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NEET 2013 Previous Year Paper

Mass Communication Courses After 12th
April 10, 2019
NEET 2018 Previous Year Paper
April 12, 2019

NEET 2013

Section

Questions

Marks

Physics

45 Questions (1 – 45)

180

Chemistry

45 Questions (46 – 90)

180

Biology

90 Questions (91 – 180)

360

Q. 1 In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows : P = (a^3)(b^2)/cd. % error in P is —

A. 14%

B. 10%

C. 7%

D. 4%

 

Q. 2 The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is (2i + 3j) m/s. Its velocity (in m/s) at point B is —

A. – 2i – 3j

B. – 2i + 3j

C. 2i – 3j

D. 2i + 3j

 

Q. 3 A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances h1, h2 and h3 in the first 5 seconds, the next 5 seconds and the next 5 seconds respectively. The relation between h1, h2 and h3 is —

A. h1 = 2(h2) = 3(h3)

B. h1 = (h2)/3 = (h3)/5

C. h2 = 3(h1) and h3 = 3(h2)

D. h1 = h2 = h3

 

Q. 4 Three blocks with masses m, 2m and 3m are connected by strings, as shown in the figure. After an upward force F is applied on block m, the masses move upward at constant speed v. What is the net force on the block of mass 2m? (g is the acceleration due to gravity)

A. zero

B. 2 mg

C. 3 mg

D. 6 mg

 

Q. 5 The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination x is perfectly smooth while lower half is rough. A block starting from rest at the top of the plane will again come to rest at the bottom, if the coefficient of friction between the block and lower half of the plane is given by —

A. 1/tan(x)

B. 2/tan(x)

C. 2tan(x)

D. tan(x)

 

Q. 6 A uniform force of (3i + j) newton acts on a particle of mass 2kg. Hence the particle is displaced from position (2i + k) meter to position (4i + 3j – k) meter. The work done by the force on the particle is —

A. 9 J

B. 6 J

C. 13 J

D. 15 J

 

Q. 7 An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal plane. Two of them go off at right angles to each other. The first part of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 12 m/s and the second part of mass 2 kg moves with 8 m/s speed. If the third part flies off with 4 m/s speed, then its mass is —

A. 3 kg

B. 5 kg

C. 7 kg

D. 17 kg

 

Q. 8 A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end P. The rod is kept horizontal by a massless string tied to point Q as shown in figure. When string is cut, the initial angular acceleration of the rod is —

A. 3g/2L

B. g/L

C. 2g/L

D. 2g/3L

 

Q. 9 A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity ‘v’. It reaches upto a maximum height of 3v^2/4g with respect to the initial position. The object is —

A. Ring

B. Solid sphere

C. Hollow sphere

D. Disc

 

Q. 10 A body of mass ‘m’ is taken from the earth’s surface to the height equal to twice the radius (R) of the earth. The change in potential energy of body will be —

A. mg2R

B. (2/3)mgR

C. 3mgR

D. (1/3)mgR

 

Q. 11 Infinite number of bodies, each of mass 2 kg are situated on x-axis at distances 1 m, 2 m, 4 m, 8 m, respectively, from the origin. The resulting gravitational potential due to this system at the origin will be —

A. -G

B. -8/3 G

C. -4/3 G

D. -4G

 

Q. 12 The following four wires are made of the same material. Which of these will have the largest extension when the same tension is applied?

A. length = 50 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm

B. length = 100 cm, diameter = 1 mm

C. length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm

D. length = 300 cm, diameter = 3 mm

 

Q. 13 The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on —

A. viscosity

B. surface tension

C. density

D. angle of contact between the surface and the liquid

 

Q. 14 The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by C and c, respectively. If ratio of specific heats = C/c and R is the universal gas constant, then c is equal to —

A. 1+(ratio of specific heats)/1-(ratio of specific heats)

B. R/[(ratio of specific heats)-1]

C. [(ratio of specific heats)-1]/R

D. (ratio of specific heats)R

 

Q. 15 A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow and finally turns to white hot. The correct explanation for the above observation is possible by using —

A. Stefan’s law

B. Wien’s displacement law

C. Kirchoff’s law

D. Newton’s law of cooling

 

Q. 16 A gas is taken through the cycle A —> B —> C —> A, as shown. What is the network done by the gas?

"Image B —> C —> A, as shown. What is the network done by the gas?”/>

A. 2000 J

B. 1000 J

C. zero

D. -2000 J

 

Q. 17 During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its temperature. The ratio of Cp/Cv for the gas is —

A. 4/3

B. 2

C. 5/3

D. 3/2

 

Q. 18 In the given (V – T) diagram, what is the relation between pressures P1 and P2?

A. P2 = P1

B. P2 > P1

C. P2 < P1

D. cannot be predicted

 

Q. 19 The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 g of Helium at NTP, from (T1)K to (T2)K is —

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 20 A wave travelling in the +ve x-direction having displacement along y-direction as 1 m, wavelength 2(pi)m and frequency of 1/pi Hz is represented by —

A. y = sin(x – 2t)

B. y = sin(2pix – 2(pi)t)

C. y = sin(10(pi)x – 20(pi)t)

D. y = sin(2(pi)x + 2(pi)t)

 

Q. 21 If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends, then the following statement is not true —

A. Open end will be antinode

B. Odd harmonies of the fundamental frequency will be generated

C. All harmonies of the fundamental frequency will be generated

D. Pressure change will be maximum at both ends

 

Q. 22 A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s, when sounded with a source of known frequency 250 Hz. The second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives five beats per second, when sounded with a source of frequency 513 Hz. The unknown frequency is —

A. 254 Hz

B. 246 Hz

C. 240 Hz

D. 260 Hz

 

Q. 23 Two pith balls carrying equal charges are suspended from a common point by strings of equal length, the equilibrium separation between them is r. Now the strings are rigidly clamped at half the height. The equilibrium separation between the balls now become —

A. (1/root of 2)^2

B. (r/cube root of 2)

C. (2r/root of 3)

D. (2r/3)

 

Q. 24 A, B and C are three points in a uniform electric field. The electric potential is —

A. maximum at A

B. maximum at B

C. maximum at C

D. same at all the three points A, B and C

 

Q. 25 A wire of resistance 4 ohm is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of stretched wire would be —

A. 2 ohm

B. 4 ohm

C. 8 ohm

D. 16 ohm

 

Q. 26 he internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 0.2A through a resistance of 10 ohm is —

A. 0.2 ohm

B. 0.5 ohm

C. 0.8 ohm

D. 1.0 ohm

 

Q. 27 The resistances of the four arms P, Q, R and S in a Wheatstone’s bridge are 10 ohm, 30 ohm, 30 ohm and 90 ohm, respectively. The e.m.f and internal resistance of the cell are 7 volt and 5 ohm respectively. If the galvanometer resistance is 50 ohm, the current drawn from the cell will be —

A. 1.0 A

B. 0.2 A

C. 0.1 A

D. 2.0 A

 

Q. 28 When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration a towards west . When it is projected towards north with a speed v it moves with an initial accelration 3a toward west. The electric and magnetic fields in the room are —

A. ma/e west, 2ma/ev up

B. ma/e west, 2ma/ev down

C. ma/e east, 3ma/ev up

D. ma/e east, 3ma/ev down

 

Q. 29 A current loop in a magnetic field —

A. experiences a torque whether the field is uniform or non-uniform in all orientations

B. can be in equilibrium in one orientation

C. can be in equilibrium in two orientations, both the equilibrium states are unstable

D. can be in equilibrium in two orientations, one stable while the other is unstable

 

Q. 30 A bar magnet of length ‘l”and magnetic dipole moment ‘M’ is bent in the form of an arc as shown in figure. The new magnetic dipole moment will be —

A. M

B. 3/pi M

C. 2/pi M

D. M/2

 

Q. 31 A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field. The frequency of change of direction of the induced e.m.f. is —

A. once per revolution

B. twice per revolution

C. four times per revolution

D. six times per revolution

 

Q. 32 A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of the bulb decreases when —

A. frequency of the AC source is decreased

B. number of turns in the coil is reduced

C. a capacitance of reactance X of C = X of L is included in the same circuit

D. an iron rod is inserted in the coil

 

Q. 33 The condition under which a microwave oven heats up a food item containing water molecules most efficiently is —

A. The frequency of the microwaves must match the resonant frequency of water molecules

B. The frequency of the microwaves has no relation with natural frequency of water molecules

C. Microwaves are heat waves, so always produce heating

D. Infra-red waves produce heating in a microwave oven

 

Q. 34 Ratio of longest wave lengths corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is —

A. 5/27

B. 3/23

C. 7/29

D. 9/31

 

Q. 35 The half-life of a radioactive isotope ‘X’ is 20 years. It decays to another element ‘Y’ which is stable. The two elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’ were found to be in the ratio 1:7 in a sample of a given rock. The age of the rock is estimated to be —

A. 40 years

B. 60 years

C. 80 years

D. 100 years

 

Q. 36 A certain mass of Hydrogen is changed to Helium by the process of fusion. The mass defect in fusion reaction is 0.02866 u. The energy liberated per u is — (Given 1 u = 931 MeV)

A. 2.67 MeV

B. 26.7 MeV

C. 6.675 MeV

D. 13.35 MeV

 

Q. 37 For photoelectric emission from certain metal the cutoff frequency is v/ If radiation of frequency 2v impinges on the metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted electron will be (m is the electron mass) —

A. Root of (hv/2m)

B. Root of (hv/m)

C. Root of (2hv/m)

D. 2[root of (hv/m)]

 

Q. 38 The wavelength of an electron and wavelength of a photon of same energy E are related by —

A. Wavelength of photon is proportional to (wavelength of electron)^2

B. Wavelength of photon is proportional to wavelength of electron

C. Wavelength of photon is proportional to root of wavelength of electron

D. Wavelength of photon is proportional to 1/(root of wavelength of electron)

 

Q. 39 A piano convex lens fits exactly into a piano concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other. If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices u1 and u2 and R is the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of the combination is —

A. R/2(u1 + u2)

B. R/2(u1 – u2)

C. R/(u1 – u2)

D. 2R/(u2 u1)

 

Q. 40 For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a converging power of 40D and the least converging power of the ye lens h=behind the cornea is 20D. Using this information, the distance between the retina and the cornea-eye lens can be estimated to be —

A. 5 cm

B. 2.5 cm

C. 1.67 cm

D. 1.5 cm

 

Q. 41 In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths 12000 A and 10000 A respectively. At what minimum distance from the common central bright fringe on the screen 2m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other?

A. 8 mm

B. 6 mm

C. 4 mm

D. 3 mm

 

Q. 42 A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased, which of the following statements is correct?

A. Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the case of electrons

B. The angular width of the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will increase

C. The angular width of the central maximum will decrease

D. The angular width of the central maximum will be unaffected

 

Q. 43 In a n-type semiconductor, which of the following statements is true —

A. Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants

B. Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants

C. Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants

D. Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants

 

Q. 44 In a common emitter (CE) amplifier having a voltage gain G, the transistor used has transconductance 0.03 ho and current gain 25. If the above transistor is replaced with another one with transconductance 0.02 mho and current gain 20, the voltage gain will be —

A. 2/3 G

B. 1.5 G

C. 1/3 G

D. 5/4 G

 

Q. 45 The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure will be —

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 46 The value of Planck’s constant is 6.63 x 10^(-34) Js. The speed of light is 3 x 10^17 nm/s. Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light with frequency of 6 x 10^15/s?

A. 10

B. 25

C. 50

D. 75

 

Q. 47 What is the maximum number of electrons that can be associated with the following set of numbers?

n = 3, l = 1 and m = -1

A. 10

B. 6

C. 4

D. 2

 

Q. 48 What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised from 20 degrees C to 35 degrees C? (R = 8.314 J/molK)

A. 342 kJ/mol

B. 269 kJ/mol

C. 34.7 kJ/mol

D. 15.1 kJ/mol

 

Q. 49 A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping platinum wire in a solution of HCl of pH = 10 and by passing hydrogen gas around the platinum wire at one atm pressure. The oxidation potential of electrode would be?

A. 0.059 V

B. 0.59 V

C. 0.118 V

D. 1.18 V

 

Q. 50 A reaction having equal energies of activation for forward and reverse reactions has —

A. Change in S = 0

B. Change in G = 0

C. Change in H = 0

D. Change in H = Change in G = Change in S = 0

 

Q. 51 At 25 degrees C, molar conductance of 0.1 molar aqueous solution of ammonium hydroxide is 9.54 (ohm)^-1 (cm)^2 (mol)^-1 and at infinite dilution its molar conductance is 238 (ohm)^-1 (cm)^2 (mol)^-1 . The degree of ammonium hydroxide at the same concentration and temperature is —

A. 2.080%

B. 20.800%

C. 4.008%

D. 40.800%

 

Q. 52 Based on equation E = -2.178 x 10^18J(Z^2/n^2), certain conclusions are written. Which of them is not correct?

A. The negative sign in equation simply means that the energy of electron bound to the nucleus is lower than it would be if the electrons were at the infinite distance from the nucleus.

B. Larger the value of n, the larger is the orbit radius.

C. Equation can be used to calculate the change in energy when the electron changes orbit.

D. For n = 1, the electron has a more negative energy than it does for n = 6 which means that the electron is more loosely bound in the smallest allowed orbit.

 

Q. 53 A button cell used in watches functions as following.

The cell potential will be —

 

A. 1.10 V

B. 0.42 V

C. 0.84 V

D. 1.34 V

 

Q. 54 How many grams of concentrated nitric acid solutions should be used to prepare 250 mL of 2.0 M HNO3? The concentrated acid is 70% HNO3.

A. 45.0 g conc. HNO3

B. 90.0 g conc. HNO3

C. 70.0 g conc. HNO3

D. 54.0 g conc. HNO3

 

Q. 55 The number of carbon atoms per unit cell of diamond unit cell is —

A. 4

B. 8

C. 6

D. 1

 

Q. 56 Maximum deviation from ideal gas is expected from :

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 57 A metal has a fee lattice. The edge length of the unit cell is 404 pm. The density of the metal is 2.72 g cm^-1. The molar mass of the metal is :

[Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 x 10^23 mol^-1]

A. 40 g mol^-1

B. 30 g mol^-1

C. 27 g mol^-1

D. 20 g mol^-1

 

Q. 58 Dipole-induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs :

A. H20 and alcohol

B. Cl2 and CCl4

C. HCl and He atoms

D. SiF4 and He atoms

 

Q. 59 A magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be shown by one among the following –

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 60 Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a byproduct. This is colorless gas with choking smell of burnt sulphur and causes great damage to respiratory organs as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous solution is acidic , acts as a reducing agent and its acid has never been isolated. The gas X is —

A. H2S

B. SO2

C. CO2

D. SO3

 

Q. 61 Which is the strongest acid in the following?

A. H2SO4

B. HClO3

C. HClO4

D. H2SO3

 

Q. 62 Which of the following is paramagnetic?

A. CO

B. O2^-

C. CN^-

D. NO^+

 

Q. 63 Which of the following structure is similar to graphite?

A. BN

B. B

C. B4C

D. B2H6

 

Q. 64 The basic structural unit of silicates is —

A. SiO^-

B. SiO4^4-

C. SiO3^2-

D. SiO4^2-

 

Q. 65 Reaction by which Benzaldehyde cannot be prepared —

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 66 Which of the following does not give oxygen on heating?

A. KClO3

B. Zn(ClO3)2

C. K2Cr2O7

D. (NH4)2Cr2O7

 

Q. 67 Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic? (At. No. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Yb = 70)

A. Ce^2+

B. Sm^2+

C. Eu^2+

D. Yb^2+

 

Q. 68 Identify the correct order of solubility in aqueous medium —

A. CuS > ZnS > Na2S

B. ZnS > Na2S > CuS

C. Na2S > CuS > ZnS

D. Na2S > ZnS > CuS

 

Q. 69 XeF2 is isostructural with —

A. TeF2

B. ICl2^-

C. SbCl3

D. BaCl2

 

Q. 70 An excess of AgNo3 is added to 100mL of a 0.01 M solution of dichlorotetra aquachrominum (III) chloride. The number of moles of AgCl precipitated

would be —

A. 0.001

B. 0.002

C. 0.003

D. 0.01

 

Q. 71 Which of these is least likely to act as a Lewis base?

A. CO

B. F^-

C. BF3

D. PF3

 

Q. 72 KMnO4 can be prepared from K2MnO4 as per the given reaction.

The reaction can go to completion by removing OH^- ions by adding —

A. HCl

B. KOH

C. CO2

D. SO2

 

Q. 73 Which of the following is electron-deficient?

A. (CH3)2

B. (SiH3)2

C. (BH3)2

D. PH3

 

Q. 74 Structure of the compound whose IUPAC name is 3-Ethyl-2hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5- ynoic acid is —

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 75 Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicone polymer?

A. MeSiCl3

B. Me2SiCl2

C. Me3SiCl

D. PhSiCl3

 

Q. 76 Which of the following statements about the interstitial compounds is incorrect?

A. They retain metallic conductivity

B. They are chemically reactive

C. They are much harder than the pure metal

D. They have higher melting points than the pure metal

 

Q. 77 Which one of the following molecules contains no pi bond?

A. CO2

B. H2O

C. SO2

D. NO2

 

Q. 78 Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microrganisms. Identify which of the following statements is not true —

A. A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1% solution acts as a disinfectant

B. Chlorine and Iodine are used as strong disinfectants

C. Dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics

D. Disinfectants harm the living tissues

 

Q. 79 Among the following ethers, which one will produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot concentrated HI?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 80 Nylon is an example of —

A. Polyester

B. Polysaccharide

C. Polyamide

D. Polythene

 

Q. 81 The structure of isobutyl group in an organic compound is —

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 82 Nitrobenzene on reaction with conc. HNO3/H2SO4 at 80-100 degrees C forms which one of the following products?

A. 1,2-Dinitrobenzene

B. 1,3-Dinitrobenzene

C. 1,4-Dinitrobenzene

D. 1,2,4-Trinitrobenzene

 

Q. 83 Some meta-directing substitution in aromatic substitution are given. Which one is most deactivating?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 84 6.02 x 10^20 molecules of urea are present in 100mL of its solution. The concentration of solution is —

A. 0.02 M

B. 0.01 M

C. 0.001 M

D. 0.1 M

 

Q. 85 Which of the following is a polar molecule?

A. BF3

B. SF4

C. SiF4

D. XeF4

 

Q. 86 Which is the monomer of Neoprene in the following?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 87 In the reaction, A is —

A. HgSO4/H2SO4

B. Cu2Cl2

C. H3PO2 and H2O

D. H^+/H2O

 

Q. 88 The given radical is aromatic because it has —

A. 6 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons

B. 7 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons

C. 7 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons

D. 6 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons

 

Q. 89 The order of stability of the following tautomeric compounds is —

A. I>II>III

B. III>II>I

C. II>I>III

D. II>III>I

 

Q. 90 Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedal-Craft reaction easily —

A. Cumene

B. Xylene

C. Nitrobenzene

D. Toluene

 

Q. 91 Select the wrong statement:

A. Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour

B. Anisogametes differ either in structure, function of behaviour

C. In Oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-motile

D. Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy

 

Q. 92 Which one of the following is not a correct statement?

A. Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens

B. Botanical gardens have collection of living plants for reference

C. A museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals

D. Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of specimens

 

Q. 93 Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in:

A. Chlamydomonas

B. Spirogyra

C. Volvox

D. Fucus

 

Q. 94 Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria are also found inside vegetative part of:

A. Pinus

B. Cycus

C. Equisetum

D. Psilotum

 

Q. 95 Megasporangium is equivalent to :

A. Embryo sac

B. Fruit

C. Nucellus

D. Ovule

 

Q. 96 Read the following (A-E) and answer the question which follows them :

(A) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free-living

(B) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous

(C) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is oogameous

(D) The sporophytes in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses

(E) Both, Pinus and Marchentia are dioecious

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

 

Q. 97 Among bitter gourd, mustard, brinjal, pumpkin, china rose, lupin, cucumber, sunnhemp, gram, guava, bean, chilli, plum, petunia, tomato, rose, withania, potato, onion, aloe and tulip how many plants have hypogynous flower?

A. Six

B. Ten

C. Fifteen

D. Eighteen

 

Q. 98 Interfascicular cambium develops from the cells of :

A. Medullary rays

B. Xylem parenchyma

C. Endodermis

D. Pericycle

 

Q. 99 In china rose the flowers are :

A. Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation

B. Actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate aestivation

C. Zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate aestivation

D. Zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation

 

Q. 100 Lenticels are involved in

A. Transpiration

B. Gaseous exchange

C. Food transport

D. Photosynthesis

 

Q. 101 Age of a tree can be estimated by :

A. Its height and girth

B. Biomass

C. Number of annual rings

D. Diameter of its heartwood

 

Q. 102 Seed coat is not thin membranous in :

A. Maize

B. Coconut

C. Groundnut

D. Gram

 

Q. 103 Transition state structure of the substate formed during an enzymatic reaction is

A. Transient but stable

B. Permanent but unstable

C. Transient and unstable

D. Permanent and stable

 

Q. 104 A phosphoglyceride is always made up of :

A. Only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached

B. Only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached

C. A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached

D. A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is also attached to a glycerol molecule

 

Q. 105 Pigment-containing membranous extensions in some cyanobacteria are

A. Heterocysts

B. Basal bodies

C. Pneumatophores

D. Chromatophores

 

Q. 106 A major site for synthesis of lipids is :

A. RER

B. SER

C. Symplast

D. Nucleoplasm

 

Q. 107 The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called :

A. Equatorial plate

B. Kinetochore

C. Bivalent

D. Axoneme

 

Q. 108 The three boxes in this diagram represent thee three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic respiration. Arrows represent net reactants or products.

Arrows numbered 4, 8, and 12 can all be

A. NADH

B. ATP

C. H2O

D. FAD^+ or FADH2

 

Q. 109 The most abundant intracellular cation is :

A. Na^+

B. Ca^++

C. H^+

D. K^+

 

Q. 110 During seed germination its stored food is mobilized by :

A. Ethylene

B. Cytokinin

C. ABA

D. Gibberellin

 

Q. 111 Which of the following criteria does not pertain to facilitated transport?

A. Requirement of special membrane proteins

B. High selectivity

C. Transport saturation

D. Uphill transport

 

Q. 112 The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants is :

A. NO2^-

B. Ammonia

C. NO3^-

D. Glutamate

 

Q. 113 Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?

A. Glucose-6-phosphate

B. Fructose1, 6-bisphosphate

C. Pyruvic acid

D. Acetyl CoA

 

Q. 114 Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine

B. Sporogenous tissue is haploid

C. Endothecium produces the mocrosphores

D. Tapetum nourishes the devloping pollen

 

Q. 115 Product of sexual reproduction generally generates :

A. Longer viability of seeds

B. Prolonged dormancy

C. New genetic combination leading to variation

D. Large biomass

 

Q. 116 Meiosis takes place in :

A. Meiocyte

B. Conidia

C. Gemmule

D. Megaspore

 

Q. 117 Advantage of cleistogamy is :

A. Higher genetic variability

B. More vigorous offspring

C. No dependence on pollinators

D. Vivipary

 

Q. 118 Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of :

A. Antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant

B. Stamen and carpel on the same plant

C. Upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant

D. Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant

 

Q. 119 Perisperm differs from endosperm in :

A. Being a haploid tissue

B. Having no reserve food

C. Being a diploid tissue

D. Its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with several sperms

 

Q. 120 Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50% recombination frequency?

A. The genes may be on different chromosomes

B. The genes are tightly linked

C. The genes show independent assortment

D. If the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than one crossovers in every meiosis.

 

Q. 121 Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is referred to as :

A. Genetic flow

B. Genetic drift

C. Random mating

D. Genetic load

 

Q. 122 If two persons with ‘AB’ blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of children, these children could be classified as ‘A’ blood group : ‘AB’ blood group : ‘B’ blood group in 1:2:1 ratio. Modern technique of protein electrophoresis reveals presence of both ‘A’ and “B’ type proteins in ‘AB’ blood group individuals. This is an example of :

A. Codominance

B. Incomplete dominance

C. Partial dominance

D. Complete dominance

 

Q. 123 The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge is called :

A. Natural selection

B. Convergent evolution

C. Non-random evolution

D. Adaptive radiation

 

Q. 124 The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by :

A. random mating

B. lack of migration

C. lack of mutations

D. lack of random mating

 

Q. 125 Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers?

A. Maize

B. Cotton

C. Brinjal

D. Soybean

 

Q. 126 A good product of citric acid is :

A. Aspergillus

B. Pseudomonas

C. Clostridium

D. Saccharomyces

 

Q. 127 DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by :

A. Centrifugation

B. Polymerase chain reaction

C. Electrophoresis

D. Restriction mapping

 

Q. 128 Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme?

A. Bacteria-Lysozyme

B. Plant cells- Cellulase

C. Algae-Methylase

D. Fungi – Chitinase

 

Q. 129 The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of nonrecombinant bacteria because of :

A. Non-recombinant bacteria containing betagalactosidase

B. Insertional inactivation of alphagalactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria

C. Insertional inactivation of alphagalactosidase in recombinant bacteria

D. Inactivation of glycosidase in recombinant bacteria

 

Q. 130 Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water?

A. Archaebacteria

B. Eubacteria

C. Blue-green algae

D. Saprophytic fungi

 

Q. 131 Natural reservoir of phosphorus is :

A. Sea water

B. Animal bones

C. Rock

D. Fossils

 

Q. 132 Secondart productivity is rate of formation of new organic matter by :

A. Producer

B. Parasite

C. Consumer

D. Decomposer

 

Q. 133 Which one of the following is not used for ex situ plant conservation?

A. Field gene banks

B. Seed banks

C. Shifting cultivation

D. Botanical Gardens

 

Q. 134 Kyoto-Protocol was endorsed at :

A. CoP-3

B. CoP-5

C. CoP-6

D. CoP-4

 

Q. 135 Which of the following represent maximum number of species among global biodiversity?

A. Algae

B. Lichens

C. Fungi

D. Mosses and Ferns

 

Q. 136 Match the name of the animal, with one characteristic, and the phylum/class to which it belongs :

A. Petromyson – ectroparasite – Cyclostomata

B. Ichthyophis – terrestrial – Reptilia

C. Limulus – body covered by chitinous exoskeleton – Pisces

D. Adamsia – radially symmetrical – Porifera

 

Q. 137 Which of the following are correctly matched with respect of their taxonomic classification?

A. Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish – Pisces

B. Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion – Insecta

C. House fly, butterfly, tsetsefly, silverfish – Insecta

D. Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumber-Echinodermata

 

Q. 138 Which group of animals belong to the same phylum?

A. Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito

B. Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm

C. Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta

D. Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish

 

Q. 139 One of the representatives of Phylum Arthropoda is :

A. cuttlefish

B. silverfish

C. pufferfish

D. flying fish

 

Q. 140 The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to —

A. the absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band

B. the central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band

C. the central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the Aband

D. extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band

 

Q. 141 What external changes are visible after the last moult of a cockroach nymph?

A. Mandibles become harder

B. Anal cerci develop

C. Both fore wings and hind wings develop

D. Labium develops

 

Q. 142 The Golgi complex plays a major role :

A. in trapping the light and transforming it into chemical energy

B. in digensting proteins and carbohydrattes

C. as energy transferring organelles

D. in post translational modification of proteins and glycosidation of lipids

 

Q. 143 Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function?

A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of glycoproteins

B. Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis

C. Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids

D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis

 

Q. 144 Macro molecule chitin is :

A. nitrogen containing polysaccharide

B. phosphorus containing polysaccharide

C. sulphur containing polysaccharide

D. simple polysaccharide

 

Q. 145 The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are :

A. Proteins

B. Nucleic acids

C. Carbohydrates

D. Vitamins

 

Q. 146 A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct identification of the stage with its characteristics.

A. Telophase – nuclear envelop reforms, golgi complex reforms

B. Late anaphase – chromosomes move away from equatorial plate, golgi complex not present

C. Cytokinesis – cell plate formed, mitochondria distributed between two daughter cells

D. Telophase – endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus not reformed yet

 

Q. 147 Select the correct match of the digested products in humans with their absorption site and mechanism.

Column I Column II
(1) Glycine, glucose Small intestine, active
(2) Fructose, Na* Small instestine, passive absorption
(3) Glycerol, fatty acids Duodemum, move as chilomicrons
(4) Cholesterol, maltose Large intestine, active absorption

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 148 A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin.

This is the result of :

A. Deficiency of iodine in diet

B. Low secretion of growth hormone

C. Cancer of the thyroid gland

D. Over secretion of pars distalis

 

Q. 149 The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D. Select the option which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic.

A. A-trachea long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air

B. B-pleural membrane — surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing.

C. C-Alveoli — thin walled vascular bag like structures for exchange of gases.

D. D-Lower end of lungs — diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration.

 

Q. 150 Figure shows schematic plant of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Identify the label and give its function/s.

A. A-Pulmonary vein — takes impure blood from body parts, PO2 = 60 mm Hg

B. B-Pulmonary artery — takes blood from heart to lungs, PO2 = 90 mm Hg

C. C-Vena Cava — takes blood from body parts to right auricle, PCO2 = 45 mm Hg

D. D-Dorsal aorta — takes blood from heart to body parts, PO2 = 95 mm Hg

 

Q. 151 The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the :

A. Contraction of both the atria

B. Initiation of the ventricular contraction

C. Beginning of the systole

D. End of systole

 

Q. 152 Figure shows human urinary system with structures labeled A to D. Select option which correctly identifies them and given their characteristics and/or functions.

A. A-Adrenal gland-located at the anterior part of Kidney. Secrete Catecholamines which stimulate glycogen breakdown

B. B-Pelvis= broad funnel shaped space inner to hilum, directly connected to loops of Henle.

C. C-Medulla-inner zone of kidney and contains complete nephrons.

D. D-Cortex-outer part of kidney and do not contain any part of nephrons.

 

Q. 153 Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans :

A. A decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people.

B. Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation

C. The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae.

D. The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint.

 

Q. 154 The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is :

A. Fluid cartilage between two bones, limited movements — Knee joint

B. Fluid filled between two joints, provide cushion — Skull bones

C. Fluid filled synovial cavity between two bones — Joint between atlas and axis

D. Lymph filled between two bones, limited movement — Gilding joint between carpals

 

Q. 155 A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly at least two of AD.

A. A-Receptor ; C-Synaptic vesicles

B. B-Synaptic connection ; D-K^+

C. A-Neurotransmitter ; B-Synaptic cleft

D. C-Neurotransmitter ; D-Ca^++

 

Q. 156 Parts A, B, C and D of the human eye are shown in the diagram. Select the option which gives correct identification along with its functions/characteristics :

A. A-Retina-contains photo receptors-rods and cones

B. B-Blind spot-has only a few rods and cones

C. C-Aqueous chamber-reflects the light which does not pass through the lens

D. D-choroid-its anterior part forms ciliary body

 

Q. 157 Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the endocrine system?

A. Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus

B. Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any hormones

C. Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amount that act as intercellular messenger are known as hormones

D. Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland

 

Q. 158 Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its function/deficiency symptom :

A. Anterior pituitary — Oxytocin — Stimulates uterus contraction during child birth

B. Posterior pituitary — Growth Hormone (GH) — Oversecretion stimulates abnormal growth

C. Thyroid gland — Thyroxine — Lack of iodine in diet results in goitre

D. Corpus luteum — Testosterone — stimulates spermatogenesis

 

Q. 159 What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?

A. Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatozoa

B. Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatozoa, spermatid

C. Spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatocyte, spermatid

D. Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa

 

Q. 160 Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of :

A. Progesterone

B. FSH

C. Oxytocin

D. Vasopressin

 

Q. 161 Which one of the following is not the function of placenta? It :

A. facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo

B. secretes estrogen

C. Facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo

D. Secretes oxytocin during parturition

 

Q. 162 One of the legal methods of birth control is :

A. abortion by taking an appropriate medicine

B. by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle

C. by having coitus at the time of day break

D. by a premature ejaculation during coitus

 

Q. 163 Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?

A. Klinefelter syndrome

B. Sex of the foetus

C. Down syndrome

D. jaundice

 

Q. 164 Artificial insemination means “

A. transfer of sperms pf a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova

B. transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova

C. artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina

D. introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary

 

Q. 165 Which mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the parents?

A. incomplete dominance

B. law of dominance

C. inheritance of one gene

D. co-dominance

 

Q. 166 The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is :

A. It is a sex-linked disease

B. It is a recessive disease

C. It is a dominant disease

D. A single protein involved int eh clotting of blood is affected

 

Q. 167 If both parents are carriers for thalessemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?

A. no chance

B. 50%

C. 25%

D. 100%

 

Q. 168 The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to C.

A. A-transcription, B-replication, C-James Watson

B. A-translation, B-transcription, C-Erevin Chargaff

C. A-transcription, B-translation, C-Francis Crick

D. A-translation, B-extension, C-Rosalind Franklin

 

Q. 169 Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a non-sense in the lac Y gene?

A. b-galactosidase

B. Lactose permease

C. Transacetylase

D. Lactose permease and transacetylase

 

Q. 170 According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to —

A. Intraspecific competition

B. Interspecific competition

C. Competition within closely related species

D. Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species

 

Q. 171 The ye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an example of :

A. Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

B. Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution

C. Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

D. Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution

 

Q. 172 Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by :

A. drinking water containing eggs of Adcaris

B. eating imperefectly cooked pork

C. Tse-tse fly

D. mosquito bite

 

Q. 173 The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by :

A. T-lymphocytes

B. B-lymphocytes

C. Thrombocytes

D. Erythrocytes

 

Q. 174 In plant breeding programmes, the entire collection (of plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called :

A. selection of superior recombinants

B. cross-hybridisation among the selected parents

C. evaluation and selection of parents

D. germplasm collection

 

Q. 175 During sewage treatment, biogases are produced which include :

A. methane, hydrogensulphide, carbon dioxide

B. methane, oxygen, hydrogensulphide

C. hydrogensulphode, methane, sulphur dioxide

D. hydrogensulphide nitrogen, methane

 

Q. 176 A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn, he found that the average natality was 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is :

A. 10

B. 15

C. 05

D. zero

 

Q. 177 Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described?

A. Frangmentation – carried out by organisms such as earthworm

B. Humification – Leads o the accumuation of a dark coloured substance humus which undergoes microbial action at a very fast rate

C. Catabolism – Last step in he decomposition under fully amaerobic condition

D. Leaching – Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the top layers of soil

 

Q. 178 A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell lining of hermit crab. The association is :

A. Ectoparasitism

B. Symbiosis

C. Commensalism

D. Amensalism

 

Q. 179 Global warming can be controlled Y :

A. Reducing deforestation, cutting down use fossil fuels

B. Reducing deforestation, increasing the use of fossil fuel

C. Increasing deforestation, slowing down the growth of human population

D. Increasing deforestation, reducing efficiency of energy usage

 

Q. 180 The Air Prevention and Control of Pollution act came into force in

A. 1975

B. 1981

C. 1985

D. 1990

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer A C B A C A B A D B
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer D A D B B B D C A A
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer D A B B D B B B D B
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B D A A B C C A C C
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer B C C A C C D C B C
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer C D A A B D C C A B
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer C B A B D D D D B A
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer C C C B C B B B C C
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer D B D B B C C A B C
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer C C B B D C C A A B
Question 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer C D C C D B C B D D
Question 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer D B C D C A C D C B
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer B A B D B A C C C A
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer C C C A C A C C B C
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer C D D A D A A A C C
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer A A B C A A C C D A
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer D A D C B C C C A B
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer C A A D A D A B A B

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