SSC GD 21 Feb 2019 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 21st Feb 2019 Shift-III 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 If A = 2 and D = 5, and SEA = 28, then COUNTRY = ……….. 

(A) 123 

(B) 132 

(C) 112 

(D) 121 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

If A = 2 and D = 5, and SEA = 20+6+2=28 

4 + 16 + 22 + 15 + 21 + 19 + 26 = 123 

Then, COUNTRY = 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 2 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully and decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: 

1) All students in my class are active. 

2) Rohini is not active. 

Conclusions: 

I. Rohini is not a student of my class. 

II. Rohini must be active. 

(A) Both conclusions I and II follow. 

(B) Only conclusion I follows. 

(C) Only conclusion II follows. 

(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows. 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The venn diagram for above statements is : 

Conclusions: 

I. Rohini is not a student of my class = true 

II. Rohini must be active. = false 

Thus, only conclusion I follows. 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 3 Choose the word from the given options that is similar to the given words and hence belongs to the same group. 

Lira, Dinar, Rupee 

(A) Lisbon 

(B) Cairo 

(C) Rial 

(D) Oslo 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Lira, Dinar and Rupee are all currencies of different countries, while in the options, only Rial is a currency of Saudi Arabia, rest are cities. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 4 Select the correct option to complete the following pattern. 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

If we complete the above figure, then the missing pattern is represented by the red colour. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 5 In the following number series, two numbers have been put within brackets. Study the series carefully and select the correct alternative with respect to the series. 

0, 7, 26, 63, (124), 215, 342, (512) 

(A) The first bracketed number(from the left) is correct and the second is incorrect. 

(B) The first bracketed number (from the left) is incorrect and the second is correct. 

(C) Both the bracketed numbers are incorrect. 

(D) Both the bracketed numbers are correct. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 6 Select the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when the mirror is placed vertically. 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

When the mirror is placed vertically, the object at right will appear at left position and vice-versa. Thus, the letter ‘U’ at left will appear at right and since it’s symmetrical, its shape will not be changed also, thus third is the correct option. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 7 Select the figure that will come next in the following series. 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

In the three figures given, the arrow has pointed to the right, top and left respectively, hence going by the symmetry, the only position left to face is the bottom one as shown in image in the second option. 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 8 Select the number that DOES NOT belong to the following group. 

0, 5, 12, 20, 32, 45 

(A) 45 

(B) 32 

(C) 20 

(D) 12 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 9 In a private school, there were five teachers. Abi and Geetha were teaching French and English. Harini and Geetha were teaching English and Science. Diva and Abi were teaching Maths and French. Hema and Geetha were teaching Social Science and French. Which subject is taught by maximum number of teachers? 

(A) Science 

(B) Maths 

(C) French 

(D) English 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Teachers who are teaching each subject are : 

Science : Geetha, Harini 

Maths : Divya, Abi 

French : Abi, Geetha, Divya, Hema [max] 

English : Abi, Geetha, Harini 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 10 L, M, N and O are to be seated in a row. However, N and O cannot be together. Moreover, M cannot be in the third place from the left. L and M are sitting beside each other. Considering the seating from left to right which of the following must be true? 

(A) N is at the third place. 

(B) L is at the third place. 

(C) N is at the first place. 

(D) O is at the third place. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 11 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes. 

Animals, Reptiles, Snakes 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 12 Four numbers have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) 250 

(B) 95 

(C) 159 

(D) 150 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Apart from 159, all numbers are divisible by 5, hence it is the odd one. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 13 Given is a statement, followed by four conclusions. Read the statement carefully and decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statement. 

Statement: 

This book can help because all good books help. 

Conclusions: 

I. This is not a good book. 

II. This is a good book. 

III. No good book helps. 

IV. Some good books help. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows. 

(B) All the conclusions follow. 

(C) Only conclusion II follows. 

(D) Both conclusions III and IV follow. 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The given statement indicates that the given book can help as all good books help, which can definitely conclude that this is a good book. 

The last two conclusions are not true as they are contradictory to the given statement. 

Thus, only conclusion II follows. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 14 Five friends are sitting in a circle, all facing the centre. Mohan is to the left of Raju. Vinith is to the right of Arjun and between Arjun and Naveen. Who is between Raju and Naveen? 

(A) Arjun and Vinith 

(B) Vinith 

(C) Arjun 

(D) Mohan 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 15 Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) Necklace 

(B) Bracelet 

(C) Jewellery 

(D) Anklet 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Necklace, Bracelet and Anklet are all types of jewellery, hence jewellery is the odd one. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 16 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 17 Which two signs need to be interchanged to make the given equation correct? 

3 ÷ 2 − 4 × 5 + 5 = 1 

(A) + and ÷ 

(B) × and − 

(C) ÷ and × 

(D) + and − 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 18 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 19 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Angle : Radian :: Mass : ………. 

(A) Kilogram 

(B) Litre 

(C) Degree 

(D) Height 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Second is the unit of first, angle is measured in radian, similarly unit of mass is kilogram.

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 20 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

5, 22, 39, 56, ……? 

(A) 89 

(B) 76 

(C) 73 

(D) 87 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

17 is added in all the terms 

5 + 17 = 22 

22 + 17 = 39 

39 + 17 = 56 

56 + 17 = 73 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 21 Identify the odd one from the following. 

(A) dFh 

(B) gHj 

(C) uWy 

(D) rTv 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

(A) : d (+2 letters) = F (+2 letters) = h 

(B) : g (+1 letter) = H (+2 letters) = j 

(C) : u (+2 letters) = W (+2 letters) = y 

(D) : r (+2 letters) = T (+2 letters) = v 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 22 If CENTRAL is coded as BFMUQBK, then FRIENDS will be coded as ………… 

(A) ESHEMER 

(B) ESHFMER 

(C) ESHENER 

(D) ESHFNER 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 23 Four pairs of words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose out the odd one. 

(A) Chef : Knife 

(B) Saw : Carpenter 

(C) Sculptor : Chisel 

(D) Doctor : Stethoscope 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

In all the given pairs, except second, second item is used by the first person, while in second reverse is true, hence it is the odd one.

 => Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 24 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

7 : 50 :: 13 : ? 

(A) 160 

(B) 144 

(C) 170 

(D) 169 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Expression = 7 : 50 :: 13 : ? 

x : x2 + 1 

The pattern followed is = 

Eg :- 72 + 1 = 50 

Similarly, 

(13)2 + 1 = 169 + 1 = 170 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 25 Select the term that will come next in the following series. 

YCL, MQZ, ZDM, NRA, ……, OSB

(A) AEN 

(B) BFQ 

(C) ADM 

(D) BEM 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Expression : YCL, MQZ, ZDM, NRA, ……, OSB 

The pattern followed in alternate terms is that each letter of the terms is replaced by next succeeding alphabet. 

Odd terms : YCL (+1) = ZDM (+1) = AEN 

Even terms : MQZ (+1) = NR(A) (+1) = OSB

Thus, missing term : AEN 

=> Ans – (A) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Which of the following statements about ‘Biological Magnification’ is FALSE? 

(A) Its maximum concentration is at the top level of the food chain. 

(B) Its maximum concentration is at the bottom level of the food chain. 

(C) It differs depending on the level of ecosystem. 

(D) The chemicals enter the food chain through absorption from water or soil. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 27 The first Mughal emperor, Babur came to India from: 

(A) Syria 

(B) Greece 

(C)Ferghana 

(D) Persia 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 28 Banks were nationalised in India through an ordinance passed in the year: 

(A) 1976 

(B) 1963 

(C) 1969 

(D) 1954 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 29 Who presented the first Union Budget of Independent India? 

(A) NV Gadgil 

(B) Maulana Azad 

(C) CD Deshmukh 

(D) RK Shanmukham Chetty 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 30 ……… is the oldest mountain range in the Indian subcontinent. 

(A) Himalaya 

(B) Vindhya 

(C) Aravali 

(D) Satpura 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 31 ‘Sevasadan’, ‘Karmabhoomi’ and ‘Gaban’ are some of the masterpieces of which Hindi writer? 

(A) Bhisham Sahni 

(B) Premchand 

(C) Harishchandra 

(D) Ramdhari Singh ‘Dinkar’ 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 32 As of January 2019, the Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh is: 

(A) Shiv Dahariya 

(B) Bhupesh Baghel 

(C) Kamal Nath 

(D) Kawasi Lakhma 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 33 Which of the following diseases is caused by bacteria? 

(A) Rabies 

(B) Chicken Pox 

(C) Small Pox 

(D) Tuberculosis 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 34 Which of the following is NOT an amphibian? 

(A) Frog 

(B) Tortoise 

(C) Salamander 

(D) Toad 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 35 Life on earth began in the oceans almost ………. years ago. 

(A) 1 billion 

(B) 100 million 

(C) 500 million 

(D) 3.5 billion 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 36 Which chemical is widely used to unclog drains and sinks? 

(A) Sodium Chloride 

(B) Nitrogen Hydroxide 

(C) Hydrogen Peroxide 

(D) Sodium Hydroxide 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 37 The concept of five – year plans in the Constitution of India is borrowed from ……….. 

(A) Russia 

(B) England 

(C) The United States 

(D) Germany 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 38 The Fiscal Year in India is considered between: 

(A) 1 April – 31 March 

(B) 1 January – 31 December 

(C) 1 July – 30 June 

(D) 31 March – April 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 39 Which state hosts the annual Surajkund Crafts fair? 

(A) Rajasthan 

(B) Uttar Pradesh 

(C) Punjab 

(D) Haryana 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 40 Which of the following statements with respect to Article 22 of the Constitution and Criminal Law on fundamental rights of an arrested person is NOT correct? 

(A) The Right to be informed atthe time ofarrest of the offence for which the person is being arrested 

(B) A boy under 15 years of age and women cannot be called to the police station only for questioning 

(C) The Right to be presented before a magistrate within 24 hours ofarrest 

(D) Confessions made in police custody can be used as evidence against the accused 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 41 Which team has won the Ranji Trophy maximum number of times? 

(A) Saurashtra 

(B) Tamil Nadu 

(C) Mumbai 

(D) Vidarbha 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 42 Which country ranks first in the ‘Per Capita’ Summer Olympic medals tally? 

(A) Netherlands 

(B) Finland 

(C) Japan 

(D) Hungary 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 43 The Brahmaputra river is called ‘Tsangpo’ in Tibet. What is it called in Bangladesh? 

(A) Meghna 

(B) Padma 

(C) Karnaphuli 

(D) Jamuna 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 44 Chandragupta Maurya established the Mauryan Empire by defeating the: 

(A) Nandas 

(B) Chalukyas 

(C) Pallavas 

(D) Shungas 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 45 Victoria Memorial is located in: 

(A) Lahore 

(B) Mumbai 

(C) Kolkata 

(D) New Delhi 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 46 ‘Gidda’ is a dance form of which state? 

(A) Punjab 

(B) Assam 

(C) West Bengal 

(D) Odisha 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 47 Who was the first Indian woman president of Indian National Congress? 

(A) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit 

(B) Sarojini Naidu 

(C) Sucheta Kriplani 

(D) Aruna Asaf Ali 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 48 Which of the following statements is not a good argument in favour of a democracy? 

(A) Democracies are more accountable to the people 

(B) Democracies have better resolutions of conflicts 

(C) People feel free and equal in a democracy 

(D) Democracies are more prosperous than others 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 49 Which of the following statements about sound is FALSE? 

(A) The audible range of an average human is 20 Hz — 20 kHz. 

(B) The speed of sound remains uniform irrespective of the temperature or medium. 

(C) Sound travels as a longitudinal wave. 

(D) Sound cannot travel in a vacuum. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 50 The Dadasaheb Phalke Award announced in 2018 was awarded to: 

(A) Late Yash Chopra 

(B) Late Rajesh Khanna 

(C) Late Shashi Kapoor 

(D) Late Vinod Khanna 

Answer: (D) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 If the interest on money be 1 paisa per rupee per month, what is the rate per cent per annum? 

(A) 12% 

(B) 15% 

(C) 10% 

 (D) 10½ % 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 52 The median of the data 28, 31, 42, 37, 26, 34, 18, 23 is: 

(A) 30 

(B) 29.5 

(C) 31.5 

(D) 28 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 53 Study the following graph which shows the production (in thousands)of different items, and answer these questions. 

The ratio between the number of pants produced by the company in the year 2014, 2015 and 2016 respectively is: 

(A) 3 : 4 : 6 

(B) 5 : 10 : 7 

(C) 1 : 2 : 3 

(D) 3 : 4 : 5 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 54 The area of an equilateral triangle is 173 cm2 then of the perimeter the equilateral triangle (use 3 = 1.73) is: 

(A) 40 cm 

(B) 60 cm 

(C) 100 cm 

(D) 20 cm 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 55 A pen drive was sold at a price after giving two successive discounts of 30% and 20%. If the selling price of the item was ₹ 560, then what was the marked price of the pen drive? 

(A) ₹1000 

(B) ₹840 

(C) ₹1140 

(D) ₹1280 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 56 A discount of 30% on the marked price of a shirt enables a man to purchase a tie also, which costs him ₹ 210. How much did the man pay for the shirt? 

(A) ₹540 

(B) ₹490 

(C) ₹630 

(D) ₹700 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 57 The cost price of 120 bags is ₹ 15 each. 40 of them were sold for ₹18 each. At what price should the remaining be sold in order to get an overall profit of ₹ 4 per bag? 

(A) ₹19.5 

(B) ₹22.5 

(C) ₹16 

(D) ₹20 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 58 Study the following graph which shows the production (in thousands) of different items, and answer these questions.

The total number of all products produced by the company in the year 2014 and 2016 together is: 

(A) 105700 

(B) 108500 

(C) 1075 

(D) 10750 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Total number of all products produced by the company in the year 2014 and 2016 together : 

[(10 + 7.5 + 15) + (25 + 30 + 21)] × 1000 = 

108500 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 59 Seven persons have 20, 30, 40, 50, 60, 70 and 80 chocolates with them. If each of them is given 5 chocolates additionally, what will be the average number of chocolates with them? 

(A) 50 

(B) 55 

(C) 45 

(D) 60 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 60 A beats B by 125 m in a kilometer race. Find B’s speed if A’s speed is 16 m/sec.: 

(A) 18 m/sec 

(B) 14 m/sec 

(C) 7 m/sec 

(D) 21 m/sec 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 61 The ratio of the present ages of Meera and Sheela is 9 : 5. After 8 years Sheela would reach the present age of Meera. What is the present age (in years) of Sheela? 

(A) 18 

(B) 10 

(C)

(D)

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 62 The difference between simple interest and compound interest on ₹ 2500 at 4% per annum for two years is (in ₹): 

(A) ₹40 

(B) ₹4 

(C) ₹45 

(D) ₹14 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 63 Study the following graph which shows the production (in thousands)of different items, and answer these questions.

The difference between the total number of Shoes and Shirts produced by the company in the year 2016 and the number of Pants produced by the company in the year 2014 is: 

(A) 40000 

(B) 35000 

(C) 32000 

(D) 38000 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 64 Suresh sells a pen at ₹ 120 for 33⅓% profit. At what price should he sell it to gain 40%? 

(A) ₹160 

(B) ₹120 

(C) ₹140 

(D) ₹126 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 65 If 12 men or 20 women can do a work in 54 days, then in how many days can 9 men and 12 women together do the work? 

(A) 38 

(B) 32 

(C) 40 

(D) 35 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 66 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 

1 − [5 − {2 + (−5 + 6 − 2)2}] =? 

(A)

(B)

(C) -2 

(D) -4 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 67 A started running towards north direction at 6:00 a.m. B also started running towards north direction at 10:00 a.m. At what time will they meet if the speeds of A and are in the ratio 3 : 7 and they started from the same point? 

(A) 1 p.m. 

(B) 2 p.m. 

(C) 1:30 p.m. 

(D) 12:30 p.m. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 68 The area of the base of a right circular cone is 1408/7 cm2 and its height is 6 cm. Taking π = 22/7 , the curved surface area of the cone is: 

(A) 1670/7 cm2

(B) 1067/7 cm2

(C) 1760/7 cm2

(D) 7160/7 cm2

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 69 The perimeter(in metres) of a semicircle is numerically equal to its area (in square meters). The length of its diameter is (Take ) 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 70 There are two numbers a2 and 9. Their mean proportion is b, then (a2 + b ) : (a2 – b2) = ?

(A) 5 : 4 

(B) 3 : 4 

(C) 3 : 2 

(D) 1 : 1 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 71 The average number of chocolates with six children is six. If another child joined them the average number of chocolates with the seven children will become 7. What is the number of chocolates with the seventh child? 

(A) 14 

(B) 11 

(C) 12 

(D) 13 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 72 A and B working together can complete a job in 30 days. The ratio of their efficiencies is 3 : 2. In how many days can the faster person complete the job? 

(A) 50 

(B) 30 

(C) 40 

(D) 60 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 73 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 

2 − [6 − {3 + (−4 + 5 + 1) × 8} + 12] =? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 74 Find the least square number which is divisible by 4, 8, 2, 6 and 12? 

(A) 36 

(B) 24 

(C) 48 

(D) 144 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 75 In a class of 80 students, 60% passed in Economics and only 20% passed in History. The number of students who neither passed in Economics nor in History are: 

(A) 20 

(B) 12 

(C) 24 

(D) 16 

Answer: (D) 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Even if you did not know where I was, you can always have telephoned me to ask. 

(A) you could always have telephoned me 

(B) No improvement 

(C) you will always have telephoned me 

(D) you should always have telephoned me 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. 

Passage: 

Women have ………….(1) been held in high esteem in our country. During the Vedic period they …………(2) important positions in social and religious ………..(3) Without women, religious ceremonies were ……………(4) incomplete. Our mythological and philosophical writings bear witness to the fact that the tradition of having high regard for women was long ……………..(5) 

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) never 

(B) seldom 

(C) always 

(D) hardly 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 78 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) occupied 

(B) developed 

(C) demanded 

(D) offered 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) books 

(B) literature 

(C) life 

(D) thoughts 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 80 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) accepted 

(B) believed 

(C) performed 

(D) considered 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) awaited 

(B) maintained 

(C) valued 

(D) discontinued 

Answer: (B) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 82 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. When questioned about their laziness, almost all the boys gave the same excuse, ‘We all are tired.’ 

(A) When questioned 

(B) almost all the boys 

(C) ‘We all are tired.’ 

(D) about their laziness 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

 

Q. 83 Macbeth is the tragedy of a man who was ………. with great qualities. 

(A) endowed 

(B) conferred 

(C) empowered 

(D) advantaged 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 84 All the respondents should express their ………. views in this questionnaire. 

(A) candid 

(B) confident 

(C) convincing 

(D) contrary 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 85 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To split hairs 

(A) To occupy one’s time in dressing 

(B) To stop the argument in between 

(C) To get angry about someone’s fashion 

(D) To engage in discussing irrelevant details 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The government should provide attractive tax ……….. for the salaried class. 

(A) structures 

(B) documents 

(C) suggestions 

(D) bids 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

In spite of his illness, the man run a few yards before withdrawing from the race. 

(A) ran a few yards before withdrew from 

(B) ran a few yards before withdrawing from 

(C) No improvement 

(D) running a few yards before withdrawing from 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 88 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

Organisms that live on another 

(A) Bacteria 

(B) Microbes 

(C) Viruses 

(D) Parasites 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 89 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. The person at the counter when filling up my details asked me how many languages did I know. 

(A) did I know 

(B) at the counter 

(C) filling up my details 

(D) how many languages 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 90 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To read between the lines 

(A) To ask someone to read every line 

(B) To understand more than actual words 

(C) To look for the meaning of every word 

(D) To understand the dictionary meanings 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 91 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Scisors 

(B) Scissors 

(C) Scissars 

(D) Sissors 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 92 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Allteration 

(B) Altaration 

(C) Alterashion 

(D) Alteration 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 93 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Soon I was informed byreliable sources that their parents had no any responsibilities towards the family. 

(A) towards the family 

(B) by reliable sources 

(C) Soon I was informed 

(D) no any responsibilities 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 94 Select the synonym of the given word. 

CONFLUENCE 

(A) Junction 

(B) Flow 

(C) Diversion 

(D) Stream 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 95 Select the antonym of the given word. 

Genuine 

(A) True 

(B) False 

(C) Frank 

(D) Actual 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

The City Development Council resolved at a recent meeting to take steps to controlling pollution immediately. 

(A) to take steps to control! pollution immediately 

(B) No improvement 

(C) to take steps of control pollution immediately 

(D) to take steps for control pollution immediately 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 97 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A short stay at a place 

(A) Voyage 

(B) Lodge 

(C) Sojourn 

(D) Trip 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 98 Select the synonym of the given word. 

PSEUDONYM 

(A) Family name 

(B) Alias 

(C) Namesake 

(D) First name 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 99 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The Director has still not given his ……….. to conduct the survey of natural resources. 

(A) compliance 

(B) projection 

(C) consent 

(D) request 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 100 Select the antonym of the given word. 

Interruption 

(A) Disruption 

(B) Hinderance 

(C) Continuity 

(D) Temporary 

Answer: (C) 

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