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NDA/NA(II) Exam 2018 General Ability Test Previous Year Paper

NDA/NA(II) Exam 2016 General Ability Test Previous Year Paper
July 3, 2019
NDA/NA(I) Exam 2018 Mathematics Previous Year Paper
July 3, 2019

NDA/NA(II) Exam 2018 General Ability Test

Questions: 1 – 5

Each item in this section has a sentence with three words in quotation marks labelled (a),(b),(c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any part in the quotation and indicate error, your response should be indicated as (d)

Q. 1 ‘He appears'(a)/ ‘to be'(b)/ ‘a honest man'(c)/ ‘No error'(d)

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 2 ‘One of the members'(a)/ ‘expressed doubt if'(b)/ ‘the Minister was an atheist'(c). /’No error'(d)

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 3 ‘This view has been taken'(a)/ ‘by one of the ablest persons'(b)/ ‘who has written on this subject(c)/ ‘No error'(d)

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 4 ‘Slow and steady'(a)/ ‘owns the race,'(b)/ ‘as the wise would say,'(c). ‘No error'(d)

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 5 ‘We often hear people say'(a)/ ‘that most human beings have not evolved'(b)/ ‘or grow up enough to stick to truth or non-violence'(c)/ ‘No error'(d)

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Questions: 6 – 10

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with the word in the quotation followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the words in the quotation and mark your response accordingly

Q. 6 The industrial revolution saw a ‘massive’ rise in the population of Europe

A. enormous

B. erroneous

C. hazardous

D. perilous

 

Q. 7 I bet some deepest ‘conviction’ reflected in my work

A. ideas and opinions

B. firm beliefs

C. prejudices

D. biases

 

Q. 8 This boy is very ‘timid’

A. courageous

B. shy

C. clever

D. dull

 

Q. 9 My friend is as ‘stubborn’ as a mule

A. observant

B. obnoxious

C. obstinate

D. corpulent

 

Q. 10 His behaviour was deliberately ‘provocative’

A. exciting desire

B. infuriating

C. pitiable

D. creating frustration

 

Questions: 11 – 15

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an word in quotation followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is opposite in meaning to the word in the quotation and mark your response accordingly

Q. 11 Two many cooks ‘spoil’ the broth

A. tarnish

B. wreck

C. embellish

D. upset

 

Q. 12 He is ‘biased’ against the students from cities

A. open

B. prejudiced

C. liked

D. impartial

 

Q. 13 It is easy to be an ‘orthodox’

A. idolatrous

B. intelligent

C. malignant

D. heterodox

 

Q. 14 ‘Permit’ me to present you with a book

A. allow

B. enclose

C. prohibit

D. persuade

 

Q. 15 None but the ‘brave’ deserves the fair

A. ugly person

B. coward

C. jealous person

D. weak person

 

Questions: 16 – 20

In this section, your have two short passages. After each passage. you will find some items based on the package. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it and mark your response on the answer sheet accordingly. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only “Now, ladies and gentlemen,” said the conjurer, “having shown you that the cloth is absolutely empty, I will pretend to take from it a bowl of goldfish. Presto!” All around the hall people were saying, “Oh, how wonderful! How does he do it?” But the Quick Man on the front seat said in a big whisper to the people near him, “He-had-it-up-his-sleeve.” “My next trick,” said the conjurer, “is the famous Hindostanee rings. You will notice that the rings are apparently separate; at a blow they all join(clang,clang,clang)—Presto!” There was a general buzz of stupefaction till the Quick Man was heard to whisper,

“He-must-have-had-another-lot-up-his-sleeve,”

Again everybody nodded and whispered, “The-rings-were-up-his-sleeve.”

The brow of the conjurer was clouded with a gathering frown.

“I will now,” he continued,”show you a most amusing trick by which I am enabled to take any number of eggs from a hat. Will some gentleman kindly lend me his hat? Ah, thank you—Presto!”

He extracted seventeen eggs, and for thirty-five seconds the audience began to think that he was wonderful. Then the Quick Man whispered along the front bench, “He-has-a-hen-up-his-sleeve,” and all the people whispered it on. “He-has a- hen-up-his-sleeve.”

The egg trick was ruined. It went on like that all through. It transpired from the whispers of the Quick Man that the conjurer must have concealed up his sleeve, in addition to the rings, hens, and fish, several packs of cars, a loaf of bread, a doll’s cradle, a live guinea pig, a fifty-cent piece, and a rocking chair.

Q. 16 “The brow of the conjurer was clouded with a gathering frown,” The sentence means that the conjurer.

A. was very pleased

B. was very sad

C. was very angry

D. was very afraid

 

Q. 17 “The egg trick was ruined.” This means that

A. eggs were all broken

B. people were unconvinced

C. conjurer was disappointed

D. the trick could not be performed

 

Q. 18 According to the Quick Man, the conjurer

A. had everything bought for production

B. produced things with the magic he knew

C. had things in the large sleeves of his coat

D. created an illusion of things with his magic

 

Q. 19 The author believed that the Quick Man was really

A. foolish

B. clever

C. wrong

D. right

 

Q. 20 The conjurer extracted seventeen eggs from the hat of

A. the Quick Man

B. his own

C. one gentleman from the audience

D. none of the above

 

Questions: 21 – 25

Magda: Good Morning, Mrs. Smiles. It’s wet, isn’t it?

Mrs. Smiles: Yes, it is, isn’t it? How are you today? All right? You haven’t been studying too hard, have you? You look a bit pale.

Magda: I don’t, do I? Well. I haven’t been out much lately. I don’t like this weather a bit. Why, we haven’t had a dry day for weeks, have we?

Mrs. Smiles: No, I don’t think we have. Let’s see, you’ll be going back home next month, won’t you?

Magda: Oh no, I’m not going back yet. My sister’s coming over first.

Mrs. Smiles: Oh, is she? You’re looking forward to that. How long is it since you saw her?

Magda: Nearly a year now. Yes, I am looking forward to it very much.

Mrs. Smiles: She’s coming over here to study?

Magda: Yes, that’s right. I shan’t go back home until she’s settled down. I don’t think I ought to, ought I?

Mrs. Smiles: Well, no, she’s younger than you are, is she? 

Magda: Yes, she’s only eighteen.

 

Q. 21 Magda had not been out much lately because 

A. she had not been keeping well

B. she was busy with her studies

C. the weather had been unpleasant

D. her sister had come over to stay

 

Q. 22 Magda was not going back home yet because

A. it had been raining heavily

B. her sister was coming over

C. her studies were not completed

D. she was not feeling well

 

Q. 23 Mrs. Smiles says, “You’re looking forward to that.” This means, Magda was________ her sister’s arrival.

A. expecting with pleasure

B. preparing hard for

C. thanking greatly about

D. watching with joy

 

Q. 24 Magda’s sister was coming to

A. visit her sister

B. help Mrs. Smiles

C. settle down in England

D. pursue her studies

 

Q. 25 Mrs. Smiles and Magda are

A. classmates

B. school friends

C. neighbours

D. sister-in-law

 

Questions: 26 – 35

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words groups of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly

Q. 26 We fail to understand your reasons for _____________ the college without completing the degree

A. attending

B. joining

C. leaving

D. refusing

 

Q. 27 She ___________ her energy and started shouting only when she heard the noise of bulldozers and cranes

A. checked

B. conserved

C. maintained

D. controlled

 

Q. 28 The British ____________ all over Africa and Asia collapsed in the first half of the twentieth century.

A. hegemony

B. domicile

C. residence

D. inheritance

 

Q. 29 The football match has to be _____________ because of the weather

A. called off

B. continued

C. put off

D. turned off

 

Q. 30 If I were rich, ______________ a lot

A. I’ll travel

B. I can travel

C. I would travel

D. I travelled

 

Q. 31 They apologized _______________ me for what happened

A. to

B. at

C. for

D. with

 

Q. 32 If you are tired of swimming, just _______________ for a while

A. struggle

B. stroke

C. float

D. streak

 

Q. 33 He had _______________ spoken for two minutes when there was a commotion in the crowd

A. even

B. hardly

C. often

D. little

 

Q. 34 I would not commit myself _______________ that course of action

A. of

B. to

C. by

D. with

 

Q. 35 The soldiers waiting to go into battle for the first time were full of _____________

A. apprehension

B. consideration

C. anticipation

D. frivolity

 

Questions: 36 – 40

Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a),(b),(c) or (d) which is the most appropriate meaning and mark your response accordingly

Q. 36 ‘A red-letter day’

A. a trivial day

B. a very important or significant day

C. a day of bloodshed and violence

D. a mourning day

 

Q. 37 ‘ The gift of the gab’

A. ability to speak easily and confidently

B. ability to spoil something

C. ability to sell things

D. gift from a sacred institution

 

Q. 38 ‘Walk to a tightrope’

A. to be forced to leave your job

B. to be ready to fall

C. to act very carefully

D. to invite danger

 

Q. 39 ‘To be in a fix’

A. to receive strong criticism

B. to support oneself

C. to fix problems

D. to be in a difficult situation

 

Q. 40 ‘To fish in troubled waters’

A. to borrow money

B. to steal belongings of

C. to get benefit in bad situation

D. to extend a helping hand

 

Questions: 41 – 45

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence of the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P,Q,R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a),(b),(c) and (d). Your are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly

Q. 41 Domestic fired in Indian villages

P: as the heat is dispersed

Q: an unhealthy smoke accumulates in unventilated houses

R: are wasteful

S: lit in Chulhas

The correct sequence should be

A. PQSR

B. PQRS

C. SPQR

D. SRPQ

 

Q. 42 Bold rocks neat at hand

P: makes a fine forest for the imagination

Q: than distant Alpa

R: are more inspiring

S: and the thick fern upon a heath

The correct sequence should be

A. QRSP

B. RSQP

C. RQSP

D. SRQP

 

Q. 43 Newton discovered that

P: due to the gravitational pull

Q: of the earth

R: the apple falls

S: on the ground

The correct sequence should be

A. QPRS

B. RSPQ

C. QSPR

D. SQRP

 

Q. 44 The knocking

P: were still in the house

Q: for some time

R: although the echoes of it

S: ceased

The correct sequence should be

A. SRPQ

B. SQRP

C. PQSR

D. RSPQ

 

Q. 45 The history of mankind is

P: and steady progress

Q: continuous change

R: the history of

S: from barbarian to refinement

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. RQPS

C. QSPR

D. SQRP

 

Questions: 46 – 50

In the following passage, there are some blank spaces with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or given words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the answer sheet accordingly.

The honeybee is a very unusual kind of insect, (46) other insects which live alone, the honeybee lives as a/an (47) of community, these bees live together in what is known as a bee (48) house. The head of the bees is called the queen bee. She is (49) than the rest of the bees. Her main task is to (50) eggs 

Q. 46 Choose the most appropriate option

A. unlike

B. similar to

C. with

D. like

 

Q. 47 Choose the most appropriate option

A. group

B. individual

C. member

D. troop

 

Q. 48 Choose the most appropriate option

A. house

B. home

C. army

D. colony

 

Q. 49 Choose the most appropriate option

A. heaviest

B. heavier

C. largest

D. larger

 

Q. 50 Choose the most appropriate option

A. lay

B. hatch

C. make

D. bear

 

Questions: 51 – 56

The following six(6) items consist of two statements. Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below 

Code:

(a) Both the statements are individually the true and Statement II is the correct

explanation of Statement I

(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statements II is not the correct

explanation of Statement I

(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 51 Statement I: The pitch of the sound wave depends upon its frequency

Statement II: The loudness of the sound wave depends upon its amplitude

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 52 Statement I: Sound wave cannot propagate in vacuum

Statement II: Sound waves are elastic waves and require a medium to propagate

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 53 Statement I: The government of India Act, 1935 introduced Dyarchy at the centre

Statement II: The provincial autonomy was granted to the Provinces

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 54 Statement I: Mughal Painting reached its climax during the reign of Jahangir

Statement II: Aurangzeb’s Court was adorned by some of the best known artists of the

Mughal School of Painting

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 55 Statement I: Phytoplankton produce most of the organic carbon in the ocean

Statement II: Algae are produced in the cold water biome

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 56 Statement I: Geostrophic wind blows above a height of 600 metres, parallel to the isobars 

Statement II: Geostrophic wind is the horizontal wind velocity, in which the Coriolis force balances the horizontal pressure force

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 57 Which one of the following groups of cellular organelles contains DNA?

A. Mitochondria, nucleus, chloroplast

B. Mitochondria, golgi bodies, nucleus

C. Mitochondria, plasma, membrane, nucleus

D. chloroplast, nucleus , ribosomes

 

Q. 58 One of the additional functions of smooth endoplasmic reticulum(SER) is

A. protein synthesis

B. lipid synthesis

C. storage of biomolecules

D. detoxification of toxic substances

 

Q. 59 Damage to the apical meristem of a growing plant will affect the

A. length of the plant

B. colour of the flower

C. colour of the leaves

D. taste of the fruits

 

Q. 60 Which of the following kingdoms has/have only unicellular organisms

A. monera only

B. protista only

C. monera and protista both

D. protista and fungi both

 

Q. 61 Which one of the following is a waterborne disease?

A. jaundice

B. tuberculosis

C. rabies

D. arthritis

 

Q. 62 The atomic number of an element is 8. How many electrons will it gain to form a compound with sodium?

A. one

B. two

C. three

D. four

 

Q. 63 A sample of oxygen contains two isotopes of oxygen with masses 16 u and 18 u

respectively. The proportion of these isotopes in the sample 3:1. What will be the average atomic mass of oxygen in this sample?

A. 17.5 u

B. 17 u

C. 16 u

D. 16.5 u

 

Q. 64 Which one of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?

A. hydrochloric acid

B. vinegar

C. milk

D. soda water

 

Q. 65 What is the formula mass of anhydrous sodium carbonate?(Given that the atomic masses of sodium, carbon and oxygen are 23 u, 12 u and 16 u respectively)

A. 286 u

B. 106 u

C. 83 u

D. 53 u

 

Q. 66 Which one of the following is called ‘syngas’?

A. C(s)+H₂O(g)

B. CO(g)+H₂O(g)

C. CO(g)+H₂(g)

D. NO₂(g)+H₂(g)

 

Q. 67 The frequency of ultrasound waves is

A. less than 20 Hz

B. between 20 Hz and 2 kHz

C. between 2 kHz and 20 kHz

D. greater than 20 kHz

 

Q. 68 The magnetic field strength of a current-carrying wire at a particular distance from the axis of the wire

A. depends upon the current in the wire

B. depends upon the radius of the wire

C. depends upon the temperature of the surroundings

D. none of the above

 

Q. 69 A stainless steel chamber contains Ar gas at a temperature T and Pressure P. The total number Ar atoms in the chamber is n. Now Ar gas in the chamber is replaced by CO₂ gas and the total number of CO₂ molecules in the chamber is n/2 at the same temperature T. The pressure in the chamber now is P′. Which one of the following relations holds true?

(Both the gases behave as ideal gases)

A. P′=P

B. P′=2P

C. P′=P/2

D. P′=P/4

 

Q. 70 Which one of the following is the correct relation between A and nm?

A. 1 nm=10⁻¹ A

B. 1 nm=10 A

C. 1 nm=1 A

D. 1 nm=10⁻² A

 

Q. 71 The full form of LED is

A. light emitting diode

B. light emitting device

C. light enhancing device

D. light enhancing diode

 

Q. 72 If a free electron moves through a potential difference of 1kV, then the energy gained by the electron is given by

A. 1.6X10⁻¹⁹ J

B. 1.6X10⁻¹⁶ J

C. 1X10⁻¹⁹ J

D. 1X10⁻¹⁶ J

 

Q. 73 Consider the following places of India:

1. Itanagar

2. Imphal

3. Agartala

4. Aizawl

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above places in terms of sunrise time?

A. 3-2-1-4

B. 2-1-4-3

C. 1-4-3-2

D. 4-3-2-1

 

Q. 74 Which one of the following is known as uplands of delta region?

A. Bef

B. Bils

C. Peh

D. Chars

 

Q. 75 Consider the following wildlife sanctuaries of india:

1. shikari devi

2: bhadra

3: simlipal

4. pachmarhi

which one of the following is the correct order of the above wildlife sanctuaries in terms of their location from south to north?

A. 1-2-3-4

B. 2-4-3-1

C. 2-3-4-1

D. 3-1-2-4

 

Q. 76 Which one of the following statements about temperature is correct?

A. temperature decreases with height in the stratosphere

B. temperature is constant at different heights in the atmosphere

C. temperature increases with height in the troposphere at an average rate of 6-5⁰ C per kilometre

D. temperature decreases with height in the troposphere at an average rate of 6-4⁰ C

per kilometre

 

Q. 77 Which one of the following is known as a zone of sharp salinity change in the vertical section of ocean?

A. thermocline

B. halocline

C. photic zone

D. pycnocline

 

Q. 78 Permanent hardness of water cannot be removed by which one of the following methods? 

A. treatment with washing soda

B. calgon’s method

C. boiling

D. ion exchange method

 

Q. 79 Which one of the following reactions will given NO(nitric oxide) gas as one of the products?

A. 3Cu+8HNO₃(dilute)->

B. Cu+4HNO₃(conc.)->

C. 4Zn+10HNO₃(dilute)->

D. Zn+4HNO₃(conc.)->

 

Q. 80 Which one of the following is a tribasic acid?

A. hydrochloric acid

B. nitric acid

C. sulphuric acid

D. phosphoric acid

 

Q. 81 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. all carbons in diamond are linked by carbon-carbon single bond

B. graphite is layered structure of which layers are held together by weak van der waals forces

C. graphite layers are formed by hexagonal rings of carbon atoms

D. graphite layers are held together by carbon-carbon single bond

 

Q. 82 Which one of the following is called dry ice?

A. solid carbon dioxide

B. liquid carbon dioxide

C. liquid nitrogen

D. liquid ammonia

 

Q. 83 The acidic semi digested food coming out of the stomach is neutralized by

A. pancreatic acid

B. duodenal secretion

C. large intestine secretion

D. bile juice

 

Q. 84 The oxygenated blood from the lungs is received by the

A. left auricle

B. left ventricle

C. right auricle

D. right ventricle

 

Q. 85 The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from splitting of

A. water

B. carbon dioxide

C. oxygen

D. light

 

Q. 86 Which one of the following depicts the correct circuit of a reflex arc?

A. effector-sensory neuron-spinal cord-motor neuron-receptor

B. receptor-sensory neuron-spinal cord-motor neuron-effector

C. receptor-sensory neuron-brain-motor neuron-effector

D. sensory neuron-receptor-brain-effector-motor neuron

 

Q. 87 If one set of chromosomes for a given plant is represented as N; in case of double fertilization, the zygote and the endosperm nucleus of a diploid plant would have how many sets of chromosomes respectively?

A. N and 2N

B. 2N and 2N

C. N and 3N

D. 2N and 3N

 

Q. 88 Consider the figure. Which one of the following is the value of the resistance between points A and B in the circuit given above?

A. 2/5 R

B. 3/5 R

C. 3/2 R

D. 4R

 

Q. 89 The absolute zero temperature is 0 Kelvin. In ⁰C unit, which one of the following is the absolute zero temperature?

A. 0⁰C

B. -100⁰C

C. -273.15⁰C

D. -173.15⁰C

 

Q. 90 Consider the following statements about visible light, UV and X-rays:

1. The wavelight of the visible light is more than that of X-rays

2. The energy of X-ray photons is higher than that of UV light photons

3. The energy of UV light photons is less than that of visible light photons

which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1,2,3

B. 1,2

C. 2,3

D. 1

 

Q. 91 The time period of oscillation of a simple pendulum having length L and mass of the bob m is given a T. If the length of the pendulum is increased to 4L and the mass of the bob is increased to 2m, then which one of the following is the new time period of oscillation?

A. T

B. 2T

C. 4T

D. T/2

 

Q. 92 The connecting cable of electrical appliance like electric iron, water heater or room heater contains three insulated copper wires of three different colors-red, green and black. Which one of the following is the correct colour code?

A. red-live wire, green-neutral wire, black-live wire

B. red-neutral wire, green-ground wire, black-live wire

C. red-live wire, green-ground wire, black- neutral wire

D. red-ground wire, green-live wire, black-neutral wire

 

Q. 93 The graphs between current (I) and voltage (V) for three linear resistors 1,2,3 are given in the figure and match it with the answer figures

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 94 Consider the following statements about a microscope and a telescope:

1. Both the eyepiece and the objective of a microscope are convex lenses

2. The focal length of the objective of a telescope is larger than the focal length of its

eyepiece

3. The magnification of a telescope increases with the increase in focal length of its

objective

4. The magnification of a microscope increases with the increase in focal length of its

objective

which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1,3

B. 1,4

C. 2,3,4

D. 1,2,3

 

Q. 95 A planet has a mass M₁ and radius R₁. The value of acceleration due to gravity on its surface is g₁. There is another planet 2, whose mass and radius both are two times that of the first planet. Which one of the following is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet 2?

A. g₁

B. 2g₁

C. g₁/2

D. g₁/4

 

Q. 96 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the solution figure using the code given

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 97 Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given in figure and match it with the solution figure

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 98 ‘Majuli’, the river island, is located in which one of the following rivers?

A. jamuna

B. padma

C. ganga

D. brahmaputra

 

Q. 99 Which one of the following Indian states has recorded negative growth of population as per census 2011?

A. manipur

B. mizoram

C. tripura

D. nagaland

 

Q. 100 Which one of the following types of cloud is characterized by continuous precipitation? 

A. cirrocumbulus

B. cumulus

C. nimbostratus

D. cumulonimbus

 

Q. 101 Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given in figure and match it with the solution figure

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 102 Which one of the following is not an agent of metamorphism?

A. heat

B. compression

C. decomposition

D. solution

 

Q. 103 The solution of which one of the following will have pH less than 7?

A. NaOH

B. KCl

C. FeCl₃

D. NaCl

 

Q. 104 Which one of the following is an oxidation-reduction reaction?

A. NaOH+HCl->NaCl+H₂O

B. CaO+H₂O->Ca(OH)₂

C. 2Mg+O₂->2MgO

D. Na₂SO₄+BaCl₂->BaSO₄+2NaCl

 

Q. 105 Which one of the following is not used as fertilizer?

A. ammonium nitrate

B. ammonium sulphide

C. ammonium phosphate

D. ammonium sulphate

 

Q. 106 Which one of the following is the chemical formula of gypsum?

A. CaSO₄.2H₂O

B. Ca₂SiO₄

C. 2CaSO₄.H₂O

D. CaSO₄

 

Q. 107 Which one of the following statements about the law of conservation of mass is correct?

A. a given compound always contains exactly same proportion of elements

B. when gases combine in a reaction, they do so in a simple ratio by volume, provided all gases are at room temperature

C. Matter can neither be created nor destroyed

D. equal volumes of all gases at same temperature and pressure contain equal number

of molecules

 

Q. 108 The wavelength of X-rays is of the order of

A. 1 A

B. 1 μm

C. 1 mm

D. 1 cm

 

Q. 109 Consider the velocity and time graph in the figure:

Which one of the following is the value of average acceleration from 8 s to 12 s?

A. 8 m/s²

B. 12 m/s²

C. 2 m/s²

D. -1 m/s²

 

Q. 110 If the focal length of a convex lens is 50 cm, which one of the following is its power?

A. +2 dioptre

B. +0.02 dioptre

C. -0.5 dioptre

D. +0.5 dioptre

 

Q. 111 A ball is released from rest and rolls down an inclined plane, as shown in the following figure, requiring 4 s to cover a distance of 100 cm along the plane as shown in the figure. Which one of the option is correct value from the solution figure of angle θ that the plane makes with the horizontal?(g=1000 cm/s²)

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 112 The coefficient of areal expansion of a material is 1.6*10⁻⁵K⁻¹. Which one of the following gives the value of coefficient of volume expansion of this material?

A. 0.8*10⁻⁵K⁻¹

B. 2.4*10⁻⁵K⁻¹

C. 3.2*10⁻⁵K⁻¹

D. 4.8*10⁻⁵K⁻¹

 

Q. 113 The refractive indices of two media are denoted by n₁ and n₂, and the velocities of light v₁ and v₂. If n₁/n₂ is 1.5, which one of the following statements is correct?

A. v₁ is 1.5 times v₂

B. v₂ is 1.5 times v₁

C. v₁ is equal to v₂

D. v₁ is 3 times v₂

 

Q. 114 Which one of the following greenhouse gases is in largest concentration in the atmosphere 

A. chlorofluorocarbon

B. nitrous oxide

C. carbon dioxide

D. methane

 

Q. 115 Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given in figure and match it with the solution figure

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 116 Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given in figure and match it with the solution figure

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 117 Which one of the following is the correct descending order of Indian states in terms of sex ratio as per census 2011?

A. mizoram-manipur-tripura-meghalaya

B. tripura-manipur-meghalaya-mizoram

C. meghalaya-manipur-mizoram-tripura

D. manipur-meghalaya-tripura-mizoram

 

Q. 118 Steppe(temperature continental) climate is not experienced in which one of the following places?

A. pretoria

B. saskatchewan

C. perth

D. buenos aires

 

Q. 119 Which one of the following is not a process of chemical weathering?

A. solution

B. carbonation

C. oxidation

D. exfoliation

 

Q. 120 Which one of the following statements is correct for a plane mirror?

A. its focal length is zero

B. the size of the image of an object placed in front of the mirror is slightly less than that of the object

C. the image is virtual, erect and laterally inverted

D. the focal length is 200 cm

 

Q. 121 An object is placed in front of a convex mirror. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. it will never form an inverted image

B. the image moves towards the focus when the object moves towards the mirror

C. depending on the position of the object with respect to the mirror, the image can be

inverted and real

D. the size of the image becomes larger than that of the object when the object is placed at a distance equal to half of the focal length

 

Q. 122 A circular coil of radius R having N number of turns carries a steady current I. The magnetic induction at the centre of the coil is 0.1 tesla. If the number of turns is doubled and the radius is halved, which one of the following will be the correct value for the magnetic induction at the centre of the coil?

A. 0.05 tesla

B. 0.2 tesla

C. 0.4 tesla

D. 0.8 tesla

 

Q. 123 Which one among the following is not a fundamental right under the constitution of india?

A. right to equality

B. right to freedom

C. right to citizenship

D. right against exploitation

 

Q. 124 Which one of the following crops was introduced by the portuguese in india?

A. opium

B. coffee

C. betel leaf

D. chili

 

Q. 125 Consider the following statements about merchant guilds of south india:

1. Ayyavole merchant guild was originally established in Aihole

2. Manigraman merchant guild was subordinated to the Anjuvannam merchant guild in the 13th century

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. both 1,2

D. neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 126 Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched and mark is with the solution figure?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 127 When did the stamp act congress consisting of delegates from 9 of the 13 colonies of america meet in new york city?

A. 1763

B. 1764

C. 1765

D. 1766

 

Q. 128 Who among the following travellers was from italy and visited vijayanagar kingdom in the fifteenth century?

A. nikitin

B. fa-hien

C. bernier

D. nicolo conti

 

Q. 129 Where did the french east india company first establish its factory in india?

A. calicut

B. surat

C. pondicherry

D. masulipatnam

 

Q. 130 The central vigilance commission was established on the recommendation of which one of the following committees?

A. santhanam committee

B. dinesh goswami committee

C. tarkunde committee

D. narasimham committee

 

Q. 131 Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched and mark it with the solution figure 

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 

Q. 132 Which one of the following is the official mascot of the FIFA world cup, 2018?

A. fuleco

B. zakumi

C. pille

D. zabivaka

 

Q. 133 The headquarters of the proposed national sports university (as per the national sports university ordinance, 2018) will be set up in

A. chattisgarh

B. manipur

C. kerala

D. west bengal

 

Q. 134 Sentosa island, which was in news recently, is located in

A. singapore

B. china

C. australia

D. sri lanka

 

Q. 135 India, in june 2018,asserted that any mega connectivity project must respect sovereignty and territorial integrity of the countries. The project referred to above is

A. north-south corridor project

B. belt and road initiative

C. chabahar fort

D. panama canal expansion

 

Q. 136 Who among the following is not a member of G7?

A. france

B. germany

C. russia

D. japan

 

Q. 137 Who among the following leaders started the indian home rule league?

A. gopal krishna gokhale

B. mahatma gandhi

C. bal gangadhar tilak

D. J.B.Kripalani

 

Q. 138 Every judge of the supreme court of india is appointed by

A. the supreme court collegium

B. the cabinet

C. the president of india

D. the lok sabha

 

Q. 139 The nehru-mahalanobis strategy of development was implemented for the first time by which one of the following five-year plans?

A. first five-year plan

B. second five-year plan

C. third five-year plan

D. seventh five-year plan

 

Q. 140 Which one of the following is not a part of the directive principles of state policy as enshrined in the constitution on india?

A. equal justice and free legal aid

B. protection of monuments and places and objects of national importance

C. protection of personal law

D. separation of judiciary from executive

 

Q. 141 The word ‘socialist’ was inserted into the preamble to the constitution of india through which one of the following amendment acts?

A. 41st amendment act

B. 42nd amendment act

C. 43rd amendment act

D. 44th amendment act

 

Q. 142 The place of english east india company settlement in madras was known as

A. fort william

B. for St. George

C. elphinstone circle

D. marble palace

 

Q. 143 Which one of the following indian states(other than himalayan or NE states) ranked first in the composite water management index as per the report issued by the NITI Aayog in june 2018?

A. madhya pradesh

B. karnataka

C. gujarat

D. maharashtra

 

Q. 144 Who among the following is the ex office chairman of the north eastern council ?

A. the president of india

B. the prime minister of india

C. the union home minister

D. the union minister of state(independent charge), ministry of development of north

eastern region

 

Q. 145 Which one of the following is the theme of the world blood donor day, 2018?

A. blood connects us all

B. be there for someone else. Give blood. Share life

C. Give blood. GIve now. GIve often

D. Thank you for saving my life

 

Q. 146 ‘Serve Bhoj Yojana’, a scheme of the Government of India that seeks to reimburse Central share of CGST and IGST on food/ prasad/ langar/ bhandara offered by religious institutions, is introduced recently by which one of the following mnistrics? 

A. the ministry of culture

B. the ministry of home affairs

C. the ministry of consumer affairs, food and public distribution

D. the ministry of social justice and empowerment

 

Q. 147 Dr. Bindeshwar Pathak, who was awarded Nikkei Asia Prize, 2018 for Culture and Community, is the founder of

A. Bachpan Bachao Andolan

B. PRS Legislative Research

C. Sulabh Sanitation and Social Reform Movement

D. Smile Foundation

 

Q. 148 Article 352 of the constitution of india contains provisions related to

A. financial emergency

B. failure of constitutional machinery in states

C. suspension of the enforcement of rights conferred in part III of the constitution

D. general emergency

 

Q. 149 The Theosophical Society was led by

A. A.O.Hume

B. Arthur Griffith

C. Annie Besant

D. Lord Dufferin

 

Q. 150 Which one of the following statements about Bipin Chandra Pal is correct?

A. He was a member of the moderate group of Congress

B. He was a member of the extremist group of Congress

C. He was the member of Defence in the first Government of Independent of India

D. He was the chief Minister of west bengal

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C C C B A A A D C B
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer C D D C B C B C B C
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer C B A D C C B A A C
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer A C B B A B A C D C
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer D C B B B A D A D A
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer B A A A B A A D A C
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer A B D C C C D A C B
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer A B A B B D B C A D
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer D A A A A B D B C B
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B C B D C B C D D D
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer B C C C B A C A D A
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer C B A C A D C C D C
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer A C C D C C C D D A
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer C D B A B C C C B C
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer B B C C A A C C C B

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