/ +91 9829211106 info@vidhyarthidarpan.com
Welcome to Vidhyarthi Darpan

NDA/NA(II) Exam 2016 General Ability Test Previous Year Paper

NDA/NA(I) Exam 2016 General Ability Test Previous Year Paper
July 3, 2019
NDA/NA(II) Exam 2018 General Ability Test Previous Year Paper
July 3, 2019

NDA/NA(II) Exam 2016 General Ability Test 

Questions: 1 – 10

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any part of the sentence

Q. 1 My friend was(a)/ habitual to drive a car(b)/ at very high speed(c). No error(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 2 Being a day of national mourning(a)/ the offices were closed (b)/and the national flag flew half mast(c)/. No error(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 3 If you are wanting to watch(a)/ the birds nesting(b)/ you must not let them see you(c). No error(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 4 He does not listen to(a)/ what I say,(b)/ although I am advising him for a long time(c) No error(d).

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 5 It is most essential for us(a)/ to reach the station before noon(b)/ lest we should miss the train(c). No error(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 6 I asked him(a)/ what had brought(b)/ him there.(c)/ No error(d).

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 7 The guards(a)/ dare not(b)/ to harm him(c)/. No error(d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 8 The Principal looks very worried(a)/because students are on strike for the Iast fifteen days as a protest against(b)/his disciplinary action against some miscreants.(c) No error. (d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 9 The king was embarrassed(a)/ to find evidences(b)/ against his own queen.(c)/No error(d) 

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 10 As I prefer coffee than tea(a)/ my friends always take the trouble (b)/to get me a cup of coffee whenever I visit them(c) No error. (d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Questions: 11 – 15

Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to that word which is in brackets

Q. 11 {Hospitality} is a virtue for which the natives of the East in general are highly admired. 

A. duty of a doctor

B. generosity shown to guests

C. cleanliness in hospitals

D. kindness

 

Q. 12 House rent in cities like Murnbai or Delhi has risen to {astronomical} figures beyond the reach of even high-salaried people.

A. erorbitant

B. commercial

C. planetary

D. illogical

 

Q. 13 {Appropriate} technology holds the key to a nation’s development

A. modern

B. suitable

C. effective

D. growing

 

Q. 14 He was {enamoured} of his own golden voice.

A. very fond of

B. concerned with

C. obsessed with

D. imbued with

 

Q. 15 Some journalists are guilty of indulging in {yellow journalism}.

A. misrepresentation

B. vulgarization

C. sensational reporting

D. loud gestures

 

Questions: 16 – 20

Select the word or groups of words that is most opposite in meaning to that word which is in braces

Q. 16 The culprit was {sentenced} by the Court.

A. acquitted

B. punished

C. relieved

D. pardoned

 

Q. 17 {Thrifty} as he is, he can well afford to live within his means,

A. careless

B. instinctive

C. sentimental

D. extravagant

 

Q. 18 Do not give him a responsible job, he is {immature}.

A. thoughtful

B. cautious

C. calculating

D. seasoned

 

Q. 19 I was prepared {to show my hand} provided he agreed to do the same.

A. to yield

B. to shake hands

C. to conceal my plan

D. to lose my ground

 

Q. 20 Akbar the great was a {sagacious} ruler

A. haughty

B. cunning

C. rude

D. unwise

 

Questions: 21 – 30

Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words giver after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space.

Q. 21 She has been lying in bed for the last fortnight, I hope she will ________

A. come out

B. pull out

C. pull through

D. go out

 

Q. 22 The path of progress is beset______ difficulties.

A. with

B. by

C. through

D. along

 

Q. 23 I feel______for those who are cruel to their children

A. sympathy

B. contempt

C. admiration

D. craving

 

Q. 24 Both the parties were keen to have an _____ settlement of the dispute.

A. enviable

B. inimical

C. worthy

D. amicable

 

Q. 25 I have come to know that the two brothers have __________.

A. fallen through

B. fallen out

C. fallen for

D. fallen short

 

Q. 26 Everybody finds his own work _______ whereas he feels that others have delightful jobs.

A. tedious

B. fabulous

C. unprofitable

D. indecent

 

Q. 27 The accident took place because of the criminal _______ of the driver.

A. performance

B. disregard

C. negligence

D. slackness

 

Q. 28 The belief in the _________ of vaccination is gaining ground.

A. immunity

B. prevalence

C. efficacy

D. workablity

 

Q. 29 Our new leader is a _______ young man and will take us forward

A. haughty

B. intoxicated

C. fanciful

D. dynamic

 

Q. 30 They found a world of ______ between what he said and what he did.

A. chaos

B. bitterness

C. difference

D. hope

 

Questions: 31 – 37

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b),. (c) and (d), You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Q. 31 The statement {therefore you must listen carefully}(P)/ {what the speaker has said}(Q)/{in order to understand}(R)/ {will be made just once}(S). The proper sequence should be

A. SPRQ

B. SRQP

C. RSPQ

D. SPQR

 

Q. 32 The small boy who {broke his leg}(P)/{fell down}(Q)/{ and}(R)/{ climbed the wall}(S). The proper sequence should be

A. PSRQ

B. SQRP

C. QSRP

D. SPRQ

 

Q. 33 According to an engineer {might hit the market next year}(P)/{a newly developed air -cooler system}(Q)/ {that employed in conventional room coolers}(R)/{which is based on a principle radically different from}(S).The proper sequence should be

A. SQRP

B. RSQP

C. QSRP

D. PQRS

 

Q. 34 The clerk {on the desk}(P)/ {Ieft the money}(Q)/ {in the safe}(R)/ {which he should have locked up}(S). The proper sequence should be

A. SRQP

B. QRSP

C. PQRS

D. QPSR

 

Q. 35 Hardly had my brother descended from the plane {when the people}(P)/ {waved and cheered }(Q)/ {who had come to receive him}(R)/{ from the lounge}(S). The proper sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. RSPQ

C. RPQS

D. PRSQ

 

Q. 36 The essay {like that of the human face}(P)/ {because its variety is finite}(Q)/ {is a literary form}(R)/ {which is not easy to define}(S). The proper sequence should be 

A. PQRS

B. PQSR

C. RSQP

D. RSPQ

 

Q. 37 The exhibition committee {attractive and useful}(P)/ {to make exhibition}(Q)/ {making efforts }(R)/ {has been}(S). The proper sequence should be

A. QSRP

B. SRQP

C. QPSR

D. SPQR

 

Questions: 38 – 50

Fill the part that is in brackets if any improvement is needed. Otherwise, select no improvement

Q. 38 My old teacher gave many poor students money {in spite of} he was poor.

A. even though

B. as if

C. however

D. no improvement

 

Q. 39 You {should to} read the newspapers regularly if you want to be well informed

A. ought

B. have to

C. should be

D. no improvement

 

Q. 40 If he had {listening to me} he would not have got lost

A. listened me

B. listened to me

C. listen me

D. no improvement

 

Q. 41 He asked for a bank loan {also} he didn’t have sufficient resources

A. because

B. even if

C. requiring

D. no improvement

 

Q. 42 I went to the shop to buy some {stationeries}

A. stationery

B. stationary

C. stationeries

D. no improvement

 

Q. 43 I have been waiting here {for} the last two hours.

A. from

B. since

C. by

D. no improvement

 

Q. 44 The table needs to be {painted}.

A. paint

B. painting

C. having paint

D. no improvement

 

Q. 45 It began to rain heavily just when I {prepare} to go out

A. prepared

B. was preparing

C. have prepared

D. no improvement

 

Q. 46 The couple seemed to love {one another} very much.

A. every other

B. each

C. each other

D. no improvement

 

Q. 47 It is high time that we {did} something

A. had done

B. would do

C. have done

D. no improvement

 

Q. 48 If l were a millionaire, l {would have helped} the poor.

A. am capable of helping

B. could have helped

C. would help

D. no improvement

 

Q. 49 The training programme was extended {for} a month.

A. from

B. until

C. since

D. no improvement

 

Q. 50 The painting {which} they were looking at was done by my sister

A. what

B. that

C. whom

D. not improvement

 

Questions: 51 – 56

The following 6 (Sit) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below :

Code

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I

(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q. 51 Statement I: Variability of annual rainfall is very high in western part of Rajasthan.

Statement II: Average annual rainfall is extremely low in western Rajasthan.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 52 Statement I: Ozone is a tri-atomic molecule of oxygen.

Statement II : Ozone is concentrated mainly in the stratosphere.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 53 Statement I: The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall. 

Statement II: Laterite soils are the result of intense leaching process.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 54 Statement I: Too much salt content in diet could be one of the reason for kidney failure.

Statement II: High salt may cause high blood pressure.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 55 Statement I : The city of Rome revived in n spectacular way in the 15th century.

Statement II :From the 15th century onwards, artists were known individually by name., not as member of a group or a guild, in Roman society.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 56 Statement I: Chartism was the political reform campaign for democratic rights which swept over Britain between 1838 and 1848.

Statement II: The trade union movement declined by the 1830s as it failed to fulfil the aspirations of the working class.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 57 ‘Sahel’ region of Sahara desert was associated with

A. core area of Sahara desert

B. southern moving edge of Sahara desert

C. northern fringe or Sahara desert bordering Mediterranean sea

D. another name of Sahara desert

 

Q. 58 Which one of the following pairs of a river and its tributary is not correctly matched ?

A. Godavari : Wainganga

B. Cauvery : Bhavani

C. Narmada : Amaravati

D. Krishna : Bhima

 

Q. 59 In which of the following countries, the Mediterranean type of Biome is found?

A. Chile

B. Kenya

C. Argentina

D. Bolivia

 

Q. 60 Arrange the following states in the order of their decreasing population size as per the census 2011 :

1.West Bengal

2.Bihar

3.Maharashtra

4.Andhra Pradesh

Select the correct order.

A. 2, 3, 1, 4

B. 3, 2, 1, 4

C. 1, 4, 3, 2

D. 3, 1, 4, 2

 

Q. 61 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

Select correct answer from code:

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 62 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

Select correct answer from code:

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 63 Identify the element having zero valency

A. Sulphur

B. Phosphorous

C. Lead

D. Radon

 

Q. 64 There are six electrons, six protons and six neutrons in an atom or an element. What is the atomic number of the element?

A. 6

B. 12

C. 18

D. 24

 

Q. 65 Which one of the following has a different number of molecules? (All are kept at normal temperature and pressure)

A. 3 gram of Hydrogen

B. 48 gram of Oxygen

C. 42 gram of Nitrogen

D. 2 gram of Carbon

 

Q. 66 Combination of one volume of nitrogen with three volumes of hydrogen produces 

A. one volume of ammonia

B. two volume of ammonia

C. three volume of ammonia

D. one and a half volumes of ammonia

 

Q. 67 Consider the following statements about cactus:

1. The leaves are reduced to spines.

2. The stem does the photosynthesis. Which of the statements is/are true?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2

D. neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 68 In which of one or the following, methanogens, i.e., methane-producing bacteria are not present?

A. Rumen of cattle

B. Aerobic environment

C. Anaerobic sludge

D. Excreta of cattle

 

Q. 69 Malarial parasite is a

A. bacteria

B. protozoa

C. virus

D. fungus

 

Q. 70 With reference to biodiversity, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.Species richness and high degree of endemism arc important criteria for identifying

biodiversity hot spots

2. Species diversity is highest in the tropics and decreases down the poles

3. Biodiversity conversation may be in situ as well as ex situ. Select the correct answer

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1,2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only

 

Q. 71 It is difficult to kill viruses because they

A. consist of tough protein coat

B. are very small in size

C. lack cellular structure

D. spend a lot or time inside the host’s cells

 

Q. 72 When a ray of light enters a glass slab, then

A. only the frequency changes

B. frequency and velocity changes

C. frequency does not changes

D. frequency and wavelength changes

 

Q. 73 A ball is thrown vertically upward from the ground with a speed of 25.2 m/s. The ball will reach the highest point in its journey in

A. 5.14 s

B. 3.57 s

C. 2.57 s

D. 1.29 s

 

Q. 74   1 kilowatt hour is equal to

A. 36 x 10³ joule

B. 36 x 10⁵ joule

C. 10³ joule

D. 10⁵ joule

 

Q. 75 When sound waves are propagated through a medium, the physical quantity/quantities transmitted is/are

A. matter only

B. energy only

C. energy and matter only

D. energy, momentum and matter

 

Q. 76 Pressure is a scalar quantity because

A. it is the ration of force to area and both area and force are vectors

B. it is ration of magnitude of force to area

C. it is ration of component (normal to area0of force to area

D. none of above

 

Q. 77 A person is unable to read a newspaper without his glasses. He is most probably suffering from

A. myopia

B. presbyopia

C. astigmatisrn

D. hypermetropia

 

Q. 78 The free fall acceleration g increases as one proceeds, at sea level, from the equator toward either pole. The reason is

A. Earth is a sphere with same density everywhere

B. Earth is a sphere with different density at the polar regions than in the equatorial

regions

C. Earth is approximately an ellipsoid having its equatorial radius greater than its polar radius by 21 km

D. Earth is approximately an ellipsoid having its equatorial radius smaller than its polar radius by 21 km

 

Q. 79 Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. The measurement of mass taken by a spring weighing balance is incorrect at all places

B. The measurement of mass taken by a spring weighing balance is correct at all places

C. The measurement of mass taken by a spring weighing balance is correct at the places where the acceleration due to gravity is same with the place where the spring balance is calibrated for

D. A spring balance cannot be used to measure mass at any place

 

Q. 80 Which one of the following is not a correct force?

A. push force

B. gravitational force

C. frictional force

D. strain force

 

Q. 81 When a force of 1 newton acts on a mass of 1 kg which is able to move freely, the object moves in the direction of force with a/an

A. speed of 1 km/s

B. acceleration of 1 m/s²

C. speed of 1 m/s

D. acceleration of 1 km/s²

 

Q. 82 Which of the following items is used in the household wirings to prevent accidental fire in case of short circuit?

A. insulated wire

B. plastic switches

C. Non-metallic coatings on conducting wires

D. electric fuse

 

Q. 83 Which of the following are the features of the ideology of utilitarianism?

1.utilitarians believe that all value derives from land

2.The most celebrated spokesmen of utilitarianism were Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill

3.Utilitarians were advocates of the idea that India could be ruled through indigenous laws and custom

4.Utilitarians were advocates of the idea of the `greatest good for the greatest number of people’.

Select correct answer from code:

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1, 2 and 4 only

D. 2 and 3

 

Q. 84 Who among the following invented the power loom that revolutionized the cotton textile industry?

A. Edmund Cartwright

B. Samuel Crompton

C. Richard Arkwright

D. James Hargreaves

 

Q. 85 Subsidiary Alliance was a system devised by

A. Lord Wellesley

B. Lord Dalhousie

C. Lord Canning

D. Lord Ripon

 

Q. 86 Consider- the following statements :

1. Periplus is a Greek word meaning sailing around

2. Erythraean was the Greek name for the Meditemmean sea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2

D. neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 87 Who among the following was defeated by Saina Nehwal to win the women’s title of the Australian Open. Super Series Badminton Tournament, 2016?

A. Sun Yu

B. Carolina Marin

C. Wang Yihan

D. Sung Ji Hyun

 

Q. 88 Consider the following statements:

He was an Indian journalist, editor and author. He was associated with the Statesman, the Guardian. the Times of India etc. He received the Ramnath Goenka Lifetime Achievement Award in 2013. He died in June 2016. The person referred to above is

A. B K Karanjia

B. K M Mathew

C. Inder Malhotra

D. Nanasaheb parulekar

 

Q. 89 Achyta Lahkar, who died recently, was a

A. sports administrator

B. wildlife photographer

C. mobile theatre personality

D. bureaucrat

 

Q. 90 Recently Microsoft announced its 26.2 billion dollar acquisition of which one of the following professional networking sites?

A. PartnerUp

B. PerfectBusiness

C. StartupNation

D. Linkedln

 

Q. 91 Which of the following statements concerning Mediterranean climatic region are correct? 

1.It is found in the latitude range 30° to 45° northern arid southern hemisphere

2. Mediterranean climate experiences extreme temperature conditions

3. In Mediterranean climate, rainfall occurs mainly during summer season.

4. In Mediterranean climate, rainfall occurs mainly due to Westerlies.Select correct answer

A. 1, 2 and 4

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 3 and 4

 

Q. 92 Arrange the following states in decreasing order of their total area under forest cover :

1.Jharkhand

2. Chattisgarh

3. Arunachal Pradesh

4. Madhya Pradesh

A. 4 3 2 1

B. 4 2 3 1

C. 3 4 1 2

D. 2 1 3 4

 

Q. 93 Which of the following statements concerned Scheduled Castes (SC) population in India are correct?

1. The highest % of SC population out of total population of the state is found in Punjab

2. Bihar is the second largest state in respect of total SC population in India

3. Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of SC population in India

4. Among the Indian states, the lowest % of SC population out of the total population of the state is found in Goa

A. 1,2 and 3

B. 1 and 3

C. 2 and 4

D. 1,2 and 4

 

Q. 94 Match List I with Lisa II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : 

Select the correct answer from code

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 95 Which one of the following species is not capable of showing disproportionation reaction? 

A. ClO⁻

B. ClO2⁻

C. ClO3⁻

D. ClO4⁻

 

Q. 96 Which one of the following statements is correct

A. Covalent bonds are directional

B. Ionic bonds are directional

C. Both Covalent and ionic bonds are directional

D. Both Covalent and ionic bonds are non-directional

 

Q. 97 When one strikes a safety match, the first step is

A. burning of sulhur

B. decomposition of potassium chlorate into potassium chloride and oxygen

C. conversion of small amount of red phosphorous into white phosphorous

D. burning of glue and starch

 

Q. 98 The LPG cooking gas contains propane and butane as the constituents. A sulfur containing compound is added to the LPG, because

A. It lower the cost of production

B. it enhances the efficiency of LP

C. it facilitates easy detection of leakage of the gas

D. it assists in liquefying hydrocarbons

 

Q. 99 The genetic material of bacteria is found in

A. nucleus

B. cytoplasm

C. cell membrane

D. ribosome

 

Q. 100 A horse and a donkey can breed to produce mule which is an infertile animal.The infertility is because horse and donkey belong to different

A. class

B. order

C. species

D. genus

 

Q. 101 A plant having yellow leaves with dead spots has the deficiency of

A. potassium

B. magnesium

C. nitrate

D. phosphate

 

Q. 102 Flouride toothpaste is sometimes recommended because flouride

A. prevents plaque formation

B. hardens the enamel of the tooth

C. kills pathogenic bacteria

D. prevents tooth ache

 

Q. 103 Along a streamline flow of fluid

A. the velocity of all fluid particles at a given instant is constant

B. the speed of a fluid particle remains constant

C. the velocity of all fluid particles crossing a given position is constant

D. velocity of fluid particle remains constant

 

Q. 104 How is the kinetic energy of a moving object affected if the net work done on it is positive 

A. decreases

B. increases

C. remains constant

D. becomes zero

 

Q. 105 A particle is executing simple harmonic motion_ Which one of the following statements about the acceleration of the oscillating particle is true?

A. It is always in the opposite direction to velocity

B. It is proportional to the frequency of oscillation

C. It is minimum when the speed is maximum

D. It decreases as the potential energy increases

 

Q. 106 Which one of the following four particles, whose displaement x and acceleration ax are related as follows, is executing simple harmonic motion?

A. aₓ = +3x

B. aₓ = +3x²

C. aₓ = -3x²

D. aₓ = -3x

 

Q. 107 If we plot a graph between volume V and inverse of pressure P for an ideal gas at constant temperature T, the curve so obtained is

A. straight line

B. circle

C. parabola

D. hyperbola

 

Q. 108 Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. The speed of sound waves in a medium depends upon the elastic property of the

medium but not on inertia property

B. The speed of sound waves in a medium depends upon the inertia property of the

medium but not on elastic property

C. The speed of sound waves in a medium depends neither on its elastic property nor

on its inertia property

D. The speed of sound waves in a medium depends both on elastic and inertia

properties of the medium

 

Q. 109 Which one of the following statements not correct?

A. Pitch of a sound is its characteristic by which we can generally differentiate between a male voice and a female voice

B. The loudness of sound is related to its frequency

C. A musical sound has certain well defined frequencies which are generally harmonics of a fundamental frequency

D. The timbre of a particular musical sound is related to the waveform of the sound

wave

 

Q. 110 A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with amplitude of 2cm. When the particle is at 1cm from mean position, the magnitudes of the velocity and the acceleration are equal. Then its time period(in seconds) is

A. 2Π/√3

B. √3/2Π

C. √3/Π

D. 1/2Π√3

 

Q. 111 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. The longest wavelength of light visible to human eye is about 700 mm

B. The shortest wavelength of light visible to human eye is about 400 mm

C. The wavelength of gamma rays is longer than that of X-rays

D. The ability of a telescope to form separable images of close objects is called its

resolving power.

 

Q. 112 If the image of an object, formed by a concave mirror is virtual, erect and magnified, then the object is placed

A. at the principal focus

B. at the centre or curvature

C. beyond the centre or curvature

D. between the pole of the mirror and the principal focus

 

Q. 113 When three resistors, each having resistance r, are connected in parallel, their resultant resistance is x. If these three resistances are connected in series, then the total resistance will be

A. 3x

B. 3rx

C. 9x

D. 3/x

 

Q. 114 Which of the following was/were the feature(s) of Lenin’s New Economic Policy (NEP) for the Soviet Union?

1.Private retail trading was strictly forbidden

2.Private enterprise trading was strictly forbidden

3.Peasants were not allowed to sell their surplus

4.To secure liquid capital, concessions were allowed to foreign capitalists, but the State retained the option or purchasing the products of such concerns

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 1,2 and 4

D. 4 only

 

Q. 115 which of the following was/were the reasons for the defeat of British during the American War of Independence?

1.The remoteness of the American Continent and the lack of good roads

2.The British authorities failed to rally the loyalist Americans

3.The Americans benefited from the extraordinary military leadership of George

Washington

4. The Americans had access to superior arms and ammunition

A. 1,2 and 4

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

 

Q. 116 The industrial revolution in England had a profound impact on the lives of people. Which of the following statements are correct about that?

1.Women were the main workers in the silk, lace-making and knitting industries

2.Factory managers were well aware of the health risks of industrial work on children

3.Children Were often employed in textile factories

4.The novel ‘Hard Times’ by Charles Dickens was a severe critique of the horrors of

industrialization

A. 1,3

B. 1,2

C. 1,3,4

D. 3,4

 

Q. 117 Consider the following statements

1. British colonialism continued to grow steadily in the 18th and 19th centuries

2.Raw cotton for the textile industry in Britain during the industrial revolution needed to be imported

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. both 1 and 2

D. neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 118 Who among the following was the author of Neel Darpan, published in 1860?

A. Reverend James Long

B. Michael Madhusudan Dutta

C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

D. Dinabandhu Mitra

 

Q. 119 Which one of the following organizations was started by Jyotirao Phule in 1873 ?

A. Prarthana Samaj

B. Bahujan Samaj

C. Justice party

D. Satyashodhak Samaj

 

Q. 120 Although used earlier by French and German writers, the term Industrial Revolution’ in English was first popularized by

A. Adam Smith

B. Arnold Toynbee

C. James Mill

D. Bertrand Russell

 

Q. 121 In the 19th century, the majority of the workers in Japan’s modern industries were mainly

A. Japanese men and children

B. Japanese women and Chinese men

C. Women

D. Japanese and Chinese men

 

Q. 122 Which of Ilse following statements regarding recent developments in international affairs is/are correct?

1.NATO’s defence ministers agree to boost support for Ukraine. with a comprehensive package of assistance whit will help it strengthen defence and to modernize its armed forces.

2.Israel announces plans for construction of dwelling units for Jewish settlers in a

Palestinian neighbour¬hood of East Jerusalem

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. both 1 and 2

D. neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 123 As per the RBI guidelines, which one of the following is the minimum tenure of Masala Bonds that an Indian company can issue offshore?

A. 5 years

B. 4 years

C. 3 years

D. 2 years

 

Q. 124 Which of the following, statements about Krishi Kalyan Cess (KKC) is/are correct?

1.KKC is calculated in the same way as Service Tax is calculated

2.The current rate of KKC is 0-50%.

3. KKC is similar to the KKS (Krishi Kalyan Surcharge).

A. 1,2,3

B. 1,2

C. 2,3

D. 1 only

 

Q. 125 Which country won the Thomas Cup Badminton Championship, 2016?

A. Indonesia

B. Denmark

C. China

D. Malaysia

 

Q. 126  Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 127 The world’s largest biomass cookstove system for cooking in community kitchen has been installed at

A. Tirupati

B. Amritsar

C. Shirdi

D. Udipi

 

Q. 128 Which one of the following sectors is the largest contributor to carbon dioxide emissions from fuel consumption in India?

A. Electricity and heat production

B. Transport

C. Manufacturing industries and constructions

D. Others

 

Q. 129 As per census 2011, which one of the following states has the highest number of inhabited villages?

A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Odisha

C. Rajasthan

D. Maharashtra

 

Q. 130 The properly of electric current which is applicable in the fuse wire is

A. chemical effect of current

B. magnetic effect of current

C. heating effect of current

D. Optical property of current

 

Q. 131 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. The Si unit of charge is ampere-second

B. Debye is the unit of dipole moment

C. Resistivity of a wire of length l and area of cross-section a depends upon both I and a

D. The kinetic energy of an electron of mass m kg and charge e coulomb, when accelerated through a potential difference of V volt, is eV joule

 

Q. 132 Two balls, A and B, are thrown simultaneously, A vertically upward with a speed of 20 m/s from the ground and B vertically downward from a height of 40 m with the same speed and along the same line of motion. At what points do the two balls collide by taking acceleration due to gravity as 9.8m/s²

A. The balls will collide after 3s at a height of 30.2 m from the ground

B. The balls will collide after 2s at a height of 20.1 m from the ground

C. The balls will collide after 1s at a height of 15.1 m from the ground

D. The balls will collide after 5s at a height of 20 m from the ground

 

Q. 133 The setting time of cement is lowered by adding

A. oxides of aluminium

B. gypsum

C. oxides of magnesium

D. silica

 

Q. 134 Emulsion is known as a

A. colloidal solution of substances having different physical states

B. true solution

C. distillation mixture for making alcohols

D. colloidal solution of two liquids

 

Q. 135 If one mixes up ashes with animal fat, the substance received in the crude form is called 

A. Pheromone

B. Soap

C. Cement

D. Concrete

 

Q. 136 Which of the following statements with regard to coverage rate of Aadhar cards during 2015 is/are correct?

1.The coverage rate Aadhar cards in western India is quite high and it is above 90 per cent in Gujarat

2.The coverage rate of Aadhar cards is the highest in southern India and it is almost 100 per cent in the states of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh

3.The penetration of Aadhar cards has been very low in north-eastern part of India and it is the lowest in Assam and Meghalaya

A. 2 only

B. 1,3

C. 2,3

D. 1,2,3

 

Q. 137 Which one of the following is the correct descending order of countries in terms of per capita availability of arable land?

A. India — China — Brazil

B. China — Brazil — India

C. Brazil — China — India

D. Brazil — India — China

 

Q. 138 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 139 Which of the following statements concerning temperature is/are correct?

1.In winter season isotherms Northern Hemisphere are more or

less circular on continents

2.Isotherms are parallel to latitude in Southern Hemisphere in oceans

3.Minimun temperature during winter is recorded in Northern Canada

A. 1,2

B. 1,3

C. 1,2,3

D. 2 only

 

Q. 140 Which of the following statement(s) concerning natural regions of the world is/are correct?

1.Equatorial climatic regions have less urbanization

2. Mediterranean climatic regions have high level of urbanization

3.Equatorial climatic regions have high concentration human population

4.Mediterranean climatic regions practice platation farming

A. 1,2

B. 1,2,3

C. 2,4

D. 1 only

 

Q. 141 Which one of the following gases gives acidic solution on dissolving in water

A. Hydrogen

B. Carbondioxide

C. Nitrogen

D. Oxygen

 

Q. 142 How many moles of hydrogen atom are present in one mole of Aluminium hydroxide?

A. 1 mole

B. 2 moles

C. 3 moles

D. 4 moles

 

Q. 143 The United Nations proclaimed 21 June as

A. International Mother Language Day

B. International Widows’ Day

C. International Day of Yoga

D. International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking

 

Q. 144 Who are Bhawana Kanth, Avani Chaturvedi and Mohana Singh?

A. Sprinters

B. Rock climbers

C. Fighter pilots

D. Mountaineers

 

Q. 145 Corpsider the following statements but the Constitution of India:

1.A Member of Parliament enjoys freedom of speech in the Parliament as a Parliamentary Privilege protected by the Constitution of India

2.The Constitution has vested the power to amend the Constitution in the Parliament

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. both 1 and 2

D. neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 146 Which one of the following statements about the Union Executive in India is correct?

A. According to the Constitution of India, the total number of members of the Council of Ministers cannot exceed 20% of the total number of Members of the House of the People

B. The rank or the different Ministers is determined by the President

C. The Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister

D. Only a member of either House of Parliament can he appointed as a Minister

 

Q. 147 Which one of the following statements about Money Bill is correct?

A. A Bill shall be deemed to be a Money BiIl only if it provides for the imposition of fines or penalties

B. A Money Bill shall be introduced in the Rajya Sabha

C. The Rajya Sabha can reject the Money Bill

D. The Speaker of the Lak Sabha finally decides if it is a Money Bill, should any dispute about it arise

 

Q. 148 Which one of the following powers of the Prime Minister of India is codified in the Constitution of India itself?

A. The power of advising the President as regards the appoinLtment of other Ministers

B. The power to allocate business amongst the Ministers

C. The power to summon the meeting of the Cabinet

D. The power to transfer a Minister from one Department to another

 

Q. 149 The cylindrical stone seals were used in which civilization?

A. Harappan

B. Egyptian

C. Roman

D. Mesopotamiam

 

Q. 150 Which of the following statements with regards to the Civil Disobedience movement is/are correct?

1.The movement received a massive response from business groups and peasantry

2.The movement was marked by the mass participation of lawyers and students

A. 1 only

B. 1, 2

C. 2, 3

D. 1, 2, 3

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer A A A C A D C C B A
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer B A B A C D D D C D
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer B B B D B A A A D C
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer A B C D D C B A B B
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A A D D B C C C D D
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer D B A A A A A C A B
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer C A D A D D C B B C
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer C C C B B C D C D B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer B D B A A A A C C D
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B A B B D A C C B C
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer B B C B C D A A B A
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer C D C D C C A D D B
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer C C C B B C C A A C
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer C C B D B B D B C C
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer C C C C C C D A D C

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

×

Hello!

Click one of our representatives below to chat on WhatsApp or send us an email to info@vidhyarthidarpan.com

×