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IBPS Clerk 2015 Prelims Previous Year Paper
June 18, 2019
IBPS Clerk 2016 Prelims Previous Year Paper
June 18, 2019

IBPS Clerk 2016 Mains

Section

Logical Reasoning

Questions

40 Questions (1 – 40)

Marks

40

English

40 Questions (41 – 80)

40

Quantitative Aptitude

30 Questions (81 – 110)

30

Data Interpretation

10 Questions (111 – 120)

10

General Knowledge

40 Questions (121 – 160)

40

Computer Aptitude

40 Questions (161 – 200)

40

Q. 1 How many such vowels are there in the given arrangement which are immediately preceded as well as immediately followed by a consonant?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

E. More than four

 

Q. 2 If all the vowels are deleted from the given arrangement, which of the following will be thirteenth from the right end?

A. K

B. G

C. M

D. D

E. None of these

 

Q. 3 How many letters are there between the letter that is twentieth from the left end and the letter that is sixteenth from the right end, in the English alphabetical series?

A. Five

B. Four

C. Six

D. Three

E. None of these

 

Q. 4 Which of the following is fifth to the right of the seventeenth from the left end of the given arrangement?

A. L

B. U

C. H

D. D

E. None of these

 

Q. 5 If all the vowels are changed to the next letter of the English alphabetical series, how many Bs will be there in the above arrangement? (Including the Bs already given in the arrangement)

A. Three

B. Two

C. Four

D. Six

E. Five

 

Q. 6 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

A. 49

B. 36

C. 16

D. 27

E. 25

 

Q. 7 The positions of the first and fourth letters of the word ABSENT are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and fifth letters and third and sixth letters are interchanged. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many letters are there between the letter which is third from the right and the letter which is first from the left, in the English alphabetical order?

A. Two

B. Four

C. Five

D. Three

E. None of these

 

Q. 8 Which of the following will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?

BZ WU RP ? HF CA

A. LJ

B. MK

C. NL

D. KI

E. KJ

 

Q. 9 ‘Bricks’ are related to ‘Walls’ in the same way as ‘Trees’ are related to

A. Roots

B. Branches

C. Forests

D. Plants

E. Green

 

Q. 10 In a class of 40 children, Saurabh’s rank is eighth from the top. Mamta is five ranks below Saurabh. What is Mamta’s rank from the bottom?

A. 27th

B. 29th

C. 28th

D. 26th

E. Cannot be determined

 

Questions: 11 – 15

Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

J, K, L, M, N and O are sitting in a straight line facing North, not necessarily in the same order.

J is sitting fourth to the left of O and O is sitting at the extreme end of the line. M is sitting third to the right of N. K is not an immediate neighbour of J.

 

Q. 11 If all the persons are made to sit in an alphabetical order from left to right, the positions of how many will remain unchanged as compared to their original seating position?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. More than three

E. None of these

 

Q. 12 What is the position of N with respect to J?

A. Second to the left

B. Third to the right

C. Second to the right

D. Immediate right

E. Immediate left

 

Q. 13 How many people are sitting between L and O?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. More than three

E. None of these

 

Q. 14 Which of the pairs represent the people sitting at the extreme ends of the line?

A. JL

B. KJ

C. ML

D. MJ

E. None of these

 

Q. 15 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the given arrangement and so form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?

A. LJ

B. OM

C. KN

D. OK

E. NJ

 

Q. 16 Starting from point X, Joy walked 15 m towards the West. He turned left and walked 20 m. He took another left and walked 15 m. After which he took a right turn and walked for another 12 m. How far is Joy from point X, if he faces North?

A. 27 m

B. 35 m

C. 32 m

D. 42 m

E. None of these

 

Q. 17 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word DECAYS, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. None

E. More than three

 

Q. 18 In the question given below, two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statements:

All animals are birds.

All birds are crows.

Conclusions:

I. All animals are crows.

II. All crows are birds.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

E. Both conclusions I and II follow

 

Q. 19 In the question given below, two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some tricks are magic.

All magic are true.

Conclusions:

I. There is a possibility that are tricks are true.

II. There is a possibility that all magic are tricks.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

E. Both conclusions I and II follow

 

Q. 20 In the question given below, two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statements:

All e-mails are messages.

Some messages are letters.

Conclusions:

I. At least some letters are e-mails.

II. Some messages are not e-mails.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

E. Both conclusions I and II follow

 

Q. 21 In the question given below, two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some threads are cottons.

Some cottons are nylons.

Conclusions:

I. All nylons are threads.

II. At least some nylons are threads.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

E. Both conclusions I and II follow

 

Q. 22 In the question given below, two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some clocks are watches.

No clock is a wall.

Conclusions:

I. All walls are watches.

II. There is a possibility that all watches are clocks.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

E. Both conclusions I and II follow

 

Questions: 23 – 27

These questions are based on the following three-digit numbers:

437 254 829 147 563

 

Q. 23 If all the digits of each of the numbers are arranged in an ascending order (within the number) which number will be the second highest?

A. 254

B. 437

C. 563

D. 147

E. 829

 

Q. 24 If all the three digits of each of the numbers are added, the total of which of the following will be the second lowest?

A. 437

B. 829

C. 147

D. 254

E. 563

 

Q. 25 If 1 is subtracted from the third digit of each of the numbers, how many numbers will be completely divisible by 3?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. More than three

E. None

 

Q. 26 Which of the following is the product of the third digit of the lowest number and the second digit of the second highest number?

A. 42

B. 21

C. 35

D. 24

E. 6

 

Q. 27 If 1 is added to the second digit of each of the numbers, how many numbers will have more than one even digit (same or different even digit)?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. More than three

E. None

 

Questions: 28 – 32

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. G is sitting third to the right of F. H is not an immediate neighbour of F and G. A is sitting second to the right of H. B is sitting third to the right of C and C is not an immediate neighbour of G. D is not an immediate neighbour of H or C.

 

Q. 28 Who is sitting exactly between H and A?

A. B

B. G

C. C

D. E

E. None of these

 

Q. 29 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the given arrangement and so form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?

A. FD

B. HG

C. FC

D. BG

E. EA

 

Q. 30 What will come in place of the question mark (?) based upon the given seating

Arrangement?

AF DG CA ?

A. HC

B. DG

C. GE

D. BD

E. EH

 

Q. 31 How many persons are sitting between B and E starting from B in an anti-clockwise direction?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

E. None

 

Q. 32 What is the position of E with respect to A?

A. Third to the left

B. Third to the right

C. Second to the left

D. Second to the right

E. Immediate left

 

Q. 33 If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the fourth, sixth, ninth and eleventh letters of the word CONTAMINATE, then the second letter from the left is your answer. If o such word can be formed then your answer is X and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is Y.

A. X

B. T

C. M

D. A

E. Y

 

Q. 34 In a certain code language, BRIDGE is written as DUKGIH and NUMBER is written as PXOEGU. How will CUSTOM be written in the same code language?

A. EWUVQO

B. EXUWQP

C. FXVWRP

D. EZUYQR

E. None of these

 

Q. 35 In the question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions.

Statements:

F>=K>G>+H=IConclusions

I. F>=H

II. G>J

A. Only conclusion I is true

B. Only conclusion II is true

C. Either conclusion I or II is true

D. Neither conclusion I nor II is true

E. Both conclusions I and II are true

 

Q. 36 In the question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions.

Statements:

F>=K>G>+H=IConclusions

I. G>=J

II. I<=K

A. Only conclusion I is true

B. Only conclusion II is true

C. Either conclusion I or II is true

D. Neither conclusion I nor II is true

E. Both conclusions I and II are true

 

Q. 37 In the question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions.

Statements:

J>K>=M>=R=T

Conclusions

I. T>K

II. M

A. Only conclusion I is true

B. Only conclusion II is true

C. Either conclusion I or II is true

D. Neither conclusion I nor II is true

E. Both conclusions I and II are true

 

Questions: 38 – 40

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

‘want to start business’ is written as ‘tu ja na re’.

‘ business difficult to begin’ is written as ‘la re ke tu’.

‘business difficult and demanding’ is written as ‘ba tu da la’

‘demanding business risky start’ is written as ‘tu ja da sa’

 

Q. 38 What is the code for ‘begin’?

A. re

B. ke

C. la

D. tu

E. Cannot be determined

 

Q. 39 Which of the following represents ‘difficult start’?

A. na la

B. la tu

C. ke ja

D. ja la

E. da ja

 

Q. 40 What is the code for ‘want’?

A. na

B. tu

C. ja

D. re

E. Either ‘na’ or ‘ja’

 

Questions: 41 – 50

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it in the context of the passage.

If the Central Advisory Board on Education was hasty in congratulating itself on its clarion call to the government to raise the expenditure on education to 6% of the national income, it ought to remember that this demand was first raised by the Kothari Commission an entire quarter of a century ago. At present, only a little more than 3% of GNP is spent on this vital need and it is unrealistic to expect that it can be doubled overnight. For that matter the decline in allocations for education is mirrored in the Five Year Plans. While the First devoted on all-time high of 7.86%, it had progressively declined to 2.59% in the Sixth Plan and rose marginally to 3.55% in the next. As the advisory board recognises a paucity of funds will render it impossible to meet long overdue targets like the universalisation of primary education and the eradication of illiteracy. At the same time, when the allocation in the Eighth Plan is decided later this year, there will be several conflicting claims on scarce resources and in all likelihood education, like health and family welfare, will get short shrift. And yet, there is ‘no room for despair’. Founds are an essential requisite, but by no means the only one. Even within existing constraints, there is a lot that both the Centre and State governments can do. For example, each State can reduce the amount it spends out of its total education budget on staff, which has reached as much as 92% in some instances. Besides, there is a strong case for revising fees in some professional education institutions. Both medical colleges and IITs could charge a great deal more than they now do and most entrants would be happy to bear the increased burden, considering what they would otherwise spend on similar education abroad or in colleges charging capitation fees. IITs now charge a measly Rs. 500 a year from students, presumably in the belief that these institutions are engaged in an altogether nobler mission that in the pursuit of greater financial independence, although surveys show almost all such students hail from reasonably well-off families. Another reform, which many institutions could consider an many already do, is to hold morning and evening classes, which amounts to shifts. Given the pressure on all resources, physical as well as financial, there is no reason why all such innovations should not be experimented with – provided, of course, poor students do not suffer as a consequence and standards as a whole are maintained.

 

Q. 41 Which of the following is the recommendation of the Central Advisory Board regarding allocations on education?

A. 6% increase from that of the Seventh Plan

B. 3% of GNP

C. Reduction of amount spent on staff

D. Increase in fee in professional institutions

E. None of the above

 

Q. 42 Which of the following conveys the meaning of ‘no room for despair’?

A. No scope for improvement

B. Not much need to worry

C. No place for hope

D. No need to panic

E. No chance for increase

 

Q. 43 Which of the following is false in the context of the passage?

A. Some innovations in educations should be tried out.

B. A high percentage out of the total budget of education is spent on staff.

C. IITs, should charge capitation fees.

D. Professional education in foreign countries is expensive.

E. None of the above

 

Q. 44 According to the passage, which sector, apart from education, gets small budgetary allocation?

A. Adult literacy

B. Child welfare

C. Health and family welfare

D. Not mentioned in the passage

E. None of the above

 

Q. 45 The need for 6% of the national income to be spent on education was earlier raised around which of the following years?

A. 1950

B. 1955

C. 1960

D. 1965

E. 1970

 

Q. 46 Which of the following is one of the long overdue target of education?

A. Free primary education

B. Higher education

C. 100% literacy

D. Spread of education in rural areas

E. Higher allocation for education

 

Q. 47 Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

A. The demand for 6% allocation for education is unrealistic.

B. Funds are not essential for education.

C. Medical colleges charge less fee than IITs.

D. Most of the students in IITs are from poor families

E. There are few two shifts institutions in our country.

 

Q. 48 In which of the Five Year Plans was the allocation for education the highest?

A. First

B. Second

C. Sixth

D. Seventh

E. None of these

 

Q. 49 According to the passage, in the Eighth Plan, which of the following is the likelihood regarding allocation on education?

A. It would be drastically reduced.

B. It would be substantially increased.

C. 6% of the national income will be allocated.

D. There may not be any increase.

E. The expenditure on staff would be reduced.

 

Q. 50 Within the budgetary constraint, which of the following has been recommended to be done?

A. Spend less on professional education

B. Discontinue some programmes

C. Admit less number of students

D. Charge capitation fee

E. Increase fee for professional education

 

Questions: 51 – 55

Rearrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D and E in the proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.

A. Many consider it wrong to blight youngsters by recruiting them into armed forces at a young age.

B. It is very difficult to have an agreement on an issue when emotions run high.

C. The debate has come up whether is right or wrong.

D. In many countries military service is compulsory for all.

E. Some of these detractors of compulsory draft are even very angry.

 

Q. 51 Which sentence should come FOURTH in the paragraph?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Q. 52 Which sentence should come FIRST in the paragraph?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Q. 53 Which sentence should come LAST in the paragraph?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Q. 54 Which sentence should come THIRD in the paragraph?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Q. 55 Which sentence should come SECOND in the paragraph?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Q. 56 Given below are sentences in which two spaces have been left blank. You are to choose from among the given choices, the pair of words which would fit the two blanks in the given order.

He was initially __________ at the suggestion but was soon ___________ it himself.

A. frowning; rejecting

B. thrilled; propogating

C. shocked; advocating

D. impressed; negating

E. suspicious; trusting

 

Q. 57 Given below are sentences in which two spaces have been left blank. You are to choose from among the given choices, the pair of words which would fit the two blanks in the given order.

The Minister felt that the _______ made by the Committee was ________ even though similar schemes had worked earlier.

A. election; acceptable

B. choice; profitable

C. decision; gainful

D. recommendation; infeasible

E. acceptance; approved

 

Q. 58 Given below are sentences in which two spaces have been left blank. You are to choose from among the given choices, the pair of words which would fit the two blanks in the given order.

Nabeesa was not _______ by the criticism and paid no _______ even when her best friend talked against her.

A. threatened; warning

B. troubled; mind

C. deterred; heed

D. bothered; attention

E. shaken; indication

 

Q. 59 Given below are sentences in which two spaces have been left blank. You are to choose from among the given choices, the pair of words which would fit the two blanks in the given order.

The activities of the association have ________ from the _________ objectives set for it in the initial years.

A. emerged; total

B. deviated; original

C. grown; simple

D. details; grand

E. increased; perverse

 

Q. 60 Given below are sentences in which two spaces have been left blank. You are to choose from among the given choices, the pair of words which would fit the two blanks in the given order.

The _______ imposed for non-payment was too ________ for it to bring in improvement in collection.

A. penalty; low

B. fine; severe

C. punishment; harsh

D. toll; simple

E. damage; cruel

 

Q. 61 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

No hill station (a)/is as beautiful (b)/as Darjeeling (c)/with its scenic beauty. (d)

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

E. (e)

 

Q. 62 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

The chief idea of (a)/a very common type of traveller (b)/is to see as many objects (c)/of interest as he possibly could. (d)

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

E. (e)

 

Q. 63 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

These Acts were (a)/pushed through the Parliament (b)/in spite of opposition (c)/but with little modification. (d)

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

E. (e)

 

Q. 64 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

One of the most (a)/widely spread (b)/bad habit (c)/is the use of tobacco. (d)

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

E. (e)

 

Q. 65 Pick out the word that is most nearly the same in meaning to the given words.

Mirrored

A. Image

B. Imitated

C. Reflected

D. Copied

E. Followed

 

Q. 66 Pick out the word that is most nearly the same in meaning to the given words.

Hail from

A. Greet with

B. Born in

C. Admitted from

D. Come from

E. Are known as

 

Q. 67 Pick out the word that is most nearly the same in meaning to the given words.

Progressively

A. Promoting

B. Liberally

C. Intermittently

D. Continuously

E. Constantly

 

Q. 68 Pick out the word that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the given words.

Unrealistic

A. Reasonable

B. Actual

C. Visionary

D. Intelligent

E. Natural

 

Q. 69 Pick out the word that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the given words.

Vital

A. Dead

B. Unimportant

C. Lead

D. Outer

E. Peripheral

 

Q. 70 Pick out the word that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the given words.

Paucity

A. Want

B. Richness

C. Presence

D. Scarcity

E. Surplus

 

Questions: 71 – 80

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words. Conventional medical wisdom does not advise taking (71) vitains as pills and capsules. On the contrary, there was a strong lobby which (72) the supplementary intake of vitamins. This used to leave the (73) person confused. However, modern research is (74) a surprise. More and more scientists are beginning to (75) that (76) medical views on vitamins have been (77). Evidence shows that (78) extra vitamins play a role in assuring vitality and (79) health than was (80) thought.

 

Q. 71 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. some

B. extra

C. insoluble

D. strong

E. all

 

Q. 72 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. facilitated

B. criticised

C. communicated

D. projected

E. advocated

 

Q. 73 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. medical

B. sick

C. scientific

D. average

E. educated

 

Q. 74 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. trying

B. manufacturing

C. practicing

D. holding

E. inventing

 

Q. 75 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. trust

B. consider

C. refute

D. forget

E. suspect

 

Q. 76 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. indigent

B. all

C. traditional

D. modern

E. allopathic

 

Q. 77 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. practical

B. limited

C. feasible

D. correct

E. confusing

 

Q. 78 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. marketing

B. manufacturing

C. swallowing

D. taking

E. buying

 

Q. 79 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. pleasurable

B. manly

C. optimal

D. stronger

E. useful

 

Q. 80 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. previously

B. occasionally

C. seriously

D. even

E. now

 

Q. 81 What should come at the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

7059 – 2350 + 1936 = ? x 50

A. 123.6

B. 132.3

C. 132.6

D. 123.9

E. 132.9

 

Q. 82 What should come at the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

E. (e)

 

Q. 83 What should come at the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

E. (e)

 

Q. 84 What should come at the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

683.46 – 227.39 – 341.85 = ?

A. 114.22

B. 141.22

C. 144.22

D. 112.22

E. None of these

 

Q. 85 What is 786 times of 964?

A. 759276

B. 7498

C. 75416

D. 75770

E. None of these

 

Q. 86 What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value).

16.003 x 27.998 – 209.010 = ?

A. 150

B. 200

C. 75

D. 240

E. 110

 

Q. 87 What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value).

125.009 + 69.999 + 104.989 = ?

A. 420

B. 300

C. 285

D. 415

E. 325

 

Q. 88 What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value).

840.003/23.999 = ?

A. 47

B. 8

C. 35

D. 18

E. 23

 

Q. 89 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?

2 4 10 ? 82 244

A. 30

B. 48

C. 28

D. 46

E. 34

 

Q. 90 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?

7 8 4 13 -3 22 ?

A. -7

B. -10

C. -12

D. -14

E. -9

 

Q. 91 The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the two digits of the number is 18. The sum of the two digits of the number is 12. What is the product of the digits of two-digit number?

A. 35

B. 27

C. 32

D. Can’t be determined

E. None of these

 

Q. 92 The average height of the basketball team A is 5 ft 11 inches and that of B is 6 ft 2 inches. There are 20 players in team A and 18 players in team B. The overall average height is

A. 72.42 inches

B. 72 inches

C. 70.22 inches

D. 70 inches

E. None of these

 

Q. 93 A water pipe is cut into two pieces. The longer piece is 70% of the length of the pipe. By how much percentage is the longer piece longer than the shorter piece?

A. 140%

B. 400/3%

C. 40%

D. 300/4%

E. None of these

 

Q. 94 In an examination, the marks obtained by Shantanu is 40% less than the marks obtained by Kamal, then marks obtained by Kamal is how much percent more than the marks obtained by Shantanu?

A. 55 2/3 %

B. 44 3/5 %

C. 33 1/3 %

D. 66 2/3 %

E. None of these

 

Q. 95 Neeta got profit of 10% on selling an article in Rs. 220. To get the profit of 30%, she should sell the article in how many rupees?

A. 220

B. 230

C. 260

D. 280

E. None of these

 

Q. 96 While selling, a businessman allows 40% discount on the marked price and there is a loss of 30%. If it is sold at the marked price, profit percent will be

A. 10%

B. 20%

C. 16 2/3%

D. 16 1/3%

E. None of these

 

Q. 97 In a certain time, a sum becomes 4 times at the rate of 5% per annum. At what rate of simple interest, the same sum becomes 8 times in the same duration?

A. 12 2/3%

B. 11 3/5%

C. 11 2/3%

D. 12 3/5%

E. None of these

 

Q. 98 A woman bought eggs at Rs. 30 per dozen. The selling price per hundred so as to gain 12% will be

A. Rs. 280

B. Rs. 250

C. Rs. 300

D. Rs. 360

E. None of these

 

Q. 99 A certain sum at compound interest amounts to Rs. 12960 in 2 years and Rs. 13176 in 3 years. Find the rate percent per annum.

A. 1 1/3%

B. 2 1/3%

C. 1 2/3%

D. 2 2/3%

E. None of these

 

Q. 100 Vandana bought a watch for Rs. 600 and sold it the same day for Rs. 688.50 at a credit of 9 months and this way she gained 2%. Find the rate of interest per annum.

A. 16 2/3%

B. 15 2/3%

C. 11 2/3%

D. 5 2/3%

E. None of these

 

Q. 101 35% of a number is two times 75% of another number. What is the ratio between the first and the second number, respectively?

A. 35:6

B. 31:7

C. 23:7

D. 32:9

E. 30:7

 

Q. 102 Amit and Sudesh have invested in the ratio of 4:7. If both invested a total amount of Rs. 49500, then find the investment of Sudesh.

A. Rs. 31500

B. Rs. 1800

C. Rs. 31000

D. Rs. 18500

E. None of these

 

Q. 103 300 g of salt solution has 40% salt in it. How much salt should be added to make it 50% in the solution?

A. 40 g

B. 60 g

C. 70 g

D. 80 g

E. None of these

 

Q. 104 A tree is 12 m tall and casts an 8 m long shadow. At the same time, a flag pole casts a 100 m long shadow. How long is the flag pole?

A. 150 m

B. 200 m

C. 125 m

D. 115 m

E. None of these

 

Q. 105 If 5 boys take 7 hours to pack 35 toys, how many boys can pack 66 toys in 3 hours?

A. 26

B. 39

C. 45

D. 65

E. None of these

 

Q. 106 Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 18 and 6 hours, respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, how much time will be taken to fill the tank?

A. 4.5 h

B. 7 h

C. 6 h

D. 10 h

E. 9 h

 

Q. 107 A bus covers a certain distance in 16 hours. It covers half the distance at 40 km/h and the rest at 60 km/h. Find the length of the journey.

A. 520 km

B. 448 km

C. 384 km

D. 768 km

E. None of these

 

Q. 108 If two trains start at the same time from points x and y towards each other and after crossing, they take 9 hours and 4 hours in reaching points y and x, respectively. Find the ratio of speeds of the first train to that of the second train.

A. 2:3

B. 3:2

C. 2:5

D. 5:3

E. None of these

 

Q. 109 A car runs at the speed of 50 km/h when not serviced and runs at 60 km/h, when serviced. After servicing, the car covers a certain distance in 6 h. How much time will the car take to cover the same distance when not serviced?

A. 8.2 h

B. 6.5 h

C. 8 h

D. 7.2 h

E. None of these

 

Q. 110 At present, Kavita is twice Sarita’s age. 8 years hence, the respective ratio between Kavita’s and Sarita’s ages will be 22:13. What is Kavita’s present age?

A. 26 yr

B. 18 yr

C. 42 yr

D. 36 yr

E. None of these

 

Questions: 111 – 115

The circle graph given here shows the spendings of a country on various sports during a particular year. Study the graph carefully and answer the questions given below it.

 

Q. 111 What percent of the total spendings is spent on Tennis?

A. 12.5%

B. 22.5%

C. 25%

D. 45%

E. None of these

 

Q. 112 How much percent more is spent on Hockey than that on Golf?

A. 27%

B. 35%

C. 37.5%

D. 75%

E. None of these

 

Q. 113 How much percent less is spent on Football than that on Cricket?

A. 22 2/9%

B. 27%

C. 33 1/3%

D. 75%

E. None of these

 

Q. 114 If the total amount spent on sports during the year was Rs. 2 crore, the amount spent on Cricket and Hockey together was

A. Rs. 800000

B. Rs. 8000000

C. Rs. 12000000

D. Rs. 16000000

E. None of these

 

Q. 115 If the total amount spent on sports during the year be Rs. 18000000, the amount spent on Basketball exceeds that on Tennis by

A. Rs. 250000

B. Rs. 360000

C. Rs. 375000

D. Rs. 410000

E. None of these

 

Questions: 116 – 120

Study the bar-graph and answer the questions.

 

Q. 116 In the year 2006, the people preferring to play Tennis is what percent of the people preferring to play Cricket, Football and Tennis together in that year?

A. 25 1/3%

B. 24 3/7%

C. 21 1/3%

D. 22 2/9%

E. 23 1/3%

 

Q. 117 From 2001 to 2006, what was the total number of people who preferred to play Football (in millions)?

A. 1525

B. 1620

C. 1730

D. 1800

E. 1925

 

Q. 118 The number of people preferring to play Tennis in 2006, is how many millions fewer than the number of people preferring to play Tennis in 2005?

A. 115

B. 120

C. 100

D. 97

E. 95

 

Q. 119 What is the respective ratio of the number of people preferring to play Cricket to the number of people, preferring to play Tennis in the year 2003?

A. 14:15

B. 15:13

C. 15:17

D. 13:15

E. 17:14

 

Q. 120 How many people (in millions) have preferred to play Cricket in all the years together?

A. 2050

B. 2000

C. 1850

D. 1750

E. 1600

 

Q. 121 The first Indian State to have Defence Industrial Park, is

A. Karnataka

B. Kerala

C. Maharashtra

D. Andhra Pradesh

E. Bihar

 

Q. 122 Professor Maurice Obstfeld will become Economic Counsellor and Director of the ______ research department in September.

A. IMF

B. City Bank

C. ADB

D. PNB

E. ICICI Bank

 

Q. 123 A 20-year old Indian-American ________ won the junior title at the latest United States Powerlifting Association National Championships in Las Vegas.

A. Jitesh Chhabra

B. Amitoj Chhabra

C. Amitoj Singh

D. Raj Singh

E. Jitesh Singh

 

Q. 124 Ambati Rayudu is related to

A. cricket

B. tennis

C. shooting

D. snooker

E. None of these

 

Q. 125 To safeguard small investors from high-risk products, the market regulator SEBI made a steep hike in the minimum investment size for any equity derivative product to Rs. 5 lakh from ______ currently.

A. Rs. 2 lakh

B. Rs. 1 lakh

C. Rs 3 lakh

D. Rs. 4 lakh

E. Rs. 4.5 lakh

 

Q. 126 _______ won the South Asian Basketball (SABA) Championship title 2015.

A. Germany

B. The USA

C. India

D. France

E. South Korea

 

Q. 127 Kotak Mahindra Bank has got a go-ahead from the Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) for its proposal to increase Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the bank to

A. 25%

B. 35%

C. 55%

D. 75%

E. 95%

 

Q. 128 Indian pair of Jwala Gutta and Ashwini Ponappa won the women’s doubles of

A. Canada Open Badminton Tournament 2015

B. Norway Chess Tournament 2015

C. World Railways Championship 2015

D. Tennis Championships 2015

E. Aegon Tennis Championships

 

Q. 129 President Pranab Mukherjee has nominated two Anglo-Indian Community members to the Lower House as per the provisions of Article-331 of Indian Constitution namely

I. Professor Richard Hay

II. Professor Richard Rostra

III. George Baker

IV. G. Richard

Which of the above are correct?

A. I and III

B. I and II

C. II and III

D. III and IV

E. I and IV

 

Q. 130 eMudhra offers variety of other services including

I. tax filing services

II. digital signing solutions

III. PAN Card online applications

IV. digital certificate authentication system

V. trusted cheap stamping

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. I, II, III and IV

B. II, III, IV and V

C. I, III, IV and V

D. I, IV and V

E. All of these

 

Q. 131 Choose the correct statement(s):

A. YK Sabharwal was former Chief Justice of India

B. Justice Sabharwal was Chief Justice of India from November 1, 2005 to January 13, 2007

C. Justice Sabharwal was honoured with Padma Bhushan in 2006

D. Both (a) and (b)

E. All of the above

 

Q. 132 Arrange the following world’s biggest employers in chronological order (According to World Hunger List):

I. Walmart

II. McDonald’s

III. Indian Railways

IV. Indian Army

A. I, II, IV and III

B. III, II, IV and I

C. I, II, III and IV

D. II, III, I and IV

E. II, I, IV and III

 

Q. 133 First-time MLA ______, was sworn-in as a Cabinet Minister in the Delhi government on June, 2015 and given charge of the Law Department.

A. Jitendra Singh Tomar

B. Kapil Mishra

C. Arvind Kejriwal

D. Sanjay Singh

E. Intzar Pervez

 

Q. 134 China has permitted events to celebrate the first UN Yoga Day on

A. June 21

B. June 18

C. June 15

D. June 9

E. June 3

 

Q. 135 Satish Dhawan Space Centre or Sriharikota Range (SHAR) is a rocket launch centre operated by

A. IRSO

B. VSSC

C. SHAR

D. ISRO

E. IORS

 

Q. 136 Asian Development Bank (ADB) has appointed ______ and Bambang Susantono as Vice- President in two different roles.

A. Vijai Sharma

B. KV Chowdary

C. Diwakar Gupta

D. Sanjay Singh

E. Vijay Singh

 

Q. 137 Serena Williams (USA), won French Open 2015 women’s singles title. This was her _______ French Open title and overall 20th Grand Slam title.

A. first

B. second

C. third

D. fourth

E. fifth

 

Q. 138 Consider the following statements:

I. Axis Bank will issue co-branded cards to the users of Kochi Metro for paying the fares as well as using them for all kinds of merchandise including e-commerce.

II. An Agreement in this regard was signed in June, 2015 between KMRL and Axis Bank.

III. CMD of KMRL, Elias George and MD and CEO of Axis Bank Shikha Sharma signed the agreement.

Choose the correct statement(s).

A. I and II

B. II and III

C. All of these

D. I and III

E. Only III

 

Q. 139 According to Forbes magazine’s highest-paid athletes in the world, arrange the following in chronological order :

I. Floyd Mayweather

II. Mahendra Singh Dhoni

III. Roger Federer

A. II, III, I

B. I, III, II

C. I, II, III

D. II, I, III

E. III, II, I

 

Q. 140 Arrange the following country in chronological order (According to the World Hunger List) :

I. Pakistan

II. India

III. China

IV. Nigeria

A. I, II, IV, III

B. III, II, IV, I

C. I, III, IV, II

D. II, III, I, IV

E. II, I, IV, III

 

Q. 141 National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) in May, 2015 signed a pact with which State government for setting-up a 4000 MW power plant in the State?

A. Bihar

B. Jharkhand

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Uttarakhand

E. Gujarat

 

Q. 142 GMR Infrastructure Limited has signed a Memorandum of Understandings (MoU) with Guizhou International Investment Corporation (GIIC) for developing Kakinada Special Economic Zone (SEZ) in

A. Rajasthan

B. Karnataka

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Madhya Pradesh

E. Andhra Pradesh

 

Q. 143 FDI in Railway Infrastructure sector has been opened to _____ FDI under automatic route.

A. 49%

B. 50%

C. 60%

D. 75%

E. 100%

 

Q. 144 A record number of ______ Indian-origin candidates including Keith Vaz, Priti Patel and Infosysy co-founder Narayana Murthy;s son-in-law were elected on May 8, 2015, to the British Parliament.

A. seven

B. eight

C. nine

D. ten

E. fifteen

 

Q. 145 MoneyGram is the second largest provider of money _____ in the world.

A. saving account

B. transfers

C. calculation software

D. payment way

E. None of these

 

Q. 146 Future Group is an Indian private conglomerate, headquartered in

A. Mumbai

B. Delhi

C. Hyderabad

D. Bangalore

E. Gwalior

 

Q. 147 The Indian government raised the limit of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the pension sector to _____ in line with the FDI cap raised recently in the insurance sector.

A. 25%

B. 35%

C. 49%

D. 59%

E. 64%

 

Q. 148 Choose the correct statements regarding the Soil Health Card Scheme (SHC).

A. SHC has in it all basic and crop wise recommendations of fertilizers and nutrients.

B. Punjab has become the first ever State in the country to issue Soil Health Cards.

C. Checking of soil health on quarterly basis.

D. Both (a) and (b)

E. All of the above

 

Q. 149 Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojna (PMJJBY) and Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojna (PMSBY) will cover

A. PMJJBY – all the savings account holders of the age group 18-50 for death due to any cause.

B. PMSBY will cover all the savings account holders of the age group 18 to 70 for accidental disability or death

C. The premium for PMJJBY is Rs. 330 per year.

D. The premium for PBSBY is Rs. 12

E. All of the above

 

Q. 150 The World Snooker Championship is a leading professional snooker tournament in terms of

I. Prize money

II. Ranking points

III. Prestige

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. Only I

B. Only III

C. I and II

D. All of these

E. None of these

 

Q. 151 Cincinnati Masters, started on September 18, 1899, is the oldest ______ tournament in the United States (US) played in its original city.

A. football

B. tennis

C. chess

D. snooker

E. golf

 

Q. 152 India’s Aditi Chauhan has become the country’s _______ woman to play English league football.

A. first

B. second

C. third

D. fourth

E. fifth

 

Q. 153 Country’s largest lender State Bank of India launched a mobile wallet app in August, 2015, ________, in collaboration with Accenture and Mastercard.

A. SBI Amast

B. SBI Buddy

C. SBI Card M

D. SBI Mcard

E. SBI Dubby

 

Q. 154 Indian sociobiologist Raghavendra Gadagkar was awarded ______ highest civilian honour, the Cross of Order of the Merit.

A. Singapore’s

B. Bhutan’s

C. China’s

D. Germany’s

E. Britain’s

 

Q. 155 SBI Life Insurance has launched a new product, ______ on August 7, 2015, a plan which offers multiple benefits of savings and insurance cover for husband and wife under a single policy.

A. Smart Family

B. Smart Humsafar

C. Smart Policy

D. Smart Safar

E. Smart Insurance

 

Q. 156 Pakistan is the ______ in the world after Turkey and Serbia to get the status of CERN’s associate membership.

A. First

B. Second

C. Third

D. Fourth

E. Fifth

 

Q. 157 Choose the correct statement(s) regarding portal feature of Vidya Lakshmi :

A. Facility to apply to multiple Banks for Educational Loans.

B. Facility for Banks to download Students’ Loan Applications.

C. Facility for Banks to upload loan processing status.

D. Facility for Students to e-mail grievances/queries relating to Educational.

E. All of the above

 

Q. 158 Choose the correct statement(s) regarding six-nation SAFF Under-16 Championship :

A. Bangladesh Under-16 Football team win 3rd edition title of this trophy by India by 4-2 goals in tie breaker at the Sylhet Stadium.

B. The first edition of the tournament took place in Nepal in August, 2011.

C. Besides India and Bangladesh, the tournament was participated by Nepal, Sri Lanka, Afghanistan and the Maldives.

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

 

Q. 159 Subsidy is a benefit given by the government to groups or individuals usually in the form of

A. a cash payment

B. tax reduction

C. Discount rate

D. Both (a) and (b)

E. Both (b) and (c)

 

Q. 160 The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) announced on August 7, 2015 the formation of an ad-hoc committee for cricket administration (CA) in the State(s) of

A. Bihar

B. Uttarakhand

C. Rajasthan

D. Both (a) and (b)

E. Both (b) and (c)

 

Q. 161 A telephone number, a birth date, and a customer name are all examples of

A. a record

B. data

C. a file

D. a database

E. a folder

 

Q. 162 Which key is used in combination with another key to perform a specific task?

A. Function

B. Control

C. Arrow

D. Space bar

E. Shift

 

Q. 163 In addition to keying data directly into a data directly into a database, data entry can be done from a(n)

A. input form

B. table

C. field

D. data dictionary

E. tuple

 

Q. 164 If a new device is attached to a computer, such as a printer or scanner, its _______ must be installed before the device can be used.

A. buffer

B. driver

C. pager

D. server

E. maker

 

Q. 165 The software that allows users to surf the internet is called a/an

A. Search engine

B. Internet Service Provider (ISP)

C. Multimedia application

D. Browser

E. Cookie

 

Q. 166 ______ provides a common address space and routes the packets of data across the entire internet.

A. IP

B. TCP

C. UDP

D. ALU

E. FTP

 

Q. 167 What menu is selected to change the font and style?

A. Tools

B. File

C. Format

D. Edit

E. Insert

 

Q. 168 Primary memory is used by the

A. user

B. input device

C. CPU

D. output device

E. programmer

 

Q. 169 A ________ is a computer connected to two networks.

A. link

B. server

C. gateway

D. bridge way

E. client

 

Q. 170 Which of the following is not an operating system?

A. DOS

B. Oracle

C. Linux

D. Windows

E. Unix

 

Q. 171 A small amount of memory included in the processor for high speed access ID called

A. Register

B. Cache

C. RAM

D. ROM

E. Virtual

 

Q. 172 The ______ enables you to simultaneously keep multiple webpages open in one browser window.

A. Tab bar

B. pop-up helper

C. Tab row

D. Address bar

E. Tab column

 

Q. 173 The ________ button on the quick access toolbar allows you to cancel your recent commands or action.

A. Search

B. Cut

C. Document

D. Undo

E. Redo

 

Q. 174 What type of virus use computer hosts to reproduce it?

A. Time bomb

B. Worm

C. Melissa virus

D. Macro virus

E. Trojan

 

Q. 175 _____ is a signalling method that handles a relatively wide range of frequencies.

A. Broadband

B. DLF

C. Dial-up

D. Both (a) and (c)

E. Wireless

 

Q. 176 A disk content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user

A. Read only

B. Memory only

C. Run only

D. Writes only

E. Search only

 

Q. 177 The OCR is used for the preparation of

A. electricity bills

B. insurance premium

C. telephone bills

D. gas bills

E. All of these

 

Q. 178 Which of the following unit is not used to count the speed of a printer?

A. CPM

B. DPI

C. PPM

D. BIT

E. LPM

 

Q. 179 The binary equivalent of decimal number 98 is

A. 1110001

B. 1110100

C. 1100010

D. 1111001

E. 0110110

 

Q. 180 This part of operating system manages the essential peripherals, such as the keyboard, screen, disk drives, and parallel and serial ports.

A. basic input/output system

B. secondary input/output system

C. peripheral input/output system

D. marginal input/output system

E. primary input/output system

 

Q. 181 Which of the following is not a type of key?

A. Alphabetic keys

B. Numeric keys

C. Function keys

D. Toggle keys

E. None of these

 

Q. 182 If a previously saved file is edited

A. it cannot be saved again

B. the changes will automatically be saved in the file

C. the file will only have to be saved again if it is more than one page in length

D. its name must be changed

E. the file must be saved again to store the changes

 

Q. 183 Which of the following statements is false concerning file names?

A. Files may share the same name or the same extension but not both.

B. Every file in the same folder must have a unique name.

C. File extension is another name for file type

D. The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name.

E. None of the above

 

Q. 184 What is gutter margin?

A. Margin that is added to the left margin when printing.

B. Margin that is added to right margin when printing.

C. Margin that is added to the binding side of page when printing.

D. Margin that is added to the outside of the page when printing

E. None of the above

 

Q. 185 By default, your document will print in _______ mode.

A. landscape

B. portrait

C. page set-up

D. print view

E. page preview

 

Q. 186 _____ is a procedure that requires users to enter an identification code and a matching password.

A. Paging

B. Logging on

C. Time sharing

D. Multitasking

E. Logging off

 

Q. 187 Computer programs are written in a high-level programming language; however, the human-readable version of a program is called

A. Cache

B. Instruction set

C. Source code

D. Word size

E. Object code

 

Q. 188 Which of the following refers to the memory in your computer?

A. RAM

B. DSL

C. USB

D. LAN

E. CPU

 

Q. 189 A series of instructions that tells a computer what to do and how to do it is called a

A. Program

B. Command

C. User response

D. Processor

E. Server response

 

Q. 190 Name of the executable file of MS Word is

A. MSWord

B. MSWord.exe

C. WinWord

D. WinWord.exe

E. Word.exe

 

Q. 191 _____ are viruses that are triggered by the passage of time or on a certain date.

A. Boot-sector viruses

B. Macro viruses

C. Time bombs

D. Worms

E. Trojan Horse

 

Q. 192 What is a backup?

A. Restoring the information backup

B. An exact copy of a system’s information

C. The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

 

Q. 193 In a rung topology, the computer in possession of the _____ can transmit data.

A. packet

B. data

C. access method

D. token

E. hob

 

Q. 194 _______ is the act of copying or downloading a program from a network and making multiple copies of it.

A. Network piracy

B. Plagiarism

C. Software piracy

D. Site-license piracy

E. Hardware piracy

 

Q. 195 A device operating at the physical layer is called a

A. Bridge

B. Router

C. Repeater

D. Gateway

E. Network

 

Q. 196 Which of the following terms is just the connection of networks that can be joined together?

A. Virtual Private Network

B. Internet

C. Intranet

D. Extranet

E. Public network

 

Q. 197 An affordable technology that uses existing telephone lines to provide high-speed connections is called

A. ISDN

B. Microwave

C. Cable modem

D. DSL

E. ALU

 

Q. 198 The capacity of a communication channel is measured in

A. bandwidth

B. bit capacity

C. baud rate

D. data flow

E. store data

 

Q. 199 A relatively new technology that allows wireless connectivity

A. Bluetooth

B. Black tooth

C. Blue band

D. Broadband

E. Wi-FI

 

Q. 200 For large computer network which topology is used?

A. Star

B. Ring

C. Bus

D. Mesh

E. Tree

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer E D B A E D D C C C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer A C B D E C B A E D
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer D B B C A A B C E C
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B A E B D D B B D A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer E B C C D C A A D E
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer E D B A A C D C B A
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer A D D C C D D A E E
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer B E D D B C E D D A
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer E C D A D D B C C D
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer A A B D C C C A C A
Question 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer E A B A E A D A D D
Question 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer A D C B A E D C B A
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer B A B A A C C A A A
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer D C B A D C C C B D
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer B E E D B A C E E D
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer B A B D B C E D D D
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer A B A B D A C C D B
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer B C D B A A E D C A
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer E E D C B B C A A D
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer C D D C C B D A A D

 

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