CTET July 2019 Paper-II Previous Year Paper




Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 1 to 30) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 1. Read the following description and identify the stage of moral reasoning of Kohlberg. 

Description : Right action is defined by self-chosen ethical principles of conscience that are valid for all humanity, regardless of law and social agreement. 

(1) The instrumental purpose orientation 

(2) The social – contract orientation 

(3) The social – order maintaining orientation 

(4) The universal ethical principle orientation 


Q 2. One of the major accomplishments of concrete operational stage is 

(1) Animistic thinking 

(2) Ability to conserve 

(3) Hypothetico – deductive reasoning 

(4) Secondary circular reactions 


Q 3. Constructivists such as Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky view learning as 

(1) acquisition of skills 

(2) conditioning of responses 

(3) passive repetitive process 

(4) process of meaning-making by active engagement 


Q 4. Selecting and presenting stories and clippings from newspaper that portray both men and women in non traditional roles is an effective strategy to 

(1) promote gender bias 

(2) promote gender constancy 

(3) encourage stereotypical gender roles 

(4) counter gender stereotypes 


Q 5. Which of the following play an important role in a child’s socialization ? 

 (i) Media 

 (ii) School 

 (iii) Family 

 (iv) Neighbourhood 

(1) (iii), (i) 

(2) (ii), (iii) 

(3) (i), (iii), (iv) 

(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) 


Q 6. As per Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligence, how would the intelligence of a person with the following characteristics be categorized ? 

Characteristics : 

 “Ability to detect and respond appropriately to the moods, temperaments, motivations and, intentions of others.” 

(1) Naturalistic 

(2) Intrapersonal 

(3) Interpersonal 

(4) Therapeutic 


Q 7. Which of the following should be the reasons for assessment of children ? 

(i) To separate and label children into ‘non-achievers’, ‘low achievers’, ‘average’ and ‘high achievers’. 

(ii) To improve teaching-learning processes in the classroom. 

(iii) To find out what changes and progress in learning that takes place in the child over a period of time. 

(iv) To discuss the capabilities, potential, strengths and challenging areas of the child with the parents. 

(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) 

(2) (i), (ii), (iii) 

(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) 

(4) (ii), (iv) 


Q 8. Which of the following is central to the concept of progressive education ?

(1) Textbook centric learning 

(2) Belief in the capability and potential of every child 

(3) Standard instruction and assessment 

(4) Extrinsic motivation and uniform assessment parameters 


Q 9. To understand individual differences in development it is important 

(1) to look at the inherited characteristics that give each person a special start in life. 

(2) to look at the environmental factors that affect individuals. 

(3) to consider maturation of the body and the brain. 

(4) to consider both inherited characteristics as well as environmental factors and their interplay. 


Q 10. Which of the following is not a principle of development ? 

(1) Individuals develop at different rates. 

(2) Development is relatively orderly.

(3) Development takes place gradually over a period of time. 

(4) Exact course and nature of development is determined at the time of birth itself. 


Q 11. Several research studies show that teachers have more overall interaction with boys than girls. What is the correct explanation for this ? 

(1) Boys have much more academic capabilities than girls. 

(2) Boys need more attention than girls. 

(3) This is an example of gender bias in teaching. 

(4) Boys are easier to manage than girls in the classroom. 


Q 12. The ability to come up with original and divergent solutions to a problem is a primary characteristic of 

(1) Egocentric children 

(2) Impaired children 

(3) Creative children 

(4) Children with learning disability 


Q 13. What instructional adaptations should a teacher make while working with students who are ‘Visually Challenged’ ? 

(1) Speak clearly and use a lot of touch and feel materials. 

(2) Use a variety of visual presentations. 

(3) Orient herself so that the students can watch her closely. 

(4) Focus on a variety of written tasks especially worksheets. 


Q 14. Co-operative learning and peer tutoring _________ in an inclusive classroom. 

(1) should be actively promoted 

(2) should be actively discouraged 

(3) should be occasionally used 

(4) should not be used 


Q 15. Which of the following is most important in an inclusive classroom ? 

(1) Uniform instruction 

(2) Standardized testing 

(3) Promoting competitive learning 

(4) Individualized education plan 


Q 16. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair of learners and their primary characteristics ? 

(1) Hearing impaired learners – Cannot comprehend visual information 

(2) ‘Dyslexic’ learners – Lack reading and writing fluency 

(3) Creative learners – Hyperactive; slow in completing work 

(4) Attention deficit learners – High motivation; can sustain attention for long periods of time. 


Q 17. Which of the following does not result in meaningful facilitation of learning ? 

(1) Connecting new knowledge to pre-existing knowledge 

(2) Promoting repetition and recall 

(3) Use of examples and non examples 

(4) Encouraging multiple ways of looking at a problem 


Q 18. Which of the following would not be consistent with a constructivist environment ? 

(1) Students are given frequent opportunities to engage in complex, meaningful, problem based activities. 

(2) Students work collaboratively and are given support to engage in task-oriented dialogue with each other. 

(3) Teachers elicit students’ ideas and experiences in relationship to key topics and plant teaching-learning to elaborate or restructure their current knowledge. 

(4) Teachers employ specific end of the term assessment strategies and give feedback on products rather than processes. 


Q 19. A teacher should encourage students to set _______________ rather than ______________. 

(1) learning goals; performance goals

(2) performance goals; learning goals

(3) failure avoiding goals; marks seeking goals 

(4) marks seeking goals; failure avoiding goals 


Q 20. Which of the following are examples of effective learning strategies ? 

(i) Setting goals and time tables 

(ii) Making organizational charts and concept maps 

(iii) Thinking of examples and non examples 

(iv) Explaining to a peer 

(v) Self-questioning 

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) 

(2) (i), (iv), (v) 

(3) (i), (ii), (iii), (v) 

(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) 


Q 21. Which of these is an example of extrinsic motivation ? 

(1) “I enjoy doing my homework because it is so much fun.” 

(2) “I learn so much when I do my homework.” 

(3) “Doing homework makes me understand my concepts better.” 

(4) “I complete my homework because the teacher gives us marks for each assignment.” 


Q 22. In a primary classroom a teacher should 

(1) give only examples 

(2) give only non-examples

(3) give both examples and non examples 

(4) not give any examples and non examples 


Q 23. Which of the following strategies would promote meaning-making in children ? 

(1) Exploration and discussion 

(2) Transmission of information 

(3) Using punitive measures 

(4) Uniform and standardized testing 


Q 24. Children’s errors and misconceptions –

(1) are a significant step in the teaching-learning process. 

(2) are a hindrance and obstacle to the teaching-learning process. 

(3) should be ignored in the teaching learning process. 

(4) signify that children’s capabilities are far inferior than that of adults. 


Q 25. In the constructivist frame child is viewed as 

(1) ‘miniature adult’ who is less than adult in all aspects such as size, cognition, emotions. 

(2) ‘tabula rasa’ or ‘blank slate’ whose life is shaped entirely by experience. 

(3) a ‘passive being’ who can be shaped and molded into any form through conditioning. 

(4) a ‘problem solver’ and a ‘scientific investigator’. 


Q 26. A teacher’s role while using co operative learning in her class – 

(1) is to be a silent spectator and let children do what they want. 

(2) is to leave the class and let children work on their own. 

(3) is to be supportive and monitor each group. 

(4) is to support the group which has the ‘bright’ and ‘talented’ children. 


Q 27. Which of the following statements denotes the relationship between development and learning correctly ? 

(1) Development and learning are not related. 

(2) Learning takes place irrespective of development. 

(3) Rate of learning far exceeds the rate of development. 

(4) Development and learning are interrelated and interdependent. 


Q 28. According to Piaget, specific psychological structures (organized ways of making sense of experience) are called 

(1) mental tools 

(2) schemes 

(3) images 

(4) mental maps 


Q 29. “With an appropriate question / suggestion, the child’s understanding can be extended far beyond the point which she could have reached alone.” Which construct does the above statement highlight ? 

(1) Zone of proximal development 

(2) Equilibration 

(3) Conservation 

(4) Intelligence 


Q 30. According to Lev Vygotsky, basic mental capacities are transformed into higher cognitive processes primarily through 

(1) rewards and punishment

(2) social interaction 

(3) stimulus-response association

(4) adaptation and organization 

IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do questions 31 to 90 EITHER from Part – II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part – III (Social Studies / Social Science). 




Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 31. If x = 23 × 32 × 53 × 7

 y = 22 × 33 × 54 × 73, and 

 z = 24 × 34 × 52 × 75

then H.C.F. of x, y and z is 

(1) (30)2 × 73 

(2) (15)3 × 74 

(3) (30)3 × 73 

(4) 30 × 75 


Q 32. If 52272 = p2 × q3 × r4,  where p, q and r are prime numbers, then the value of (2p + q – r) is 

(1) 21 

(2) 22 

(3) 23 

(4) 29 


Q 33. If the 7-digit number 134x58y is divisible by 72, then the value of (2x + y) is 

(1) 6 

(2) 7 

(3) 8 

(4) 9 


Q 34. Which of the following is not a Pythagorean triplet ? 

(1) 7, 24, 25 

(2) 8, 15, 17 

(3) 11, 60, 63 

(4) 13, 84, 85 


Q 35. The measure of an angle for which the measure of the supplement is four times the measure of the complement is 

(1) 300 

(2) 450 

(3) 600 

(4) 750 


Q 36. If the angles, in degrees, of a triangle are x, 3x + 20 and 6x, the triangle must be 

(1) Obtuse 

(2) Acute 

(3) Right 

(4) Isosceles 


Q 37. In triangles ABC and DEF, ∠C = ∠F, AC = DF, and BC = EF. If AB = 2x – 1 and DE = 5x – 4, then the value of x is 

(1) 1 

(2) 2 

(3) 3 

(4) 4 


Q 38. One side of a triangle is 5 cm and the other side is 10 cm and its perimeter is P cm, where P is an integer. The least and the greatest possible values of P are respectively 

(1) 19 and 29 

(2) 20 and 28 

(3) 21 and 29 

(4) 22 and 27 


Q 39. Let x be the median of the data 13, 8, 15, 14, 17, 9, 14, 16, 13, 17, 14, 15, 16, 15, 14. 

 If 8 is replaced by 18, then the median of the data is y. What is the sum of the values of x and y ? 

(1) 27 

(2) 28 

(3) 29 

(4) 30 


Q 40. A bag contains 3 white, 2 blue and 5 red balls. One ball is drawn at random from the bag. What is the probability that the ball drawn is not red ? 

(1) ⅘ 

(2) 3/10  

(3) ⅕  

(4) ½  


Q 41. The total surface area of a cuboid is 194 m2. If its length is 8 m and breadth is 6 m, then what is its volume (in m2) ? 

(1) 112 

(2) 126 

(3) 168 

(4) 224 


Q 42. The area of a trapezium is 105 cm2 and its height is 7 cm. If one of the parallel sides is longer than the other by 6 cm, then the length of the longer side, in cm, is 

(1) 18 

(2) 16 

(3) 15 

(4) 12 


Q 43. The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of base radius 3 cm is 94.2 cm2. The volume (in cm3) of the cylinder is (Take π = 3.14) 

(1) 138.6 

(2) 141.3 

(3) 125.6 

(4) 113.04 


Q 44. If x is added to each of 14, 12, 34 and 30, the numbers so obtained, in this order, are in proportion. What is the value of 12x + 9 ? 

(1) 8 

(2) 9 

(3) 11 

(4) 13 


Q 45. Which one of the following statements is true ? 

(1) A regular hexagon has only 4 lines of symmetry. 

(2) A regular polygon of 10 sides has 10 lines of symmetry. 

(3) A circle has no line of symmetry.

(4) An angle has two lines of symmetry. 


Q 46. The value of x which satisfies the equation 

 10(x + 6) + 8(x – 3) = 5(5x – 4) also satisfies the equation 

(1) 5(x – 3) = x + 5 

(2) 3(3x – 5) = 2x + 1 

(3) 2(x + 3) = 5(x – 5) + 4 

(4) 5(x – 5) = 2(x – 3) + 5 


Q 47. What should be subtracted from 5y – 13x – 8a to obtain 11x – 16y + 7a ?

(1) 6x + 21y + 15a 

(2) 21y – 5x – a 

(3) 21y – 24x – 15a 

(4) 24x – 21y + a 


Q 48. Which of the following statements is correct regarding children coming to school from rural areas in the context of Mathematics ? 

(1) They need not learn formal mathematics as it is of no use to them. 

(2) They may have rich oral mathematical traditions and knowledge. 

(3) They do not know any mathematics. 

(4) They have poor communication skills in mathematics. 


Q 49. Read the following statements : 

A. Axioms are propositions which are assumed. 

B. Axioms are special theorems. 

C. Axioms are definitions. 

D. Axioms, when proved becomes theorems. 

Which of the following statement(s) is correct ? 

(1) A and C 

(2) A and D 

(3) Only B 

(4) Only A 


Q 50. Which of the following statements does not reflect contemporary view of students errors in mathematics ? 

(1) They should be overlooked.

(2) They are a part of learning.

(3) They are a rich source of information. 

(4) They can guide the teacher in planning her classes. 


Q 51. Which of the following statement(s) regarding Mathematics is true ? 

A. Mathematics is a tool. 

B. Mathematics is a form of art. 

C. Mathematics is a language.

(1) A & B 

(2) B & C 

(3) only A 

(4) A, B & C 


Q 52. To prove that √2 is an irrational number, a teacher begins by assuming that it is a rational number and then proceeds to show how this assumption is not feasible. This is an example of proof by 

(1) Induction 

(2) Deduction 

(3) Contradiction 

(4) Verification 


Q 53. Which of the following statements reflects a desirable assessment practice in the context of mathematics learning ? 

(1) Only paper-pencil tasks are suited to assess students because they require precise answers. 

(2) Holding conversations and one to one discussion with children can also be helpful in assessing them. 

(3) Assessment should be product oriented and focus on the right answer of the child. 

(4) Incorrect answers of children should largely be ignored because we need to focus on children’s strengths. 


Q 54. Which of the following statements is true of learning mathematics ? 

(1) Everyone can learn and succeed in mathematics. 

(2) Girls need extra attention because they are weaker in mathematics. 

(3) Mathematics is a specialized subject meant for a select few. 

(4) Informal algorithms are inferior to formal mathematics. 


Q 55. The role of proportional reasoning in understanding the concept related to ratio and proportion was highlighted by 

(1) Van Hiele 

(2) Zoltan Dienes 

(3) Jean Piaget 

(4) Lev Vygotsky 


Q 56. A student is not able to solve those word problems which involve transposition in algebra. The best remedial strategy is to 

(1) give lot of practise questions on transposition of numbers. 

(2) give lot of practise questions of word problems in another language. 

(3) explain him/her word problem in simple language. 

(4) explain concept of equality using alternate method. 


Q 57. Contemporary understanding of Mathematics Pedagogy encourages teachers to do all of the following, except : 

(1) Encourage the ability to approximate solutions. 

(2) Introduce computation of problems before development of conceptual understanding. 

(3) Create opportunities for students to guess-and-verify the solutions to problems. 

(4) Develop the skill of systematic reasoning in students. 


Q 58. The value of  [(–4) + 2] × (–3) – (–3) [(–3) × (–7) – 8] +(4) [(– 48) + 6]  is 

(1) 9 

(2) –11 

(3) 13 

(4) –16 


Q 59. The fractions 44/49 , 33/38, 22/25,and 24/29 are written in descending order as 

(1) 24/29, 33/38, 22/25, 44/49 

(2) 22/25, 24/29, 33/38, 44/49 

(3) 44/49, 22/25, 33/38, 24/29 

(4) 44/49, 33/38, 24/29, 22/25 


Q 60. Which one of the following statements is not true for integers ? 

(1) Multiplication is associative. 

(2) Division is commutative. 

(3) 1 is the multiplicative identity. 

(4) Subtraction is not commutative. 


Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 61. Myra cycles to a friend’s house 5 km away to deliver a packet. She goes at a speed of 12 km/hour and returns at a speed of 8 km/h. Her average speed during the whole trip is – 

(1) 20 km/h 

(2) 9.6 km/h 

(3) 10 km/h 

(4) 5 m/s 


Q 62. Which of the following sets contains only the units of measuring distance ?(1) metre, light year, hertz 

(2) cubit, year, light year 

(3) cubit, metre, light year 

(4) metre, hertz, cubit 


Q 63. Sameer rolls his marble on three different surfaces spread out on floor – taut cellophane sheet, carpet and newspaper. The force of friction acting on the marble in the increasing order is 

(1) Newspaper, Cellophane sheet, Carpet 

(2) Newspaper, Carpet, Cellophane sheet 

(3) Cellophane sheet, Newspaper, Carpet 

(4) Cellophane sheet, Carpet, Newspaper 


Q 64. An object is moving linearly with a uniform velocity. If time is represented along X-axis then which of the following statements is correct ? 

(1) The distance-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to X-axis. 

(2) The velocity-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to Y-axis. 

(3) The distance-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to Y-axis. 

(4) The velocity-time graph of the motion will be a straight line parallel to X-axis. 


Q 65. Which of the following is not a byproduct of petroleum ? 

(1) Paraffin wax 

(2) Coke 

(3) Bitumen 

(4) Lubricating oil 


Q 66. Aman keeps a plastic bottle, a wooden spoon and a metallic spoon in a closed room overnight. The room temperature is 30O C. In the morning he records the temperatures of the three objects as T1, T2 and T3. Which of the following most likely represents the relation between them ? 

(1) T1 = T2 = T3 

(2) T3 > T2 > T1 

(3) T1 = T2 < T3 

(4) T1 > T2 > T3 


Q 67. Which of the following organisms can prepare their own food by Photosynthesis ? 

(1) Algae 

(2) Fungi 

(3) Rhizobium 

(4) Virus 


Q 68. Which of the following features help polar bears adapt in extreme cold conditions ? 

(1) white fur, flat feet, fat under skin 

(2) white fur, long curved sharp claws, fat under skin 

(3) white fur, flat feet, layers of fur 

(4) strong smell, flat feet, layers of fur 


Q 69. Which of the following nutrients are present in milk ? 

(1) Protein, Calcium, Vitamin D 

(2) Protein, Vitamin C, Vitamin A 

(3) Carbohydrates, Vitamin C, Iron 

(4) Protein, Iron, Vitamin D 


Q 70. The non-metal used in the purple coloured solution applied on wounds as antiseptic is 

(1) Chlorine 

(2) Iodine 

(3) Bromine 

(4) Sulphur 


Q 71. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Air’ is incorrect ? 

(1) Air has weight. 

(2) Air is not present in soil. 

(3) Air plays important role in water cycle. 

(4) Air occupies space. 


Q 72. Which of the following represents correct matching of the organs of digestive system in Column A with the function in Column B ? 

Column AColumn B 
a. Liver i. where protein digestion starts 
b. Stomach ii. where bile juice is stored
c. Gall bladder iii. releases digestive juice into small intestine 
d. Pancreas iv. largest gland 


Q 73. Which of the following statement about cells is true ? 

(1) All cells are round in shape. 

(2) Cells of a tissue have similar structure. 

(3) Size of cells is same in a well organized organism. 

(4) All the cells have nucleus. 


Q 74. Which of the following are correctly matched with their mode of reproduction ? 

a. Yeast i. vegetative propagation 
b. Potato ii. spore formation 
c. Algae iii. fragmentation 
d. Fungi iv. budding 


Q 75. Which of the following pollutants are responsible for depletion of ozone layer ? 

(1) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide 

(2) Chlorofluoro carbons 

(3) Acid rain 

(4) Methane and carbon dioxide 


Q 76. Which of the following set represents communicable diseases ? 

(1) Anaemia, Scurvy, Diarrhoea, Cholera 

(2) Typhoid, Malaria, Anaemia, Swine flu 

(3) Typhoid, Swine flu, Malaria, Polio 

(4) Diabetes, Typhoid, Malaria, Anaemia 


Q 77. Which one of the following is not true of the nature of science ? 

A. Science is always tentative.

B. Science promotes scepticism. 

C. Science is a process of constructing knowledge. 

D. Science is static in nature.

(1) D 

(2) B 

(3) C 

(4) A 


Q 78. Which of the following is/are developed by Science ? 

A. Equity 

B. Scientific attitude 

C. Scientific temper 

D. Static mind set 

(1) A and D 

(2) B, C and D 

(3) A, B and C 

(4) C and D 


Q 79. The role of a science teacher should be to _________ 

(1) provide rich variety of learning experiences to learners. 

(2) provide product based teaching learning environment to learners. 

(3) guide learners to practice the memorization of the creative ideas. 

(4) encourage all learners to frame questions of high cognitive abilities. 


Q 80. As per NCF-2005, good science education should be 

A. True to the learner 

B. True to the environment of the learner 

C. True to the teacher 

D. True to science 

(1) A, B and D 

(2) B and C only 

(3) A, B and C 

(4) D only 


Q 81. “Conducting a survey on the awareness of people about sources of air pollution in learners localities.” 

Which of the following cognitive process will be most associated with the above learning objective having action verb conducting ? 

(1) Remembering 

(2) Understanding 

(3) Creating 

(4) Applying 


Q 82. Which of the following strategy can be the most appropriate for involving learners in the teaching learning of science ? 

(1) Reading a science book 

(2) Clarifying the hard spots of learners 

(3) Working on engaging the learners first 

(4) Encouraging learners to do group assessment 


Q 83. By which of the following strategy meaningful clarification on the concept of reflection of light can be given ? 

(1) Animated video on the concept.

(2) Chart showing the reflection of light. 

(3) Observing reflection of light on white paper screen by the learners and drawing conclusions. 

(4) Asking closed ended questions related to the concept. 


Q 84. Why are field visits important in science ? 

(1) It provides hands on experiences to the learners. 

(2) It is easy to conduct. 

(3) It collects the information of science. 

(4) It develops habit of hardwork among learners. 


Q 85. Which of the following tool is for learner centered assessment ? 

 A. Portfolio 

 B. Concept mapping 

 C. Paper-pencil test 

 D. Journal writing 

(1) C only 

(2) A, B and D 

(3) A and C only 

(4) B, C and D 


Q 86. Assessment as learning in Science means _________. 

(1) Formative assessment 

(2) Summative assessment 

(3) Self assessment 

(4) Term assessment 


Q 87. Amrita is trying to set-up an electric circuit. She runs short of connecting wires. Which of the following materials can she use to complete the circuit ? 

(1) thick thread 

(2) steel wire 

(3) glass rod 

(4) rubber pipe 


Q 88. Identify the correct statement. 

(1) A concave mirror always forms an erect image. 

(2) A concave mirror forms an erect as well as inverted image. 

(3) A convex mirror always forms an inverted image. 

(4) A convex mirror forms erect as well as inverted image. 


Q 89. Which of the following acids is found in ant’s sting ? 

(1) Ascorbic acid 

(2) Formic acid 

(3) Oxalic acid 

(4) Acetic acid 


Q 90. 3.7 kg of a fuel is completely burnt to give off 1.665  108 joules of energy. The calorific value of the fuel in standard unit is 

(1) 45000 

(2) 22222 

(3) 61605 

(4) 25000 

IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do Question Nos. 31 to 90 EITHER from Part – II (Mathematics and Science) OR from Part – III (Social Studies / Social Science). 



Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. 

Q 31. Which of the following was not a feature to Athenian democracy ? 

(1) All the free men and women above 30 years of age were recognised as full citizens. 

(2) All citizens were expected to serve in army and navy. 

(3) All the citizens attended assemblies that were held for deciding upon matters. 

(4) Appointment for many positions were made through lottery. 


Q 32. Which of the following was Samudragupta’s policy specifically towards the rulers of Dakshinapatha ? 

(1) Their kingdoms were uprooted and made a part of Samudragupta’s empire. 

(2) They submitted to Samudragupta and offered daughters in marriage. 

(3) They brought tribute, followed his orders and attended his court. 

(4) They surrendered after being defeated and then were allowed to rule again. 


Q 33. Match the following : 

(Art form) (Nomenclature) 
a. Art technique that enabled making of images that looked real. i. Picturesque 
b. Painting showing Indian landscape as quaint, unexplored land ii. Portraiture 
c. Paintings displaying lavish lifestyles, wealth & status of Europeans in India. iii. History Painting 
d. Paintings depicting scenes from British imperial history & victories. iv. Oil Painting


Q 34. In the late 18th century, the presidencies of Bombay, Madras and Bengal developed from which of the following East India Company’s trading posts ? 

(1) Surat, Madras, Calcutta

(2) Nagpur, Madurai, Delhi

(3) Pune, Madras, Calcutta

(4) Surat, Madurai, Delhi 


Q 35. Consider the statements (A) and (B) about Mahayana Buddhism and choose the correct answer. 

(A) In this form of Buddhism, Buddha’s presence in sculptures was shown using certain signs. 

(B) The belief in Bodhisattvas emerged with the coming of Mahayana Buddhism. 

(1) (A) is true, (B) is false.

(2) (A) is false, (B) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (B) are true.

(4) Both (A) and (B) are false. 


Q 36. Consider the statements (A) and (B) about Mahalwari and Ryotwari system of revenues and choose the correct answer. 

(A) The Mahalwari was devised for North-Western provinces of Bengal presidency, while the Ryotwari was devised for British territories in South. 

(B) While in Mahalwari, village headman collected and paid revenue of the whole village to the company, in Ryotwari direct settlements was made with cultivators. 

(1) Only (A) correctly explains differences between the two revenue systems. 

(2) Only (B) correctly explains differences between the two revenue systems. 

(3) Both (A) and (B) correctly explain differences between the two revenue systems. 

(4) Neither (A) nor (B) correctly explain differences between the two revenue systems. 


Q 37. A tomb of a Sufi saint is known as :

(1) Khanqah

(2) Idgah

(3) Gulfaroshan

(4) Dargah 


Q 38. The doctrine of Vishishtadvaita was propounded in eleventh century by :

(1) Ramanuja

(2) Basavanna

(3) Eknath

(4) Sakhubai 


Q 39. Consider the statements (A) and (B) on Diwani Adalat established in 1772 in India and choose the correct answer : 

 (A) It was a criminal court. 

 (B) It was presided over by the European district collectors. 

(1) (A) is true, (B) is false. 

(2) (A) is false, (B) is true. 

(3) Both (A) and (B) are true.

(4) Both (A) and (B) are false.


Q 40. A garisson town refers to : 

(1) Land adjacent to a city that supplies goods to it. 

(2) A fortified settlement with soldiers.

(3) A place where goods from different production centres are sold. 

(4) A town on an important trading port. 


Q 41. Assertion (A) : It will be 7:30 p.m. in India, when it is 2:00 p.m. in London. Reason (R) : India is located east of Greenwich at 82º30′E. 

 Select the correct option from the given alternatives. 

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A). 


Q 42. Consider the statements A, B, C on time zone and choose the correct answer : 

A. Some countries have a great longitudinal extent and so they adopted more than one standard time. 

B. The earth has been divided into twenty-four time zones of one hour each. 

C. Each time zone covers 15º of longitude. 

(1) A and B are correct and C is incorrect. 

(2) A and C are correct and B is incorrect. 

(3) B and C are correct and A is incorrect. 

(4) A, B, C all are correct. 


Q 43. Choose the correct arrangement of atmosphere’s layers beginning from earth’s surface : 

(1) Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere, Troposphere 

(2) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere 

(3) Exosphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere, Thermosphere. 

(4) Mesosphere, Troposphere, Exosphere, Stratosphere, Thermosphere 


Q 44. Seasons occur due to which of the following reasons ? 

(1) Axis of the Earth makes an angle of 66½º with its orbital plane. 

(2) Tropic of Capricorn receives direct rays of the sun, falling vertically at 23½º S. 

(3) Revolution of the Earth and inclination of its axis in the same direction. 

(4) Circle of illumination caused due to rotation of the earth around its axis. 


Q 45. The major constituents of earth’s atmosphere by percentage is : 

(1) Oxygen 

(2) Carbon dioxide 

(3) Nitrogen 

(4) Helium 


Q 46. Which of the following statements about ocean currents is/are correct ? 

A. The cold currents carry water from polar or higher latitudes to tropical or lower latitudes. 

B. Labrador is a warm current. 

C. Areas where warm and cold currents meet provide world’s best fishing grounds. 

(1) A and B are correct. 

(2) A and C are correct. 

(3) B and C are correct. 

(4) Only A is correct. 


Q 47. The depositional feature of a glacier is called : 

(1) Sea cave 

(2) Moraine 

(3) Loess 

(4) Levees 


Q 48. Statements A and B describe the features of which of the following vegetations ? 

A. This vegetation is found in the higher latitudes (50º – 70º) of Northern Hemisphere. 

 B. It is also called as Taiga.

(1) Temperate Grasslands. 

(2) Temperate Deciduous Forests.

(3) Coniferous Forests. 

(4) Mediterranean Vegetation. 


Q 49. Which of the following is not a feature of the Ganga-Brahmaputra Basin ?

(1) Ox-Bow lakes dot the plain area.

(2) The density of population of plain area is very high. 

(3) The delta area is covered with Mangrove forests. 

(4) Slash and Burn agriculture is practiced in this area for land cultivation. 


Q 50. Swimmers can float in Dead sea because : 

(1) Winds blow at a very high speed over the surface of sea water. 

(2) More warm currents than cold currents originate in the sea. 

(3) The sea experiences more high tides than low tides. 

(4) The increased salt content makes the sea dense. 


Q 51. Consider the statements A and B about land use and choose the correct answer : 

A. Land use refers to use of land exclusively for agriculture and forestry. 

B. Land use is primarily determined by its topography. 

(1) A is true and B is false.

(2) A is false and B is true.

(3) Both A and B are true. 

(4) Both A and B are false. 


Q 52. Shelter belts help in : 

(1) Checking wind movement to protect soil cover. 

(2) Retaining soil moisture. 

(3) Slowing down the flow of water over soil. 

(4) Preventing gullies and hence further soil loss. 


Q 53. What determines the thickness of soil profile ? 

(1) Relief 

(2) Time 

(3) Flora-Fauna 

(4) Climate 


Q 54. On the basis of their distribution, resources can be classified as : 

(1) Actual and Potential resources 

(2) Renewable and Non-renewable resources 

(3) Biotic and Abiotic resources 

(4) Ubiquitous and Localised resources 


Q 55. Which of the following statements about a ‘diverse society’ is correct ? 

(1) It would have differences and inequalities in language, religion and culture. 

(2) It would have differences in culture and power. 

(3) It would have similarities of language, religion and culture. 

(4) It would have differences and similarities in language, culture and religion. 


Q 56. Which of the following statements challenges gender stereotypes ? 

(1) Women are very emotional.

(2) Women are fashion conscious.

(3) Women are responsible bus drivers.

(4) Women are nurturing. 


Q 57. Which of the following composed the main demand of the suffragettes ? 

(1) Right to vote for women. 

(2) Right to bureaucratic roles for women. 

(3) Adult franchise for propertied women. 

(4) Adult franchise for working class. 


Q 58. Which of the following statements about Jatakas is correct ? 

(1) These were composed by ordinary people, written down and preserved by Buddhist monks. 

(2) These were composed by ordinary people, written down and preserved by Jaina monks. 

(3) These were composed by Buddhist monks, written down and preserved by ordinary people. 

(4) These were composed by Jaina monks, written down and preserved by ordinary people. 


Q 59. Which of the following statements about Ain-i-Akbari is correct ? 

(1) It is the first volume of the three volume history of Akbar’s reign titled Akbar Nama. 

(2) It deals with Akbar’s ancestors and records the events of Akbar’s reign. 

(3) It was written by Mirza Hakim, who was one of Akbar’s courtiers. 

(4) It has rich statistical details about diverse aspects of Akbar’s administration. 


Q 60. Who among the following compiled the compositions of Baba Guru Nanak in Gurumukhi, also adding his own compositions to it ? 

(1) Guru Gobind Singh 

(2) Guru Angad 

(3) Guru Arjan 

(4) Guru Teg Bahadur 


Q 61. Consider List – A and List – B. List – A has different types of rural employment. 

 List – B has different kinds of loans taken. 

List – A List – B
a. Agricultural worker i. Health and off season consumption 
b. Largefarmer ii. Fertiliser, Pesticide, Seeds 
c. Middle farmer iii. Government loan for agro-processing plant

Match items of List – A with List – B, based on most likely reason for loans : 

     a b c 

(1) i ii iii 

(2) ii i iii 

(3) i iii ii 

(4) iii i ii 


Q 62. Which of the following forms the trading arrangement between a weaver and a merchant under the “Putting out” system ? Choose the correct option. 

(1) Yarn is bought for the lowest bid from merchant; and cloth is sold at highest bid. 

(2) Yarn is sold to the weaver by the merchant; and weaver makes cloth for self-consumption. 

(3) Yarn is supplied by the merchant to the weaver and cloth produced is bought back from weaver at a low price. 

(4) Yarn is bought by weaver from the open market and cloth is sold to merchant at a low price. 


Q 63. Consider the statements A to E. They form jumbled links in a chain of market, wherein ‘Ketchup’ reaches a consumer. 

 A. Sona orders ketchup from a neighbourhood shop. 

 B. Farmer buys tomato seeds from a local trader. 

 C. Wholesale merchant bids for tomatoes in the vegetable mandi. 

 D. A small city based food processing unit buys tomatoes. 

 E. Marketing company supplies ketchup to stores. 

 Choose the option that represents the correct sequence in the chain of market : 

(1) B, C, D, E, A

(2) B, D, E, C, A

(3) C, B, D, E, A

(4) A, B, D, C, E 


Q 64. According to Appellate System, a person dissatisfied with the verdict given by the Court of the District Judge could appeal to which of the following courts ? 

(1) Session Court 

(2) Supreme Court 

(3) High Court 

(4) Trial Court 


Q 65. Consider the statements A and B on the Indian Parliament : 

A. A political party that has any number of Members of 

Parliament in the Lok Sabha can form a government. 

B. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President are part of the Parliament. 

Choose the correct option : 

(1) Only A is true. 

(2) Only B is true. 

(3) Both A and B are true. 

(4) Both A and B are false. 


Q 66. Read the statement given below : “The Indian State has many checks and balances to prevent the misuse of powers.” 

 Choose the correct option that represents the meaning of ‘Indian State’ in the above statement. 

(1) The Indian Central Government

(2) The Indian Bureaucracy

(3) Any State Government 

(4) The Indian Political System 


Q 67. Which of the following should the teaching of History focus upon ? 

A. Concepts of plural representations and building a sense of historical diversity. 

B. Encouraging students to imagine living in the past and relate to the experiences. 

(1) Only A 

(2) Only B 

(3) Both A and B 

(4) Neither A nor B 


Q 68. Two of the statements given below are false. Identify these statements. 

A. Natural and physical basis of scientific inquiry can be used in Social Science also. 

B. The teaching of Social Science has the responsibility towards value education only. 

C. The same methodology can be used to teach different disciplines of Social Science. 

D. The teaching of Social Science concerns more with involvement with complexities rather than information. 

(1) A and C 

(2) B and C 

(3) B and D 

(4) C and D 


Q 69. A Social Science teacher should aim towards : 

(1) Rote memorisation 

(2) Building perspective 

(3) Syllabus completion 

(4) Passing the examinations 


Q 70. Which of the following approaches have been considered while developing social and political life textbooks ? 

A. Learning through use of concrete examples and experiences. 

 B. Learning through retention based on facts and data. 

(1) Only A 

(2) Only B 

(3) Both A and B 

(4) Neither A nor B 


Q 71. Which of the following is true about Social Science ? 

A. Memorising information will lead to conceptual development. 

B. The status of a ‘fact’ is always fixed. 

(1) Only A 

(2) Only B 

(3) Both A and B 

(4) Neither A nor B 


Q 72. The best practice for sensitising students towards wildlife conservation would be : 

(1) Reading about relevant policies and laws. 

(2) Preparing a play on wildlife conservation. 

(3) Observing wildlife week at the school. 

(4) Pledging not to buy animal based products. 


Q 73. What is the main purpose of an Open Book Evaluation ? 

(1) Students need not feel the burden to rote memorise all facts and details. 

(2) Teachers need not undergo extra pressure to frame new questions. 

(3) Students need not read extra books. 

(4) Students can answer exactly according to the textbook. 


Q 74. Which of the following would be the best closure tasks after the teaching of the theme ‘The Making of Regional Cultures’ ? 

A. Small group projects 

B. Dance performance by an expert 

C. Quiz competition 

D. Collage making 

(1) A, B, C 

(2) A, B, D 

(3) A, C, D 

(4) B, C, D 


Q 75. Imagine you have inherited a kingdom. How would you make your kingdom stable and prosperous ? 

In context of the above question, as a teacher which skill would you emphasise upon while assessing the students ? 

(1) Comparing experiences.

(2) Ability to analyse. 

(3) Infer and extrapolate from situation. 

(4) Ability to reason. 


Q 76. A respectful way to introduce the theme ‘Adivasis’ would be to : 

(1) Portraying them as rich and powerful forest people. 

(2) Showcasing their colourful costumes. 

(3) Screening a tribal song and dance.

(4) Discussing their primitive and rustic pasts. 


Q 77. While teaching controversial issues in Social Science class, you should : 

(1) Completely avoid confrontations.

(2) Take them up occasionally and conduct brief discussions. 

(3) Take them up with proper planning to initiate a dignified discussion. 

(4) Keep in mind students’ background and discuss only non hurtful aspects. 


Q 78. The teaching of social and political life should focus on : 

A. Study of Political Institutions. 

B. Study of Basic Principles.

(1) Only A

(2) Only B

(3) Both A and B

(4) Neither A nor B 


Q 79. While planning a small group activity with students, which of the following should be emphasised ? 

A. To create a challenging task. 

B. To teach students to work together. 

C. To select groups thoughtfully. 

D. Completion of task. 

(1) A, B, C

(2) A, B, D

(3) A, C, D

(4) B, C, D 


Q 80. Which of the following statements are true about the study of Social Science ? 

A. Helps in systemic analysis of issues. 

B. Students will grow up and find out for themselves. 

C. Focus should be on subject details rather than understanding. 

D. Building sensitivity and curiosity as much as providing information. 

(1) A, C

(2) A, D

(3) B, D

(4) C, D 


Q 81. The writings of the following cannot be attributed as a primary source ? 

(1) Muzaffar Alam 

(2) Abul Fazl 

(3) Rashsundari Devi 

(4) Ziyauddin Barani 


Q 82. Which of the following sources would be wrong to use if you have to introduce Ancient Indian History ?

(1) Cave paintings 

(2) Miniature Paintings 

(3) Inscriptions 

(4) Manuscripts 


Q 83. Which of the following can a Social Science teacher critically address while discussing the theme, ‘Advertisement’ ? 

A. Appeal to the personal emotions. 

B. Issues of equality. 

(1) Only A

(2) Only B

(3) Neither A nor B

(4) Both A and B 


Q 84. ‘Discuss few more reasons that are responsible for changes in land use pattern.’ 

In context of the above question, as a Social Science teacher you would be assessing students’ skill of : 

(1) Classifying

(2) Generalising

(3) Inferring

(4) Hypothesising 


Q 85. To familiarise students with the theme, ‘Natural Vegetation and Wildlife’, which would be the best pedagogical method ? 

(1) Screening a documentary on the theme. 

(2) Visit to a wildlife sanctuary.

(3) Inviting an expert for a lecture.

(4) Textbook reading and discussion. 


Q 86. What is the role of cartoons in a Social Science textbooks ? 

(1) No role as cartoons are immature.

(2) Mainly used as fillers so that textbooks look attractive. 

(3) Makes class enjoyable as the subject is boring. 

(4) Raises basic issues and makes it relatable to students. 


Q 87. Consider statements A and B on the practice of apartheid : 

A. It discriminates between races but allowed all the right to vote. 

B. It prevents mingling of races but gives equitable public facilities to all. 

Choose the correct option : 

(1) Only A is true. 

(2) Only B is true. 

(3) Both A and B are true. 

(4) Both A and B are false. 


Q 88. Who among the following occupies elected office in a Gram Panchayat ? 

 A. Sarpanch 

 B. Ward Members 

 C. Secretary 

 D. Gram Sabha Member 

 Choose the correct option : 

(1) A and B

(2) A and C

(3) A, B and C

(4) B, C and D 


Q 89. Which of the following work is the responsibility of a ‘Patwari’ ? 

(1) Construction and maintenance of common property. 

(2) Executing employment schemes for land development. 

(3) Preventing land disputes by investigating complaints. 

(4) Measuring land and keeping records. 


Q 90. Which of the following statements on the functioning of a local urban administration is correct ? 

(1) Commissioner of a municipal corporation makes and decides the budget for the year. 

(2) Commissioner is elected by ward councillors and reports to him/her. 

(3) Ward councillors form committees to resolve issues of governance. 

(4) Ward councillors are headed by the Sarpanch. 





IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – IV (Q. No. 91-120), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – I only. 

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (91 – 99) that follow by selecting the correct/most appropriate options : 

There’s an air of excitement on the platform as the train’s departure time draws close. You’ve found your name on the passenger’s list, together with the names of those in the compartment with you; so you already know your ‘fellow passengers’ names, ages, sex and destination. People are pushing past you to get on, as you show your coupon to the conductor and he tells you to board. 

Your fellow passengers are settling in, staking out their claims to territory with too much luggage. A bell clangs but there is no slamming of carriage doors, no blowing of whistles and no shout of “All aboard !’’ as in the states. The train simply draws out of the station while people stroll alongside and with studied nonchalance, clamber on, one after the other through the still-open doors. 

You claim your own seat, pleased to be on the move. Since you have a long journey ahead in the company of strangers, what happens next will govern your enjoyment of the trip. You can start up a conversation and make friends, allies quickly, or he anti-social and lonely for the whole of the journey. Of course, it depends on your personality but if you are travelling alone you’ll need an ally, someone you feel you can trust to watch your luggage when you go to the washroom. You can’t isolate yourself completely on a train so if that’s your style, train travel isn’t for you. 

I get a thrill out of the start of every train journey. It’s not just the excitement of moving on to a new place, there’s the anticipation of what’s going to happen during the journey; the pleasure at the new acquaintances I’m going to make; the dissolving of city skyline into lush, rural landscape beyond the windows; and the heightened emotions of everyone on board. Indians love to travel by train; they are used to it and prepare properly so it becomes a picnic on wheels. I get excited when I am part of it, you will too. 

Q 91. Even after the train has started moving why do some people stroll alongside ? 

(1) They reached the platform late. 

(2) They want to enjoy the outside scene. 

(3) They enjoy getting into a moving train. 

(4) The doors are still open. 


Q 92. What can prevent you from enjoying your train trip ? 

(1) There are strangers around you.

(2) You are lonely by temperament. 

(3) You are worried about your luggage. 

(4) The travellers around you don’t trust you. 


Q 93. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE ? 

(1) The narrator enjoys going to a new place. 

(2) He/she loves to make friends. 

(3) He/she does not enjoy a picnic in the train. 

(4) He/she is thrilled at the scene outside. 


Q 94. What does the word ‘Coupon’ here mean ? 

(1) a railways pass 

(2) a passport 

(3) a railway ticket 

(4) a counterfoil 


Q 95. The phrase, ‘draws out’ as used here means : 

(1) clears out 

(2) moves out 

(3) hurries out 

(4) breaks away 


Q 96. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ? 

People are pushing past you.

(1) Preposition 

(2) Adverb 

(3) Adjective 

(4) Verb 


Q 97. Which part of the following sentence has an error in it ? 

(a)  “Once you have made this decision 

(b) there would be 

(c) no going back” 

(d) Ram warned me 

(1) (a) 

(2) (b) 

(3) (c) 

(4) (d) 


Q 98. You are well informed about your fellow passengers : 

(1) even before you have entered the compartment. 

(2) after you have been introduced to them. 

(3) after you have interacted with them. 

(4) When you have settled in your seats. 


Q 99. Who stake a claim to territory in the compartment ? 

(1) Those who need more space in it. 

(2) Those whose seats are already occupied. 

(3) Those who don’t travel light.

(4) Those who haven’t reserved seats. 


Directions : Read the extract given below and answer the questions (100 – 105) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options : 

The work of hunters is another thing : I have come after them and made repair Where they have left not one stone on a stone, But they would have the rabbit out of hiding, To please the yelping dogs. The gaps I mean, 5 No one has seen them made or heard them made, But at spring mending-time we find them there. I let my neighbour know beyond the hill; And on a day we meet to walk the line And set the wall between us once again. 10 We keep the wall between us as we go. To each the boulders that have fallen to each. 

And some are loaves and some so nearly balls We have to use a spell to make them balance : 

‘Stay where you are until our backs are turned !’ 

Q 100. The gaps in the wall are made by :

(1) rabbits 

(2) dogs 

(3) hunters 

(4) nature 


Q 101. The neighbours meet in the spring season to : 

(1) fill the gaps in the wall. 

(2) to go on a long walk. 

(3) to find out who broke the wall.

(4) to lift the stones. 


Q 102. The neighbours have to use a spell to :

(1) look for the rabbits. 

(2) to count the number of stones.

(3) to make the stones obey them. 

(4) to fix the irregular stones in the wall. 


Q 103. The figure of speech used in the lines 9-10 is : 

(1) Personification 

(2) Metaphor 

(3) Simile 

(4) Irony 


Q 104. Identify the figure of speech used in the expression : 

 ‘And some are loaves and some so nearly balls’ 

(1) Simile 

(2) Metaphor 

(3) Personification 

(4) Irony 


Q 105. The hunters’ main aim is : 

(1) to remove the stones. 

(2) to please their dogs. 

(3) to catch the rabbits. 

(4) to make the neighbours build the wall again. 

Answer the following questions (Q Nos. 106 to 120) by selecting the most appropriate option out of the given options. 


Q 106. A teacher along with her learners writes the names of objects in the classroom (like door, black board, windows etc) in their mother tongue and in English on pieces of paper and pastes them on the objects for learners to notice the words. What is the teacher trying to do ? 

(1) The teacher wants her learners to write well. 

(2) The teacher is creating a (print) language rich environment in the classroom. 

(3) The teacher is trying to teach letters of alphabet. 

(4) The teacher is creating a situation for the students to learn the spelling of the words. 


Q 107. This is assumed to be a major difference between language acquisition and learning. 

(1) Language acquisition is natural and language learning is deliberate/instructed. 

(2) Language acquisition happens at an early stage while language learning takes place later. 

(3) Language acquisition always happens in mother tongue and language learning happens in the second language. 

(4) Language acquisition is meaning formation and language learning is making meaning. 


Q 108. LAC stands for 

(1) Language Acquisition Culture 

(2) Languages Across the Cultures 

(3) Language Acquisition of Content 

(4) Language Across the Curriculum 


Q 109. Many minor and tribal languages are not available in school curriculum and the number of speakers is receding in those languages. What is this known as in socio educational linguistics ? 

(1) Language death 

(2) Language minority in education 

(3) Language endangerment 

(4) Language revival 


Q 110. A teacher asks her learners to find words and word chunks relating to different themes based on the reading lesson. Learners in groups have to make word charts of the same category. What is this strategy known as ? 

(1) Thematic language teaching

(2) Word collocations 

(3) Communicative language teaching 

(4) A writing project 


Q 111. A student reads through an article in a newspaper to get the overall idea of the article. What is this (practice) known as ? 

(1) Scanning 

(2) Skimming 

(3) Top-down model 

(4) Bottom-up model 


Q 112. Sight words are developed 

(1) by seeing them on sight.

(2) by teachers from text books.

(3) by using words in meaningful contexts 

(4) by knowing meanings of difficult words. 


Q 113. Language is 

(1) a rule governed system

(2) a structure formed system

(3) a formation of words, rules and meanings 

(4) a human system which changes frequently 


Q 114. ‘Comprehensible input’ as proposed by Krashen (1985) is 

(1) enabling learners to comprehend ideas. 

(2) exposing learners to language somewhat above their level. 

(3) exposing learners to language below their level so that they can comprehend. 

(4) enabling learners to read in many languages. 


Q 115. Extensive reading is 

(1) reading in detail every word and idea for deep understanding. 

(2) reading for facts. 

(3) reading to write. 

(4) reading for pleasure and overall understanding of the text. 


Q 116. A teacher keeps the students’ work of language use and uses it for assessing the learners’ achievement. What is this strategy for assessment known as ?

(1) Portfolio assessment 

(2) Diagnostic test 

(3) CCE 

(4) Summative assessment 


Q 117. A teacher brought real life objects like a hammer, a screw driver and so on to her class. She asked her learners to describe the objects in five to seven sentences. What are the materials in language teaching known as ? 

(1) Teaching implements 

(2) Tools 

(3) Language input 

(4) Realia 


Q 118. Mother tongue based multilingualism advocates that 

(1) all learners learn in mother tongue only in primary school. 

(2) learners begin their schooling in mother tongue and move on to add many (at least two) languages in school. 

(3) learners begin with their state language and more on to English medium. 

(4) learners learn their mother tongue, Hindi and English from Class-I. 


Q 119. Which of the following statements are true of teaching of grammar ? 

 A. Teaching of rules at the initial stage does not lend much to language learning. 

 B. Rules of grammar are essential during the formative years of language learning. 

 C. Grammar teaching should move from meaning to form. 

 D. Grammar teaching should move from form to meaning. 

(1) Statements B and D are true.

(2) Statements C and B are true.

(3) Statements A and C are true.

(4) Statements A and D are true. 


Q 120. A teacher draws the attention of learners to individual sounds, words and then sentences while teaching the listening skill. What approach to listening does the teacher adopt ? 

(1) Top-down approach 

(2) Elastic approach 

(3) Communicative approach

(4) Bottom-up approach 




IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part – V (Q. No. 121-150), if they have opted for ENGLISH as LANGUAGE – II only.

Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (121 – 128) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options : 

The other day I received an unusual and very gratifying gift : I was given a tree. Or rather, I was given half-a-dozen trees, which would be planted on my behalf. I had been invited to give a talk to an organisation. After such events, the speaker is usually given a token gift. Sometimes the gift is that of a pen, or something useful. Often, the gift is in the form of a plaque or similar commemorative token. However well-meant, such gifts are destined to gather dust in forgotten corners. Which is why I was agreeably surprised to be given a scroll which attested that, in a designated plantation established for the purpose, six tress would be added in my name, as part of ‘greenֹ’ movement being sponsored by the organization. 

In an increasingly environmentally conscious world, the gift of a living tree or plant makes for a perfect present. The tradition of giving and receiving gifts has increasingly become a highly evolved marketing exercise. Apart from festivals like Diwali, Holi, Christmas, Eid and others, a whole new calendar of celebratory events has been created to promote the giving of gifts : Mother’s Day, Father’s Day, Teacher’s Day, Valentine’s Day and so on and on. 

What do you give to people – friends, relatives, spouses, children, parents, employees, clients, well-wishers who have more or less everything, or at least everything that you could afford to give them as a gift ? Another shirt or kurta ? Another bottle of scent or after shave ? Another box of chocolates ? Another any other ? 

Q 121. What usually happens to the gifts he/she receives ? 

(1) He uses them if he needs them.

(2) He gives them away as gifts to others. 

(3) They are put away and forgotten.

(4) He keeps them religiously as mementoes. 


Q 122. The gift received by the writer was :

(1) a marketing exercise 

(2) environment friendly 

(3) very expensive 

(4) gathering dust in a corner 


Q 123. Why do you not very much care for it when you receive a shirt or a kurta as a gift ? 

(1) The giver had to spend a lot of money. 

(2) You already have so many of them. 

(3) You don’t like the colour

(4) You were not asked about your choice. 


Q 124. The word ‘gratifying’ means

(1) annoying 

(2) satisfying 

(3) giving 

(4) fortifying 


Q 125. The word ‘destined’ means :

(1) fated 

(2) decided 

(3) declined 

(4) departed 


Q 126. Name the part of speech of the underlined word in the following clause. 

 which is why I was agreeably surprised. 

(1) Preposition 

(2) Adjective 

(3) Pronoun 

(4) Adverb 


Q 127. Identify the part of the following sentence which has an error in it. 

(a) Your claim ought 

(b) to succeed in that case

(c) the damages

(d) will be substantial

(1) (a) 

(2) (b) 

(3) (c) 

(4) (d) 


Q 128. The writer was thrilled when he was given 

(1) a tree 

(2) six trees 

(3) a plaque 

(4) a pen 


Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions (129 – 135) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options : 

With more then 3,000 languages currently spoken, English undoubtedly is amongst the richest of all languages. The Oxford English Dictionary lists about half a million words of which only 2,00,000 are frequently used. This is because, the balance 3,00,000 words are technical and not found in ordinary dictionaries. The only language that can come near English is Chinese. 

Apart from being the richest language, English also boasts of being one of the most widely spoken, second only to Mandarin Chinese. This remarkable achievement is only because of the one thing that we all love to do – copy ! ‘Siesta’ for example is of Spanish origin. ‘Sputnik’ as you must be aware of, has a Russian origin. ‘Restaurant’ is from France and ‘Super’ from Germany. Even before the birth of the ‘genius’ of ‘drama’, William Shakespeare, the words ‘genius’ and ‘drama’ were adapted from Greek. Now, you must be wondering if English has anything original about it. Well, find it out ! Did you ever try to find out how many different words of English we use in our daily life ? Try to guess and then read on. A modern novelist has a vocabulary of anywhere between ten to fifteen thousand words. 

William Shakespeare used thirty thousand words and the only writer to come close to him was James Joyce in ‘Ulysses’. We normally have a vocabulary of about ten thousand words of which only five thousand are used in everyday conversation. This leads to a limited variety of words. This is because we repeat a lot of words. In conversation and in writing, it is ‘the’. (Try counting it in this article and you will have proof of it.)

Q 129. In our everyday conversation we use a limited number of words because : 

(1) our vocabulary is unlimited. 

(2) we are not a genius like Shakespeare. 

(3) everybody is not highly educated.

(4) we repeat a lot of words. 


Q 130. How many words are usually used by an English speaking person ? 

(1) 3,000 

(2) 5,000 

(3) 10,000 

(4) 15,000 


Q 131. Which of the following words is most often used in English language ? 

(1) a 

(2) the 

(3) is 

(4) one 


Q 132. The word that is similar in meaning to the word, ‘remarkable’ is : 

(1) astonishing 

(2) remedial 

(3) remaining 

(4) optional 


Q 133. The word that is opposite in meaning to the word, ‘ordinary’ is : 

(1) usual 

(2) complex 

(3) special 

(4) liable 


Q 134. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence ? 

 Did you ever try to find out ?

(1) Adverb 

(2) Adjective 

(3) Pronoun 

(4) Verb 


Q 135. English is the most widely used language in the world because : 

(1) Shakespeare has written in English. 

(2) it is the richest language. 

(3) it has taken words from other languages. 

(4) it has half a million words in it. 


Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 136 to 150) by selecting the most appropriate options. 

Q 136. Continuous Assessment focuses on

(1) Formal assessment 

(2) Informal assessment 

(3) Informal and a combination of both formative and summative 

(4) Outcome and achievement based assessment 


Q 137. ‘Pre-reading’ activity in class is to

(1) connect learner’s previous knowledge with what she learns in the reading text. 

(2) connect learners’ with one another. 

(3) enable learners to know about the story which they would read ahead. 

(4) All of these 


Q 138. Pedagogical Grammar is 

(1) grammar of pedagogy 

(2) grammar for teachers 

(3) grammar in context to connect grammar points with real life context 

(4) grammar with formal rules to be applied while writing 


Q 139. What are these words known as ? – the, of, and, a, to, that, it, with, but, they, she, he 

(1) Sight words 

(2) Form words 

(3) Use words 

(4) Unimportant words 


Q 140. A teacher gives a puzzle to her class VIII students and asks them to solve it by speaking out how they solve it. What is this strategy known as ? 

(1) Speaking aloud 

(2) Think aloud protocol 

(3) Listening 

(4) Picture reading 


Q 141. Sanskrit in India today is a 

(1) Modern Indian language 

(2) Modern Indian language and a classical language 

(3) Religious language 

(4) Hindu language 


Q 142. A teacher of Class-VII asked her students to read a short story and come to the class. She asks them to discuss the major points of the story in groups and present them to the whole class. What is this reading known as ? 

(1) Intensive reading 

(2) Reading with a purpose 

(3) Reading for thinking 

(4) Extensive reading 


Q 143. English does not find its place as a _________. 

(1) first language in the school curriculum 

(2) second language in the school curriculum 

(3) third language in the school curriculum 

(4) medium of instruction 


Q 144. Bottom-up processing in listening is to 

(1) decode messages moving from sounds to words, phrases, clauses and other grammatical elements to sentences.

(2) decode the overall messages of the discourse and move down the micro level units.

(3) encode all the sounds from speaker to listener. 

(4) use multiple ways to decode the messages. 


Q 145. What is the following strategy known as in reading ? 

The text is read more slowly and in detail to get the gist or overall sense of the text. 

(1) Scanning 

(2) Summarising 

(3) Skimming 

(4) Scaffolding 


Q 146. A teacher asks her learners of class-VII to refer to the textbook of History and find a theme which can be connected with English language text for writing an essay. 

What is this practice known as ?

(1) Language and Social Science learning 

(2) Language across the curriculum 

(3) Language in learning 

(4) Language and history integrated learning 


Q 147. Multilingualism as a resource means 

(1) learning many languages in school. 

(2) using the languages of learners as a strategy in school. 

(3) teaching many languages.

(4) promoting of languages through content learning. 


Q 148. Match the types of writing with their corresponding category : 

a. Personal writing i. Letter of complaint 
b. Study writing ii. Diary writing 
c. Creative writingiii. Synopsis writing
d. Public writingiv. Travelogue


Q 149. A teacher divides her class into groups of five and allocates different themes to the groups. The groups have to collect information on the themes and write reports to be presented to the class. What is this activity known as ? 

(1) Assignment 

(2) Project work 

(3) Writing work 

(4) Research 


Q 150. Process approach to writing involves 

(1) Brainstorming, outlining, drafting revising, proof-reading and drafting the final writing. 

(2) Brainstorming, writing the first draft and final writing. 

(3) Outlining, revising and writing the final draft. 

(4) Writing the first draft, revising and developing the final draft. 

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