CTET July 2019 Paper-II Previous Year Paper




Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 30) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 1. Read the following description and identify the stage of moral reasoning of Kohlberg. 

Description : Right action is defined by self-chosen ethical principles of conscience that are valid for all humanity, regardless of law and social agreement. 

(1) The instrumental purpose orientation 

(2) The social – contract orientation 

(3) The social – order maintaining orientation 

(4) The universal ethical principle orientation 


Q 2. One of the major accomplishments of concrete operational stage is 

(1) Animistic thinking 

(2) Ability to conserve 

(3) Hypothetico – deductive reasoning 

(4) Secondary circular reactions 


Q 3. Constructivists such as Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky view learning as 

(1) acquisition of skills 

(2) conditioning of responses 

(3) passive repetitive process 

(4) process of meaning-making by active engagement 


Q 4. Selecting and presenting stories and clippings from newspaper that portray both men and women in non traditional roles is an effective strategy to 

(1) promote gender bias 

(2) promote gender constancy 

(3) encourage stereotypical gender roles 

(4) counter gender stereotypes 


Q 5. Which of the following play an important role in a child’s socialization ? 

 (i) Media 

 (ii) School 

 (iii) Family 

 (iv) Neighbourhood 

(1) (iii), (i) 

(2) (ii), (iii) 

(3) (i), (iii), (iv) 

(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) 


Q 6. As per Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligence, how would the intelligence of a person with the following characteristics be categorized ? 

Characteristics : 

 “Ability to detect and respond appropriately to the moods, temperaments, motivations and, intentions of others.” 

(1) Naturalistic 

(2) Intrapersonal 

(3) Interpersonal 

(4) Therapeutic 


Q 7. Which of the following should be the reasons for assessment of children ? 

(i) To separate and label children into ‘non-achievers’, ‘low achievers’, ‘average’ and ‘high achievers’. 

(ii) To improve teaching-learning processes in the classroom. 

(iii) To find out what changes and progress in learning that takes place in the child over a period of time. 

(iv) To discuss the capabilities, potential, strengths and challenging areas of the child with the parents. 

(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) 

(2) (i), (ii), (iii) 

(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) 

(4) (ii), (iv) 


Q 8. Which of the following is central to the concept of progressive education ?

(1) Textbook centric learning 

(2) Belief in the capability and potential of every child 

(3) Standard instruction and assessment 

(4) Extrinsic motivation and uniform assessment parameters 


Q 9. To understand individual differences in development it is important 

(1) to look at the inherited characteristics that give each person a special start in life. 

(2) to look at the environmental factors that affect individuals. 

(3) to consider maturation of the body and the brain. 

(4) to consider both inherited characteristics as well as environmental factors and their interplay. 


Q 10. Which of the following is not a principle of development ? 

(1) Individuals develop at different rates. 

(2) Development is relatively orderly.

(3) Development takes place gradually over a period of time. 

(4) Exact course and nature of development is determined at the time of birth itself. 


Q 11. Several research studies show that teachers have more overall interaction with boys than girls. What is the correct explanation for this ? 

(1) Boys have much more academic capabilities than girls. 

(2) Boys need more attention than girls. 

(3) This is an example of gender bias in teaching. 

(4) Boys are easier to manage than girls in the classroom. 


Q 12. The ability to come up with original and divergent solutions to a problem is a primary characteristic of 

(1) Egocentric children 

(2) Impaired children 

(3) Creative children 

(4) Children with learning disability 


Q 13. What instructional adaptations should a teacher make while working with students who are ‘Visually Challenged’ ? 

(1) Speak clearly and use a lot of touch and feel materials. 

(2) Use a variety of visual presentations. 

(3) Orient herself so that the students can watch her closely. 

(4) Focus on a variety of written tasks especially worksheets. 


Q 14. Co-operative learning and peer tutoring _________ in an inclusive classroom. 

(1) should be actively promoted 

(2) should be actively discouraged 

(3) should be occasionally used 

(4) should not be used 


Q 15. Which of the following is most important in an inclusive classroom ? 

(1) Uniform instruction 

(2) Standardized testing 

(3) Promoting competitive learning 

(4) Individualized education plan 


Q 16. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair of learners and their primary characteristics ? 

(1) Hearing impaired learners – Cannot comprehend visual information 

(2) ‘Dyslexic’ learners – Lack reading and writing fluency 

(3) Creative learners – Hyperactive; slow in completing work 

(4) Attention deficit learners – High motivation; can sustain attention for long periods of time. 


Q 17. Which of the following does not result in meaningful facilitation of learning ? 

(1) Connecting new knowledge to pre-existing knowledge 

(2) Promoting repetition and recall 

(3) Use of examples and non examples 

(4) Encouraging multiple ways of looking at a problem 


Q 18. Which of the following would not be consistent with a constructivist environment ? 

(1) Students are given frequent opportunities to engage in complex, meaningful, problem based activities. 

(2) Students work collaboratively and are given support to engage in task-oriented dialogue with each other. 

(3) Teachers elicit students’ ideas and experiences in relationship to key topics and plant teaching-learning to elaborate or restructure their current knowledge. 

(4) Teachers employ specific end of the term assessment strategies and give feedback on products rather than processes. 


Q 19. A teacher should encourage students to set _______________ rather than ______________. 

(1) learning goals; performance goals

(2) performance goals; learning goals

(3) failure avoiding goals; marks seeking goals 

(4) marks seeking goals; failure avoiding goals 


Q 20. Which of the following are examples of effective learning strategies ? 

(i) Setting goals and time tables 

(ii) Making organizational charts and concept maps 

(iii) Thinking of examples and non examples 

(iv) Explaining to a peer 

(v) Self-questioning 

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) 

(2) (i), (iv), (v) 

(3) (i), (ii), (iii), (v) 

(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) 


Q 21. Which of these is an example of extrinsic motivation ? 

(1) “I enjoy doing my homework because it is so much fun.” 

(2) “I learn so much when I do my homework.” 

(3) “Doing homework makes me understand my concepts better.” 

(4) “I complete my homework because the teacher gives us marks for each assignment.” 


Q 22. In a primary classroom a teacher should 

(1) give only examples 

(2) give only non-examples

(3) give both examples and non examples 

(4) not give any examples and non examples 


Q 23. Which of the following strategies would promote meaning-making in children ? 

(1) Exploration and discussion 

(2) Transmission of information 

(3) Using punitive measures 

(4) Uniform and standardized testing 


Q 24. Children’s errors and misconceptions –

(1) are a significant step in the teaching-learning process. 

(2) are a hindrance and obstacle to the teaching-learning process. 

(3) should be ignored in the teaching learning process. 

(4) signify that children’s capabilities are far inferior than that of adults. 


Q 25. In the constructivist frame child is viewed as 

(1) ‘miniature adult’ who is less than adult in all aspects such as size, cognition, emotions. 

(2) ‘tabula rasa’ or ‘blank slate’ whose life is shaped entirely by experience. 

(3) a ‘passive being’ who can be shaped and molded into any form through conditioning. 

(4) a ‘problem solver’ and a ‘scientific investigator’. 


Q 26. A teacher’s role while using co operative learning in her class – 

(1) is to be a silent spectator and let children do what they want. 

(2) is to leave the class and let children work on their own. 

(3) is to be supportive and monitor each group. 

(4) is to support the group which has the ‘bright’ and ‘talented’ children. 


Q 27. Which of the following statements denotes the relationship between development and learning correctly ? 

(1) Development and learning are not related. 

(2) Learning takes place irrespective of development. 

(3) Rate of learning far exceeds the rate of development. 

(4) Development and learning are interrelated and interdependent. 


Q 28. According to Piaget, specific psychological structures (organized ways of making sense of experience) are called 

(1) mental tools 

(2) schemes 

(3) images 

(4) mental maps 


Q 29. “With an appropriate question / suggestion, the child’s understanding can be extended far beyond the point which she could have reached alone.” Which construct does the above statement highlight ? 

(1) Zone of proximal development 

(2) Equilibration 

(3) Conservation 

(4) Intelligence 


Q 30. According to Lev Vygotsky, basic mental capacities are transformed into higher cognitive processes primarily through 

(1) rewards and punishment

(2) social interaction 

(3) stimulus-response association

(4) adaptation and organization 

IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part – II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part – III (Social Studies / Social Science). 




Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 31. If x = 23 × 32 × 53 × 7

 y = 22 × 33 × 54 × 73, and 

 z = 24 × 34 × 52 × 75

then H.C.F. of x, y and z is 

(1) (30)2 × 73 

(2) (15)3 × 74 

(3) (30)3 × 73 

(4) 30 × 75 


Q 32. If 52272 = p2 × q3 × r4,  where p, q and r are prime numbers, then the value of (2p + q – r) is 

(1) 21 

(2) 22 

(3) 23 

(4) 29 


Q 33. If the 7-digit number 134x58y is divisible by 72, then the value of (2x + y) is 

(1) 6 

(2) 7 

(3) 8 

(4) 9 


Q 34. Which of the following is not a Pythagorean triplet ? 

(1) 7, 24, 25 

(2) 8, 15, 17 

(3) 11, 60, 63 

(4) 13, 84, 85 


Q 35. The measure of an angle for which the measure of the supplement is four times the measure of the complement is 

(1) 300 

(2) 450 

(3) 600 

(4) 750 


Q 36. If the angles, in degrees, of a triangle are x, 3x + 20 and 6x, the triangle must be 

(1) Obtuse 

(2) Acute 

(3) Right 

(4) Isosceles 


Q 37. In triangles ABC and DEF, ∠C = ∠F, AC = DF, and BC = EF. If AB = 2x – 1 and DE = 5x – 4, then the value of x is 

(1) 1 

(2) 2 

(3) 3 

(4) 4 


Q 38. One side of a triangle is 5 cm and the other side is 10 cm and its perimeter is P cm, where P is an integer. The least and the greatest possible values of P are respectively 

(1) 19 and 29 

(2) 20 and 28 

(3) 21 and 29 

(4) 22 and 27 


Q 39. Let x be the median of the data 13, 8, 15, 14, 17, 9, 14, 16, 13, 17, 14, 15, 16, 15, 14. 

 If 8 is replaced by 18, then the median of the data is y. What is the sum of the values of x and y ? 

(1) 27 

(2) 28 

(3) 29 

(4) 30 


Q 40. A bag contains 3 white, 2 blue and 5 red balls. One ball is drawn at random from the bag. What is the probability that the ball drawn is not red ? 

(1) ⅘ 

(2) 3/10  

(3) ⅕  

(4) ½  


Q 41. The total surface area of a cuboid is 194 m2. If its length is 8 m and breadth is 6 m, then what is its volume (in m2) ? 

(1) 112 

(2) 126 

(3) 168 

(4) 224 


Q 42. The area of a trapezium is 105 cm2 and its height is 7 cm. If one of the parallel sides is longer than the other by 6 cm, then the length of the longer side, in cm, is 

(1) 18 

(2) 16 

(3) 15 

(4) 12 


Q 43. The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of base radius 3 cm is 94.2 cm2. The volume (in cm3) of the cylinder is (Take π = 3.14) 

(1) 138.6 

(2) 141.3 

(3) 125.6 

(4) 113.04 


Q 44. If x is added to each of 14, 12, 34 and 30, the numbers so obtained, in this order, are in proportion. What is the value of 12x + 9 ? 

(1) 8 

(2) 9 

(3) 11 

(4) 13 


Q 45. Which one of the following statements is true ? 

(1) A regular hexagon has only 4 lines of symmetry. 

(2) A regular polygon of 10 sides has 10 lines of symmetry. 

(3) A circle has no line of symmetry.

(4) An angle has two lines of symmetry. 


Q 46. The value of x which satisfies the equation 

 10(x + 6) + 8(x – 3) = 5(5x – 4) also satisfies the equation 

(1) 5(x – 3) = x + 5 

(2) 3(3x – 5) = 2x + 1 

(3) 2(x + 3) = 5(x – 5) + 4 

(4) 5(x – 5) = 2(x – 3) + 5 


Q 47. What should be subtracted from 5y – 13x – 8a to obtain 11x – 16y + 7a ?

(1) 6x + 21y + 15a 

(2) 21y – 5x – a 

(3) 21y – 24x – 15a 

(4) 24x – 21y + a 


Q 48. Which of the following statements is correct regarding children coming to school from rural areas in the context of Mathematics ? 

(1) They need not learn formal mathematics as it is of no use to them. 

(2) They may have rich oral mathematical traditions and knowledge. 

(3) They do not know any mathematics. 

(4) They have poor communication skills in mathematics. 


Q 49. Read the following statements : 

A. Axioms are propositions which are assumed. 

B. Axioms are special theorems. 

C. Axioms are definitions. 

D. Axioms, when proved becomes theorems. 

Which of the following statement(s) is correct ? 

(1) A and C 

(2) A and D 

(3) Only B 

(4) Only A 


Q 50. Which of the following statements does not reflect contemporary view of students errors in mathematics ? 

(1) They should be overlooked.

(2) They are a part of learning.

(3) They are a rich source of information. 

(4) They can guide the teacher in planning her classes. 


Q 51. Which of the following statement(s) regarding Mathematics is true ? 

A. Mathematics is a tool. 

B. Mathematics is a form of art. 

C. Mathematics is a language.

(1) A & B 

(2) B & C 

(3) only A 

(4) A, B & C 


Q 52. To prove that √2 is an irrational number, a teacher begins by assuming that it is a rational number and then proceeds to show how this assumption is not feasible. This is an example of proof by 

(1) Induction 

(2) Deduction 

(3) Contradiction 

(4) Verification 


Q 53. Which of the following statements reflects a desirable assessment practice in the context of mathematics learning ? 

(1) Only paper-pencil tasks are suited to assess students because they require precise answers. 

(2) Holding conversations and one to one discussion with children can also be helpful in assessing them. 

(3) Assessment should be product oriented and focus on the right answer of the child. 

(4) Incorrect answers of children should largely be ignored because we need to focus on children’s strengths. 


Q 54. Which of the following statements is true of learning mathematics ? 

(1) Everyone can learn and succeed in mathematics. 

(2) Girls need extra attention because they are weaker in mathematics. 

(3) Mathematics is a specialized subject meant for a select few. 

(4) Informal algorithms are inferior to formal mathematics. 


Q 55. The role of proportional reasoning in understanding the concept related to ratio and proportion was highlighted by 

(1) Van Hiele 

(2) Zoltan Dienes 

(3) Jean Piaget 

(4) Lev Vygotsky 


Q 56. A student is not able to solve those word problems which involve transposition in algebra. The best remedial strategy is to 

(1) give lot of practise questions on transposition of numbers. 

(2) give lot of practise questions of word problems in another language. 

(3) explain him/her word problem in simple language. 

(4) explain concept of equality using alternate method. 


Q 57. Contemporary understanding of Mathematics Pedagogy encourages teachers to do all of the following, except : 

(1) Encourage the ability to approximate solutions. 

(2) Introduce computation of problems before development of conceptual understanding. 

(3) Create opportunities for students to guess-and-verify the solutions to problems. 

(4) Develop the skill of systematic reasoning in students. 


Q 58. The value of  [(–4) + 2] × (–3) – (–3) [(–3) × (–7) – 8] +(4) [(– 48) + 6]  is 

(1) 9 

(2) –11 

(3) 13 

(4) –16 


Q 59. The fractions 44/49 , 33/38, 22/25,and 24/29 are written in descending order as 

(1) 24/29, 33/38, 22/25, 44/49 

(2) 22/25, 24/29, 33/38, 44/49 

(3) 44/49, 22/25, 33/38, 24/29 

(4) 44/49, 33/38, 24/29, 22/25 


Q 60. Which one of the following statements is not true for integers ? 

(1) Multiplication is associative. 

(2) Division is commutative. 

(3) 1 is the multiplicative identity. 

(4) Subtraction is not commutative. 


Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 61. Myra cycles to a friend’s house 5 km away to deliver a packet. She goes at a speed of 12 km/hour and returns at a speed of 8 km/h. Her average speed during the whole trip is – 

(1) 20 km/h 

(2) 9.6 km/h 

(3) 10 km/h 

(4) 5 m/s 


Q 62. Which of the following sets contains only the units of measuring distance ?(1) metre, light year, hertz 

(2) cubit, year, light year 

(3) cubit, metre, light year 

(4) metre, hertz, cubit 


Q 63. Sameer rolls his marble on three different surfaces spread out on floor – taut cellophane sheet, carpet and newspaper. The force of friction acting on the marble in the increasing order is 

(1) Newspaper, Cellophane sheet, Carpet 

(2) Newspaper, Carpet, Cellophane sheet 

(3) Cellophane sheet, Newspaper, Carpet 

(4) Cellophane sheet, Carpet, Newspaper 


Q 64. An object is moving linearly with a uniform velocity. If time is represented along X-axis then which of the following statements is correct ? 

(1) The distance-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to X-axis. 

(2) The velocity-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to Y-axis. 

(3) The distance-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to Y-axis. 

(4) The velocity-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to X-axis. 


Q 65. Which of the following is not a byproduct of petroleum ? 

(1) Paraffin wax 

(2) Coke 

(3) Bitumen 

(4) Lubricating oil 


Q 66. Aman keeps a plastic bottle, a wooden spoon and a metallic spoon in a closed room overnight. The room temperature is 30O C. In the morning he records the temperatures of the three objects as T1, T2 and T3. Which of the following most likely represents the relation between them ? 

(1) T1 = T2 = T3 

(2) T3 > T2 > T1 

(3) T1 = T2 < T3 

(4) T1 > T2 > T3 


Q 67. Which of the following organisms can prepare their own food by Photosynthesis ? 

(1) Algae 

(2) Fungi 

(3) Rhizobium 

(4) Virus 


Q 68. Which of the following features help polar bears adapt in extreme cold conditions ? 

(1) white fur, flat feet, fat under skin 

(2) white fur, long curved sharp claws, fat under skin 

(3) white fur, flat feet, layers of fur 

(4) strong smell, flat feet, layers of fur 


Q 69. Which of the following nutrients are present in milk ? 

(1) Protein, Calcium, Vitamin D 

(2) Protein, Vitamin C, Vitamin A 

(3) Carbohydrates, Vitamin C, Iron 

(4) Protein, Iron, Vitamin D 


Q 70. The non-metal used in the purple coloured solution applied on wounds as antiseptic is 

(1) Chlorine 

(2) Iodine 

(3) Bromine 

(4) Sulphur 


Q 71. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Air’ is incorrect ? 

(1) Air has weight. 

(2) Air is not present in soil. 

(3) Air plays important role in water cycle. 

(4) Air occupies space. 


Q 72. Which of the following represents correct matching of the organs of digestive system in Column A with the function in Column B ? 

Column AColumn B 
a. Liver i. where protein digestion starts 
b. Stomach ii. where bile juice is stored
c. Gall bladder iii. releases digestive juice into small intestine 
d. Pancreas iv. largest gland 


Q 73. Which of the following statement about cells is true ? 

(1) All cells are round in shape. 

(2) Cells of a tissue have similar structure. 

(3) Size of cells is same in a well organized organism. 

(4) All the cells have nucleus. 


Q 74. Which of the following are correctly matched with their mode of reproduction ? 

a. Yeast i. vegetative propagation 
b. Potato ii. spore formation 
c. Algae iii. fragmentation 
d. Fungi iv. budding 


Q 75. Which of the following pollutants are responsible for depletion of ozone layer ? 

(1) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide 

(2) Chlorofluoro carbons 

(3) Acid rain 

(4) Methane and carbon dioxide 


Q 76. Which of the following set represents communicable diseases ? 

(1) Anaemia, Scurvy, Diarrhoea, Cholera 

(2) Typhoid, Malaria, Anaemia, Swine flu 

(3) Typhoid, Swine flu, Malaria, Polio 

(4) Diabetes, Typhoid, Malaria, Anaemia 


Q 77. Which one of the following is not true of the nature of science ? 

A. Science is always tentative.

B. Science promotes scepticism. 

C. Science is a process of constructing knowledge. 

D. Science is static in nature.

(1) D 

(2) B 

(3) C 

(4) A 


Q 78. Which of the following is/are developed by Science ? 

A. Equity 

B. Scientific attitude 

C. Scientific temper 

D. Static mind set 

(1) A and D 

(2) B, C and D 

(3) A, B and C 

(4) C and D 


Q 79. The role of a science teacher should be to _________ 

(1) provide rich variety of learning experiences to learners. 

(2) provide product based teaching learning environment to learners. 

(3) guide learners to practice the memorization of the creative ideas. 

(4) encourage all learners to frame questions of high cognitive abilities. 


Q 80. As per NCF-2005, good science education should be 

A. True to the learner 

B. True to the environment of the learner 

C. True to the teacher 

D. True to science 

(1) A, B and D 

(2) B and C only 

(3) A, B and C 

(4) D only 


Q 81. “Conducting a survey on the awareness of people about sources of air pollution in learners localities.” 

Which of the following cognitive process will be most associated with the above learning objective having action verb conducting ? 

(1) Remembering 

(2) Understanding 

(3) Creating 

(4) Applying 


Q 82. Which of the following strategy can be the most appropriate for involving learners in the teaching learning of science ? 

(1) Reading a science book 

(2) Clarifying the hard spots of learners 

(3) Working on engaging the learners first 

(4) Encouraging learners to do group assessment 


Q 83. By which of the following strategy meaningful clarification on the concept of reflection of light can be given ? 

(1) Animated video on the concept.

(2) Chart showing the reflection of light. 

(3) Observing reflection of light on white paper screen by the learners and drawing conclusions. 

(4) Asking closed ended questions related to the concept. 


Q 84. Why are field visits important in science ? 

(1) It provides hands on experiences to the learners. 

(2) It is easy to conduct. 

(3) It collects the information of science. 

(4) It develops habit of hardwork among learners. 


Q 85. Which of the following tool is for learner centered assessment ? 

 A. Portfolio 

 B. Concept mapping 

 C. Paper-pencil test 

 D. Journal writing 

(1) C only 

(2) A, B and D 

(3) A and C only 

(4) B, C and D 


Q 86. Assessment as learning in Science means _________. 

(1) Formative assessment 

(2) Summative assessment 

(3) Self assessment 

(4) Term assessment 


Q 87. Amrita is trying to set-up an electric circuit. She runs short of connecting wires. Which of the following materials can she use to complete the circuit ? 

(1) thick thread 

(2) steel wire 

(3) glass rod 

(4) rubber pipe 


Q 88. Identify the correct statement. 

(1) A concave mirror always forms an erect image. 

(2) A concave mirror forms an erect as well as inverted image. 

(3) A convex mirror always forms an inverted image. 

(4) A convex mirror forms erect as well as inverted image. 


Q 89. Which of the following acids is found in ant’s sting ? 

(1) Ascorbic acid 

(2) Formic acid 

(3) Oxalic acid 

(4) Acetic acid 


Q 90. 3.7 kg of a fuel is completely burnt to give off 1.665  108 joules of energy. The calorific value of the fuel in standard unit is 

(1) 45000 

(2) 22222 

(3) 61605 

(4) 25000 

IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do Question Nos. 31 to 90 EITHER from Part – II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part – III (Social Studies / Social Science). 



Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 31. Which of the following was not a feature to Athenian democracy ? 

(1) All the free men and women above 30 years of age were recognised as full citizens. 

(2) All citizens were expected to serve in army and navy. 

(3) All the citizens attended assemblies that were held for deciding upon matters. 

(4) Appointment for many positions were made through lottery. 


Q 32. Which of the following was Samudragupta’s policy specifically towards the rulers of Dakshinapatha ? 

(1) Their kingdoms were uprooted and made a part of Samudragupta’s empire. 

(2) They submitted to Samudragupta and offered daughters in marriage. 

(3) They brought tribute, followed his orders and attended his court. 

(4) They surrendered after being defeated and then were allowed to rule again. 


Q 33. Match the following : 

(Art form) (Nomenclature) 
a. Art technique that enabled making of images that looked real. i. Picturesque 
b. Painting showing Indian landscape as quaint, unexplored land ii. Portraiture 
c. Paintings displaying lavish lifestyles, wealth & status of Europeans in India. iii. History Painting 
d. Paintings depicting scenes from British imperial history & victories. iv. Oil Painting


Q 34. In the late 18th century, the presidencies of Bombay, Madras and Bengal developed from which of the following East India Company’s trading posts ? 

(1) Surat, Madras, Calcutta

(2) Nagpur, Madurai, Delhi

(3) Pune, Madras, Calcutta

(4) Surat, Madurai, Delhi 


Q 35. Consider the statements (A) and (B) about Mahayana Buddhism and choose the correct answer. 

(A) In this form of Buddhism, Buddha’s presence in sculptures was shown using certain signs. 

(B) The belief in Bodhisattvas emerged with the coming of Mahayana Buddhism. 

(1) (A) is true, (B) is false.

(2) (A) is false, (B) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (B) are true.

(4) Both (A) and (B) are false. 


Q 36. Consider the statements (A) and (B) about Mahalwari and Ryotwari system of revenues and choose the correct answer. 

(A) The Mahalwari was devised for North-Western provinces of Bengal presidency, while the Ryotwari was devised for British territories in South. 

(B) While in Mahalwari, village headman collected and paid revenue of the whole village to the company, in Ryotwari direct settlements was made with cultivators. 

(1) Only (A) correctly explains differences between the two revenue systems. 

(2) Only (B) correctly explains differences between the two revenue systems. 

(3) Both (A) and (B) correctly explain differences between the two revenue systems. 

(4) Neither (A) nor (B) correctly explain differences between the two revenue systems. 


Q 37. A tomb of a Sufi saint is known as :

(1) Khanqah

(2) Idgah

(3) Gulfaroshan

(4) Dargah 


Q 38. The doctrine of Vishishtadvaita was propounded in eleventh century by :

(1) Ramanuja

(2) Basavanna

(3) Eknath

(4) Sakhubai 


Q 39. Consider the statements (A) and (B) on Diwani Adalat established in 1772 in India and choose the correct answer : 

 (A) It was a criminal court. 

 (B) It was presided over by the European district collectors. 

(1) (A) is true, (B) is false. 

(2) (A) is false, (B) is true. 

(3) Both (A) and (B) are true.

(4) Both (A) and (B) are false.


Q 40. A garisson town refers to : 

(1) Land adjacent to a city that supplies goods to it. 

(2) A fortified settlement with soldiers.

(3) A place where goods from different production centres are sold. 

(4) A town on an important trading port. 


Q 41. Assertion (A) : It will be 7:30 p.m. in India, when it is 2:00 p.m. in London. Reason (R) : India is located east of Greenwich at 82º30′E. 

 Select the correct option from the given alternatives. 

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A). 


Q 42. Consider the statements A, B, C on time zone and choose the correct answer : 

A. Some countries have a great longitudinal extent and so they adopted more than one standard time. 

B. The earth has been divided into twenty-four time zones of one hour each. 

C. Each time zone covers 15º of longitude. 

(1) A and B are correct and C is incorrect. 

(2) A and C are correct and B is incorrect. 

(3) B and C are correct and A is incorrect. 

(4) A, B, C all are correct. 


Q 43. Choose the correct arrangement of atmosphere’s layers beginning from earth’s surface : 

(1) Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere, Troposphere 

(2) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere 

(3) Exosphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere, Thermosphere. 

(4) Mesosphere, Troposphere, Exosphere, Stratosphere, Thermosphere 


Q 44. Seasons occur due to which of the following reasons ? 

(1) Axis of the Earth makes an angle of 66½º with its orbital plane. 

(2) Tropic of Capricorn receives direct rays of the sun, falling vertically at 23½º S. 

(3) Revolution of the Earth and inclination of its axis in the same direction. 

(4) Circle of illumination caused due to rotation of the earth around its axis. 


Q 45. The major constituents of earth’s atmosphere by percentage is : 

(1) Oxygen 

(2) Carbon dioxide 

(3) Nitrogen 

(4) Helium 


Q 46. Which of the following statements about ocean currents is/are correct ? 

A. The cold currents carry water from polar or higher latitudes to tropical or lower latitudes. 

B. Labrador is a warm current. 

C. Areas where warm and cold currents meet provide world’s best fishing grounds. 

(1) A and B are correct. 

(2) A and C are correct. 

(3) B and C are correct. 

(4) Only A is correct. 


Q 47. The depositional feature of a glacier is called : 

(1) Sea cave 

(2) Moraine 

(3) Loess 

(4) Levees 


Q 48. Statements A and B describe the features of which of the following vegetations ? 

A. This vegetation is found in the higher latitudes (50º – 70º) of Northern Hemisphere. 

 B. It is also called as Taiga.

(1) Temperate Grasslands. 

(2) Temperate Deciduous Forests.

(3) Coniferous Forests. 

(4) Mediterranean Vegetation. 


Q 49. Which of the following is not a feature of the Ganga-Brahmaputra Basin ?

(1) Ox-Bow lakes dot the plain area.

(2) The density of population of plain area is very high. 

(3) The delta area is covered with Mangrove forests. 

(4) Slash and Burn agriculture is practiced in this area for land cultivation. 


Q 50. Swimmers can float in Dead sea because : 

(1) Winds blow at a very high speed over the surface of sea water. 

(2) More warm currents than cold currents originate in the sea. 

(3) The sea experiences more high tides than low tides. 

(4) The increased salt content makes the sea dense. 


Q 51. Consider the statements A and B about land use and choose the correct answer : 

A. Land use refers to use of land exclusively for agriculture and forestry. 

B. Land use is primarily determined by its topography. 

(1) A is true and B is false.

(2) A is false and B is true.

(3) Both A and B are true. 

(4) Both A and B are false. 


Q 52. Shelter belts help in : 

(1) Checking wind movement to protect soil cover. 

(2) Retaining soil moisture. 

(3) Slowing down the flow of water over soil. 

(4) Preventing gullies and hence further soil loss. 


Q 53. What determines the thickness of soil profile ? 

(1) Relief 

(2) Time 

(3) Flora-Fauna 

(4) Climate 


Q 54. On the basis of their distribution, resources can be classified as : 

(1) Actual and Potential resources 

(2) Renewable and Non-renewable resources 

(3) Biotic and Abiotic resources 

(4) Ubiquitous and Localised resources 


Q 55. Which of the following statements about a ‘diverse society’ is correct ? 

(1) It would have differences and inequalities in language, religion and culture. 

(2) It would have differences in culture and power. 

(3) It would have similarities of language, religion and culture. 

(4) It would have differences and similarities in language, culture and religion. 


Q 56. Which of the following statements challenges gender stereotypes ? 

(1) Women are very emotional.

(2) Women are fashion conscious.

(3) Women are responsible bus drivers.

(4) Women are nurturing. 


Q 57. Which of the following composed the main demand of the suffragettes ? 

(1) Right to vote for women. 

(2) Right to bureaucratic roles for women. 

(3) Adult franchise for propertied women. 

(4) Adult franchise for working class. 


Q 58. Which of the following statements about Jatakas is correct ? 

(1) These were composed by ordinary people, written down and preserved by Buddhist monks. 

(2) These were composed by ordinary people, written down and preserved by Jaina monks. 

(3) These were composed by Buddhist monks, written down and preserved by ordinary people. 

(4) These were composed by Jaina monks, written down and preserved by ordinary people. 


Q 59. Which of the following statements about Ain-i-Akbari is correct ? 

(1) It is the first volume of the three volume history of Akbar’s reign titled Akbar Nama. 

(2) It deals with Akbar’s ancestors and records the events of Akbar’s reign. 

(3) It was written by Mirza Hakim, who was one of Akbar’s courtiers. 

(4) It has rich statistical details about diverse aspects of Akbar’s administration. 


Q 60. Who among the following compiled the compositions of Baba Guru Nanak in Gurumukhi, also adding his own compositions to it ? 

(1) Guru Gobind Singh 

(2) Guru Angad 

(3) Guru Arjan 

(4) Guru Teg Bahadur 


Q 61. Consider List – A and List – B. List – A has different types of rural employment. 

 List – B has different kinds of loans taken. 

List – A List – B
a. Agricultural worker i. Health and off season consumption 
b. Largefarmer ii. Fertiliser, Pesticide, Seeds 
c. Middle farmer iii. Government loan for agro-processing plant

Match items of List – A with List – B, based on most likely reason for loans : 

     a b c 

(1) i ii iii 

(2) ii i iii 

(3) i iii ii 

(4) iii i ii 


Q 62. Which of the following forms the trading arrangement between a weaver and a merchant under the “Putting out” system ? Choose the correct option. 

(1) Yarn is bought for the lowest bid from merchant; and cloth is sold at highest bid. 

(2) Yarn is sold to the weaver by the merchant; and weaver makes cloth for self-consumption. 

(3) Yarn is supplied by the merchant to the weaver and cloth produced is bought back from weaver at a low price. 

(4) Yarn is bought by weaver from the open market and cloth is sold to merchant at a low price. 


Q 63. Consider the statements A to E. They form jumbled links in a chain of market, wherein ‘Ketchup’ reaches a consumer. 

 A. Sona orders ketchup from a neighbourhood shop. 

 B. Farmer buys tomato seeds from a local trader. 

 C. Wholesale merchant bids for tomatoes in the vegetable mandi. 

 D. A small city based food processing unit buys tomatoes. 

 E. Marketing company supplies ketchup to stores. 

 Choose the option that represents the correct sequence in the chain of market : 

(1) B, C, D, E, A

(2) B, D, E, C, A

(3) C, B, D, E, A

(4) A, B, D, C, E 


Q 64. According to Appellate System, a person dissatisfied with the verdict given by the Court of the District Judge could appeal to which of the following courts ? 

(1) Session Court 

(2) Supreme Court 

(3) High Court 

(4) Trial Court 


Q 65. Consider the statements A and B on the Indian Parliament : 

A. A political party that has any number of Members of 

Parliament in the Lok Sabha can form a government. 

B. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President are part of the Parliament. 

Choose the correct option : 

(1) Only A is true. 

(2) Only B is true. 

(3) Both A and B are true. 

(4) Both A and B are false. 


Q 66. Read the statement given below : “The Indian State has many checks and balances to prevent the misuse of powers.” 

 Choose the correct option that represents the meaning of ‘Indian State’ in the above statement. 

(1) The Indian Central Government

(2) The Indian Bureaucracy

(3) Any State Government 

(4) The Indian Political System 


Q 67. Which of the following should the teaching of History focus upon ? 

A. Concepts of plural representations and building a sense of historical diversity. 

B. Encouraging students to imagine living in the past and relate to the experiences. 

(1) Only A 

(2) Only B 

(3) Both A and B 

(4) Neither A nor B 


Q 68. Two of the statements given below are false. Identify these statements. 

A. Natural and physical basis of scientific inquiry can be used in Social Science also. 

B. The teaching of Social Science has the responsibility towards value education only. 

C. The same methodology can be used to teach different disciplines of Social Science. 

D. The teaching of Social Science concerns more with involvement with complexities rather than information. 

(1) A and C 

(2) B and C 

(3) B and D 

(4) C and D 


Q 69. A Social Science teacher should aim towards : 

(1) Rote memorisation 

(2) Building perspective 

(3) Syllabus completion 

(4) Passing the examinations 


Q 70. Which of the following approaches have been considered while developing social and political life textbooks ? 

A. Learning through use of concrete examples and experiences. 

 B. Learning through retention based on facts and data. 

(1) Only A 

(2) Only B 

(3) Both A and B 

(4) Neither A nor B 


Q 71. Which of the following is true about Social Science ? 

A. Memorising information will lead to conceptual development. 

B. The status of a ‘fact’ is always fixed. 

(1) Only A 

(2) Only B 

(3) Both A and B 

(4) Neither A nor B 


Q 72. The best practice for sensitising students towards wildlife conservation would be : 

(1) Reading about relevant policies and laws. 

(2) Preparing a play on wildlife conservation. 

(3) Observing wildlife week at the school. 

(4) Pledging not to buy animal based products. 


Q 73. What is the main purpose of an Open Book Evaluation ? 

(1) Students need not feel the burden to rote memorise all facts and details. 

(2) Teachers need not undergo extra pressure to frame new questions. 

(3) Students need not read extra books. 

(4) Students can answer exactly according to the textbook. 


Q 74. Which of the following would be the best closure tasks after the teaching of the theme ‘The Making of Regional Cultures’ ? 

A. Small group projects 

B. Dance performance by an expert 

C. Quiz competition 

D. Collage making 

(1) A, B, C 

(2) A, B, D 

(3) A, C, D 

(4) B, C, D 


Q 75. Imagine you have inherited a kingdom. How would you make your kingdom stable and prosperous ? 

In context of the above question, as a teacher which skill would you emphasise upon while assessing the students ? 

(1) Comparing experiences.

(2) Ability to analyse. 

(3) Infer and extrapolate from situation. 

(4) Ability to reason. 


Q 76. A respectful way to introduce the theme ‘Adivasis’ would be to : 

(1) Portraying them as rich and powerful forest people. 

(2) Showcasing their colourful costumes. 

(3) Screening a tribal song and dance.

(4) Discussing their primitive and rustic pasts. 


Q 77. While teaching controversial issues in Social Science class, you should : 

(1) Completely avoid confrontations.

(2) Take them up occasionally and conduct brief discussions. 

(3) Take them up with proper planning to initiate a dignified discussion. 

(4) Keep in mind students’ background and discuss only non hurtful aspects. 


Q 78. The teaching of social and political life should focus on : 

A. Study of Political Institutions. 

B. Study of Basic Principles.

(1) Only A

(2) Only B

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B 


Q 79. While planning a small group activity with students, which of the following should be emphasised ? 

A. To create a challenging task. 

B. To teach students to work together. 

C. To select groups thoughtfully. 

D. Completion of task. 

(1) A, B, C

(2) A, B, D

(3) A, C, D

(4) B, C, D 


Q 80. Which of the following statements are true about the study of Social Science ? 

A. Helps in systemic analysis of issues. 

B. Students will grow up and find out for themselves. 

C. Focus should be on subject details rather than understanding. 

D. Building sensitivity and curiosity as much as providing information. 

(1) A, C

(2) A, D

(3) B, D

(4) C, D 


Q 81. The writings of the following cannot be attributed as a primary source ? 

(1) Muzaffar Alam 

(2) Abul Fazl 

(3) Rashsundari Devi 

(4) Ziyauddin Barani 


Q 82. Which of the following sources would be wrong to use if you have to introduce Ancient Indian History ?

(1) Cave paintings 

(2) Miniature Paintings 

(3) Inscriptions 

(4) Manuscripts 


Q 83. Which of the following can a Social Science teacher critically address while discussing the theme, ‘Advertisement’ ? 

A. Appeal to the personal emotions. 

B. Issues of equality. 

(1) Only A

(2) Only B

(3) Neither A nor B

(4) Both A and B 


Q 84. ‘Discuss few more reasons that are responsible for changes in land use pattern.’ 

In context of the above question, as a Social Science teacher you would be assessing students’ skill of : 

(1) Classifying

(2) Generalising

(3) Inferring

(4) Hypothesising 


Q 85. To familiarise students with the theme, ‘Natural Vegetation and Wildlife’, which would be the best pedagogical method ? 

(1) Screening a documentary on the theme. 

(2) Visit to a wildlife sanctuary.

(3) Inviting an expert for a lecture.

(4) Textbook reading and discussion. 


Q 86. What is the role of cartoons in a Social Science textbooks ? 

(1) No role as cartoons are immature.

(2) Mainly used as fillers so that textbooks look attractive. 

(3) Makes class enjoyable as the subject is boring. 

(4) Raises basic issues and makes it relatable to students. 


Q 87. Consider statements A and B on the practice of apartheid : 

A. It discriminates between races but allowed all the right to vote. 

B. It prevents mingling of races but gives equitable public facilities to all. 

Choose the correct option : 

(1) Only A is true. 

(2) Only B is true. 

(3) Both A and B are true. 

(4) Both A and B are false. 


Q 88. Who among the following occupies elected office in a Gram Panchayat ? 

 A. Sarpanch 

 B. Ward Members 

 C. Secretary 

 D. Gram Sabha Member 

 Choose the correct option : 

(1) A and B

(2) A and C

(3) A, B and C

(4) B, C and D 


Q 89. Which of the following work is the responsibility of a ‘Patwari’ ? 

(1) Construction and maintenance of common property. 

(2) Executing employment schemes for land development. 

(3) Preventing land disputes by investigating complaints. 

(4) Measuring land and keeping records. 


Q 90. Which of the following statements on the functioning of a local urban administration is correct ? 

(1) Commissioner of a municipal corporation makes and decides the budget for the year. 

(2) Commissioner is elected by ward councillors and reports to him/her. 

(3) Ward councillors form committees to resolve issues of governance. 

(4) Ward councillors are headed by the Sarpanch. 





IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – IV (Q. No. 91-120), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – I only. 

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (91 – 99) that follow by selecting the correct/most appropriate options : 

There’s an air of excitement on the platform as the train’s departure time draws close. You’ve found your name on the passenger’s list, together with the names of those in the compartment with you; so you already know your ‘fellow passengers’ names, ages, sex and destination. People are pushing past you to get on, as you show your coupon to the conductor and he tells you to board. 

Your fellow passengers are settling in, staking out their claims to territory with too much luggage. A bell clangs but there is no slamming of carriage doors, no blowing of whistles and no shout of “All aboard !’’ as in the states. The train simply draws out of the station while people stroll alongside and with studied nonchalance, clamber on, one after the other through the still-open doors. 

You claim your own seat, pleased to be on the move. Since you have a long journey ahead in the company of strangers, what happens next will govern your enjoyment of the trip. You can start up a conversation and make friends, allies quickly, or he anti-social and lonely for the whole of the journey. Of course, it depends on your personality but if you are travelling alone you’ll need an ally, someone you feel you can trust to watch your luggage when you go to the washroom. You can’t isolate yourself completely on a train so if that’s your style, train travel isn’t for you. 

I get a thrill out of the start of every train journey. It’s not just the excitement of moving on to a new place, there’s the anticipation of what’s going to happen during the journey; the pleasure at the new acquaintances I’m going to make; the dissolving of city skyline into lush, rural landscape beyond the windows; and the heightened emotions of everyone on board. Indians love to travel by train; they are used to it and prepare properly so it becomes a picnic on wheels. I get excited when I am part of it, you will too. 

Q 91. Even after the train has started moving why do some people stroll alongside ? 

(1) They reached the platform late. 

(2) They want to enjoy the outside scene. 

(3) They enjoy getting into a moving train. 

(4) The doors are still open. 


Q 92. What can prevent you from enjoying your train trip ? 

(1) There are strangers around you.

(2) You are lonely by temperament. 

(3) You are worried about your luggage. 

(4) The travellers around you don’t trust you. 


Q 93. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE ? 

(1) The narrator enjoys going to a new place. 

(2) He/she loves to make friends. 

(3) He/she does not enjoy a picnic in the train. 

(4) He/she is thrilled at the scene outside. 


Q 94. What does the word ‘Coupon’ here mean ? 

(1) a railways pass 

(2) a passport 

(3) a railway ticket 

(4) a counterfoil 


Q 95. The phrase, ‘draws out’ as used here means : 

(1) clears out 

(2) moves out 

(3) hurries out 

(4) breaks away 


Q 96. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ? 

People are pushing past you.

(1) Preposition 

(2) Adverb 

(3) Adjective 

(4) Verb 


Q 97. Which part of the following sentence has an error in it ? 

(a)  “Once you have made this decision 

(b) there would be 

(c) no going back” 

(d) Ram warned me 

(1) (a) 

(2) (b) 

(3) (c) 

(4) (d) 


Q 98. You are well informed about your fellow passengers : 

(1) even before you have entered the compartment. 

(2) after you have been introduced to them. 

(3) after you have interacted with them. 

(4) When you have settled in your seats. 


Q 99. Who stake a claim to territory in the compartment ? 

(1) Those who need more space in it. 

(2) Those whose seats are already occupied. 

(3) Those who don’t travel light.

(4) Those who haven’t reserved seats. 


Directions : Read the extract given below and answer the questions (100 – 105) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options : 

The work of hunters is another thing : I have come after them and made repair Where they have left not one stone on a stone, But they would have the rabbit out of hiding, To please the yelping dogs. The gaps I mean, 5 No one has seen them made or heard them made, But at spring mending-time we find them there. I let my neighbour know beyond the hill; And on a day we meet to walk the line And set the wall between us once again. 10 We keep the wall between us as we go. To each the boulders that have fallen to each. 

And some are loaves and some so nearly balls We have to use a spell to make them balance : 

‘Stay where you are until our backs are turned !’ 

Q 100. The gaps in the wall are made by :

(1) rabbits 

(2) dogs 

(3) hunters 

(4) nature 


Q 101. The neighbours meet in the spring season to : 

(1) fill the gaps in the wall. 

(2) to go on a long walk. 

(3) to find out who broke the wall.

(4) to lift the stones. 


Q 102. The neighbours have to use a spell to :

(1) look for the rabbits. 

(2) to count the number of stones.

(3) to make the stones obey them. 

(4) to fix the irregular stones in the wall. 


Q 103. The figure of speech used in the lines 9-10 is : 

(1) Personification 

(2) Metaphor 

(3) Simile 

(4) Irony 


Q 104. Identify the figure of speech used in the expression : 

 ‘And some are loaves and some so nearly balls’ 

(1) Simile 

(2) Metaphor 

(3) Personification 

(4) Irony 


Q 105. The hunters’ main aim is : 

(1) to remove the stones. 

(2) to please their dogs. 

(3) to catch the rabbits. 

(4) to make the neighbours build the wall again. 

Answer the following questions (Q Nos. 106 to 120) by selecting the most appropriate option out of the given options. 


Q 106. A teacher along with her learners writes the names of objects in the classroom (like door, black board, windows etc) in their mother tongue and in English on pieces of paper and pastes them on the objects for learners to notice the words. What is the teacher trying to do ? 

(1) The teacher wants her learners to write well. 

(2) The teacher is creating a (print) language rich environment in the classroom. 

(3) The teacher is trying to teach letters of alphabet. 

(4) The teacher is creating a situation for the students to learn the spelling of the words. 


Q 107. This is assumed to be a major difference between language acquisition and learning. 

(1) Language acquisition is natural and language learning is deliberate/instructed. 

(2) Language acquisition happens at an early stage while language learning takes place later. 

(3) Language acquisition always happens in mother tongue and language learning happens in the second language. 

(4) Language acquisition is meaning formation and language learning is making meaning. 


Q 108. LAC stands for 

(1) Language Acquisition Culture 

(2) Languages Across the Cultures 

(3) Language Acquisition of Content 

(4) Language Across the Curriculum 


Q 109. Many minor and tribal languages are not available in school curriculum and the number of speakers is receding in those languages. What is this known as in socio educational linguistics ? 

(1) Language death 

(2) Language minority in education 

(3) Language endangerment 

(4) Language revival 


Q 110. A teacher asks her learners to find words and word chunks relating to different themes based on the reading lesson. Learners in groups have to make word charts of the same category. What is this strategy known as ? 

(1) Thematic language teaching

(2) Word collocations 

(3) Communicative language teaching 

(4) A writing project 


Q 111. A student reads through an article in a newspaper to get the overall idea of the article. What is this (practice) known as ? 

(1) Scanning 

(2) Skimming 

(3) Top-down model 

(4) Bottom-up model 


Q 112. Sight words are developed 

(1) by seeing them on sight.

(2) by teachers from text books.

(3) by using words in meaningful contexts 

(4) by knowing meanings of difficult words. 


Q 113. Language is 

(1) a rule governed system

(2) a structure formed system

(3) a formation of words, rules and meanings 

(4) a human system which changes frequently 


Q 114. ‘Comprehensible input’ as proposed by Krashen (1985) is 

(1) enabling learners to comprehend ideas. 

(2) exposing learners to language somewhat above their level. 

(3) exposing learners to language below their level so that they can comprehend. 

(4) enabling learners to read in many languages. 


Q 115. Extensive reading is 

(1) reading in detail every word and idea for deep understanding. 

(2) reading for facts. 

(3) reading to write. 

(4) reading for pleasure and overall understanding of the text. 


Q 116. A teacher keeps the students’ work of language use and uses it for assessing the learners’ achievement. What is this strategy for assessment known as ?

(1) Portfolio assessment 

(2) Diagnostic test 

(3) CCE 

(4) Summative assessment 


Q 117. A teacher brought real life objects like a hammer, a screw driver and so on to her class. She asked her learners to describe the objects in five to seven sentences. What are the materials in language teaching known as ? 

(1) Teaching implements 

(2) Tools 

(3) Language input 

(4) Realia 


Q 118. Mother tongue based multilingualism advocates that 

(1) all learners learn in mother tongue only in primary school. 

(2) learners begin their schooling in mother tongue and move on to add many (at least two) languages in school. 

(3) learners begin with their state language and more on to English medium. 

(4) learners learn their mother tongue, Hindi and English from Class-I. 


Q 119. Which of the following statements are true of teaching of grammar ? 

 A. Teaching of rules at the initial stage does not lend much to language learning. 

 B. Rules of grammar are essential during the formative years of language learning. 

 C. Grammar teaching should move from meaning to form. 

 D. Grammar teaching should move from form to meaning. 

(1) Statements B and D are true.

(2) Statements C and B are true.

(3) Statements A and C are true.

(4) Statements A and D are true. 


Q 120. A teacher draws the attention of learners to individual sounds, words and then sentences while teaching the listening skill. What approach to listening does the teacher adopt ? 

(1) Top-down approach 

(2) Elastic approach 

(3) Communicative approach

(4) Bottom-up approach 




IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – V (Q. No. 121-150), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – II only.

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (121 – 128) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options : 

The other day I received an unusual and very gratifying gift : I was given a tree. Or rather, I was given half-a-dozen trees, which would be planted on my behalf. I had been invited to give a talk to an organisation. After such events, the speaker is usually given a token gift. Sometimes the gift is that of a pen, or something useful. Often, the gift is in the form of a plaque or similar commemorative token. However well-meant, such gifts are destined to gather dust in forgotten corners. Which is why I was agreeably surprised to be given a scroll which attested that, in a designated plantation established for the purpose, six tress would be added in my name, as part of ‘greenֹ’ movement being sponsored by the organization. 

In an increasingly environmentally conscious world, the gift of a living tree or plant makes for a perfect present. The tradition of giving and receiving gifts has increasingly become a highly evolved marketing exercise. Apart from festivals like Diwali, Holi, Christmas, Eid and others, a whole new calendar of celebratory events has been created to promote the giving of gifts : Mother’s Day, Father’s Day, Teacher’s Day, Valentine’s Day and so on and on. 

What do you give to people – friends, relatives, spouses, children, parents, employees, clients, well-wishers who have more or less everything, or at least everything that you could afford to give them as a gift ? Another shirt or kurta ? Another bottle of scent or after shave ? Another box of chocolates ? Another any other ? 

Q 121. What usually happens to the gifts he/she receives ? 

(1) He uses them if he needs them.

(2) He gives them away as gifts to others. 

(3) They are put away and forgotten.

(4) He keeps them religiously as mementoes. 


Q 122. The gift received by the writer was :

(1) a marketing exercise 

(2) environment friendly 

(3) very expensive 

(4) gathering dust in a corner 


Q 123. Why do you not very much care for it when you receive a shirt or a kurta as a gift ? 

(1) The giver had to spend a lot of money. 

(2) You already have so many of them. 

(3) You don’t like the colour

(4) You were not asked about your choice. 


Q 124. The word ‘gratifying’ means

(1) annoying 

(2) satisfying 

(3) giving 

(4) fortifying 


Q 125. The word ‘destined’ means :

(1) fated 

(2) decided 

(3) declined 

(4) departed 


Q 126. Name the part of speech of the underlined word in the following clause. 

 which is why I was agreeably surprised. 

(1) Preposition 

(2) Adjective 

(3) Pronoun 

(4) Adverb 


Q 127. Identify the part of the following sentence which has an error in it. 

(a) Your claim ought 

(b) to succeed in that case

(c) the damages

(d) will be substantial

(1) (a) 

(2) (b) 

(3) (c) 

(4) (d) 


Q 128. The writer was thrilled when he was given 

(1) a tree 

(2) six trees 

(3) a plaque 

(4) a pen 


Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (129 – 135) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options : 

With more then 3,000 languages currently spoken, English undoubtedly is amongst the richest of all languages. The Oxford English Dictionary lists about half a million words of which only 2,00,000 are frequently used. This is because, the balance 3,00,000 words are technical and not found in ordinary dictionaries. The only language that can come near English is Chinese. 

Apart from being the richest language, English also boasts of being one of the most widely spoken, second only to Mandarin Chinese. This remarkable achievement is only because of the one thing that we all love to do – copy ! ‘Siesta’ for example is of Spanish origin. ‘Sputnik’ as you must be aware of, has a Russian origin. ‘Restaurant’ is from France and ‘Super’ from Germany. Even before the birth of the ‘genius’ of ‘drama’, William Shakespeare, the words ‘genius’ and ‘drama’ were adapted from Greek. Now, you must be wondering if English has anything original about it. Well, find it out ! Did you ever try to find out how many different words of English we use in our daily life ? Try to guess and then read on. A modern novelist has a vocabulary of anywhere between ten to fifteen thousand words. 

William Shakespeare used thirty thousand words and the only writer to come close to him was James Joyce in ‘Ulysses’. We normally have a vocabulary of about ten thousand words of which only five thousand are used in everyday conversation. This leads to a limited variety of words. This is because we repeat a lot of words. In conversation and in writing, it is ‘the’. (Try counting it in this article and you will have proof of it.)

Q 129. In our everyday conversation we use a limited number of words because : 

(1) our vocabulary is unlimited. 

(2) we are not a genius like Shakespeare. 

(3) everybody is not highly educated.

(4) we repeat a lot of words. 


Q 130. How many words are usually used by an English speaking person ? 

(1) 3,000 

(2) 5,000 

(3) 10,000 

(4) 15,000 


Q 131. Which of the following words is most often used in English language ? 

(1) a 

(2) the 

(3) is 

(4) one 


Q 132. The word that is similar in meaning to the word, ‘remarkable’ is : 

(1) astonishing 

(2) remedial 

(3) remaining 

(4) optional 


Q 133. The word that is opposite in meaning to the word, ‘ordinary’ is : 

(1) usual 

(2) complex 

(3) special 

(4) liable 


Q 134. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ? 

 Did you ever try to find out ?

(1) Adverb 

(2) Adjective 

(3) Pronoun 

(4) Verb 


Q 135. English is the most widely used language in the world because : 

(1) Shakespeare has written in English. 

(2) it is the richest language. 

(3) it has taken words from other languages. 

(4) it has half a million words in it. 


Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 136 to 150) by selecting the most appropriate options. 

Q 136. Continuous Assessment focuses on

(1) Formal assessment 

(2) Informal assessment 

(3) Informal and a combination of both formative and summative 

(4) Outcome and achievement based assessment 


Q 137. ‘Pre-reading’ activity in class is to

(1) connect learner’s previous knowledge with what she learns in the reading text. 

(2) connect learners’ with one another. 

(3) enable learners to know about the story which they would read ahead. 

(4) All of these 


Q 138. Pedagogical Grammar is 

(1) grammar of pedagogy 

(2) grammar for teachers 

(3) grammar in context to connect grammar points with real life context 

(4) grammar with formal rules to be applied while writing 


Q 139. What are these words known as ? – the, of, and, a, to, that, it, with, but, they, she, he 

(1) Sight words 

(2) Form words 

(3) Use words 

(4) Unimportant words 


Q 140. A teacher gives a puzzle to her class VIII students and asks them to solve it by speaking out how they solve it. What is this strategy known as ? 

(1) Speaking aloud 

(2) Think aloud protocol 

(3) Listening 

(4) Picture reading 


Q 141. Sanskrit in India today is a 

(1) Modern Indian language 

(2) Modern Indian language and a classical language 

(3) Religious language 

(4) Hindu language 


Q 142. A teacher of Class-VII asked her students to read a short story and come to the class. She asks them to discuss the major points of the story in groups and present them to the whole class. What is this reading known as ? 

(1) Intensive reading 

(2) Reading with a purpose 

(3) Reading for thinking 

(4) Extensive reading 


Q 143. English does not find its place as a _________. 

(1) first language in the school curriculum 

(2) second language in the school curriculum 

(3) third language in the school curriculum 

(4) medium of instruction 


Q 144. Bottom-up processing in listening is to 

(1) decode messages moving from sounds to words, phrases, clauses and other grammatical elements to sentences.

(2) decode the overall messages of the discourse and move down the micro level units.

(3) encode all the sounds from speaker to listener. 

(4) use multiple ways to decode the messages. 


Q 145. What is the following strategy known as in reading ? 

The text is read more slowly and in detail to get the gist or overall sense of the text. 

(1) Scanning 

(2) Summarising 

(3) Skimming 

(4) Scaffolding 


Q 146. A teacher asks her learners of class-VII to refer to the textbook of History and find a theme which can be connected with English language text for writing an essay. 

What is this practice known as ?

(1) Language and Social Science learning 

(2) Language across the curriculum 

(3) Language in learning 

(4) Language and history integrated learning 


Q 147. Multilingualism as a resource means 

(1) learning many languages in school. 

(2) using the languages of learners as a strategy in school. 

(3) teaching many languages.

(4) promoting of languages through content learning. 


Q 148. Match the types of writing with their corresponding category : 

a. Personal writing i. Letter of complaint 
b. Study writing ii. Diary writing 
c. Creative writingiii. Synopsis writing
d. Public writingiv. Travelogue


Q 149. A teacher divides her class into groups of five and allocates different themes to the groups. The groups have to collect information on the themes and write reports to be presented to the class. What is this activity known as ? 

(1) Assignment 

(2) Project work 

(3) Writing work 

(4) Research 


Q 150. Process approach to writing involves 

(1) Brainstorming, outlining, drafting revising, proof-reading and drafting the final writing. 

(2) Brainstorming, writing the first draft and final writing. 

(3) Outlining, revising and writing the final draft. 

(4) Writing the first draft, revising and developing the final draft. 

CTET December 2019 Paper-I Previous Year Paper




Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 30) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 1. The most critical period of acquisition and development of language is 

(1) prenatal period. 

(2) early childhood. 

(3) middle childhood. 

(4) adolescence. 


Q 2. Which of the following is a stage of moral development proposed by Lawrence Kohlberg ? 

(1) Latency Stage 

(2) The social contract orientation 

(3) Concrete operational stage 

(4) Industry vs. Inferiority stage 


Q 3. During classroom discussions, a teacher often pays more attention to boys than girls. This is an example of 

(1) Gender bias. 

(2) Gender identity. 

(3) Gender relevance. 

(4) Gender constancy. 


Q 4. Which of the following is an effective strategy to reduce children’s gender stereotyping and gender-role conformity ? 

(1) Discussion about gender bias 

(2) Emphasizing gender-specific roles 

(3) Gender-segregated play groups 

(4) Gender-segregated seating arrangement 


Q 5. Which of the following theorists while viewing children as active seekers of knowledge emphasized the influence of social and cultural contents on their thinking ? 

(1) John B. Watson 

(2) Lev Vygotsky 

(3) Jean Piaget 

(4) Lawrence Kohlberg 


Q 6. While working on a jig-saw puzzle, 5 years old Najma says to herself, “Where is the blue piece ? No, not this one, darker one that would go here and make this shoe”. 

 This kind of talk is referred to by Vygotsky as 

(1) private speech. 

(2) talk aloud. 

(3) scaffolding. 

(4) egocentric speech. 


Q 7. Giving cues to children and offering support as and when needed is an example of 

(1) reinforcement. 

(2) conditioning. 

(3) modelling. 

(4) scaffolding. 


Q 8. Which of the following behaviours characterize the ‘concrete operational stage’ as proposed by Jean Piaget ? 

(1) Hypothetico-deductive reasoning; propositional thought 

(2) Conservation; class inclusion 

(3) Deferred imitation; object permanence 

(4) Make-believe play; irreversibility of thought 


Q 9. Which of the following is a Piagetian construct in the context of cognitive development of children ? 

(1) Schemas 

(2) Observational learning 

(3) Conditioning 

(4) Reinforcement 


Q 10. Primary objective of Assessment should be 

(1) assigning rank to students. 

(2) understanding children’s clarity and confusions about related concepts. 

(3) labelling students as per their score. 

(4) marking pass or fail in the report cards. 


Q 11. Which of the following statements about intelligence is correct ? 

(1) Intelligence is a fixed ability determined at the time of birth only. 

(2) Intelligence can be accurately measured and determined by using standardized tests. 

(3) Intelligence is a unitary factor and a single trait. 

(4) Intelligence is multidimensional and a set of complex abilities. 


Q 12. Ruhi always thinks of multiple solutions to a problem many of which are original solutions. Ruhi is displaying characteristics of a/an 

(1) creative thinker. 

(2) convergent thinker. 

(3) rigid thinker. 

(4) egocentric thinker. 


Q 13. In a situation of less participation of students belonging to a deprived group in teaching – learning process, a teacher should 

(1) ask the children to withdraw from school. 

(2) accept this situation as it is. 

(3) lower her expectations from such students. 

(4) reflect on her own teaching and find ways to improve student’s involvement. 


Q 14. In an inclusive classroom, a teacher _________ Individualized Education Plans. 

(1) should not prepare 

(2) should occasionally prepare 

(3) should actively prepare 

(4) should discourage the preparation of 


Q 15. The primary characteristic of children with ‘dyslexia’ includes 

(1) attention deficit disorders. 

(2) divergent thinking; fluency in reading. 

(3) inability to read fluently. 

(4) engaging in repetitive locomotor actions. 


Q 16. The concept of ‘Inclusive Education’ as advocated in the Right to Education Act, 2009 is based on 

(1) the behaviouristic principles. 

(2) a sympathetic attitude towards disabled. 

(3) a rights-based humanistic perspective. 

(4) mainstreaming of the disabled by offering them primarily vocational education. 


Q 17. In the constructivist framework, learning is primarily 

(1) based on rote-memorization. 

(2) centered around reinforcement. 

(3) acquired through conditioning. 

(4) focused on the process of meaning making. 


Q 18. ‘Naive theories’ that children construct about various phenomenon 

(1) should be ignored by the teacher. 

(2) should be punished by the teacher. 

(3) should be ‘replaced’ by correct one through repetitive memorization. 

(4) should be challenged by presenting counter evidence and examples. 


Q 19. Child-centered pedagogy promotes 

(1) exclusive reliance on text books. 

(2) giving primacy to children’s experiences. 

(3) rote memorisation. 

(4) labelling and categorization of students base on ability. 


Q 20. Emotions and cognition are _________ each other. 

(1) completely separate from 

(2) independent of 

(3) inter-woven with 

(4) not related to 


Q 21. Which of the following statements about learning is correct from a constructivist perspective ? 

(1) Learning is the process of reproduction and recall. 

(2) Learning is the process of rote memorization. 

(3) Learning is conditioning of behaviours by repetitive association. 

(4) Learning is the process of construction of knowledge by active engagement. 


Q 22. Presenting students with clear examples and non-examples 

(1) is an effective way to encourage conceptual change. 

(2) leads to confusion in the minds of students. 

(3) causes gaps in their understanding of concepts. 

(4) focuses on procedural knowledge rather than conceptual understanding. 


Q 23. Repeatedly asking children to engage in learning activities either to avoid punishment or to gain a reward 

(1) decreases extrinsic motivation. 

(2) increases intrinsic motivation. 

(3) would encourage children to focus on mastery rather than performance goals. 

(4) decreases children’s natural interest and curiosity involved in learning. 


Q 24. Which of the following practices promote meaningful learning ? 

(i) Corporal punishment 

(ii) Cooperative learning environment 

(iii) Continuous and comprehensive evaluation 

(iv) Constant comparative evaluation 

(1) (i), (ii) 

(2) (ii), (iii) 

(3) (i), (ii), (iii) 

(4) (ii), (iii), (iv) 


Q 25. How can teachers facilitate understanding of complex concepts in children ? 

(1) By delivering a lecture 

(2) By organizing competitive events 

(3) By repetitive mechanical drill 

(4) By providing opportunities for exploration and discussion 


Q 26. A primary school teacher can encourage children to become effective problem solvers by 

(1) offering materialistic rewards for every small tasks. 

(2) emphasizing only on procedural knowledge. 

(3) dismissing and penalizing ‘incorrect answers’. 

(4) encouraging children to make intuitive guesses and then brainstorming on the same. 


Q 27. In which of the following periods does physical growth and development occur at a rapid pace ? 

(1) Infancy and early childhood 

(2) Early childhood and middle childhood 

(3) Middle childhood and adolescence 

(4) Adolescence and adulthood 


Q 28. Which of the following is NOT a principle of development ? 

(1) Development is lifelong. 

(2) Development is modifiable. 

(3) Development is influenced by both heredity and environment. 

(4) Development is universal and cultural contents do not influence it. 


Q 29. The primary cause of individual variations is 

(1) the genetic code received by the individuals from birth parents. 

(2) the inborn characteristics. 

(3) the environmental influences. 

(4) the complex interplay between the heredity and the environment. 


Q 30. Which of the following are examples of secondary socializing agency ? 

(1) Family and neighbourhood 

(2) Family and media 

(3) School and media 

(4) Media and neighbourhood 




Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 31. Three brands of pens A, B and C are available in packets of 10, 12 and 24 respectively. If a shopkeeper wants to buy equal number of pens of each brand, what is the minimum number of packets of each brand, he should buy ? 

(1) A = 10, B = 12, C = 5 

(2) A = 5, B = 12, C = 10 

(3) A = 10, B = 5, C = 12 

(4) A = 12, B = 10, C = 5 


Q 32. The side of a square is 4 cm. It is cut into 4 equal squares. What is the area of each small square ? 

(1) 4 cm2 

(2) 1 cm2 

(3) 16 cm2 

(4) 8 cm2 


Q 33. Which of the following statements is not correct ? 

(1) All prime numbers are odd numbers. 

(2) There are infinitely many prime numbers. 

(3) A prime number has only two factors. 

(4) There are only four single digit prime numbers. 


Q 34. A number that is divisible by all the numbers from 1 to 10 (both inclusive) is

(1) 10 

(2) 100 

(3) 604 

(4) 2520 


Q 35. Ayesha has only ` 5 and ` 10 coins with her. If the total number of coins she has is 25 and the amount of money with her is ` 160, then the number of ` 5 and ` 10 coins with her are 

(1) 18 and 7 respectively 

(2) 10 and 15 respectively 

(3) 15 and 10 respectively 

(4) 20 and 5 respectively 


Q 36. Evaluate : 

 17.5 × 3 – 21 ÷ 7 – 3 × 12.5 

(1) 52.5 

(2) 12 

(3) 120 

(4) 50 


Q 37. One-sixth of the trees in a garden are neem trees. Half of the trees are Ashoka trees and the remaining are eucalyptus trees. If the number of neem trees is five, how many eucalyptus trees are there in the garden ? 

(1) 5 

(2) 10 

(3) 15 

(4) 20 


Q 38. A train leaves Delhi on 29th August, 2019 at 16 : 30 hours and reaches its destination on 31st August at 08 : 45 hours. The total travel time of the journey is 

(1) 36 hours 15 minutes 

(2) 38 hours 45 minutes 

(3) 39 hours 45 minutes 

(4) 40 hours 15 minutes 


Q 39. In which of the following, lengths have been arranged in decreasing order ? 

(1) 8500 mm, 800 cm 8 mm, 80 dm 8 cm, 8 m 

(2) 80 dm 8 cm, 8500 mm, 8 m, 800 cm 8 mm 

(3) 8 m, 80 dm 8 cm, 8500 mm, 800 cm 8 mm 

(4) 8500 mm, 80 dm 8 cm, 800 cm 8 mm, 8 m 


Q 40. A 180 cm long wire is formed into a rectangle. If the width of this rectangle is 30 cm, what is its length ? 

(1) 45 cm 

(2) 60 cm 

(3) 90 cm 

(4) 120 cm 


Q 41. When asked to write 44, some students of grade II wrote it as 404. As a teacher, how will you address this ? 

(1) correct their answer in their copies 

(2) explain principle of exchange using concrete material 

(3) group them with those who have done it correctly 

(4) tell them to find out correct answer 


Q 42. The main purpose of introducing ‘mapping’ in the primary Mathematics curriculum is/are 

A. to promote spatial thinking 

B. to promote proportional reasoning 

C. to make subject easy and interesting 

D. to break the monotony of numbers 

1) A & C 

(2) A & D 

(3) A & B 

(4) B & C 


Q 43. Which of the following topics are not part of primary school Mathematics curriculum as per NCF 2005 ? 

(1) Tessellation 

(2) Symmetry 

(3) Patterns 

(4) Ratio 


Q 44. Which of the following resources/TLM can be used by the teacher to show that two rectangles of different dimensions can have the same area without using formula ? 

A. Scale 

B. Graph paper 

C. Thread 

D. Tiles 

(1) only B 

(2) B & D 

(3) only C 

(4) A & D 


Q 45. Which of the following could be contributing factor to underachievement in mathematics ? 

(1) Gender 

(2) Socio-cultural backbroud 

(3) Nature of Mathematics 

(4) Innate ability of person 


Q 46. Which of the following is the most appropriate strategy to explain that ¼ is less than ⅓? 

(1) using LCM method 

(2) using paper strips 

(3) using Dienes blocks 

(4) using number chart 


Q 47. Which of the following is the most important aspect of making lesson plan while teaching Mathematics to primary school children ? 

(1) following the sequence of text book. 

(2) presenting mathematical concepts in structured manner. 

(3) providing opportunities to students to allow construction of concepts. 

(4) writing activities and questions for reference. 


Q 48. Which of the following can NOT be considered a feature of a constructivist Mathematics classroom ? 

(1) The role of language and dialogue in learning Mathematics is given due attention. 

(2) The teacher acknowledges that students may construct multiple understandings from a given interaction. 

(3) Objective type test items are used as the primary means of assessment. 

(4) Connections between Mathematics and other curricular areas are highlighted. 


Q 49. Which of the following statements is in agreement with the constructionist view of Mathematics ? 

(1) Mathematics is about learning facts. 

(2) Mathematicians are required to discover the ‘truths’. 

(3) Mathematics is entirely objective. 

(4) Visualisation is an important aspect of Mathematics. 


Q 50. Which of the following activities is best suited for the development of spatial understanding among children ? 

(1) Drawing the top view of a bottle 

(2) Locating cities on a map 

(3) Noting the time of moon rise 

(4) Representing numbers on a number line 


Q 51. Which of the following is NOT true with respect to the learning of Mathematics ? 

(1) Ability to perform and excel in Mathematics is innate. 

(2) Teachers’ beliefs about learners have powerful impact on learning outcomes. 

(3) Students’ socio-economic background impacts their performance in Mathematics. 

(4) School’s language of instruction can impact a child’s performance in Mathematics. 


Q 52. Identify the type of the following word problem : 

“I have 6 pencils. Manish has two more than me. How many pencils does Manish have ?” 

(1) Comparison addition 

(2) Comparison subtraction 

(3) Takeaway addition 

(4) Takeaway subtraction 


Q 53. Which of the following is NOT true of the Hindu-Arabic system of numeration ? 

(1) The position of a digit in a number dictates its value. 

(2) It is additive in nature. 

(3) It follows the base 2 system. 

(4) It is multiplicative in nature. 


Q 54. Identify a desirable practice for teaching Geometry at primary level ? 

(1) Geometry at primary level should be limited to recognition of simple basic shapes. 

(2) The teacher should begin by giving clear definitions of simple shapes and showing examples. 

(3) Children should be given ample opportunities to develop an intuitive understanding of space. 

(4) Developing extensive geometric vocabulary need not be an objective at primary level. 


Q 55. Which of the following is an indicator of mathematical reasoning ? 

(1) Ability to provide definitions of mathematical concepts. 

(2) Ability to provide a justification for a mathematical procedure. 

(3) Ability to calculate efficiently. 

(4) Ability to recall the correct formulae in different situations. 


Q 56. The price list of vegetables in a super market is given as follows : 

Item Quantity Price (Rs.) 

Tomato 1 kg 40 Potato 2 kg 25 Carrot 250 g 20 Bottlegourd 1 kg 10 Chillies 100 g 10 Lemon 4 pieces 10 

Sanjay buys 12 kg tomatoes, 1 kg potatoes, 12 kg carrot, 250 g chillies and 6 lemons. He gives a note of Rs. 200 to the bill clerk at the counter. How much money will he get back ? 

(1) Rs. 112.50 

(2) Rs. 87.50 

(3) Rs. 86.50 

(4) Rs. 97.50 


Q 57. The number is

  • I am a 2 digit number. 
  • The digit in tens place and the digit in units place are consecutive prime numbers. 
  • The sum of digits is multiple of 3 and 4. 

(1) 57 

(2) 23 

(3) 35 

(4) 13 


Q 58. The parking rates of car in a railway station parking are depicted as follows : 

(a) Upto 2 hrs – Rs 50 

(b) More than 2 hrs  and upto 5 hrs – Rs 75 

(c) After 5 hrs – Rs 10 per extra hour upto 8 hrs. 

(d) More than 8 hrs and upto 12 hrs – Rs 150 

(e) More than 12 hrs and upto 24 hrs – Rs 250 

Rajeev parks his car at 7.00 a.m. and comes back to pick it up at 4.30 p.m. on the same day. How much money does he have to pay ? 

(1) Rs 135 

(2) Rs 150 

(3) Rs 130 

(4) Rs 100 


Q 59. Which of the following is at third place when the numbers are arranged in ascending order ? 

7.07, 7.70, 7.707, 7.007, 0.77 

(1) 7.70 

(2) 7.007 

(3) 7.07 

(4) 7.707 


Q 60. In a five digit number, the digit at ten’s place is 8, digit at units place is one-fourth of the digit at ten’s place, the digit at thousands place is 0, digit at hundreds place is twice that of units place and the digit at ten thousands place is thrice the digit at unit’s place. What is the number ? 

(1) 64082 

(2) 64028 

(3) 46028 

(4) 60482 




Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 61. A person boarded an express train on 29th November, 2019 at Surat (Gujarat) for Nagarcoil (Kerala). The train departed from Surat at 19:45 hours and reached Nagarcoil at 11:45 hours on 1st December, 2019. If the distance between Surat and Nagarcoil by train route is nearly 2120 km, the average speed of the train during this journey was 

(1) 132.5 km/h 

(2) 60 km/h 

(3) 53 km/h 

(4) 45 km/h 


Q 62. Which one of the following is a weight lifter of international fame ? 

(1) Sunita Williams 

(2) Bachhendri Pal 

(3) Suryamani 

(4) Karnam Malleshwari 


Q 63. Which one of the following is a group of roots ? 

(1) Beetroot, Potato, Ginger 

(2) Carrot, Turmeric, Ginger 

(3) Sweet Potato, Radish, Turmeric 

(4) Carrot, Beetroot, Radish 


Q 64. Desert Oak is a tree which is found in 

(1) Abu Dhabi 

(2) Australia 

(3) desert of Rajasthan 

(4) the desert of UAE 


Q 65. Consider the following statements about Nepenthese, a plant which hunts. 

A. This plant is found in Australia, Indonesia and Meghalaya in India. 

B. It has a pitcher-like shape and the mouth is covered by a leaf. 

C. It can trap and eat only small insects. 

D. It emits a pleasant sound to attract small insects which get trapped and cannot get out. 

The correct statements are 

(1) A and B only 

(2) A and C only 

(3) B and D only 

(4) A, B and C 


Q 66. In which one of the following states of India is Dandi seashore located where Mahatma Gandhi did his famous march before independence ? 

(1) Andhra Pradesh 

(2) Karnataka 

(3) Maharashtra 

(4) Gujarat 


Q 67. High fever with shiver which can be treated with the bark of Cinchona tree is 

(1) typhoid 

(2) malaria 

(3) chikungunya 

(4) dengue 


Q 68. A doctor is located at X and his hospital is located at Y. There is no straight lane from the doctor’s house to the hospital. So, the doctor first goes to A which is 600 m due east of X, then goes to B which is 450 m due south of A, then to C which is 120 m due west of B and finally reaches the hospital at Y which is 90 m due north of C. With respect to the hospital the correct direction of the doctors house is (1) north-east 

(2) north-west 

(3) south-east 

(4) south-west 


Q 69. “Cheraw” is the dance form of the people of 

(1) Jharkhand 

(2) Mizoram 

(3) Manipur 

(4) Meghalaya 


Q 70. Neighbouring states of Tamil Nadu are –

(1) Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Karnataka 

(2) Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra 

(3) Karnataka, Chhattisgarh, Kerala 

(4) Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Karnataka 


Q 71. Which one of the following should NOT be the objective of teaching EVS at primary level as per NCF-2005 ? 

(1) To nurture the curiosity and creativity of the child particularly in relation to the natural environment. 

(2) To engage the child in exploratory and hands on activities to acquire basic cognitive and psychomotor skills through observation, classification, inference, etc. 

(3) To train children to locate and comprehend relationships between the natural, social and cultural environment. 

(4) To develop precise quantitative skills among children through understanding of environmental issues. 


Q 72. EVS for classes-III to V is a subject area which integrates – 

(1) the concepts and issues of Science. 

(2) the concepts and issues of Science, Social studies and Environmental education. 

(3) the concepts and issues of Social science and Science. 

(4) the concepts and issues of Science and Environmental education. 


Q 73. Which of the following is true w.r.t. EVS ? 

(1) EVS is a subject taught from classes I to V. 

(2) For classes I and II, EVS is taught through language and Mathematics. 

(3) For classes II, III and IV, issues and concerns of EVS are taught through language and Mathematics. 

(4) For classes I and II, concerns and issues of EVS are taught through Science and Social science. 


Q 74. Children get lot of space to learn EVS through exploration. This indicates that 

(1) EVS is learnt through rote. 

(2) EVS is learnt through information. 

(3) EVS is child centred. 

(4) EVS is teacher centred. 


Q 75. Which of the following is a subtheme under the theme suggested in the EVS syllabus ? 

(1) Family and Friends 

(2) Food 

(3) Animals 

(4) Things we make and do 


Q 76. Which of the following is a desirable practice for an EVS teacher ? 

(1) Addressing multicultural dimensions of diverse classrooms. 

(2) Encouraging children to provide important information related to the concepts of EVS. 

(3) Linear arrangement of six themes of EVS. 

(4) Relying only in textbooks. 


Q 77. Which of the following is/are important in constructing knowledge in EVS by the children ? 

A. Active participation of children. 

B. Community members of children 

C. Text books of EVS 

D. Description and definition given in the textbook of EVS 

(1) A, B and C 

(2) A and C only 

(3) A, C and D 

(4) C only 


Q 78. Children can be effectively engaged in EVS learning through 

A. Narratives 

B. Stories 

C. Effective explanation of concepts by the teacher 

D. Effective demonstration and explanation of concepts by the teacher 

(1) A, C, D 

(2) A and B only 

(3) C and D only 

(4) A, B and C 


Q 79. Objective/s of EVS teacher who encourages his/her children to observe animals and make pictures on their own is/are to 

A. Develop creativity of children 

B. Develop observation and design skills of children 

C. Develop aesthetic sense of children 

(1) A only 

(2) A and C only 

(3) B only 

(4) A, B and C 


Q 80. In EVS learning of crafts and arts while working in groups, is encouraged because 

A. Group learning is easier and very effective strategy for teachers to tackle the problem of indiscipline of the class. 

B. Group learning promotes peer learning. 

C. Group learning improves social interactions. 

D. Group learning help in completing the syllabus of EVS in time. 

(1) A and D only 

(2) B and D only 

(3) B and C only 

(4) C and D only 


Q 81. Which of the following is/are the most effective resource for EVS learning ? 

A. Family members 

B. Members of the community 

C. Newspapers 

D. Classroom 

(1) D only 

(2) C and D only 

(3) A, B and C 

(4) A and B only 


Q 82. Which of the following principle of learning is followed in EVS ? 

(1) Global to local 

(2) Abstract to concrete 

(3) Unknown to known 

(4) Known to unknown 


Q 83. Which of the following is NOT a tool for Formative Assessment of learning in EVS? 

(1) Portfolio 

(2) Rating scale 

(3) Anecdotal records 

(4) Annual achievement test 


Q 84. Which of the following should be avoided while assessing children in EVS ? 

(1) Judging the answers given by children in terms of right or wrong. 

(2) Discuss “What we have learnt” given at the end of each chapter of EVS textbook of class V 

(3) Use indicators for assessment 

(4) Qualitative assessment of children’s learning 


Q 85. A teacher of class V conducts an activity in which she asks her children to drop some sugar on the ground and asks them to wait until the ants come there. Children can be given meaningful learning from this activity if teacher _____. 

(1) encourages her/his children to observe the activity 

(2) encourages his/her children to share their experiences 

(3) encourages her/his children to observe, share their experiences followed by discussion on the activity. 

(4) encourages her/his children to answer the questions at their home related to the activity. 


Q 86. Consider the following list : Tortoise, Crocodile, Crow, Duck, Fish 

 In this list which one of the following is different from the others ? 

(1) Fish 

(2) Crow 

(3) Crocodile 

(4) Tortoise 


Q 87. The correct match of term of Column-I with that of Column-II is :

Column-I(City/State) Column-II (Most liked food) 
A. Hongkong  I. Boiled tapioca with any cury 
B. Kerala  II. Fish cooked in mustard oil 
C. Kashmir  III. Sea fish cooked in coconut oil 
D. Goa  IV. Chholay Bhature 
  V. Cooked Snakes

(1) A-V; B-II; C-III; D-IV 

(2) A-V; B-I; C-II; D-III 

(3) A-V; B-III; C-II; D-I 

(4) A-III; B-II; C-IV; D-I 


Q 88. Which one of the following bird’s species moves its neck back and forth with a jerk. 

(1) Owl 

(2) Crow 

(3) Barbet 

(4) Mynah 


Q 89. Consider the following description of houses : 

A. In Rajasthan the villagers live in mud houses with roofs of thorny bushes. 

B. In Manali (Himachal Pradesh) houses are made on bamboo pillers 

C. In Leh two floor houses are made of stones. The ground floor is for animals and for storing necessary things. 

The correct statement(s) is/are (1) A and B 

(2) B and C 

(3) A and C 

(4) Only C 


Q 90. Consider the following statements about elephants : 

A. Elephants do not rest very much, they sleep 2 to 4 hours only in a day. 

B. An adult elephant can eat more than 200 kg of leaves and twigs in a day. 

C. They love to play with mud and water, the mud keeps their skin cool. 

D. In elephant herd the oldest female elephant decides everything. 

The correct statements are 

(1) A, B and C 

(2) B, C and D 

(3) C, D and A 

(4) A, B and D 





IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – IV (Q. No. 91-120), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – I only.

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 91 to 99), by selecting the correct/ most appropriate options : 

1. Kangri Karchok, the Kailash Purana of the Tibetans describes the sacred elephant-mouthed river or Langchen Khambab as a long and extensive river that rises from the ‘lake unconquerable’, the Tso Maphan or Manasarovar that flows from the mountainous regions of Tibet. According to this holy book, this cold river with its sands of gold, circles the holy Manasarovar seven times before taking its course to the west. 

2. The Langchen Khambab flows down from the red coloured mountains of the Kanglung Kangri Glacier in the Trans Himalayan region of Tibet, channelling its way through the earth forests of Tholing and Tsparang of the Gugi Kingdom. These earth forests are full of pillars formed by rocks that collectively appear like a forest from afar – an ‘out of the world’ landscape that was formed by geological movements of the earth and erosion by wind and water. The Khyunglung ruins also lies on the northern bank of the Sutlej river in this valley which was once known as the ‘Garuda Valley”. 

3. This mighty river then flows north-west for about 260 km before entering Himachal Pradesh through Shipki La cutting across the formidable Himalayan ranges of Zanskar, the Greater Himalaya and the Dhauladhar. Subsequently, the waters meander through the gigantic Kinnaur Kailash-Jorkanden Range at Reckong Peo creating the terrifying Sutlej gorge. Then it streams into Shimla, Kullu, Mandi and Bilaspur and is responsible for the rich cultivation of grapes, apples and apricots all along its banks. After its confluence with the River Spiti at Khab it is known as Sutlej. 

4. It is 1,448 km in length, making it the longest among the five rivers of Punjab. Extensively used for irrigation, it is topographically divided into the Upper Sutlej Basin and Lower Sutlej Basin. It leaves the Himachal boundary to enter the plains of the Punjab at the Bhakra Dam, the second highest gravity dam and a major point of water supply and electricity generation for the North of India. 


Q 91. What makes the earth forests of Tholing and Tsparang look amazing ? 

(1) The ruins on the banks of the Sutlej. 

(2) Abundance of flora and fauna. 

(3) Cool breeze that makes people feel drowsy. 

(4) Pillars formed by rocks resembling a forest. 


Q 92. Langchen Khambab is a boon for the North of India because : 

(1) it is a major source of water supply and power generation. 

(2) it brings along with it mountain soil and minerals. 

(3) the prosperity of the whole of India depends on it. 

(4) it abounds in aquatic animals. 


Q 93. Read the following sentences : 

A. Kangri Karchok is a holy book of the Tibetans. 

B. Langchen Khambab is responsible for rich cultivation of various types of fruits in the Himachal Pradesh. 

(1) A is true, B is false. 

(2) B is true, A is false. 

(3) Both A and B are true. 

(4) Both A and B are false. 


Q 94. Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word ‘gigantic’ as used in the passage (Para 4) ? 

(1) terrifying 

(2) high 

(3) formidable 

(4) huge 


Q 95. Which one of the following words is the most opposite in meaning to the word ‘sacred’ as used in the passage (Para 1) ? 

(1) pure 

(2) noble 

(3) unholy 

(4) moral 


Q 96. Which part of the following sentence contains an error ? 

I am not in best position to advise you in this matter 

 (b) (c) (d)

(1) (a) 

(2) (b) 

(3) (d) 

(4) (c) 


Q 97. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence : 

 I don’t know why he is so hostile to me. 

(1) Adjective 

(2) Adverb 

(3) Preposition 

(4) Pronoun 


Q 98. ‘Lake unconquerable’ refers to : 

(1) Langchen Khambab river 

(2) Lake Manasarovar 

(3) Lake Rakshatal 

(4) The Sutlej river 


Q 99. According to Kangri Karchok, Langchen Khambab does not/is not 

(1) have sands of gold. 

(2) circle the Manasarovar seven times. 

(3) flow very gently through the hills. 

(4) a cold river. 


Directions : Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 100 to 105) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options : 

Light Brigade 

 By Alfred Tennyson 

Half a league, half a league, 

Half a league onward, 

All in the valley of Death 

Rode the six hundred. 

“Forward the Light Brigade ! 

Charge for the guns !” he said. 

Into the valley of Death 

Rode the six hundred. 

Forward, the Light Brigade!” 

Was there a man dismay’d ? 

Not tho’ the soldier knew 

Some one had blunder’d. 

Theirs not to make reply, 

Theirs not to reason why, 

Theirs but to do and die. 

Into the valley of Death 

Rode the six hundred. 


Q 100. The expression ‘the valley of death’ refers to : 

(1) the place where the dead soldiers are lying buried. 

(2) the impending death of soldiers. 

(3) the house of death. 

(4) a nightmarish place. 


Q 101. Which of the following statements is not true ? 

The military discipline teaches the soldiers : 

(1) to do and die. 

(2) to obey their commander’s order. 

(3) to act tactfully in the battlefield. 

(4) not to ask any question. 


Q 102. Which of the following adjectives does not apply to the soldiers ? 

(1) courageous 

(2) disciplined 

(3) patriotic 

(4) impractical 


Q 103. Name the figure of speech used in ‘the Valley of Death’. 

(1) Metaphor 

(2) Simile 

(3) Synecdoche 

(4) Metonymy 


Q 104. Which literary device is used in the expression, ‘to do and die’ ? 

(1) Assonance 

(2) Alliteration 

(3) Simile 

(4) Personification 


Q 105. In the first stanza of the extract, the soldiers are : 

(1) talking to each other about their personal problems. 

(2) waiting for their commander’s order. 

(3) thinking about the result of the war. 

(4) seen riding fast to the enemy territory. 


Q 106. In the multilingual classroom learners can interact _____. 

(1) in the medium of instruction followed by the school. 

(2) in their own language and can be a mix of words from more than one language. 

(3) only in the language prescribed in three-language formula. 

(4) in the language with which the teacher is familiar. 


Q 107. Diagnostic tests are administered to _____. 

(1) find out deficiencies of the students with a view to planning remedies. 

(2) assess the suitability of a candidate for a specific programme. 

(3) test the language proficiency of students for providing them jobs. 

(4) judge the students’ capabilities. 


Q 108. Structural approach gives more importance to _____. 

(1) speech and reading 

(2) reading only 

(3) speech only 

(4) reading and writing 


Q 109. Which among the following does not come under meaning based activities ? 

(1) Interacting with the text. 

(2) Using previous knowledge. 

(3) Reading the text and then narrating the same to peers. 

(4) Reading out every word aloud and translating it. 


Q 110. _____ comprehension is the skill of reading a piece of text closely or intensely for the purpose of extracting specific information from the text. 

(1) Inferential 

(2) Global 

(3) Local 

(4) Transactional 


Q 111. It is a type of writing in which the teacher provides the situation and helps the class to prepare it. The teacher continuously provides feedback, direction and expansion of ideas to the learners. 

(1) Controlled writing 

(2) Guided writing 

(3) Free writing 

(4) Product writing 


Q 112. A teacher asked the students of class V to read the text thoroughly. Then she asked them to answer the questions with reference to the context (RTC). In this process she is encouraging students for _____. 

(1) skimming 

(2) scanning 

(3) intensive reading 

(4) extensive reading 


Q 113. The term ‘Comprehensible input’ is associated with _____. 

(1) Lev Vygotsky 

(2) Stephen Krashan 

(3) Noam Chomsky 

(4) James Asher 


Q 114. Which one of the following is not a sub skill of reading ? 

(1) Connecting 

(2) Predicting 

(3) Synthesizing 

(4) Transcripting 


Q 115. Which one of the following is least important in enhancing speaking skill of children ? 

(1) Listening patiently to children’s talk. 

(2) Giving them an opportunity to express their feelings and ideas. 

(3) Asking closed ended questions. 

(4) Organizing discussions on a given topic. 


Q 116. At primary level literature is helpful in developing language of learners as : 

(1) it encourages the learners to complete the worksheets based on it. 

(2) it is an authentic material covering various genres. 

(3) it develops teachers’ interpretative, creative and critical abilities. 

(4) it is a good basis for the only expansion of vocabulary. 


Q 117. A teacher prepares a worksheet and removes every seventh word from the text. Then she asks the learners to read the text after that they were asked to complete the worksheet with missing word. The task given on the worksheet is a 

(1) speaking task 

(2) writing task 

(3) cloze test 

(4) open test 


Q 118. ‘Language is arbitrary’ means that _____ 

(1) something is determined by judgement and for a specific reason. 

(2) it is based on a valid reason and not on chance. 

(3) there is a strong relation between the words of a language and their meaning. 

(4) there is no inherent relation between the words of a language and their meaning. 


Q 119. The teacher observed that Pravin could not write a paragraph on her own even after brainstorming the topic. However, she was able to write it under adult or peer guidance. This guidance is called _____. 

(1) Team teaching 

(2) Counselling 

(3) Scaffolding 

(4) Socialization 


Q 120. The purpose of textual exercise is not to 

(1) develop creativity among learners. 

(2) provide opportunity to express themselves. 

(3) memorise the answers to the questions. 

(4) give exposure to language learning. 





IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – V (Q. No. 121-150), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – II only.

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 121 to 128) by choosing the correct/most appropriate options : 

Freedom is one of the most important factors in life. Man has fought politically all over the world for freedom. Religions have promised freedom, not in this world but in another. In the capitalist countries, individual freedom exists to some degree, and in the communist world it has been denied. From ancient times, freedom has meant a great deal to man, and there have been its opponents, not only political but religious through Inquisition, by excommunication, tortures and banishments, and the total denial of man’s search for freedom. There have been wars and counter-wars fought for freedom. This has been the pattern of man’s endeavours for freedom throughout history. 

Freedom of self-expression and freedom of speech and thought exist in some parts of the world, but in others it does not. Those who have been conditioned, revolt against their backgrounds. This reaction which takes different forms is called ‘freedom’. The reaction to politics is often to shun the field of politics. 

One economic reaction is to form small communities based on some ideology or under the leadership of one person, but these soon disintegrate. The religious reaction against established organisations of belief is to revolt, either by joining other religious organisations or by following some guru or leader or by joining some cult. Or one denies the whole religious endeavour. 

One thinks of freedom only as freedom of movement, either physical or movements of thought. It appears that one always seeks freedom on the surface. Surely, this is rather a limited freedom, involving a great deal of conflict, wars and violence. 

Inner freedom is something entirely different. It has its roots not in the idea of freedom but in the reality of freedom. It covers all the endeavours of man. Without inner freedom life will always be an activity within the limited circle of time and conflict. 

Q 121. Which methods do authorities not use to suppress people fighting for freedom ? 

(1) Inquisition 

(2) Excommunication 

(3) Persuasion 

(4) Tortures 


Q 122. Reaction against established religion prompts people not to : 

(1) join other religious organisations. 

(2) to start a new religion. 

(3) follow some guru. 

(4) join some cult. 


Q 123. Real freedom, according to the author, is 

(1) economic freedom. 

(2) inner freedom. 

(3) political freedom. 

(4) religious freedom. 


Q 124. Read the following sentences : 

A. Individual freedom does not exist at all in capitalist countries. 

B. People do not have individual freedom in communist countries. 

(1) A is false, B is true. 

(2) A is true, B is false. 

(3) Both A and B are true. 

(4) Both A and B are false. 


Q 125. Which word is most similar in meaning to the word ‘endeavours’ as used in the passage ? (Para 1) 

(1) movements 

(2) attempts 

(3) actions 

(4) challenges 


Q 126. Which word is the most opposite in meaning to the word, ‘shun’ as used in the passage ? (Para 2) 

(1) prefer 

(2) rehabilitate 

(3) welcome 

(4) rejoice 


Q 127. Which part of the following sentence contains an error ? 

There is no doubt that hard work paves the way to success. 

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (d) 

(2) (a) 

(3) (b) 

(4) (c) 


Q 128. Which of the following statements is not true ? 

(1) Man can enjoy life only in an environment of freedom. 

(2) Material progress cannot be achieved without freedom. 

(3) Freedom is not one of the most important factors in life. 

(4) Freedom helps man evolve morally and spiritually. 


Directions : Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 129 to 135) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Water is the core of life; hence water must be central to our spiritual thinking. Water is not only most of earth, but also most of life. Therefore water conservation must be our deepest concern. 

The Himalayan mountain range is among the highest, youngest and most fragile ecosystems of the planet. The Himalayas have given us some of the great river systems of the earth including the Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra, Nu Salween, Yangtze and the Mekong. The Himalayas are also called the ‘Third Pole’, for they contain the largest mass of ice and snow outside the earth’s polar region, the north and south poles. There is a permanent snowline above 5,000 metres. Some of the glaciers in the region are the longest outside the two poles. 

The Himalayas serve as water towers, providing water on a sustained basis to more than 1,000 million people and millions of hectares of land in South Asia. The greenery, benevolent climate, highly productive ecosystems, food production and overall happiness in South Asia are in fact, attributable to the bounty of the Himalayas. They are not only beautiful; they are life-givers. Little wonder that they are venerated as the abode of gods. 

To keep the Third Pole preserved through assured conservation is one of the greatest challenges for the contemporary world. Himalayan mountains are a common but

fragile natural resource. As mountain ecosystems have enormous bearing on the earth’s systems, their special care, regeneration and conservation of their pristine resources would only bring more happiness, peace and prosperity to large parts of the world. In Agenda 21, Chapter 13 of the United Nations, the importance of mountains is underlined : “mountain environments are essential to the survival of global ecosystems.” 

The Himalayas in the state of Uttarakhand are especially rich in water resources. This area is home to dozens of perennial streams and numerous other rain-fed rivers along with innumerable rivulets, waterfalls and ponds, etc. 


Q 129. Which of the following has not been mentioned in the passage ? 

(1) The Himalayas provide us with highly productive eco-systems. 

(2) The Himalayas provide water to more than 1000 million people. 

(3) The Himalayas irrigate millions of hectares of land. 

(4) The Himalayas form the back bone of our tourism industry. 


Q 130. Which of the following is false ? 

(1) The Himalayan mountains are a fragile resource. 

(2) Climate change has little effect on the Himalayas. 

(3) They bring prosperity to large parts of the world. 

(4) They have some of the longest glaciers. 


Q 131. What is not so special about the Himalayas in the state of Uttarakhand ? The Himalayan state has : 

(1) many perennial streams. 

(2) huge mineral deposits. 

(3) many rain fed rivers. 

(4) numerous waterfalls and ponds. 


Q 132. Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word, ‘bounty’ ? 

(1) generosity 

(2) assets 

(3) sympathy 

(4) abundance 


Q 133. Which word is opposite in meaning to the word, ‘benevolent’ ? 

(1) malevolent 

(2) rude 

(3) untruthful 

(4) indecent 


Q 134. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ? 

The area is home to dozens of perennial streams. 

(1) Noun 

(2) Adverb 

(3) Adjective 

(4) Pronoun 


Q 135. In the context of the passage which of the following is not true ? 

Water should be central to our thinking because : 

(1) We cannot survive without water. 

(2) It is a life-line for our farmers. 

(3) It is considered holy by most religions. 

(4) It is the core of life. 


Q 136. A teacher wants to create a language rich environment in her class. She should : 

(1) establish a language lab in her class. 

(2) motivate parents to buy language games and activities. 

(3) provide an opportunity where the language is seen, noticed and used by children. 

(4) ask students to use only English while communicating in the class with peers. 


Q 137. Literature for children is considered as a/an _____ reading. 

(1) additional burden on 

(2) authentic source of 

(3) hindrance material for 

(4) inspirational source of 


Q 138. Which one of the following is not a form of literature for children ? 

(1) Picture books 

(2) Thesaurus 

(3) Myths and legends 

(4) Tales of heroes of history 


Q 139. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Print Rich Environment ? 

(1) It consists of context-based relevant material for children such as pictures, rhymes, stories etc. 

(2) Once the material is pasted on walls, it should not be removed for the whole session. 

(3) Pictures / posters give children an opportunity to talk about things, persons and happenings. 

(4) Encourage children to create their own poems, posters, stories etc. and display them in the class. 


Q 140. A teacher gives a task of dialogue completion to class V students. The role of this task in language learning will be ________ 

(1) teaching of structures. 

(2) the separation of spoken and written forms of language. 

(3) to facilitate conversation by giving specific language practice using formulaic expressions. 

(4) to provide frequent feedback only on grammatical errors. 


Q 141. Using ‘realia’ in the language class means bringing _____. 

(1) real life situations to communicate. 

(2) real objects as teaching aids. 

(3) realistic objectives and targets for the learners. 

(4) real level of child’s learning to the knowledge of parents. 


Q 142. The multilingual nature of the Indian class-room must be used as a resource so that ________. 

(1) every child feels secure and accepted. 

(2) every child learns at the same pace. 

(3) children can learn many languages. 

(4) the teacher develops language proficiency. 


Q 143. An English textbook for class I starts with pictures, poems and stories and ends with alphabets in the end. Which approach does this kind of arrangement reflect in language pedagogy ? 

(1) Eclectic approach 

(2) Bottom-up approach 

(3) Top down approach 

(4) Language across curriculum approach 


Q 144. While checking the notebooks the teacher observed that a child has repeatedly made some errors in writing such as reverse image as b – d, m – w. The child is showing the signs of _____. 

(1) learning preference 

(2) learning style 

(3) learning disability 

(4) learning differences 


Q 145. A teacher is telling a story with actions and gestures to class III students. After this she asked them to draw pictures on the story in groups. Why do you think she asked them to draw pictures on the story ? 

(1) She wanted to assess their colouring and drawing skills. 

(2) She had completed her lesson as per her lesson plan so, she engaged them in drawing. 

(3) She wanted to assess their comprehension of the story. 

(4) She wanted to see the participation of children while drawing. 


Q 146. Active vocabulary consists of words which are _____. 

(1) used occasionally 

(2) difficult to pronounce 

(3) used frequently 

(4) phonological and lexical 


Q 147. The major aim of teaching poetry is _____. 

(1) vocabulary development. 

(2) enjoyment and appreciation. 

(3) development of grammar. 

(4) making learners to became poets. 


Q 148. Morpheme is the 

(1) smallest unit of a word. 

(2) smallest unit of meaning that cannot be broken up. 

(3) unit of a word that can be broken up into new meaning. 

(4) smallest unit of a phrase. 


Q 149. A teacher of class II uses learner’s knowledge and language to build a bridge between his mother tongue and English language teaching. Here learner’s language is used in teaching English as a _____. 

(1) hindrance 

(2) translation 

(3) resource 

(4) pattern 


Q 150. BICS stands for 

(1) Bilingual Integrated Content and Syllabus 

(2) Bilingual Interdependent Course and Syllabus 

(3) Basic Interrelated Communication Strategies 

(4) Basic Interpersonal Communicative Skills 

CTET December 2019 Paper-II Previous Year Paper




Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 30) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 1. Noor forgot to bring her tiffin to school and asked Tanya to share her tiffin saying “You should share your tiffin with me today because I shared my tiffin with you yesterday”. According to Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, Noor’s statements represent _________ orientation typical at _________ stage. 

(1) law and order ; post-conventional 

(2) obedience ; pre-conventional 

(3) being nice ; conventional 

(4) exchange ; conventional 


Q 2. Widely held beliefs about typified characteristics deemed appropriate for different sexes in the society are referred to as 

(1) gender discrimination. 

(2) gender roles. 

(3) gender identity. 

(4) gender stereotypes. 


Q 3. Recently there have been conscious efforts to include stories in curriculum where father is involved in household works and mother is doing adventure activities. This move is important because 

(1) it aims to strengthen gender bias. 

(2) it aims to eliminate gender stereotyping. 

(3) it aims to encourage gender constancy. 

(4) it aims to increase gender discrimination. 


Q 4. According to Vygotsky, when adults adjust the support to extend the child’s current level of performance, it is called 

(1) discovery learning. 

(2) zone of proximal development. 

(3) scaffolding. 

(4) inter-subjectivity. 


Q 5. According to Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, hypothetico deductive reasoning develops during 

(1) sensori-motor stage. 

(2) pre-operational stage. 

(3) concrete operational stage. 

(4) formal operational stage. 


Q 6. According to _________, it is important to understand the social processes and influence of the cultural context on children’s thinking. 

(1) Lawrence Kohlberg 

(2) Jean Piaget 

(3) Lev Vygotsky 

(4) Albert Bandura 


Q 7. Drawing implications from Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, a teacher of grade 6-8 in his classroom should 

(1) discourage use of logical arguments. 

(2) present problems that require reasoning based solutions. 

(3) use only concrete materials to teach a concept. 

(4) rely solely on prescribed syllabus. 


Q 8. As per Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligence, what would be the characteristics of a person with ‘Logico-mathematical’ intelligence ? 

(1) Sensitivity to the sounds, rhythms and meaning of words 

(2) Ability to perceive visual-spatial world accurately 

(3) Ability to produce and appreciate pitch, rhythm and aesthetic quality of musical expressiveness 

(4) Sensitivity to and capacity to detect patterns, handle long chains of reasoning 


Q 9. The process by which children develop habits, skills, values and motives that make them responsible, productive members of society is called 

(1) socialization. 

(2) inclusion. 

(3) mainstreaming. 

(4) differentiation. 


Q 10. Which of the following statements about the role of heredity and environment in human development is correct ? 

(1) The only reason for individual differences is heredity. 

(2) Environmental influences totally shape the development of a human. 

(3) Neither heredity nor environment influence human development. 

(4) Heredity and environment both influence human development in a complex interplay. 


Q 11. In a progressive classroom 

(1) knowledge is constructed by the learner. 

(2) knowledge is received passively by the learner. 

(3) knowledge is reproduced by the learner as it is. 

(4) knowledge is recalled by the learner as per instructions of the teacher. 


Q 12. Continuous and comprehensive evaluation includes 

(1) only formative assessment 

(2) only summative assessment 

(3) neither formation nor summative assessment 

(4) both formative and summative assessments using a wide variety of strategies. 


Q 13. A student in your class has been told again and again from different sources that people from his social group typically perform poorly in academics. To reduce the impact of this stereotype and resultant stereotype threat, a teacher’s initial step can be : 

(1) ignoring such concerns. 

(2) organizing competition between students from different social groups. 

(3) suggesting the student to leave academics and join some other domain. 

(4) presenting stories and examples of role models from different social groups. 


Q 14. In an inclusive classroom, a teacher should 

(1) believe that every child has a potential to learn as per their abilities and strength. 

(2) show an attitude of pity and sympathy towards disabled learners. 

(3) use labels such as ‘handicapped child’, ‘retarded child’ to categorize children. 

(4) pay attention only to the gifted and talented children. 


Q 15. A student shows the following signs in the classroom : 

– Anxiety around reading 

– Difficulty in recognizing words or letters 

– Poor vocabulary skills

– Difficulty with understanding or remembering what was read 

These are an indication of 

(1) an autistic student. 

(2) a creative student. 

(3) a student with learning disability. 

(4) a student with ‘mental impairment’. 


Q 16. A teacher can address needs of specially abled learners in an inclusive classroom by 

(1) emphasizing upon practice and drill and using paper-pencil tests for assessment. 

(2) following uniform ways of instructing the students. 

(3) giving a lot of written homework and stressing on copying of answers from other ‘bright students’. 

(4) developing specific learning objectives based on an analysis of each student’s learning strengths and weaknesses. 


Q 17. A teacher can encourage creative learners in her classroom by 

(1) emphasizing convergent thinking. 

(2) discouraging divergent thinking. 

(3) encouraging multiple perspectives and appreciating original ideas. 

(4) discouraging the students from taking risks and undertaking challenges. 


Q 18. Which of the following factors supports meaningful learning in the classroom ? 

(1) Increasing number of tests to motivate children to learn 

(2) Increasing rewards to motivate children to learn 

(3) Following only the lecture mode of instruction 

(4) Showing genuine interest in the content matter and having concern for children’s overall well-being and learning.


Q 19. An example of effective problem solving strategy is 

(1) Not paying any attention to evaluating the solution. 

(2) Functional fixedness – focusing on only the conventional function of an object. 

(3) Response set – getting stuck on one way of representing a problem. 

(4) Means-end analysis – dividing the problem into number of sub-goals. 


Q 20. Which of the following is NOT an effective strategy for teaching-learning ? 

(1) Encouraging children to make intuitive guesses 

(2) Experimentation and exploration 

(3) Dialogue and discussion 

(4) Focusing on reproduction of knowledge as given 


Q 21. How can teachers deal with children who are non-attentive in the classroom ? 

(1) Ask the children to go out of the class. 

(2) Scold them frequently in front of the entire class. 

(3) Talk to them and find out reasons for their disinterest. 

(4) Give them a lot of worksheets as homework. 


Q 22. Constructivist approach suggests that _________ is crucial for constructing knowledge. 

(1) prior knowledge of the learner 

(2) conditioning 

(3) punishment 

(4) rote memorization 


Q 23. Children construct ‘naive theories’ about various phenomenon. In this background a teacher should 

(1) challenge these conceptions of the children through dialogue. 

(2) dismiss these ideas that children have. 

(3) ignore children’s ideas and theories. 

(4) scold the children for having these ideas that interfere with her teaching. 


Q 24. The relationship between cognition and emotions is 

(1) independent of each other. 

(2) uni-directional – emotions influence cognition. 

(3) uni-directional – cognition influences emotions. 

(4) bi-directional – a dynamic interplay between both. 


Q 25. Which of the following factors affect learning ? 

(i) Interest of the student 

(ii) Emotional health of the student 

(iii) Pedagogical strategies 

(iv) Social and cultural context of the student 

(1) (i), (ii) 

(2) (ii), (iii) 

(3) (i), (ii), (iii) 

(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) 


Q 26. _________ are an important aspect of the process of meaningful construction of knowledge. 

(1) Social interactions 

(2) Drill and repetitive recall 

(3) Rewards and punishment 

(4) Stimulus-response associations 


Q 27. When students repeatedly engage in an activity (such as design and conduct an experiment) to earn a reward that is not directly related to that activity (such as earn a ‘star’ or ‘badge’) they are likely to 

(1) develop materialistic attitude towards learning. 

(2) enjoy learning for the sake of understanding. 

(3) persist in doing the activity even without the reward. 

(4) set mastery goals for themselves rather than work to please others. 


Q 28. The concept of childhood is 

(1) universally the same across different cultural contexts. 

(2) a social construction according to contemporary socio-constructivist theorists. 

(3) that children are born evil and have to be civilized. 

(4) that children begin with nothing at all and their characteristics are shaped entirely by environment. 


Q 29. Which of the following characterize the period of ‘middle childhood’ ? 

(1) Physical growth and development occur at a very rapid pace. 

(2) Ability to think abstractly and use of scientific reasoning develops. 

(3) Children begin to think logically but concretely. 

(4) Learning occurs primarily through sensory and motor activities. 


Q 30. Family and neighbourhood are 

(1) psychological agencies for children. 

(2) primary socializing agencies. 

(3) middle socializing agencies. 

(4) secondary socializing agencies. 

IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part – II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part – III (Social Studies / Social Science).



Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 31. How many pairs of twin primes are there between the integers 1 to 100 ? 

(1) 5 

(2) 6 

(3) 7 

(4) 8 


Q 32. If 21168 = 2a × 3b × 7c, where a, b and c are natural numbers, then what is the value of (4a – 5b + c) ? 

(1) 0 

(2) 1 

(3) 2 

(4) 3 


Q 33. Let x be the least number which when divided by 8, 12, 20, 28, 35 leaves a remainder 5 in each case. What is the sum of digits of x ? 

(1) 11 

(2) 14 

(3) 15 

(4) 17 


Q 34. What number should be subtracted from each of 50, 61, 92, 117 so that the numbers, so obtained in this order, are in proportion ? 

(1) 14 

(2) 17 

(3) 19 

(4) 23 


Q 35. A sum of Rs. 1,710 is divided in A, B and C such that 4 times of A, 6 times of B and 9 times of C are equal. What is the difference between A and C ? 

(1) Rs. 360 

(2) Rs. 450 

(3) Rs. 480 

(4) Rs. 540 


Q 36. The number of fruits in baskets A and B are in the ratio 7 : 9. If six fruits are taken out from A and put in B, then this ratio becomes 1 : 3. The total number of fruits in A and B is 

(1) 28 

(2) 32 

(3) 36 

(4) 40 


Q 37. ΔABC and ΔADB are on the common base AB and on the same side of AB. DA⊥AB, CB⊥AB and AC = BD. Which of the following is true ? 

(1) ΔABC ≅ ΔABD 

(2) ΔABC ≅ ΔADB 

(3) ΔABC ≅ ΔBAD 

(4) ΔABC ≅ ΔBDA 


Q 38. The sides of four triangles are given below : 

(i) 20 cm, 22 cm, 24 cm 

(ii) 15 cm, 32 cm, 37 cm 

(iii) 11 cm, 60 cm, 61 cm 

(iv) 19 cm, 40 cm, 41 cm 

Which of them forms a right triangle ? 

(1) (i) 

(2) (ii) 

(3) (iii) 

(4) (iv) 


Q 39. The angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7 : 9. What is the difference between the least and the greatest angles of the quadrilateral ? 

(1) 500

(2) 600 

(3) 720 

(4) 900 


Q 40. The perimeter of a triangle is 12 cm. If all the three sides have lengths (in cm), in integers, then how many such different triangles are possible ? 

(1) 2 

(2) 3 

(3) 4 

(4) 5 


Q 41. A godown is in the shape of a cuboid whose length, breadth and height are 56 m, 42 m and 10 m respectively. How many (maximum) cuboidal boxes each measuring 2.8 m × 2.5 m × 70 cm can be stored into the godown ? 

(1) 2400 

(2) 3600 

(3) 4800 

(4) 5400 


Q 42. The circumference of the base of a right circular cylinder is 528 cm and its height is 2 m. What is the volume of the cylinder ? (Take π = 22/7)

(1) 2.2176 m3 

(2) 3.3264 m3 

(3) 4.4352 m3 

(4) 6.6528 m3 


Q 43. The area of a quadrilateral is 227.2 cm2 and the length of the perpendiculars from the opposite vertices to a diagonal are 7.2 cm and 8.8 cm. What is the length of the diagonal ? 

(1) 26.8 cm 

(2) 28.4 cm 

(3) 30.2 cm 

(4) 32.6 cm 


Q 44. If 5(3x + 4) – 8(6x + 7) = 9x – 8, then what is the value of (x2 – 2x + 1) ? 

(1) ⅔ 

(2) 4/9  

(3) 5/3  

(4) 25/9 


Q 45. What is the value of  a(a + b2 + c) + b2(a2 + b2 + c2) – c(a + b2), when a = 1, b = –3 and c = –2 ? 

(1) 138 

(2) 154 

(3) 162 

(4) 176 


Q 46. The expression (x – y) (x2 + xy + y2) + (x + y) (x2 – xy + y2) – (x + y) (x2 – y2) is equal to 

(1) x3 – y3 + xy(x + y) 

(2) y3 – x3 + xy(y + x) 

(3) x3 + y3 + xy(y – x) 

(4) x3 + y3 + xy(x – y) 


Q 47. What is the mean of the median, mode and range for the data given below ? 

11, 25, 0, 8, 25, 30, 44, 50, 30, 18, 20, 17, 11, 9, 24, 25, 29 

(1) 31 

(2) 32 

(3) 33 

(4) 34 


Q 48. A mathematical theorem is 

(1) a statement that has been proven by logical arguments based on axioms. 

(2) a statement which is always true and doesn’t need proof. 

(3) a statement whose truth or falsity is not known. 

(4) is a statement without sufficient evidence for proof. 


Q 49. “Things which are equal to the same thing are equal to one another.” This axiom which is basis to arithmetic and algebra is given by 

(1) Euclid 

(2) Pythagoras 

(3) Descartes 

(4) Euler 


Q 50. Which of the following can be used as assessment strategy to encourage interdisciplinary in Mathematics ? 

A. Projects 

B. Field trips 

C. Anecdotal records 

D. Olympiad 

(1) A & B 

(2) A & C 

(3) B & C 

(4) C & D 


Q 51. Which method can be used to prove “The sum of two even integers is always even” ? 

(1) Proof by induction 

(2) Direct proof 

(3) Proof by contradiction 

(4) Counter positive proof 


Q 52. Which of the following skills are promoted by mathematics at upper primary stage ? 

 A. Visualisation 

 B. Transposition 

 C. Memorisation 

 D. Generalisation 

 E. Estimation 

(1) A, B, D, E 

(2) A, B, C, D 

(3) B, C, D, E 

(4) A, C, D, E 


Q 53. Which of the following tasks is least likely to develop critical thinking among students ? 

(1) Evaluate 72 × 73 in three different ways and compare the result. 

(2) Formulate any two situations to represent the equation 7x + 3 = 24. 

(3) A student calculated the volume of a right circular cylinder of radius 3.5 cm and height 10 cm as 38.5 cm3. Where did she go wrong ? 

(4) Calculate the volume of a right circular cylinder of radius 3.5 cm and height 10 cm. 


Q 54. Which of the following aligns with the overall objective of achieving ‘Mathematics for All’ as per NCF 2005 ? 

(1) It should be acknowledged that mathematics is meant for selected few students. 

(2) Textbooks should only include problems of average difficulty. 

(3) Contributions of mathematicians from different regions and different social groups should be highlighted. 

(4) Mathematically talented students should be groomed in isolation. 


Q 55. Which of the following is considered as a characteristic of an effective mathematics classroom ? 

(1) Group work and group problem solving is discouraged. 

(2) It is emphasized that mathematics is essentially a concrete subject. 

(3) Multiple ways of approaching a problem are encouraged. 

(4) Steps for solving a new problem are neatly demonstrated on the board by the teacher. 


Q 56. Which of the following is a desirable practice in the context of teaching and learning of measurement of volume ? 

(1) Begin by writing the formula of volume of a cube. 

(2) Encourage precise calculation right from the beginning. 

(3) Begin by introducing students to the volume of 2-D figures. 

(4) Encourage students to figure out ways to calculate the volume of different objects. 


Q 57. Which of the following is NOT true according to Piaget’s view of children’s understanding of space ? 

(1) Progression of geometric ideas follows a definite order. 

(2) Progression of Geometric ideas follows a historical rather than a logical order. 

(3) Early understanding of space is formed by child’s sensory motor experiences. 

(4) Co-ordination of different visual and tactile experiences is required for understanding projective space. 


Q 58. If –12 × (–3) + [20 ÷ (–4) – (–24) ÷ 8] – [16 ÷ (–2)] = (–28 ÷ 7) + x,  then the value of x is 

(1) 29 

(2) 39 

(3) 46 

(4) 47 


Q 59. If an 8-digit number 30x0867y is divisible by 88, then what is the value of (3x + y) ? 

(1) 4 

(2) 5 

(3) 6 

(4) 7 


Q 60. The value of 

6⅔ ÷ 2½ × 3¾ – 5½ × 4¼ + 1⅔ (⅞ + ¾ × ⅔) is 

(1) -11112

(2) 11112

(3) 612

(4) -612


Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 61. ‘X’ is a chemical present in our stomach and is necessary for digestion of food. When ‘X’ is secreted in excess, it causes health problems like indigestion. ‘Y’ is a chemical used to treat this condition. What could be ‘X’ and ‘Y’ ? 

(1) X is hydrochloric acid & Y is sodium carbonate. 

(2) X is milk of magnesia & Y is hydrochloric acid. 

(3) X is hydrochloric acid & Y is milk of magnesia. 

(4) X is milk of magnesia & Y is ascorbic acid. 


Q 62. In which of the following processes, Bacteria is NOT used ? 

(1) Formation of curd 

(2) Baking of bread 

(3) Fermentation of Sugarcane juice 

(4) Nitrogen fixation 


Q 63. Which of the following is different from the rest ? 

(1) Deforestation 

(2) Desertification 

(3) Erosion 

(4) Conservation 


Q 64. Which of the following statements is NOT correct ? 

(1) Digestion is a chemical change. 

(2) Photosynthesis is a chemical change. 

(3) Respiration is a chemical change. 

(4) Crystallisation is a chemical change. 


Q 65. Which of the following represents an ascending order as per the size of particles ? 

(1) Rock, Clay, Sand, Gravel, Silt 

(2) Clay, Silt, Sand, Gravel, Rock 

(3) Silt, Clay, Sand, Gravel, Rock 

(4) Rock, Gravel, Sand, Silt, Clay 


Q 66. The function of gills in the fish is to 

(1) take in oxygen from air 

(2) absorb nutrients present in water 

(3) absorb dissolved oxygen from water 

(4) excrete waste into water 


Q 67. Which of the following can be used to complete an electric circuit if one runs out of connecting wire ? 

(1) A paper strip 

(2) A rubber belt 

(3) A wooden stick 

(4) A blade 


Q 68. Manjula is observing her image in a plane mirror. The distance between herself and the mirror is 5 m. She moves 1 m towards the mirror. The distance between herself and her image now is 

(1) 1 m 

(2) 4 m 

(3) 8 m 

(4) 10 m 


Q 69. A pendulum oscillates 30 times in 3 seconds. Choose the correct statement from among the following : 

(1) It’s time period is 10 s and frequency 3Hz. 

(2) It’s time period is 0.1 s and frequency is 10 Hz. 

(3) It’s time period is 10 s and frequency is 0.3 Hz. 

(4) It’s time period is 0.3 s and frequency is 0.3 Hz. 


Q 70. Identify the incorrect statement. 

(1) Ball bearings are used to increase friction between parts of a machine. 

(2) Friction between two surfaces in contact can never be eliminated on earth. 

(3) Rolling friction is less than sliding friction. 

(4) The friction force on an object moving through a fluid depends upon its shape. 


Q 71. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 

A. Iron can replace zinc from zinc sulphate solution. 

B. Zinc can replace copper from copper sulphate solution. 

C. Copper can replace Iron from Iron sulphate solution. 

(1) Only A 

(2) Only B 

(3) A and B 

(4) B and C 


Q 72. Identify the correct statement from among the following : 

(1) Clinical Thermometer can be used to measure the temperature of boiling liquids. 

(2) Room thermometers have a range from 30 ºC to 100 ºC. 

(3) Laboratory thermometers have a range from 35 ºC to 42 ºC. 

(4) The range of a laboratory thermometer is greater than that of a clinical thermometer. 


Q 73. Identify the incorrect statements. 

(1) The calorific value of Kerosene is more than that of Coal. 

(2) The calorific value of coal is more than that of Wood. 

(3) The calorific value of Biogas is more than that of LPG. 

(4) The calorific value of CNG is more than that of Diesel. 


Q 74. A bus travels at a speed of 50 km/h for 12 minutes & then at a speed of 40 km/h for the next 18 minutes. Total distance covered by the bus during this time is – 

(1) 20 km 

(2) 22 km 

(3) 24 km 

(4) 28 km 


Q 75. Identify the incorrect statement from among the following : 

(1) The motion of earth around its axis is periodic motion. 

(2) The motion of light is rectilinear motion. 

(3) The motion of plucked string of a sitar is oscillatory motion. 

(4) All periodic motions are circular motions. 


Q 76. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding image formation in plane minor ? 

A. Image is erect. 

B. Image is real. 

C. Image is laterally inverted. D. The image size is same that of object. 

(1) A, B, C 

(2) A, C, D 

(3) B, C, D 

(4) A, B, D 


Q 77. Which of the following is a NOT true w.r.t. the nature of Science ? 

(1) Science is an interdisciplinary area of learning. 

(2) Science is always tentative. 

(3) Science promotes scepticism. 

(4) Science is equivalent to a set of facts. 


Q 78. As per NCF 2005, good Science education should be the 

(1) true to science teacher 

(2) true to the child 

(3) true to the environment of the school. 

(4) true to the classroom culture 


Q 79. Which of the following validities of a good science education curriculum is satisfied by Activity and Experiment ? 

(1) Cognitive 

(2) Historical 

(3) Environmental 

(4) Process 


Q 80. Anu took her class VIII children to field trip. Which of the following could be the most appropriate objective/s for this activity ? 

A. It encourages interaction among children. 

B. It promotes process skills through concrete experiences. 

C. It enhances observation skills among the children. 

D. It breaks the monotony of class as well as of teacher. 

(1) A, B and C 

(2) B and C only 

(3) A, C and D 

(4) A and C only 


Q 81. Which of the following should NOT be an objective of science education at the upper primary level ? 

(1) Nurturing the natural curiosity of children. 

(2) Inculcating the values of co-operation and concern for life. 

(3) Cultivating scientific temper. 

(4) Emphasising the textbook definitions of concepts. 


Q 82. Which of the following can enhance critical thinking among children ? 

(1) Asking children to read science textbook in the class. 

(2) Asking children to read the extended learning given at the end of the textbook. 

(3) Asking children to discuss among themselves in groups followed by sharing in large group. 

(4) Demonstration of experiments by the teacher. 


Q 83. A teacher begins the class by demonstrating the chemical test of starch in a given sample of food. The cognitive process associated with the underlined word in the above statement is 

(1) Creating 

(2) Analysing 

(3) Applying 

(4) Understanding 


Q 84. Which of the following activities will NOT provide for active learning among children? 

(1) Establishing science club 

(2) Organisation of field trip 

(3) Developing a science corner 

(4) Listening to a lecture in class 


Q 85. Which of the following is used for finding the learning gaps of learners in Science ? 

A. Concept map 

B. Anecdotal record 

C. Portfolio 

D. Term end achievement test 

(1) D only 

(2) A and D 

(3) A, B and C 

(4) B, C and D 


Q 86. Which of the following tools is based on the technique of observation ? 

(1) Oral test 

(2) Written test 

(3) Paper-pencil test 

(4) Anecdotal record 


Q 87. Which of the following statements are correct ? 

A. Pashmina shawl is made from hair of goats. 

B. Angora is a type of wool obtained from Rabbits. 

C. Camel wool is used to make carpets. 

D. Pashmina wool is obtained from rabbits. 

(1) A & C 

(2) A & B 

(3) B & C 

(4) C & D 


Q 88. Identity the animal on the basis of features listed below : 

A. Long back bone 

B. Many muscles 

C. Body curves into many loops for moving forward 

(1) Snake 

(2) Earthworm 

(3) Snail 

(4) Hook worm 


Q 89. Which of the following statement is NOT true ? 

(1) All arteries carry oxygen rich blood. 

(2) All arteries carry oxygen from heart to other parts. 

(3) Arteries have thick walls. 

(4) Arteries have elastic walls. 


Q 90. Which of the following represents correct matching order ? 

A. Acetic acid I. Curd 

B. Lactic acid II. Spinach 

C. Oxalic acid III. Citrus fruits 

D. Ascorbic acid IV. Vinegar 

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 

(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 

(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III 

(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 

IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do Question Nos. 31 to 90 EITHER from Part – II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part – III (Social Studies / Social Science).



Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q  31. Which of the following are block mountains ? 

(1) Himalayas

(2) Appalachians 

(3) Ural 

(4) Vosges 


Q 32. Statement (A) : Only one side of the moon is visible to us on Earth. 

Statement (B) : The moon moves around the Earth in about 27 days and takes exactly the same time to complete 1 spin. 

Select the correct option from the given alternatives. 

(1) Both (A) and (B) are true and (B) is the correct explanation of (A). 

(2) Both (A) and (B) are true, but (B) is not the correct explanation of (A). 

(3) (A) is true, but (B) is false. (4) (A) is false, but (B) is true. 


Q 33. Consider the statements A, B, C on metamorphic rocks and choose the correct answer : 

A. When igneous and sedimentary rocks are subjected to heat and pressure they change to metamorphic rocks. 

 B. Metamorphic rocks melt to form molten magma when subjected to great heat and pressure. 

 C. Marble is a metamorphic rock. 

(1) B and C are correct and A is incorrect. 

(2) A and B are correct and C is incorrect. 

(3) A, B, C all are correct. 

(4) A and C are correct and B is incorrect. 


Q 34. On entering which layer of the atmosphere from space do the meteorites burn up ? 

(1) Mesosphere

(2) Thermosphere 

(3) Exosphere

(4) Stratosphere 


Q 35. Transhumance is related to 

(1) Movement of people 

(2) Closely built area of houses 

(3) Artificial enclosures for keeping small house plants. 

(4) Places where settlements develops 


Q 36. Consider the statements A and B on permanent winds and choose the correct option : 

A. These winds blow constantly throughout the year in a particular direction. 

 B. Westerlies and Easterlies are examples of these winds. 

(1) A is true, B is false. 

(2) A is false, B is true. 

(3) Both A and B are true. 

(4) Both A and B are false. 


Q 37. Campos in Brazil and Llanos in Venezuela are examples of 

(1) Temperate grasslands 

(2) Tundra type of vegetation 

(3) Tropical grasslands 

(4) Mediterranean vegetation 


Q 38. Consider the Statements A and B about ‘climate’ and choose the correct answer. 

A. Climate refers to the day to day changes in the atmosphere. 

B. Climate of a place is affected only by its altitude and relief. 

(1) A is true, B is false. 

(2) A is false, B is true. 

(3) Both A and B are true. 

(4) Both A and B are false. 


Q 39. Identify the source of energy from the given features A and B : 

A. It is a conventional source of energy. 

B. This source of energy is released when crude oil is brought to surface. 

(1) Biogas 

(2) Natural gas 

(3) Geo-thermal energy 

(4) Wax 


Q 40. India’s research station ‘Maitri’ is located in 

(1) Australia 

(2) Antarctica 

(3) Europe 

(4) Asia 


Q 41. Which of the following is not true for minerals ? 

(1) They are naturally occuring substances. 

(2) They have a definite chemical composition. 

(3) They are formed in different types of geological environments. 

(4) All minerals are non-metallic. 


Q 42. Match the following : 

a. Narmada Valley i. Early republic 

b. Vajji ii. Hunting and gathering 

c. Garo Hills iii. Cities about 2500 years ago 

d. Ganga Valley iv. The first cities 

e. Indus and its tributaries v. Early agriculture 

  a b c d e
(1) i ii iii iv v
(2) v i ii iv iii
(3) ii i v iii iv
(4) v iv iii ii i


Q 43. Below are two statements (A) and (B) in the context of contemporary debates on ‘dates and periods’ of Indian history. 

Statement (A) : A Periodisation like ‘Hindu – Muslim – British’ is appropriate as the religion of the rulers has been the only important historical change. 

Statement (B) : It is problematic to assign precise dates and time spans to ‘historical processes’ that happened over a period of time. 

(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct and (B) is the correct interpretation of (A). 

(2) Both (A) and (B) are correct, but (B) is not the correct interpretation of (A). 

(3) (A) is correct, but (B) is wrong. 

(4) (A) is wrong, but (B) is right. 


Q 44. Below are the two statements in the context of new popular Indian art in the nineteenth century. 

Statement (A) : Many painting mocked at the changes they saw around, ridiculing the new tastes of those who spoke in English and warned against women moving out of their homes. 

Statement (B) : Images were used to express nationalist ideas and inspire people against British rule. 

(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct and (B) is the correct interpretation of (A). 

(2) Both (A) and (B) are correct, but (B) is not the correct interpretation of (A). 

(3) (A) is correct, but (B) is wrong. 

(4) (A) is wrong, but (B) is right. 


Q 45. Which of the following may be considered as a primary source for understanding early humans in India ? 

(1) Kangra style painting 

(2) Girnar rock inscription 

(3) Padshahnama painting 

(4) Rock paintings of Madhya Pradesh 


Q 46. Children in pre-British times were taught 

(1) In state institutions. 

(2) By payment of a fixed fee. 

(3) Throughout the year except harvest time when they worked in the fields. 

(4) For assessment through an annual exam. 


Q 47. Below are two statements (A) and (B) in the context of emergence of nation states in Europe in 18-19th centuries. 

Statement (A) : Till the eighteenth century, people in Europe saw themselves as nation states. 

Statement (B) : A consciousness was created in the early nineteenth century among the people that each linguistic community was a separate nation. 

(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct and (B) is the correct interpretation of (A). 

(2) Both (A) and (B) are correct but (B) is not the correct interpretation of (A). 

(3) (A) is correct, but (B) is wrong. 

(4) (A) is wrong, but (B) is correct. 


Q 48. BCE stands for 

(1) Before Christian Era 

(2) Before Common Era 

(3) Before Caesar Era 

(4) Before Contemporary Era 


Q 49. How do we know today that ostriches were found in India during the Palaeolithic period? 

(1) We have vivid description of these birds in the writings of that time. 

(2) Large quantities of ostrich egg shells were found at Patne in Maharasthra. 

(3) We have archived oral memories on ostriches in Delhi’s National Museum. 

(4) These are described in the memories of foreign travellers. 


Q 50. How did the Harappan civilization come to an end ? 

A. It appears as if the rulers lost control. 

B. There could have been deforestation in the area. 

C. There were floods in the entire area of the civilization. 

D. The rivers dried up probably. Choose the correct explanation. 

(1) A, B, C 

(2) A, B, D 

(3) A, C, D 

(4) B, C, D 


Q 51. Under the Mahayana Buddhism 

(1) Buddha’s presence was shown in sculpture by using certain signs. 

(2) Statues of Buddha were made. 

(3) Bodhisattvas were not accepted as they were yet to attain enlightenment. 

(4) Mathura and Taxila declined as centres of sculpture. 


Q 52. What is true in the context of administration and consolidation under the Khaljis and Tughlaqs ? 

(1) Large parts of the subcontinent remained under the control of the Delhi Sultans. 

(2) The forested areas in the gangetic plain were penetrated for the first time. 

(3) It was difficult to control distant provinces like Bengal from Delhi. 

(4) Alauddin Khalji and Muhammad Tughlaq forced their control in the gangetic plains for a longer duration. 


Q 53. Which of the following statements is incorrect in the historical reconstruction of tribal people ? 

(1) Contemporary historians and travellers give scanty information about tribes. 

(2) Most tribal groups kept written records. 

(3) Tribal people preserved rich customs and oral traditions. 

(4) Tribal societies depended on each other for their diverse needs. 


Q 54. How did the British consolidate their control over India after the Revolt of 1857 ? 

(1) By transfer of powers of the East India company to the British crown for a more responsible management of Indian affairs. 

(2) By recruiting more soldiers from Awadh, Bihar, Central India and South India. 

(3) By making policies to protect the landless and peasants. 

(4) By appeasement and safeguarding property rights. 


Q 55. Which of the following NOT a feature of Representative Democracy ? 

(1) Representatives chosen through elections. 

(2) Decision making in the hands of the representatives. 

(3) Direct participation of people in decision making. 

(4) Franchise rights to people. 


Q 56. Which particular region in India is known as the ‘Little Tibet’ ? 

(1) Ladakh 

(2) Arunachal Pradesh 

(3) Sikkim 

(4) Himachal Pradesh 


Q 57. What is the appellate system in India ?

(1) provision for applying for judicial services. 

(2) provision for appeal in the Parliament against a court order. 

(3) provision for the Executive Head of the State acting as the highest appellate authority. 

(4) provision for appeal to a higher court against the decision of a lower court. 


Q 58. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Peninsular Plateau ? 

(1) It lies to the South of Northern plains. 

(2) Aravali Hills border it on the North-West side. 

(3) It is rich in minerals like coal and iron-ore. 

(4) Rivers Mahanadi and Krishna are some of the west flowing rivers in the plateau. 


Q 59. Which of the following statements about Africa is correct ? 

(1) A large part of Africa lies in the Southern Hemisphere. 

(2) It is the only continent through which the Tropic of Cancer, Equator and Tropic of Capricorn pass. 

(3) Gobi desert is located in this continent. 

(4) It is separated from Asia by Ural mountains on the west. 


Q 60. The Southern parts of India particularly Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh receive rainfall in Autumn because 

(1) winds move back from the mainland to the Bay of Bengal. 

(2) winds blow from Arabian Sea to Bay of Bengal. 

(3) winds blow from Bay of Bengal to Arabian Sea. 

(4) winds move back from mainland to Arabian Sea. 


Q 61. What is known as the Costa Rican approach in the area of public health ? 

(1) equal spending on health and defence. 

(2) defence budget to be more than health budget. 

(3) not having an army to maintain to be able to spend more on public health. 

(4) spending on the health of the armymen. 


Q 62. In 1997, the Supreme Court in India formulated the Vishakha guidelines to protect women from sexual harassment _________. 

(1) in vehicles 

(2) at work places 

(3) in marital relationship 

(4) on streets 


Q 63. Who amongst the following appoints the governor of a state in India ? 

(1) Members of the Legislative Assembly 

(2) Members of the Parliament 

(3) Central Government 

(4) Attorney General 


Q 64. Who among the following is not a rural administration officer ? 

(1) Patwari 

(2) Municipal ward councillor 

(3) Land record officer 

(4) Lekhpal 


Q 65. What are the D.K. Basu guidelines which were laid down by the Supreme Court of India ? 

(1) guidelines related to prevention of sexual harassment at workplace. 

(2) guidelines related to protection of children from hazardous employment. 

(3) guidelines related to protection of women from domestic violence. 

(4) guidelines related to the procedures to be followed by police for arrest, detention and interrogation. 


Q 66. The Forest Rights Act, 2006 in its title recognizes the rights of which category ? 

(1) Scheduled Tribes 

(2) Scheduled Castes 

(3) Economically Backward Classes 

(4) Most Backward Classes 


Q 67. An example of secondary source is 

(1) The Constitution of India 

(2) Census Report, 2011 

(3) Record of Registration of Births and Deaths. 

(4) Our Pasts (I) – NCERT textbook in history for class 6 


Q 68. Consider the two statements below : 

A. Examinations are artificial situations created for the convenience of the system and not for the individual learner. 

B. A shift in emphasis on testing competencies and away from memory would reduce stress in social science classrooms. 

(1) Only statement A is true. 

(2) Both statements A and B are true. 

(3) Statement A is true but statement B is false. 

(4) Statement B is true but statement A is false. 


Q 69. The main aim of a social science teacher should be 

(1) to develop competition among students. 

(2) to develop an awareness of connections between all elements that shape society. 

(3) to make learners memorize the socio-historical facts. 

(4) to prepare learners in maintaining the status quo in the society and accept all decisions of the government. 


Q 70. The primary purpose of assessment in social science is 

(1) To recall textbook knowledge and reduce exam stress for all learners. 

(2) Categorising and labelling learners. 

(3) To highlight social differences amongst the learners. 

(4) To give learners feedback and setting standards for them to strive towards. 


Q 71. Films can be used as an effective pedagogic tool in the social science classrooms because 

A. films can bring the world into the classroom. 

B. films inspire us with the power of discovering the unseen and the unheard contexts. 

C. films bring stories, voices and images that in life may be far removed from us. 

D. films are objective medium which can encourage learners to frame their views in a singular manner. 

Choose the correct option. 

(1) A, B, C 

(2) A, B, D 

(3) A, C, D 

(4) B, C, D 


Q 72. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of using map in a classroom? 

A. Map is a socio-political construct. 

B. From time immemorial, ‘North’ has always been shown at the top of a map in all socio-political contexts. 

C. Map is a three dimensional device whereas we live in a two dimensional world. 

D. Map is an aid to develop a ‘sense of time’ in learners. 

Choose the correct option. 

(1) Only A 

(2) Only B 

(3) Only C and D 

(4) A, B and C 


Q 73. In an effort to connect learning with learner’s life, the social science teacher needs to 

A. intentionally and explicitly includes diverse cultural perspectives in the subject content. 

B. point out the personal and family backgrounds of the learners in the class. 

C. give learners opportunity to share their examples and experiences in the class. 

Choose the correct option. 

(1) A and B are correct. 

(2) A and C are correct. 

(3) B and C are correct. 

(4) Only B is correct. 


Q 74. While teaching history, ‘genealogy chart’ is used to 

A. Represent the growth and development of an empire or a dynasty. 

B. Show sequence and functional relationships. 

C. Provide a chronological framework. 

D. Develop a sense of space in learners. Choose the correct option. 

(1) A, B and C are correct. 

(2) A, C and D are correct. 

(3) B, C and D are correct. 

(4) Only C and D are correct. 


Q 75. What adaptations in the teaching -learning process should a social science teacher make while engaging with learners who are visually challenged ? 

A. Speak clearly and loudly with appropriate pauses and reiterations. 

B. Use a variety of visually appealing worksheets. 

C. Give verbal clues to create opportunities to imagine. 

D. Introduce tactile materials during class room discussions. 

Choose the correct option. 

(1) A and B only 

(2) A, C and D only 

(3) B only 

(4) B, C and D only 


Q 76. Consider the statements on project method in social science teaching : 

A. It is inspired by pragmatic perspective. 

B. It turns learners into a discoverer. 

C. It is entirely a teacher-centered method. 

D. It allows learning through self directed activity. 

Choose the correct option : 

(1) A and B are correct. 

(2) A, B and C are correct. 

(3) A, B and D are correct. 

(4) A, C and D are correct. 


Q 77. A social science teacher willing to enquire with a constructivist perspective would view the learners as 

A. Curious to explore on social processes. 

B. Imaginative on the basis of sources. 

C. Trying to suggest solutions to problems. 

D. Postponing discussions on controversial issues for higher education level. 

Choose the correct option. 

(1) A and B only 

(2) A, B and C only 

(3) A, B and D only 

(4) B, C and D only 


Q 78. Which of the following may be helpful towards making social science curriculum more inclusive ? 

A. Engendering the curriculum 

B. Uniform instructions and a fixed teaching way in the classroom. 

C. Engaging with different sources – official as well as of subaltern contexts. 

D. One exam paper fitting all learners. 

Choose the correct option. 

(1) A and B only 

(2) A and C only 

(3) B and D only 

(4) B, C and D only 


Q 79. Why should students learn to be critical ? 

(1) To point out flaws and being cynical about everything. 

(2) To maintain the status quo in society. 

(3) To understand how issues are related to their own lives. 

(4) To appreciate uniform, homogeneous perspective. 


Q 80. Select the example that represents diversity from the following examples : 

(1) Saroj got the chance to go to school while Nirmala did not get the chance to go to school. 

(2) Allen belongs to a poor family, while Simon’s family is very rich. 

(3) Raghu does not want to include Suresh in the football team because he comes from 

a particular community of society. 

(4) Paritosh known good Bangla; whereas Suchita speakes Hindi. 


Q 81. A social science excursion trip in a school involved a visit to Ziro, Bombdila, Namdapha National Park, Tawang and Leisang village. On which medium could you ask the students to mark the two states they had visited ? 

(1) Mizoram and Meghalaya on a map 

(2) Manipur and Sikkim on a timeline 

(3) Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur on a map 

(4) Nagaland and Tripura on a time line 


Q 82. Contemporary understanding of social science pedagogy encourages teachers to do all of the following, except : 

(1) Encourage learners to learn by reading local experiences of others and finding about their own. 

(2) Promoting all learners to give identical answers to questions so that all improve. 

(3) Appreciate learners ability to make questions on the given subject content and accepting it as a valid test of learning. 

(4) Give opportunities to learners to use their knowledge developed in the classroom at concrete situations. 


Q 83. The following is not an example of gender stereotyping : 

(1) Only boys being encouraged to participate in the football tournament. 

(2) Only the girls in class are asked to decorate the class boards. 

(3) While boys try to monopolise the class discussions, attention is given to both girls and boys to encourage participation. 

(4) Boys and girls are made to sit in separate rows for ensuring discipline in class. 


Q 84. Effective teaching of social science would require : 

A. Perpetuating all cultural practices of the past. 

B. Critical analysis of literary texts, howsoever old they may be. 

C. Discarding all sources which are non-textual. 

D. Giving primacy to triangulation of sources. 

Choose the correct option. 

(1) A and C only 

(2) B and C only 

(3) B and D only 

(4) C and D only 


Q 85. Sensitivity on ‘social justice’ in a classroom can be encouraged by : 

A. Incorporating contemporary excerpts from people’s struggles and stories of advocacy during classroom discussions. 

B. Keeping the understanding of the historical context of the Indian social milieu in the context of unequal power equations. 

C. Engaging in classroom discussions on the constitutional provisions on social justice. 

D. Prompt corporal punishment on the defaulting children. 

Choose the correct option. 

(1) A and B 

(2) A, B and C 

(3) B, C and D 

(4) C and D 


Q 86. Pedagogy of history would try to : 

A. Construct history on the basis of sources. 

B. Trace continuity and change in the social processes in history. 

C. History engage with differences in interpretations and accept the dominant community’s views 

D. History view events by situating them within socio-political contexts of a particular period. 

Choose the correct option. 

(1) A, B, C only 

(2) A, B, D only 

(3) A, C, D only 

(4) B, C, D only 


Q 87. The right to pollution free air has been recognized as part of which particular Fundamental Right in India ? 

(1) Equality 

(2) Life 

(3) Justice 

(4) Freedom 


Q 88. Who coined the phrase ‘Unity in Diversity’ to describe India ? 

(1) Jawaharlal Nehru 

(2) B.R. Ambedkar 

(3) M.K. Gandhi 

(4) Rajendra Prasad 


Q 89. How many members in Lok Sabha are nominated and not elected ? 

(1) 4 (four) 

(2) 1 (one) 

(3) 2 (two) 

(4) 0 (none) 


Q 90. In 2006, the form of government in Nepal changed from Monarchy to __________. 

(1) Autocracy 

(2) Tyranny 

(3) Democracy 

(4) Oligarchy 





IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – IV (Q. No. 91-120), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – I only. 

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 91 – 99) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options : 

Learning a language under any circumstances requires hard work and concentration. However, the circumstances can make a difference in both quality and quantity. Most foreign language students learn in a classroom, from a text-book. In a classroom, language learning can be controlled so that all the necessary structures are taught. Highly motivated students can thus learn the language efficiently and quickly. Learning on the streets and in the markets from experience and need can be effective although the student learns only what he happens to need, in a haphazard way. 

Some language students find this real-life situation more meaningful because the students’ success in fulfilling their needs depends on their language ability. However, shop-keepers are more likely to be tolerant of incorrect grammar than classroom teachers, so mispronunciations and errors will not matter much. Nevertheless, the rewards are different for the type of language learning situations. They are immediate (goods, bought in a store) in the real-life but delayed until a quiz or oral recital for the classroom learner. 

The kind of language learnt in each setting differs too. In the classroom, the student is more likely to learn the grammatical language of educated people. The language learnt out of necessity often lacks the fine details of the classroom variety and might include informal expressions such as slang. The people learning on the street must be easily understood. Therefore, they might actually sound more like native speakers – although not necessarily educated people. So a combination of classroom instruction and the experience of using language in the street will result in the best language learning of all. 


Q 91. Language needs of real-life situations are fulfilled by : 

(1) studying text-books carefully. 

(2) learning the language structures. 

(3) learning on the streets. 

(4) learning proper pronunciation. 


Q 92. Which of the following statements is NOT true ? 

(1) Shopkeepers are intolerant of incorrect pronunciation. 

(2) Real-life situations are more meaningful for language learning. 

(3) Classroom learning can be tested in an oral recital. 

(4) Foreign students learn language mostly from text-books. 


Q 93. Study the following statements : 

(a) At school one learns the language of educated people. 

(b) Language learnt on the street includes the use of slang. 

(1) (a) is right and (b) is wrong. 

(2) (a) is wrong and (b) is right. 

(3) Both (a) and (b) are right. 

(4) Both (a) and (b) are wrong. 


Q 94. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ? 

The kind of language learnt in each setting differs too. 

(1) Pronoun 

(2) Determiner 

(3) Conjunction 

(4) Preposition 


Q 95. Study the following phrase. Which part of speech is the underlined word ? 

‘but delayed until a quiz …’ 

(1) Pronoun 

(2) Determiner 

(3) Conjunction 

(4) Preposition 


Q 96. What does the word ‘motivated’ mean in the following phrase ? 

 ‘Highly motivated students can thus ……..’ 

(1) intelligent 

(2) resourceful 

(3) muddled 

(4) interested 


Q 97. ‘…… in a haphazard way.’ 

The word ‘haphazard’ means 

(1) dangerous 

(2) unorganized 

(3) safe 

(4) proper 


Q 98. The best place to correctly and quickly learn a foreign language is : 

(1) only the classroom. 

(2) only the market place. 

(3) both the classroom and the market place. 

(4) home. 


Q 99. A text-book : 

(1) controls language learning. 

(2) motivates the students. 

(3) teaches what a student needs. 

(4) is an inexpensive tool of learning. 


Directions : Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 100 – 105) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options : 

Great, wide, beautiful, wonderful world, With the wonderful water around you curled, And the wonderful grass upon your breast World, you are beautifully drest. 

The wonderful air is over me, And the wonderful wind is shaking the tree, It walks on the water, and whirls the mills, And talks to itself on the tops of the hills. 

You friendly Earth, how far do you go, With the wheat – fields that nod and the rivers that flow 

With cities and gardens, and cliffs and isles, And people upon you for thousands of miles ? 

Ah ! You are so great and I am so small, I tremble to think of you, world, at all; 

And yet when I said my prayers today, A whisper inside me seemed to say, 

‘You are more than the Earth, though you are such a dot, 

You can love and think, and the Earth cannot !’ 


Q 100. The cities, gardens, cliffs and isles show that the Earth is : 

(1) huge 

(2) friendly 

(3) small 

(4) well populated 


Q 101. In the extract the poet has compared : 

(1) Man with the Earth. 

(2) World with the Earth. 

(3) World with the air. 

(4) the Earth with the air. 


Q 102. Mood of the speaker in all of these lines is : 

(1) serious 

(2) joyous 

(3) sad 

(4) introspective 


Q 103. The figure of speech used in the first stanza of the extract is : 

(1) Simile 

(2) Synecdoche 

(3) Onomatopoeia 

(4) Personification 


Q 104. The figure of speech used in the phrase ‘and whirls the mills’ is : 

(1) Simile 

(2) Synecdoche 

(3) Onomatopoeia 

(4) Personification 


Q 105. The beautiful dress worn by the Earth is made of : 

(1) mills and the hills. 

(2) gardens and wheat-fields. 

(3) water and grass. 

(4) mountains and forests. 


Q 106. A teacher asks her learners to collect words / phrases on various aspects they see and notice in their markets and streets. Later, the learners write the words and phrases according to the category and discuss them in the class. What is this practice known as ? 

(1) Topic words learning 

(2) Genre based words 

(3) Active vocabulary 

(4) Thematic vocabulary learning 


Q 107. What does CLIL stand for ? 

(1) Content Language Inter Learning 

(2) Content and Language based Interesting Learning 

(3) Content and Language Integrated Learning 

(4) Context for Language Integrated Learning 


Q 108. Which of the following statements is correct ? 

(1) Receptive vocabulary are words we speak and productive vocabulary are words we hear. 

(2) Receptive vocabulary are words we recognize when we hear or see and productive vocabulary are words we speak or write. 

(3) Receptive vocabulary are words we discourse with people and productive vocabulary are words in written text. 

(4) Words from other languages are receptive vocabulary and words from native languages are productive vocabulary. 


Q 109. A teacher divides her class into groups of four and reads out a text of about six sentences. Learners listen to and jot down important words and phrases. The teacher reads out the text the second time. Then learners discuss in groups the jotted down words and recreate the text nearer to the one read out by the teacher. What is this task know as ? 

(1) Composition Dictation 

(2) Mutual Dictation 

(3) Punctuation Dictation 

(4) Real Dictation 


Q 110. Intensive reading refers to 

(1) reading a text for detailed information. 

(2) reading a text for pleasure. 

(3) reading a text for editing. 

(4) reading a text for someone else. 


Q 111. Knowing a word means 

(1) how, where and when it is used. 

(2) how the word is spelt. 

(3) who speaks the word. 

(4) to know to write the word. 


Q 112. Which typology of question does the following question belong to ? 

Imagine you are the narrator of the story. Write an entry in your diary about your experiences in about 100 words. 

(1) Informative question 

(2) Inferential question 

(3) Cloze question 

(4) Extrapolative question 


Q 113. Poetry teaching is _____. 

(1) to learn words and phrases. 

(2) to learn poetic devices. 

(3) for enjoyment and appreciation. 

(4) to write a critical commentary. 


Q 114. Learning outcomes aim at 

(1) output oriented learning 

(2) achieving maximum levels of learning 

(3) achieving minimum levels of learning 

(4) ensuring all the competencies are acquired by learners. 


Q 115. A teacher brings a newspaper to her class VIII students and asks them to find some advertisements. She then asks them to list out how advertisements are designed and what an advertisement contains. What is the newspaper here ? 

(1) For reading. 

(2) An instrument of language learning. 

(3) A technique of language learning. 

(4) Materials for language learning. 


Q 116. National Curriculum Framework 2005 assigns ‘supplementary’ and ‘complimentary’ roles to English language. This means that 

(1) English language teaching should support learning of other languages and subjects. 

(2) English language teaching has nothing to do with teaching learning of other languages. 

(3) English language teaching is a hindrance to learning of other languages. 

(4) English language teaching violates the mother tongue based language education. 


Q 117. A reader uses her prior knowledge, makes semantic cues and syntactic cues then moves to other more specific information. What model of reading the reader here adopts ? 

(1) Bottom up model 

(2) Top down model 

(3) Interactive model 

(4) Whole language model 


Q 118. Drilling is a teaching-learning technique or a strategy in _____. 

(1) Constructivist language teaching 

(2) Structuralism 

(3) Communicative learning teaching 

(4) Lexical approach 


Q 119. Which of the following statements is TRUE of language learning ? 

(1) First language interferes in the learning of second language. 

(2) First language supports the learning of second language. 

(3) Language learning has nothing to do with content learning. 

(4) Every language is different and learning of languages is also discreet. 


Q 120. Multilingualism as a resource in education aims at 

(1) making use of languages of learners for teaching-learning. 

(2) making learners learn as many languages as possible. 

(3) using classical languages for teaching-learning. 

(4) enabling to learn English language for jobs and mother tongue for culture. 





IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – V (Q. No. 121-150), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – II only.

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 121 – 128) that follow by selecting the correct/most appropriate options : 

As science progresses, superstitions ought to grow less. On the whole, that is true. However, it is surprising how superstitions linger on. If we are tempted to look down on savage tribes for holding such ideas, we should remember that even today, among most civilised nations, a great many equally stupid superstitions exist and are believed in by a great many people. 

Some people will not sit down thirteen at a table; or will not like to start anything important on a Friday; or refuse to walk under a ladder. Many people buy charms and talismans because they think they will bring them luck. Even in civilised nations today, many laws are made on the basis of principles which are just as much unproved. For instance, it is often held as a principle that white people are by nature superior to people of other colours. The ancient Greeks believed that they were superior to the people of Northern and Western Europe. The only way to see if there is anything in such a principle is to make scientific studies of a number of white and black and brown people under different conditions of life and find out just what they can and cannot achieve. 

It is, however, true that the increase of scientific knowledge does reduce superstition and also baseless guessing and useless arguments and practices. Civilised people do not argue and get angry about what water is composed of. The composition of water is known, and there is no argument about it. 

Q 121. We should not despise the savage tribes because : 

(1) they do not believe in science. 

(2) they indulge in useless arguments. 

(3) they have stopped being superstitious. 

(4) we are no less superstitious than they are. 


Q 122. Which of the following has a scientific basis for it ? 

(1) We should not walk under a ladder. 

(2) Number thirteen is inauspicious. 

(3) Talismans and charms always bring luck. 

(4) Fridays are as good as other days. 


Q 123. Who believe in superstitions ? 

(1) All civilised nations. 

(2) Only some civilised nations. 

(3) Only some tribals. 

(4) All tribals and some civilized nations. 


Q 124. Study the following statements : 

(a) Ancient Greeks were superior to other European nations. 

(b) Science helps us fight superstitions. 

(1) (a) is right and (b) is wrong. 

(2) (a) is wrong and (b) is right. 

(3) Both (a) and (b) are right. 

(4) Both (a) and (b) are wrong. 


Q 125. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ? 

On the whole that is true. 

(1) Determiner 

(2) Pronoun 

(3) Conjunction 

(4) Preposition 


Q 126. Identify the part of speech of the underlined word in the following sentence. 

 It is often held that as a principle. 

(1) Pronoun 

(2) Adverb 

(3) Adjective 

(4) Preposition 


Q 127. Fill in the blank in the following sentence. 

 _____ is opposite in meaning to the word, ‘superior’. 

(1) Higher 

(2) Prior 

(3) Inferior 

(4) Lower 


Q 128. The statement which best sums up the passage is : 

(1) Superstitions disappear with the advancement of science. 

(2) Irrational beliefs decline with the advancement of science. 

(3) Civilized nations are no less superstitions than the savage tribes. 

(4) We are very different from the savage nations in our beliefs. 


Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow 

(Q. Nos. 129-135) by selecting the correct / most appropriate options. 

If asked, “What matters are related to health i.e. health decisions ?” most of us would answer – hospitals, doctors and pills. Yet we are all making a whole range of decisions about our health which go beyond this limited area of doctors, pills etc. For example, whether or not to smoke, take exercise, wear a seat belt, drive a motor bike, drink alcohol regularly etc. The way we reach decisions and form attitudes about our health is only just beginning to be understood. 

 The main paradox is why people consistently do things which are known to be very hazardous. Two interesting examples of this are smoking and not wearing seat belts. Addiction makes smokers keep on smoking and whether to wear a seat belt or not is affected by safety considerations. Taken together both these examples show how people reach decisions about their health. Understanding this process is crucial. Only then can we effectively change public attitude towards voluntary activities like smoking. 

Smokers run the risk of contracting heart disease, several times more as compared to non-smokers. Even lung cancer. Despite extensive press campaigns which have regularly told smokers and car drivers the grave risks they are running, the number of smokers and non-wearers of seat belts has remained much the same. Although the numbers of deaths from road accidents and smoking are well publicized, they have aroused little public interest. 

If we give smokers the real figures of deaths caused by smoking, will it affect their views on the dangers of smoking ? Unfortunately not. Many of the real figures are in the form of probable estimates, and evidence shows that people are very bad at understanding this kind of information. 


Q 129. Why does a common man choose to wear a seat belt ? 

(1) There is a law for it. 

(2) He wants to protect himself. 

(3) It is fitted in the car. 

(4) For fear of the policeman. 


Q 130. Study the following statements : 

(a) Though it is very dangerous, some people don’t quit smoking. 

(b) Whether or not to drink alcohol is not a health decision. 

(1) (a) is right and (b) is wrong. 

(2) (a) is wrong and (b) is right. 

(3) Both (a) and (b) are right. 

(4) Both (a) and (b) are wrong. 


Q 131. Which of the following pieces of advice can be easily ignored by the people ? 

(1) Don’t smoke. 

(2) Wear a seat belt. 

(3) Don’t drink alcohol. 

(4) Don’t drive a motor bike. 


Q 132. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ? 

Yet, we are all making a whole range of decisions. 

(1) Adverb 

(2) Conjunction 

(3) Pronoun 

(4) Preposition 


Q 133. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ? 

Understanding this process is crucial. 

(1) Determiner 

(2) Preposition 

(3) Adverb 

(4) Conjunction 


Q 134. Smokers run double the risk of contracting heart disease. 

The word ‘contracting’ here means 

(1) receiving 

(2) removing 

(3) catching 

(4) avoiding 


Q 135. An example of ‘limited area’ of health is : 

(1) smoking 

(2) taking exercise 

(3) wearing a seat belt 

(4) taking medicines 


Q 136. A teacher asks her learners to discuss in groups of four, jot down ideas and then develop them in an outline to write a paragraph. Learners then edit the paragraph into a final draft. Which strategy of writing does the teacher follow here ? 

(1) Group work 

(2) Process approach 

(3) Product approach 

(4) Discussion method 


Q 137. Transaction listening 

(1) lays emphasis on conveying information. 

(2) lays emphasis on harmonious communication in the social context. 

(3) does not require careful attention to details and facts. 

(4) is interactive by nature. 


Q 138. CALP stands for 

(1) Cognitively Academic Language Proficiency 

(2) Cognitively Advanced Language Proficiency 

(3) Competency based Academic Language Proficiency 

(4) Comparative Academic Language Proficiency 


Q 139. ‘A task’ in Task Based Language Learning means _____. 

(1) an activity where the target language is used by the learner for a communicative purpose. 

(2) a piece of work designed by the teacher for language teacher. 

(3) a text-book exercise to be carried out by learners individuals. 

(4) a task for the teacher for assessing learners language learning. 


Q 140. According to National Curriculum Framework 2005, which one of the following is NOT an objective of language teaching-learning ? 

(1) the competence to understand what one hears. 

(2) ability to read with comprehension. 

(3) effortless expression. 

(4) to know the history of languages. 


Q 141. Which one of the following is NOT true of language learning ? 

(1) Reading is making meaning. 

(2) Grammatical rules are important for learning a language. 

(3) Language learning takes time. 

(4) Language learning needs a context. 


Q 142. Which is an effective way of teaching learning grammar ? 

(1) Teaching the rules first followed by examples. 

(2) Presenting grammar form in a natural discourse, then explaining how the form is made and used. 

(3) Presenting single sentence examples in plenty of ways and then explaining the form. 

(4) Teaching through a typical grammar book. 


Q 143. What status is given to English language in the Indian Constitution ? 

(1) Recognised language 

(2) Associate official language 

(3) Official language 

(4) Foreign language 


Q 144. A language teacher asks learners to write a paragraph on ‘scarcity of water’. Learners gather information from science and social science books and other sources before writing. Such task aims at : 

(1) developing the scientific attitude. 

(2) completing the syllabus of other subjects simultaneously. 

(3) achieving language learning across the curriculum. 

(4) enhancing co-curricular skills. 


Q 145. Which one of the following is NOT an assessment tool for language learning ? 

(1) Observation schedule 

(2) Portfolio 

(3) Assignment 

(4) Realia 


Q 146. Teaching a novel is to promote : 

(1) reading for pleasure 

(2) reading for details 

(3) reading to become a writer 

(4) reading to learn vocabulary 


Q 147. Story telling as a strategy in language teaching is aimed at _____. 

(1) learning the morals. 

(2) learning to retell the story. 

(3) engaging learners with language. 

(4) testing the memory of learners. 


Q 148. ‘Input Hypothesis’ refers to 

(1) the relationship between what the learner is exposed to of a language and language acquisition. 

(2) the relationship between what languages the learners know and the languages they are taught. 

(3) the relationship among the learner, teacher and the materials. 

(4) all the inputs of the school. 


Q 149. Which one of the following makes the communication a cyclic process ? 

(1) Sender 

(2) Receiver 

(3) Feedback 

(4) Message 


Q 150. Top-down process of reading : 

(1) proceeds from whole to part. 

(2) proceeds from part to whole. 

(3) proceeds from centre to periphery. 

(4) proceeds from bottom to top. 

CTET July 2019 Paper-I Previous Year Paper




Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 30) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 1. According to Jean Piaget, children – 

(1) actively construct knowledge as they manipulate and explore the world. 

(2) learn by observing others following a process of observational learning. 

(3) can be conditioned to behave in particular ways by carefully controlled stimulus – response associations. 

(4) can be taught to behave and learn in a specific manner using principles of rewards and punishment. 


Q 2. There are individual variations in the rate of motor development, yet the sequence of motor development is from ________ to _________. 

(1) cephalocaudal; proximodistal

(2) proximodistal, cephalocaudal

(3) gross motor development; fine motor development 

(4) fine motor development; gross motor development 


Q 3. The period that initiates the transition to adulthood is – 

(1) Adolescence 

(2) Middle childhood 

(3) Preoperational period 

(4) End childhood 


Q 4. A child argues that Heinz shouldn’t steal the drug (medicine that can save his wife) because he will be caught and sent to jail if he does so. According to Kohlberg, which stage of moral understanding does the child fall under ? 

(1) The instrumental purpose orientation 

(2) The social-order maintaining orientation 

(3) The punishment and obedience orientation 

(4) The universal ethical principle orientation 


Q 5. Lev Vygotsky refers to the verbal dialogues that children have with themselves as – 

(1) egocentric speech 

(2) private speech 

(3) distorted speech 

(4) problematic speech 


Q 6. Associating toys, articles of clothing, household items, occupations and colours with specific sex, is a demonstration of –

(1) evolved gender identity

(2) gender stereotyping 

(3) gender theory 

(4) gender relevance 


Q 7. In an elementary classroom it is important to ________ the experiences that a child brings with her. 

(1) deny 

(2) neglect 

(3) ignore 

(4) build on 


Q 8. A teacher should – 

(1) maximize comparisons amongst students. 

(2) promote students belonging to certain cultures. 

(3) ignore cultural differences and diversity amongst students. 

(4) communicate that she respects and values all cultures in the classroom. 


Q 9. Which of the following constructs does the Right to Education Act, 2009 advocate ? 

(1) Integrated education 

(2) Inclusive education 

(3) Segregation 

(4) Mainstreaming 


Q 10. ________ is the philosophy that all children have a right to get equal education in a regular school system. 

(1) Inclusion 

(2) Mainstreaming 

(3) Special education 

(4) Multicultural education 


Q 11. Which of the following represents the correct matching of children in column-A with their primary characteristic in column-B ? 

Column-A  Column-B
i. Gifted  a. Lacks reading fluency
ii. Learning disabled  b. Can think of original solutions 
iii. Creative  c. Tendency to get distracted easily
iv. Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)  d. Ability to learn quickly and independency 

(1) d c b a 

(2) d a b c 

(3) d c a b 

(4) a b d c 


Q 12. Children learn effectively when –(1) the teacher fully controls everything that happens in the class including the children. 

(2) they memorise facts given in the textbook. 

(3) they copy answers written by the teacher on the blackboard. 

(4) they actively participate in different activities and tasks. 


Q 13. Children should _________ questions in the class. 

(1) be encouraged to ask 

(2) be discouraged to ask 

(3) not be allowed to ask 

(4) be stopped from asking 


Q 14. Which of the following is NOT a key process through which meaningful learning occurs ? 

(1) Memorization and recall

(2) Repetition and practice

(3) Instruction and direction 

(4) Exploration and interaction 


Q 15. When teachers have positive beliefs about students and their abilities, the students – 

(1) are eager and motivated to learn. 

(2) become relaxed and stop putting in any effort to learn. 

(3) become unmotivated and stressed.

(4) are not affected in any way. 


Q 16. Children’s errors – 

(1) reflect how careless children are. 

(2) should be immediately corrected by asking them to do repeated practice 

(3) are a part of learning and give an insight into their thinking. 

(4) are insignificant in the teaching learning process. 


Q 17. Assessment – 

(1) should be undertaken as a separate activity. 

(2) should be a part of the teaching learning process. 

(3) should be done only in terms of marks. 

(4) should be based on objective type written tasks. 


Q 18. In a constructionist frame, learning is –

(1) active and social in its character. 

(2) passive and individualistic. 

(3) the process of acquisition of knowledge. 

(4) a change in behaviour as a result of experience. 


Q 19. What principle does the following highlight ? 

“Students who do not perform well, feel that they are not ‘good enough’ and feel demotivated. They are then likely to give up easily without trying or persisting in doing tasks.” 

(1) Cognition and emotions are not separable. 

(2) Cognition and emotions are not related. 

(3) Heredity and environment are not separable. 

(4) Heredity and environment are not related. 


Q 20. A teacher can encourage children to become effective problem solvers by – 

(1) writing step-by-step solution to all the questions in the textbook. 

(2) giving them plenty of opportunities to answer similar kinds of questions from the  textbook. 

(3) emphasizing on rote memorization of the information given in the textbook. 

(4) encouraging children to make intuitive guesses and to look at multiple solutions to the problem. 


Q 21. Use of methods where learner’s own initiative and efforts are involved is an example of – 

(1) Interpersonal intelligence 

(2) Deductive method 

(3) Learner-centered method 

(4) Traditional method 


Q 22. Which of the following statements about intelligence is correct ? 

(1) Intelligence is the ability to think convergently. 

(2) Intelligence is a relatively permanent change in behaviour as a result of experience. 

(3) Intelligence is a hereditary trait that involves mental activities such as memory and reasoning. 

(4) Intelligence is multidimensional involving several abilities not entirely measureable by intelligence tests. 


Q 23. Which of the following is the primary socialising agency ? 

(1) Family 

(2) School 

(3) Government 

(4) Media 


Q 24. The major proposition of Jean Piaget’s theory is that – 

(1) Children’s thinking is inferior to adults. 

(2) Children’s thinking is superior to adults. 

(3) Children’s thinking is quantitatively different from adults. 

(4) Children’s thinking is qualitatively different from adults. 


Q 25. Gender is a/an – 

(1) biological determinant 

(2) psychological entity 

(3) social construct 

(4) economic concept 


Q 26. Which of the following correctly identifies the broad domains of development ? 

(1) Physical; cognitive; social and emotional 

(2) Emotional; intellectual; spiritual and self 

(3) Physical; personality; spiritual and emotional 

(4) Social; physical; personality; self 


Q 27. Which of the following statements regarding children and their learning is correct ? 

(1) All children are naturally motivated to learn and are capable of learning. 

(2) Children’s motivation to learn and their capability to learn is pre determined by heredity only. 

(3) Children’s socio-economic background determines and limits their motivation and learning capability. 

(4) Children have to be rewarded and punished to make them motivated for learning. 


Q 28. In progressive-education children are seen as – 

(1) miniature adults 

(2) passive imitators 

(3) active explorers 

(4) blank slates 


Q 29. According to Lev Vygotsky, learning is – 

(1) a social activity 

(2) an individual activity 

(3) a passive activity 

(4) a conditioned activity 


Q 30. Which of the following characterizes a child in the preoperational stage ? 

(1) Circular reactions 

(2) Goal-directed behaviour 

(3) Deferred Imitation 

(4) Irreversibility of thought 




Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 31. A beaker is 3/7th filled with water. Another 16 L of water is needed to fill the beaker to its brim. What is the capacity of the beaker ? 

(1) 14 L 

(2) 50 L 

(3) 100 L 

(4) 28 L 


Q 32. Which of the following represents a descending order of numbers ? 

(1) 3.05, 3.005, 3.50, 3.055, 30.5, 0.355 

(2) 30.5, 3.50, 3.055, 3.05, 3.005, 0.355 

(3) 30.5, 3.50, 3.05, 3.055, 3.005, 0.355 

(4) 30.5, 3.05, 3.055, 3.50, 3.005, 0.355 


Q 33. A shopkeeper mixed 5.3 kg of almonds, 2100 g of raisin, 2.2 kg of cashews and packed the mixture equally into two dozen packets. What is the weight to each packet ? 

(1) 300 g 

(2) 400 g 

(3) 450 g 

(4) 500 g 


Q 34. What number am I ? 

 I am a 2 digit even number. I am a common multiple of 3, 4, 6. I have a total 9 factors. 

(1) 48 

(2) 56 

(3) 24 

(4) 36 


Q 35. Asha plans to save some money from household expenditure to buy a mobile phone. Every week she saves ` 50 on Monday, ` 100 on Wednesday and ` 80 on Friday and spends ` 60 from this on Sunday. How many weeks would she take to save enough to buy a mobile phone of ` 5,950 ? 

(1) 25 

(2) 35 

(3) 30 

(4) 40 


Q 36. If (11011)2 = (________)10, then number in the blank space is 

(1) 22 

(2) 27 

(3) 30 

(4) 33 


Q 37. The side of a square is 10 cm. How many times will the new perimeter become if the side of the square is doubled ? 

(1) Remains same 

(2) 4 times 

(3) 3 times 

(4) 2 times 


Q 38. Which of the following letters have both horizontal and vertical lines of symmetry ? 

(1) A 

(2) X 

(3) C 

(4) Y


Q 39. 72 × 28 = 36 × 4 × _________. The number in the blank is 

 (A) multiple of 7 

 (B) a prime number 

 (C) less than 10 

 (D) an even number 

 (E) factor of 56 

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) (A), (B), (C) 

(2) (A), (D), (B) 

(3) (C), (D), (E) 

(4) (A), (D), (E) 


Q 40. What is the correct sequence a teacher of Class-III needs to follow to explain the concept of ‘Quarter’ (¼) to the students ? 

 (A) Write symbol of Quarter on black board. 

 (B) Provide concrete material and divides into Quarters. 

 (C) Show pictures representing ‘Quarter’. 

(1) (A), (B), (C) 

(2) (A), (C), (B) 

(3) (B), (C), (A) 

(4) (C), (A), (B) 


Q 41. A Class-III student perform multiplication of 16  25 as follows : 

 16 × 25 = 8 × 2 × 5 × 5 

 = 8 × 5 × 2 × 5 

 = 40 × 10 

 = 400 

Which property of multiplication has the student used in this question ?

(1) Distributive law 

(2) Associative law 

(3) Repeated addition 

(4) Inverse multiplication law 


Q 42. How will you cater to the needs of visually challenged students of your classroom in an inclusive school ? 

(1) Make them sit with high achievers 

(2) Use alternate teaching-learning methods and resources. 

(3) Send them to special educator. 

(4) Provide them extra time for practise. 


Q 43. Which of the following is not a mathematical process ? 

(1) Transposition 

(2) Visualisation 

(3) Memorisation 

(4) Estimation 


Q 44. Which of the following is not related to early number concept ? 

(1) Classification 

(2) Class inclusion 

(3) Conservation 

(4) Measurement 


Q 45. Which of the following statements is true regarding ‘Numeral’ and ‘Number’ ? 

 (A) A numeral is a symbol used to represent number. 

 (B) Same number can be represented by different numerals. 

(1) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.

(2) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.

(3) (B) is correct and (A) is incorrect.

(4) Both (A) and (B) are correct. 


Q 46. Read the following word problems on addition : 

 A. There are 15 oranges in one basket and 17 oranges in another basket. How many oranges are there altogether ? 

 B. The price of a mobile phone which is for ` 9,950 is increased by ` 375 after budget. What is the new price ? 

 Which of the following statements is correct ? 

(1) ‘A’ represents augmentation structure of addition whereas ‘B’ represents aggregation structure of addition. 

(2) ‘A’ represents ‘aggregation’ structure of addition whereas ‘B’ represents ‘augmentation’ structure of addition. 

(3) Both represents aggregation structure of addition. 

(4) Both represents augmentation structure of addition. 


Q 47. A teacher gives the following task to the students of class-IV : 

 “Arrange 25 tiles in all possible rectangular arrays.” 

 Which of the following mathematical concepts can be addressed through this task ? 

(1) Volume, area, length 

(2) Area, factors, perimeter 

(3) Area, perimeter, volume 

(4) Area, volume, length 


Q 48. Identify the correct statement about the ability to conserve different physical quantities in ‘measurement’ as proposed by Piaget. 

(1) Conservation of weight is grasped before conservation of volume. 

(2) Conservation of volume is grasped before conservation of mass. 

(3) Conservation of weight is grasped before conservation of number. 

(4) Conservation of length is grasped before conservation of number. 


Q 49. Van Hiele’s levels refers to stages in the development of 

(1) Number concept 

(2) Place value 

(3) Geometrical thinking 

(4) Fractions 


Q 50. Which one of the following sets are Problem Solving Strategies in Mathematics ? 

(1) Trial-error, drawing, memorisation 

(2) Drawing, working back, rote learning 

(3) Reasoning, using variable, look for a pattern 

(4) Memorisation, Guess & test, drawing 


Q 51. Which of the following teaching learning resources is best suited to explain the concept of multiplication of two decimal numbers say 0.3 X 0.2 = 0.06 ? 

(1) Dienes blocks 

(2) Taylor’s abacus 

(3) Number chart 

(4) Graph paper 


Q 52. As per the recommendation of NCF 2005, Primary School mathematics curriculum should 

(1) relate to children’s everyday experiences. 

(2) focus on procedural knowledge 

(3) provide rigour in mathematical concepts 

(4) prepare children for advanced mathematics. 


Q 53. Which of the following is not a characteristic of effective mathematics pedagogy ? 

(1) Using various teaching-learning strategies for a single concept. 

(2) Following strict time rules when introducing a new concept. 

(3) Focussing patterns of students errors. 

(4) Making connections with everyday experiences. 


Q 54. Which of the following is not an effective strategy to assess primary level students’ learning in mathematics ? 

(1) Designing tasks to differentiate between rote memorisation and conceptual understanding. 

(2) Analysing children’s errors to understand their reasoning. 

(3) Designing tasks which elicit more than one level of response. 

(4) Using primarily group administered tasks. 


Q 55. How many quarters are there in 1843

(1) 68 

(2) 75 

(3) 72 

(4) 35 


Q 56. In a school, half of students play badminton, one-fourth (1/4th) play volleyball, one-eighth (1/8th) play tennis, one-sixteenth (1/16th) play chess and the remaining go for swimming. If the number of students playing volleyball is 160, how many students play chess ? 

(1) 40 

(2) 120 

(3) 80 

(4) 20 


Q 57. Deepa goes to a post-office to post/mail letters and parcels. The postal rates depicted are as below : 

Letter Weighing : (i) 20 g or less – Rs. 5.00 (ii) Per every additional 20 g – Rs. 2.00 Parcel Weighing : (i) 50 g or less – Rs. 5.00 (ii) For every additional 50 g – Rs. 3.00

Deepa wants to send two parcels weighing 250 g and 300 g respectively and two letters each to 20 g and 35 g respectively. How much postal charge does she have to pay ? 

(1) Rs. 41 

(2) Rs. 48 

(3) Rs. 39 

(4) Rs. 49 


Q 58. Digits 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8 are arranged in the following blanks : 

 ____ ____ ____ + ____ ____ ____ 

 The largest possible number after addition is 

(1) 808 

(2) 1605 

(3) 1560 

(4) 1308 


Q 59. Read the following Railway timings of New Delhi – Chennai Rajdhani express and answer the question : 

Station  Arrival  Departure 
New Delhi  –  15:55 
Bhopal  23:55  00:05 
Nagpur  05:25  05:35 
Vijaywada  14:15  14:30 
Chennai  20:45  end 

Which of the following statements is true ? 

(1) The duration of Journey from Bhopal to Vijaywada is 13 hr. 10 min. 

(2) The duration of Journey from Nagpur to Chennai is 15 hr. 10 min. 

(3) The duration of Journey from New Delhi to Nagpur is 11 hr. 30 min. 

(4) The duration of Journey from Bhopal to Chennai is 21 hr. 40 min. 


Q 60. A whole number is added to 50 and the same number is subtracted from 50. The sum of the resulting numbers is 

(1) 25 

(2) 50 

(3) 0 

(4) 100 




Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 61. Which of the following is NOT obtained from petroleum ? 

(1) Diesel 

(2) Wax 

(3) Grease 

(4) Coal 


Q 62. Select from the following a set of festivals celebrated on the full-moon day. 

(1) Diwali, Guru Nanak’s Birthday, Rakshabandhan 

(2) Holi, Mahashivratri, Buddhajayanti 

(3) Holi, Rakshabandhan, Guru Nanak’s Birthday 

(4) Diwali, Mahashivratri, Guru Nanak’s Birthday 


Q 63. Which one of the following groups of states has a coast on Arabian sea ? 

(1) Karnataka, Kerala, Gujarat 

(2) Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Odisha 

(3) Kerala, Karnataka, West Bengal

(4) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka 


Q 64. Where is Jharkhand located on the map of our country ? 

(1) West of Uttar Pradesh 

(2) East of West Bengal 

(3) North of Odisha 

(4) South-East of Chhattisgarh 


Q 65. You are located at X and your school is located at Y. There is no straight path from your house to school. So, you first go to A which is 30 m due north of X, then go to B which is 40 m due west of A, then go to C which is 30 m due north of B and finally you reach your school at Y which is 40 m due west of C. With respect to your school the correct direction of your house is 

(1) North-West 

(2) Due South 

(3) Due East 

(4) South-East 


Q 66. A boy boarded a train on 30th June, 2019 at Madgaon for Nagarcoil. The train departed at 09:45 hours from Madgaon and reached Nagarcoil at 07:15 hours on the next day. If the distance covered by the train during this time interval is 1140 km, the average speed of the train was 

(1) 51.5 km/h 

(2) 53 km/h 

(3) 54.5 km/h 

(4) 57 km/h 


Q 67. In one of the forests of our country the village council (Panchayat) allots the land to the forest people (Adivasis) for farming in a special unit called ‘tin’. What is tin ? 

(1) A land with dimensions 100 m × 100 m 

(2) A land on which a farmer grows one tin of seeds 

(3) A land from which a farmer produces one tin of seeds 

(4) A unit of land specially designed for the farmers of the forests. 


Q 68. In which one of the following cities the mountains of sand called “Sand Dunes” are found ? 

(1) Kabul 

(2) Abu Dhabi 

(3) Berlin 

(4) Thimpu 


Q 69. We all observe old wells which have dried up. Our elders say that about 25-30 years ago there was sufficient water in the wells, but now these have completely dried up. Select from the following the possible correct reasons for drying up of water in the wells. 

A. The lakes (ponds) in which rain water used to collect are no longer there. 

B. The soil around the trees, well and nearby area is now covered with coaltar/cement. 

C. No one uses wells as there are taps in every house. 

D. A number of electric motor driven pumps have come up to draw underground water. 

(1) A, B and C 

(2) B, C and D 

(3) C, D and A 

(4) A, B and D 


Q 70. In EVS concepts and issues have not been compartmentalized into science and social science. Why ? 

(1) Syllabus of EVS has been prescribed as such by CBSE. 

(2) The child looks at her/his environment in holistic manner. 

(3) It is a good teaching-learning strategy. 

(4) It is for decreasing the syllabus load. 


Q 71. Which of the following is true w.r.t. EVS subject for classes I and II ? 

(1) Issues and concerns related to EVS are transacted through language. 

(2) Issues and concerns related to EVS are transacted through language and mathematics. 

(3) EVS is a new subject introduced at the classes I to II. 

(4) EVS as subject is not easy to understand at classes I and II. 


Q 72. In EVS themes have been proposed instead of topics in the syllabus. Why ? 

(1) For reducing chapters in EVS. 

(2) To enhance the environmental comprehension of the learners. 

(3) For developing connected and interrelated understanding of issues of the learners’ local environment. 

(4) Theme based EVS transaction is easy as compared to the topics. 


Q 73. Which one of the following is not one of the six broad themes of EVS in the present syllabus ? 

(1) Food 

(2) Shelter 

(3) Things we make and do.

(4) Work and play 


Q 74. Which one of the following is not true w.r.t EVS ? 

(1) Nature of EVS is integrated. 

(2) EVS is based on child centred learning. 

(3) EVS provides opportunities to the learners to explore their environment. 

(4) EVS emphasizes descriptions and definitions. 


Q 75. Which one of the following is very important in constructing knowledge in EVS ? 

 A. Active participation of the learner. 

 B. Relating child’s knowledge with the teachers knowledge. 

 C. Learning EVS outside the four walls of the classroom. 

 D. Relating child’s local knowledge to the school knowledge. 

(1) A, C and D 

(2) D only 

(3) A only 

(4) A and D only 


Q 76. The most effective strategy to engage learners in EVS is __________. 

(1) Narratives 

(2) Reading of textbook 

(3) Explanations by teacher 

(4) Classroom Demonstration 


Q 77. Children should be encouraged to tap sources other than textbooks and teachers in EVS. Why ? 

 A. Textbook and teacher are not the only sources of EVS learning. 

 B. It will promote the involvement of parents and communities. 

 C. It will provide opportunity to teachers to know the child’s background. 

 D. It will develop psychomotor skills and aesthetic sense of the children. 

(1) B and C only 

(2) A, B and C 

(3) B, C and D 

(4) C and D only 


Q 78. A teacher always begins by conducting activities followed by questions and discussions. The objective of conducting activities, questions and discussion is to _____. 

 A. Assess the children’s process skills 

 B. Provide an opportunity to the children to explore 

 C. Provide an opportunity to the children to express themselves 

 D. Discriminate between the children bases on their pace of learning 

(1) D only 

(2) C only 

(3) B, C and D 

(4) A, B and C 


Q 79. A teacher conducts an experiment on “How does food get spoilt ?” 

Teacher makes groups of learners and provides them material related to the experiment. Why does teacher form groups of learners ? 

A. It promotes peer learning. 

B. It improves social interaction. 

C. Group learning is effective way of learning EVS without burden. 

D. Group learning is an essential strategy to maintain discipline in the class. 

(1) A and B only 

(2) C and D only 

(3) A and C only 

(4) B and D only 


Q 80. Which of the following should not be the indicator for assessment in EVS ? 

(1) Concern for justice and equality 

(2) Co-operation 

(3) Remembering 

(4) Questioning 


Q 81. In EVS, teachers should provide opportunities to the children to assess themselves. Self-assessment is ________. 

(1) CCE 

(2) Assessment as learning 

(3) Assessment of learning 

(4) Assessment for learning 


Q 82. Which technique is used in the rating scale ? 

(1) Written question 

(2) Observation 

(3) Checklist 

(4) Assignments 


Q 83. Which of the following is not the objective of teaching EVS ? 

(1) To nurture the curiosity and creativity of the child. 

(2) To develop an awareness about environmental issues. 

(3) To engage the child in exploratory and hands on activities. 

(4) To encourage children to provide textbook definitions. 


Q 84. Picture reading is an important activity in EVS. Which of the following indicator/indicators of learners can be assessed through picture reading ? 

A. Observation and recording 

B. Expression 

C. Analysis 

D. Experimentation 

(1) D only 

(2) A, B and C 

(3) A and C only 

(4) A and B only 


Q 85. In a hilly area it was observed that the people have built their houses using stones, mud, lime and wood. These houses have two floors. On the ground floor they provide space for animals to live and also store necessary things, on the first floor they stay. The roofs of the houses are flat and made of thick tree trunks. This hilly area is a part of 

(1) Arunachal Pradesh 

(2) Meghalaya 

(3) Himachal Pradesh 

(4) Jammu and Kashmir 


Q 86. Consider the following statements about the practices followed under “Jhoom farming” : 

A. After obtaining one set of crops the land is left as it is for some years. 

B. The bamboo or weeds which grow on the land are pulled out and burnt. 

C. The ash obtained on burning the weeds etc. is used as fertilizer. 

D. When the land is ready for farming it is deeply ploughed before dropping the seeds. 

The correct statement(s) is/are

(1) only A 

(2) only D 

(3) B and C 

(4) A and D 


Q 87. Boiled tapioca with any curry made using coconut is a preferred food of the people of 

(1) Kerala 

(2) West Bengal 

(3) Bihar 

(4) Tamil Nadu 


Q 88. It is believed that the animals that are awake at night can see objects only in

(1) violet and blue 

(2) green and yellow 

(3) orange and red 

(4) black and white 


Q 89. Earthworms are considered friends of the farmers. Select from the following the correct reasons for the same : 

A. Earthworms eat the dead leaves and plants and their droppings fertilize the soil. 

B. Earthworms eat the weeds and save the main crop. 

C. Earthworms soften the soil by digging underneath. 

D. The tunnels made by the earthworms provide easy passage to air and water into the soil. 

(1) A, B and C 

(2) B, C and D 

(3) C, D and A 

(4) A and C only 


Q 90. Tribal people have been using bronze to make many things since thousand of years. Bronze is still used in our houses. Select from the following the most correct statement about bronze. 

(1) It is an element like aluminium and copper. 

(2) It is a mixture of copper and brass.

(3) It is a mixture of copper, zinc and aluminium. 

(4) It is a mixture of copper and tin. 




IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – IV (Q. No. 91-120), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – I only. 

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. (91 to 99) : 

The future of water will be a gamble – resting entirely on the way we decide to play the game here. Either we continue to use water irresponsibly, threatening the very existence of this planet, or we adopt sustainable and smart water management practices to build a water secure future. 

By 2050, India’s total water demand will increase by 32 percent from now. Industrial and domestic sectors will account for 85 percent of the additional demand. Over-exploitation of ground-water, failure to recharge acquifers and reduction in catchment capacities due to uncontrolled urbanisation are all causes of the precarious tilt in the water balance. 

If the present rate of groundwater persists, India will have only 22 percent of the present daily per capita water available in 2050, possibly forcing the country to import its water. 

Optimists believe that India’s people some 1.7 billion by 2050, will have integrated water efficient practices into their daily lives. If the ambitious water sustainability goals set by global industries and governments are testament we dare say that the world has begun to recognize water as a resource after all. 

While beverages giants are focussed on returning water to the communities where they manufacture their drinks, food processing players are engaging with farmers and upstream actors to minimise water usage across the supply claim and textile houses are evangelising the concept of sustainable fashion. Companies have realised the risks emanating from the possibility of a water-scarce future. This has triggered companies to re-engineer processes, implement water optimizing, technologies, establish water audit standards, and use a collaborative approach to deal with the water crisis. 

Q 91. Persistent ground water depletion will NOT necessitate : 

(1) import of water 

(2) shutting down of industries

(3) adoption of smart water management technologies 

(4) using water judiciously 


Q 92. Optimists cannot pin their hope for better water management on : 

(1) integrating water efficient practices into daily use. 

(2) reducing demand for water by using new technologies. 

(3) discovering new ways of augmenting water supply. 

(4) treating sea water for domestic and industrial sectors. 


Q 93. The problem of acute water scarcity in future cannot be dealt with by companies through 

(1) establishing water audit standards. 

(2) implementing water optimizing technologies 

(3) discovering a viable substitute for water. 

(4) re-engineering processes 


Q 94. Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word ‘threatening’ as used in the passage ? 

(1) frightening 

(2) menacing 

(3) coercing 

(4) persisting 


Q 95. Which one of the following words is most opposite to the meaning of the word ‘increase’ as used in the passage ? 

(1) decrease 

(2) perceive 

(3) achieve 

(4) relieve 


Q 96. Identify the clause in the underlined part of the following sentence : 

 He breathed his last in the village where he was born. 

(1) Noun clause 

(2) Adjective clause 

(3) Adverb clause 

(4) Principal clause 


Q 97. What part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ? 

 I do not know why he is so curious about it. 

(1) Adjective clause 

(2) Noun clause 

(3) Principal clause 

(4) Adverb clause 


Q 98. We will face a severe water-scarcity problem in future mostly because :

(1) ground-water level water is steadily decreasing. 

(2) water is not a renewable source.

(3) by 2050, demand for water will increase considerably. 

(4) we do not use water responsibly. 


Q 99. Which of the following will NOT lead to a severe water imbalance ? 

(1) flawless water infrastructure.

(2) over-exploitation of water.

(3) failure to recharge acquifers.

(4) uncontrolled urbanisation 


Directions : Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 100 to 105) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options : 

All creation drinks with pleasure, 

Drinks at Mother Nature’s breast; 

All the just, and all the evil, 

Follow down her rosy path. 

Kisses she bestowed, and grape wine, 

Friendship true, proved e’en in death; 

Every worm knows nature’s pleasure, 

Every cherub meets his God. 

Gladly, like the planets flying 

True to heaven’s mighty plan, 

Brothers, run your course now, 

Happy as a knight in victory. 


Q 100. Which of the following does not support the idea that Mother Nature’s love embraces all ? 

(1) All creation drinks at Mother Nature’s heart. 

(2) She bestows kisses on all her children. 

(3) She loves all the just but not all the evil. 

(4) She also blesses us with true friendship. 


Q 101. What is the hallmark of a true friend ?

(1) He saves you from troubles. 

(2) He helps you to enjoy the fruits of nature. 

(3) He proves true even in death. 

(4) He can take on all the evils for you. 


Q 102. Rosy path is followed by ________.

(1) the just 

(2) the evil 

(3) both just and evil 

(4) neither the just nor the evil 


Q 103. Identify and name the figure of speech used in “All creation ‘Drinks at Mother Nature’s breast’”. 

(1) Metonymy 

(2) Simile 

(3) Personification 

(4) Alliteration 


Q 104. What does the expression, “Brothers, run your course now’ mean ? 

(1) Keep on moving towards your goal. 

(2) Don’t let failures upset you. 

(3) Seek god’s help when you are in difficulty. 

(4) Cultivate a positive attitude to life. 


Q 105. How can we say that God’s creatures are most fortunate and happy ? 

(1) The world they live in lacks romance and beauty. 

(2) They have no friends to share their joys and sorrows. 

(3) They do not have enough pleasures at their disposal. 

(4) They have a benevolent Mother Nature to look after them. 


Answer the following questions (Q Nos. 106 to 120) by selecting the most appropriate option out of the given options. 

Q 106. A Hindi speaking teacher gets posted in a primary school which is in the area of Punjab. Since he doesn’t know the local language of that area. He should : 

(1) apply for the transfer to a Hindi speaking area. 

(2) motivate the community to learn Hindi, as it’s a national / official language. 

(3) communicate in English as it is difficult for him to understand their local dialect. 

(4) use the child’s language as a resource and start teaching. 


Q 107. While designing a working activity for a language class a teacher should most importantly focus on : 

(1) choosing a topic from their surroundings. 

(2) giving clear instructions for the task. 

(3) providing all the necessary vocabulary required for the task. 

(4) assigning an authentic piece of writing task. 


Q 108. Some children do not have exposure to English outside the classroom. So, the teacher’s proficiency in spoken English is essential because : 

(1) the teacher can give more time to grammar drills. 

(2) the teacher can edit the errors in student’s learning process. 

(3) the students may listen to and process the new language before they actually communicate in it. 

(4) students can imitate, practise and drill the statements or sentences used by the teacher. 


Q 109. Which of the following classroom practices helps a teacher to develop oral language among the students ? 

(1) Chorus reading of the text with the teacher. 

(2) Chorus recitation/individual recitation of the poem after memorising it. 

(3) Participating in role-plays on any one of their favourite scenes. 

(4) Practising the correct pronunciation of new or unfamiliar words. 


Q 110. In a constructivist classroom language learning would most importantly be based on: 

(1) group discussion and peer interaction. 

(2) minute observation and record of each child’s handwriting development. 

(3) correction of spelling errors and making sure that they are not repeated. 

(4) carefully completing the language syllabus. 


Q 111. As a language teacher which one of the following is most important for you regarding teaching of grammar ? 

(1) Memorising grammar rules.

(2) Avoiding grammar rules.

(3) Using functional approach.

(4) Using grammar translation method. 


Q 112. Which one of the following is a correct statement about a textbook ? 

(1) It is planning of educational activities for the session. 

(2) A textbook is the final thing for the teacher. 

(3) It helps to achieve the objectives laid down in the curriculum. 

(4) The textbooks are the only source to read. 


Q 113. The purpose of diagnostic test in language learning is to 

(1) give feedback to the parents in the PTMs. 

(2) fill the progress report of students. 

(3) plan and prepare question paper for summative assessment. 

(4) know the gaps in learners understanding. 


Q 114. The purpose of Continuous Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE) in language is : 

(1) to assess the students’ understanding of the textbook. 

(2) to assess their learning gaps. 

(3) to give regular tests i.e. weekly tests. 

(4) to assess the level of competencies achieved by the children. 


Q 115. Under which act did English get the status of the associate official language ? 

(1) Official Language Act, Article-343 

(2) Associate Official Language Act, Article-343 

(3) Three Language Formula

(4) National Curriculum Framework 


Q 116. A teacher is appreciating a child for his ‘overall language use’, though some of the words were misspelt by him. The teacher is using _______ approach in her class. 

(1) Structural 

(2) Communicative 

(3) Constructivist 

(4) Whole language 


Q 117. Which approach lays a lot of emphasis on habit formation ? 

(1) Cognitive approach 

(2) Communicative approach

(3) Behaviouristic approach

(4) Eclectic approach 


Q 118. In the context of ‘theory of multiple intelligence’ which one of the following intelligences is related to language ? 

(1) Visual-Spatial Intelligence

(2) Fluency-Accuracy Intelligence 

(3) Linguistic-Verbal Intelligence

(4) Vocabulary Grammar Intelligence 


Q 119. Banishing mother tongue in the classroom is the characteristic feature of _________ method. 

(1) Direct 

(2) Bi-lingual 

(3) Grammar translation 

(4) Natural 


Q 120. ________ deals with the level of meaning in language. 

(1) Syntax 

(2) Semantics 

(3) Collocation 

(4) Colloquial 




IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – V (Q. No. 121-150), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – II only. 

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 121 to 128) by choosing the correct/most appropriate options : 

On an ordinary workday, 27-year old Pramila Bariki hikes up steep slopes across fields, through ankle-deep rivulets, often walking upto 14 kms. She gets a ride until the road is motorable, from which point she has to walk. 

Her job ? She doles out healthcare advice to mothers and children in the remotest hamlets in the Araku valley of Andhra Pradesh. 

Now heavily pregnant Pramila has had to slow down delegating tasks to Duridi, Neeraj, Sunita and others. It’s they who now walk through forests and climb up moutains, visiting families to identify pregnant women and conduct basic tests for diabetes and anaemia and connect them with a primary health centre whenever necessary. 

These young tribal women are all trained auxiliary nurses, part of an experimental health project in Araku that aims to end preventable deaths during childbirth or infancy. 

The Araku valley is home to several nomadic tribes who live in small clusters of 70 to 150 homes situated in rugged and inaccessible terrain. Until a few years ago these communities were unaware of government healthcare policies. The death of a child or a woman during pregnancy or child birth was common and they were resigned to it. 

Today 38 women like Pramila drawn from these tribes, have broken social and cultural barriers to train as nurses and provide medical care to 1179 hamlets across the Araku, Paderu and Chintapalli mandals. Since they are from these communities they have been able create trust in the families and neighbours about formal healthcare. As a result these remote villages have now had the first childbirth in hospital, the first delivery by a trained nurse and the first mother not to lose a child. 

The nurses advise women on hygiene and nutrition and convince them to visit the nearest health centre for further check-ups. 

Q 121. The health project launched in the tribal areas aims to : 

(1) prevent deaths during pregnancy and child birth. 

(2) raise the living standard in the tribal areas. 

(3) provide nutrition to women and children 

(4) provide employment alongwith education. 


Q 122. The tribal people trust the health workers mostly because they : 

(1) help them get employment. 

(2) are educated and soft-spoken. 

(3) help them settle their domestic disputes. 

(4) belong to their own community. 


Q 123. Read the following statements : 

A. Child mortality rate in the tribal areas was very high in the past. 

B. Pramila and her colleagues are rendering invaluable services to the tribal women. 

(1) A is true, B is false. 

(2) B is true, A is false. 

(3) Both A and B are false.

(4) Both A and B are true. 


Q 124. Which one of the following words is similar in meaning to ‘remotest’ as used in the passage ? 

(1) toughest 

(2) farthest 

(3) highest 

(4) tallest 


Q 125. Which one of the following words is opposite in meaning to ‘trust’ as used in the passage ? 

(1) disdain 

(2) distrust 

(3) disrupt 

(4) dismantle 


Q 126. He could not clear the exam because he didn’t work hard. 

Identify the clause in the underlined part of the sentence given above : 

(1) Adverb clause 

(2) Adjective clause 

(3) Noun clause 

(4) Principal clause 


Q 127. Which part of the following sentence contains an error ? 

The sudden rise  and fall of prices make a business very uncertain
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (a) 

(2) (b) 

(3) (c) 

(4) (d) 


Q 128. The job of the auxiliary nurses is physically challenging because they : 

(1) have to face opposition from the local traditional healers. 

(2) are not paid any renumeration for their work. 

(3) have to walk through forests and up mountains to reach out to people. 

(4) are not liked by the people whom they want to help. 

Directions : Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 129 to 135) by choosing the correct/most appropriate options : 

Kaizen in Japanese means constant and never ending improvement. There is no pursuit more noble or important than the pursuit of self-improvement. As Confucius said many years ago : “Good people strengthen themselves ceaselessly”. Consistent and constant improvement in all areas is essential to reach your true potential. The personal trademark of almost every high achiever and successful person is a dedication to daily improvement in both their personal and professional lives. From Ben Franklin to Mahatma Gandhi, from Martin Luther King Jr. to Ivan Lendl and from Nelson Mandela to Mother Teresa, effective people do things daily to advance confidently in the direction of their goals and dreams. 

You must also apply the Kaizen principle on a daily basis to condition your mind to peak performance. It has been said that the mind is a terrible master but a wonderful servant. By seeking to improve your mind and condition it to excellence of thought, this wonderful servant will most certainly bring you all the peace, prosperity and joy you now search for. 

Study any person’s great success story and you will undoubtedly learn of their commitment to Kaizen. They will be dedicated to small, daily improvements in the key areas of their lives and become the very best that they could be. Personal mastery is like a bank account, call it the Personal Excellence Account. By improving daily, whether it is by spending some time exercising, reading, visualizing or forging better relationships, you are making regular deposits into your account. After only one month, for example, you will have improved the richness and quality of your world by at least 30%. 

Q 129. What is common among the great people mentioned in para-1 ? 

(1) They inspired all those who came into contact with them. 

(2) They worked hard to alleviate the suffering of the downtrodden. 

(3) They tried their best to realise their goals. 

(4) They resisted every temptation. 


Q 130. How do we stand to gain when we condition our minds to do our best ? 

(1) We earn name, fame and wealth.

(2) We rise in the estimation of our friends. 

(3) We are able to overcome all obstacles. 

(4) We realise our full capability. 


Q 131. Read the following sentences : 

A. All successful people are committed to Kaizen. 

B. If we can control our mind, it will serve us wonderfully. 

(1) A is false and B is true.

(2) A is true and B is false.

(3) Both A and B are true. 

(4) Both A and B are false. 


Q 132. Which word is the most similar in meaning to the word, ‘trademark’ used in the passage ? 

(1) item 

(2) object 

(3) subject 

(4) brand 


Q 133. Which word is the most opposite in meaning to the word, ‘wonderful’ as used in the passage ? 

(1) separate 

(2) deficient 

(3) unremarkable 

(4) insufficient 


Q 134. Which part of the following sentence contains an error ? 

Since time immemorial  the Hindus  have been worshipping  the river Ganga
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (a) 

(2) (b) 

(3) (c) 

(4) (d) 


Q 135. How, according to the author, can we attain our full potential ? 

(1) by putting in a lot of effort. 

(2) by proper and ceaseless improvement in all areas. 

(3) by seeking the advice and guidance of successful people. 

(4) by working hard on our weaknesses 

Answer the following questions (Q Nos. 136 to 150) by selecting the most appropriate options. 


Q 136. A teacher of class-V wishes to teach a complex language structure from the syllabus. She should 

(1) ask students to memorise the rules. 

(2) not teach the complex structure and avoid it. 

(3) focus on listening-speaking practice instead of teaching grammar. 

(4) use a grammar game with a focus on this complex structure. 


Q 137. As per Noam Chomsky’s theory, the role of Language Acquisition Device (LAD) helps children to 

(1) learn second language easily.

(2) communicate actively in second language. 

(3) generate grammar rules.

(4) imitate the language spoken by adults. 


Q 138. Which of the following statements is correct ? 

(1) Children’s first language is a hurdle in learning English. 

(2) It is difficult to teach English as they use their first language in every aspect and ignore English. 

(3) As a teacher you would like to give a list of English words on the very first day. 

(4) Children come to school with a treasure of experience and their mother tongue acts like a resource in learning English. 


Q 139. The study of how words combine to form phrases, phrases combine to form clauses and clauses join to make sentences is known as 

(1) Semantics 

(2) Syntax 

(3) Collocation 

(4) Colloquial 


Q 140. English language has ________ consonant sounds. 

(1) 21 

(2) 22 

(3) 23 

(4) 24 


Q 141. According to National Curriculum Framework, 2005, “English in India is ________ in a multilingual country.

(1) a first language 

(2) a foreign language 

(3) a global language 

(4) an associate language 


Q 142. A teacher divides the class in small groups and asks them to discuss and present their views on “Save Environment”. Students are free to plan and present their choice and creativity. The teacher is facilitating them as and when required. Which approach/method is followed in the class ? 

(1) Constructivist approach

(2) Structural approach 

(3) Natural approach 

(4) Deductive approach 


Q 143. A teacher of class-IV brought some interesting books and distributed them among the students. Then she said, “Today let’s have fun and read these books for our pleasure”. This reading is called 

(1) Pre-reading 

(2) Post-reading 

(3) Intensive-reading 

(4) Extensive-reading 


Q 144. A 2½ year old child picks up his sibling’s book and looking at the pictures tells a story. The child is 

(1) emergent writer 

(2) emergent student 

(3) emergent reader 

(4) emergent story writer 


Q 145. A teacher of class-III finds that some students understand the concept more clearly when she explains them orally. Their learning style is 

(1) auditory 

(2) visual 

(3) kinesthetic 

(4) aesthetic 


Q 146. A teacher asks the students to read the text for information and create their own interpretation beyond the literal level. Which sub-skill is she practicising in the class ? 

(1) Paraphrasing 

(2) Predicting 

(3) Inferring 

(4) Summarising 


Q 147. Story telling and listening to stories play an important role because stories 

(1) help to teach and learn new and difficult words. 

(2) use many structures of grammar and help children to learn them. 

(3) present language as a whole. 

(4) help the teacher to maintain classroom discipline. 


Q 148. Before starting a new chapter on ‘The Honest Woodcutter’ the teacher started a discussion with the students on ‘Honesty’. What is the teacher trying to achieve with this activity ? 

(1) Activate students’ attention.

(2) Activate students’ skill. 

(3) Activate students’ previous knowledge 

(4) Assess students’ level of language and its usage. 


Q 149. A child got admission to a new school. The teacher was surprised to see that she would speak four languages fluently but could not speak in English. She is a 

(1) monolingual 

(2) bilingual 

(3) multilingual 

(4) linguist 


Q  150. A student of class-V while reading a chapter finds some difficult and unfamiliar words and is not able to get the meaning of those words he should : 

(1) ask the teacher. 

(2) ignore or skip the word and keep reading. 

(3) guess the meaning in content. 

(4) ask his classmate every time to help. 

CTET September 2016 Paper-II Previous Year Paper

CTET September 2016 Paper-II

Q. 1 Two students read the same passage yet construct entirely different interpretations of its meaning. Which of the following is true about them?

A. It is not possible and the students need to re-read the passage.

B. It is possible because the teacher has not explained the passage.

C. It is possible because different factors affect learning of individuals in varied ways.

D. It is not possible because learning is not meaning – making.


Q. 2 According to the National Curriculum Framework, 2005, learning is _________________ and _____________ in its character.

A. active; social

B. passive; simple

C. passive; social

D. active; simple


Q. 3 To enable students to think independently and become effective learners, it is important for a teacher to:

A. offer rewards for each success achieved by the students

B. teach students how to monitor their own learning

C. give information in small units or chunks

D. present information in an organised manner to make it easier to recall


Q. 4 If a teacher wants her students to acquire problem-solving skills, the students should be engaged in activities that involve:

A. structured worksheets containing multiple-choice questions

B. recall, memorization and comprehension

C. drill and practice

D. inquiring, reasoning and decision making


Q. 5 Knowing the naive conceptions that students bring to the classroom:

A. pulls down the teacher’s morale since it increases his work

B. does not serve any purpose of the teacher

C. helps the teacher to plan teaching more meaningfully

D. hampers the teacher’s planning and teaching


Q. 6 Which of the following factors affect learning?

A. Motivation of the learner

B. Maturation of the learner

C. Teaching strategies

D. Physical and emotional health of the learner


A. A, B, C and D

B. A and B

C. A and C

D. A, B and C


Q. 7 Meaningful learning is:

A. pairing and association between the stimulus and the response

B. imitation of adults and more able peers

C. passive receiving of the given information

D. active creation of knowledge structures from personal experience


Q. 8 Which of the following is not one of the primary tasks of a teacher for effective student learning?

A. Transmitting information to the students in a didactic manner

B. Knowing the concepts that students bring to the classroom

C. Requiring students to respond to higher-order questioning

D. Teaching students how to monitor and improve their own learning by effort


Q. 9 Which of the following statements about principles of development is incorrect?

A. Development depends on maturation and learning

B. Development takes place due to constant interaction between heredity and environment

C. Every child goes through stages of development, yet there are wide individual differences among children

D. Development is a quantitative process which can be measured precisely.


Q. 10 The unique interaction of _______ and __________ can result in different paths and outcomes of development.

A. challenges; limitations

B. heredity; environment

C. stability; change

D. exploration; nutrition


Q. 11 Which of the following is true of school and socialization?

A. School is an important agent of socialization

B. School does not play any role in socialization

C. School plays very little role in socialization

D. School is the first primary agent of socialization


Q. 12 Which of the following statements is correct about Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development?

A. Piaget argues that instead of progressing through stages, cognitive development is


B. Piaget has proposed five distinct stages of cognitive development

C. The stages are invariant which means that no stage can be skipped

D. The sequence of the stages can vary according to the cultural context of children


Q. 13 The context of ‘conservation’ as proposed by Jean Piaget means that:

A. it is important to protect wildlife and forests

B. certain physical properties remain the same even when outward appearances change

C. one can arrive at the correct conclusion by systematically testing hypothesis

D. taking the perspective of others into consideration is an important cognitive ability 


Q. 14 Match the following in the light of Howard Gardner’s theory of Multiple Intelligence (Given in the figure):

A. a(v), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

B. a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(v)

C. a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(v)

D. a(iv), b(ii), c(v), d(iii)


Q. 15 According to Lev Vygotsky:

A. interaction with adults and peers does not influence language development

B. language development changes the nature of human thought

C. culture plays a very small role in language development

D. children learn language through a language acquisition device


Q. 16 Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory of moral reasoning has been criticized on several counts. Which of the following statements is correct on the context of their criticism?

A. Kohlberg has not given typical responses to each stage of moral reasoning.

B. Kohlberg has duplicated Piaget’s methods of arriving at his theoretical framework.

C. Kohlberg’s theory does not focus on children’s responses.

D. Kohlberg has based his study primarily on a male sample


Q. 17 Which of the following highlights assessment for learning?

A. The teacher assesses conceptual understanding of the students besides focusing on the processes of thinking

B. The teacher assesses the students by comparing their responses to ‘standard’ Responses 

C. The teacher assesses the students based on the information given in the textbooks

D. The teacher assesses a student based on his/her performance in comparison to others.


Q. 18 ‘Child-centred’ pedagogy means:

A. the teacher dictating the children what should be done.

B. giving primacy to children’s experiences and their voices.

C. enabling the children to follow prescribed information.

D. the teacher leading all the learning in the classroom.


Q. 19 Which of the following statements describes Piaget and Vygotsky’s views on language and thought correctly?

A. According to Vygotsky, thought emerges first and according to Piaget, language has a profound effect on thought

B. According to Piaget, thought emerges first and according to Vygotsky, language has a profound effect on thought

C. Both view thought as emerging from the children’s language

D. Both view language as emerging from the child’s thought


Q. 20 Watching her grandfather arguing with her father for going on a school trip, the grandmother say, “Why can’t you be obedient like a good girl? Who will marry you if you behave like a boy?” This statement reflects which of the following?

A. Gender constancy

B. Gender stereotypes about attributes of girls and boys

C. Improper gender identification of the girl

D. Difficulties faced by families in child-rearing


Q. 21 Which of the following statements about assessment are correct?

A. Assessment should help students see their strengths and gaps help the teacher finetune her teaching accordingly

B. Assessment is meaningful only if comparative evaluations of students are made

C. Assessment should assess not only memory but also understanding and application

D. Assessment cannot be purposeful if it does not induce fear and anxiety


A. B and C

B. A and B

C. B and D

D. A and C


Q. 22 According to the Right to Education Act, 2009, children with special needs should study: 

A. at home with their parents and caregivers providing necessary support

B. in special schools created exclusively for them

C. in inclusive education setups with provisions to cater to their individual need

D. in vocational training centres which would prepare them for life skills


Q. 23 An effective teacher in a classroom where students come from diverse backgrounds, would:

A. push students from deprived backgrounds to work hard so that they can match up with their peers

B. focus on their cultural knowledge to address individual differences among the group

C. ignore cultural knowledge and treat all his students in a uniform manner

D. create groups of students with those from the same economic background put together


Q. 24 Match the following principles of development with their correct descriptions (Given in the figure):

A. a(v), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)

B. a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

C. a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)

D. a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)


Q. 25 Which of the following statements about cognition and emotions is correct?

A. Cognition and emotions are interwined and affect each other

B. Cognition and emotions are processes independent of each other

C. Cognition affects emotions but emotions do not affect cognition

D. Emotions affect cognition but cognition does not affect emotions


Q. 26 In an inclusive classroom with diverse learners, cooperative learning and peer-tutoring 

A. should be used only sometimes since it promotes comparison with classmates

B. should be actively discouraged and competition should be promoted

C. should be actively promoted to facilitate peer-acceptance

D. should not be practised and students should be segregated based on their abilities


Q. 27 A teacher can address diversity in her class by:

A. accepting and valuing differences

B. using socio – cultural background of children as a pedagogic resource

C. accommodating different learning styles

D. giving standard instruction and setting uniform benchmarks for performance

Select the correct answer using the code given below:


A. A, B, C and D

B. A, B and D

C. B, C and D

D. A, B and C


Q. 28 A teacher asks her class to cover sharp edges of furniture with cotton and use “Touch and Feel” notice boards and books. The needs of which category of special learners is the attempting to cater to?

A. Visually – impared learners

B. Hearing – impared learners

C. Learning – impared learners

D. Socially disadvantaged learners


Q. 29 Gifted children are best catered to by educational programmes that:

A. make use of gifts and rewards to motivate them to perform according to minimum standards of learning

B. emphasize mastery of knowledge by recall

C. stimulate their thinking and give them opportunities to engage in divergent thinking

D. control their aggressive behaviour


Q. 30 Which of the following statements about student’s failure in schools are correct?

A. Students belonging to certain castes and communities fail since they do not have ability

B. Students fail in schools because appropriate rewards are not offered for their learning

C. Students fail because teaching is not done in a manner in which it is meaningful to them

D. Students fail because school system does not cater to individual child’s needs and interests


A. C and D

B. A and B

C. B and C

D. B and D


Q. 31 Neeta, a Class VII mathematics teacher, assigns a lot of survey-based projects to mathematics classrooms. The purpose of such activity is:

A. to promote problem-solving skills

B. to give an opportunity to students to collect authentic data

C. to break the monotony of the classroom

D. to use it as an alternate assessment

Which of the above purposes are true?


A. A, B and C

B. A and B

C. A and C

D. A, B and D


Q. 32 Which of the following terms in mathematics is defined?

A. Point

B. Line

C. Diagonal of a quadrilateral

D. Plane


Q. 33 Which of the following is not an important aspects in ‘Algebra’?

A. Visualisation

B. Measurement

C. Transposition

D. Generalisation


Q. 34 ‘Problem posing’ in mathematics means:

A. inability to solve problems

B. raising doubts in the class

C. solving problems

D. creating problems from the context


Q. 35 A good textbook contains a lot of:

A. questions for exploration

B. questions for practice

C. worked out examples

D. theorems and proofs


Q. 36 Consider the following statement;

“Every odd natural number is a prime number.”

Which of the following methods of “proof” can be used to prove/disprove the above statement?


A. Method of disproof

B. Direct proof

C. Proof by contrapositive

D. Proof by contradiction


Q. 37 Which of the following is not a contributing factor responsible for mathematics anxiety?

A. Nature of subject

B. Gender

C. Examination system

D. Curriculum


Q. 38 Which of the following numbers does not lie between -5/6 and 7/8?

A. 5/6

B. -17/24

C. -3/4

D. -11/12


Q. 39 The reciprocal of [(3/8)⁻² x (-4/5)⁻³] is:

A. (8/3)² x (5/-4)³

B. -9/125

C. 125/9

D. 9/125


Q. 40 If (13² – 5²)^3/2 = 6³ x A, then the value of A is:

A. 2⁴

B. 2

C. 2²

D. 2³


Q. 41 If x√243 = y√867, where x and y are co-prime numbers, then the value of (x-y) is:

A. 8

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6


Q. 42 The sum of all possible values of a, for which the 4 – digit number 547a is divisible by 3, is

A. 15

B. 7

C. 10

D. 13


Q. 43 A common factor of x⁴ – 256, x³ – 4x² + 3x – 12 and x² – 7x + 12 is:

A. x – 3

B. x + 4

C. x – 4

D. x + 3


Q. 44 On dividing the polynomial 8x³ – 6x² + 10x + 3 by (4x + 1), the quotient is 2x² + k, where k is equal to:

A. -3 + 2x

B. 3 – 2x

C. 3 + 2x

D. -3 -2x


Q. 45 If the product of (9x² + 15 – x) and (-1 – x + x²), if A, B and C are the coefficients of x³, x² and x respectively, then the value of (A + B – C) is:

A. 14

B. -3

C. -17

D. 11


Q. 46 When x = 1/9 and y = -3/4, then the value of the expression 81x² + 16y² -72xy is:

A. 9/16

B. 25

C. 16

D. 9/4


Q. 47 Abhi is twice as old as his daughter. Five years ago, his age was four times his daughter’s age. If the present age of the daughter is x years, then:

A. 2(x – 5) = 4(2x + 5)

B. 2(x – 5) = 4(2x -5)

C. 4(x – 5) = 2x – 5

D. 4(x + 5) = 2(2x – 5)


Q. 48 A sum of Rs. 6250 at 8% per annum compounded annually, after 2(3/4) years amounts to: 

A. Rs. 7872.60

B. Rs. 7165.60

C. Rs. 7581.40

D. Rs. 7727.40


Q. 49 A person marks his goods 40% above the cost price and allows 40% discount on the marked price. His loss/gain percent is:

A. No loss/gain

B. loss, 8%

C. gain, 10%

D. loss, 16%


Q. 50 The angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5 : 8. The sum of the supplement of the largest angle and the complement of the smallest angle is:

A. 80°

B. 50°

C. 60°

D. 70°


Q. 51 Two sides if a right triangle measure 15 cm and 17 cm. Which of the following statements can be true of the length of the third side of the triangle?

A. It is between 4 cm and 7 cm.

B. It is between 20 cm and 23 cm

C. It is less than 10 cm

A. A and C only

B. B only

C. A and B only

D. B and C only


Q. 52 If one angle of a triangle is 110°, then the angle between the bisectors of the other two angles measures:

A. 145°

B. 90°

C. 100°

D. 110°


Q. 53 In ΔABC, AB = 4cm, AC = 5cm and BC = 6cm. In ΔPQR, PR = 4cm, PQ = 5cm and RQ = 6cm. ΔABC is congruent to:






Q. 54 A tank is in the form of a cuboid. It holds a maximum of 540 m³ water. If the tank is 8 m long and 15 m wide, then how many metres deep must the water be when the tank is 2/3 full?

A. 4.5

B. 2

C. 2.5

D. 3


Q. 55 The ratio of the areas of two equilateral triangles is 16 : 9. If the perimeter of the smaller triangle is 63 cm, then how much larger is a side of the larger triangle than a side of the smaller triangle?

A. 7cm

B. 3cm

C. 4cm

D. 5cm


Q. 56 The area of a triangle is equal to the area of a circle whose perimeter is 6π cm. If the base of the triangle is 8 cm, then its corresponding height (in cm) is:

A. 2.25

B. π

C. 2

D. 2.25π


Q. 57 The mean of mode, median and range of the data:

2, 1, 2, 3, 3, 6, 4, 8, 14, 9, 4, 8, 4

A. 9

B. 4

C. 6

D. 7


Q. 58 Some students of your class are repeatedly not able to do well in mathematics

examinations and tests. As a teacher you would:

A. explain the consequences of not doing well

B. give more tests for practice

C. diagnose the cause and take steps for remediation

D. make them sit with high achievers


Q. 59 In a inclusive mathematics classroom, what would be your strategy for addressing the needs of visually challenged

A. Design alternate teaching-learning and assessment methods

B. Send the learners to a special educator

C. Offer them another subject in lieu of mathematics

D. Pair them with high scorers in mathematics


Q. 60 Which of the following assessment strategies can be used to assess learners’ interest in and attitude to mathematics?

A. Oral test, Paper-pencil test, Class participation

B. Checklist, Portfolio, Paper-pencil test

C. Checklist, Portfolio, Project, Class participation

D. Portfolio, Project, Paper-pencil test


Q. 61 Which of the following is not a purpose of conducting practicals/experimental activities on science?

A. They help in scoring high grades or marks.

B. They enhance understanding of science ideas.

C. They provide and opportunity for problem solving.

D. They help in developing manipulative skills.


Q. 62 A few small wax pieces are fixed at nearly equal distances on a flat strip of aluminium. On end of the strip is clamped to a stand and the other end is heated. Consider the following statements A and B:

A. Wax pieces begin to fall one-by-one in the order of their increasing distance from the flame.

B. Aluminium strip transfers heat from the end nearest to the flame to the other end Of the two statements given below:


A. Both A and B are inferences

B. A is observation and B is inference

C. B is observation and A is inference

D. Both A and B are observations


Q. 63 The students of class VII are asked the following question by a teacher:

“Two identical cubes of ice are taken out of a refrigerator. One is crushed and the other is left as it is. It is noticed that the crushed ice melts faster. What could be the reason?”

Which process skill is promoted through this question?

A. Experimentation

B. Observation

C. Hypothesizing

D. Controlling variables


Q. 64 A teacher of class VII demonstrates the following activity in the class:

“A leaf is put in a test tube and spirit is poured over it. Then the test tube is put in a beaker half-filled with water and heated till the leaf is discoloured. The leaf is then taken out and a few drops of iodine are put on it. The leaf turns blue-black in colour.” After this activity, the teacher gives some questions for the assessment of various indicators of learning.

Which of the following would assess ‘analysis’?

A. What care is taken to prevent damage to the leaf?

B. What care is taken while pouring spirit into the test tube?

C. What happens to the colour of the leaf when solution is poured on it?

D. Can this test be done without removing chlorophyll?


Q. 65 You want your Class VI students to figure out that the property of solubility of salt in water can be used to separate a mixture of sand and salt. As a supporter of inquiry-oriented pedagogy, you would:

A. provide the mixture of sand and salt to students, ask them to think up different ways of separation and help them in trying out their ideas

B. explain different methods of separation of mixtures first and then explain the separation of sand and salt mixture

C. ask students to hypothesize about different ways in which a mixture of sand and salt can be separated and then lead them to the correct answer through detailed explanations

D. take a mixture of sand and salt, demonstrate its separation and then ask students to repeat it on their own


Q. 66 Which among the following statements describes the relationship between science and technology?

A. Science is a boarder endeavour while technology is goal-oriented and often localespecific

B. Technology is a more creative process as compared to science

C. Science is an ancient enterprise but technology is relatively recent

D. Science and technology proceed independently and in isolation from each other


Q. 67 Which among the following is not a single flower but a group of flowers?

A. Datura

B. Rose

C. China rose

D. Sunflower


Q. 68 A bicycle is moving on a straight road at a constant speed. The wheels of the cycle exhibit:

A. circular, translational and periodic motion

B. circular and translational motion

C. translational and periodic motion

D. circular and periodic motion


Q. 69 Suppose you have a farmer living at a place having black soil. If the climate of your region is warm and you want to grow fibre-yielding plants in your fields, then which of the following would you prefer?

A. Rayon

B. Coconut

C. Jute

D. Cotton


Q. 70 Choose the odd one out:

A. Embryo

B. Egg

C. Ovum

D. Gamate


Q. 71 The function of saliva is to:

A. convert starch into sugars

B. prevent the food from entering the windpipe

C. convert carbohydrates into proteins

D. convert starch into fats


Q. 72 Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Both inhaled air and exhaled air contains oxygen

B. Inhaled air does not contain carbon dioxide

C. Exhaled air does not contain oxygen

D. Exhaled air does not contain carbon dioxide


Q. 73 Ritu is standing in front of a plane mirror. The distance between Ritu and her image is 10m. If she moves 2 m towards the mirror, then the distance between Ritu and her image is:

A. 8 m

B. 10 m

C. 12 m

D. 6 m


Q. 74 You have three test tubes X, Y and Z half-filled with different solutions, as X is filled with sodium chloride solution, Y is filled with sodium hydroxide solution and Z is filled with dilute hydrochloric acid. On adding one drop of phenolphthalein solution to each of the above solutions, you would observe the solutions in the test tubes as:

A. X is colourless; Y is pink and Z is colourless

B. X is pink; Y is pink and Z is colourless

C. X is pale green; Y is colourless and Z is red

D. X is colourless; Y is pale green and Z is pink


Q. 75 In our mouth, the arrangement of different types of teeth from front to back is:

A. canine – incisor – molar – premolar

B. incisor – canine – premolar – molar

C. canine – incisor – premolar – molar

D. incisor – canine – molar – premolar


Q. 76 In plants and trees, water goes up high due to suction pull. Which of the following phenomena causes this suction pull?

A. Photosynthesis

B. Transpiration

C. Respiration

D. Absorption


Q. 77 Which of the following is the reproducing part of ginger?

A. Leaf

B. Root

C. Stem

D. Seed


Q. 78 Which among the following liquids are conductors of electricity?

A. Vinegar

B. Sugar solution

C. Salt solution

D. Distilled water


A. B and C

B. A, C and D

C. A and C

D. C and D


Q. 79 Consider the following statements:

A. Plants can survive for some time even without photosynthesis.

B. Plants can survive for some time even without respiration.

C. Photosynthesis and respiration both are essential for the survival of plants

D. Photosynthesis and respiration both are simultaneous process in plants during daytime.

The correct statements are:


A. A, B and D

B. A, B and C

C. B, C and D

D. A, C and D


Q. 80 A block of wood is lying at rest on a table. What can be said about the force(s) acting on it? 

A. Gravitational and frictional forces are acting on it

B. There is no force acting on it

C. There is a pair of balanced forces acting on it

D. Only gravitational force is acting on it


Q. 81 Which type of leaf pattern, i.e., leaf venation and root type are presented in bamboo?

A. Reticulate venation and tap root

B. Parallel venation and fibrous root

C. Parallel venation and tap root

D. Reticulate venation and fibrous root


Q. 82 Which of the following facts is nor correct about magnets?

A. Magnetic field lines originate from north pole and merge at south pole of a magnet

B. Attraction is a sure test of magnetism

C. Like poles of magnet repel each other

D. Magnetic field is stronger at the poles of a bar magnet


Q. 83 Match the following metals and non-metals with their uses. (Given in figure)

A. a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

B. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

C. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

D. a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)


Q. 84 Select the true statement from the following:

A. Melamine is a thermoplastic whereas bakelite is a thermosetting plastic

B. Bakelite and melamine are both thermoplastics

C. Bakelite and melamine are both thermosetting plastics

D. Bakelite is a thermoplastic whereas melamine is a thermosetting plastic


Questions: 85 – 87

A teacher of class VIII demonstrates the following activity in her class: 

“The teacher takes a small amount of sulphur in a spoon and burns it. She then puts the spoon into a tumbler with a kid to ensure that the gas produced does not escape. After a few minutes, she adds water to the tumbler.” 


Q. 85 What happens if blue and red litmus papers are put into the tumbler?

A. No change in both

B. Blue litmus turns red

C. Blue litmus remains red

D. Red litmus turns blue


Q. 86 In the above demonstrated activity, which substance is formed when sulphur dioxide is dissolved in water?

A. Sulphur hydroxide

B. Sulphuric acid

C. Sulphuric oxide

D. Sulphurous acid


Q. 87 Which process skills can be promoted through the above activity?

A. Observation and controlling variables

B. Observation, inference and measurement

C. Observation, classification and inference

D. Observation and measurement


Q. 88 A science teacher asked her students to put two drops each of oil and sugar solution on a flat surface. She then asks them to tilt the surface and observe the order in which of the drops reach the bottom. Which property of the liquids is the teacher trying to bring to the students’ attention through this activity?

A. Point

B. Viscosity

C. Solubility

D. Volume


Q. 89 You find that many of your class VI students believe that raw material for plant growth comes only from the soil. Which among the following would be the most appropriate strategy to counter this idea?

A. Show the students a well-prepared PowerPoint presentation on photosynthesis.

B. Explain in detail the process of photosynthesis and the chemical reactions involved.

C. Provide the students with a money plant in water and ask them to observe its growth and make an inference.

D. Provide the students with an interesting reading material on the process of food manufacture in plants.


Q. 90 The criterion of process validity of science curriculum requires that:

A. science should be taught as a specialised discipline with its unique characteristics

B. science should be presented as a value-free discipline uninfluenced by societal concerns

C. learners should be familarised with various natural processes

D. learners should be engaged in processes that lead to generation of scientific knowledge


Q. 91 Language is a tool because:

A. it is used for communication

B. it is used for processing ideas

C. it is used for thinking

D. it is used for conveying ideas


Q. 92 Children can best learn a language when they have:

A. a proficient language teacher

B. inhibition

C. motivation

D. a good textbook


Q. 93 TBLT in second language teaching is:

A. Task Book Language Teaching

B. Tool Based Language Teaching

C. Task Based Language Teaching

D. Task Based Language Training


Q. 94 The second language should be taught through:

A. using the target language as much as it is possible

B. mother tongue and translation

C. learners’ background and talent

D. grammar and rules of language


Q. 95 There are 44 sounds in English. Out of these, how many sounds are vowels and how many are consonants respectively?

A. 5, 39

B. 22, 22

C. 10, 34

D. 20, 24


Q. 96 A speech community refers to a community which:

A. speaks different dialects

B. uses different languages

C. speaks the same language

D. connects by virtue of a link language


Q. 97 Pedagogical grammar is:

A. learning of meanings through form

B. learning of rules first and then the meanings of words

C. learning of grammar in context through use

D. learning of grammar through prose and poetry


Q. 98 When learners have diverse linguistic backgrounds, the teacher should:

A. form groups in accordance with their linguistic backgrounds

B. ascertain their learning styles

C. use multilingual approach

D. start the class with brainstorming sessions


Q. 99 Which of the following ways is not appropriate for teaching a reading text?

A. Teacher reads out and explains the text line-by-line

B. Learners are made into groups and asked to read by taking turns

C. Learners read individually and discuss with their friends the ideas of the text

D. Learners divide the text into small chunks and read


Q. 100 Post-reading tasks are meant for:

A. assessing the learning and connecting it to real-life situations

B. giving the meaning of difficult words

C. introducing the main idea of the text

D. explaining the grammatical rules in the text


Q. 101 Intensive reading is aimed at helping the learners read a text for:

A. improving study skills

B. accuracy

C. pleasure only

D. information


Q. 102 Process writing approach could be described as:

A. horizontal approach

B. bottom-up approach

C. top-down approach

D. vertical approach


Q. 103 Abeera, an English teacher, describes a scene and asks the learners to draw what they have heard. This is a:

A. picture story

B. mutual dictation

C. picture dictation

D. picture composition


Q. 104 While teaching a ‘One-Act Play’, a tableau can be used as one of the teaching strategies. The tableau refers to:

A. a monologue

B. silent still image made by actors posing as characters

C. some musical instrument

D. dialogues between different actors


Q. 105 A teacher divides her class into pairs to exchange their notebooks and make corrections as per the direction of the teacher. What does she do?

A. Group assessment

B. Correction

C. Assessment

D. Peer assessment


Questions: 106 – 114

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow; 

What we call Old Delhi is actually only about 350 years old, which is not terribly ancient, considering that the city was inhabited around 1000 to 800 BC. But it is a good place to look because Old Delhi has retained its character from the Mughal days. Most of what we call Old Delhi was built by the emperor Shah Jahan who, with characteristic modesty, called it Shahjahanabad. The city was built around 1640 – 1650 AD (so, by Delhi standards, it is actually young!) and remained the capital of the Mughal empire ever since. India was one of the world’s richest countries in that age, so the capital’s commercial quarter was one of the most important trading and business centres in the East. The original Chandni Chowk was built around a canal of the Yamuna, which passes down the street, forming a pool that reflected the moonlight and gave the area its name. The business of Chandni Chowk was business only. Some people say that it was the ruthless reprisals from the British after the 1857 Mutiny/War of Independence that destroy the peaceful character of Chandni Chowk; as did the looting that was the hallmark of the East India Company’s soldiers. Others say that the rot set in after New Delhi was created in the 20th century. Either way, Chandni Chowk is a mess now. It is overcrowded, parts of it are dirty and its wonderful historical mansions are now in disrepair. In an era when the world’s great squares have become landmarks, why should Chandni Chowk become a slum?


Q. 106 Study the following statements:

A. A canal used to run through Chandni Chowk.

B. Business and trading was done on the banks of the canal.

C. People visited Chandni Chowk to view the moonlight reflected in the canal.

Which of the above statements are true?

A. A, B and C

B. A and B

C. B and C

D. A and C


Q. 107 Shah Jahan named the new city of Delhi, Shahjahanabad. It shows his:

A. love of art

B. pride

C. modesty

D. character


Q. 108 By Delhi standards, Old Delhi is called young because:

A. it was built around 1640-1650 AD

B. it was an active business centre

C. it was visited by young tourists

D. it was inhabited around 1000-800 BC


Q. 109 During the Mughal period, Delhi was very prosperous because:

A. it was built by Shah Jahan

B. it was looted by East India Company’s soldiers

C. a lot of trade and commerce took place here

D. it was ruled by the rich Mughals


Q. 110 East India Company’s soldiers were:

A. greedy but not cruel

B. noble and brave

C. cruel and greedy

D. cruel but not greedy


Q. 111 “…… a pool that reflected the moonlight …….”

Which part of speech is the underlined word?

A. An interjection

B. A pronoun

C. An adjective

D. A determiner


Q. 112 “….. terribly ancient, considering that …… “

The underlined word is a/an:

A. adverb

B. noun

C. participle

D. verb


Q. 113 “Either way, Chandni Chowk is a mess now.”

The word ‘mess’ means the same as:

A. upset

B. canteen

C. snare

D. confusion


Q. 114 “…. a pool that reflected the moonlight …”

The word opposite in meaning to ‘reflected’ is:

A. discredited

B. imitated

C. claimed

D. absorbed


Questions: 115 – 120

Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows.

I love the Brooks which down their channels fret,

Even more than when I tripped lightly as they;

The innocent brightness of a new-born Day Is lovely yet;

The Clouds that gather round the settling sun

Do take a sober colouring from an eye

That hath kept watch o’er man’s mortality;

Another race hath been, and other palms are won.

Thanks to the human heart by which we live,

Thanks to its tenderness, its joys and fears,

To me the meanest flower that blows can give

Thoughts that do often lie too deep for tears.


Q. 115 The poet loves the brooks:

A. because he too can run briskly like them

B. because they flow between their banks

C. now more than when he was young

D. as they are overflowing their banks


Q. 116 The clouds around the setting sun make the poet:

A. sad

B. thoughtful

C. happy

D. curious


Q. 117 During his lifetime, the poet has thought about:

A. love in human heart

B. the rate race of man

C. the dawn of the new day

D. mortal nature of man


Q. 118 Today the poet is thankful for:

A. the human heart which is full of joys and sorrows.

B. the beauty of the meaning flower

C. the palms won by him in the race of life

Which of the above are true?


A. A, B and C

B. A and B

C. B and C

D. A and C


Q. 119 The figure of speech used in line 1 is:

A. irony

B. a simile

C. a metaphor

D. personification


Q. 120 “The innocent brightness …..”is an example of:

A. irony

B. metonymy

C. synecdoche

D. transferred epithet


Q. 121 When children are introduced to English as a second language:

A. they should read first

B. they should begin with letters of alphabet

C. they should be exposed to language orally

D. they should begin writing first


Q. 122 Eclecticism in language teaching refers to using:

A. all the methods to teach language

B. appropriate strategies from various methods of teaching

C. the best method of teaching

D. technology to teach language


Q. 123 Which of the following approaches/methods advocates linguistic competence and performance?

A. Communicative approach

B. Grammar-translation method

C. Direct method

D. Structural approach


Q. 124 Global listening is not listening:

A. for specific information

B. without being constrained by preset questions or tasks

C. at different levels of comprehension

D. for improving recognition of spoken text


Q. 125 Which of the following activities needs to be taken care of for helping non-native speakers to produce the sounds of the target language?

A. Distinguishing the vowel from consonant sounds

B. Imitating the way a native speaker produces sounds

C. Ensuring that the words spoken are intelligible to others

D. Maintaining the regional interference


Q. 126 The concept of transformative – generative grammar was given by:

A. Bruner

B. Ferdinand Saussure

C. Noam Chomsky

D. Piaget


Q. 127 Tail question also refers to:

A. follow-up question

B. question tag

C. insignificant question

D. most important question


Q. 128 A teacher of Class VII while teaching the poem, The Solitary Reaper by William Wordsworth asks children to find how the last words of each line sound. What is she trying to draw the attentions of learners to?

A. Theme of the poem

B. Spelling of words

C. Rhyme scheme

D. Vocabulary


Q. 129 To help the students overcome the problems of spelling mistakes, the teacher will use __________ as the teaching strategy.

A. loud reading

B. brainstorming

C. pronunciation drill

D. dictation


Q. 130 Grammar-translation method of teaching English heavily relies on:

A. form-focused teaching

B. meaning-focused teaching

C. direct teaching as a strategy for learning

D. language use as the main focus


Q. 131 Language proficiency refers to:

A. fluency

B. accuracy

C. appropriateness

D. efficiency

Which of the above are true?


A. A, B and D

B. A, B and C

C. B, C and D

D. A, C and D


Q. 132 Written description of a child’s progress that a teacher keeps on a day-to-day basis is:

A. rubric

B. anecdotal record

C. portfolio

D. rating scale


Q. 133 A teacher of Class VI in a writing assessment task asked students to write on : “If I were famous for something…… “. This is assessment of a/an _______ answer.

A. narrative

B. extrapolative

C. factual

D. descriptive


Q. 134 A good language textbook should:

A. contain learner-centred materials

B. contain teacher-friendly instruction and content-related materials

C. incorporate language skills throughout

D. have more syntactical items in its content

Which of the above are true?

A. B, C and D

B. A, B and C

C. A, B and D

D. A, C and D


Q. 135 Kavya notes down the errors committed by learners of the class and discusses them once in a fortnight. What is this practice known as ?

A. Providing feedback

B. Evaluation

C. Assessment

D. Error correction


Questions: 136 – 143

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

‘Although India has a tradition of women warriors, participation in the Salt Satyagraha was their first appearance in any modern militant political campaign and I could hardly suppress my excitement at the enormity of the occasion and my own good fortune to be amongst the first. As I attached my name to the pledge to devote myself to my country’s freedom battle, my hand shook a little under my tumultuous emotions. It seemed such a stupendous moment in my life, in the life of the women of my country. I felt I was tracing not the letters of my name, but recording a historic event. There was not much time for thought, however. The next instant we were filing out, taking the road to the sea, marching with quick steps. Great sky-rending cries or ‘Jai’ filled the air. Heavy-scented flower garlands almost smothered us. From the balconies and roofs unseen hands showered rose-petals until the road became a carpet of flowers. Often our match was stopped and bright-eyed women sprinkled rose water from silver sprays, tipped our palms with sandalwood paste and perfume and blessed us waving lights round our heads and faces for good omen.” The long narrow strip of sand that borders the city like a white ribbon was transformed this morning into another sea – a sea of human faces that swayed and dance and bobbed about even as did the deep azure waves that rimmed the shore. The city seemed to have disgorged almost its entire population onto the sands. It was not the struggling batch of seven that was breaking the Salt law, but hundreds and thousands now filling the water’s edge. And still they kept coming, thousands of women against them, striding like proud warriors, gracefully balancing their pitchers of maroon-red earth and shimmering brass that scattered a thousand hues as the sunrays struck them. Even as I lit my little fire to boil the saltwater, I saw thousands of fire aflame dancing in the wind. The copper pans sizzled in laughter while their bosoms traced the white grains of salt as the heat lapped up the last drop of water.


Q. 136 Participation in the Salt Satyagraha evoked in the author a feeling of:

A. ecstasy

B. pride

C. excitement

D. fear


Q. 137 The author took a pledge to:

A. launch a literacy campaign

B. fight against social evils

C. serve the poor people of India

D. be part of India’s freedom struggle


Q. 138 The warm welcome given to the Satyagrahis showed:

A. general resentment against British exploitation of the people

B. that the Indian people turn every event into a joyous occasion

C. the full support of the people for breaking the Salt law

D. people’s hatred of the British


Q. 139 “A sea of human faces that swayed and danced” means:

A. human faces resembling a sea

B. people dancing while bathing

C. people bathing and frolicking in the sea

D. a large number of enthusiastic people


Q. 140 Women lighted their little fires on the seashore to:

A. make tea and drink it to overcome fatigue

B. protect themselves from cold

C. boil seawater to make salt

D. express their anger against the British


Q. 141 The word which nearly means the same as ‘stupendous’ is:

A. wonderful

B. crucial

C. significant

D. influential


Q. 142 The word opposite in meaning to the word ‘proud’ as used in the passage is:

A. gentle

B. humble

C. decent

D. fawning


Q. 143 Which part of speech is the quoted word in the following sentence?

“I could ‘hardly’ suppress my excitement.”

A. Pronoun

B. Adverb

C. Adjective

D. Conjunction


Questions: 144 – 150

Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:

Where does all our garbage disappear once it leaves our homes? There are four methods of managing waste: recycling, landfilling, composing and burning. Each method has its strength and weaknesses. Recycling is the process of turning waste into new materials. For example, used paper can be turned into paperboard, which can be used to make book covers. Recycling can reduce pollution, save materials and lower energy use. Some argue that collecting, processing and converting waste uses more than it saves. Landfilling is the oldest method of managing waste. Landfilling is to bury garbage in a hole. Over a period of time the process of landfilling has advanced. Garbage is compacted before it if thrown into the pit. In this way garbage can fit in each landfill. Large garbage bags are placed at the bottom of a landfill so that the toxic garbage juice does not get into the groundwater. But in spite of bags, landfills may pollute the underground water. Not to mention that all garbage stinks. Nobody wants to live next to a landfill. As landfill space increases, interest in composting grows. Composting is when people pile up organic matter, such as food waste, and allow it to decompose. The product of this decomposition is compost. Compost can be added to the soil to make the soil richer and better for growing crops. One thing that is easier to do is burning garbage. There are two main ways to burn waste. The first is to harvest fuel from the waste. The second is to burn the waste directly; the heat from this burning process can boil water, which can provide steam generators. Unfortunately, burning garbage pollutes the air.


Q. 144 Garbage recycling:

A. uses more energy than it saves

B. saves a lot of energy

C. saves only a little energy

D. wastes a lot of energy


Q. 145 Consider the following statements:

A. Landfilling does not allow water and air pollution.

B. Composting is better than landfilling.

Which of the above statements is/are true?


A. Both A and B

B. Only A

C. Only B

D. Neither A nor B


Q. 146 It is safe to dispose of garbage through:

A. burning and landfilling

B. recycling and burning

C. composting and burning

D. recycling and composting


Q. 147 Consider the following statements:

A. We do not use any energy in the process of composting.

B. Burning can be a source of energy.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

A. Only B

B. Both A and B

C. Neither A nor B

D. Only A


Q. 148 Compacting of garbage is done to:

A. avoid soil pollution

B. protect groundwater

C. remove the stink

D. save space


Q. 149 “… the process of turning waste ….”

The word ‘turning’ is a/an:

A. participle

B. noun

C. verb

D. adjective


Q. 150 “There are two main ways to burn waste”

The underlined word is a:

A. gerund

B. noun

C. verb

D. participle


Answer Sheet 
Question123456 78910
Question 101102103104105106107108109110
Question 111112113114115116117118119120

CTET September 2016 Paper-I Previous Year Paper

CTET 2016 Paper 1

Q. 1 Which of the following is most effective method to encourage conceptual development in students ?

A. give students multiple examples and encourage them to use reasoning

B. Use punishment till students have made the required conceptual changes

C. New concepts need to be understood on their own without any refrence to the old ones

D. Replace the studnets incorrect ideas with the correct ones by asking them to memorize


Q. 2 Primary school children will learn more effectively in an atmosphere :

A. Where the focus and stress are only on mastering primarly cognitive skills of reading , writing and mathematics .

B. Where the teacher leads all the learning and expects students to play a passive role.

C. Where their emotional needs are met and they feel that they are valued .

D. Where the teacher is authorative and clearly dictates what should be done


Q. 3 A child sees the crow flying past the window and says “a bird’. what does this suggests about the child’s thinking .

A. The child has previosly stored memories

B.The child has developed the concept of ” bird “.

C.The child has developed some tools of language to communicate her expereince

A. A,B and C

B. Only B

C. A and B

D. B and C


Q. 4 What should a teacher tell her students to encourage them to do tasks with instristic motivation ?

A. “complete the task and get a toffee “

B. ” Try to do it , you will learn “

C. “come on ,finish it before she does “

D. ” why cant you be like him? see, he has done it perfectly “


Q. 5 How can a teacher encourage her students to be intrinsccally motivated towards learning for the sake of learning ?

A. By supporting them in setting individual goals and their mastery

B. By offering tangable rewards such as toffees

C. By inducing anxiety and fear

D. By giving competitive tasks


Q. 6 In an elementary classroom the effective teacher should aim at students to be motivated: 

A. By using punitive measures to respect the teacher

B. to perform so that they get good marks in the end

C. To learn so that they become curious

D. to rote memorize so that they become good at recall


Q. 7 Which of the following is example of effective school practise ?

A. Individualised learning

B. competitive classroom

C. Constant comparitive evaluation

D. Corporal punishment


Q. 8 The cephalocaudal principle of development explains how development proceeds from :

A. head to toe

B. rural to urban areas

C. general to specific functions

D. differentiated to integrated functions


Q. 9 Which of the following is a sensitive period pertaining to language development ?

A. Adulthood

B. early childhood period

C. prenetal period

D. middle childhood period


Q. 10 A 6 year old girl shows exceptional sporting ability .Both of her parents are sport persons ,send her for coaching everyday and train her on weekends .Her capabilities are most likely to be the results of an interaction between

A. health and training

B. discipline and nutrition

C. heridity and environment

D. growth and develpment


Q. 11 Which of the following are secondary agents of socialization?

A. School and immediete family members

B. family and relatives

C. family and neighbourhood

D. school and neighbourhood


Q. 12 According to Lev vygotsky ,the primary cause of cognitive development is :

A. adjustment is mental schemas

B. stimulus repsonse pairing

C. equilibration

D. social interaction


Q. 13 In the context of Kohlberg’s stages of moral reasoning under which stage would the given response for the child fall ?

“your parents should be proud of you if you be honest ,. So you should be honest .”

A. Good girl- good boy orientation

B. law and order orientation

C. punishment -obedeinece orientation

D. social contract orientation


Q. 14 According to Jean -piaget which one of the following is necessary for learning?

A. Belief in immanent justice

B. reinforcement by teachers and parents

C. Active exploration of the environment by the learner

D. observing the behaviour of the adults


Q. 15 According to the jean piaget ,schema building occurs as a result of modifying new information to fit existing schemes and by modifying old schemes as per new information . These 2 processes are known as ;

A. equilibration and modification

B. assimilation and accomidation

C. accomidation and adpation

D. assimilation andadaption


Q. 16 In a progressive classroom set up the teacher facilitates by providing an environment that :

A. discourages inclusion

B. encourages repetition

C. promotes discovery

D. is restrictive


Q. 17 Howards gardners theory of multiple intelligence (MI) suggests that :

A. Teachers should use MI as a framework for devising alternative ways to teach the subject matter

B. ability is destiny and does not change over a period of time

C. every child should be taught every subject in 8 different ways to develop all of the inteligence

D. intelligence is soley determined by IQ tests


Q. 18 A 5 year old girl talks to her self while folding a tshirt .Which of the following statements is correct in context of the behavior displayed by the girl ?

A. Jean piaget would explain this as a social interaction while Lev vygtosky would explain this as an exploration

B. Jean piaget and lev vygotsky would explain this as the child’s attempt to immitate her mother

C. Jean piaget and lev vygotsky would explain this as egocentric nature of the childs thoughts

D. jean piaget would explain this as egocentric speech while , lev vygotsky would explain this as the childs attempt to regulate her actions through private speech


Q. 19 “Gender” is an /a :

A. innate quality

B. social construct

C. biological entity

D. Physiological construct


Q. 20 As a teacher who firmly believes in social constructivist theory of Lev Vygotsky which of the following methods you would prefer for assessing your students ?

A. Fact based recall questions

B. Objective multiple choice type questions

C. collabarative projects

D. standardized tests


Q. 21 To cater to individual differences in his classroom , a teacher should :

A. engage in dialouge with students and value their perspectives

B. impose strict rules upon his students

C. have uniform and standard ways of teaching and assessment

D. segregate and label children based on their marks


Q. 22 Assessment is purposeful if

A. it is done only onceat the end year

B. comparitive evalutions are made to differentiate between the students acheivements

C. it induces fear and stress among the students

D. it serves as a feedback for the students as well as the teachers


Q. 23 According to NCF ,2005 the role of the teacher has to be :

A. permissive

B. facilitative

C. authoritavtive

D. dictorial


Q. 24 Research suggests that in a diverse classroom , a teachers expectations from her students ________ learning

A. should not be correlated with

B. do not have an effect on

C. have a significant impact on

D. are the sole determinant of


Q. 25 Inclusion of children with special needs :

A. will increase the burden on schools

B. requires a change in attitude, content and approach to teaching

C. is an unrealistic goal

D. is detrimental to children with disabilities


Q. 26 “Having a diverse classroom with children from varied social ,economic and cultural backrgrounds enriches the learning experiences of all students “.The statement is :

A. Correct , because it makes the classroom more hirarchical .

B. incorrect , because it leads to unneccessary competition

C. incorrect, because it may confuse the children and they may feel lost

D. correct , becuase children learn many skills from their peers


Q. 27 A child with hearing impairment:f

A. can do very well in a regular school if suitable facilitation and resources are provided

B. Will never be able to perform on par with classmates in a regular school

C. Should be sent only to a school for the hearing impaired and not a regular school

D. Correct beacuse children many skills from their peers


Q. 28 Which of the following is a charecteristic of a gifted learner ?

A. He is highly tempermental

B. he indulges in ritualistic behavior like hand flapping ,rocking etc.

C. He gets aggressive and frustrated

D. He can feel undersimulated and bored if the class activities are not challenging enough


Q. 29 A teacher can enhance effective learning in her elementary classroom by :

A. encouraging competition among her students

B. connecting content to the lives of the students

C. offering rewards in small steps of learning

D. drill and practise


Q. 30 Which of the following statements about children are correct ?

A. Children are passive recipients of knowledge

B Children are problem solvers .

C. Children are scientifc investigators

D. Children are active explorers of the environment


A. A, B,C and D

B. A, B and ,C

C. A, B and ,D

D. B,C and D


Q. 31 A teacher of class II asks her students to write 4 ones and 3 tens some students write as 43 instead of 34. As a teacher how will you help the students to understand the concept. 

A. Give a lot of questions to practise in column method

B. ask the students to represent in abacus and then write

C. tell them it is wrong and ask them to write the correct answer 5 times

D. always teach by column method of tens and ones to avoid confusion


Q. 32 Which of the following is not true about the mapping in mathematics ?

A. mapping promotes proportional reasoning

B. mathematics is not a part of mathematics curriculam

C. mapping can be integrated in many topics in mathematics

D. mapping strengthens spatial thinking


Q. 33 Which of the following aspects of shapes is not dealt with at primary level ?

A. angle

B. symmetry

C. tesellation

D. pattern


Q. 34 The mathematical games and puzzles help in

A. developing a positive attitude towards mathematics

B. making connection between mathematics and everyday thinking

C. making mathematics enjoybale

D. promoting problem solving skills


Q. 35 A given rectangle and parellelogram have same area however many class IV studnets respond to that the parellelogram has the larger area. How can a teacher help the students to understand that their areas are same ?

A. using a scale

B. using a geoboard

C. using a graph paper

D. using paper folding


Q. 36 Which of the following is not an objective of teaching mathematics at primary level accoridng to NCF2005 ?

A. making mathematics part of child’s experience

B. promoting problem solving and problem posing skills

C. promoting logical thinking

D. preparing for learning higher and abstract mathematics


Q. 37 The difference between the place value of 5 in 29503 and and face value of 7 in 32071 is 

A. 493

B. 2

C. 43

D. 430


Q. 38 IF 30028 = 28 ones +28 thousands +___ tens , then the number in the blank space is ?

A. 280

B. 28

C. 120

D. 200


Q. 39 WHen the remainder obtained on dividing 80808 by 108 is divided by the remainder obtained on dividing by 90909 by 109 ,then the quotient is ;

A. 12

B. 3

C. 6

D. 8


Q. 40 If 603 x 28 = 63 x 4 x _______ , then the number in the blank space is :

A. 67

B. 21

C. 28

D. 63


Q. 41 The smallest common multiple of 30 , 45 and 60 between 200 and 400 /The largest factor of 15 24 and 45 is equal to :

A. 180

B. 60

C. 90

D. 120


Q. 42 A number is smaller than half of 100 and lies between 4 tens and 5 tens .One digit is one less than the 10 digit .if the sum of digits is 7 then the product of digits in the number is : 

A. 24

B. 12

C. 16

D. 20


Q. 43 In schools there are 360 students out of which 2/3rds are girls and the rest are boys .3/4th of the number of boys are players .The number of boys who are not pplayers is : 

A. 75

B. 25

C. 30

D. 60


Q. 44 Harish bought a scooter for Rs.49,553 . He paid Rs.8076 in cash and agreed to pay the remaining amount in 37 equal instalments .What is the amount of each instalment ? 

A. Rs.1339

B. Rs.1021

C. Rs.1121

D. Rs.1201


Q. 45 A train left Hyderabad at 13:15 on friday and reached Bengaluru at 7:30 on saturday. the duration of the journey was.

A. 19 hours 45 mins

B. 5 hours 35 mins

C. 12 hours 45 mins

D. 18 hours 15mins


Q. 46 The number of minutes in 15 days in equal to the number of seconds in

A. 8 hours

B. 5 hours

C. 4 hours

D. 6 hours


Q. 47 15 litres 286 ml of orange juice is mixed with 19 l and 714 ml of carrort juice. 12 l 750 ml of the mixture is used and the rest in filled in bottles each contianing 250 ml .The number of bottles is :

A. 77

B. 89

C. 85

D. 81


Q. 48 The prcies of fruits per kg are given below

Watermelon : Rs.18.50

Cherry : rs.72

Grape :Rs.120-60

Apple :Rs 78-40

Reshma bought 4(1/2) watermelon 1kg 200g cherry ,250 g grapes and 1(3/4) kgp apples. She gave a 500 note to the shopkeeper .How much did she get back ?

A. Rs. 173

B. Rs 162

C. Rs.163

D. Rs 172


Q. 49 The size of a soap cake is 7cm x5cm x2.5 cm .The maximum number of soap ckaes which can be placed into 2 boxes each having internal measurements as 56 cm x 0.4 m x 0.25 m is

A. 2560

B. 640

C. 960

D. 1280


Q. 50 The length of a rectangle is three times half breadth .The breadth is half the size of a sqaure whose perimeter is 72 cm . then

A. The perimeter of a rectangle is less than the perimeter of a sqaure

B. The areas of the sqaure and rectangle are

C. The area of rectangle is more than the area of a square

D. the perimeter of both rectangle and sqaure are equal


Q. 51 Which one of the follwoing is not correct .

A. The volume of cuboid of length 45 cm and breadth 15 cm and height 40 cm is eqaul to the volume of the cube whose side is 0.3 m

B. one hundredth of 10 is eqaul to 0,1

C. 55 litres 55 millimeters = 55.55 l

D. 2005 gms – 2.005 kgs


Q. 52 Which of the following is an essential pre-requisite to understand multiplication of a 2 digit number by a one digit number or a two digit number ?

A. commutative property of multiplication

B. Multiplication as distribution over addition

C. Multiplication as inverse of addition

D. Commutative property of addition


Q. 53 Which of the following cannot be considered as a reason for fear and failure in mathematics ? 

A. symbolic notations

B. structure mathematics

C. gender differences

D. classroom experiences


Q. 54 Which of the following teaching learning resources would be more appropriate to teach the concept of addition of 2 decimal numbers ?

A. beads and string

B. graph paper

C. abacus

D. geo board


Q. 55 The majority of class 4 learners think that multiplication of 2 numbers always results in a number which is bigger than both the numbers. How will you show it is not same in all the cases ?

A. By showing it through repeated addition of numbers

B. By showing multiplication algorithm of 2 decimals

C. By showing on a grid paper multiplication of 2 decimals

D. By showing multiplication algorithm of one whole number and a fraction on a number Line 


Q. 56 Which of the following statements is true in the context of teaching measurement to primary class studnets ?

A. Non standard measurements are followed by standard measures .

B. only non standard measures should be used

C. non standard measures should not be used

D. standard measures should be followed by non standard measures


Q. 57 Which of the following assessment strategies can be used to make connections of matheatics with real life and promote discliplinarty ?

A. survey , project ,check list

B. field trip , oral test , check list

C. filed trip , survey , project

D. field trip, oral test , drill worksheet


Q. 58 Which of the following can be used as learning resources for visually challenged in a mathematics classroom ?

A. Number chart ,computer ,geo board

B. Taylors abacus ,computer, geo board

C. computer ,number chart , geo board

D. Taylors abacus, fraction kit , number chart


Q. 59 In a context of numbers i . e the children in the age group of 8 – 9 years are able to accomplish which one of the following sets ?

A. seiriation reversibilty , proportional reasoning

B. seiriation, classification ,proportional reasoning

C. seiriation reversibilty ,classification

D. reversibilty ,classification,proportional reasoning


Q. 60 A teacher of class 1 asks a student to count the total number of objects in a collection of pens, erasers and sharpners .The studnets uts all the objects in a line and starts counting ,He says hat there are 2 pens , 5 erasers and 3 sharpners instead of 10 objects .In which principle of counting do you the student is facing difficulty .

A. Stable order and abstarction principles

B. one – to – one correspondence principle

C. abstraction principle

D. abstraction and order irrelevnece principle .


Q. 61 In EVS syllabus structured around 6 themes plants and animals have consiously been included in the theme family and friends .All the following could be cited as reasons for this inclusion excpet one .Whihc one is that ?

A. To help students to locatte plants and animals in social and cultural context

B. To highlight how humans share a close relationship with each other

C. To highlight how lives and livelihood of some communities are closely connected iwth some plants and animals

D. To enable studnets to understand plants and animals from a science perspective


Q. 62 The purpose of survey in teaching -learning in EVS .

A. to provide an oppurtunity to react with community

B. to make children sensitive to diferent people

C. to provide an oppurtunity to collect information first -hand

D. to use it as an oppurtunity for assessment

Which one of the above are correct ?

A. A ,B , C ,D

B. A ,B , C

C. A ,B , D

D. A, C D


Questions: 63 – 65 

Question numbers 63- 65 are based on the following paragraph .

Given are responses of 7 -8 year old children after thet have observed an experiment done by the teacher , in which water in a bowl is heated and it was evaoprated .

“water is disappeared “

“The bowl has observed the water “

” fire drank the water “

“God drank the water “


Q. 63 What do these responses tell us about children and their thinking ?

A. children’s responses are impossible

B. Children’s thinking is incorrect

C. Children cannot make good observation

D. Children have alternative ideas about evaporation


Q. 64 How should the teacher deal with these responses ?

A. Show the standard water cycle chart

B. Give the definition of evaporation and ask the children to memorize it

C. intiate a discussion to revisit their ideas

D. Tell the children that they are wrong


Q. 65 Which of the following is question assessing divergent thinking of children on the topic of evaporation ?

A. What will happen if there is no watercycle

B. List the steps in sequence of water cycle

C. Draw and label water cycle

D. write five advantages of water cycle


Q. 66 Which of the following are the neighbouring states of jammu and kashmir ?

A. Himachal pradesh , Punjab

B. Himachal pradesh ,Uttar pradesh

C. Uttarakhand , Rajasthan

D. Himachal pradesh, Uttarakhand


Q. 67 Match each of the locations with a correct description of common houses built in that area 

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 68 The different patterns on the skin of animals are ?

A. an indication of their physical strength

B. due to reflected light

C. due to hair on their skin

D. due to the weather conditions they live in


Q. 69 People who have been living in the forest for atleast 25 years have a right to forest land and and what is grown on it .This is mandated by

A. Indian forest act ,1927

B. Right to forest act , 2007

C. land aquisation act , 1894

D. the constitution (scheduled caste ) orders (amendment bill) 2012


Q. 70 Which of the following is a set of diseases spread by mosquitoes ?

A. malaria, HIV -AIDS ,Dengue

B. HIV -AIDS ,Dengue ,cholera

C. Dengue,malaria,chickungunia

D. typhoid, cholera, chickungunia


Q. 71 Pitcher plant (Nepenthes)

A. is not found in india

B. clevrly traps and eats frog, insects and mice

C. emits sounds of high pitch to attarct insects

D. has mouth covered with tiny hooks


Q. 72 Which of the following set of eatables is rich in iron

A. Amla, spinach , potato

B. Amla, potato , tomato

C. cabbage , okra , jaggery

D. amla ,spinach , jaggery


Q. 73 Almost in every part of the country chillies are added while cooking food. chillies were brought brought to our country by the traders who came from

A. South america

B. Afganisthan

C. Australia

D. Uzbekistan


Q. 74 Which of the following birds makes its nest among the thrones of a cactus plant ?

A. weaver bird

B. robin bird

C. dove

D. sunbird


Q. 75 Read the following description of an animal and identify it :

” it looks like a bear but its not .It spends almost 17 hours a day sleeping while handing upside down on a tree branch .It eats the leaves of the same tree on which it lives .It lives for about 40 years

A. Chimpanzee

B. Panda

C. sloth

D. Langur


Q. 76 Which of the following groups of animals has excellent sight and see things 4 times more than humans ?

A. Snakes , silkworms , lizards

B. Kites , eagles , vulltures

C. Bees, mosquitoes , butterflies

D. Tigers , leoperds , bulls


Q. 77 Read the given description of the farming and identify its type .

After cutting one crop, the land is left as it for some years .Nothing is grown there. The bamboos or weeds which grown on that land are not pulled out .They are cut and burnt. The ash makes the land more fertile .When the land is ready for farming, it is lightly dug up not ploughed .Seeds are dropped in it .

A. Jhoom farming

B. Step farming

C. Irrigation farming

D. co operative farming


Q. 78 When a snake charmer plays on his muusical instrument Been the snakes swings it head to and fro to its sound.How do you think the snakes responds to the musical instrument.

A. By smelling the instrument

B. By hearing the sound produced by the instrument

C. By seeing the movement of the instrument

D. By respondong to the vibrations produced by the instrument .


Q. 79 A family is a unit consisting of mother , father and their 2 children .This statement is 

A. Incorrect t, there are many kinds of families and one cannot classify family as being only one kind

B. Correct , since this is an ideal family size

C. Correct , this is what all indian famileis are like

D. incorrect , because the statemnet should specify the children are biological


Q. 80 The gastric juice in the stomach of the human beings is ______ and aids in the digestion of food.

A. neutral

B. acidic

C. alkaline

D. amphoteric


Q. 81 A teacher of class 3 had asked children to classify the leaves of the following trees /plants into different groups – lemon, mango , basil ,mint ,neem , banana etc.some studnets clssified leaves as (a) leaves with medicine values and leaves without medicine values (b) big levaes and small leaves .The teacher grouped a as right and b as wrong. Which of the follwoing reflects the teachers view of learning and assessment.

A. Children bring multiple perspectives in classrooms which is to be appreciated .

B. Children can use multiple use of classification depending upon their experiences .

C. Classification task is very specific and structured and there is one right answer

D. The activity is focused to seek information from which can be interpreted differnetly


Q. 82 Which of the following considerations would you keep in mind while designing a group activity in your EVS class?

A. Engage the interests of the children

B. Appeal equally to boys and girls

C. Use expensive material

D. Appeal to children of all religious and cultural backgrounds.


A. A,B and D

B. A,C and D

C. B and D

D. B and C


Q. 83 All of the following statements provide arguments in favour of teachers and students collectively participate in group activities in EVS, except one. Which is that statement?

A. Children learn more by talking and discussing with other children.

B. Children show marked improvements in scores because of group activities

C. Adult support can help children construct knowledge beyond their ability

D. children learn to cooperate and collaborate


Q. 84 Which of the following tools will be appropriate for assessing social personal qualities of children learning EVS through group work ?

A. Paper pencil tests

B. oral questions

C. Rating sales

D. Assignments


Q. 85 Follwoing are some intutive ideas of children about plants .Which of them is scientifically correct ?

A. Seeds are not part of a plant

B. Carrot and cabbage are not plants

C. grass is not a plant

D. some vegetables are fruits


Q. 86 A teacher of class IV told her studnets -Ask some old people if there are plants they had seen when they were young but seen not nowadays .

Which of the following skillls is not likelyto be assessed by asking questions ?

A. Questioning

B. Experimentation

C. Expression

D. discussion


Q. 87 A teacher asks every student to use some waste material from their homes and make something useful out if it

The pedagogical intention of the teacher is not to :

A. judge the best student of the class

B. develop creativity among children

C. make children understand the concept of recycle , reuse and reduce

D. organize an exhibition best articles made out of waste


Q. 88 Read the following questions :

A.How well did I plan for the activity .

B.Gow well did I follow the plan

c.What were my strengths

D.What exactly did i find difficult .

Answers to the above 4 types of questions will comprise .

A. summative assessment by the teacher

B. children’s self assessment

C. teacher’s self assessment

D. self assessment of children and teacher both


Q. 89 the language used in EVS textbook is 

A. should be technical and formal

B. should be related to everyday language of the child

C. should be terse an difficult for children to comprhend

D. should be formalized with emphasis on definition


Q. 90 A teacher gives pictures of different animals to his students and asks them to colour the animals that do not live in their houses.the obejective of this activity is to develop 



C.Classification skill

D.Data collection

A. A, C , D

B. A,B,C

C. A,B .D

D. A, C ,D


Q. 91 Home language is _______ in a normal way .

A. promoted

B. acquired

C. learnt

D. taught


Q. 92 Which of the following in not true while teaching the learners in their motehr tongue at primary level ?

A. It helps children in learning in natural environment

B. It develops self confidence in the child

C. It makes learning easy

D. It helps in intellectual development of child


Q. 93 Communicative language teaching emphasis on :

A. grammatical comptency

B. language use

C. form

D. writing


Q. 94 Ria a class II student is presenting language in her instructions items and the learners are doing exactly as she is telling them to do .What is she presenting

A. Total physique response

B. direct method

C. lingual method

D. communicative language


Q. 95 While tecahing a language to the learners the teacher should teach

A. by giving instructions

B. thorugh imitation

C. in isolation

D. in integrated manner


Q. 96 A intonation may not be a _______ tone

A. sliding

B. rising

C. falling

D. loud


Q. 97 Functional grammar stands for using /teaching grammar in/through :

A. explantion of literary content

B. context

C. isloation

D. parsing


Q. 98 A techer asks learners to think of ideas quickly about the topic “save water ” and also asks them to note down their ideas before writing their article on save water. She is foocusng on

A. brain storming

B. assessment

C. checklist

D. drill


Q. 99 Which of the following is not a form of literature?

A. one act play

B. dictionary

C. memoir

D. travel logue


Q. 100 Assessment is :

A. Judgemental

B. product -oriented

C. process oriented

D. both product -oriented and process oriented


Q. 101 Which of the following is not formative assessment ?

A. term end assessment

B. ancetodal records

C. portfolios

D. oral testing


Q. 102 A teacher askes their studnets to assess their classmates during a debate compettion in the class This method of assessment is :

A. individual assessment

B. peer assessment

C. self assessment

D. group assessment


Q. 103 Match the following

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)


Q. 104 Which of the following is not appropriate about language games ?

A. Language games create stress free and natural environment where learners can learn english the way they learnt L1.

B. Language games create an environment even for the shy learners to participate .

C. Language games provide competitive environment to the learners to win the game by any means

D. Language games create a real world context in classroom and enhance the usage of english


Q. 105 Remedial teaching is for :

A. improving the image of school

B. the learner to learn better

C. the learner to learn better and improve the teacher to teach better

D. the teacher to teach better


Questions: 106 – 114

The Mahatma’s remarkable wide Kasturabai, did not object when he failed to set aside,any part of his wealth, for the use of herself and their children. Married in early youth, Gandhi and his wife took the vow of celibacy after the birth of several sons. A tranquil heroine in the intense drama, that has been their life together, Kasturabai has followed her husband to prison, shared his three-week fasts and fully borne her share of his endless responsibilities. She has paid Gandhi the following tribute. I thank you for having had the privilege of being your lifelong companion and helpmate. I thank you for the perfect marriage in the world, based on Brahmacharya(self-control) and not on sex. I thank you for having me considered your equal in your lifework for India. I thank you for not being one of those husbands, who spend their time in gambling, racing, women, wine, and song tiring of their wives and children as he little boy quickly tires of his childhood toys. How thankful I am that you were noy one of those husbands who devote their time to growing rich on the exploitation of the labour of others. How thankful I am that you put God and country before the bribes, that you had the courage of your convictions, and a complete and implicit faith in God. How thankful I am for a husband that put God and country before me. I am grateful for your tolerance of me and my shortcomings of youth, when i grumbled and rebelled against the changes you made in our living, from so much to so little. As a young child I lived in your parents’ home, your mother was a great and good woman, she trained me, taught me hoe to be brave , a courageous wife, and how to keep the love and respect for her son, my future husband, As the years passed and you became the India’s most beloved leader, I had none of the fears that beset the wife who maybe cast aside when her husband has climbed the ladder of success, and so often happens in other countries. I knew that death would still find us husband and wife.


Q. 106 How did Kasturabai act to Gandhiji’s will?

A. She felt quite unhappy

B. She was astonished

C. She accepted the decision without arguing

D. She decided to discuss the matter with her parents.


Q. 107 Kasturabai impressed the author the most becaue she:

A. was an embodiment of humilty

B. never questioned her husband’s decisions

C. was at his beck and call

D. stood by him through trying times


Q. 108 Husbands given to vices made Kasturabai feel:

A. disgusted

B. furious

C. unhappy

D. sad


Q. 109 Kasturabai’s relationship with her mother-in-law can be described as:

A. respectful

B. formal

C. unconventional

D. informal


Q. 110 The author’s attitude to Kasturabai is :

A. sympathetic

B. comendatory

C. neutral

D. ambivalent


Q. 111 The word ‘tranquil’ as used in the passage means:

A. loyal

B. sober

C. gentle

D. calm


Q. 112 The word opposite in meaning to ‘lifelong’ is:

A. weak

B. ardent

C. temporary

D. bereif


Q. 113 Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence?

“…. any part of his wealth”

A. conjunction

B. adjective

C. adverb

D. noun


Q. 114 The sentence, “some husbands spend their time in gambling” when changed to passive voice becomes:

A. Some husbands whose time was spent in gambling

B. some husbands spent their time in gambling

C. Time is spent in gambling by some husbands

D. some husbands whose time is sent in gambling.


Questions: 115 – 120

Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow by selctecing approporitae options :

I cannot rest from travel : I will drink

Life to the lees : All time I have enjoyed

Greatly have suffered .Greatly both with those

That loved me, and alone,and shore, and when

Thro scudding drifts, the rainy Hyades

Vext the dim sea: I am become a name;

For always roaming with a hungry heart,

Much have I seen and known, cities of men;

And manners, climates, councils, governments,

Myself not least, but honour’d of them all;


Q. 115 The speaker can be described as :

A. a frolicsome person

B. a vagabond

C. a seeker after the truth

D. an adventure


Q. 116 The expression “drink life to the less means “

A. to live life to the fullest

B. to live a life of pressure

C. to face challenges bravely

D. to live life of adventure


Q. 117 Which of the following statemnets is true ?

A. he has lost instrest inlife

B. the speaker is an aimless wanderer

C. his adventures have not chnaged hi outlook

D. he has suffered and enjoyed greatly


Q. 118 The line myself not least but honoured of them all reveals that the speaker is :

A. aroogant

B. prone to bragging

C. a garrulous person

D. consious of his merits


Q. 119 The figure of speech used in drink life to the less is :

A. assonance

B. smile

C. metaphor

D. personification


Q. 120 Which literray device has been used in hungry heart ?

A. Irony

B. assonance

C. smile

D. alietration


Q. 121 Language is not

A. social

B. aribitrary

C. symbolic

D. instinctive


Q. 122 When language development is a deliberate and a conscious effort, language is

A. brushed up

B. learned

C. acquired

D. honed


Q. 123 What is a ‘task’ in task-based language learning?

A. A piece of work for parents to do their children’s homework

B. A piece of activity for teachers to do in the classroom

C. A piece of work which exposes learners to language

D. A piece of work which enables learners to do an activity.


Q. 124 Travelogue is a genre of :

A. biography

B. literature

C. poetry

D. cristicsm


Q. 125 The most important assessment of effective language classroom is to provide learners with an oppurtunity to :

A. interfere

B. assess

C. imitate

D. interact


Q. 126 A teacher of class V is practising interactive listening in the class .She should focus on : 

A. Listening to words stress and intonation

B. listening to the pronunciation

C. listening and responding

D. listening and observing speakers attitude


Q. 127 A word with same spelling and same pronunciation as another but one with a different meaning is a

A. homophone

B. antonym

C. synonym

D. homonym


Q. 128 A shorter form of a group of words which usually occurs in auxilary verb is :

A. connector

B. contraction

C. conjunction

D. connation


Q. 129 Aditi, a visually challenged child id class IV, does not have any text in brallie. How can a teacher faciliatet her in reading a english book ?

A. Instead of focussing on this single child , she may use her energy in the remaining class

B. She may ask her parents to look after her child

C. She may ask the principle to arrange a special teacher for her

D. She may arrange and give audio cd of the textbook to the child


Q. 130 Peotry teaching is generally meant for :

A. learning punctuation

B. enjoying and appreciation

C. language learning

D. learning grammaar


Q. 131 Reading english as a second language means

A. reading for grammar

B. meaning making

C. decoding of letter and words

D. reading aloud


Q. 132 When learners give feedback on each other langauges, work ,learning strategies, performance etc .

A. group assessment

B. self assessment

C. peer assessment

D. formal assessment


Q. 133 A teacher after completing a chapter asks the students some questions to review their learning and check their understanding , the questions she will be asking based on :

A. hyper order thinking skills

B. higher order thinking skills

C. middle order thinking skills

D. lower order thinking skills


Q. 134 A good teaching- learning material can best :

A. help the teacher to transact material without any modification

B. help the learners acquire the language

C. faciltate the teaching- learning

D. be a source of entertaiment


Q. 135 while providing the feedback to the students a teacher should not :

A. share the incidents recorded in ancedotes

B. compare their child with other children .

C. compare the current performance of the child with her previous performance

D. give qualitative feedback about the child


Questions: 136 – 143

Read the following passage and answer the following questions :

The art of madhubani painting is the traditional style developed in the mithila region , in the Madhubani Bihar.Madhubani literally means forest of honey .This style of painting has been traditionally used by the women of the region ,though men are involved to meet the demand .The work is done on freshly painted mud walls for commerical purposes ,it is now beign done on cloth and paper etc. The paintings are basically religious nature .They are done in special rooms their homes on the main village , walls , etc for ceremonal or ritualistic purposes .The women offer praters to the deities before starting their work .Figures fromnature and mythology ara adapted to suit their style .The themes and designs widely painted are worship of hindu deites such as krishna .rama shiva durga lakshmi sun and mood s=tulsi plant. Floral animal and bird moffits geometricals designs are used to fill the gaps. there is harldy any space between the styles.cotton wrapped around a bamboo sticks from the brush .It is beliebed that genesis of madhubani paintings came about when a king janaka asked for paintings to be developed for his daughter sitas wedding.


Q. 136 Madhubani paintings are no longer done exclusively by women on walls :

A. bacause cloth is more durable

B. to meet their widespread demand

C. as men as better painters

D. as paper is cheaper


Q. 137 Madhubani paintings are essentially of religious nature when they are done :

A. iin the pooja room

B. in the bride room

C. on the village walls

D. using figures as nature


Q. 138 These paintings become secular when they object :

A. court scenes

B. workship of sarswati

C. tulsi plant

D. wedding scenes


Q. 139 A madhubani painting shows only

A. a balanced potrayl of all of them

B. hindu deities

C. flowers and plants

D. geometrical designs


Q. 140 The art of madhubani painting is learnt in the :

A. Asharms of madhurbani

B. schools of art

C. families of home

D. homes of reowned artsits


Q. 141 Floral is the adjective derived from the noun flower aural is derived from the noun :

A. mouth

B. morning

C. ear

D. eye


Q. 142 On freshly plastered mud walls .the word plastered is a /an :

A. particle

B. gerund

C. infinitive

D. participle


Q. 143 The word genesis means the same as

A. growth

B. birth

C. original

D. spirit


Questions: 144 – 150

Read the passage given below and answer the following questions .

A remarkable feature of edisons inventions was their basic simplicity .there were innumerable scientists possessing deep knowledge of electicity ,chemistry etc.but it was unschooled genius who succeeded where the failed .What were his unique qualities .? firstly he had an ,uncanny ability to judge the practical use of any scientific fact .Secondly, he was blessed with patience and preservnece .He would try out countless ideas till he found the right one .Third was his business acumen which enablled him to earn the large sums of money to conduct the experimental work . Edisons enthusiasm for work and optimistic attitude ensured an long and productive life .Only after crossing the age of 75 did he start slowing down. During his final illness , his curiosity about his condition ,medicines and treatment made the doctors think that possibly he was thinking about his condition, medicines and treatment, made the doctors think that possibly he was taking this too as one of his scientific investigations! He passed away on 18 October, 1931, at the ripe old age of eighty four. During his lifetime itself Edison became one of the famous men in the world. Honours were showered on him. Among them was the congressional gold in 1928, for his contributions to human welfare. In 1960,he was posthumously elected to the Hall of Fame for great Americans at the New York university. But the tribute that was most eloquent was quite unintened.


Q. 144 The most remarkable feature of Edison’s inventions was their:

A. aesthetic aspect

B. fundamental simplicity

C. multiple use fullness

D. low cost


Q. 145 According to the author, Edison became prosperous because he:

A. had luck on his side

B. worked very hard

C. made the best use of his time

D. had great business sense


Q. 146 To conduct experimental work Edison needed:

A. sophisticated gadgets

B. support of generous patrons

C. huge amount of money

D. calm and quiet atmosphere


Q. 147 Edison’s long and productive life can be attributed to:

A. his immensely good health

B. a large circle of friends

C. his involvement in charitable work

D. his positive attitude


Q. 148 The word ‘uncanny’ as used in the passage means:

A. weird

B. great

C. terrific

D. astonishing


Q. 149 The opposite of ‘famous’ is:

A. unnoticeable

B. unpopular

C. unknown

D. negligable


Q. 150 Which part of speech is the underlined word?

“….any scientific fact”

A. preposition

B. noun

C. adjective

D. adverb


Answer Sheet 

Question123456 78910
Question 101102103104105106107108109110
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