 Which one of the following human organs is often called the “graveyard” of RBCs?

A. Kidney

B. Spleen

C. Liver

D. Gall bladder


Q. 43 Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated against them ?

A. Garden lizard and Crocodile – Three chambered heart

B. Ascaris and Ancylostoma – Metameric segmentation

C. Sea horse and Flying fish – Cold blooded (poikilothermal)

D. Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus – Viviparity


Q. 44 The idea of mutations was brought forth by :

A. Gregor Mendol, who worked on Pisum sativum

B. Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele frequencies in a population

C. Charles Darwin, who observed a wide variety of organisms during sea voyage

D. Hugo do Vries, who worked on evening primrose


Q. 45 Select the correct statement about biodiversity :

A. Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity

B. Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism

C. Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by the developed countries

D. The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal pecies as well as numerous rare animal


Q. 46 Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules, are generally pollinated by

A. Butterflies

B. Birds

C. Wind

D. Bees


Q. 47 Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones only :

(a) Single cell Spirulina can produce large quantities of food rich in protein, minerals, vitamins etc.

(b) Body weight-wise the microorganisms Methylophilus methylotrophus may be able to produce several times more proteins than the cow per day

(c) Common button mushrooms are a very rich source of vitamin C

(d) A rice variety has been developed which is very rich in calcium

A. Statements (a), (c) and (d)

B. Statements (b), (c) and (d)

C. Statements (a), (b)

D. Statements (a), (b)


Q. 48 Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterised ?

A. Palmitic acid – an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms

B. Adenylic acid – adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule

C. Alanine amino acid – Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule

D. Lecithin – a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane


Q. 49 For its action, nitrogenase requires :

A. Light

B. Mn2+

C. Super oxygen radicals

D. High input of energy


Q. 50 Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been developed by the introduction of DNA that produced (in the host cells) :

A. A particular hormone

B. An antifeedant

C. A toxic protein

D. Both sense and anti-sense RNA


Q. 51 Where do certain symbiotic microorganisms normally occur in human body ?

A. Oral lining and tongue surface

B. Vermiform appendix and rectum

C. Duodenum

D. Caecum


Q. 52 Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous chromosomes separate while the sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres :

A. Metaphase-II

B. Anaphase-I

C. Anaphase-II

D. Metaphase-I


Q. 53 Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described ?

A. Centrioles – sites for active RNA synthesis

B. Ribosomes – those on chloroplasts are larger (80s) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70s)

C. Lysosomes – optimally active at a pH of about 8.5

D. Thylakoids – flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts


Q. 54 Cuscuta is an example of

A. Brood parasitism

B. Predation

C. Endoparasitism

D. Ectoparasitism


Q. 55 The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of :

A. Areolar tissue

B. Bone

C. Cartilage

D. Ligament


Q. 56 Read the following five statements (A – E) and answer as asked next to them.

(A) In Equisetum the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte

(B) In Ginkgo male gametophyte is not independent

(C) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed than that in Polytrichum

(D) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous

(E) The spores of slime molds lack cell walls

How many of the above statements are correct ?

A. Three

B. Four

C. One

D. Two


Q. 57 Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use

Molecule Source Use
(1) (b) Heroin Cannabis Sativa Depressant and slows down body functions
(2) (b) Cannabinoid Atropa belladonna Produces hallucinations
(3) (a) Morphine  Papaver somniferum Sedative and painkiller
(4) (a) Cocaine Erythroxylum coca Accelerates the transport of dopamine


A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 58 The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the option giving correct identification together with what it represents ?

A. A – Denaturation at a temperature of about 50ºC

B. C – Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase

C. A – Annealing with two sets of primers

D. B – Denaturation at a temperature of about 98ºC separating the two DNA strands


Q. 59 Identify the likely organisms (a), (b), (c) and (d) in the food web shown below :


(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Dog Squirrel  Bat  Deer 
(2) Rat  Dog  Tortoise  Crow 
(3) Squirrel  Cat  Rat  Pigeon 
(4) Deer  Rabbit  Frog  Rat 

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 60 Which one of the following pairs of chemical substances, is correctly categarised ?

A. Pepsin and prolactin – Two digestive enzymes secreted in stomach

B. Troponin and myosin – Complex proteins in striated muscles

C. Secretin and rhodopsin – Polypeptide hormones

D. Calcitonin and thymosin – Thyroid hormones


Q. 61 Vernalisation stimulates flowering in –

A. Turmeric

B. Carrot

C. Ginger

D. Zamikand


Q. 62 Green revolution in India occurred during –

A. 1970’s

B. 1980’s

C. 1950’s

D. 1960’s


Q. 63 A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates –

A. Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone

B. Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline

C. Posterior pituitary to release vasopressin

D. Juxta glomerular cells to release renin


Q. 64 What is the function of germ pore ?

A. Absorption of water for seed germination

B. Initiation of pollen tube

C. Release of male gametes

D. Emergence of radicle


Q. 65 Which one of the following option gives the correct categorization of six animals according to the type of nitrogenous wastes (A, B, C,), they give out ?


(1) Frog, Lizards Aquatic, Amphibia, Humans Cockroach Pigeon
(2) Aquatic Amphibia Frog, Humans Pigeon, Lizards Cockroach
(3) Aquatic  Cockroach Humans Frog, Pigeon Lizards
(4) Pigeon Humans Aquatic Amphibia Lizards Cockroach Frog


A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 66 Which one of the following sets of items in the option 1 – 4 are correctly categorized with one exception in it ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 67 Which one of the following generally acts as an antagonist to gibberellins ?

A. Ethylene



D. Zeatin


Q. 68 Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described ?

A. Plasmodium falciparum – a protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria

B. Felis tigris – The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests.

C. E.Coli – Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occurring bacterium in human Intestine 

D. Musca domestica – The common house lizards, a reptil


Q. 69 Read the following four statements (A-D) :

(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antigen

(B) Chikengunya is caused by a Gram negative bacterium

(C) Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining virus-free plants

(D) Beer is manufactured by distillation of fermented grape juice

How many of the above statements are wrong ?

A. Three

B. Four

C. One

D. Two


Q. 70 Which one of the following organisms is correctly matched with its three characteristics ?

A. Tomato : Twisted aestivation, Axile placentation, Berry

B. Onion : Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation

C. Maize : C3 pathway, Closed vascular bundles, Scutellum

D. Pea : C3 pathway, Endospermic seed, Vaxillary aestivation


Q. 71 The second stage of hydrosere is occupied by plants like

A. Typha

B. Salix

C. Vallisneria

D. Azolla


Q. 72 Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity ?

A. The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes

B. Antibodies are protein molecules each of which has four light chains

C. Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes

D. Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake


Q. 73 Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA ?

A. 5′-CCAATG-3′ 3′-GAATCC-5′

B. 5′-CATTAG-3′ 3′-GATAAC-5′

C. 5′-GATACC-3′ 3′-CCTAAG-5

D. 5′-GAATTC-3′ 3′-CTTAAG-5′


Q. 74 For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires :

A. Iron

B. Niacin

C. Copper

D. Zinc


Q. 75 Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. identify the parts labeled A, B, C and D and select the right option about them

Part – A  Part – B Part – C  Part – D
(1) Mast Cell  Marco – Phage Fibroblast  Collagen Fibreso
(2) Macro – phage Collagen fibres Fibroblast  Mast Cell
(3) Mast Cell  Collagen Fibers Fibroblast  Macro Phage
(4) Macro Phage Fibroblast  Collagen Fibers Mast Cell


A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 76 In the five-kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in 

A. Algae

B. Plantae

C. Monera

D. Protista


Q. 77 Read the following four statements (A-D)

(A) Both, photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation involve uphill transport of protons across the membrane

(B) In dicot stems, a new cambium originates from cells of pericycle at the time of secondary growth

(C) Stamens in flowers of Gloriosa and Petunia are polyandrous

(D) Symbiotic nitrogen-fixers occur in free-living state also in soil

How many of the above statements are right

A. THree

B. Four

C. one

D. Two


Q. 78 The domestic sewage in large cities :

A. is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary treatment in Sewage Treatment Plant (STPs)

B. When treated in STPs does not really require the aeration step as the sewage contains adequate oxygen

C. Has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts

D. has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria.


Q. 79 Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?

A. Salvinia – Prothallus

B. Viroids – RNA

C. Mustard-Synergids

D. Ginkgo-Archegonia


Q. 80 What is it that forms the basis of DNA Fingerprinting ?

A. The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva

B. , The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints

C. Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments

D. The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA


Q. 81 Which one of the following characteristics is common both in humans and adult frogs ?

A. Internal fertilization

B. Nucleated RBCs

C. Ureotelic mode of excretion

D. Four – chambered heart


Q. 82 Represented below is the inheritance pattern of the certain type of traits in humans. Which one of the following conditions could be an example of this pattern ?

A. Sickel cell anaemia

B. Haemophilia

C. Thalassemia

D. Phenylketonuria


Q. 83 The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below, represent four different types of animal tissues. Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct location and function ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 84 Which one of the following structures is an organelle within an organelle ?

A. Peroxisome


C. Mesosome

D. Ribosome


Q. 85 The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating –

A. Chicken pox

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

C. Adenosine deaminase deficiency

D. Diabetes mellitus


Q. 86 Sacred groves are specially useful in –

A. preventing soil erosion

B. year-round flow of water in rivers

C. conserving rare and threatened species

D. generating environmental awareness


Q. 87 Which one of the following is a wrong statement regarding mutations ?

A. Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations

B. UV and Gamma rays are mutagens

C. Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation

D. Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frame-shift mutations


Q. 88 Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for

A. Transformation of plant cells

B. ) Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors

C. ) DNA finger printing

D. Disarming pathogen vectors


Q. 89 Which one of the following statements is wrong ?

A. Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell

B. Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for months

C. Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin

D. When pollen is shed at two-called stage, double fertilization does not take place


Q. 90 Identify the human development stage shown below as well as the related right place of its occurrence in a normal pregnant women and select the right option for the two together –

Developmental Stage Site of occurrence
(1) Blastula End part of Fallopian tube
(2) Blastocyst Uterine wall
(3) 8 – Celled morula Starting point of fallopian tube
(4) Late morula Middle part of Fallopian tube

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 91 Red precipitate is obtained when ethanol solution of dimethylglyoxime is added to ammoniacal Ni(II). Which of the following statements is not rue ?

A. Complex has symmetrical H-bonding

B. Red complex has a tetrahedral geometry

C. Dimethylglyoxime functions as bidentate ligand

D. Red complex has a square planar geometry


Q. 92 During change of O2 to O ion, the electron adds on which one of the following orbitals ? − 2

A. π orbital

B. σ*orbital

C. σ orbital

D. π*orbital


Q. 93 Consider the reaction:

RCHO + NH2NH2→ RCH = N – NH2

What sort of reaction is it ?

A. Free radical addition – elimination reaction

B. Electrophilic substitution-elimination reaction

C. Nucleophilic addition – elimination reaction

D. Electrophilic addition – elimination reaction


Q. 94 In which of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the property indicated against it ?

A. H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te : increasing pKa values

B. NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : increasing acidic character

C. CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : increasing oxidising power

D. HF < HCl < HBr < HI : increasing acidic strength


Q. 95 The Gibbs’ energy for the decomposition of Al2O3 at 500ºC is as follows:

2/3 Al2O3→4/3Al + O2; ΔrG = + 960 kJ mol–1.

The potential difference needed for the electrolytic reduction of aluminium oxide (Al2O3) at 500ºC is at least :

A. 3.0 V

B. 2.5 V

C. 5.0 V

D. 4.5 V


Q. 96 Given that the equilibrium constant for the reaction

2SO2(g) + O2(g)⇒ 2SO3(g)

has a value of 278 at a particular temperature. What is the value of the equilibrium

constant for the following reaction at the same temperature ?

SO3(g)⇒ SO2(g) + 1/2 O2(g)

A. 3.6 × 10–3

B. 6.0 × 10–2

C. 1.3 × 10–5

D. 1.8 × 10–3


Q. 97 Which of the following compounds can be used as antifreeze in automobile radiators ?

A. Glycol

B. Nitrophenol

C. Ethyl alcohol

D. Methyl alcohol


Q. 98 Molar conductivities ) (Λºm at infinite dilution of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa are 126.4, 425.9 and 91.0 Scm^2mol–1 respectively. Λºm for CH3COOH will be:

A. 180.5 S cm2 mol–1

B. 290.8 S cm2 mol–1

C. 390.5 S cm2 mol–1

D. 425.5 S cm2 mol–1


Q. 99 Vapour pressure of chloroform (CHCl3) and dichloromethane (CH2Cl2) at 25ºC are 200 mmHg and 41.5 mmHg respectively. Vapour pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 25.5 g of CHCl3 and 40 g of CH2Cl2 at the same temperature will be: (Molecular mass of CHCl3 = 119.5 u and molecular mass of CH2Cl2 = 85 u)

A. 615.0 mm Hg

B. 347.9 mm Hg

C. 285.5 mm Hg

D. 173.9 mm Hg


Q. 100 A certain gas takes three times as long to effuse out as helium. Its molecular mass will be:

A. 36 u

B. 64 u

C. 9 u

D. 27 u


Q. 101 Which one of the following sets forms the biodegradable polymer ?sni

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 102 The catalytic activity of transition metals and their compounds is ascribed mainly to:

A. their unfilled d-orbitals

B. their ability of adopt variable oxidation states

C. their chemical reactivity

D. their magnetic behaviour


Q. 103 Given the reaction between 2 gases represented by A2 and B2 to give the compound AB(g).

A2(g) + B2(g) ⇒ 2 AB(g)

At equilibrium, the concentration

of A2 = 3.0 × 10–3 M

of B2 = 4.2 × 10–3 M

of AB = 2.8 × 10–3 M

If the reaction takes place in a sealed vessel at 527ºC, then the value of KC will be :

A. 1.9

B. 0.62

C. 4.5

D. 2.0


Q. 104 Standard reduction potentials of the half reactions are given below :

F2(g) + 2e– → 2F–(aq) ; Eº = + 2.85 V

Cl2(g) + 2e– → 2Cl–(aq); Eº = + 1.36 V

Br2(l) + 2e– → 2Br–(aq) ; Eº = + 1.06 V

I2(g) + e– → 2I–(aq) ; Eº = + 0.53 V

The strongest oxidizing and reducing agents respectively are –

A. Br2 and Cl–

B. Cl2 and Br–

C. Cl2 and I2

D. F2 and I


Q. 105 Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the correct order in which the bond order is increasing in them –

A. O2– < NO < C22– < He2+

B. C22– < He2+< O2– < NO

C. He2+ < O2– < NO < C22–

D. NO < O2– < C22– < He2


Q. 106 Low spin complex of d6-cation in an octahedral field will have the following energy :

A. 5 −12 -12/5Δ0 + 3P

B. -2/5Δ0 + 2P

C. -2/5Δ0 + P

D. -12/5Δ0 + P


Q. 107 Which of the following compounds will give a yellow precipitate with iodine and alkali ?

A. Methyl acetate

B. Acetamide

C. 2-Hydroxypropane

D. Acetophenone


Q. 108 The orbital angular momentum of a p-electron is given as –

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 109 Which one of the following does not correctly represent the correct order of the property indicated against it ?

A. Ti3+ < V3+ < Cr3+ < Mn3+; increasing magnetic moment

B. Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing melting point

C. Ti < V < Mn < Cr : increasing 2nd ionization enthalpy

D. ) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing number of oxidation states


Q. 110 Chloroamphenicol is an :

A. antihistaminic

B. antiseptic and disinfectant

C. antibiotic-broad spectrum

D. antifertility drug


Q. 111 Consider the following reaction :

The product ‘A’ is –



C. C6H5Cl



Q. 112 Which of the following reagents will be able to distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne ?


B. O2

C. Br2

D. NaNH2


Q. 113 For real gases van der Waals equation is written as

Where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are van der Waals constants.

Two sets of gases are :

Where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are van der Waals constants.

Two sets of gases are :

(I) O2, CO2, H2 and He (II) CH4, O2 and H2

The gases given in set-I in increasing order of ‘b’ and gases given in set-II in decreasing order of ‘a’, are arranged below. Select the correct order from the following :

A. (I) O2 < He < H2 < CO2 (II) H2 > O2 > CH4

B. (I) H2 < He < O2 < CO2 (II) CH4 > O2 > H2

C. (I) H2 < O2 < He < CO2(II) O2 > CH4 > H2

D. (I) He < H2 < CO2 < O2 (II) CH4 > H2 > O2


Q. 114 Activation energy (Ea) and rate constant (k1 and k2) of a chemical reaction at two different temperatures (T1 and T2) are related by –

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 115 Which of the following exhibits only + 3 oxidation state ?

A. Th

B. Ac

C. Pa

D. U


Q. 116 Equal volumes of two monoatomic gases, A and B, at same temperature and pressure are mixed. The ratio of specific heats (Cp/Cv) of the mixture will be –

A. 1.50

B. 3.3

C. 1.67

D. 0.83


Q. 117 Structure of a mixed oxide is cubic close-packed (c.c.p.). The cubic unit cell of mixed oxide is composed ofoxide ions. One fourth of the tetrahedral voids are occupied by divalent metal A and the octahedral voids are occupied by a monovalent metal B. The formula of the oxide is –

A. A2BO2

B. A2B3O4

C. AB2O2

D. AB O2


Q. 118 our successive members of the first series of the transition metals are listed below.For which one of the them the standard potential ( ) EoM2+ / M value has a positive sign ? 

A. Ni (Z = 28)

B. Cu (Z = 29)

C. Fe (Z = 26)

D. Co (Z = 27)


Q. 119 In the replacement reaction

CI + MF → CF + MI

The reaction will be most favourable if M happens to be –

A. K

B. Rb

C. Li

D. Na


Q. 120 An organic compound (C3H9N) (A), when treated with nitrous acid, gave an alcohol and N2 gas was evolved. (A) on warming with CHCl3 and caustic potash gave (C) which on reduction gave isopropylmethylamine. Predict the structure of (A).

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C B B D A A A D B A
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer C B D C A A D A B A
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer A D A C C D A B A A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer D B B A D A A D B A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A B C D B C C D D D
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer D B D D C C C B D B
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer B D D B B B B A A B
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer C D D D D D D A A C
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C B D D C C C A D B
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B D C A B B A C D A
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer A B B D C A C D B C
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer D D B C B C C B B D

AIPMT 2011 Mains Previous Year Paper

AIPMT 2011  Mains

Q. 1 The density of a material in CGS system of units is 4 g/cm^3. In a system of units in which unit of length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100g, the value of density of material will be

A. 0.04

B. 0.4

C. 40

D. 400


Q. 2 A particle covers half of its total distance with speed v₁ and the rest half distance with speed v₂. Its average speed during the complete journey is :

A. v₁+v₂/2

B. v₁v₂/(v₁+v₂)

C. 2v₁v₂/(v₁+v₂)

D. v₁²v₂²/v₁² + v₂²


Q. 3 A mass m moving horizontally (along the x-axis) with velocity v collides and sticks to a mass of 3m moving vertically upward (along the y-axis) with velocity 2 v. The final velocity of the combination is :

A. 3vi/2 + vj/4

B. vi/4 + 3vj/2

C. vi/3 + 2vj/3

D. 2vi/3 + vj/3


Q. 4 A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of 1 m/s. A box is gently dropped on it. The coefficient of friction between them is 0.5. The distance that the box will move relative to belt before coming to rest on it, taking g = 10 ms^-2 is

A. 0.4 m

B. 1.2 m

C. 0.6 m

D. Zero


Q. 5 A small mass attached to a string rotates on a frictionless table top as shown. If the tension in the string is increased by pulling the string causing the radius of the circular motion to decrease by a factor of 2, the kinetic energy of the mass will

A. decrease by a factor of 2

B. remain constant

C. increase by a factor of 2

D. increase by a factor of 4


Q. 6 A particle of mass is thrown upwards from the surface of the earth, with a velocity u. The mass and the radius of the earth are, respectively, M and R. G is gravitational constant and g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth. The minimum value of u so that the particle does not return back to earth is :

A. Root of (2GM/R^2)

B. Root of (2GM/R)

C. Root of (2gM/R^2)

D. Root of (2gR^2)


Q. 7 A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The magnitude of the gravitational potential at a point situated at a/2 distance from the centre will be :

A. GM/a

B. 2GM/a

C. 3GM/a

D. 4GM/a


Q. 8 A projectile is fired at an angle of 45 degrees with the horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its highest point as seen from the point of projection, is :

A. 45 degrees

B. 60 degrees

C. tan^-1 (1/2)

D. tan^-1 (root of 3/2)


Q. 9 A mass of diatomic gas (lambda = 1.4) at a pressure of 2 atmospheres is compressed adiabatically so that its temperature rises from 27 degrees C to 927 degrees C. The pressure of the gas in the final state is

A. 8 atm

B. 28 atm

C. 68.7 atm

D. 256 atm


Q. 10 Two particles are oscillating along two close parallel straight lines side by side, with the same frequency and amplitudes. They pass each other, moving in opposite directions when their displacement is half of the amplitude. The mean positions of the two particles lie on a straight line perpendicular to the paths of the two particles. The phase difference is 

A. pi/6

B. 0

C. 2pi/3

D. pi


Q. 11 Two identical piano wires, kept under the same tension T have a fundamental frequency of 600Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to occurrence of 6 beats/s when both the wires oscillate together would be :

A. 0.01

B. 0.02

C. 0.03

D. 0.04


Q. 12 A thin prism of angle 15 degrees made of glass of refractive index 1.5 is combined with another prism of glass of refractive index 1.75. The combination of the prism produced dispersion without deviation. The angle of the second prism should be :

A. 5 degrees

B. 7 degrees

C. 10 degrees

D. 12 degrees


Q. 13 A converging beam of rays is incident on a diverging lens. Having passed through the lens the rays intersect at a point 15 cm from the lens on the opposite side. If the lens is removed the point where the rays meet will move 5 cm closer to the lens. The focal length of the lens is :

A. 5 cm

B. -10 cm

C. 20 cm

D. -30 cm


Q. 14 Three charges, each +q, are placed at the corners of an isosceles triangle ABC of sides BC and AC, 2a. D and E are the mid points of BC and CA. The work done in taking a charge Q from D to E is :

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 15 The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z) all in meters in space is given by V = 4x^2 volt. The electric field at the point (1, 0, 2) in volt/meter, is :

A. 8 along negative X-axis

B. 8 along positive X-axis

C. 16 along negative X-axis

D. 16 along positive X-axis


Q. 16 In the circuit shown in the figure, if the potential at point A is taken to be zero, the potential at point B is

A. +1 V

B. -1 V

C. +2 V

D. -2 V


Q. 17 A galvanometer of resistance, G, is shunted by a resistance S ohm. To keep the main current in the circuit unchanged the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer is 

A. G/(S+G)

B. S^2/(S+G)

C. SG/(S+G)

D. G^2/(S+G)


Q. 18 A thermocouple of negligible resistance produces an e.m.f of 40 uV/degree C in the linear range of temperature. A galvanometer of resistance 10 ohm whose sensitivity is 1 uA/division, is employed with the thermocouple. The smallest value of temperature difference that can be detected by the system will be :

A. 0.25 degrees C

B. 0.5 degrees C

C. 1 degrees C

D. 0.1 degrees C


Q. 19 Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a uniform frequency f Hz. The magnitude of magnetic induction at the center of the ring is 

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 20 A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.4 J/T is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.16 T. The magnet is in a stable equilibrium when the potential energy is :

A. 0.064 J

B. -0.064 J

C. Zero

D. -0.082 J


Q. 21 A square loop, carrying a steady current I, is placed in a horizontal plane near a long straight conductor carrying a steady current I1, at a distance d from the conductor as shown in figure. The loop will experience :

A. a net attractive force towards the conductor

B. a net repulsive force away from the conductor

C. a net torque acting upward perpendicular to the horizontal plane

D. a net torque acting downward normal to the horizontal plane


Q. 22 The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown in the figure is :

A. V0/(root of 3)

B. V0

C. V0/(root of 2)

D. V0(root of 2)


Q. 23 A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz, is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be 

A. 2.0 A

B. 4.0 A

C. 8.0 A

D. 20/root of 13 A


Q. 24 The threshold frequency for a photosensitive metal is 3.3 x 10^14 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 x 10^14 Hz is incident on this metal, the cut-off voltage for the photoelectric emission is nearly :

A. 1 V

B. 2 V

C. 3 V

D. 4 V


Q. 25 An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state n to the ground state. The wavelength so emitted illuminates a photosensitive material having work function 2.75 eV. If the stopping potential of the photoelectron is 10V, then the value of n is :

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5


Q. 26 Two radioactive nuclei P and Q, in a given sample decay into a stable nucleus R. At time t=0, number of P species are 4N₀ and that of Q are N₀. Half-life of P (for conversion to R) is 1 minute whereas that of Q is 2 minutes. Initially there are no nuclei of R present in the sample. When number of nuclei of P and Q are equal, the number of nuclei of R present in the sample would be :

A. 2N₀

B. 3N₀

C. 9N₀/2

D. 5N₀/2


Q. 27 Out of the following which one is not a possible energy for a photon to be emitted by hydrogen atom according to Bohr’s atomic model?

A. 0.65 eV

B. 1.9 eV

C. 11.1 eV

D. 13.6 eV


Q. 28 A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown in figure. The current through the diode is :

A. 5 mA

B. 10 mA

C. 15 mA

D. 20 mA


Q. 29 In the following figure, the diodes which are forward biased are :

A. (a), (b) and (d)

B. (c) only

C. (c) and (a)

D. (b) and (d)


Q. 30 Pure Si at 500 K has equal number of electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentrations of 1.5 x 10^16 (m)^-3. Doping by indium increases nh to 4.5 x 10^22 (m)^-3. The doped semiconductor is of :

A. P-type having electron concentrations ne = 5 x 10^9 m^-3

B. n-type with electron concentrations ne = 5 x 10^22 m^-3

C. P-type with electron concentrations ne = 2.5 x 10^10 m^-3

D. n-type with electron concentrations ne = 2.5 x 10^23 m^-3


Q. 31 The unit pf rate constant for a zero order reaction is –

A. s^-1

B. mol L^-1 s^-1

C. L mol^-1 s^-1

D. L^2 mol^-2 s^-1


Q. 32 The half life of a substance in a certain enzyme-catalysed reaction is 138 s. The time required for the concentration of the substance to fall from

1.28 mg (L)^-1 to 0.04 mg(L)^-1, is –

A. 276 s

B. 414 s

C. 552 s

D. 690 s


Q. 33 Consider the following processes in figure :

For B + D —-> E + 2C, change in H will be –

A. 325 kJ/mol

B. 525 kJ/mol

C. -175 kJ/mol

D. -325 kJ/mol


Q. 34 The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic behaviours are noted below. Which of the following presents the correct description?

A. O, O2^2- – Both paramagnetic

B. O2^-, O2^2- – Both diamagnetic

C. O^+, O2^2- – Both paramagnetic

D. O2^+, O2- – Both paramagnetic


Q. 35 According to the Bohr Theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise to the least energetic photon?

A. n = 5 to n = 3

B. n = 6 to n = 1

C. n = 5 to n = 4

D. n = 6 to n = 5


Q. 36 In qualitative analysis, the metals of Group I can be separated from other ions by precipitating them as chloride salts. A solution initially contains Ag^+ and Pb^2+ at a concentration of 0.10 M. Aqueous HCl is added to this solution until the Cl^- concentration is 0.10 M. What will the concentration of Ag^+ and Pb ^2+ be at equilibrium?

(Ksp for AgCl = 1.8 x 10^-10 

Ksp for PbCl2 = 1.7 x 10^-5)

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 37 A bubble of air is underwater at temperature 15 degrees C and the pressure 1.5 bar. If the bubble rises to the surface where the temperature is 25 degrees C an the pressure is 1.0 bar, what will happen to the volume of the bubble?

A. Volume will become greater by a factor of 2.5

B. Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.6

C. Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.1

D. Volume will become smaller by a factor of 0.70


Q. 38 A 0.1 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid is 30% ionized. If Kf for water is 1.86 degrees C/m, the freezing point of the solution will be —

A. -0.24 degrees C

B. -0.18 degrees C

C. -0.54 degrees C

D. -0.36 degrees C


Q. 39 A solution contains Fe^2+, Fe^3+ and I^- ions. This solution was treated with iodine at 35 degrees C. E degrees for Fe^3+/Fe^2+ is +0.77 V and E degrees for I2/I^- = 0.536 V. The favourable redox reaction is —

A. Fe^2+ will be oxidized to Fe^3+

B. I2 will be reduced to I^-

C. There will be no redox reaction

D. I^- will be oxidized to I2


Q. 40 The rate of the reaction 2N2O5 —> 4NO2 + O2

can be written in three ways. The relationship between k and k’ and between k and k” are —

A. k’ = k, k” = k

B. k’ = 2k; k” = k

C. k’ = 2k, k” = k/2

D. k’ = 2k; k” = 2k


Q. 41 200 mL of an aqueous solution of a protein contains its 1.26 g. The Osmotic pressure of this solution at 300 K is found to be 2.57 x 10^-3 bar. The molar mass of protein will be (R = 0.083 L bar mol^-1 K^-1):

A. 61038 g mol^-1

B. 51022 g mol^-1

C. 122044 g mol^-1

D. 31011 g mol^-1


Q. 42 Match List I with List II for the compositions of substances and select the correct answer. 

A. (A)-(iv); (B)-(iii); (C)-(ii); (D)-(i)

B. (A)-(iii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii)

C. (A)-(ii); (B)-(iii); (C)-(iv); (D)-(i)

D. (A)-(i); (B)-(ii); (C)-(iii); (D)-(iv)


Q. 43 Which of the following oxide is amphoteric?

A. CO2

B. SnO2

C. CaO

D. SiO2


Q. 44 The following reactions take place in the blast furnace in the preparation of impure iron. Identify the reaction pertaining to the formation of the slag.

A. 2C(s) + O2(g) —-> 2CO(g)

B. Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) —-> 2Fe(l) + 3CO2(g)

C. CaCO3(s) —-> CaO(s) + CO2(g)

D. CaO(s) + SiO2(s) —-> CaSiO3(s)


Q. 45 Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. NaHCO3 on heating gives Na2CO3

B. Pure sodium metal dissolves in liquid ammonia to give blue solution.

C. NaOH reacts with glass to give sodium silicate

D. Aluminium reacts with excess NaOH to give Al(OH)3


Q. 46 What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of Na^+ if IE1 of Na = 5.1 eV?

A. +10.2 eV

B. -5.1 eV

C. -10.2 eV

D. +2.55 eV


Q. 47 Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following?

A. 64 g SO2

B. 44 g CO2

C. 48 g O3

D. 8 g H2


Q. 48 A solid compound XY has NaCl structure. If the radius of the cation is 100 pm, the radius of the anion (Y^-) will be —

A. 165.7 pm

B. 275.1 pm

C. 322.5 pm

D. 241.5 pm


Q. 49 Which of the following structures is the most preferred and hence of lowest energy of SO3? 

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 50 Which of the following carbonyls will have the strongest C–O bond?

A. Fe(CO)5

B. Mn(CO)6^+

C. Cr(CO)6

D. V(CO)6^-


Q. 51 Which of the following complex compounds will exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour?

(At. No. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Zn = 30)

A. [Zn(NH3)6]^2+

B. [Ti(NH3)6]^3+

C. [Cr(NH3)6]^3+

D. [Co(NH3)6]^3+


Q. 52 Which of the following compounds is most basic?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 53 Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin?

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin B complex

C. Vitamin D

D. Vitamin E


Q. 54 Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 55 The IUPAC name of the following compound is –

A. cis-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene

B. trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene

C. cis-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene

D. trans-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene


Q. 56 An organic compound ‘A’ on treatment with NH3 gives ‘B’, which on heating gives ‘C’. ‘C’ when treated with Br2 in the presence of KOH produces ethylamine. Compound ‘A’ is –

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 57 Match the compounds given in List-I with List-II and select the suitable option using the code given below :

List-I List-II

(a) Benzaldehyde (i) Phenolphthalein

(b) Phthalic anhydride (ii) Benzoin condensation

(c) Phenyl benzoate (iii) Oil of wintergreen

(d) Methyl salicylate (iv) Fries rearrangement

A. (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)

B. (a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(iii); (d)-(ii)

C. (a)-(iv); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(i)

D. (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)


Q. 58 Which of the statements about “Denaturation” given below are correct?


(a) Denaturation of proteins causes loss of secondary and tertiary structures of the protein

(b) Denaturation leads to the conversion of double strand of DNA into single strand

(c) Denaturation affects primary structure which gets distorted

A. (a), (b) and (c)

B. (b) and (c)

C. (a) and (c)

D. (a) and (b)


Q. 59 The order of reactivity of phenyl magnesium bromide (PhMgBr) with the following compounds :

A. I > II > III

B. III > II > I

C. II > I > III

D. I > III > II


Q. 60 Consider the given reactions. The mechanisms of reactions (i) and (ii) are respectively :

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 61 Examine the figure given and select the right option giving all the four parts (a, b, c and d) correctly identified :

A. (a) – Antheridiophore; (b) – Male thallus; (c) – Globule; (d) – Roots

B. (a) – Archegoniophore; (b) – Female thallus; (c) – Gemmacup; (d) – Rhizoids

C. (a) – Archegoniophore; (b) – Female thallus; (c) – Bud; (d) – Foot

D. (a) – Seta; (b) – Sporophyte; (c) – Protonema; (d)Rhizoids


Q. 62 Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step toward evolution of seed habit because :

A. Embryo develops in female gametophyte which is retained on parent sporophyte.

B. Female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like seeds.

C. Female gametophyte lacks archegonia

D. Megaspore possess endosperm and embryo surrounded by seed coat.


Q. 63 Consider the following four statements whether they are correct or wrong

(A) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses

(B) Salvinia is heterosporous

(C) The life-cycle in all seed-bearing plants is diplontic

(D) In Pinus male and female cones are borne on different trees

The two wrong statements together are :

A. Statements (A) and (B)

B. Statements (A) and (C)

C. Statements (A) and (D)

D. Statements (B) and (C)


Q. 64 At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by their :

A. Centromere

B. Satellites

C. Secondary constrictions

D. Kinetochores


Q. 65 Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system?

A. Lysosome

B. Golgi complex

C. Peroxisome

D. Vacuole


Q. 66 In history of biology, human genome project led to the development of:

A. Biosystematics

B. Biotechnology

C. Biomonitoring

D. Bioinformatics


Q. 67 The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic material came from the studies on a :

A. Bacterial virus

B. Bacterium

C. Fungus

D. Viroid


Q. 68 Guttation is the result of :

A. Root pressure

B. Diffusion

C. Transpiration

D. Osmosis


Q. 69 Function of companion cells is :

A. Loading of sucrose into sieve elements

B. Providing energy to sieve elements for active transport

C. Providing water to phloem

D. Loading of sucrose into sieve elements by passive transport


Q. 70 Some vascular bundles are described as open because these :

A. are not surrounded by pericycle

B. are surrounded by pericycle but no endodermis

C. are capable of producing secondary xylem and phloem

D. possess conjunctive tissue between xylem and phloem


Q. 71 Which of the following diagrams represents the placentation in Dianthus?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 72 Which one of the following is essential for photolysis of water?

A. Boron

B. Manganese

C. Zinc

D. Copper


Q. 73 In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have :

A. thick walls, many intercellular spaces and few chloroplasts

B. thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no chloroplasts

C. thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large number of chloroplasts

D. thin walls, no intercellular spaces and several chloroplasts


Q. 74 Sweet potato is homologous to

A. Turnip

B. Potato

C. Colocasia

D. Ginger


Q. 75 Which one of the following is not an essential mineral element for plants while the remaining three are?

A. Phosphorus

B. Iron

C. Manganese

D. Cadmium


Q. 76 Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate venation are present in :

A. Alstonia

B. Calotropis

C. Neem

D. China Rose


Q. 77 What is common between vegetative reproduction and Apomixis?

A. Both produces progeny identical to the parent

B. Both are applicable to only dicot plants

C. Both bypass the flowering phase

D. Both occur round the year


Q. 78 In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the

A. Matrix

B. Outer membrane

C. Inner membrane

D. Intermembrane space


Q. 79 Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched while the remaining three are correct?

A. Agave – Bulbils

B. Penicillium – Conidia

C. Water hyacinth – Runner

D. Bryophyllum – Leaf buds


Q. 80 In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into :

A. Pollen sac

B. Embryo sac

C. Ovule

D. Endosperm


Q. 81 Both, hydrarch and xerarch succession lead to :

A. Excessive wet conditions

B. Medium water conditions

C. Xeric conditions

D. Highly dry conditions


Q. 82 Which one of the following animals may occupy more than one trophic levels in the same ecosystem at the same time?

A. Frog

B. Sparrow

C. Lion

D. Goat


Q. 83 The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by earthworm is a process called :

A. Catabolism

B. Humification

C. Fragmentation

D. Mineralisation


Q. 84 “Good ozone” is found in the :

A. Ionosphere

B. Mesosphere

C. Troposphere

D. Stratosphere


Q. 85 The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation :

A. dN/dt = rN(N-K/N)

B. dt/dN = Nr(K-N/K)

C. dN/dt = rN(K-N/K)

D. dN/dt = rN


Q. 86 Which one of the following is a wrong matching of a microbe and its industrial product, while the remaining three are correct?

A. Aspergillus niger – citric acid

B. Yeast – statins

C. Acetobacter aceti – acetic acid

D. Clostridium butylicum – lactic acid


Q. 87 Read the following statement having two blanks (A and B):

“A drug used for (A) patients is obtained from a species of the organism (B)”.

The one correct option for the two blanks is :

A. (A) AIDS; (B) Pseudomonas

B. (A) Heart; (B) Penicillium

C. (A) Organ-transplant; (B) Trichoderma

D. (A) Swine flu; (B) Monascus


Q. 88 Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is :

A. not an infectious disease

B. caused by a virus

C. caused by a Gram-positive bacterium

D. caused by a Gram-negative bacterium


Q. 89 Read the following four statements (A-D) about certain mistakes in two of them :

(A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced milk which was human alpha-lactalbumin enriched.

(B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macro-olecules

(C) Downstream processing is one of the steps of R-DNA technology

(D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer of R-DNA into the host

Which are the two statements having mistakes?

A. Statements (A) and (B)

B. Statements (B) and (C)

C. Statements (C) and (D)

D. Statements (A) and (C)


Q. 90 Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to :

A. Bacterial blights

B. Bollworms

C. Nematodes

D. White rusts


Q. 91 Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things?

A. Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally

B. Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro

C. Increase in mass from inside only

D. Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory


Q. 92 The type of muscles present in our :

A. upper arm are smooth muscle fibres fusiform in shape

B. heart are involuntary and unstriated smooth muscles

C. intestine are striated and involuntary

D. thigh are striated and voluntary


Q. 93 The figure shows four animals (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the correct answer with respect to a common characteristic of two of these animals.

A. (c) and (d) have a true coelom

B. (a) and (d) respire mainly through body wall

C. (b) and (c) show radial symmetry

D. (a) and (b) have cnidoblasts for self defence


Q. 94 Which one of the following conditions of the zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal human female child?

A. one X and one Y chromosome

B. two X chromosomes

C. only one Y chromosome

D. only one X chromosome


Q. 95 Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves crossing :

A. between two genotypes with dominant trait

B. between two genotypes with recessive trait

C. between two F1 hybrids

D. the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype


Q. 96 Which one of the following correctly represents the normal adult human dental formula?

A. 3/3, 1/1, 3/3, 3/3

B. 3/3, 1/1, 3/2, 1/1

C. 2/2, 1/1, 3/2, 3/3

D. 2/2, 1/1, 2/2, 3/3


Q. 97 The figure shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its four parts labelled (A), (B), © and (D). Select the part correctly matched with its function –

A. Part (A) : Matrix – major site for respiratory chain enzymes

B. Part (D) : Outer membrane – gives rise to inner membrane by splitting

C. Part (B) : Inner membrane – forms infoldings called cristae

D. Part (C) : Cristae – possess single circular DNA olecule and ribosome


Q. 98 Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as :

A. carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs

B. bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs

C. Free CO2 in blood plasma

D. 70% carbamino-haemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate


Q. 99 Given is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below?

A. Peak P-Initiation of left atrial contraction only

B. Complex QRS-One complete pulse

C. Peak T-Initiation of total cardiac contraction

D. Peak P and Peak R together-systolic and diastolic blood pressures


Q. 100 Frogs differ from humans in possessing :

A. thyroid as well as parathyroid

B. paired cerebral hemispheres

C. hepatic portal system

D. nucleated red blood cells


Q. 101 The cells lining the blood vessels belongs to the category of :

A. Connective tissue

B. Smooth muscle tissue

C. Squamous epithelium

D. Columnar epithelium


Q. 102 The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such as the sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the hormone :

A. melatonin

B. calcitonin

C. prolactin

D. adrenaline


Q. 103 Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctly matched with their respective inclusive skeletal category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non matching pair.

A. Malleus and stapes – Ear ossicles

B. Sternum and Ribs – Axial skeleton

C. Clavicle and Glenoid cavity – Pelvic girdle

D. Humerus and ulna – Appendicular skeleton


Q. 104 Which one of the following structure in pheretima is correctly matched with its function?

A. Typhlosole-storage of extra nutrients

B. Clitellum-secretes cocoon

C. Gizzard-absorbs digested food

D. Setae-defence against predators


Q. 105 Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in :

A. frog’s males

B. human males

C. human females

D. frog’s both males and females


Q. 106 One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice while poured into the duodenum in humans is :

A. Enterokinase

B. Trypsinogen

C. Chymotrypsin

D. Trypsin


Q. 107 Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort?

A. The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them

B. One can breathe out air totally without oxygen

C. One can breathe out air through Eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth

D. One can consciously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone, without moving the ribs at all.


Q. 108 What happens during fertilisation in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum?

A. Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate zona pellucida

B. Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida

C. All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum lose their tails

D. Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms except one.


Q. 109 The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females :

A. who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation

B. who cannot produce an ovum

C. who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus

D. whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms


Q. 110 Consider the following four statements (A-D) related to the common frog Rana tigrina, and select the correct option stating which ones are true (T) and which ones are false (F). 

Statements :

(A) On dry land it would die due to lack of O2 if its mouth is forcibly kept closed for a few days

(B) it has four-chambered heart

(C) On dry land it turns uricotelic from ureotelic

(D) Its life-history is carried out in pond water

A. (A)-F; (B)-T; (C)-T; (D)-F

B. (A)-T; (B)-F; (C)-F; (D)-T

C. (A)-T; (B)-T; (C)-F; (D)-F

D. (A)-F; (B)-F; (C)-T; (D)-T


Q. 111 About which day in a normal human menstrual cycle does rapid secretion of LH (popularly called LH-surge) normally occur?

A. 11th day

B. 14th day

C. 20th day

D. 5th day


Q. 112 Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each with one or two blanks :

(A) Bears go into (1) during winter to (2) cold weather.

(B) A conical age pyramid with a broad base represents (3) human population.

(C) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an example of (4).

(D) An area with high levels of species richness is known as (5).

Which of the following options, gives the correct fill ups for the respective blank numbers from (1) to (5) in the statements?


A. (1) – hibernation, (2) – escape, (3) – expanding, (5) – hot spot

B. (3) – stable, (4) – commensalism, (5) – marsh

C. (1) – aestivation, (2) – escape, (3) – stable, (4) – mutualism

D. (3) – expanding, (4) – commensalism, (5) – biodiversity park


Q. 113 Consider the following statements (A-D) about organic farming :

(A) Utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt cotton

(B) Uses only naturally produced inputs like compost

(C) Does not use pesticides and urea

(D) Produces vegetables rich in vitamins and minerals

Which of the above statements are correct?


A. (A) and (B) only

B. (B), (C) and (D)

C. (C) and (D) only

D. (B) and (C) only


Q. 114 Biodiversity of a geographical region represents :

A. Species endemic to the region

B. Endangered species found in the region

C. The diversity in the organisms living in the region

D. Genetic diversity present in the dominant species of the region.


Q. 115 Which one of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative organism and mode of infection :

A. Malaria – Plasmodium vivax – Bite of male Anopheles mosquito

B. Typhoid – Salmonella typhi – With inspired air

C. Pneumonia – Streptococcus pneumoniae – Droplet infection

D. Elephantiasis – Wuchereria bancrofti – With infected water and food


Q. 116 The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same Kingdom of organisms at that of :

A. Ascaris, a round worm

B. Taenia, a tapeworm

C. Wuchereria, a filarial worm

D. Rhizopus, a mould


Q. 117 Select the correct statement with respect to disease and immunisation :

A. Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is an example of active immunisation

B. If due to some reason B- and T-lymphocytes are damaged, the body will not produce antibodies against a pathogen.

C. Injection of dead/inactivated pathogens causes passive immunity

D. Certain protozoans have been used to mass produces hepatitis B vaccine


Q. 118 Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticide protein. This protein :

A. does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to this toxin

B. binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it

C. is coded by several genes including the gene cry

D. is activated by acid pH of the foregut of the insect pest.


Q. 119 Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineer living organisms?

A. Hybridization

B. Recombinant DNA techniques

C. X-ray diffraction

D. Heavier isotope labeling


Q. 120 Which one of the following statements is totally wrong about the occurrence of notochord, while the other three are correct?

A. It is present throughout life in Amphioxus

B. It is present only in larval tail in Ascidians

C. It is replaced by vertebral column in adult frog

D. It is absent throughout life in humans from the very beginning


Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C C B A D B C C D C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer B C D D A A D A B B
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer A C B B B C C A C A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B D C D D D B A D C
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A C B D D B D D A B
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer C C B B B A A D A D
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer B A C D C D A A B C
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer C B C A D A A D C B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer B B C D C D C B A C
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer D D A B D D C B B D
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer C A C B A B D B B B
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer B A D C C D B B B D

AIPMT 2011 Prelims Previous Year Paper

AIPMT 2011 Prelims

Q. 1 The dimension of (μ∘ε∘)^-1/2 are:

A. L^(-1/2)T^(-1/2)

B. L^(1/2)T^(-1/2)

C. L^(-1)T

D. LT^(-1)


Q. 2 The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of mass M and length L about an axis passing through its midpoint and perpendicular to its length is I∘. Its moment of inertia about an axis passing through one of its ends and perpendicular to its length is:

A. I∘+ML²

B. I∘+ML²/2

C. I∘+ML²/4

D. I∘+2ML


Q. 3 A boy standing at the top of a tower of 20 m height drops a stone. Assuming g = 10 m/s², the velocity with which it hits the ground is :

A. 5 m/s

B. 10 m/s

C. 20 m/s

D. 40 m/s


Q. 4 A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg and presses the button on control panel. The lift starts moving upwards with an acceleration 1.0 m/s2. If g = 10 m/s², the tension in the supporting cable is :

A. 1200 N

B. 8600 N

C. 9680 N

D. 11000 N


Q. 5 A body projected vertically from the earth reaches a height equal to earth’s radius before returning to the earth. The power exerted by the gravitational force is greatest

A. at the instant just after the body is projected

B. at the highest position of the body

C. at the instant just before the body hits the earth.

D. it remains constant all through


Q. 6 The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the equation θ (t) = 2t³ – 6t² The torque on the wheel becomes zero at :

A. t=2s

B. t=1s

C. t=0.5s

D. t=0.25s


Q. 7 A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with constant speed and time period 0.2 π s. The acceleration of the particle is :

A. 5 m/s²

B. 1 5 m/s²

C. 25 m/s²

D. 36 m/s²


Q. 8 A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with the same velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is –

A. zero


C. 1.5 MV

D. 2 MV


Q. 9 A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the sun at a distance r1 and farthest away at a distance of r2. If v1 and v2 are the linear velocities at these points respectively, then the ratio V1/V2 is:

A. r1/r2

B. (r1/r2)²

C. r2/r1

D. (r2/r1)²


Q. 10 A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of frequency ν and the nucleus recoils. The recoil energy will be –

A. hv

B. Mc²-hv

C. h²v²/2Mc²

D. zero


Q. 11 The potential energy of a system increases if work is done :

A. Upon the system by a conservative force.

B. Upon the system by a nonconservative force

C. by the system against a conservative force.

D. by the system against a nonconservative force


Q. 12 A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards east. After 10 seconds its velocity becomes 40 m/s towards north. The average acceleration of the body is :

A. 5 m/s²

B. 1 m/s²

C. 7 m/s²

D. √7 m/s²


Q. 13 A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2 , the range of the missile is :

A. 20 m

B. 40 m

C. 50 m

D. 60 m


Q. 14 Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with distance d as shown in the figure. The work done on the particle during its displacement of 12 m is :

A. 13 J

B. 18 J

C. 21 J

D. 26 J


Q. 15 A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled, then the outward electric flux will :

A. be doubled

B. increase four time

C. be reduced to half

D. remain the same


Q. 16 Four electric charge + q, + q, – q and – q are placed at the corners of a square of side 2L. (see figure). The electric potential at point A, midway between the two charge + q and + q, is :

A. zero

B. 1/(4Πε∘) 2q/L (1+√5)

C. 1/(4Πε∘) 2q/L (1+1/√5)

D. 1/(4Πε∘) 2q/L (1-1/√5)


Q. 17 A parallel plate condenser has a uniform electric field E (V/m) in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is d (m) and area of each plate is A (m² ) the energy (joules) stored in the condenser is :

A. 1/2 ε∘E²Ad

B. E²Ad/ε∘

C. 1/2 ε∘E²

D. ε∘EAd


Q. 18 If power dissipated in the 9Ω resistor in the circuit shown is 36 Watt, the potential difference across the 2 Ω resistor is :

A. 2 volt

B. 4 volt

C. 8 volt

D. 10 volt


Q. 19 A current of 2 A flows through a 2 Ω resistor when connected across a battery. The same battery supplies a current of 0.5 A when connected across a 9 Ω resistor. The internal resistance of the battery is :

A. 1Ω

B. 0.5Ω

C. 1/3Ω

D. 1/4Ω


Q. 20 The rate of increase of thermo-e.m.f. with temperature at the neutral temperature of a thermocouple :

A. is negative

B. is positive

C. is zero

D. depends upon the choice of the two materials of the thermocouple


Q. 21 A current carrying closed loop in the form of a right angle isosceles triangle ABC is placed in a uniform magnetic field acting along AB. If the magnetic force on the arm BC is F̅ , the force on the arm AC is :

A. √2F̅

B. -√2F̅

C. -F̅

D. F̅


Q. 22 The power obtained in a reactor using U235 disintegration is 1000 kW. The mass decay of U235 per hour is :

A. 1 microgram

B. 10 microgram

C. 20 microgram

D. 40 microgram


Q. 23 There are four light-weight-rod samples A,B,C, D separately suspended by threads. A bar magnet is slowly brought near each sample and the following observations are noted :

(a) A is feebly repelled

(b) B is feebly attracted

(c) C is strongly attracted

(d) D remains unaffected

Which one of the following is true ?

A. A is of a non-magnetic material

B. B is of a paramagnetic material

C. C is of a diamagnetic material

D. D is of a ferromagnetic material


Q. 24 The electric and the magnetic field, associated with an e.m. wave, propagating along the +zaxis, can be represented by :

A. [E̅=E∘ĵ, B̅=B∘k̂]

B. [E̅=E∘î, B̅=B∘ĵ]

C. [E̅=E∘k̂, B̅=B∘î]

D. [E̅=E∘ĵ, B̅=B∘î]


Q. 25 A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are acting along the same direction in a certain region. If an electron is projected in the region such that its velocity is pointed along the :direction of fields, then the electron :

A. will turn towards left of direction of motion

B. will turn towards right of direction of motion

C. speed will decrease

D. speed will increase


Q. 26 The current i in a coil varies with time as shown in the figure. The variation of induced emf with time would be

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 27 In an ac circuit an alternating voltage e = 200√2 sin 100 t volts is connected to a  capacitor of capacity 1 μF. The r.m.s. value of the current in the circuit is

A. 20 mA

B. 10mA

C. 100 mA

D. 200 mA


Q. 28 An ac voltage is applied to a resistance R and an inductor L in series. If R and the inductive reactance are both equal to 3Ω, the phase difference between the applied voltage and the current in the circuit is :

A. zero

B. Π/6

C. Π/4

D. Π/2


Q. 29 When 1 kg of ice at 0ºC melts to water at 0ºC, the resulting change in its entropy, taking latent heat of ice to be 80 Cal/gm, is :

A. 293 Cal /K

B. 273 Cal/K

C. 8 × 10^4 Cal/K

D. 80 Cal/K


Q. 30 During an isothermal expansion, a confined ideal gas does – 150 J of work against its surroundings. This implies that :

A. 150 J of heat has been added to the gas

B. 150 J of heat has been removed from the gas

C. 300 J of heat has been added to the gas

D. no heat is transferred because the process is isothermal.


Q. 31 A particle of mass m is released from rest and follows a parabolic path as shown. Assuming that the displacement of the mass from the origin is small which graph correctly depicts the position of the particles as a function of time ?


A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 32 Two waves are represented by the equations y1 = a sin (ωt + kx + 0.57) m and y2 = a cos (ωt +kx)m, where x is in meter and t in sec. The phase difference between them is :

A. 0.57 radian

B. 1 radian

C. 1.25 radian

D. 1.57 radian


Q. 33 Out of the following functions representing motion of a particle which represents SHM : (A) y = sin ωt – cos ωt (B) y = sin³ ωt (C) y = 5 cos (3Π/4-3ωt) (D) y=1+ωt+ω²t²

A. Only (A) and (B)

B. Only (A)

C. Only (D) does not represent SHM

D. Only (A) and (C)


Q. 34 Sound waves travel at 350 m/s through a warm air and at 3500 m/s through brass. The wavelength of a 700 Hz acoustic wave as it enters brass from warm air :

A. decreases by a factor 20

B. decreases by a factor 10

C. increases by a factor 20

D. increases by a factor 10


Q. 35 The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is : 

A. infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays

B. microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays

C. gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves

D. microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet


Q. 36 The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series for hydrogen atom is equal to that of the second line of Balmer series for a hydrogen like ion. The atomic number Z of hydrogen like ion is :

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 1


Q. 37 Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection ?

A. brilliance of diamond

B. working of optical fibre

C. difference between apparent and real depth of a pond

D. mirage on hot summer days


Q. 38 A biconvex lens has a radius of curvature of magnitude 20 cm. Which one of the following options describe best the image formed of an object of height 2 cm placed 30 cm from the lens ?

A. Real, inverted, height = 1 cm

B. Virtual, upright, height = 1 cm

C. Virtual, upright, height = 0.5 cm

D. Real, inverted, height = 4 cm


Q. 39 In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of most energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping potential is :

A. 2.3 V

B. 1.8 V

C. 1.3 V

D. 0.5 V


Q. 40 Electrons used in an electron microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage is increased to 100 kV then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would

A. increase by 4 times

B. increase by 2 times

C. decrease by 2 times

D. decrease by 4 times


Q. 41 Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV respectively illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV successively. Ratio of maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be :

A. 1:5

B. 1:4

C. 1:2

D. 1:1


Q. 42 In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity of electrons emitted from the electron gun can be increased by :

A. decreasing the potential difference between the anode and filament

B. increasing the potential difference between the anode and filament

C. increasing the filament current

D. decreasing the filament current


Q. 43 The half life of radioactive isotope ‘X’ is 50 years. It decays to another element ‘Y’ which is stable. The two elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’ were found to be in the ratio of 1 : 15 in a sample of a given rock. The age of the rock was estimated to be :

A. 100 years

B. 150 years

C. 200 years

D. 250 years


Q. 44 Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum:

A. frequency

B. power

C. wavelength

D. intensity


Q. 45 Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because :

A. molecules break up at high temperature

B. nuclei break up at high temperature

C. atomic get ionised at high temperature

D. kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the coulomb repulsion between nuclei


Q. 46 choose the correct option:


A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 47 A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration at Vc = 2V such that a change in the base current from 100 μA to 300 μA produces a change in the collector current from 10 mA to 20 mA. The current gain is :

A. 25

B. 50

C. 75

D. 100


Q. 48 If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal :

A. its resistance is increased

B. it becomes a p-type semiconductor

C. the antimony becomes an acceptor atom

D. there will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor


Q. 49 In forward biasing of the p-n junction :

A. the positive terminal of the battery is connected to p-side and the depletion region becomes thin

B. the positive terminal of the battery is connected to p-side and the depletion region becomes thick

C. the positive terminal of the battery is connected to n-side and the depletion region becomes thin

D. the positive terminal of the battery is connected to n-side and the depletion region becomes thick.


Q. 50 Symbolic representation of four logic gates are shown as :Pick out which ones are for AND, NAND and NOT gates, respectively :

A. (ii), (iv) and (iii)

B. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

C. (iii), (ii) and (i)

D. (iii), (ii) and (iv)


Q. 51 The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom is :

A. 4

B. 8

C. 16

D. 32


Q. 52 choose the correct option

A. 0.150 V

B. 0.500 V

C. 0.325 V

D. 0.650 V


Q. 53 Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is :

A. 1.7700

B. 0.1770

C. 0.0177

D. 0.0344


Q. 54 By what factor does the average velocity of a gaseous molecule increase when the temperature (in Kelvin) is doubled ?

A. 1.4

B. 2.0

C. 2.8

D. 4.0


Q. 55 A buffer solution is prepared in which the concentration of NH3 is 0.30 M and the concentration of NH4+ is 0.20 M. If the equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3 equals 1.8 × 10^–5, what is the pH of this solution? (log 2.7 = 0.43)

A. 8.73

B. 9.08

C. 9.43

D. 11.72


Q. 56 Two gases A and B having the same volume diffuse through a porous partition in 20 and 10 seconds respectively. The molecular mass of A is 49 u. Molecular mass of B will be :

A. 25.00 u

B. 50.00 u

C. 12.25 u

D. 6.50 u


Q. 57 Which of the following is correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition ?

A. q = 0, ΔT < 0, w ≠ 0

B. q = 0, ΔT ≠ 0, w = 0

C. q ≠ 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0

D. q = 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0


Q. 58 For the reaction N₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇔2NO(g), the equilibrium constant is K₁. The equilibrium constant is K₂ for the reaction 2NO(g) + O₂(g)⇔2NO₂(g). What is K for the reaction NO₂(g)⇔ 1/2 N₂(g)+ O₂(g)?

A. 1/(K₁K₂)

B. 1/(2 K₁K₂)

C. 1/(4 K₁K₂)

D. [1/K₁K₂]


Q. 59 If x is amount of adsorbate and m is amount of adsorbent, which of the following relations is not related to adsorption process ?

A. x/m=pxT

B. x/m=f(p) at constant T

C. x/m=f(T) at constant p

D. p = f(T) at constant(x/m)


Q. 60 If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ/mol at 27ºC, the entropy change for the process would be :

A. 100 J/mol K

B. 10 J/mol K

C. 1 J/mol K

D. 0.1 J/mol K


Q. 61 The Van’t Hoff factor i for a compound which undergoes dissociation in one solvent and association in other solvent is respectively

A. greater than one and greater than one

B. less than one and greater than one

C. less than one and less than one

D. greater than one and less than one


Q. 62 Standard electrode potential for Sn4+/Sn2+ couple is +0.15 V and that for the Cr3+/ Cr couple is –0.74 V. These two couples in their standard state are connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be :

A. + 1.83 V

B. + 1.19 V

C. + 0.89 V

D. + 0.18 V


Q. 63 A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal mole of CO and N2. If the total pressure of the mixture was found 1 atmosphere, the partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2) in the mixture is

A. 1 atm

B. 0.5 atm

C. 0.8 atm

D. 0.9 atm


Q. 64 If the Eºcell for a given reaction has a negative value, then which of the following gives the correct relationships for the values of ΔGº and Keq ?

A. ΔGº > 0; Keq < 1

B. ΔG° > 0; Keq > 1

C. ΔGº < 0; Keq > 1

D. ΔG°< 0; Keq < 1


Q. 65 The freezing point depression constant for water is –1.86ºC/m. If 5.00 g Na₂SO₄ is dissolved in 45.0g H₂O, the freezing point is changed by –3.82ºC. Calculate the Van’t Hoff factor for Na₂SO₄.

A. 0.381

B. 2.05

C. 2.63

D. 3.11


Q. 66 The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between their wavelengths i.e. λ1 and λ2 will be:

A. λ1 = 1/2 λ2

B. λ1 = λ2

C. λ1 = 2 λ2

D. λ1 = 4 λ2


Q. 67 Standard electrode potential of three metals X, Y and Z are –1.2 V, + 0.5 V and –3.0 V respectively. The reducing power of these metals will be :

A. X > Y > Z

B. Y > Z > X

C. Y > X > Z

D. Z > X > Y


Q. 68 Which one of the following statements for the order of a reaction is incorrect ?

A. Order of reaction is always whole number

B. Order can be determined only experimentally

C. Order is not influenced by stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants.

D. Order of reaction is sum of power to the concentration terms of reactants to express the rate of reaction


Q. 69 Enthalpy change for the reaction, 4H(g) → 2H2(g) is –869.6kJ The dissociation energy of H – H bond is

A. +217.4 kJ

B. –434.8 kJ

C. –869.6 kJ

D. +434.8 kJ


Q. 70 If n = 6, the correct sequence for filling of electrons will be :

A. ns → np(n – 1)d → (n – 2)f

B. ns → (n – 2)f → (n – 1)d → np

C. ns → (n – 1)d → (n – 2)f → np

D. ns → (n – 2)f → np → (n – 1)d


Q. 71 Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point ?

A. CaF₂

B. CaCl₂

C. CaBr₂

D. Cal₂


Q. 72 Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van Arkel method ?

A. Ni and Fe

B. Ga and In

C. Zr and Ti

D. Ag and Au


Q. 73 The correct order of increasing bond length of C – H, C – O, C – C and C = C is :

A. C – H < C – O < C – C < C = C

B. C – H < C = C < C – O < C – C

C. C – C < C = C < C – O < C – H

D. C – O < C – H < C – C < C = C


Q. 74 Acidified K₂Cr₂O₇ solution turns green when Na₂SO₃ is added to it. This is due to the formation of :

A. CrSO₄

B. Cr₂(SO₄)₃

C. CrO₄²⁻

D. Cr₂(SO₃)₃


Q. 75 For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the stability of +2 oxidation state will be there in which of the following order? (At nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)

A. Cr > Mn > Co > Fe

B. Mn > Fe > Cr > Co

C. Fe > Mn > Co > Cr

D. Co > Mn > Fe > Cr


Q. 76 choose the correct option

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 77 Which of the following elements is present as the impurity to the maximum extent in the pig iron ?

A. Phosphorus

B. Manganese

C. Carbon

D. Silicon


Q. 78 Which of the following is least likely to behave as Lewis base ?

A. OH–

B. H2O

C. NH3

D. BF3


Q. 79 Which one of the following is present as an active ingredient in bleaching powder for bleaching action ?

A. CaCl2

B. CaOCl2

C. Ca(OCl)2

D. CaO2Cl


Q. 80 The complex [Pt (Py) (NH₃) Br Cl] will have how many geometrical isomers ?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 0


Q. 81 Name the type of the structure of silicate in which one oxygen atom of [SiO4](4–) is shared ? 

A. Three dimensional

B. Linear chain silicate

C. Sheet silicate

D. Pyrosilicate


Q. 82 The complexes [Co(NH₃)₆] [Cr(CN)₆] and [Cr(NH₃)₆] [Co(CN)₆] are the examples of which type of isomerism ?

A. Geometrical isomerism

B. Linkage isomerism

C. Ionization isomerism

D. Coordination isomerism


Q. 83 The d-electron configurations of Cr²⁺, Mn²⁺, Fe²⁺ and Co²⁺ are d⁴ , d⁵, d⁶ and d⁷ respectively. Which one of the following will exhibit minimum paramagnetic behaviour ? (At. Nos. Cr= 24, Mn= 25, Fe= 26, Co = 27)

A. [Cr(H₂O)₆]²⁺

B. [Mn(H₂O)₆]²⁺

C. [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺

D. [Co(H₂O)₆]²⁺


Q. 84 Of the following complex ions, which is diamagnetic in nature ?

A. [CoF6](3)

B. [NiCl4]2–

C. [Ni(CN)4]2–

D. [CuCl4]2–


Q. 85 Which of the following has the minimum bond length ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 86 The value of ΔH for the reaction X2(g) + 4Y2(g)⇔ 2XY4(g) is less than zero.

Formation of XY4(g) will be favoured at :

A. High pressure and low temperature

B. High temperature and high pressure

C. Low pressure and low temperature

D. High temperature and low pressure


Q. 87 Of the following which one is classified as polyester polymer ?

A. Nylon – 66

B. Terylene

C. Bakelite

D. Melamine


Q. 88 What is the product obtained in the following reaction :


A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 89 In a set of reactions m-bromobenzoic acid gave a product D. Identify the product D.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 90 In Dumas’ method of estimation of nitrogen 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound would be : (Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm) 

A. 14.45

B. 15.45

C. 16.45

D. 17.45


Q. 91 Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic reagent ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 92 Which one is a nucleophilic substitution reaction among the following ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 93 Considering the state of hybridization of carbon atoms, find out the molecule among the following which is linear?

A. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3

B. CH3 – CH = CH – CH3

C. CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3

D. CH2 = CH – CH2 – C ≡ CH


Q. 94 In the following reactions, the major products (A) & (C) are respectively:


A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 95 The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with conc. HNO3 while testing for halogens. By doing so it:

A. increases the concentration of NO3– ions

B. decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed

C. helps in the precipitation of AgCl

D. increases the solubility product of AgCl


Q. 96 The correct IUPAC name of the compound as in figure is:

A. 3-(1-ethyl propyl) hex-1 ene

B. 4-Ethyl-3-propyl hex-1-ene

C. 3-Ethyl-4-ethenyl heptane

D. 3-Ethyl-4-propyl hex-5-ene


Q. 97 Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the following ?

A. H₂ and Pt as catalyst

B. Glycol with KOH

C. Zn-Hg with HCl

D. Li Al H₄


Q. 98 Which one of the following is employed as Antihistamine ?

A. Omeprazole

B. Chloramphenicol

C. Diphenhydramine

D. Norethindrone


Q. 99 Which one of the following statements is not true regarding (+) Lactose ?

A. (+) Lactose, C12H22O11 contains 8-OH groups

B. On hydrolysis (+) Lactose gives equal amount of D(+) glucose and D(+) galactose

C. (+) Lactose is a β-glycoside formed by the union of a molecule of D(+) glucose and a molecule of D(+) galactose

D. (+) Lactose is a reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation


Q. 100 Which one of the following statement is not true ?

A. Oxide of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon are the most widespread air pollutant

B. pH of drinking water should be between 5.5 – 9.5

C. Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish

D. Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5ppm


Q. 101 The “Eyes” of the potato tuber are :

A. axillary buds

B. root buds

C. flower buds

D. shoot buds


Q. 102 Organisms called Methanogens are most abundant in a :

A. Hot spring

B. Sulphur rock

C. Cattle yard

D. Polluted stream


Q. 103 Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature ?

A. Angiosperms

B. Fungi

C. Insects

D. Birds


Q. 104 Archegoniophore is present in :

A. Funaria

B. Marchantia

C. Chara

D. Adiantum


Q. 105 Compared with the gametophytes of the bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular plants tend to be

A. smaller and to have smaller sex organs

B. smaller but to have larger sex organs

C. larger but to have smaller sex organs

D. larger and to have larger sex organs


Q. 106 The gametophyte is not an independent, free living generation in :

A. Pinus

B. Polytrichum

C. Adiantum

D. Marchantia


Q. 107 Important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is :

A. Lysosome

B. Vacuole

C. Golgi apparatus

D. Plastid


Q. 108 Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in

A. Ribosomes

B. Chloroplast

C. Mitochondria

D. Chromoplast


Q. 109 In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is

A. Cell wall

B. Plasma membrane

C. Nucleus

D. Ribosomes


Q. 110 Mutations can be induced with :

A. Gamma radiation

B. Infra Red radiations


D. Ethylene


Q. 111 A collection of plants and seeds having diverse alleles of all the genes of a crop is called :

A. Genome

B. Herbarium

C. Germplasm

D. Gene library


Q. 112 Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell ?

A. 23 s RNA

B. 5 s RNA

C. sn RNA

D. hn RNA


Q. 113 Which one of the following statements is correct ?

A. Flower of tulip is a modified shoot

B. In tomato, fruit is a capsule

C. Seeds of orchids have oil-rich endosperm

D. Placentation in primrose is basal


Q. 114 The correct floral formula of chilli is :

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 115 Nitrifying bacteria :

A. reduce nitrates to free nitrogen

B. oxidize ammonia to nitrates

C. convert free nitrogen to nitrogen to compounds

D. convert proteins into ammonia


Q. 116 The function of leghemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is :

A. expression of nif gene

B. inhibition of nitrogenase activity

C. oxygen removal

D. nodule differentiation


Q. 117 Which one of the following elements is plants is not remobilized ?

A. Sulphur

B. Phosphorus

C. Calcium

D. Potassium


Q. 118 A drupe develops in :

A. Tomato

B. Mango

C. Wheat

D. Pea


Q. 119 Ground tissue includes :

A. All tissues internal to endodermis

B. All tissues external to endodermis

C. All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles

D. Epidermis and cortex


Q. 120 In land plants, the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having :

A. Chloroplasts

B. Cytoskeleton

C. Mitochondria

D. Endoplasmic reticulum


Q. 121 The ovary is half inferior in flower of :

A. guava

B. peach

C. cucumber

D. cotton


Q. 122 The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called :

A. Phellem

B. Phelloderm

C. Phellogen

D. Periderm


Q. 123 Which one of the following is wrongly matched?

A. Cassia – imbricate aestivation

B. Root pressure-Guttation

C. Puccinia – Smut

D. Root –Exarch protoxylem


Q. 124 Flowers are Zygomorphic in :

A. Datura

B. Mustard

C. Mustard

D. Mustard


Q. 125 CAM helps the plants in :

A. Reproduction

B. Conserving water

C. Secondary growth

D. Disease resistance


Q. 126 Of the total incident solar radiation the proportion of PAR is

A. More than 80%

B. About 70%

C. About 60%

D. Less than 50%


Q. 127 A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing symbiont is found in

A. Pisum

B. Alnus

C. Cycas

D. Cicer


Q. 128 Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of

A. Brassica

B. Citrus

C. Gossypium

D. Triticum


Q. 129 Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of

A. Zygote

B. Suspensor

C. Egg

D. Synergid


Q. 130 What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42 chromosomes in its root tip cells ?

A. 21

B. 42

C. 63

D. 84


Q. 131 Wind pollination is common in :

A. Orchids

B. Legumes

C. Lilies

D. Grasses


Q. 132 In which one of the following pollination is autogamous ?

A. Cleistogamy

B. Geitonogamy

C. Xenogamy

D. Chasmogamy


Q. 133 Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called :

A. Standing state

B. Standing crop

C. Detritus

D. Humus


Q. 134 Which one of the following statements is wrong in case of Bhopal tragedy ?

A. It took place in the night of December 2/3, 1984

B. Methyl Isocyanate gas leakage took place

C. Thousands of human beings died

D. Radioactive fall out engulfed Bhopal


Q. 135 Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a :

A. Biological process

B. Physical process

C. Mechanical process

D. Chemical process


Q. 136 Eutrophication is often seen in :

A. Mountains

B. Deserts

C. Fresh water lakes

D. Ocean


Q. 137 Large Woody Vines are more commonly found in :

A. Alpine forests

B. Temperate forests

C. Mangroves

D. Tropical rainforests


Q. 138 Which one of the following expanded forms of the following acronyms is correct ?

A. IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources

B. IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change

C. UNEP = United Nations Environmental policy

D. EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency


Q. 139 Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession?

A. It is similar to primary succession except that it has a relatively fast pace.

B. It begins on a bare rock.

C. It occurs on deforested site

D. It follows primary succession


Q. 140 Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India ?

A. Mango

B. Groundnut

C. rice

D. maize

Q. 141 Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer ?

A. Mycorrhiza

B. Agrobacterium

C. Rhizobium

D. Nostoc


Q. 142 Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of

microorganisms in human body ?

A. skin

B. Epithelium of Urogenital tract

C. tears

D. monocytes


Q. 143 Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants ?

A. Anabaena

B. Glomus

C. Rhizobium

D. Frankia


Q. 144 ‘Himgiri’ developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of :

A. wheat

B. chilli

C. maize

D. sugarcane


Q. 145 Which of the following is mainly produced by the activity of anaerobic bacteria on sewage ?

A. marsh gas

B. laughing gas

C. propane

D. mustard gas


Q. 146 Agarose extracted from seaweeds finds use in

A. Gel electrophoresis

B. Spectrophotometry

C. Tissue Culture



Q. 147 Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of :

A. pig

B. fish

C. mice

D. cow


Q. 148 Continuous addition of sugars in ‘fed batch’ fermentation is done to :

A. degrade sewage

B. produce methane

C. obtain antibiotics

D. purify enzymes


Q. 149 The process of RNA interference has been used in the development of plants resistant to :

A. insects

B. nematodes

C. fungi

D. viruses


Q. 150 “Jaya” and “Ratna” developed for green revolution in India are the varieties of :

A. bajra

B. maize

C. rice

D. wheat


Q. 151 Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells ?

A. Amoeba proteus

B. Paramecium caudatum

C. Escherichia coli

D. Euglena viridis


Q. 152 Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic category ?

A. Housefly – Musca, an order

B. Tiger –tigris, the species

C. Cuttlefish- Mollusca, a class

D. Humans – Primata, the family


Q. 153 In which one of the following the genus name, its two characters and its class/phylum are correctly matched ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 154 Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single exception ?

A. Mammalia : give birth to young ones.

B. Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle

C. Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw

D. Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton


Q. 155 What will you look for to identify the sex of the following ?

A. Male shark – Claspers borne on pelvic fins

B. Female Ascaris – Sharply curved posterior end

C. Male frog- A copulatory pad on the first digit of the hindlimb

D. Female cockroach – Anal cerci


Q. 156 The curve given below shows enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH, temperature and substrate concentration).What do the two axises (x and y) represent ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 157 The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in :

A. Fallopian tubes and urethra

B. Eustachian tube and stomach lining

C. Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes

D. Bile duct and oesophagus


Q. 158 Select the correct option with respect to mitosis

A. Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase

B. Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase

C. Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase

D. Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase


Q. 159 Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is correctly identified along with its related function ?

A. A : Lecithin-a component of cell membrane

B. B : Adenine-a nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids

C. A : Triglyceride-major source of energy

D. B : Uracil-a component of DNA


Q. 160 What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors ?

A. Increasing brain capacity

B. Upright posture

C. Shortening of jaws

D. Binocular vision


Q. 161 Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex in the given examples ?

A. Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila

B. Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in Birds

C. XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper

D. XO condition in humans as found in Turner Syndrome, determines female sex


Q. 162 A person with unknown blood group under ABO system, has suffered much blood loss in an accident and needs immediate blood transfusion. His one friend who has a valid certificate of his own blood type, offers for blood donation without delay. What would have been the type of blood group of the donor friend

A. Type A

B. Type B

C. Type AB

D. Type O


Q. 163 What are those structures that appear as ‘beadson-string’ in the chromosomes when viewed under electron microscope ?

A. Base pairs

B. Genes

C. Nucleotides

D. Nucleosomes


Q. 164 Match the source gland with its respective hormone as well as the function.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 165 Which of the following is correctly stated as it happens in the common cockroach ?

A. The food is ground by mandibles and gizzard

B. Malpighian tubules are excretory organs projecting out from the colon

C. Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood

D. Nitrogenous excretory product is urea


Q. 166 A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptakes by the body tissues. This O2 :

A. helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial tissues

B. acts as a reserve during muscular exercise

C. raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg

D. is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%


Q. 167 Which one of the following enzymes carries out the initial step in the digestion of milk in humans

A. Trypsin

B. Pepsin

C. Rennin

D. Lipase


Q. 168 Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid ?

A. Loops of Henle

B. Peritubular capillaries

C. Convoluted tubules

D. Collecting ducts


Q. 169 One very special feature in the earthworm pheretima is that :

A. It has a long dorsal tubular heart

B. Fertilisation of eggs occurs inside the body

C. The typhlosole greatly increases the effective absorption area of the digested food in the intestine

D. The S-shaped state embedded in the integument are the defensive weapons used against the enemies


Q. 170 Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts coughing while swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to improper movement of:

A. tongue

B. Epiglottis

C. Diaphragm


D. neck

Q. 171 Arteries are best defined as the vessel which :

A. carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ

B. supply oxygenated blood to the different organs

C. carry blood away from the heart to different organs

D. break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein


Q. 172 ‘Bundle of Hiss’ is a part of which one of the following organs in humans ?

A. pancreas

B. brain

C. heart

D. kidney


Q. 173 The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods type of photoreceptor cells of the human eye, is a derivative of :

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin B1

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin D


Q. 174 Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood ?

A. Fibrinogen

B. an albumin

C. serum amylase

D. a globulin


Q. 175 When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is :

A. Comparatively more permeable of K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions

B. Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions

C. Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions

D. Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions


Q. 176 Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron ?

A. Afferent arteriole : carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein

B. Podocytes : Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule

C. Henle’s loop : most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate

D. Distal convoluted tubule : re-absorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries


Q. 177 Given below is an incomplete table certain hormones, their source glands and one major effect of each on the body in humans. Identify the correct option for the three blanks A, B and C

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 178 Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous wastes is found in :

A. Insects and Amphibians

B. Reptiles and Birds

C. Birds and Annelids

D. Amphibians and Reptiles


Q. 179 The figure given below shows a small part of human lung where exchange of gases takes place. In which one of the options given below, the one part A, B, C or D is correctly identified along with its function,

A. B : red blood cell – transport of CO2 mainly

B. C : arterial capillary – passes oxygen to tissues

C. A : alveolar cavity – main site of exchange of respiratory gases

D. D : Capillary wall – exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place here


Q. 180 Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure :

A. 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney

B. 130/90 mm Hg is considered high and requires treatment

C. 100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal blood pressure

D. 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active


Q. 181 Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function regulation ?

A. During summer when body loses of lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed

B. When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed

C. Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release

D. An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of Angiotensin II.


Q. 182 The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female reproductive system of humans. Which one set of three parts out of I-VI have been correctly identified ?

A. (I) Perimetrium, (II) Myometrium, (III) Fallopian tube

B. (II) Endometrium, (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriage

C. (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) Cervix

D. (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus (VI) Cervix


Q. 183 The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. The purpose served is for :

A. providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex

B. maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature

C. escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs

D. providing more space for the growth of epididymis


Q. 184 Which one of the following is the most wide accepted method of contraception in India, as at present ?

A. IUDs’ (Intra uterine devices)

B. Cervical caps

C. Tubectomy

D. Diaphragms


Q. 185 If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from :

A. Vagina to uterus

B. Testes to epididymis

C. Epididymis to vas deferens

D. Ovary to uterus


Q. 186 Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy ?

A. Six weeks

B. Eight weeks

C. Twelve weeks

D. Eighteen weeks


Q. 187 Which one of the following is categorised as a parasite in true sense ?

A. The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow’s nest

B. The female anopheles bites and sucks blood from humans

C. Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother

D. Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair


Q. 188 What type of human population is represented by the following age pyramid ?

A. Expanding population

B. Vanishing population

C. Stable population

D. Declining population


Q. 189 Which one of the following statements for pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the remaining three are correct ?

A. It is upright in shape

B. Its base is broad

C. It shows energy content of different trophic level organisms

D. It is inverted in shape


Q. 190 Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular special of :

A. Aspergillus

B. Sanccharomyces

C. Clostridium

D. Trichoderma


Q. 191 Consider the following four conditions (a – d) and select the correct pair of them as adaptation to environment in desert lizards. The conditions :

(a) burrowing in soil to escape high temperature

(b) losing heat rapidly from the body during high temperature

(c) bask in sun when temperature is low

(d) insulating body due to thick fatty dermis


A. (a), (b)

B. (c), (d)

C. (a), (c)

D. (b), (d)


Q. 192 Which one of the following pairs of gases are the major cause of “Green house effect”?

A. CO2 and N2O

B. CO2 and O3

C. CO2 and CO

D. CFCs and SO2


Q. 193 Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite ?

A. Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito

B. Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito

C. red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria

D. spleen of infected humans


Q. 194 When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the per romance of F1 hybrid is often superior to both parents. This phenomenon is called

A. Metamorphosis

B. Heterosis

C. Transformation

D. Sphcing


Q. 195 A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection ?




D. Ultrasound


Q. 196 At which stage of HIV infection does one usually shown symptoms of AIDS ?

A. Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person

B. When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells

C. When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase

D. When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes damages larger number of these


Q. 197 Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the opposite strands. What is so special shown in it ?

5′ ………….. GAATTC ……………. 3′

3′ ………….. CTTAAG …………….. 5′

A. Palindromic sequence of base pairs

B. Replication completed

C. Deletion mutation

D. Start codon at the 5′ end


Q. 198 The most common substrate used in distilleries for the production of ethanol is :

A. Molasses

B. Corn meal

C. Soyabean

D. Ground gram


Q. 199 An organism used as a Biofertilizer for raising soyabean crop is :

A. Nostoc

B. Azotobacter

C. Azospirillum

D. Rhizobium


Q. 200 There is a restriction endonuclease called coliEcoRl. What does “co” part in it stand for ?

A. coli

B. colon

C. coelom

D. coenzyme



Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer D C C D C B A D C C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer C A B A D D A D C C
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer C D B B C B A C A A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B B D D B A C D D C
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C B C A D D B D A A
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer C C C A C C D D A A
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer D C B A C C D A D B
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer D C B B B B C D C B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer D D D C B A B B D C
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer C D C C B B C C D C
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer A C C B A A C A B A
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer C A A C B C C B C A
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer B D C C B D C B D C
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer D A B D A C D A A C
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer B C B A A A C C B C
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer C B C D A C C A A A
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer C D D C A B C C C B
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer C C A A A B B B C A
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer B C B A B C D D D B
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer C A B B B D A A D A


AIPMT 2010 Mains Previous Year Paper

AIPMT 2010  Mains

Q. 1  A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with constant angular velocity ω. Two objects each of mass m are attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of the ring. The ring now rotates with angular velocity given by

A. 2Mω/M+2m

B. (M+2m)ω/M

C. Mω/M+2m

D. (M+2m)ω/2m


Q. 2 From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9M, a small disc of mass M and radius R / 3 is removed concentrically. The moment of inertia of the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the disc and passing through its centre is

A. MR²

B. 4 MR²

C. 4/9 MR²

D. 40/9 MR²


Q. 3 A particle of mass M starting from rest undergoes uniform acceleration. If the speed acquired in time T is V, the power delivered to the particle is

A. MV²/2T²

B. MV²/T²

C. MV²/2T

D. MV²/T


Q. 4 A solid cylinder and a hollow cylinder both of the same mass and same external diameter are released from the same height at the same time on an inclined plane. Both roll down without slipping. Which one will reach the bottom first

A. Both together

B. Hollow cylinder

C. Solid cylinder

D. Both together only when angle of inclination of plane is 45º


Q. 5 The dependence of acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ on the distance ‘r’ from the centre of the earth, assumed to be a sphere of radius R of uniform density is as shown in figure below.The correct figure is+

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d


Q. 6 The additional kinetic energy to be provided to a satellite of mass m revolving around a planet of mass M, to transfer it from a circular orbit of radius R1 to another of radius R2 (R2 > R1) is

A. GmM(1/R1-1/R2)

B. 2GmM(1/R1-1/R2)

C. 1/2GmM(1/R1-1/R2)

D. GmM(1/R1²-1/R2²)


Q. 7 A student measures the distance traversed in free fall of a body, initially at rest in a given time. He uses this data to estimate g, the acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum percentage errors in measurement of the distance and the time are e1 and e2 respectively, the percentage error in the estimation of g is

A. e1 + 2e2

B. e1 + e2

C. e1 – 2e2

D. e2 – e1


Q. 8 The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is half of its initial speed. The angle of projection is

A. 15º

B. 30º

C. 45º

D. 60º


Q. 9   (a) Centre of gravity (C, G) of a body is the point at which the weight of the body acts.

(b) Centre of mass coincides with the centre of gravity if the earth is assumed to have infinitely large radius.

(c) To evaluate the gravitational field intensity due to any body at an external point, the entire mass of the body can be considered to be concentrated at its C.G

(d) The radius of gyration of any body rotation about an axis is the length of the perpendicular dropped from the C.G. of the body to the axis.

Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct

A. (a) and (b)

B. (b) and (c)

C. (c) and (d)

D. (d) and (a)


Q. 10 The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in free space is given by – E̅ = 10 cos (10^7t + kx) ĵ V/m, where t and x are in seconds and metres respectively. It can be inferred that

(a) The wavelength λ is 188.4 m

(b) The wave number k is 0.33 rad / m

(c) The wave amplitude is 10 V / m

(d) The wave is propagating along + x direction

Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct ?


A. (a) and (b)

B. (b ) and (c)

C. (a) and (c)

D. (c) and (d)


Q. 11  A particle moves in x – y plane according to rule x = a sin ωt and y = a cos ωt. The particle


A. a circular path

B. a parabolic path

C. a straight line path inclined equally to x and y-axes

D. an elliptical path  


Q. 12 The speed of light in media M1 and M2 is 1.5 × 10^8 m/s and 2.0 × 10^8 m/s respectively. A ray of light enters from medium M1 to M2 at an incidence angle i. If the ray suffers total internal reflection the value of i is

  1. Equal to or less than sin-135
  2. Equal to or greater than sin-134
  3. less than sin-123
  4. Equal to sin-123

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 13 A ray of light is incident on a 60º prism at the minimum deviation position. The angle of refraction at the first face (i.e. incident face) of the prism is 

A. 30º

B. 45º

C. 60º

D. zero


Q. 14 A monatomic gas at pressure P1 and volume V1 is compressed adiabatically to 1/8th its

original volume. What is the final pressure of gas –

A. P1

B. 16P1

C. 32P1

D. 64P1


Q. 15 If Cp and Cv denote the specific heats (per unit mass) of an ideal gas of molecular weight M.Where R is the molar gas constant-

A. Cp – Cv = R

B. Cp – Cv = R / M

C. Cp – Cv = MR

D. Cp – Cv = R / M²


Q. 16 The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is

A. 1

B. between zero and one

C. equal to zero

D. much greater than one


Q. 17 A current loop consists of two identical semicircular parts each of radius R, one lying in the x-y plane and the other in x-z plane. If the current in the loop is i. The resultant magnetic field due to the two semicircular parts at their common centre is –

A. μ∘i/2R

B. μ∘i/4R

C. μ∘i/√2R

D. μ∘i/2√2R


Q. 18 Two identical bar magnets are fixed with their centres at a distance d apart. A stationary charge Q is placed at P in between the gap of the two magnets at distance D from the centre O as shown in the figure.The force on the charge Q is –

A. direction along OP

B. direction along PQ

C. directed perpendicular to the plane of paper

D. zero


Q. 19 A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.5 × 10–4m2 carries a current of 2.0 A. It is suspended through its centre and perpendicular to its length allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field 5 × 10–2 Tesla making an angle of 30º With the axis of the solenoid. The torque on the solenoid will be

A. 1.5 × 10^–3 N.m

B. 1.5 × 10^–2 N.m

C. 3 × 10^–2 N.m

D. 3 × 10^–3 N.m


Q. 20 A condenser of capacity C is charged to a potential difference of V1. The plates of the condenser are then connected to an ideal inductor of inductance L. The current through the inductor when the potential difference across the condenser reduces to V2 is

A. C(V1²-V2²)/L

B. C(V1²+V2²)/L

C. (C(V1²-V2²)/L)^1/2

D. (C(V1-V2)²/L)^1/2


Q. 21 Two parallel metal plates having charges +Q and –Q face each each other at a certain distance between them. If the plates are now dipped in kerosene oil tank, the electric field between the plates will –

A. increase

B. decrease

C. remain same

D. become zero


Q. 22 The electric field at a distance 3R/2 from the centre of a charged conducting spherical shell of radius R is E. The electric field at a distance R/2 from the centre of the sphere is –

A. E

B. E/2

C. E/3

D. zero


Q. 23 The thermo e.m.f E in volts of a certain thermocouple is found to vary with temperature difference θ in ºC between the two junctions according to the relation E = 30 θ – θ²/15 The neutral temperature for the thermo-couple will be

A. 400ºC

B. 225ºC

C. 30ºC

D. 450ºC


Q. 24 A particle having a mass of 10^–2 kg carries a charge of 5 × 10^–8-C. The particle is given an initial horizontal velocity of 10^5 m/s in the presence of electric field E̅ and magnetic field B̅ . To keep the particle moving in a horizontal direction, it is necessary that –

(a) B̅ should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity and E̅ should be along the direction of velocity.

(b) Both B̅ and E̅ should be along the direction of velocity.

(c) Both B̅ and E̅ are mutually perpendicular and perpendicular to the direction of velocity

(d)B̅ should be along the direction of velocity and E̅ should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity.

Which one of the following pairs of statements is possible ?

A. (c) and (d)

B. (b) and (c)

C. (b) and (d)

D. (a) and (c)


Q. 25 When monochromatic radiation of intensity I falls on a metal surface, the number of photoelectron and their maximum kinetic energy are N and T respectively. If the intensity of radiation is 2I, the number of emitted electrons and their maximum kinetic energy are respectively

A. 2N and T

B. 2N and 2T

C. N and T

D. N and 2T


Q. 26 The electrons in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state (n = 3) to its ground state (n = 1) and the photons thus emitted irradiate a photosensitive material. If the work function of the material is 5.1 eV, the stopping potential is estimated to be (the energy of the electron in nth state En=-13.6/n² eV)

A. 12.1 V

B. 17.2 V

C. 7 V

D. 5.1 V


Q. 27 The binding energy per nucleon in deuterium and helium nuclei are 1.1 MeV and 7.0 MeV, respectively. When two deuterium nuclei fuse to form a helium nucleus the energy released in the fusion is

A. 2.2 MeV

B. 28.0 MeV

C. 30.2 MeV

D. 23.6 MeV


Q. 28 The decay constant of a radio isotope is λ. If A1 and A2 are its activities at times t1 and t2 respectively, the number of nuclei which have decayed during the time (t1 – t2) –

A. A1-A2

B. (A1 – A2) / λ

C. λ (A1 – A2)

D. A1t1 – A2t2


Q. 29 For transistor action –

(a) Base, emitter and collector regions should have similar size and doping concentrations.

(b) The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.

(c)The emitter-base junction is forward biased and base-collector junction is reverse biased.

(d)Both the emitter-base junctions as well as the base collector junction are forward biased.

Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct ?

A. (a), (b)

B. (b), (c)

C. (c), (d)

D. (d), (a)


Q. 30 The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B the output Y. The voltage waveforms of A, B and Y are as given .The logic gate is –

A. OR gate

B. AND gate

C. NAND gate

D. NOR gate


Q. 31 For vaporization of water at 1 atmospheric pressure, the values of ΔH and ΔS are 40.63 kJ/mol and 108.8 J/K mol, respectively. The temperature when Gibbs energy change (ΔG) for this transformation will be zero, is –

A. 393.4 K

B. 373.4 K

C. 293.4 K

D. 273.4 K


Q. 32 A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of 100 m/s. The associated wavelength will be (h = 6.6 ×

10^–34 Js)-

A. 6.6 × 10⁻³⁴ m

B. 1.0 × 10 m

C. 1.0 × 10⁻³² m

D. 6.6 × 10⁻³² m


Q. 33 Three moles of an ideal gas expands spontaneously into vacuum. The work done will be

A. 3 Joules

B. 9 Joules

C. zero

D. Infinite


Q. 34 The following two reactions are known

Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g); ΔH = – 26.8 kJ

FeO(s) + CO (g) → Fe(s) + CO2(g); ΔH = – 16.5 kJ

The value of ΔH for the following reaction

Fe2O3(s) + CO(g) → 2FeO(s) + CO2(g) is

A. – 43.3 kJ

B. – 10.3 kJ

C. + 6.2 kJ

D. + 10.3 kJ


Q. 35 The reaction 2A(g) + B(g) ⇔ 3C(g) + D(g) is begun with the concentrations of A and B both at an initial value of 1.00 M. When equilibrium is reached, the concentration of D is measured and found to be 0.25 M. The value for the equilibrium constant for this reaction is given by the expression

A. [(0.75)³ (0.25)] ÷ [(0.50)² (0.75)]

B. [(0.75)³ (0.25)] ÷ [(0.50)² (0.25)]

C. [(0.75)³ (0.25)] ÷ [(0.75)² (0.25)]

D. [(0.75)³ (0.25)] ÷ [(1.00)² (1.00)]


Q. 36 The pressure exerted by 6.0 g of methane gas in a 0.03 m³ vessel at 129 ºC is (Atomic masses : C = 12.01, H = 1.01 and R = 8.314 J/Kmol)

A. 13409 Pa

B. 41648 Pa

C. 31684 Pa

D. 215216 Pa


Q. 37 Which of the following expressions correctly represents the equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of Al2(SO4)3 ? Given that ΛºAl3+ and ΛºSO4(2−) are the equivalent conductances at infinite dilution of the respective ions

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 38 How many bridging oxygen atoms are present in P4O10 ?

A. 4

B. 2

C. 5

D. 6


Q. 39 Among the following which one has the highest cation to anion size ratio?

A. CsF

B. LiF

C. NaF

D. CsI


Q. 40 Which of the following oxidation states is the most common among the lanthanoids ?

A. 2

B. 5

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 41 Some of the properties of the two species, NO3− and H3O+ are described below. Which one

of them is correct?

A. Isostructural with same hybridization for the central atom

B. Isostructural with different hybridization for the central atom

C. Similar in hybridization for the central atom with different structures

D. Dissimilar in hybridization for the central atom with different structures.


Q. 42 The compound A on heating gives a colourless gas and a residue that is dissolved in water to obtain B. Excess of CO2 is bubbled through aqueous solution of B, C is formed which is recovered in the solid form. Solid C on gentle heating gives back A. The compound A is

A. Na2CO3

B. K2CO3

C. CaSO4.2H2O

D. CaCO3


Q. 43 Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order of increasing atomic radii is

A. Cl < P < Mg < Ca

B. P < Cl < Ca < Mg

C. Ca < Mg < P < Cl

D. Mg < Ca < Cl < P


Q. 44 Which one of the following complexes is not expected to exhibit isomerism ?

A. [Pt (NH3)2 Cl2]

B. [Ni (NH3)2Cl2]

C. [Ni (en)3]2+

D. [Ni (NH3)4 (H2O)2]2+


Q. 45 Which one of the following compounds will be most readily dehydrated ?


A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 46 Among the following four compounds

(a) Phenol (b) methyl phenol

(c) meta nitrophenol (d) p nitrophenol

the acidity order is –

A. c > d > a > b

B. a > d > c > b

C. b > a > c > d

D. d > c > a > b


Q. 47 Fructose reduces Tollen’s reagent due to –

A. primary alcoholic group

B. secondary alcoholic group

C. enolisation of fructose followed by conversion to aldehyde by base

D. asymmetric carbons


Q. 48 Which of the following conformers for ethylene glycol is most stable ?


A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 49 The IUPAC name of the compound CH3CH = CHC ≡ CH is –

A. Pent – 3 – en – 1 – yne

B. Pent – 2 – en – 4 – yne

C. Pent – 1 – yn – 3 – ene

D. Pent – 4 – yn – 2 – ene


Q. 50 When glycerol is treated with excess of HI, it produces

A. allyl iodide

B. propene

C. glycerol triiodide

D. 2-iodopropane


Q. 51 Which of the following species is not electrophilic in nature ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 52 In the following reaction, The product ‘X’ is


B. C6H5CH3




Q. 53 In which of the following molecules the central atom does not have sp³ hybridization ?

A. SF4

B. BF4¯

C. NH4+

D. CH4


Q. 54 The rate of the reaction 2NO + Cl2 → 2NOCl is given by the rate equation rate = k[NO]²[Cl2]

The value of the rate constant can be increased by –

A. increasing the concentration of NO

B. increasing the concentration of the Cl2

C. increasing the temperature

D. doing all of these


Q. 55 Match List – I (Equations) with List – II (Type of processes) and select the correct option

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 56 Match List-I (substances) with List-II (processes) employed in the manufacture of the

substances and select the correct option


A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 57 Match the compounds given in List -I with their characteristic reactions given in List -II.

Select the correct option.

List – I



(b) CH3C≡CH


(d) CH3CH(OH)CH3

List – II


(i) alkaline hydrolysis

(ii) with KOH (alcohol) and CHCl3 produces bad smell

(iii) gives white ppt. with ammoniacal AgNO3

(iv) with Lucas reagent cloudiness appears after 5 minutes

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 58 Some statements about water are given below:

(a) Heavy water is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors

(b) Heavy water is more associated than ordinary water

(c) Heavy water is more effective solvent than ordinary water.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

A. (a), (b) and (c)

B. (b) and (c)

C. (a)and (c)

D. (a) and (b)


Q. 59 Consider the following relations for emf of a electrochemical cell :

(a) emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) – (Reduction potential of cathode)

(b) emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode)

(c) emf of cell = (Reduction potential of anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode)

(d) emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) – (Oxidation potential of cathode)

Which of the above relations are correct ?

A. (a) and (b)

B. (c) and (d)

C. (b) and (d)

D. (c) and (a)


Q. 60 Following compounds a,b,c,d are given.Which of the above compounds(s), on being

warmed with iodine solution and NaOH, will give iodoform ?

A. Only (b)

B. (a), (b) and (c)

C. (a) and (b)

D. (a), (c) and (d)


Q. 61 Given below is the diagram of a bacteriophage. In which one of the options all the four

parts A, B, C and D are correct

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 62 Examine the figures A, B, C and D. In which one of the four options all the items, A, B, C and

D are correct ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 63 In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splicing and RNA capping take place inside the

A. Nucleus

B. Dictyosomes


D. Ribosomes


Q. 64 The figure given below shows the conversions of a substrate into product by an enzyme. In which one of the four options (1-4) the components of reaction labelled as A, B, C and D are identified correctly

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 65 An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm

which helps in the maintenance of cell shape is called

A. Endoplasmic Reticulum

B. Plasmalemma

C. Cytoskeleton

D. Thylakoid


Q. 66 In antirrhinum two plants with pink flowers were hybridized. The F1 plants produced red, pink and white flowers in the proportion of 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white. What could be the genotype of the two plants used for hybridization ? Red flower colour is determined by RR, and White by rr genes


B. Rr

C. rr

D. rrrr


Q. 67 The lac Operon consists of

A. One regulatory gene and three structural genes

B. Two regulatory genes and two structural genes

C. Three regulatory genes and three structure genes

D. Four regulatory genes only


Q. 68 A cross in which an organism showing a dominant phenotype in crossed with the recessive parent in order to know its genotype is called

A. Back cross

B. Test cross

C. Dihybrid cross

D. Monohybrid cross


Q. 69 Transport of food material in higher plants takes place through –

A. Transfusion tissue

B. Tracheids

C. Sieve elements

D. Companion cells


Q. 70 Kranz anatomy is one of the characteristics of the leaves of

A. Wheat

B. sugarcane

C. mustard

D. potato


Q. 71 Consider the following four statement A, B, C & D and select the right option for two correct statement.The correct statements are

A. A and B

B. B and C

C. C and D

D. A and C


Q. 72 Vegetative propagation in pistia occurs by

A. offset

B. Runner

C. Sucker

D. Stolon


Q. 73 Which one of the following is monoecious ?

A. Cycas

B. Pinus

C. Date palm

D. Marchantia


Q. 74 The correct floral formula of soybean is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 75 Aestivation of petals in the flower of cotton is correctly shown in

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 76 Study the pathway given below.In which of the following options correct words for all the three blanks A, B and C are indicated?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 77 Given below is the diagram of a stomatal apparatus. In which of the following all the four

parts labelled as A, B, C and D are correctly identified


  A B C D
1 Guard cell Stomatal aperture Subsidiary Cell Epidermal cell
2 Epidermal cell Guard cell Stomatal aperture Subsidiary Cell
3 Epidermal cell Subsidiary Cell Stomatal aperture Guard cell
4 Subsidiary Cell Epidermal cell Guard cell Stomatal aperture


A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 78 Read the following four statements A, B, C and D and select the right option having both

correct statements – STATEMENTS

(A) Z-scheme of light reaction takes place in presence of PSI only

(B) Only PSI functional in cyclic photophosphorylation

(C) Cyclic photophosphorylation result into synthesis of ATP and NADPH2

(D) Stroma lamellae lack PSII as well as NADP

A. A and B

B. B and C

C. C and D

D. B and D


Q. 79 One of the commonly used plant growth hormone in tea plantations is

A. Abscisic acid

B. Zeatin

C. Indole-3- acetic acid

D. Ethylene


Q. 80 Root development is promoted by

A. Auxin

B. Gibberellin

C. Ethylene

D. Abscisic acid


Q. 81 Examine the figure (A-D) given below and select the right option out of 1-4, in which all the

four structures A, B, C and D

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 82 Which of the following representations shows the pyramid of numbers in a forest


A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D


Q. 83 Study the cycle shown below and select the option which gives correct words for all the

four blanks A, B, C and D

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 84 Which one of the following is a xerophytic plant in which the stem is modified into a flat

green and succulent structure

A. Casuarina

B. Hydrilla

C. Acacia

D. Opuntia


Q. 85 An example of endomycorrhiza is

A. Glomus

B. Agaricus

C. Rhizobium

D. Nostoc


Q. 86 Leguminous plants are able to fix atmospheric nitrogen through the process of symbiotic nitrogen fixation. Which one of the following statements is not correct during this process of nitrogen fixation

A. Nodules act as sites for nitrogen fixation

B. The enzyme nitrogenase catalyses the conversion of atmospheric N2 to NH3

C. Nitrogen is insensitive to oxygen

D. Leghaemoglobin scavenges oxygen and is pinkish in colour


Q. 87 Black (stem) rust of wheat is caused by

A. Ustilago nuda

B. Puccinia graminis

C. Xanthomonas oryzae

D. Alternaria solani


Q. 88 Which of the following are used in gene cloning

A. Lomasomes

B. Mesosomes

C. Plasmids

D. Nucleoids


Q. 89 Which one of the following can not be used for preparation of vaccines against plague

A. A virulent live bacteria

B. Synthetic capsular polysaccharide material

C. Heat-killed suspensions of virulent bacteria

D. Formalin-inactivated suspensions of virulent bacteria


Q. 90 Which one of the following is now being commercially produced by biotechnological


A. Morphine

B. Quinine

C. Insulin

D. Nicotine


Q. 91 Crocodile and Penguin are similar to Whale and Dogfish in which one of the following

features ?

A. Lay eggs and guard them till they hatch

B. Possess bony skeleton

C. Have gill slits at some stage

D. Possess a solid single stranded central nervous system


Q. 92 Select the correct combination of the statements (a-d) regarding the characteristics of

certain organisms –

(a) Methanogens are Archaebacteria which produce methane in marshy areas

(b) Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green alga which fixes atmospheric nitrogen

(c) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesize cellulose from glucose

(d) Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive without oxygen

The correct statements are

A. (a), (b) (c)

B. (b), (c), (d)

C. (a), (b) (d)

D. (b), (c)


Q. 93 Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the diagram below from the list (i) to (viii)

given along with

Components :

(i) Cristae of mitochondria

(ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria

(iii) Cytoplasm

(iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

(v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

(vi) Mitochondrial matrix

(vii) Cell vacuole

(viii) Nucleus

The correct components are :

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 94 Three of the following statements about enzymes are correct and one is wrong. Which one is wrong

A. Enzymes are denatured at high temperature but in certain exceptional organisms they are effective even at temperatures 80º – 90ºC

B. Enzymes are highly specific

C. Most enzymes are proteins but some are lipids

D. Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity


Q. 95 Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion

which can be drawn for the character

A. The parents could not have had a normal daughter for this character

B. The trait under study could not be colourblindness

C. The male parent is homozygous dominant

D. The female parent is heterozygous


Q. 96 The most apparent changes during the evolutionary history of Homo sapiens is traced in

A. Walking upright

B. Shortening of the jaws

C. Remarkable increase in the brain size

D. Loss of body hair


Q. 97 Given below are four statements (A-D) each with one or two blanks. Select the option which

correctly fills up the blanks in two statements

A. (A) – (i) convergent, (B) – (ii) oxygen, (ii) nucleosides

B. (B) – (i) water vapour, (ii) amino acids, (C) – (i) rudimentary (ii) anatomical

C. (C) – (i) vestigial, (ii) anatomical, (D) – (i) mutations, (ii) multiplication

D. (D) – (i) small variations, (ii) survival, (A) – (i) convergent


Q. 98 Fastest distribution of some injectable material / medicine and with no risk of any kind can

be achieved by injecting it into the

A. arteries

B. veins

C. lymph vessels

D. muscles


Q. 99 Select the answer with correct matching of the structure, its location and function


1 Cerebellum Mid brain Controls respirationand gastric secretions
2 Hypothalamus Fore brain Controls bodytemperature, urge foreating and drinking
3 Blind spot Near the placewhere opticnerve leaves theeye Rods and cones arepresent but inactivehere
4 Eustachian tube Anterior part ofinternal ear Equalizes airpressure on eithersides of tympanicmembrane


A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 100 ABO blood grouping is controlled by gene I which has three alleles and show codominance. There are six genotypes. How many phenotypes in all are possible

A. three

B. four

C. five

D. six


Q. 101 Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of a normal human


A. First vertebra is axis which articulates with the occipital condyles

B. The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs

C. Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh bone articulates

D. Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by fibrous joint


Q. 102 In which one of the following organisms its excretory organs are correctly stated ?

A. Earthworm – Pharyngeal, integumentary and septal nephridia

B. Cockroach – Malpighian tubules and entire caeca

C. Frog – Kidneys, skin and buccal epithelium

D. Humans – Kidney, sebaceous glands and fear glands


Q. 103 Select the correct matching of a hormone its source and functional

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 104 Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding human blood circulatory system

(a) Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins

(b) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood circulation to the brain is reduced

(c) Persons with blood group AB can donate blood to any person with any blood group under ABO system

(d) Calcium ions play a very important role in blood clotting

Which two of the above statements are correct ?

A. a and b

B. b and c

C. c and d

D. a and d


Q. 105 Which one of the following statements about the particular entity is true

A. The gene for producing insulin is present in every body cell

B. Nucleosome is formed of nucleotides

C. DNA consists of a core of eight histones

D. Centromere is found in animals cells, which produces aster during cell division


Q. 106 Which one of the following pairs of structures is correctly matched with their correct description


A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 107 If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional,

what is likely to happen

A. The pH of stomach will fall abruptly

B. Steapsin will be more effective

C. Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones

D. The pancreatic enzymes and specially the trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently


Q. 108 In human female the blastocyst

A. gets implanted into uterus 3 days after ovulation

B. gets nutrition from uterine endometrial secretion only after implantation

C. gets implanted in endometrium by the trophoblast cells

D. forms placenta even before implantation


Q. 109 Secretions from which one of the following are rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes

A. Liver

B. Pancreas

C. Salivary glands

D. Male accessory glands


Q. 110 When domestic sewage mixes with river water

A. The increased microbial activity releases micro-nutrients such as iron

B. The increased microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen

C. The river water is still suitable for drinking as impurities are only about 0.1%

D. Small animals like rats will die after drinking river water


Q. 111 Which one of the following is most appropriately defined

A. Amensalism is a relationship in which one species is benefited where as the other is unaffected

B. Predator is an organism that catches and kills other organism for food

C. Parasite is an organism which always lives inside the body of other organism and may kill it

D. Host is an organism which provides food to another organism


Q. 112 Jaundice is a disorder of

A. Skin and eyes

B. Digestive system

C. Circulatory system

D. Excretory system


Q. 113 A person suffering from a disease caused by Plasmodium, experiences recurring chill and fever at the time when

A. the trophozoites reach maximum growth and give out certain toxins

B. the parasite after its rapid multiplication inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the

stage to enter fresh RBCs

C. the microgametophytes and megagametophytes are being destroyed by the WBCs

D. the sporozoites released from RBCs are being rapidly killed and broken down inside spleen


Q. 114 Which one of the following techniques is safest for the detection of cancers

A. Radiography (X-ray)

B. Computed tomography (CT)

C. Histopathological studies

D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)


Q. 115 The 3′-5′ phosphodiester linkages inside a polynucleotide chain serve to join

A. One nucleoside with another nucleoside

B. One nucleotide with another nucleotide

C. One nitrogenous base with pentose sugar

D. One DNA strand with the other DNA strand


Q. 116 In genetic engineering, a DNA segment (gene) of interest,is transferred to the host cell through a vector. Consider the following four agents (A-D) in this regard and select the correct option about which one or more of these can be used as a vector / vectors

(A) a bacterium (B) plasmid

(C) plasmodium (D) bacteriophage

A. (A) only

B. (A) and (C) only

C. (B) and (D) only

D. (A), (B) and (D) only


Q. 117 The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster was found to be very suitable for experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance by Morgan and his colleagues because 

A. a single mating produces two young flies

B. smaller female is easily recognizable from large male

C. it completes life cycle in about two weeks

D. it reproduces parthenogenetically


Q. 118 Signals from fully developed foetus and placenta ultimately lead to parturition which

requires the release of

A. Oxytocin from maternal pituitary

B. Oxytocin from foetal pituitary

C. Relaxin from placenta

D. Estrogen from placenta


Q. 119 The Indian Rhinoceros is a natural inhabitant of which one of the Indian states

A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Himachal Pradesh

C. Assam

D. Uttarakhand


Q. 120 The haemoglobin content per 100 ml of blood of a normal healthy human adult is

A. 25-30 g

B. 17-20g

C. 12-16 g

D. 5-11 kg



Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C D C C D C A D A C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer A B A C B C D D B C
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer B D B B A C D B B C
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B B C C A B A D A C
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer D D A B B D C C A D
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer B B A C B C B D C B
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer B B A A C B A B C B
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer A A B B C B C D C A
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer B B A D A C B C C C
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer C C D C D C D B B B
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer D A A D A A C C D B
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer B B B D B C C A C C

AIPMT 2010 Prelims Previous Year Paper

AIPMT 2010  Prelims

Q. 1 A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in figure (1). The coefficient of static friction between the block and the cart is μ. The acceleration α of the cart that will prevent the block from falling satisfies:

A. α > mg/μ

B. α > g/μm

C. α ≥ g/μ

D. α < g/μ


Q. 2 The mass of a ⁷₃Li nucleus is 0.042 u less than the sum of the masses of all its nucleons. The binding energy per nucleon of ⁷₃Li nucleus is nearly

A. 46 Mev

B. 5.6 Mev

C. 3.9 Mev

D. 23 Mev


Q. 3 A circular disk of moment of inertia it is rotating in a horizontal plane, about its symmetry axis, with a constant angular speed ωi. Another disk of moment of inertia Ib is dropped coaxially onto the rotating disk. Initially the second disk has zero angular speed. Eventually both the disks rotate with a constant angular speed ωf. The energy lost by the initially rotating disc to friction is –

A. 1/2 Ib²/(It + Ib) ωi²

B. 1/2 It²/(It + Ib) ωi²

C. (Ib – It)/(It + Ib) ωi²

D. 1/2 (Ib . It)/(It + Ib) ωi²


Q. 4 Which one of the following statement is FALSE ?

A. Pure Si doped with trivalent impurities gives a p-type semiconductor

B. Majority carriers in a n-type semiconductor are holes

C. Minority carriers in a p-type semiconductor are electrons

D. The resistance of intrinsic semiconductor decreases with increase of temperature


Q. 5 The displacement of a particle along the x-axis is given by x = a sin² ωt. The motion of the particle corresponds to –

A. simple harmonic motion of frequency ω/π

B. simple harmonic motion of frequency 3ω/2π

C. non simple harmonic motion

D. simple harmonic motion of frequency ω/2π


Q. 6 The radii of circular orbits of two satellite A and B of the earth, are 4R and R, respectively speed of satellite A is 3V, then the speed satellite B will be –

A. 3V/4

B. 6V

C. 12 V

D. 3 V/2


Q. 7 A beam of cathode rays is subjected to crossed. Electric (E) and Magnetic fields (B). The fields are adjusted such that the beam is not deflected. The specific charge of the cathode rays is given by

A. B^2/2VE^2

B. 2VB^2/E^2

C. 2VE^2/B^2

D. E^2/2VB^2


Q. 8 A ball is dropped from a high rise platform at t = 0 starting for rest. After 6 seconds another ball is thrown downwards from the same platform with a speed v. The two balls meet at t = 18 s. What is the value of v ? (take g = 10 m/s²)

A. 75 m/s

B. 55 m/s

C. 40 m/s

D. 60 m/s


Q. 9 A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium of refractive index μ, falls on a surface separating the medium from air at an angle of incidence of 45°. For which of the following value of μ the ray can undergo total internal reflection:

A. μ = 1.33

B. μ = 1.40

C. μ = 1.50

D. μ = 1.25


Q. 10 The period of oscillation of a mass M suspended from a spring of negligible mass is T. If along with it another mass M is also suspended, the period of oscillation will now be 

A. T

B. T/√2

C. 2T

D. √2T


Q. 11 A cylindrical metallic rod in thermal contact with two reservoirs of heat at its two ends conducts an amount of heat Q in time t. The metallic rod is melted and the material is formed into a rod of half the radius of the original rod. What is the amount of heat conducted by the new rod, when placed in thermal contact with the two reservoirs in time t ?

A. Q/4

B. Q/16

C. 2Q

D. Q/2


Q. 12 A ball moving with velocity 2m/s collides head on with another stationary ball of double the mass. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, the their velocities (in m/s) after collision will be –

A. 0, 1

B. 1, 1

C. 1, 0.5

D. 0, 2


Q. 13 A transverse wave is represented by y = A sin (ωt – kx). For what value of the wavelength is the wave velocity equal to the maximum particle velocity –

A. πA/2

B. πA

C. 2πA

D. A


Q. 14 A particle has initial velocity (3î + 4ĵ) and has acceleration (0.4î + 0.3ĵ). Its speed after 10 s is – 

A. 7 units

B. 7 √2 units

C. 8.5 units

D. 10 units


Q. 15 An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. Water passes through the pipe and leaves it with a velocity of 2 /s. The mass per unit length of water in the pipe is 100 kg/m. What is the power of the engine –

A. 400 W

B. 200 W

C. 100 W

D. 800 W


Q. 16 A thin ring of radius R meter has charge q coulomb uniformly spread on it. The ring rotates about its axis with a constant frequency of f revolutions/s. The value of magnetic induction in Wb/m² at the centre of the ring is –

A. (μₒqf)/2πR

B. (μₒq)/2πfR

C. (μₒq)/2fR

D. (μₒqf)/2R


Q. 17 Which one of the following bonds produces a solid that reflects light in the visible region and whose electrical conductivity decreases with temperature and has high melting point ?

A. metallic bonding

B. vander Waal’s bonding

C. ionic bonding

D. covalent bonding


Q. 18 A particle moves a distance x in time t according to equation x = (t + 5)⁻¹. The acceleration of particle is proportional to –

A. (velocity)³/²

B. (distance)²

C. (distance)⁻²

D. (velocity)²/³


Q. 19 A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field, B = .025 T with its plane perpendicular to the loop The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of 1 mms⁻¹. The induced e.m.f. when the radius is 2 cm, is –

A. 2 πμV

B. πμV

C. π/2 μV

D. 2 μV


Q. 20 The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as Nₒ counts per minute at t = 0 and Nₒ/e counts per minute at t = 5 minutes. The time (in minutes) at which the activity reduces to half its value is –

A. logₑ 2/5

B. 5 / logₑ 2

C. 5 log₁₀ 2

D. 5 logₑ 2


Q. 21 Two particles which are initially at rest, move towards each other under the action of their internal attraction. If their speeds are v and 2v at any instant, then the speed of centre of mass of the system will be –

A. 2 v

B. zero

C. 1.5 v

D. v


Q. 22 A particle of mass M is situated at the center of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The gravitational potential at a point situated at a/2 distance from the centre, will be –

A. -3GM/a

B. -2GM/a

C. -GM/a

D. -4GM/a


Q. 23 The device that can act as a complete electronic circuit is –

A. Junction diode

B. Integrated circuit

C. Junction transistor

D. Zener diode


Q. 24 A potentiometer circuit is set up as shown in figure (1). The potential gradient across the potentiometer wire, is k volt/cm and the ammeter, present in the circuit, reads 1.0 A when two way key is switched off. The balance points, when the key between the terminals (i) 1 and 2 (ii) 1 and 3, is plugged in, are found to be at lengths l1 cm and l2 cm respectively. The magnitudes, of the resistors R and X, in ohms, are then, equal respectively to –

A. k(l2 – l1) and kl2

B. kl1 and k(l2 – l1)

C. k(l2 – l1) and kl1

D. kli and kl2


Q. 25 A tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz makes 4 beats per second with the vibrating string of a string of a piano. The beat frequency decreases to 2 beats per second, when the tension in the piano string is slightly increased. The frequency of the piano string before increasing the tension was –

A. 510 Hz

B. 514 Hz

C. 516 Hz

D. 508 Hz


Q. 26 Six vectors, a through vector f have magnitudes and directions indicated in the figure . Which of the following statements is true?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)


Q. 27 A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 100 Ω and gives a full scale deflection for 30 mA current. If it is to work as a voltmeter of 30 volt range, the resistance required to be added will be –

A. 900 Ω

B. 1800 Ω

C. 500 Ω

D. 1000 Ω


Q. 28 A gramophone record is revolving with angular velocity ω. A coin is placed at a distance r from the centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is μ. The coin will revolve with the record if –

A. r = μgω²

B. r < ω²/μg

C. r ≤ μg/ω²

D. r ≥ μg/ω²


Q. 29 Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves ?

A. both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and same time

B. The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors

C. Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave

D. These waves do not require any material medium for propagation


Q. 30 The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is – 13.6 eV. The energy of He⁺ ion in the first excited state will be –

A. – 13.6 eV

B. – 27.2 eV

C. – 54.4 eV

D. – 6.8 eV


Q. 31 The dimension of 1/2 ∈oE², where ∈o is permittivity of free space and E is an electric field, is –

A. ML² T⁻²

B. ML⁻¹T⁻²

C. ML² T ⁻¹

D. MLT⁻¹


Q. 32 In producing chlorine by electrolysis 100 kW power at 125 V is being consumed. How much chlorine per minute is liberated (E.C.E. of chlorine is 0.367 × 10⁻⁶kg/C) –

A. 1.76 × 10⁻³ kg

B. 9.67 × 10⁻³ kg

C. 17.6 1× 10⁻³ kg

D. 3.67 × 10⁻³ kg


Q. 33 A man of 50 kg mass is standing in a gravity free space at a height of 10 m above the floor. He throws a stone of 0.5 kg mass downwards with a speed 2 m/s. When the stone reaches the floor, the distance of the man above the floor will be –

A. 9.9 m

B. 10.1 m

C. 10 m

D. 20 m


Q. 34 An alpha nucleus of energy 1/2 mv² bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the distance of closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to –

A. 1/Ze

B. v²

C. 1/m

D. 1/v⁴


Q. 35 A lens having focal length f and aperture of diameter d forms an image of intensity I. Aperture of diameter d/2 in central region of lens is covered by a black paper. Focal length of lens and intensity of image now will be respectively –

A. f and I/4

B. 3f/4 and I/2

C. f and 3I/4

D. f/4 and I/2


Q. 36 If ΔU and ΔW represent the increase in internal energy and work done by the system respectively in a thermodynamic process, which of the following is true ?

A. ΔU = – ΔW, in a adiabatic process

B. ΔU = ΔW, in a isothermal process

C. ΔU = ΔW, in a adiabatic process

D. ΔU = – ΔW, in a isothermal process


Q. 37 The total radiant energy per unit area, normal to the direction of incidence, received at a distance R from the centre of a star of radius r, whose outer surface radiates as a black body at a temperature TK is given by –

(Where σ is Stefan’s Constant)

A. (σ r²T⁴)/R²

B. (σ r²T⁴)/4πr²

C. (σ r²T⁴)/r⁴

D. (4π σ r²T⁴)/R²


Q. 38 In the circuit given in figure (1) the reading of voltmeter V1 and V2 are 300 volts each. The reading of the voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are respectively –

A. 150 V, 2.2 A

B. 220 V, 2.2 A

C. 220 V, 2.0 A

D. 100 V, 2.0 A


Q. 39 A 220 volt input is supplied to a transformer. The output circuit draws a current of 2.0 ampere at 440 volts. If the efficiency of the transformer is 80%, the current drawn by the primary windings of the transformer is –

A. 3.6 ampere

B. 2.8 ampere

C. 2.5 ampere

D. 5.0 ampere


Q. 40 A source S₁ is producing, 10¹⁵ photons per second of wavelength 5000 Å. Another source S₂ is producing 1.02 × 10¹⁵ photons per second of wavelength 5100 Å. Then, (power of S₂)/(power of S₁) is equal to

A. 1.00

B. 1.02

C. 1.04

D. 0.98


Q. 41 A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100 Ω and an output impedance of 200 Ω. The power gain of the amplifier is –

A. 500

B. 1000

C. 1250

D. 50


Q. 42 A vibration magnetometer placed in magnetic meridian has a small bar magnet. The magnet executes oscillations with a time period of 2 sec in earth’s horizontal magnetic field of 24 microtesla. When a horizontal field of 18 microtesla is produced opposite to the earth’s field by placing a current carrying wire, the new time period of magnet will be –

A. 1s

B. 2s

C. 3s

D. 4s


Q. 43 Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated by a distance d. If F is the force of repulsion between the ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion will be (e being the charge on an electron) –

A. 4πεₒFd²/e²

B. √4πεₒFe²/d²

C. √4πεₒFd²/e²

D. 4πεₒFd²/q²


Q. 44 The potential difference that must be applied to stop the fastest photo electrons emitted by a nickel surface, having work function 5.01 eV, when ultraviolet light of 200 nm falls on it, must be –

A. 2.4 V

B. – 1.2 V

C. – 2.4 V

D. 1.2 V


Q. 45 A square surface of side L meter in the plane of the paper is placed in a uniform electric field E (volt/m) acting along the same plane at an angle θ with the horizontal side of the square as shown in figure. The electric flux linked to the surface, in units of volt-m, is –

A. EL²

B. EL² cos θ

C. EL² sin θ

D. Zero


Q. 46 A series combination of n1 capacitors, each of value C1, is charged by a source of potential difference 4V. When another parallel combination of n2 capacitors, each of value C2, is charged by a source of potential difference V, it is has the same (total) energy stored in it, as the first combination has. The value of C2, in terms of C1, is then –

A. 2C1/n1n2

B. 16n2/n1 C1

C. 2 n2/n1 C1

D. 16C1/n1n2


Q. 47 Electromagnets are made of soft iron because soft iron has –

A. low retentivity and high coercive force

B. high retentivity and high coercive force

C. low retentivity and low coercive force

D. high retentivity and low coercive force


Q. 48 A square current carrying loop is suspended in a uniform magnetic field acting in the plane of the loop. If the force on one arm of the loop is F, the net force on the remaining three arms of the loop is –

Note :- F is a vector

A. 3F

B. -F

C. -3F

D. F


Q. 49 Consider the following two statements –

(A) Kirchhoff’s junction law follows from the conservation of charge

(B) Kirchhoff’s loop law follows from the conservation of energy

Which of the following is correct ?

A. Both (A) and (B) are wrong

B. (A) is correct and (B) is wrong

C. (A) is wrong and (B) is correct

D. Both (A) and (B) are correct


Q. 50 To get an output Y = 1 from the circuit shown in figure (1), the input must be –

A. 0(A), 1(B), 0(C)

B. 0(A), 0(B), 1(C)

C. 1(A), 0(B), 1(C)

D. 1(A), 0(B), 0(C)


Q. 51 For the reaction N₂O₅(g) → 2NO₂(g) + 1/2 O₂(g) the value of rate of disappearance of N₂O₅ is given as 6.25 x 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹. The rate of formation of NO₂ and O₂ is given respectively as:

A. 6.25 x 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹ and 6.25 x 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹

B. 1.25 x 10⁻² mol L⁻¹s⁻¹ and 3.125 x 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹

C. 6.25 x 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹ and 3.125 x 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹

D. 1.25 x 10⁻² mol L⁻¹s⁻¹ and 6.25 x 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹s⁻¹


Q. 52 Liquid hydrocarbons can be converted to a mixture of gaseous hydrocarbons by

A. Oxidation

B. Cracking

C. Distillation under reduced pressure

D. Hydrolysis


Q. 53 In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions, the central atoms have sp² hybridisation?

A. NO₂⁻ and NH₃

B. BF₃ and NO₂⁻

C. NH₂⁻ and H₂O

D. BF₃ and NH₂⁻


Q. 54 Which one of the following does not exhibit the phenomenon of mutarotation?

A. (+) Sucrose

B. (+) Lactose

C. (+) Maltose

D. (–) Fructose


Q. 55 Which one of the following species does not exist under normal conditions?

A. Be₂⁺

B. Be₂

C. B₂

D. Li₂


Q. 56 Which of the following complex ion is not expected to absorb visible light?

A. [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻

B. [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺

C. [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺

D. [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺


Q. 57 Given are cyclohexanol (I), acetic acid (II) 2,4,6-trinitrophenol (III) and phenol (IV). In these the order of decreasing acidic character will be

A. III > II > IV > I

B. II > III > I > IV

C. II > III > IV > I

D. III > IV > II > I


Q. 58 If pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)₂ is 12, the value of its K(SP) is

A. 4.00 × 10⁻⁶ M³

B. 4.00 × 10⁻⁷ M³

C. 5.00 × 10⁻⁶ M³

D. 5.00 × 10⁻⁷ M³


Q. 59 The reaction of toluene with Cl₂ in presence of FeCl₃ gives ‘X’ and reaction in presence of light gives ‘Y’. Thus, ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are

A. X = Benzal chloride, Y = o-chlorotoluene

B. X = m– chlorotoluene, Y = p- chlorotoluene

C. X = o-and p- chlorotoluene Y = Trichloromethyl benzene

D. X = Benzyl chloride, Y = m- chlorotoluene


Q. 60 Which one of the following compounds has the most acidic nature?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 61 In a set of reactions given in figure (A), ethyl benzene yielded a product D. Which of the following among (1), (2), (3), (4) would be :

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 62 What is [H⁺] in mol/L of a solution that is 0.20 M in CH₃COONa and 0.10 M in CH₃COOH? Kₐ for CH₃COOH = 1.8 × 10⁻⁵

A. 3.5 × 10⁻⁴

B. 1.1 × 10⁻⁵

C. 1.8 × 10⁻⁵

D. 9.0 × 10⁻⁶


Q. 63 For an endothermic reaction, energy of activation is Ea and enthalpy of reaction is ΔH (both of these in kJ/mol). Minimum value of Ea will be:

A. less than ΔH

B. equal to ΔH

C. more than ΔH

D. equal to zero


Q. 64 The correct order of increasing reactivity of C–X bond towards nucleophile in the following compounds (I), (II), (III), (IV) is:

A. I < II < IV < III

B. II < III < I < IV

C. IV < III < I < II

D. III < II < I < IV


Q. 65 For the reduction of silver ions with copper metal, the standard cell potential was found to be +0.46 V at 25°C. The value of standard Gibbs energy. ΔG° will be (F = 96500 C mol⁻¹). 

A. –89.0 kJ

B. –89.0 J

C. –44.5 kJ

D. –98.0 kJ


Q. 66 In which of the following equilibrium K􀀂 and Kₚ are not equal?

A. 2NO (g) ⇔ N₂ (g) + O₂ (g)

B. SO₂ (g) + NO₂ (g) ⇔ SO₃ (g) + NO (g)

C. H₂ (g) + I₂ (g) ⇔ 2HI (g)

D. 2C (s) + O₂ (g) ⇔ 2CO₂ (g)


Q. 67 Which of the following ions will exhibit colour in aqueous solutions?

A. La³⁺ (z = 57)

B. Ti³⁺ (z = 22)

C. Lu³⁺ (z = 71)

D. Sc³⁺ (z =21)


Q. 68 Aniline in a set of the following reactions given in figure (A) yielded a coloured product ‘Y’. The structure of ‘Y’ would be (among (1), (2), (3), (4)):

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 69 Acetamide is treated with the following reagents separately. Which one of these would yield methyl amine?

A. NaOH – Br₂

B. Sodalime

C. Hot conc. H₂SO₄

D. PCl₅


Q. 70 An aqueous solution is 1.00 molal in KI. Which change will cause the vapour pressure of the solution to increase?

A. addition of NaCl

B. addition of Na₂SO₄

C. addition of 1.00 molal KI

D. addition of water


Q. 71 A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g mol⁻¹) has been prepared by dissolving 68.5 g of sucrose in 1000 g of water. The freezing point of the solution obtained will be : (K􀀃 for water = 1.86 K kg mol⁻¹)

A. –0.372°C

B. –0.520°C

C. + 0.372°C

D. – 0.570°C


Q. 72 Which of the following alkaline earth metal sulphates has hydration enthalpy higher than the lattice enthalpy?

A. CaSO₄

B. BeSO₄

C. BaSO₄

D. SeSO₄


Q. 73 Which one of the following ions has electronic configuration [Ar] 3d⁶?

A. Ni³⁺

B. Mn³⁺

C. Fe³⁺

D. Co³⁺


Q. 74 An increase in equivalent conductance of a strong electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to:

A. increase in ionic mobility of ions

B. 100% ionization of electrolyte at normal dilution

C. increase in both i.e. number of ions and ionic mobility of ions

D. increase in number of ions


Q. 75 Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d⁴ octahedral complex is

A. -1.8 Δₒ

B. -1.6 Δₒ + P

C. -1.2 Δₒ

D. -0.6 Δₒ


Q. 76 Oxidation states of P in H₄P₂0₅, H₄P₂O₆, H₄P₂O₇, are respectively:

A. +3, +5, + 4

B. +5, +3, +4

C. +5, +4, +3

D. +3, +4, +5


Q. 77 Which of the following statements about primary amines is ‘False’?

A. Alkyl amines are stronger bases than aryl amines

B. Alkyl amines react with nitrous acid to produce alcohols

C. Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to produce phenols

D. Alkyl amines are stronger bases than ammonia


Q. 78 The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following species is

A. Cl₂O < ClO₂ < ClO₂⁻

B. ClO₂ < Cl₂O < ClO₂⁻

C. Cl₂O < ClO₂⁻ < ClO₂

D. ClO₂⁻ < Cl₂O < ClO₂


Q. 79 Among the given compounds, the most susceptible to nucleophilic attack at the carbonyl group is :






Q. 80 25.3 g of sodium carbonate, Na₂CO₃ is dissolved in enough water to make 250 mL of solution. If sodium carbonate dissociates completely, molar concentration of sodium ion, Na⁺ and carbonate ions, CO₃²⁻ are respectively (Molar mass of Na₂CO₃= 106 g mol⁻¹)

A. 0.955 M and 1.910 M

B. 1.910 M and 0.955 M

C. 1.90 M and 1.910 M

D. 0.477 and 0.477 M


Q. 81 In a buffer solution containing equal concentration of B⁻ and HB, the Kᵦ for B⁻ is 10⁻¹⁰. The pH of buffer solution is:

A. 10

B. 7

C. 6

D. 4


Q. 82 The existence of two different coloured complexes with the composition of [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺ is due to

A. linkage isomerism

B. geometrical isomerism

C. coordination isomerism

D. ionization isomerism


Q. 83 Property of the alkaline earth metals that increases with their atomic number:

A. Solubility of their hydroxides in water

B. Solubility of their sulphates in water

C. Ionization energy

D. Electronegativity


Q. 84 During the kinetic study of the reaction, 2A + B → C + D, following results were obtained: Based on the data in figure which one of the following is correct?

A. rate = k [A]²[B]

B. rate = k [A] [B]

C. rate = k [A]² [B]²

D. rate = k [A] [B]²


Q. 85 Which of the following pairs has the same size?

A. Fe²⁺, Ni²⁺

B. Zn⁴⁺, Ti⁴⁺

C. Zn⁴⁺, Hf⁴⁺

D. Zn²⁺, Hf⁴⁺


Q. 86 The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii among the following isoelectronic species is :

A. Ca²⁺ > K⁺ > S²⁻ > Cl⁻

B. Cl⁻ > S²⁻ > Ca²⁺ > K⁺

C. S²⁻ > Cl⁻ > K⁺ > Ca²⁺

D. K⁺ > Ca²⁺ > Cl⁻ > S²⁻


Q. 87 In which one of the following species the central atom has the type of hybridization which is not the same as that present in the other three?

A. SF₄

B. I₃⁻

C. SbCl₅²⁻

D. PCl₅


Q. 88 Standard entropies of X₂, Y₂ and XY₃ are 60, 40 and 50 JK⁻¹ mol⁻¹ respectively. For the reaction 1/2 X₂ + 3/2 Y₂ ⇔ XY₃, ΔH = -30 kJ to be at equilibrium, the temperature should be: 

A. 750 K

B. 1000 K

C. 1250 K

D. 500 K


Q. 89 Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with negative sign for the elements O, S, F and Cl?

A. Cl < F < O < S

B. O < S < F < Cl

C. F < S < O < Cl

D. S < O < Cl < F


Q. 90 Which one of the following compounds is a peroxide?

A. KO₂

B. BaO₂

C. MnO₂

D. NO₂


Q. 91 Which one among (1), (2), (3), (4) is most reactive towards electrophilic reagent among (A), (B), (C), (D)?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 92 Which one of the following is employed as a Tranquilizer drug?

A. Promethazine

B. Valium

C. Naproxen

D. Mifepristone


Q. 93 In the following figures, (1), (2), (3), (4), the most stable conformation of n – butane is: 

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 94 Which of the following reactions will not result in the formation of carbon-carbon bonds?

A. Reimer-Tiemann reaction

B. Cannizzaro reaction

C. Wurtz reaction

D. Friedel-Crafts acylation


Q. 95 Which of the following structures (1), (2), (3), (4), represents Neoprene polymer?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 96 Which one is most reactive towards Sn₁ reaction?

A. C₆H₅CH(C₆H₅)Br

B. C₆H₅CH(CH₃)Br

C. C₆H₅C(CH₃)(C₆H₅)Br

D. C₆H₅CH₂Br


Q. 97 AB crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice with edge length ‘a’ equal to 387 pm. The distance between two oppositely charged ions in the lattice is:

A. 335 pm

B. 250 pm

C. 200 pm

D. 300 pm


Q. 98 The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of a triatomic gas is: (NA = 6.02 x 10²³ mol⁻¹)

A. 6.026 x 10²²

B. 1.806 x 10²³

C. 3.600 x 10²³

D. 1.800 x 10²²


Q. 99 Which one of the following molecular hydrides acts as a Lewis acid?

A. NH₃

B. H₂O

C. B₂H₆

D. CH₄


Q. 100 The tendency of BF3₃, BCl₃ and BBr₃ to behave as Lewis acid decreases in the sequence:

A. BCl₃ > BF₃ > BBr₃

B. BBr₃ > BCl₃ > BF₃

C. BBr₃ > BF₃ > BCl₃

D. BF₃ > BCl₃ > BBr₃


Q. 101 In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube?

A. Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage

B. Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage

C. Embryo of 32 cell stage

D. Zygote only


Q. 102 Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cells is an effective transport pathway?

A. Plasmodesmata

B. Plastoquinones

C. Endoplasmic reticulum

D. Plasmalemma


Q. 103 Single-celled eukaryotes are included in:

A. Protista

B. Fungi

C. Archaea

D. Monera


Q. 104 The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India has been developed for:

A. Insect-resistance

B. Enhancing shelf life

C. Enhancing mineral content

D. Drought-resistance


Q. 105 In unilocular ovary with a single ovule the placentation is:

A. Marginal

B. Basal

C. Free Central

D. Axile


Q. 106 An element playing important role in nitrogen fixation is:

A. Molybdenum

B. Copper

C. Manganese

D. Zinc


Q. 107 Sertoli cells are found in :

A. ovaries and secrete progesterone

B. adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline

C. seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ cells

D. pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin


Q. 108 Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel’s Law of Dominance?

A. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor

B. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant, and the other recessive

C. Alleles do not show any blending and both he characters recover as such in F2 generation

D. Factors occur in pairs


Q. 109 Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from :

A. Synergids

B. Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule

C. Antipodal cell

D. Diploid egg


Q. 110 One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus is:

A. Octopus

B. Asterias

C. Ascidia

D. Fasciola


Q. 111 Select the correct statement from the ones given below :

A. Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth

B. Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a painkiller

C. Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate

D. Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery


Q. 112 Listed in figure (1) are four respiratory capacities (a-d) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human adult:

Which one of the following is the correct matching of two capacities and volumes?

A. (b) 2500 mL, (c) 4500 mL

B. (c) 1200 mL, (d) 2500 mL

C. (d) 3500 mL, (a) 1200 mL

D. (a) 4500 mL, (b) 3500 mL


Q. 113 The chief water conducting elements of xylem in gymnosperms are :

A. Vessels

B. Fibres

C. Transfusion tissue

D. Tracheids


Q. 114 Ringworm in humans is caused by :

A. Bacteria

B. Fungi

C. Nematodes

D. Viruses


Q. 115 Which one of the following is not a micronutrient?

A. Molybdenum

B. Magnesium

C. Zinc

D. Boron


Q. 116 Membrane-bound organelles are absent in:

A. Saccharomyces

B. Streptococcus

C. Chalamydomonas

D. Plasmodium


Q. 117 Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from:

A. Testicular lobules to rete testis

B. Rete testis to vas deferens

C. Vas deferens to epididymis

D. Epididymis to urethra


Q. 118 Select the correct statement from the following:

A. Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal waste

B. Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in rumen of cattle

C. Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is pure methane

D. Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks of sewage treatment plant is a rich source of aerobic bacteria


Q. 119 Select the two correct statements out of the four (a-d) given below about lac operon.

(a) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it

(b) In the absence of lactose the repressor binds with the operator region

(c) The z-gene codes for permease

(d) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod

The correct statements are :

A. (b) and (c)

B. (a) and (c)

C. (b) and (d)

D. (a) and (b)


Q. 120 Keel is characteristic of the flowers of:

A. Gulmohar

B. Cassia

C. Calotropis

D. Bean


Q. 121 The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of blood vessels is:

A. cuboidal epithelium

B. columnar epithelium

C. ciliated columnar epithelium

D. squamous epithelium


Q. 122 Which one of the following has its own DNA?

A. Mitochondria

B. Dictyosome

C. Lysosome

D. Peroxisome


Q. 123 Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called :

A. Xenogamy

B. Geitonogamy

C. Karyogamy

D. Autogamy


Q. 124 The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by –

A. Test cross

B. Dihybrid cross

C. Pedigree analysis

D. Back cross


Q. 125 PGA as the first CO₂ fixation product was discovered in photosynthesis of –

A. Bryophyte

B. Gymnosperm

C. Angiosperm

D. Algae


Q. 126 Study the four statements (a–d) given below and select the two correct ones out of them

(a) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on grain are ecologically similar in being consumers

(b) Predatory starfish Pisaster helps in maintaining species diversity of some invertebrates

(c) Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of prey species

(d) Production of chemicals such as nicotine, strychnine by the plants are metabolic Disorders The two correct statement are:

A. a and d

B. a and b

C. b and c

D. c and d


Q. 127 Seminal plasma in human males is rich in –

A. fructose and calcium

B. glucose and calcium

C. DNA and testosterone

D. ribose and potassium


Q. 128 ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by the gene I. It has three alleles – I^A, I^B and i. Since there are three different alleles, six different genotypes are possible. How many phenotypes can occur –

A. Three

B. One

C. Four

D. Two


Q. 129 Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals, vitamins and proteins is called –

A. Somatic hybridisation

B. Biofortification

C. Biomagnification

D. Micropropagation


Q. 130 A common biocontrol agent for the control of plant diseases is –

A. Baculovirus

B. Bacillus thuringiensis

C. Glomus

D. Trichoderma


Q. 131 Widal test is used for the diagnosis of –

A. Malaria

B. Pneumonia

C. Tuberculosis

D. Typhoid


Q. 132 Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the secretion of which one of the following ?

A. Aldosterone

B. Both Androstenedione and Dehydroepiandrosterone

C. Adrenaline

D. Cortisol


Q. 133 Low Ca⁺⁺ in the body fluid may be the cause of

A. Tetany

B. Anaemia

C. Angina pectoris

D. Gout


Q. 134 Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched –

A. Glucagon – Beta cells (source)

B. Somatostatin – Delta cells (source)

C. Corpus luteum – Relaxin (secretion)

D. Insulin – Diabetes mellitus (disease)


Q. 135 Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross –

A. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations

B. Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations

C. Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones

D. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombination


Q. 136 Which one of the following statements regards to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct

A. Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water

B. Distal convoluted tubule is incapable in reabsorbing HCO3

C. nearly 99 percent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tube

D. Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes


Q. 137 The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in

A. Hypothalamus

B. Pons

C. Cerebellum

D. Thalamus


Q. 138 The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and the decomposers is called –

A. Net primary productivity

B. Secondary productivity

C. Standing crop

D. Gross primary productivity


Q. 139 If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid value of the human heart is partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect

A. The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down

B. The pacemaker will stop working

C. The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium

D. The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced


Q. 140 Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of –

A. Guava

B. Plum

C. Brinjal

D. Cucumber


Q. 141 which one of the following is used as vector for cloning genes into higher organisms?

A. Baculovirus

B. Salmonella typhimurium

C. Rhizopus nigricans

D. Retrovirus


Q. 142 The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic code, is its being –

A. Degenerate

B. Ambiguous

C. Universal

D. Specific


Q. 143 Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation ?

A. Wild life sanctuary

B. Seed bank

C. Sacred groves

D. National park


Q. 144 Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 145 Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS ?

A. The HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person

B. Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection

C. AIDS patients are being fully cured cent per cent with proper care and nutrition

D. The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers


Q. 146 Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of –

A. Gibberellin

B. Phytochrome

C. Cytokinins

D. Auxin


Q. 147 The figure (1) is a diagrammatic representation of response of organisms to abiotic factors. What do a, b and c represent respectively

A. conformer(a), regulator(b), partial regulator(c)

B. regulator(a), partial regulator(b), conformer(c)

C. partial regulator(a), regulator(b), conformer(c)

D. regulator(a), conformer(b), partial regulator(c)


Q. 148 Male and female gametophytes are independent and free-living in –

A. Mustard

B. Castor

C. Pinus

D. sphagnum


Q. 149 The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of China rose (Hibiscus

rosasinensis) is

A. Monoadelphous

B. Diadelphous

C. Polyandrous

D. Polyadelphous


Q. 150 Virus envelope is known as –

A. Capsid

B. Virion

C. Nucleoprotein

D. Core


Q. 151 The permissible use of the technique aminocentesis is for –

A. detecting sex of the unborn foetus

B. artificial insemination

C. transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother

D. Detecting any genetic abnormality


Q. 152 During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to disappear at –

A. Late prophase

B. Early metaphase

C. Late metaphase

D. Early prophase


Q. 153 One of the free-living anaerobic nitrogen-fixer is

A. Beijernickia

B. Rhodospirillum

C. Rhizobium

D. Azotobacter


Q. 154 DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called –

A. Vector

B. Probe

C. Clone

D. Plasmid


Q. 155 Darwin’s finches are a good example of –

A. Industrial melanism

B. Connecting link

C. Adaptive radiation

D. Convergent evolution


Q. 156 The signals for parturition originate from –

A. placenta only

B. placenta as well as fully developed foetus

C. oxytocin released from maternal pituitary

D. fully developed foetus only


Q. 157 What is true about RBCs in humans ?

A. They carry about 20-25 percent of CO2

B. They transport 99.5 percent of O2

C. They transport about 80 percent oxygen only and the rest 20 percent of its

transported in dissolved state in blood plasma

D. They do not carry CO2 at all


Q. 158 Which stages of cell division do the following figures A and B represent respectively ?


A. Metaphase – Telophase

B. Telophase – Metaphase

C. Late Anaphase – Prophase

D. Prophase – Anaphase


Q. 159 The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is

A. Plasma membrane

B. Mitochondria

C. Cytoplasm

D. Nucleus


Q. 160 The common nitrogen-fixer in paddy fields is –

A. Rhizobium

B. Azospirillum

C. Oscillatoria

D. Frankia


Q. 161 The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in human is synthesised –

A. in kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver

B. in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys

C. in liver and also eliminated by the same through bile

D. in the liver, but eliminated mostly through kidneys


Q. 162 Carrier ions like Na⁺ facilitate the absorption of substances like –

A. amino acids and glucose

B. glucose and fatty acids

C. fatty acids and glycerol

D. fructose and some amino acids


Q. 163 Which one of the following symbols (1), (2), (3), (4) and its representation, used in human pedigree analysis is correct –

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 164 Which two of the following changes (a – d) usually tend to occur in the plain dwellers when they move to high altitudes (3,500 m or more) ?

(a) Increase in red blood cell size

(b) Increase in red blood cell production

(c) Increased breathing rate

(d) Increase in thrombocyte count

A. (b) and (c)

B. (c) and (d)

C. (a) and (d)

D. (a) and (b)


Q. 165 Toxic agents present in food which interfere with thyroxine synthesis lead to the

development of –

A. toxic goitre

B. cretinism

C. simple goitre

D. thyrotoxicosis


Q. 166 If for some reason our goblet cells are non-functional, this will adversely affect:

A. production of somatostatin

B. secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands

C. maturation of sperms

D. smooth movement of food down the intestine


Q. 167 The plasma membrane consists mainly of –

A. phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer

B. proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer

C. proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules

D. proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer


Q. 168 Which one of the following statements about all the four of Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin and Penguin is correct –

A. Penguin is homeothermic while the remaining three are poikilothermic

B. Leech is fresh water form while all others are marine

C. Spongilla has special collared cells called choanocytes, not found in the remaining three

D. All are bilaterally symmetrical


Q. 169 The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month of pregnancy?

A. Fourth month

B. Fifth month

C. Sixth month

D. Third month


Q. 170 The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize is comparable to which part of the seed in other monocotyledons?

A. Cotyledon

B. Endosperm

C. Aleurone layer

D. Plumule


Q. 171 Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic?

A. Flat worms

B. Sponges

C. Ctenophores

D. Corals


Q. 172 Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct –

A. Roundworms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates pseudocoelomates

B. Molluscs are acoelomates

C. Insects are pseudocoelomates

D. Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates


Q. 173 Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intrauterine Devices (IUDs)

A. make uterus unsuitable for implantation

B. increase phagocytosis of sperms

C. suppress sperm motility

D. prevent ovulation


Q. 174 The energy-releasing metabolic process in which substrate is oxidised without an external electron acceptor is called –

A. Glycolysis

B. Fermentation

C. Aerobic respiration

D. Photorespiration


Q. 175 Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which –

A. make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule

B. recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase

C. restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase

D. remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule


Q. 176 Which one of the following is not a lateral meristem ?

A. Intrafascicular cambium

B. Interfascicular cambium

C. Phellogen

D. Intercalary meristem


Q. 177 A renewable exhaustible natural resource is –

A. Coal

B. Petroleum

C. Minerals

D. Forest


Q. 178 Photoperiodism was first characterised in –

A. Tobacco

B. Potato

C. Tomato

D. Cotton


Q. 179 C₄ plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C₃ plants due to –

A. Higher leaf area

B. Presence of large number of chloroplasts in the leaf cells

C. Presence of thin cuticle

D. Lower rate of photorespiration


Q. 180 Algae have cell wall made up of –

A. Cellulose, galactans and mannans

B. Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins

C. Pectins, cellulose and proteins

D. Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins


Q. 181 Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH₂) habitats belong to the two groups –

A. Eubacteria and archaea

B. Cyanobacteria and diatoms

C. Protists and mosses

D. Liverworts and yeasts


Q. 182 Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing –

A. transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans

B. transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac disease

C. transgenic Cow-Rosie which produces high fat milk for making ghee

D. Animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power


Q. 183 Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are –

A. Long fibre and resistance to aphids

B. Medium yield, long fibre and resistance to beetle pests

C. High yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran pests

D. High yield and resistance to bollworms


Q. 184 Heartwood differs from sapwood in –

A. Presence of rays and fibres

B. Absence of vessels and parenchyma

C. Having dead and non-conducting elements

D. Being susceptible to pests and pathogens


Q. 185 Satellite DNA is useful tool in –

A. Organ transplantation

B. Sex determination

C. Forensic science

D. Genetic engineering


Q. 186 The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs –

A. Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the Fallopian tube

B. Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm

C. Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum

D. in the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division


Q. 187 Which one of the following does not follow the central dogma of molecular biology ?

A. Pea

B. Mucor

C. Chlamydomonas



Q. 188 Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct –

A. Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg,

resulting in fertilisation.

B. The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope facilitating fertilisation.

C. Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the sperm towards the ovum.

D. Acrosome serves no particular function


Q. 189 Consider the following four statements (a–d) regarding kidney transplant and select the two correct ones out of these: 

(a) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may need to take

immune suppressants for a long time.

(b) The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection.

(c) The B-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft.

(d) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on specific interferons.

The two correct statements are –

A. (b) and (c)

B. (c) and (d)

C. (a) and (c)

D. (a) and (b)


Q. 190 Wind pollinated flowers are –

A. small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains

B. small, producing large number of dry pollen grains

C. large producing abundant nectar and pollen

D. small, producing nectar and dry pollen


Q. 191 dB is a standard abbreviation used of the quantitative expression of –

A. the density of bacteria in a medium

B. a particular pollutant

C. the dominant Bacillus in a culture

D. a certain pesticide


Q. 192 Which one of the following is one of the characteristics of a biological community?

A. Stratification

B. Natality

C. Mortality

D. Sex-ratio


Q. 193 Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct –

A. It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA

B. It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote

C. It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote

D. It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote


Q. 194 Coiling of garden pea tendrils around any support is an example of –

A. Thigmotaxis

B. Thigmonasty

C. Thigmotropism

D. Thermotaxis


Q. 195 The two gases making highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases are –

A. CO₂ and CH₄

B. CH₄ and N₂O

C. CFC₅ and N₂O

D. CO₂ and N₂O


Q. 196 Which one of the following not used in organic farming?

A. Glomus

B. Earthworm

C. Oscillatoria

D. Snail


Q. 197 Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for –

A. Addition of preservatives to the product

B. Purification of the product

C. Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel

D. Availability of oxygen throughout the process


Q. 198 The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary is

A. Isthmus

B. Infundibulum

C. Cervix

D. Ampulla


Q. 199 An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice

A. Does not require chemical fertilizers and growth hormones

B. gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A

C. is completely resistant to all insect pests and disease of paddy

D. gives high yield but has no characteristic atoms


Q. 200 Infectious proteins are present in –

A. Gemini viruses

B. Prions

C. Viroids

D. Satellite viruses


Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C B D B C B D A C D
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer B A C B D D A A B D
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer B A B B D C A C C A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B C B C C A A B D A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C D C B D D C B D C
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer B B B A B A A D C B
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer D D C A A D B A A D
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer A B D A D D C C D B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer D B A D C C C A B B
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer A B B B A C A B C B
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer B A A A B A C C B D
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer B C D B B B B D C D
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer D A B A D D A C B D
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer D C A A D C A A D B
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer D B B C D D D D A A
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer D A B B C B A C C C
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer D D A A C D B C B A
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer A A C B A D D A D A
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer A A D C C B D B D B
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer B A A C A D D B B B




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