SSC GD 22 Feb 2019 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 22nd Feb 2019 Shift-III 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Identify the odd pair from the following. 

(A) Tuberculosis : Heart 

(B) Jaundice : Liver 

(C) Rickets : Bones 

(D) Night Blindness : Eyes 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The disease in the first affect the body part in second, but tuberculosis affects the lungs, hence it is the odd one. 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 2 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully and decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: 

Some animals are birds. 

Cow is an animal. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some birds are animals. 

II. Cow is not a bird. 

(A) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. 

(B) Both conclusions I and II follow. 

(C) Only conclusion I follows. 

(D) Only conclusion II follows. 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The venn diagram for above statements is : 

Conclusions: 

I. Some birds are animals : follows 

II. Cow is not a bird : may or may not be true. 

Thus, only conclusion I follows. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 3 Identify the option that belongs to the following group. 

Lamb, Calf, Tadpole 

(A) Amphibians 

(B) Puppy 

(C) Wild animals 

(D) Reptiles 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 4 Four persons (two men and two women) were sitting in a restaurant. They were each seated at the north, east, south and west of a table. No woman was facing the east. Persons sitting opposite to each other were not of the same gender. One man was facing the south. Which directions were the women facing? 

(A) North and west 

(B) South and west 

(C) East and west 

(D) North and south 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 5 If MARKET is coded as NCUOJZ, then RESPECT will be coded as ……….. 

(A) SGVTIJA

(B) SGVTIJZ 

(C) SGVTJIZ 

(D) SGVTJIA 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

MARKET is coded as NCUOJZ 

Similarly, RESPECT : SGVTJIA 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 6 A square transparent paper after folding looks like as shown in the figure by solid lines. How will it look when unfolded? (Rotation is not allowed) 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

When the figure will be unfolded, out of the two lines formed, clearly there will be a horizontal line in the middle, hence first and third options are eliminated. 

Of the remaining two, the second small vertical line will be formed below the horizontal line, thus last option best describes above figure. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 7 Identify the odd one from the following. 

(A) Brother 

(B) Sister 

(C) Uncle 

(D) Friend 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

All of brother, sister and uncle are blood relatives, hence friend is the odd one out. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 8 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

1 : 121 :: 5 : ……. 

(A) 225 

(B) 25 

(C) 255 

(D) 125 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Expression = 1 : 121 :: 5 : ? 

x : (x + 10)2 

The pattern followed is = 

Eg :- (1 + 10)2 = (11)2 = 121 

Similarly, 

(5 + 10)2 = (15)2 = 225 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 9 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 10 Select the number that DOES NOT belong to the following group. 

1, 1, 1.5, 3, 7.5, 22.5, 78.75, 310 

(A) 22.5 

(B) 310 

(C) 78.75 

(D) 1.5 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 11 In the given Venn diagram, the rectangle represents students, the triangle represents teachers and the circle represents players. Study the diagram carefully and answer the question that follows. How many students are players but not teachers? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 12 There is only one dictionary in a library which will be used by 6 students P, Q, R, S, T and U,one by one. S will use it immediately after Q and before P. T will use it immediately after R and before U. Q will use the dictionary after U. Who will use the dictionary in the end? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 13 Identify the number pair that is different from the rest. 

(A) 45 – 5 

(B) 18 – 2 

(C) 72 – 9 

(D) 90 – 10 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 14 Select the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word. 

TWIN 

(A) IIIWT 

(B) NIMT 

(C) NIWT 

(D) TWIN 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 15 If D = 3, G = 6, and OWL = 47, then FLOWER = ……….. 

(A) 89 

(B) 71 

(C) 73 

(D) 82 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Given : (D) = 3, G = 6 

Thus, the alphabets are represented by consecutive whole numbers : A=0, B=1, C=2, D=3, and so on. OWL = 14+22+11=47 

=> FLOWER = 5+11+14+22+4+17=73 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 16 Identify the number that will come in the following series. 

2500, 2400, 2200, 1900, 1500, …….. 

(A) 1000 

(B) 900 

(C) 1110 

(D) 1100 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The pattern followed is : 

2500 – 100 = 2400 

2400 – 200 = 2200 

2200 – 300 = 1900 

1900 – 400 = 1500 

1500 – 500 = 1000 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 17 Select the correct option to complete the following pattern. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 18 Select the term that will come next in the following series. 

Z2A, X4D, V6G, T8J, R10M, ………… 

(A) Q12Q 

(B) Q12P 

(C) P12Q 

(D) P12P 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Series : Z2A, X4D, V6G, T8J, R10M, 

The numbers in the middle are consecutive even numbers. 

1st letter : Z (-2 letters) = X (-2 letters) = V (-2 letters) = T (-2 letters) = R (-2 letters) = P 3rd letter : (A) (+3 letters) = (D) (+3 letters) = G (+3 letters) = J (+3 letters) = M (+3 letters) = P Thus, missing term = P12P 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 19 Select the option that is analogous to the given pair. 

Nation : President 

(A) State : Minister 

(B) State : Chief Minister 

(C) State : Governor 

(D) State : Chief Secretary 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

President and Governor are the nominal heads of the nation and the state respectively. Thus, State : Governor 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 20 Which two signs need to be interchanged to make the given equation correct? 

5 × 5 + 5 − 5 ÷ 5 = 5 

(A) × and − 

(B) + and × 

(C) + and − 

(D) ÷  and − 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 21 Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are watching a cricket match sitting in a stadium.P is sitting at one extreme end. T is sitting between P and U.R is sitting to the immediate left of U and immediate right of Q. Who is sitting at the extreme right end? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

P is sitting at one extreme end, the two possible cases are (assuming all are facing north). 

i) : P __ __ __ __ __ 

ii) : __ __ __ __ __ P 

T is sitting between P and U.R is sitting to the immediate left of U and immediate right of Q, 

i) : P T U __ __ __ 

ii) : __ __ __ U T P 

Thus, first case is not possible, arrangement : S Q R U T P 

P is sitting at extreme right end. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 22 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully and decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: 

The national norm is 150 beds per thousand population,but in this state, 200 beds per thousand are available in the hospitals. 

Conclusions: 

I. The state’s norm is appropriate. 

II. The state’s health system is taking adequate care in this regard. 

(A) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. 

(B) Only conclusion I follows. 

(C) Only conclusion II follows. 

(D) Both conclusions I and II follow. 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The given statements indicate that for every thousand population in a state, there must be 150 beds in the hospitals, and if there are more beds, we cannot conclude that it is appropriate, also, there are 200 beds in this state, thus we can definitely conclude that the state’s health system is taking adequate care in this regard. 

Thus, only conclusion II follows. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 23 In the following number series, two numbers have been put with in brackets. Study the series carefully and select the correct alternative with respect to the series. 

0, 1, 4, 9, (15), 25, 36, 49, (64), 81 

(A) Both the bracketed numbers are incorrect. 

(B) Both the bracketed numbers are correct. 

(C) The first bracketed number(from the left) is incorrect and the second is correct. 

(D) The first bracketed number(from the left) is correct and the second is incorrect. 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Clearly, the above series is a combination of square of consecutive whole numbers, but the first bracket number, i.e. 15 is incorrect as it 

is not a perfect square, while the second bracket number 64 is correct, as 

(8)2 = 64 

Thus, the first bracketed number(from the left) is incorrect and the second is correct. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 24 Identify the odd one from the following. 

(A) HL 

(B) KN 

(C) CG 

(D) UY 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

(A) : H (+4 letters) = L 

(B) : K (+3 letters) = N 

(C) : (C) (+4 letters) = G 

(D) : U (+4 letters) = Y 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 25 Select the combination that will come next in the following series. 

Answer: (B) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 What was the brand name of the first electric powered washing machine? 

(A) Thor 

(B) Images 

(C) Icon 

(D) Goliath 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 27 When was the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act passed? 

(A) 2015 

(B) 2017 

(C) 2016 

(D) 2014 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 28 What does Individual Vulnerability refer to in Economics? 

(A) The threat to Intellectual property 

(B) The threat of Exploitation 

(C) The threat to health 

(D) The threat of poverty 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 29 In the WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture (AoA), what do the terms Green Box, Blue Box and AMS(Amber Box) stand for? 

(A) Interest 

(B) Subsidies 

(C) Bonus 

(D) Taxes 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 30 Which of the following animals hibernates? 

(A) Tiger 

(B) Bat 

(C) Jackal 

(D) Deer 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 31 Rungrado May Stadium, the largest football stadium in the world, is located in which country? 

(A) China 

(B) Singapore 

(C) North Korea 

(D) Spain 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 32 What is the highest peak of Pir Panjal Range? 

(A) Indrasan 

(B) Kabru 

(C) Nanda Devi 

(D) Kamet 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 33 Who is the Padma Bhushan awardee who guided ISRO to blast its heaviest ever rocket GSLV Mark-III, paving the road to manned space missions? 

(A) Fali Nariman 

(B) Manohar Parrikar 

(C) K. Radhakrishnan 

(D) Nandan Nilekani 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 34 Which country is the largest producer of mangoes as of 2018? 

(A) Brazil 

(B) Sri Lanka 

(C) India 

(D) China 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 35 Who invaded India in 326 BC after crossing the river Indus, advancing towards Taxila? 

(A) Eduardo Barbosa 

(B) Nicolini 

(C) Marco Polo 

(D) Alexander 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 36 ‘Paika’ is a traditional dance form associated with which Indian state? 

(A) Uttarakhand 

(B) Jharkhand 

(C) Sikkim 

(D) Madhya Pradesh 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 37 Which of the following diseases is caused by bats? 

(A) Dengue 

(B) Zika 

(C) Ebola 

(D) Chikungunya 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 38 Which of the following options is an ancient literary source that sheds light on the ancient period of Indian history? 

(A) Puranas 

(B) Bhagwat Gita 

(C) Upanishads 

(D) Sama Veda 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 39 In which country is the highest mountain peak of Africa Kilimanzaro located? 

(A) Kenya 

(B) Zambia 

(C) Ghana 

(D) Tanzania 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 40 Chaukhandi Stupa is a Buddhist monument located in which Indian 

state? 

(A) Punjab 

(B) Uttar Pradesh 

(C) Sikkim 

(D) West Bengal 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 41 ‘Jyotipunj’ is a book written by: 

(A) Narendra Modi 

(B) Dhirubhai Ambani 

(C) VS. Naipaul 

(D) Munshi Premchand 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 42 A deficiency of Vitamin A causes: 

(A) Anaemia 

(B) Goitre 

(C) Night blindness 

(D) Rickets 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 43 Which acids are present in most grapes? 

(A) Hydrochloric and sulphuric acid 

(B) Nitric and sulphuric 

(C) Tartaric and malic acid 

(D) Acetic acid and nitric acid 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 44 In which of the following Indian state was the game of polo born? 

(A) Assam 

(B) West Bengal 

(C) Arunachal Pradesh 

(D) Manipur 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 45 The Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar Award is given in India for contribution to the field of: 

(A) sports 

(B) social work 

(C) science and technology 

(D) literature 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 46 In which city was the East India Association formed in the year 1866? 

(A) Kolkata 

(B) Singapore 

(C) London 

(D) Paris 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 47 In which amendment of the Constitution was the voting age reduced from 21 to 18 years? 

(A) 56th 

(B) 70th 

(C) 65th 

(D) 61st 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 48 Federalism is a system of government in which the powers is …….. between a central authority and various constituent units of the country. 

(A) Divided 

(B) Incited 

(C) Derided 

(D) Indicted 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 49 ‘Teeyan’is a festival celebrated in which state of India? 

(A) Gujarat 

(B) Jammu and Kashmir 

(C) Rajasthan 

(D) Punjab 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 50 What does Buffer stock mean? 

(A) (A) barrier on stock creation when surplusis available 

(B) (A) reserve of commodities used to offset deficit 

(C) (A) focus on production of one specific variety when there is a deficit 

(D) (A) preventive measure to stop excessive distribution 

Answer: (B) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 Two trains are coming from opposite side at 40 km/hrs and 50 km/hrs from the different places 360 km apart. After how many hours two trains will meet to each other? 

(A) 4 hrs 

(B) 6 hrs 

(C) 5 hrs 

(D) 3 hrs 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 52 The greatest number that will divide 146, 248 and 611 leaving remainders 2,8 and 11 respectively is: 

(A) 47 

(B) 144 

(C) 24 

(D) 612 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The greatest number that will divide 146, 248 and 611 leaving remainders 2,8 and 11 respectively 

= H.C.F. of (146-2), (248-8), (611-11) 

= H.C.F. (144,240,600) = 24 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 53 Study the Table Properly and answer by interpreting the data. 

The table given the percentage of result by four different classes in the five different year of examination: 

In which class the average performance is least in all the five years? 

(A) Class-XII 

(B) Class-XI 

(C) Class-IX 

(D) Class-X 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Average performance is least in all the five years for class 

(A) : Class-XII = 75 + 58 + 33 + 35 + 38 = 239 [MIN] 

(B) : Class-XI = 85 + 62 + 32 + 38 + 32 = 249 

(C) : Class-IX = 90 + 70 + 65 + 50 + 55 = 330 

(D) : Class-X = 80 + 65 + 35 + 48 + 45 = 273 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 54 The value of (6 × 15) ÷ (2 × 3) − 22 + 3  is: 

(A) 12 

(B) 14 

(C)

(D)

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 55 In a board examination, 75% of the total examinees passed. If the number of failures is 625, the total number of examinees is: 

(A) 3800 

(B) 2400 

(C) 3600 

(D) 2500 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 56 Study the Table Properly and answer by interpreting the data. 

The table given the percentage of result by four different classes in the five different year of examination: 

What is the average percentage of marks in Class-IX in the year 2012 to 2016? 

(A) 65% 

(B) 72% 

(C) 66% 

(D) 62% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 57 A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of 4 : 3. When 5 liters of water is added to this mixture, the ratio of milk and water becomes 6 : 7. The quantity of milk in the mixture is: 

(A) 12 liters 

(B) 5 liters 

(C) 15 liters 

(D) 10 liters 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 58 A dining set having a marked price of ₹4000 is sold at a discount of 8%, thereby earning a profit of 10%. The cost price of the dining set is: 

(A) ₹3345.45 

(B) ₹3786.78 

(C) ₹3568.80 

(D) ₹3496.50 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 59 An amount of ₹ 4600 has been distributed between x, y & z in the ratio of ½ : ⅔ : ¾. The share of y is: 

(A) 1600 

(B) 2000 

(C) 1200 

(D) 1800 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 60 The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 3 : 4. The second train runs 800 km in 5 hrs, and speed of first train is: 

(A) 120 km/hrs 

(B) 140 km/hrs 

(C) 180 km/hrs 

(D) 160 km/hrs 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 61 In a cricket team, the average age of 11 players is 22 years. When the age of team coach is included to it, the average age increases by 1. The age of coach of the team is: 

(A) 33 years 

(B) 34 years 

(C) 43 years 

(D) 53 years 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 62 Sheela buys 3 pens for ₹24 and sold at 2 for ₹18 and 1 for ₹9. The profit or loss percent is: 

(A) Loss 12.5% 

(B) Profit 12% 

(C) Loss 12% 

(D) Profit 12.5% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 63 Sweta can paint a wall in 30 hours, while Ansul can paint it in 40 hours. If they paint it together and get payment of ₹ 14,000. What is Ansul’s share? 

(A) ₹6000/- 

(B) ₹12000/- 

(C) ₹10000/- 

(D) ₹8000/- 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 64 What will be the compound interest on ₹6000 at 3% per annum for 2 years compounded annually? 

(A) ₹365.40 

(B) ₹653.20 

(C) ₹372.50 

(D) ₹725.10 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 65 The scores done by a bats man in a cricket series are 12, 25, 38, 56, 64, 86. What will be the median? 

(A) 45 

(B) 56 

(C) 47 

(D) 38 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 66 A trader sold a machine for ₹18,800 and lost 6%. The cost price of the machine is: 

(A) ₹22000 

(B) ₹24000 

(C) ₹20000 

(D) ₹18000 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 67 The ratio of the area of two triangles is 2 : 3 and ratio of their height is 3 : 2. The ratio of their bases is: 

(A) 3:2 

(B) 4:9 

(C) 9:4 

(D) 2:3 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 68 Study the Table Properly and answer by interpreting the data. 

The table given the percentage of result by four different classes in the five different year of examination: 

In Which year the average performance is maximum in all the four classes? 

(A) 2016 

(B) 2015 

(C) 2013 

(D) 2012 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 69 The value of 62 − 5 of (18 − 14) + 5 × 7 is equal to: 

(A) 18 

(B) 28 

(C) 15 

(D) 77 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 70 If the radius of the circle is decreased by 10%. The percentage decreased in its areas is : 

(A) 90% 

(B) 110% 

(C) 19% 

(D) 91% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 71 Simple interest on a certain sum is 16/25 of the total sum. If rate percent and time are same, what will be the rate of interest? 

(A) 6.8% 

(B) 5% 

(C) 12% 

(D) 8% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 72 The average of five consecutive numbers is 15. The highest of these number is: 

(A) 12 

(B) 19 

(C) 17 

(D) 15 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Average of five consecutive numbers = 15 

=> Middle number = 15 

Thus, the consecutive numbers are = 13,14,15,16,17 

Thus, highest number = 17 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 73 Sanjya and Saumya together can finish a work in 9 days. Sanjya can do the same job on his own in 15 days. The same work Saumya can do by himself in: 

(A) 14 days 

(B) 15½ days 

(C) 22½ days 

(D) 22 days 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 74 The base of the parallelogram is twice of its height and its area is 288cm2. The base of the parallelogram is: 

(A) 12 cm 

(B) 24 cm 

(C) 36 cm 

(D) 28 cm 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 75 The mean proportional between 36 and 121 is equal to: 

(A) 72 

(B) 85 

(C) 66 

(D) 157 

Answer: (C) 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 76 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Pragati Maidan is the famous international exhibition center at Delhi for trade fairs. 

(A) for trade fairs 

(B) Pragati Maidan is 

(C) at Delhi 

(D) the famous 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 77 Select the synonym of the given word. 

PROBABLE 

(A) Tangible 

(B) Substitute 

(C) Likely 

(D) Similar 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 78 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Japan will be a country well known for its culture, technology and cuisines like sushi. 

(A) will be a country 

(B) well known for 

(C) cuisines like 

(D) its culture 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

He work in a shop which makes handicraft goods. 

(A) works in a shop which make 

(B) works in a shop which makes 

(C) No improvement 

(D) working in a shop which makes 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 80 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. The country also needs large doses of infrastructure additions — roads or highways, power plants, distribution networks, airports and ports. 

(A) airports and ports 

(B) also needs 

(C) roads or highways 

(D) The country 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 81 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

One that has life 

(A) Mortal 

(B) Animate 

(C) Inanimate 

(D) Conscious 

Answer: (B) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. 

Passage: 

Bird-watching, as it is popularly called, is a peaceful …………(1) . Itis not entirely without occasional physical thrills and even …………(2) The elephant ridden jungles in South India, for instance. I found myself in uncomfortably disturbing …………(3) . Actually, there is little danger from a wild elephant unless it happens to be a female with a small ………….(4) along with her. What such situations demand is …………(5) and not valour. 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) job 

(B) service 

(C) activity 

(D) work 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) conditions 

(B) hazards 

(C) pleasures 

(D) circumstances 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) zones 

(B) atmospheres 

(C) situations 

(D) locations 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) cub 

(B) calf 

(C) pup 

(D) kitten 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) loyalty 

(B) honesty 

(C) forgetfulness 

(D) discretion 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 87 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Accessaries 

(B) Accessories 

(C) Acessories 

(D) Accesories 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 88 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Pollution of rivers and seas destroys ………. life. 

(A) Aerial 

(B) Marine 

(C) Desert 

(D) Terrestrial 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

Their wages were very low, so the workers went on a ……….. 

(A) strike 

(B) leave 

(C) strife 

(D) conflict 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 

COARSE 

(A) Fine 

(B) Texture 

(C) Rough 

(D) Glossy 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 91 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

Run of the mill 

(A) Ordinary 

(B) Rare 

(C) Exceptional 

(D) Uncommon 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

Ten million people watch this television ………. every week. 

(A) incident 

(B) event 

(C) programme 

(D) media 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 93 Select the synonym of the given word. 

LETHARGY 

(A) Delight 

(B) Thrill 

(C) Wisdom 

(D) Fatigue 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 94 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

People have used indigenous plants for ……….. of ailments since ancient times. 

(A) treatment 

(B) exclusion 

(C) adulteration 

(D) pollution 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 95 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

Man of letters 

(A) A student 

(B) A scholar 

(C) One who writes letters 

(D) One who can read letters 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 96 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

Those that feed only on plants 

(A) Omnivorous 

(B) Predatory 

(C) Amphibian 

(D) Herbivorous 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 97 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Greivance 

(B) Grievanse 

(C) Grievence 

(D) Grievance 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 98 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

it’s getting dark, can you switch the lights please? 

(A) No improvement 

(B) can you switch on the lights please? 

(C) can you switch ofthe lights please? 

(D) can you on the lights please? 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 99 Select the antonym of the given word. 

WHOLESALE 

(A) Discount 

(B) Retail 

(C) Concession 

(D) Rebate 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 100 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

If he remains absent from the college, he will have to pay a fine. 

(A) If he is remain absent from 

(B) No improvement 

(C) If he is remaining absent from 

(D) If he will remains absent from 

Answer: (B) 

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