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NEET 2017 Previous Year Paper

NDA/NA(I) Exam 2018 General Ability Test Previous Year Paper
July 3, 2019
SSC CGL Tier-I 19 June 2011 Shift-I Previous Year Paper
July 17, 2019

NEET 2017 

Q. 1 A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make electrical measurements of E.M.F. because the method involves :

A. cells

B. potential gradients

C. a condition of no current flow through the galvanometer

D. a combination of cells, galvanometer and resistances

 

Q. 2 A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O2 and 4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is :

A. 4 RT

B. 15 RT

C. 9 RT

D. 11 RT

 

Q. 3 Radioactive material ‘A’ has decay constant ‘8 x’ and material ‘B’has decay constant ‘x’. Initially they have same number of nuclei. After what time, the ratio of number of nuclei of material ‘B’ to that ‘A’ will be 1/e?

A. 1/x

B. 1/7x

C. 1/8x

D. 1/9x

 

Q. 4 A U tube with both ends open to the atmosphere, is partially filled with water. Oil, which is immiscible with water, is poured into one side until it stands at a distance of 10 mm above the water level on the other side. Meanwhile the water level on the other side. Meanwhile the water rises by 65 mm from its original level (see diagram). The density of the oil is:

A. 650 kg m^-3

B. 425 kg m^-3

C. 800 kg m^-3

D. 928 kg m^-3

 

Q. 5 A 250-turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 uA and subjected to a magnetic field of strength 0.85 T. Work done for rotating the coil by 180 degrees against the torque is :

A. 9.1 uJ

B. 4.55 uJ

C. 2.3 uJ

D. 1.15 uJ

 

Q. 6 The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T (Kelvin) and mass m, is:

A. h/√(mkT)

B. h/√(3mkT)

C. 2h/√(3mkT)

D. 2h/√(mkT)

 

Q. 7 One end of string of length l is connected to a particle of mass ‘m’ and the other end is connected to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in circle with speed ‘v’, the net force on the particle (directed towards center) will be (T represents the tension in the string)

A. T

B. T + mv^2/l

C. T – mv^2/l

D. Zero

 

Q. 8 Figure shows a circuit that contains three identical resistors with resistance R = 9.0 ohm each, two identical inductors with inductance L = 2.0 mH each, and an ideal battery with emf = 18 V. The current ‘i’ through the battery just after the switch closed is, …..

A. 2 mA

B. 0.2 A

C. 2 A

D. 0 ampere

 

Q. 9 The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time are x = 5t – 2t^2 and y = 10t respectively, where x and y are in meters and t in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at t = 2s is: 

A. 0

B. 5 m/s^2

C. -4 m/s^2

D. -8 m/s^2

 

Q. 10 Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ slightly. One of them is -e, the other is (e + change in e). If the net of electrostatic force and gravitational force between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance d (much greater than atomic size) apart is zero, then change in e is of the order of [Given mass of hydrogen mh = 1.67 x 10^-27 kg]

A. 10^-20 C

B. 10^-23 C

C. 10^-37 C

D. 10^-47 C

 

Q. 11 Two rods A and B of different materials are welded together as shown in figure. Their thermal conductivities are K1 and K2. The thermal conductivity of the composite rod will be:

A. K1+K2/2

B. 3(K1+K2)/2

C. K1+K2

D. 2(K1+K2)

 

Q. 12 The diagrams show regions of equipotentials. A positive charge is moved from A to B in each diagram.

A. Maximum work is required to move q in figure (c).

B. In all the four cases the work done is the same.

C. Minimum work is required to move q in figure (a).

D. Maximum work is required to move q in figure (b).

 

Q. 13 The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer series and the last line of Lyman series is :

A. 2

B. 1

C. 4

D. 0.5

 

Q. 14 Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found that 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the medium is nearly:

A. 1.25

B. 1.59

C. 1.69

D. 1.78

 

Q. 15 A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 3 cm. When the particle is at 2 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity s equal to that of its acceleration. Then its time period in seconds is:

A. Root of 5/pi

B. Root of 5/2pi

C. 4pi/root of 5

D. 2pi/root of 3

 

Q. 16 Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the given diagram. Match the following: 

Column-1 Column-2

P. Process I a. Adiabatic

Q. Process II b. Isobaric

R. Process III c. Isochoric

S. Process IV d. Isothermal

A. P–>a, Q–>c, R–>d, S–>b

B. P–>c, Q–>a, R–>d, S–>b

C. P–>c, Q–>d, R–>b, S–>a

D. P–>d, Q–>b, R–>a, S–>c

 

Q. 17 A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical uncharged capacitor is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of resulting system :

A. increases by a factor of 4

B. decreases by a factor of 2

C. remains the same

D. increases by a factor of 2

 

Q. 18 The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is 3250 x 10^-10 m. The velocity of the electron ejected from a silver surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength 2536 x 10^-10 m is :

(Given h = 4.14 x 10^-15 eVs and c = 3 x 10^8 ms^-1)

A. approximately 6 x 10^5 m/s

B. approximately 0.6 x 10^4 m/s

C. approximately 61 x 10^3 m/s

D. approximately 0.3 x 10^6 m/s

 

Q. 19 A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can be formed out of c, G and e^2/4piE0 is [c is velocity of light, G is universal constant of gravitation and e is charge] :

A. 1/c^2 [G e^2/4piE0]^(1/2)

B. c^2 [G e^2/4piE0]^(1/2)

C. 1/c^2 [e^2/G4piE0]^(1/2)

D. 1/c [G e^2/4piE0]

 

Q. 20 Two cars moving in opposite directions approach each other with speed of 22 m/s and 16.5 m/s respectively. The driver of the first car blows a horn having a frequency 400 Hz. The frequency heard by the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound 340 m/s]:

A. 350 Hz

B. 361 Hz

C. 411 Hz

D. 448 Hz

 

Q. 21 In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio signal voltage across the collector is 3 V. The resistance of collector is 3 k ohm. If current gain is 100 and the base resistance is 2 k ohm, the voltage and power gain of the amplifier is:

A. 200 and 1000

B. 15 and 200

C. 150 and 15000

D. 20 and 2000

 

Q. 22 Which one of the following represents forward bias diode?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 23 A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio 1:2:3. They are connected in series and the new force constant is k’.Then they are connected in parallel and force constant is k”. Then k’:k”is :

A. 1:6

B. 1:9

C. 1:11

D. 1:14

 

Q. 24 The given electrical network is equivalent to:

A. AND gate

B. OR gate

C. NOR gate

D. NOT gate

 

Q. 25 The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km above the earth is the same as at a depth d below the surface of earth. Then :

A. d = 1/2 km

B. d = 1 km

C. d = 3/2 km

D. d = 2 km

 

Q. 26 Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the centre of gravity of the body.

(b) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which the total gravitational torque on the body is zero.

(c) A couple on a body produce both translational and rotational motion in a body.

(d) Mechanical advantage greater than one means that small effort can be used to lift a

large load.

A. (b) and (d)

B. (a) and (b)

C. (b) and (c)

D. (c) and (d)

 

Q. 27 A carnot engine having an efficiency of 1/10 as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is 10J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is:

A. 1 J

B. 90 J

C. 99 J

D. 100 J

 

Q. 28 If x1 and x2 be the apparent angles of dip observed in two vertical planes at right angles to each other, then the true angle of dip x is given by:

A. cot^2(x) = cot^2x(1) + cot^2(x2)

B. tan^(2x) = tan^2(x1) + tan^2(x2)

C. cot^(2x) = cot^2(x1) – cot^2(x2)

D. tan^(2x) = tan^2(x1) – tan^2(x2)

 

Q. 29 An arrangement of three parallel straight wires placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying same current ‘I’ along the same direction is shown in Fug. Magnitude of force per unit length on the middle wire ‘B’ is given by:

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 30 two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space after having lost contact with their spaceship. The two will:

A. keep floating at the same distance between them.

B. move towards each other.

C. move away from each other.

D. will become stationary.

 

Q. 31 In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean square value of the electric field is Erms = 6V/m. The peak value of the magnetic field is :

A. 1.41 x 10⁻⁸ T

B. 2.83 x 10⁻⁸ T

C. 0.70 x 10⁻⁸ T

D. 4.23 x 10⁻⁸ T

 

Q. 32 The bulk modulus of a spherical object is ‘B’. If it is subjected to uniform pressure ‘p’, the fractional decrease in

radius is :

A. p/B

B. B/3p

C. 3p/B

D. p/3B

 

Q. 33 The ratio of resolving powers of an optical microscope for two wavelengths x1 = 4000 A and x2 = 6000 A is :

A. 8:27

B. 9:4

C. 3:2

D. 16:81

 

Q. 34 Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g falling from a height of 1 km. It hits the ground with a speed of 50 m/s. Take ‘g’ constant with a value 10 m/s^2. The work done by the (i) gravitational force and the (ii) resistive force of air is :

A. (i) -10 J (ii) -8.25 J

B. (i) 1.25 J (ii) -8.25 J

C. (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J

D. (i) 10 J (ii) -8.75 J

 

Q. 35 A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm radiates 450 watt power at 500 K. If the radius were halved and the temperature doubled, the power radiated in watt would be :

A. 225

B. 450

C. 1000

D. 1800

 

Q. 36 Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m respectively are connected by a massless and inextensible string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut, are respectively:

A. g, g/3

B. g/3, g

C. g, g

D. g/3, g/3

 

Q. 37 Two polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis perpendicular to each other.

Unpolarised light I0 is incident on P1. A third polaroid P3 is kept in between P1 and P2 such that its axis makes an angle 45 degrees with that of P1. The intensity of transmitted light through P2 is :

A. I0/2

B. I0/4

C. I0/8

D. I0/16

 

Q. 38 A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 x 10^4 turns per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100 turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in the solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0A from 4A in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 10 pip^2 ohm, the total charge flowing through the coil during this time is:

A. 32 pi uC

B. 16 uC

C. 32 uC

D. 16 pi uC

 

Q. 39 Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regular axis passing through centre and perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular velocities w1 and w2. They are brought into contact face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The expression for loss of energy during this process is:

A. 1/2 I (w1+w2)^2

B. 1/4 I (w1-w2)^2

C. I (w1-w2)^2

D. I/8 (w1-w2)^2

 

Q. 40 Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked up the stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken by her to walk up on the moving escalator will be :

A. t1+t2/2

B. t1t2/t2-t1

C. t1t2/t2+t1

D. t1 – t2

 

Q. 41 A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N?

A. 25 m/s^2

B. 0.25 rad/s^2

C. 25 rad/s^2

D. 5 m/s^2

 

Q. 42 A beam of light from a source L is incident normally on a plane mirror fixed at a certain distance x from the source. The beam is reflected back at a spot on a scale placed just above the source L. When the mirror is rotated through a small angle x, the spot of the light is found to move through a distance y on the scale. The angle x is given by: 

A. y/2x

B. y/x

C. x/2y

D. x/y

 

Q. 43 The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the system?

A. 10 Hz

B. 20 Hz

C. 30 Hz

D. 40 Hz

 

Q. 44 A thin prism having refracting angle 10 degrees is made of glass of refractive index 1.42. This prism is combined with another thin prism of glass of refractive index 1.7. This combination produces dispersion without deviation. The refracting angle of second prism should be:

A. 4 degrees

B. 6 degrees

C. 8 degrees

D. 10 degrees

 

Q. 45 The resistance of a wire is ‘R’ ohm. If it is melted and stretched to ‘n’ times its original length, its new resistance will be:

A. nR

B. R/n

C. n^2R

D. R/n^2

 

Q. 46 With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?

A. Bond angle remains same but bond length changes

B. Bond angle changes but bond length remains same

C. Both bond angle and bond length change

D. Both bond angles and bond length remains same

 

Q. 47 Which of the following pairs of compounds is isoelectronic and isostructural?

A. BeCl2, XeI2

B. TeI2, XeF2

C. IBr2^-, XeF2

D. IF3, XeF2

 

Q. 48 HgCl2 and I2 both when dissolved in water containing I^- ions the pair of species formed is :

A. HgI2, I3^-

B. HgI2, I^-

C. HgI4^2-, I3^-

D. Hg2I2, I^-

 

Q. 49 Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as :

A. analgesic

B. antiseptic

C. antipyretic

D. antibiotic

 

Q. 50 Which is the incorrect statement?

A. FeO0.98 has non stoichiometric metal deficiency defect

B. Density decreases in case of crystals with Schottky’s defect

C. NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon is semiconductor, silver is conductor, quartz is piezo

electric crystal

D. Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic compounds in which sizes of cation and

anions are not equal

 

Q. 51 Concentration of the Ag^+ ions in a saturated solution of Ag2C2O4 is 2.2 x 10^-4 mol L^-1. Solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is:

A. 2.42 x 10^-8

B. 2.66 x 10^-12

C. 4.5 x 10^-11

D. 3.33 x 10^-12

 

Q. 52 Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation followed by heating?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 53 The species, having bond angles of 120 degrees is :

A. PH3

B. ClF3

C. NCl3

D. BCl3

 

Q. 54 If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be:

A. doubled

B. halved

C. tripled

D. unchanged

 

Q. 55 Which one is the most acidic compound?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 56 It is because of nability of ns^2 electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding that:

A. Sn^2+ is reducing while Pb^4+ is oxidising

B. Sn^2+ is oxidising while Pb^4+ is reducing

C. Sn^2+ and Pb^4+ are both oxidising and reducing

D. Sn^4+ is reducing while Pb^4+ is oxidising

 

Q. 57 Predict the correct intermediate and product in the given reaction.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 58 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Catalyst does not initiate any reaction.

B. The value of equilibrium constant is changed in the presence of a catalyst in the

reaction at equilibrium.

C. Enzymes catalyse mainly bio-chemical reactions.

D. Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of enzyme.

 

Q. 59 Which one is the wrong statement?

A. de-Broglie’s wavelength is given by h/mv where m = mass of the particle, v = group velocity of the particle

B. The uncertainty principle is change in E x change in t >= h/4pi

C. Half filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange

energy, greater symmetry and more balanced arrangement.

D. The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms.

 

Q. 60 A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume of 4.50 L. The change in internal energy change in U of the gas in joules will be :

A. 1136.25 J

B. -500 J

C. -505 J

D. +505 J

 

Q. 61 Consider the reactions. Identify A, X, Y and Z

A. A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanoic acid, Y-Acetate ion, Z-hydrazine

B. A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanol, Y-Ethanoic acid, Z-Semicarbazide

C. A-Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But-2-enal, Z-Semicarbazone

D. A-Ethanol, X-Acetaldehyde, Y-Butanone, Z-Hydrazone

Q. 62 Which one is the correct order of acidity?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 63 In the electrochemical cell :

Zn|ZnSO4(0.01 M)|| CuSO4(1.0 M)|Cu, the emf of this Daniel cell is E1. When the concentration of ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 is changed to 0.01 M, the emf changes to E2. From the followings, which one is the relationship between E1 and E2?

(Given, RT/F = 0.059)

A. E1 = E2

B. E1 < E2

C. E1 > E2

D. E2 = 0 is not = E1

 

Q. 64 The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is:

A. II < III < I

B. III < I < II

C. III < II < I

D. II < I < III

 

Q. 65 In which pair of ions both the species contain S – S bond?

A. S2O7^2-, S2O3^2-

B. S4O6^2-, S2O3^2-

C. S2O7^2-, S2O8^2-

D. S4O6^2-, S2O7^2-

 

Q. 66 The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the complexes: CoCl3.6NH3, CoCl3.5NH3, CoCl2.4NH3 respectively is:

A. 1AGCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl

B. 3AGCl, 1AgCl, 2AgCl

C. 3AGCl, 2AgCl, 1AgCl

D. 2AGCl, 3AgCl, 1AgCl

 

Q. 67 Match the interhalogen compounds of column I with the geometry in column II and assign the correct code.

Column I Column II

(a) XX (i) T-shape

(b) XX3 (ii) Pentagonal bipyramidal

(c) XX5 (iii) Linear

(d) XX7 (iv) Square-pyramidal

(v) Tetrahedral

A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

C. (a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

 

Q. 68 The reason for greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is attributed to:

A. the radioactive nature of actinoids

B. actinoid contraction

C. 5d, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies

D. 4d and 5d levels being close in energies

 

Q. 69 A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO2(g) at pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the volume of solid SrO). The volume of the container is now decreased by moving the movable piston fitted in the container, when pressure of CO2 attains its maximum value, will be:

A. 5 litre

B. 10 litre

C. 4 litre

D. 2 litre

 

Q. 70 The correct statement regarding electrophile is:

A. Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

B. Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from another electrophile

C. Electrophile are generally neutral species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

D. Electrophile can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

 

Q. 71 Which of the following is a sink for CO?

A. Haemoglobin

B. Micro organisms present in the soil

C. Oceans

D. Plants

 

Q. 72 The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following family/group and electronic configuration?

A. Halogen family, [Rn] 5f^14 6d^10 7s^2 7p^5

B. Carbon family, [Rn] 5f^14 6d^10 7s^2 7p^2

C. Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f^14 6d^10 7s^2 7p^4

D. Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f^14 6d^10 7s^2 7p^6

 

Q. 73 Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the complexes of Co^3+ is:

A. [Co(en)3]^3+, [Co(NH3)6]^3+, [Co(H2O)6]^3+

B. [Co(H2O)6]^3+, [Co(en)3]^3+, [Co(NH3)6]^3+

C. [Co(H2O)6]^3+, [Co(NH3)6]^3+, [Co(en)3]^3+

D. [Co(NH3)6]^3+, [Co(en)3]^3+, [Co(H2O)6]^3+

 

Q. 74 Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of a human body

B. Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white

C. Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting

D. Denaturation makes the proteins more active

 

Q. 75 An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is:

A. Ruthenocene

B. Grignard’s reagent

C. Ferrocene

D. Cobaltocene

 

Q. 76 Which of the following is dependent on temperature?

A. Molality

B. Molarity

C. Mole fraction

D. Weight percentage

 

Q. 77 For a given reaction, change in H = 35.5 kJ mol^-1 and change in S = 83.6 JK^-1 mol^-1. The reaction is spontaneous at: (Assume that change in H and change in S do not vary with temperature)

A. T < 425 K

B. T > 425 K

C. all temperatures

D. T > 298 K

 

Q. 78 The most suitable method of separation of 1:1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is 

A. Sublimation

B. Chromatography

C. Crystallisation

D. Steam distillation

 

Q. 79 Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?

A. CO, NO

B. O2, NO^+

C. CN^-, CO

D. N2, O2^-

 

Q. 80 Identify A and predict the type of reaction

A. and substitution reaction

B. and elimination addition reaction

C. and cine substitution reaction

D. and cine substitution reaction

 

Q. 81 A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 10^-2 sec^-1. How much time will it take for 20 g of the reactant to reduce to 5 g?

A. 238.6 sec

B. 138.6 sec

C. 346.5 sec

D. 693.0 sec

 

Q. 82 Name the gas that can readily decolourise acidified KMnO4 solution :

A. CO2

B. SO2

C. NO2

D. P2O5

 

Q. 83 The heating of phenyl-methyl ethers with HI produces

A. ethyl chlorides

B. iodobenzene

C. phenol

D. benzene

 

Q. 84 Pick out the correct statement with respect to [Mn(CN)6]^3- :

A. It is sp^3d^2 hybridised and octahedral

B. It is sp^3d^2 hybridised and tetrahedral

C. It is d^2sp^3 hybridised and octahedral

D. It is dsp^2 hybridised and square planar

 

Q. 85 Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts are put under an electric field?

A. Na

B. K

C. Rb

D. Li

 

Q. 86 Using the given information, the equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction will be :

A. K1(K3)^3/K2

B. K2(K3)^3/K1

C. K2K3/K1

D. (K2)^3K3/K1

 

Q. 87 Which of the following reactions is appropriate for converting acetamide to methanamine?

A. Carbylamine reaction

B. Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction

C. Stephens reaction

D. Gabriels phthalimide synthesis

 

Q. 88 Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction X2 + Y2 —-> 2XY is given. The overall order of the reaction will be:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 0

D. 1.5

 

Q. 89 The IUPAC name of the compound

A. 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal

B. 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one

C. 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al

D. 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal

 

Q. 90 Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with CN^- ion. Silver is later recovered by:

A. liquation

B. distillation

C. zone refining

D. displacement with Zn

 

Q. 91 Double fertilization in exhibited by:

A. Gymnosperms

B. Algae

C. Fungi

D. Angiosperms

 

Q. 92 Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions?

A. Archaebacteria

B. Eubacteria

C. Cyanobacteria

D. Mycobacteria

 

Q. 93 Select the mismatch:

A. Frankia – Alnus

B. Rhodospirillum – Mycorrhiza

C. Anabaena – Nitrogen fixer

D. Rhizobium – Alfalfa

 

Q. 94 What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel

electrophoresis?

A. The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves

B. The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves

C. Positively charged fragments move to farther end

D. Negatively charged fragments do not move

 

Q. 95 Attractants and rewards are required for:

A. Anemophily

B. Entomophily

C. Hydrophily

D. Cleistogamy

 

Q. 96 Which of the following is made up of dead cells?

A. Xylem parenchyma

B. Collenchyma

C. Phellem

D. Phloem

 

Q. 97 Which cells of Çrypts of Lieberkuhn’ secrete antibacterial lysozyme?

A. Argentaffin cells

B. Paneth cells

C. Zymogen cells

D. Kupffer cells

 

Q. 98 Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for this feature?

(a) They do not need to reproduce

(b) They are somatic cells

(c) They do not metabolize

(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen transport

A. Only (d)

B. Only (a)

C. (a), (c) and (d)

D. (b) and (c)

 

Q. 99 The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from

A. Heart

B. Stomach

C. Kidneys

D. Intestine

 

Q. 100 The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of:

A. Griffith

B. Hershey and Chase

C. Avery, Mcleod and McCarty

D. Hargobind Khorana

 

Q. 101 Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen?

A. Bacillus

B. Pseudomonas

C. Mycoplasma

D. Nostoc

 

Q. 102 Which of the following options gives the correct sequence of events during mitosis?

A. condensation –> nuclear membrane disassembly –> crossing over –> segregation –> telophase

B. condensation –> nuclear membrane disassembly –> arrangement at equator –>

centromere division –> segregation –> telophase

C. condensation –> crossing over –> nuclear membrane disassembly –> segregation –> telophase

D. condensation –> arrangement at equator –> centromere division –> segregation –> telophase

 

Q. 103 Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to enzymes?

A. Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme

B. Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme

C. Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme

D. Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor

 

Q. 104 During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate :

A. The leading strand towards replication fork.

B. The lagging strand towards replication fork.

C. The leading strand away from replication fork.

D. The lagging strand away from replication fork.

 

Q. 105 Which of the following are not polymeric?

A. Nucleic acids

B. Proteins

C. Polysaccharides

D. Lipids

 

Q. 106 The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed is known as :

A. Core zone

B. Buffer zone

C. Transition zone

D. Restoration zone

 

Q. 107 The dioecious flowering plant prevents both:

A. Autogamy and xenogamy

B. Autogamy and geitonogamy

C. Geitonogamy and xenogamy

D. Cleistogamy and xenogamy

 

Q. 108 A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is :

A. Pineal gland

B. Corpus cardiacum

C. Corpus luteum

D. Corpus allatum

 

Q. 109 Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column-I) with their causative agents

(Column-II) and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV

(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria

(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema

(d) AIDS (iv) Human Papilloma – Virus

A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii, (d)-(i)

D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

 

Q. 110 Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient’s body. Which type of immune-response is responsible for such rejections?

A. Autoimmune response

B. Cell-mediated immune response

C. Hormonal immune response

D. Physiological immune response

 

Q. 111 Spliceosomes are not found in cells of:

A. Plants

B. Fungi

C. Animals

D. Bacteria

 

Q. 112 An example of colonial alga is:

A. Chlorella

B. Volvox

C. Ulothrix

D. Spirogyra

 

Q. 113 Which of the following represents order of ‘Horses’?

A. Equidae

B. Perissodactyla

C. Caballus

D. Ferus

 

Q. 114 Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP?

A. Lysosome

B. Ribosome

C. Chloroplast

D. Mitochondrion

 

Q. 115 The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called:

A. Upstream processing

B. Downstream processing

C. Bioprocessing

D. Postproduction processing

 

Q. 116 Mycorrhizae are the example of:

A. Fungistasis

B. Amensalism

C. Antibiosis

D. Mutualism

 

Q. 117 Viroids differ from viruses in having:

A. DNA molecules with protein coat

B. DNA molecules without protein coat

C. RNA molecules with protein coat

D. RNA molecules without protein coat

 

Q. 118 Root hairs develop from the region of:

A. Maturation

B. Elongation

C. Root cap

D. Meristematic activity

 

Q. 119 Coconut fruit is a:

A. Drupe

B. Berry

C. Nut

D. Capsule

 

Q. 120 Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores and show vivipary belong to:

A. Mesophytes

B. Halophytes

C. Psammophytes

D. Hydrophytes

 

Q. 121 Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ conservation of threatened animals and plants?

A. Wildlife Safari parks

B. Biodiversity hot spots

C. Amazon rainforest

D. Himalayan region

 

Q. 122 Select the mismatch:

A. Pinus – Dioecious

B. Cycas – Dioecious

C. Salvinia – Heterosporous

D. Equisetum – Homosporous

 

Q. 123 Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal aperture?

A. Contraction of outer wall of guard cells

B. Decrease in turgidity of guard cells

C. Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells

D. Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells

 

Q. 124 The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates :

A. Transcription is occurring.

B. DNA replication is occurring.

C. The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre.

D. The DNA double helix is exposed.

 

Q. 125 The DNA fragments are:

A. Positively charged

B. Negatively charged

C. Neutral

D. Either positively or negatively charged depending on their size

 

Q. 126 Capacitation occurs in:

A. Rete testis

B. Epididymis

C. Vas deferens

D. Female Reproductive tract

 

Q. 127 Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass?

A. Forest ecosystem

B. Grassland ecosystem

C. Pond ecosystem

D. Lake ecosystem

 

Q. 128 A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunction is:

A. Down’s Syndrome

B. Klinefelter’s Syndrome

C. Turner’s Syndrome

D. Sickle Cell Anemia

 

Q. 129 Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are:

A. Haplontic, Diplontic

B. Diplontic, Haplodiplontic

C. Haplodiplontic, Diplontic

D. Haplodiplontic, Haplontic

 

Q. 130 If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?

A. 1

B. 11

C. 33

D. 333

 

Q. 131 The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of

A. fibrous joint

B. cartilaginous joint

C. synovial joint

D. saddle joint

 

Q. 132 A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as :

A. Selectable marker

B. Vector

C. Plasmid

D. Structural gene

 

Q. 133 Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical layers depending on their height can be seen in :

A. Tropical Savannah

B. Tropical Rain Forest

C. Grassland

D. Temperate Forest

 

Q. 134 A genotypes of a Husband and Wife are (I)^A(I)^B at (I)^Ai.

Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?

A. 3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes

B. 3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes

C. 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes

D. 4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes

 

Q. 135 Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of :

A. Marchantia

B. Fucus

C. Funaria

D. Chlamydomonas

 

Q. 136 Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them?

A. Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics

B. Methanobacterium : Lactic acid

C. Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid

D. Sacchromyces cerevisiae : Ethanol

 

Q. 137 Frog’s heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for sometime. Select the best option from the following statements.

(a) Frog is poikilotherm.

(b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation.

(c) Heart is “myogenic” in nature.

(d) Heart is autoexcitable.

A. Only (c)

B. Only (d)

C. (a) and (b)

D. (c) and (d)

 

Q. 138 Which statement is wrong for Krebs’ cycle?

A. There are three points in the cycle where NAD^+ is reduced to NADH+H^+

B. There is one point in the cycle where FAD^+ is reduced to FADH2

C. During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised

D. The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid

 

Q. 139 In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called :

A. ostia

B. oscula

C. choanocytes

D. mesenchymal cells

 

Q. 140 Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell?

A. r-RNA

B. t-RNA

C. m-RNA

D. mi-RNA

 

Q. 141 Which among these is the correct combination of aquatic mammals?

A. Seals, Dolphins, Sharks

B. Dolphins, Seals, Trygon

C. Whales, Dolphins, Seals

D. Trygon, Whales, Seals

 

Q. 142 With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not correct?

A. Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight

B. Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration up to 0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate

C. C3 plants respond to higher temperature with enhanced photosynthesis while C4

plants have much lower temperature optimum

D. Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown in CO2 – enriched atmosphere for higher yield

 

Q. 143 Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when :

A. The value of ‘r’ approaches zero

B. K = N

C. K > N

D. K < N

 

Q. 144 Out of ‘X’ pairs of rivs in humans only ‘Y’ pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents values of X and Y and provides their explanation.

A. X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum

B. X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and sternum on the two ends

C. X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on

ventral side.

D. X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on

ventral side.

 

Q. 145 The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with :

A. Bromophenol blue

B. Acetocarmine

C. Aniline blue

D. Ethidium bromide

 

Q. 146 Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into :

A. Ovule

B. Endosperm

C. Embryo sac

D. Embryo

 

Q. 147 Among the following characters, which one was not considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea?

A. Stem – Tall or Dwarf

B. Trichomes – Glandular or non-glandular

C. Seed – Green or Yellow

D. Pod – Inflated or Constricted

 

Q. 148 Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of :

A. Residual Volume

B. Inspiratory Reserve Volume

C. Tidal Volume

D. Expiratory Reserve Volume

 

Q. 149 GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on :

A. anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin.

B. anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.

C. posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH.

D. posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin.

 

Q. 150 In Bougainvillae thorns are the modifications of :

A. Stipules

B. Adventitious root

C. Stem

D. Leaf

 

Q. 151 Which from those given below is the period for Mendel’s hybridization experiments?

A. 1856 – 1863

B. 1840 – 1850

C. 1857 – 1869

D. 1870 – 1877

 

Q. 152 Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene-rick food.

Select the best option from the following statements.

(a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene.

(b) The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segment.

(c) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A.

(d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual photopigments.

A. (a) and (b)

B. (a), (c) and (d)

C. (a) and (c)

D. (b), (c) and (d)

 

Q. 153 Which one of the following statements is not valid for aerosols?

A. They are harmful to human health

B. They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns

C. They cause increased agricultural productivity

D. They have negative impact on agricultural land

 

Q. 154 A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause he release of :

A. Renin

B. Atrial Natriuretic Factor

C. Aldosterone

D. ADH

 

Q. 155 Homozygous purelines in cattle can be obtained by:

A. mating of related individuals of same breed

B. mating of unrelated individuals of same breed

C. mating of individuals of different breed

D. mating of individuals of different species

 

Q. 156 The vascular cambium normally gives rise to :

A. Phelloderm

B. Primary phloem

C. Secondary xylem

D. Periderm

 

Q. 157 Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water

B. The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water

C. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water

D. The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes

 

Q. 158 Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by the application of:

A. Cytokinins

B. Ethylene

C. Auxins

D. Gibberellic acid

 

Q. 159 A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play school and passes through a dental checkup. The dentist observed that the boy had twenty teeth. Which teeth were absent?

A. Incisors

B. Canines

C. Pre-molars

D. Molars

 

Q. 160 An important characteristic that Hemichordates share with Chordates is:

A. absence of notochord

B. ventral tubular nerve cord

C. pharynx with gill slits

D. pharynx without gill slits

 

Q. 161 Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents:

A. stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character in the population

B. directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction

C. disruptive as it splits the population into two, one yielding higher output and the

other lower output

D. stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the population to produce higher

yielding cows

 

Q. 162 Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs:

A. Testes –> Bidder’s canal –> Kidney –> Vasa efferentia –> Urinogenital duct –> Cloaca

B. Testes –> Vasa efferentia –> Kidney –> Seminal Vesicle –> Urinogenital duct –> Cloaca

C. Testes –> Vasa efferentia –> Bidder’s canal –> Ureter –> Cloaca

D. Testes –> Vasa efferentia –> Kidney –> Bidder’s canal –> Urinogenital duct –> Cloaca

 

Q. 163 Which of the following options best represents the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice?

A. amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin

B. amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase

C. peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin

D. lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase

 

Q. 164 Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2 acceptor in:

A. C3 plants

B. C4 plants

C. C2 plants

D. C3 and C4 plants

 

Q. 165 The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut is:

A. Perisperm

B. Cotyledon

C. Endosperm

D. Pericarp

 

Q. 166 Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, which of the following is expected to occur?

A. Chromosomes will not condense

B. Chromosomes will be fragmented

C. Chromosomes will not segregate

D. Recombination of chromosome arms will occur

 

Q. 167 MALT constitutes about ________ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.

A. 50%

B. 20%

C. 70%

D. 10%

 

Q. 168 Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on:

A. membranes of synaptic vescicles

B. pre-synaptic membrane

C. tips of axons

D. post-synaptic membrane

 

Q. 169 Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does not cause further increase in height, because :

A. Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults

B. Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence

C. Bones loose their sensitivity to Growth Hormone in adults

D. Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth.

 

Q. 170 Alexander Von Humbolt described for the first time:

A. Ecological Biodiversity

B. Laws of limiting factor

C. Species area relationships

D. Population Growth equation

 

Q. 171 Myelin sheath is produced by:

A. Schwann Cells and Oligodendrocytes

B. Astrocytes and Schwann Cells

C. Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts

D. Osteoclasts and Astrocytes

 

Q. 172 In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilisation?

A. Intrauterine transfer

B. Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer

C. Artificial Insemination

D. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection

 

Q. 173 Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell?

A. Cell wall

B. Nuclear membrane

C. Plasma mebrane

D. Glycoalyx

 

Q. 174 DNA replication in bacteria occurs:

A. During S phase

B. Within nucleolus

C. Prior to fission

D. Just before transcription

 

Q. 175 The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD’s is:

A. The suppress sperm mobility and ferilising capacity of sperms

B. They inhibit gametogenesis

C. They make uterus unsuitable for implantation

D. They inhibit ovulation.

 

Q. 176 Which of the following in sewage treatment removes suspended solids?

A. Tertiary treatment

B. Secondary treatment

C. Primary treatment

D. Sludge treatment

 

Q. 177 The water potential of pure water is:

A. Zero

B. Less than zero

C. More than zero but less than one

D. More than one

 

Q. 178 Identify the wrong statement in context of heartwood:

A. Organic compounds are deposited in it

B. It is highly durable

C. It conducts water and minerals efficiently

D. It comprises dead elements with highly lignified walls

 

Q. 179 Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct statement.

A. Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis

B. Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis

C. Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules

D. Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules

 

Q. 180 Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by:

A. Water

B. Bee

C. Wind

D. Bat

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C D B D A B A B C C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer A B C D C B B A A D
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer C A C C D A B A D B
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B D C D D B C C B C
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C A B B C D C C B A
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer D B D D D A D B D C
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer C B C D B C B C A D
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer B B A D B B B D C A
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer B B C C D B B A A D
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer D A B B B C B A D B
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer C B B D D A B C A B
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer D B B D B D D A A B
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer A A C C B D A A C C
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer C A B C D D D D C A
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer C C B A D C B A B C
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer A B C B A C A C C C
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer B D D B C C A D B C
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer A C D C A C A C C C

 

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