CTET July 2019 Paper-I Previous Year Paper




Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 30) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 1. According to Jean Piaget, children – 

(1) actively construct knowledge as they manipulate and explore the world. 

(2) learn by observing others following a process of observational learning. 

(3) can be conditioned to behave in particular ways by carefully controlled stimulus – response associations. 

(4) can be taught to behave and learn in a specific manner using principles of rewards and punishment. 


Q 2. There are individual variations in the rate of motor development, yet the sequence of motor development is from ________ to _________. 

(1) cephalocaudal; proximodistal

(2) proximodistal, cephalocaudal

(3) gross motor development; fine motor development 

(4) fine motor development; gross motor development 


Q 3. The period that initiates the transition to adulthood is – 

(1) Adolescence 

(2) Middle childhood 

(3) Preoperational period 

(4) End childhood 


Q 4. A child argues that Heinz shouldn’t steal the drug (medicine that can save his wife) because he will be caught and sent to jail if he does so. According to Kohlberg, which stage of moral understanding does the child fall under ? 

(1) The instrumental purpose orientation 

(2) The social-order maintaining orientation 

(3) The punishment and obedience orientation 

(4) The universal ethical principle orientation 


Q 5. Lev Vygotsky refers to the verbal dialogues that children have with themselves as – 

(1) egocentric speech 

(2) private speech 

(3) distorted speech 

(4) problematic speech 


Q 6. Associating toys, articles of clothing, household items, occupations and colours with specific sex, is a demonstration of –

(1) evolved gender identity

(2) gender stereotyping 

(3) gender theory 

(4) gender relevance 


Q 7. In an elementary classroom it is important to ________ the experiences that a child brings with her. 

(1) deny 

(2) neglect 

(3) ignore 

(4) build on 


Q 8. A teacher should – 

(1) maximize comparisons amongst students. 

(2) promote students belonging to certain cultures. 

(3) ignore cultural differences and diversity amongst students. 

(4) communicate that she respects and values all cultures in the classroom. 


Q 9. Which of the following constructs does the Right to Education Act, 2009 advocate ? 

(1) Integrated education 

(2) Inclusive education 

(3) Segregation 

(4) Mainstreaming 


Q 10. ________ is the philosophy that all children have a right to get equal education in a regular school system. 

(1) Inclusion 

(2) Mainstreaming 

(3) Special education 

(4) Multicultural education 


Q 11. Which of the following represents the correct matching of children in column-A with their primary characteristic in column-B ? 

Column-A  Column-B
i. Gifted  a. Lacks reading fluency
ii. Learning disabled  b. Can think of original solutions 
iii. Creative  c. Tendency to get distracted easily
iv. Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)  d. Ability to learn quickly and independency 

(1) d c b a 

(2) d a b c 

(3) d c a b 

(4) a b d c 


Q 12. Children learn effectively when –(1) the teacher fully controls everything that happens in the class including the children. 

(2) they memorise facts given in the textbook. 

(3) they copy answers written by the teacher on the blackboard. 

(4) they actively participate in different activities and tasks. 


Q 13. Children should _________ questions in the class. 

(1) be encouraged to ask 

(2) be discouraged to ask 

(3) not be allowed to ask 

(4) be stopped from asking 


Q 14. Which of the following is NOT a key process through which meaningful learning occurs ? 

(1) Memorization and recall

(2) Repetition and practice

(3) Instruction and direction 

(4) Exploration and interaction 


Q 15. When teachers have positive beliefs about students and their abilities, the students – 

(1) are eager and motivated to learn. 

(2) become relaxed and stop putting in any effort to learn. 

(3) become unmotivated and stressed.

(4) are not affected in any way. 


Q 16. Children’s errors – 

(1) reflect how careless children are. 

(2) should be immediately corrected by asking them to do repeated practice 

(3) are a part of learning and give an insight into their thinking. 

(4) are insignificant in the teaching learning process. 


Q 17. Assessment – 

(1) should be undertaken as a separate activity. 

(2) should be a part of the teaching learning process. 

(3) should be done only in terms of marks. 

(4) should be based on objective type written tasks. 


Q 18. In a constructionist frame, learning is –

(1) active and social in its character. 

(2) passive and individualistic. 

(3) the process of acquisition of knowledge. 

(4) a change in behaviour as a result of experience. 


Q 19. What principle does the following highlight ? 

“Students who do not perform well, feel that they are not ‘good enough’ and feel demotivated. They are then likely to give up easily without trying or persisting in doing tasks.” 

(1) Cognition and emotions are not separable. 

(2) Cognition and emotions are not related. 

(3) Heredity and environment are not separable. 

(4) Heredity and environment are not related. 


Q 20. A teacher can encourage children to become effective problem solvers by – 

(1) writing step-by-step solution to all the questions in the textbook. 

(2) giving them plenty of opportunities to answer similar kinds of questions from the  textbook. 

(3) emphasizing on rote memorization of the information given in the textbook. 

(4) encouraging children to make intuitive guesses and to look at multiple solutions to the problem. 


Q 21. Use of methods where learner’s own initiative and efforts are involved is an example of – 

(1) Interpersonal intelligence 

(2) Deductive method 

(3) Learner-centered method 

(4) Traditional method 


Q 22. Which of the following statements about intelligence is correct ? 

(1) Intelligence is the ability to think convergently. 

(2) Intelligence is a relatively permanent change in behaviour as a result of experience. 

(3) Intelligence is a hereditary trait that involves mental activities such as memory and reasoning. 

(4) Intelligence is multidimensional involving several abilities not entirely measureable by intelligence tests. 


Q 23. Which of the following is the primary socialising agency ? 

(1) Family 

(2) School 

(3) Government 

(4) Media 


Q 24. The major proposition of Jean Piaget’s theory is that – 

(1) Children’s thinking is inferior to adults. 

(2) Children’s thinking is superior to adults. 

(3) Children’s thinking is quantitatively different from adults. 

(4) Children’s thinking is qualitatively different from adults. 


Q 25. Gender is a/an – 

(1) biological determinant 

(2) psychological entity 

(3) social construct 

(4) economic concept 


Q 26. Which of the following correctly identifies the broad domains of development ? 

(1) Physical; cognitive; social and emotional 

(2) Emotional; intellectual; spiritual and self 

(3) Physical; personality; spiritual and emotional 

(4) Social; physical; personality; self 


Q 27. Which of the following statements regarding children and their learning is correct ? 

(1) All children are naturally motivated to learn and are capable of learning. 

(2) Children’s motivation to learn and their capability to learn is pre determined by heredity only. 

(3) Children’s socio-economic background determines and limits their motivation and learning capability. 

(4) Children have to be rewarded and punished to make them motivated for learning. 


Q 28. In progressive-education children are seen as – 

(1) miniature adults 

(2) passive imitators 

(3) active explorers 

(4) blank slates 


Q 29. According to Lev Vygotsky, learning is – 

(1) a social activity 

(2) an individual activity 

(3) a passive activity 

(4) a conditioned activity 


Q 30. Which of the following characterizes a child in the preoperational stage ? 

(1) Circular reactions 

(2) Goal-directed behaviour 

(3) Deferred Imitation 

(4) Irreversibility of thought 




Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 31. A beaker is 3/7th filled with water. Another 16 L of water is needed to fill the beaker to its brim. What is the capacity of the beaker ? 

(1) 14 L 

(2) 50 L 

(3) 100 L 

(4) 28 L 


Q 32. Which of the following represents a descending order of numbers ? 

(1) 3.05, 3.005, 3.50, 3.055, 30.5, 0.355 

(2) 30.5, 3.50, 3.055, 3.05, 3.005, 0.355 

(3) 30.5, 3.50, 3.05, 3.055, 3.005, 0.355 

(4) 30.5, 3.05, 3.055, 3.50, 3.005, 0.355 


Q 33. A shopkeeper mixed 5.3 kg of almonds, 2100 g of raisin, 2.2 kg of cashews and packed the mixture equally into two dozen packets. What is the weight to each packet ? 

(1) 300 g 

(2) 400 g 

(3) 450 g 

(4) 500 g 


Q 34. What number am I ? 

 I am a 2 digit even number. I am a common multiple of 3, 4, 6. I have a total 9 factors. 

(1) 48 

(2) 56 

(3) 24 

(4) 36 


Q 35. Asha plans to save some money from household expenditure to buy a mobile phone. Every week she saves ` 50 on Monday, ` 100 on Wednesday and ` 80 on Friday and spends ` 60 from this on Sunday. How many weeks would she take to save enough to buy a mobile phone of ` 5,950 ? 

(1) 25 

(2) 35 

(3) 30 

(4) 40 


Q 36. If (11011)2 = (________)10, then number in the blank space is 

(1) 22 

(2) 27 

(3) 30 

(4) 33 


Q 37. The side of a square is 10 cm. How many times will the new perimeter become if the side of the square is doubled ? 

(1) Remains same 

(2) 4 times 

(3) 3 times 

(4) 2 times 


Q 38. Which of the following letters have both horizontal and vertical lines of symmetry ? 

(1) A 

(2) X 

(3) C 

(4) Y


Q 39. 72 × 28 = 36 × 4 × _________. The number in the blank is 

 (A) multiple of 7 

 (B) a prime number 

 (C) less than 10 

 (D) an even number 

 (E) factor of 56 

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) (A), (B), (C) 

(2) (A), (D), (B) 

(3) (C), (D), (E) 

(4) (A), (D), (E) 


Q 40. What is the correct sequence a teacher of Class-III needs to follow to explain the concept of ‘Quarter’ (¼) to the students ? 

 (A) Write symbol of Quarter on black board. 

 (B) Provide concrete material and divides into Quarters. 

 (C) Show pictures representing ‘Quarter’. 

(1) (A), (B), (C) 

(2) (A), (C), (B) 

(3) (B), (C), (A) 

(4) (C), (A), (B) 


Q 41. A Class-III student perform multiplication of 16  25 as follows : 

 16 × 25 = 8 × 2 × 5 × 5 

 = 8 × 5 × 2 × 5 

 = 40 × 10 

 = 400 

Which property of multiplication has the student used in this question ?

(1) Distributive law 

(2) Associative law 

(3) Repeated addition 

(4) Inverse multiplication law 


Q 42. How will you cater to the needs of visually challenged students of your classroom in an inclusive school ? 

(1) Make them sit with high achievers 

(2) Use alternate teaching-learning methods and resources. 

(3) Send them to special educator. 

(4) Provide them extra time for practise. 


Q 43. Which of the following is not a mathematical process ? 

(1) Transposition 

(2) Visualisation 

(3) Memorisation 

(4) Estimation 


Q 44. Which of the following is not related to early number concept ? 

(1) Classification 

(2) Class inclusion 

(3) Conservation 

(4) Measurement 


Q 45. Which of the following statements is true regarding ‘Numeral’ and ‘Number’ ? 

 (A) A numeral is a symbol used to represent number. 

 (B) Same number can be represented by different numerals. 

(1) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.

(2) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.

(3) (B) is correct and (A) is incorrect.

(4) Both (A) and (B) are correct. 


Q 46. Read the following word problems on addition : 

 A. There are 15 oranges in one basket and 17 oranges in another basket. How many oranges are there altogether ? 

 B. The price of a mobile phone which is for ` 9,950 is increased by ` 375 after budget. What is the new price ? 

 Which of the following statements is correct ? 

(1) ‘A’ represents augmentation structure of addition whereas ‘B’ represents aggregation structure of addition. 

(2) ‘A’ represents ‘aggregation’ structure of addition whereas ‘B’ represents ‘augmentation’ structure of addition. 

(3) Both represents aggregation structure of addition. 

(4) Both represents augmentation structure of addition. 


Q 47. A teacher gives the following task to the students of class-IV : 

 “Arrange 25 tiles in all possible rectangular arrays.” 

 Which of the following mathematical concepts can be addressed through this task ? 

(1) Volume, area, length 

(2) Area, factors, perimeter 

(3) Area, perimeter, volume 

(4) Area, volume, length 


Q 48. Identify the correct statement about the ability to conserve different physical quantities in ‘measurement’ as proposed by Piaget. 

(1) Conservation of weight is grasped before conservation of volume. 

(2) Conservation of volume is grasped before conservation of mass. 

(3) Conservation of weight is grasped before conservation of number. 

(4) Conservation of length is grasped before conservation of number. 


Q 49. Van Hiele’s levels refers to stages in the development of 

(1) Number concept 

(2) Place value 

(3) Geometrical thinking 

(4) Fractions 


Q 50. Which one of the following sets are Problem Solving Strategies in Mathematics ? 

(1) Trial-error, drawing, memorisation 

(2) Drawing, working back, rote learning 

(3) Reasoning, using variable, look for a pattern 

(4) Memorisation, Guess & test, drawing 


Q 51. Which of the following teaching learning resources is best suited to explain the concept of multiplication of two decimal numbers say 0.3 X 0.2 = 0.06 ? 

(1) Dienes blocks 

(2) Taylor’s abacus 

(3) Number chart 

(4) Graph paper 


Q 52. As per the recommendation of NCF 2005, Primary School mathematics curriculum should 

(1) relate to children’s everyday experiences. 

(2) focus on procedural knowledge 

(3) provide rigour in mathematical concepts 

(4) prepare children for advanced mathematics. 


Q 53. Which of the following is not a characteristic of effective mathematics pedagogy ? 

(1) Using various teaching-learning strategies for a single concept. 

(2) Following strict time rules when introducing a new concept. 

(3) Focussing patterns of students errors. 

(4) Making connections with everyday experiences. 


Q 54. Which of the following is not an effective strategy to assess primary level students’ learning in mathematics ? 

(1) Designing tasks to differentiate between rote memorisation and conceptual understanding. 

(2) Analysing children’s errors to understand their reasoning. 

(3) Designing tasks which elicit more than one level of response. 

(4) Using primarily group administered tasks. 


Q 55. How many quarters are there in 1843

(1) 68 

(2) 75 

(3) 72 

(4) 35 


Q 56. In a school, half of students play badminton, one-fourth (1/4th) play volleyball, one-eighth (1/8th) play tennis, one-sixteenth (1/16th) play chess and the remaining go for swimming. If the number of students playing volleyball is 160, how many students play chess ? 

(1) 40 

(2) 120 

(3) 80 

(4) 20 


Q 57. Deepa goes to a post-office to post/mail letters and parcels. The postal rates depicted are as below : 

Letter Weighing : (i) 20 g or less – Rs. 5.00 (ii) Per every additional 20 g – Rs. 2.00 Parcel Weighing : (i) 50 g or less – Rs. 5.00 (ii) For every additional 50 g – Rs. 3.00

Deepa wants to send two parcels weighing 250 g and 300 g respectively and two letters each to 20 g and 35 g respectively. How much postal charge does she have to pay ? 

(1) Rs. 41 

(2) Rs. 48 

(3) Rs. 39 

(4) Rs. 49 


Q 58. Digits 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8 are arranged in the following blanks : 

 ____ ____ ____ + ____ ____ ____ 

 The largest possible number after addition is 

(1) 808 

(2) 1605 

(3) 1560 

(4) 1308 


Q 59. Read the following Railway timings of New Delhi – Chennai Rajdhani express and answer the question : 

Station  Arrival  Departure 
New Delhi  –  15:55 
Bhopal  23:55  00:05 
Nagpur  05:25  05:35 
Vijaywada  14:15  14:30 
Chennai  20:45  end 

Which of the following statements is true ? 

(1) The duration of Journey from Bhopal to Vijaywada is 13 hr. 10 min. 

(2) The duration of Journey from Nagpur to Chennai is 15 hr. 10 min. 

(3) The duration of Journey from New Delhi to Nagpur is 11 hr. 30 min. 

(4) The duration of Journey from Bhopal to Chennai is 21 hr. 40 min. 


Q 60. A whole number is added to 50 and the same number is subtracted from 50. The sum of the resulting numbers is 

(1) 25 

(2) 50 

(3) 0 

(4) 100 




Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 61. Which of the following is NOT obtained from petroleum ? 

(1) Diesel 

(2) Wax 

(3) Grease 

(4) Coal 


Q 62. Select from the following a set of festivals celebrated on the full-moon day. 

(1) Diwali, Guru Nanak’s Birthday, Rakshabandhan 

(2) Holi, Mahashivratri, Buddhajayanti 

(3) Holi, Rakshabandhan, Guru Nanak’s Birthday 

(4) Diwali, Mahashivratri, Guru Nanak’s Birthday 


Q 63. Which one of the following groups of states has a coast on Arabian sea ? 

(1) Karnataka, Kerala, Gujarat 

(2) Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Odisha 

(3) Kerala, Karnataka, West Bengal

(4) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka 


Q 64. Where is Jharkhand located on the map of our country ? 

(1) West of Uttar Pradesh 

(2) East of West Bengal 

(3) North of Odisha 

(4) South-East of Chhattisgarh 


Q 65. You are located at X and your school is located at Y. There is no straight path from your house to school. So, you first go to A which is 30 m due north of X, then go to B which is 40 m due west of A, then go to C which is 30 m due north of B and finally you reach your school at Y which is 40 m due west of C. With respect to your school the correct direction of your house is 

(1) North-West 

(2) Due South 

(3) Due East 

(4) South-East 


Q 66. A boy boarded a train on 30th June, 2019 at Madgaon for Nagarcoil. The train departed at 09:45 hours from Madgaon and reached Nagarcoil at 07:15 hours on the next day. If the distance covered by the train during this time interval is 1140 km, the average speed of the train was 

(1) 51.5 km/h 

(2) 53 km/h 

(3) 54.5 km/h 

(4) 57 km/h 


Q 67. In one of the forests of our country the village council (Panchayat) allots the land to the forest people (Adivasis) for farming in a special unit called ‘tin’. What is tin ? 

(1) A land with dimensions 100 m × 100 m 

(2) A land on which a farmer grows one tin of seeds 

(3) A land from which a farmer produces one tin of seeds 

(4) A unit of land specially designed for the farmers of the forests. 


Q 68. In which one of the following cities the mountains of sand called “Sand Dunes” are found ? 

(1) Kabul 

(2) Abu Dhabi 

(3) Berlin 

(4) Thimpu 


Q 69. We all observe old wells which have dried up. Our elders say that about 25-30 years ago there was sufficient water in the wells, but now these have completely dried up. Select from the following the possible correct reasons for drying up of water in the wells. 

A. The lakes (ponds) in which rain water used to collect are no longer there. 

B. The soil around the trees, well and nearby area is now covered with coaltar/cement. 

C. No one uses wells as there are taps in every house. 

D. A number of electric motor driven pumps have come up to draw underground water. 

(1) A, B and C 

(2) B, C and D 

(3) C, D and A 

(4) A, B and D 


Q 70. In EVS concepts and issues have not been compartmentalized into science and social science. Why ? 

(1) Syllabus of EVS has been prescribed as such by CBSE. 

(2) The child looks at her/his environment in holistic manner. 

(3) It is a good teaching-learning strategy. 

(4) It is for decreasing the syllabus load. 


Q 71. Which of the following is true w.r.t. EVS subject for classes I and II ? 

(1) Issues and concerns related to EVS are transacted through language. 

(2) Issues and concerns related to EVS are transacted through language and mathematics. 

(3) EVS is a new subject introduced at the classes I to II. 

(4) EVS as subject is not easy to understand at classes I and II. 


Q 72. In EVS themes have been proposed instead of topics in the syllabus. Why ? 

(1) For reducing chapters in EVS. 

(2) To enhance the environmental comprehension of the learners. 

(3) For developing connected and interrelated understanding of issues of the learners’ local environment. 

(4) Theme based EVS transaction is easy as compared to the topics. 


Q 73. Which one of the following is not one of the six broad themes of EVS in the present syllabus ? 

(1) Food 

(2) Shelter 

(3) Things we make and do.

(4) Work and play 


Q 74. Which one of the following is not true w.r.t EVS ? 

(1) Nature of EVS is integrated. 

(2) EVS is based on child centred learning. 

(3) EVS provides opportunities to the learners to explore their environment. 

(4) EVS emphasizes descriptions and definitions. 


Q 75. Which one of the following is very important in constructing knowledge in EVS ? 

 A. Active participation of the learner. 

 B. Relating child’s knowledge with the teachers knowledge. 

 C. Learning EVS outside the four walls of the classroom. 

 D. Relating child’s local knowledge to the school knowledge. 

(1) A, C and D 

(2) D only 

(3) A only 

(4) A and D only 


Q 76. The most effective strategy to engage learners in EVS is __________. 

(1) Narratives 

(2) Reading of textbook 

(3) Explanations by teacher 

(4) Classroom Demonstration 


Q 77. Children should be encouraged to tap sources other than textbooks and teachers in EVS. Why ? 

 A. Textbook and teacher are not the only sources of EVS learning. 

 B. It will promote the involvement of parents and communities. 

 C. It will provide opportunity to teachers to know the child’s background. 

 D. It will develop psychomotor skills and aesthetic sense of the children. 

(1) B and C only 

(2) A, B and C 

(3) B, C and D 

(4) C and D only 


Q 78. A teacher always begins by conducting activities followed by questions and discussions. The objective of conducting activities, questions and discussion is to _____. 

 A. Assess the children’s process skills 

 B. Provide an opportunity to the children to explore 

 C. Provide an opportunity to the children to express themselves 

 D. Discriminate between the children bases on their pace of learning 

(1) D only 

(2) C only 

(3) B, C and D 

(4) A, B and C 


Q 79. A teacher conducts an experiment on “How does food get spoilt ?” 

Teacher makes groups of learners and provides them material related to the experiment. Why does teacher form groups of learners ? 

A. It promotes peer learning. 

B. It improves social interaction. 

C. Group learning is effective way of learning EVS without burden. 

D. Group learning is an essential strategy to maintain discipline in the class. 

(1) A and B only 

(2) C and D only 

(3) A and C only 

(4) B and D only 


Q 80. Which of the following should not be the indicator for assessment in EVS ? 

(1) Concern for justice and equality 

(2) Co-operation 

(3) Remembering 

(4) Questioning 


Q 81. In EVS, teachers should provide opportunities to the children to assess themselves. Self-assessment is ________. 

(1) CCE 

(2) Assessment as learning 

(3) Assessment of learning 

(4) Assessment for learning 


Q 82. Which technique is used in the rating scale ? 

(1) Written question 

(2) Observation 

(3) Checklist 

(4) Assignments 


Q 83. Which of the following is not the objective of teaching EVS ? 

(1) To nurture the curiosity and creativity of the child. 

(2) To develop an awareness about environmental issues. 

(3) To engage the child in exploratory and hands on activities. 

(4) To encourage children to provide textbook definitions. 


Q 84. Picture reading is an important activity in EVS. Which of the following indicator/indicators of learners can be assessed through picture reading ? 

A. Observation and recording 

B. Expression 

C. Analysis 

D. Experimentation 

(1) D only 

(2) A, B and C 

(3) A and C only 

(4) A and B only 


Q 85. In a hilly area it was observed that the people have built their houses using stones, mud, lime and wood. These houses have two floors. On the ground floor they provide space for animals to live and also store necessary things, on the first floor they stay. The roofs of the houses are flat and made of thick tree trunks. This hilly area is a part of 

(1) Arunachal Pradesh 

(2) Meghalaya 

(3) Himachal Pradesh 

(4) Jammu and Kashmir 


Q 86. Consider the following statements about the practices followed under “Jhoom farming” : 

A. After obtaining one set of crops the land is left as it is for some years. 

B. The bamboo or weeds which grow on the land are pulled out and burnt. 

C. The ash obtained on burning the weeds etc. is used as fertilizer. 

D. When the land is ready for farming it is deeply ploughed before dropping the seeds. 

The correct statement(s) is/are

(1) only A 

(2) only D 

(3) B and C 

(4) A and D 


Q 87. Boiled tapioca with any curry made using coconut is a preferred food of the people of 

(1) Kerala 

(2) West Bengal 

(3) Bihar 

(4) Tamil Nadu 


Q 88. It is believed that the animals that are awake at night can see objects only in

(1) violet and blue 

(2) green and yellow 

(3) orange and red 

(4) black and white 


Q 89. Earthworms are considered friends of the farmers. Select from the following the correct reasons for the same : 

A. Earthworms eat the dead leaves and plants and their droppings fertilize the soil. 

B. Earthworms eat the weeds and save the main crop. 

C. Earthworms soften the soil by digging underneath. 

D. The tunnels made by the earthworms provide easy passage to air and water into the soil. 

(1) A, B and C 

(2) B, C and D 

(3) C, D and A 

(4) A and C only 


Q 90. Tribal people have been using bronze to make many things since thousand of years. Bronze is still used in our houses. Select from the following the most correct statement about bronze. 

(1) It is an element like aluminium and copper. 

(2) It is a mixture of copper and brass.

(3) It is a mixture of copper, zinc and aluminium. 

(4) It is a mixture of copper and tin. 




IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – IV (Q. No. 91-120), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – I only. 

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. (91 to 99) : 

The future of water will be a gamble – resting entirely on the way we decide to play the game here. Either we continue to use water irresponsibly, threatening the very existence of this planet, or we adopt sustainable and smart water management practices to build a water secure future. 

By 2050, India’s total water demand will increase by 32 percent from now. Industrial and domestic sectors will account for 85 percent of the additional demand. Over-exploitation of ground-water, failure to recharge acquifers and reduction in catchment capacities due to uncontrolled urbanisation are all causes of the precarious tilt in the water balance. 

If the present rate of groundwater persists, India will have only 22 percent of the present daily per capita water available in 2050, possibly forcing the country to import its water. 

Optimists believe that India’s people some 1.7 billion by 2050, will have integrated water efficient practices into their daily lives. If the ambitious water sustainability goals set by global industries and governments are testament we dare say that the world has begun to recognize water as a resource after all. 

While beverages giants are focussed on returning water to the communities where they manufacture their drinks, food processing players are engaging with farmers and upstream actors to minimise water usage across the supply claim and textile houses are evangelising the concept of sustainable fashion. Companies have realised the risks emanating from the possibility of a water-scarce future. This has triggered companies to re-engineer processes, implement water optimizing, technologies, establish water audit standards, and use a collaborative approach to deal with the water crisis. 

Q 91. Persistent ground water depletion will NOT necessitate : 

(1) import of water 

(2) shutting down of industries

(3) adoption of smart water management technologies 

(4) using water judiciously 


Q 92. Optimists cannot pin their hope for better water management on : 

(1) integrating water efficient practices into daily use. 

(2) reducing demand for water by using new technologies. 

(3) discovering new ways of augmenting water supply. 

(4) treating sea water for domestic and industrial sectors. 


Q 93. The problem of acute water scarcity in future cannot be dealt with by companies through 

(1) establishing water audit standards. 

(2) implementing water optimizing technologies 

(3) discovering a viable substitute for water. 

(4) re-engineering processes 


Q 94. Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word ‘threatening’ as used in the passage ? 

(1) frightening 

(2) menacing 

(3) coercing 

(4) persisting 


Q 95. Which one of the following words is most opposite to the meaning of the word ‘increase’ as used in the passage ? 

(1) decrease 

(2) perceive 

(3) achieve 

(4) relieve 


Q 96. Identify the clause in the underlined part of the following sentence : 

 He breathed his last in the village where he was born. 

(1) Noun clause 

(2) Adjective clause 

(3) Adverb clause 

(4) Principal clause 


Q 97. What part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ? 

 I do not know why he is so curious about it. 

(1) Adjective clause 

(2) Noun clause 

(3) Principal clause 

(4) Adverb clause 


Q 98. We will face a severe water-scarcity problem in future mostly because :

(1) ground-water level water is steadily decreasing. 

(2) water is not a renewable source.

(3) by 2050, demand for water will increase considerably. 

(4) we do not use water responsibly. 


Q 99. Which of the following will NOT lead to a severe water imbalance ? 

(1) flawless water infrastructure.

(2) over-exploitation of water.

(3) failure to recharge acquifers.

(4) uncontrolled urbanisation 


Directions : Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 100 to 105) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options : 

All creation drinks with pleasure, 

Drinks at Mother Nature’s breast; 

All the just, and all the evil, 

Follow down her rosy path. 

Kisses she bestowed, and grape wine, 

Friendship true, proved e’en in death; 

Every worm knows nature’s pleasure, 

Every cherub meets his God. 

Gladly, like the planets flying 

True to heaven’s mighty plan, 

Brothers, run your course now, 

Happy as a knight in victory. 


Q 100. Which of the following does not support the idea that Mother Nature’s love embraces all ? 

(1) All creation drinks at Mother Nature’s heart. 

(2) She bestows kisses on all her children. 

(3) She loves all the just but not all the evil. 

(4) She also blesses us with true friendship. 


Q 101. What is the hallmark of a true friend ?

(1) He saves you from troubles. 

(2) He helps you to enjoy the fruits of nature. 

(3) He proves true even in death. 

(4) He can take on all the evils for you. 


Q 102. Rosy path is followed by ________.

(1) the just 

(2) the evil 

(3) both just and evil 

(4) neither the just nor the evil 


Q 103. Identify and name the figure of speech used in “All creation ‘Drinks at Mother Nature’s breast’”. 

(1) Metonymy 

(2) Simile 

(3) Personification 

(4) Alliteration 


Q 104. What does the expression, “Brothers, run your course now’ mean ? 

(1) Keep on moving towards your goal. 

(2) Don’t let failures upset you. 

(3) Seek god’s help when you are in difficulty. 

(4) Cultivate a positive attitude to life. 


Q 105. How can we say that God’s creatures are most fortunate and happy ? 

(1) The world they live in lacks romance and beauty. 

(2) They have no friends to share their joys and sorrows. 

(3) They do not have enough pleasures at their disposal. 

(4) They have a benevolent Mother Nature to look after them. 


Answer the following questions (Q Nos. 106 to 120) by selecting the most appropriate option out of the given options. 

Q 106. A Hindi speaking teacher gets posted in a primary school which is in the area of Punjab. Since he doesn’t know the local language of that area. He should : 

(1) apply for the transfer to a Hindi speaking area. 

(2) motivate the community to learn Hindi, as it’s a national / official language. 

(3) communicate in English as it is difficult for him to understand their local dialect. 

(4) use the child’s language as a resource and start teaching. 


Q 107. While designing a working activity for a language class a teacher should most importantly focus on : 

(1) choosing a topic from their surroundings. 

(2) giving clear instructions for the task. 

(3) providing all the necessary vocabulary required for the task. 

(4) assigning an authentic piece of writing task. 


Q 108. Some children do not have exposure to English outside the classroom. So, the teacher’s proficiency in spoken English is essential because : 

(1) the teacher can give more time to grammar drills. 

(2) the teacher can edit the errors in student’s learning process. 

(3) the students may listen to and process the new language before they actually communicate in it. 

(4) students can imitate, practise and drill the statements or sentences used by the teacher. 


Q 109. Which of the following classroom practices helps a teacher to develop oral language among the students ? 

(1) Chorus reading of the text with the teacher. 

(2) Chorus recitation/individual recitation of the poem after memorising it. 

(3) Participating in role-plays on any one of their favourite scenes. 

(4) Practising the correct pronunciation of new or unfamiliar words. 


Q 110. In a constructivist classroom language learning would most importantly be based on: 

(1) group discussion and peer interaction. 

(2) minute observation and record of each child’s handwriting development. 

(3) correction of spelling errors and making sure that they are not repeated. 

(4) carefully completing the language syllabus. 


Q 111. As a language teacher which one of the following is most important for you regarding teaching of grammar ? 

(1) Memorising grammar rules.

(2) Avoiding grammar rules.

(3) Using functional approach.

(4) Using grammar translation method. 


Q 112. Which one of the following is a correct statement about a textbook ? 

(1) It is planning of educational activities for the session. 

(2) A textbook is the final thing for the teacher. 

(3) It helps to achieve the objectives laid down in the curriculum. 

(4) The textbooks are the only source to read. 


Q 113. The purpose of diagnostic test in language learning is to 

(1) give feedback to the parents in the PTMs. 

(2) fill the progress report of students. 

(3) plan and prepare question paper for summative assessment. 

(4) know the gaps in learners understanding. 


Q 114. The purpose of Continuous Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE) in language is : 

(1) to assess the students’ understanding of the textbook. 

(2) to assess their learning gaps. 

(3) to give regular tests i.e. weekly tests. 

(4) to assess the level of competencies achieved by the children. 


Q 115. Under which act did English get the status of the associate official language ? 

(1) Official Language Act, Article-343 

(2) Associate Official Language Act, Article-343 

(3) Three Language Formula

(4) National Curriculum Framework 


Q 116. A teacher is appreciating a child for his ‘overall language use’, though some of the words were misspelt by him. The teacher is using _______ approach in her class. 

(1) Structural 

(2) Communicative 

(3) Constructivist 

(4) Whole language 


Q 117. Which approach lays a lot of emphasis on habit formation ? 

(1) Cognitive approach 

(2) Communicative approach

(3) Behaviouristic approach

(4) Eclectic approach 


Q 118. In the context of ‘theory of multiple intelligence’ which one of the following intelligences is related to language ? 

(1) Visual-Spatial Intelligence

(2) Fluency-Accuracy Intelligence 

(3) Linguistic-Verbal Intelligence

(4) Vocabulary Grammar Intelligence 


Q 119. Banishing mother tongue in the classroom is the characteristic feature of _________ method. 

(1) Direct 

(2) Bi-lingual 

(3) Grammar translation 

(4) Natural 


Q 120. ________ deals with the level of meaning in language. 

(1) Syntax 

(2) Semantics 

(3) Collocation 

(4) Colloquial 




IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – V (Q. No. 121-150), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – II only. 

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 121 to 128) by choosing the correct/most appropriate options : 

On an ordinary workday, 27-year old Pramila Bariki hikes up steep slopes across fields, through ankle-deep rivulets, often walking upto 14 kms. She gets a ride until the road is motorable, from which point she has to walk. 

Her job ? She doles out healthcare advice to mothers and children in the remotest hamlets in the Araku valley of Andhra Pradesh. 

Now heavily pregnant Pramila has had to slow down delegating tasks to Duridi, Neeraj, Sunita and others. It’s they who now walk through forests and climb up moutains, visiting families to identify pregnant women and conduct basic tests for diabetes and anaemia and connect them with a primary health centre whenever necessary. 

These young tribal women are all trained auxiliary nurses, part of an experimental health project in Araku that aims to end preventable deaths during childbirth or infancy. 

The Araku valley is home to several nomadic tribes who live in small clusters of 70 to 150 homes situated in rugged and inaccessible terrain. Until a few years ago these communities were unaware of government healthcare policies. The death of a child or a woman during pregnancy or child birth was common and they were resigned to it. 

Today 38 women like Pramila drawn from these tribes, have broken social and cultural barriers to train as nurses and provide medical care to 1179 hamlets across the Araku, Paderu and Chintapalli mandals. Since they are from these communities they have been able create trust in the families and neighbours about formal healthcare. As a result these remote villages have now had the first childbirth in hospital, the first delivery by a trained nurse and the first mother not to lose a child. 

The nurses advise women on hygiene and nutrition and convince them to visit the nearest health centre for further check-ups. 

Q 121. The health project launched in the tribal areas aims to : 

(1) prevent deaths during pregnancy and child birth. 

(2) raise the living standard in the tribal areas. 

(3) provide nutrition to women and children 

(4) provide employment alongwith education. 


Q 122. The tribal people trust the health workers mostly because they : 

(1) help them get employment. 

(2) are educated and soft-spoken. 

(3) help them settle their domestic disputes. 

(4) belong to their own community. 


Q 123. Read the following statements : 

A. Child mortality rate in the tribal areas was very high in the past. 

B. Pramila and her colleagues are rendering invaluable services to the tribal women. 

(1) A is true, B is false. 

(2) B is true, A is false. 

(3) Both A and B are false.

(4) Both A and B are true. 


Q 124. Which one of the following words is similar in meaning to ‘remotest’ as used in the passage ? 

(1) toughest 

(2) farthest 

(3) highest 

(4) tallest 


Q 125. Which one of the following words is opposite in meaning to ‘trust’ as used in the passage ? 

(1) disdain 

(2) distrust 

(3) disrupt 

(4) dismantle 


Q 126. He could not clear the exam because he didn’t work hard. 

Identify the clause in the underlined part of the sentence given above : 

(1) Adverb clause 

(2) Adjective clause 

(3) Noun clause 

(4) Principal clause 


Q 127. Which part of the following sentence contains an error ? 

The sudden rise  and fall of prices make a business very uncertain
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (a) 

(2) (b) 

(3) (c) 

(4) (d) 


Q 128. The job of the auxiliary nurses is physically challenging because they : 

(1) have to face opposition from the local traditional healers. 

(2) are not paid any renumeration for their work. 

(3) have to walk through forests and up mountains to reach out to people. 

(4) are not liked by the people whom they want to help. 

Directions : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 129 to 135) by choosing the correct/most appropriate options : 

Kaizen in Japanese means constant and never ending improvement. There is no pursuit more noble or important than the pursuit of self-improvement. As Confucius said many years ago : “Good people strengthen themselves ceaselessly”. Consistent and constant improvement in all areas is essential to reach your true potential. The personal trademark of almost every high achiever and successful person is a dedication to daily improvement in both their personal and professional lives. From Ben Franklin to Mahatma Gandhi, from Martin Luther King Jr. to Ivan Lendl and from Nelson Mandela to Mother Teresa, effective people do things daily to advance confidently in the direction of their goals and dreams. 

You must also apply the Kaizen principle on a daily basis to condition your mind to peak performance. It has been said that the mind is a terrible master but a wonderful servant. By seeking to improve your mind and condition it to excellence of thought, this wonderful servant will most certainly bring you all the peace, prosperity and joy you now search for. 

Study any person’s great success story and you will undoubtedly learn of their commitment to Kaizen. They will be dedicated to small, daily improvements in the key areas of their lives and become the very best that they could be. Personal mastery is like a bank account, call it the Personal Excellence Account. By improving daily, whether it is by spending some time exercising, reading, visualizing or forging better relationships, you are making regular deposits into your account. After only one month, for example, you will have improved the richness and quality of your world by at least 30%. 

Q 129. What is common among the great people mentioned in para-1 ? 

(1) They inspired all those who came into contact with them. 

(2) They worked hard to alleviate the suffering of the downtrodden. 

(3) They tried their best to realise their goals. 

(4) They resisted every temptation. 


Q 130. How do we stand to gain when we condition our minds to do our best ? 

(1) We earn name, fame and wealth.

(2) We rise in the estimation of our friends. 

(3) We are able to overcome all obstacles. 

(4) We realise our full capability. 


Q 131. Read the following sentences : 

A. All successful people are committed to Kaizen. 

B. If we can control our mind, it will serve us wonderfully. 

(1) A is false and B is true.

(2) A is true and B is false.

(3) Both A and B are true. 

(4) Both A and B are false. 


Q 132. Which word is the most similar in meaning to the word, ‘trademark’ used in the passage ? 

(1) item 

(2) object 

(3) subject 

(4) brand 


Q 133. Which word is the most opposite in meaning to the word, ‘wonderful’ as used in the passage ? 

(1) separate 

(2) deficient 

(3) unremarkable 

(4) insufficient 


Q 134. Which part of the following sentence contains an error ? 

Since time immemorial  the Hindus  have been worshipping  the river Ganga
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (a) 

(2) (b) 

(3) (c) 

(4) (d) 


Q 135. How, according to the author, can we attain our full potential ? 

(1) by putting in a lot of effort. 

(2) by proper and ceaseless improvement in all areas. 

(3) by seeking the advice and guidance of successful people. 

(4) by working hard on our weaknesses 

Answer the following questions (Q Nos. 136 to 150) by selecting the most appropriate options. 


Q 136. A teacher of class-V wishes to teach a complex language structure from the syllabus. She should 

(1) ask students to memorise the rules. 

(2) not teach the complex structure and avoid it. 

(3) focus on listening-speaking practice instead of teaching grammar. 

(4) use a grammar game with a focus on this complex structure. 


Q 137. As per Noam Chomsky’s theory, the role of Language Acquisition Device (LAD) helps children to 

(1) learn second language easily.

(2) communicate actively in second language. 

(3) generate grammar rules.

(4) imitate the language spoken by adults. 


Q 138. Which of the following statements is correct ? 

(1) Children’s first language is a hurdle in learning English. 

(2) It is difficult to teach English as they use their first language in every aspect and ignore English. 

(3) As a teacher you would like to give a list of English words on the very first day. 

(4) Children come to school with a treasure of experience and their mother tongue acts like a resource in learning English. 


Q 139. The study of how words combine to form phrases, phrases combine to form clauses and clauses join to make sentences is known as 

(1) Semantics 

(2) Syntax 

(3) Collocation 

(4) Colloquial 


Q 140. English language has ________ consonant sounds. 

(1) 21 

(2) 22 

(3) 23 

(4) 24 


Q 141. According to National Curriculum Framework, 2005, “English in India is ________ in a multilingual country.

(1) a first language 

(2) a foreign language 

(3) a global language 

(4) an associate language 


Q 142. A teacher divides the class in small groups and asks them to discuss and present their views on “Save Environment”. Students are free to plan and present their choice and creativity. The teacher is facilitating them as and when required. Which approach/method is followed in the class ? 

(1) Constructivist approach

(2) Structural approach 

(3) Natural approach 

(4) Deductive approach 


Q 143. A teacher of class-IV brought some interesting books and distributed them among the students. Then she said, “Today let’s have fun and read these books for our pleasure”. This reading is called 

(1) Pre-reading 

(2) Post-reading 

(3) Intensive-reading 

(4) Extensive-reading 


Q 144. A 2½ year old child picks up his sibling’s book and looking at the pictures tells a story. The child is 

(1) emergent writer 

(2) emergent student 

(3) emergent reader 

(4) emergent story writer 


Q 145. A teacher of class-III finds that some students understand the concept more clearly when she explains them orally. Their learning style is 

(1) auditory 

(2) visual 

(3) kinesthetic 

(4) aesthetic 


Q 146. A teacher asks the students to read the text for information and create their own interpretation beyond the literal level. Which sub-skill is she practicising in the class ? 

(1) Paraphrasing 

(2) Predicting 

(3) Inferring 

(4) Summarising 


Q 147. Story telling and listening to stories play an important role because stories 

(1) help to teach and learn new and difficult words. 

(2) use many structures of grammar and help children to learn them. 

(3) present language as a whole. 

(4) help the teacher to maintain classroom discipline. 


Q 148. Before starting a new chapter on ‘The Honest Woodcutter’ the teacher started a discussion with the students on ‘Honesty’. What is the teacher trying to achieve with this activity ? 

(1) Activate students’ attention.

(2) Activate students’ skill. 

(3) Activate students’ previous knowledge 

(4) Assess students’ level of language and its usage. 


Q 149. A child got admission to a new school. The teacher was surprised to see that she would speak four languages fluently but could not speak in English. She is a 

(1) monolingual 

(2) bilingual 

(3) multilingual 

(4) linguist 


Q  150. A student of class-V while reading a chapter finds some difficult and unfamiliar words and is not able to get the meaning of those words he should : 

(1) ask the teacher. 

(2) ignore or skip the word and keep reading. 

(3) guess the meaning in content. 

(4) ask his classmate every time to help. 

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