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AIPMT 2011 Mains Previous Year Paper
April 12, 2019
Rajasthan Studies 9th Important Questions 2020
April 15, 2019

AIPMT 2012  Mains





30 Questions (1 – 30)



60 Questions (31 – 90)



30 Questions (91 – 120)



Q. 1 The instantaneous values of alternating current and voltages in a circuit are given as i = 1/√2 sin (100 πt) ampere

e =1/√2 sin (100 πt + π/3) volt

The average power in Watts consumed in the circuit is –

A. √3/4

B. 1/2

C. 1/8

D. 1/4


Q. 2 The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the figure is 30 Watts. The value of R is –

A. 15 Ω

B. 10 Ω

C. 30 Ω

D. 20 Ω


Q. 3 The dimensions of (μ0ε0)^–1/2 are –

A. [L–1T]

B. [LT–1]

C. [L1/2T1/2]

D. [L1/2T–1/2]


Q. 4 An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via three different processes as indicated in the PV diagram –

If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicate the heat absorbed by the gas along the three processes and ΔU1, ΔU2, ΔU3 indicate the change in internal energy along the three processes respectively, then –

A. Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and ΔU1 = ΔU2 = ΔU3

B. Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and ΔU1 > ΔU2 > ΔU3

C. Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and ΔU1 > ΔU2 > ΔU

D. Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and ΔU1 = ΔU2 = ΔU3


Q. 5 To get an output Y = 1 in given circuit which of the following input will be correct

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 6 Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm are given charges of –1 × 10–2 C and 5 × 10–2 C, respectively. If these are connected by a conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger sphere is –

A. 3 × 10–2 C

B. 4 × 10–2 C

C. 1 × 10–2 C

D. 2 × 10–2 C


Q. 7 Two radiations of photons energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV, successively illuminate a photosensitive metallic surface of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds of the emitted electrons is –

A. 1 : 2

B. 1 : 1

C. 1 : 5

D. 1 : 4


Q. 8 The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc is maximum about an axis perpendicular to the disc and passing through –

A. C

B. D

C. A

D. B


Q. 9 A train moving at a speed of 220 ms–1 towards a stationary object, emits a sound of frequency 1000 Hz. Some of the sound reaching the object gets reflected back to the train as echo. The frequency of the echo as detected by the driver of the train is – (speed of sound in air is 330 ms–1)

A. 4000 Hz

B. 5000 Hz

C. 3000 Hz

D. 3500 Hz


Q. 10 The half life of a radioactive nucleus is 50 days. The time interval (t2 – t1) between the time t2 when 2/3 of it has decayed and the time t1 when 1/3 of it had decayed is –

A. 50 days

B. 60 days

C. 15 days

D. 30 days


Q. 11 A car of mass m is moving on a level circular track of radius R. If μs represents the static friction between the road and tyres of the car, the maximum speed of the car in circular motion is given by –

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 12 A circular platform is mounted on a frictionless vertical axle. Its radius R = 2m and its moment of inertia about the axle is 200 kg m2. It is initially at rest. A 50 kg man stands on the edge of the platform and begins to walk along the edge at the speed of 1ms–1 relative to the ground. Time taken by the man to complete one revolution is –

A. s 2 3π/2 s

B. 2π s

C. s π/ 2 s

D. π s


Q. 13 If the momentum of an electron is changed by P, then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it changes by 0.5%. The initial momentum of electron will be

A. 400 P

B. P/200

C. `100P

D. 200P


Q. 14 If ve is escape velocity and vo is orbital velocity of a satellite for orbit close to the earth’s surface, then these are related by –

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 15 The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by

y = 3 sin π/ 2 (50t – x)

where x and y are in meters and t is in seconds. The ratio of maximum particle velocity to

the wave velocity is –

A. 3/2π

B. 3π

C. 2/3π

D. 2π


Q. 16 A proton carrying 1 MeV kinetic energy is moving in a circular path of radius R in uniform magnetic field. What should be the energy of an α-particle to describe a circle of same radius in the same field ?

A. 1 MeV

B. 0.5 MeV

C. 4 MeV

D. 2 MeV


Q. 17 Three masses are placed on the x-axis : 300 g at origin, 500 g at x = 40 cm and 400 g at x = 70 cm. The distance of the centre of mass from the origin is –

A. 45 cm

B. 50 cm

C. 30 cm

D. 40 cm


Q. 18 In a coil of resistance 10 Ω, the induced current developed by changing magnetic flux through it, is shown in figure as a function of time. The magnitude of change in flux through the coil in Weber is –

A. 2

B. 6

C. 4

D. 8


Q. 19 A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field E in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is d and area of each plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is –

A. E^2Ad/ε0

B. 1/2 ε0E^2Ad

C. ε0EAd

D. 1/2 ε0E^2


Q. 20 A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates so that the instantaneous power delivered to the car has a constant magnitude P0. The instantaneous velocity of this car is proportional to –

A. t^1/2

B. t^–1/2

C. t/√m

D. t²p0


Q. 21 Which one of the following plots represents the variation of gravitational field on a particle with distance r due to a thin spherical shell of radius R ? (r is measured from the centre of the spherical shell)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 22 The input resistance of a silicon transistor is 100 Ω. Base current is changed by 40 μA which results in a change in collector current by 2 mA. This transistor is used as a common emitter amplifier with a load resistance of 4 KΩ. The voltage gain of the amplifier is-

A. 3000

B. 4000

C. 1000

D. 2000


Q. 23 For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material whose refractive index –

A. lies between 2 and 2

B. is less than 1

C. is greater than 2

D. lies between 2 and 1


Q. 24 The transition from the state n = 3 to n = 1 in a hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from –

A. 3 → 2

B. 4 → 2

C. 4 → 3

D. 2 → 1


Q. 25 A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the image is –

A. 15 cm

B. 2.5 cm

C. 5 cm

D. 10 cm


Q. 26 A slab of stone of area 0.36 m2 and thickness 0.1 is exposed on the lower surface to steam at 100ºC. A block of ice at 0ºC rests on the upper surface of the slab. In one hour 4.8 kg of ice is melted. The thermal conductivity of slab is- (Given latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.36 × 105 J kg–1)

A. 1.29 J/m/s/ºC

B. 2.05 J/m/s/ºC

C. 1.02 J/m/s/ºC

D. 1.24 J/m/s/ºC


Q. 27 A stone is dropped from a height h. It hits the ground with a certain momentum P. If the same stone is dropped from a height 100 % more than the previous height, the momentum when it hits the ground will change by –

A. 41 %

B. 200 %

C. 100 %

D. 68 %


Q. 28 A cell having an emf ε and internal resistance r is connected across a variable external resistance R. As the resistance R is increased, the plot of potential difference V across R is given by –

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 29 A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a magnetic field requires 3 J of work to turn it through 60º. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be-

A. 3 J

B. √ 3 J

C. 3/2 J

D. 2√3 J


Q. 30 The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field for an

electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum is equal to –

A. reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum

B. the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric susceptibility of vacuum

C. unity

D. the speed of light in vacuum


Q. 31 Read the following four statements (A – D) :

(A) In transcription adenosine pairs with uracil

(B) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as positive regulation

(C) The human genome has approximately 50,000 genes

(D) Haemophilia is a sex – linked recessive disease.

How many of the above statements are right?

A. Three

B. Four

C. One

D. Two


Q. 32 How man organisms in the list given below are autotrophs ? Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Sacharomyces,  Trypanosoma, Porphyra, Wolffia

A. Five

B. Six

C. THree

D. Four


Q. 33 How many plants in the list given below have marginal placentation?

Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, arhar, Sun,nemp, Chilli, Colchicine, Onion, Moong,Pea, Tobacco

A. Five

B. Six

C. Three

D. Four


Q. 34 As compared to a dicot root, a monocot root has

A. Many xylem bundles

B. Inconspicous annual rings

C. Relatively thicker periderm

D. More aboundant secondary xylem


Q. 35 A test cross is carried out to :

A. Predict whether two traits are linked

B. Assess the number of alleles of a gene

C. Determine whether two species or varieties will breed successfully

D. Determine the genotype of a plant at F2


Q. 36 Which one of the following categories of animals, is correctly described with no single exception in it ?

A. All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an operculum on each side

B. All sponges are marine and have collared cells

C. All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathi

D. All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathi


Q. 37 The rate of formation of new organic matter by rabbit in a grassland, is called :

A. Secondary productivity

B. Net primary productivit

C. Gross primary productivity

D. Net productivity


Q. 38 In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used :

A. To select healthy vectors

B. As sequences from where replication starts

C. To keep the cultures free of infection

D. As selectable markers


Q. 39 The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called

A. Follicular phase lasting for about 6 days

B. Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days

C. Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days

D. Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days


Q. 40 In gobar gas, the maximum amount is that of :

A. Methane

B. Propane

C. Carbon dioxide

D. Butane


Q. 41 Through their effect on plant growth regulators, what do the temperature and light control in the plants ?

A. Flowering

B. Closure of stomata

C. Fruit elongation

D. Apical dominance


Q. 42 Which one of the following human organs is often called the “graveyard” of RBCs?

A. Kidney

B. Spleen

C. Liver

D. Gall bladder


Q. 43 Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated against them ?

A. Garden lizard and Crocodile – Three chambered heart

B. Ascaris and Ancylostoma – Metameric segmentation

C. Sea horse and Flying fish – Cold blooded (poikilothermal)

D. Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus – Viviparity


Q. 44 The idea of mutations was brought forth by :

A. Gregor Mendol, who worked on Pisum sativum

B. Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele frequencies in a population

C. Charles Darwin, who observed a wide variety of organisms during sea voyage

D. Hugo do Vries, who worked on evening primrose


Q. 45 Select the correct statement about biodiversity :

A. Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity

B. Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism

C. Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by the developed countries

D. The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal pecies as well as numerous rare animal

Q. 46 Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules, are generally pollinated by

A. Butterflies

B. Birds

C. Wind

D. Bees


Q. 47 Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones only :

(a) Single cell Spirulina can produce large quantities of food rich in protein, minerals,

vitamins etc.

(b) Body weight-wise the microorganisms Methylophilus methylotrophus may be able to produce several times more proteins than the cow per day

(c) Common button mushrooms are a very rich source of vitamin C

(d) A rice variety has been developed which is very rich in calcium

A. Statements (a), (c) and (d)

B. Statements (b), (c) and (d)

C. Statements (a), (b)

D. Statements (a), (b)


Q. 48 Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterised ?

A. Palmitic acid – an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms

B. Adenylic acid – adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule

C. Alanine amino acid – Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule

D. Lecithin – a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane


Q. 49 For its action, nitrogenase requires :

A. Light

B. Mn2+

C. Super oxygen radicals

D. High input of energy


Q. 50 Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been developed by the introduction of DNA that produced (in the host cells) :

A. A particular hormone

B. An antifeedant

C. A toxic protein

D. Both sense and anti-sense RNA


Q. 51 Where do certain symbiotic microorganisms normally occur in human body ?

A. Oral lining and tongue surface

B. Vermiform appendix and rectum

C. Duodenum

D. Caecum


Q. 52 Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous chromosomes separate while the sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres :

A. Metaphase-II

B. Anaphase-I

C. Anaphase-II

D. Metaphase-I


Q. 53 Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described ?

A. Centrioles – sites for active RNA synthesis

B. Ribosomes – those on chloroplasts are larger (80s) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70s)

C. Lysosomes – optimally active at a pH of about 8.5

D. Thylakoids – flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts


Q. 54 Cuscuta is an example of

A. Brood parasitism

B. Predation

C. Endoparasitism

D. Ectoparasitism


Q. 55 The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of :

A. Areolar tissue

B. Bone

C. Cartilage

D. Ligament


Q. 56 Read the following five statements (A – E) and answer as asked next to them.

(A) In Equisetum the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte

(B) In Ginkgo male gametophyte is not independent

(C) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed than that in Polytrichum

(D) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous

(E) The spores of slime molds lack cell walls

How many of the above statements are correct ?

A. Three

B. Four

C. One

D. Two


Q. 57 Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use

Molecule Source Use
(1) (b) Heroin Cannabis Sativa Depressant and slows down body functions
(2) (b) Cannabinoid Atropa belladonna Produces hallucinations
(3) (a) Morphine Papaver somniferum Sedative and painkiller
(4) (a) Cocaine Erythroxylum coca Accelerates the transport of dopamine


A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 58 The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the option giving correct identification together with what it represents ?

A. A – Denaturation at a temperature of about 50ºC

B. C – Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase

C. A – Annealing with two sets of primers

D. B – Denaturation at a temperature of about 98ºC separating the two DNA strands


Q. 59 Identify the likely organisms (a), (b), (c) and (d) in the food web shown below :


(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Dog Squirrel Bat Deer
(2) Rat Dog Tortoise Crow
(3) Squirrel Cat Rat Pigeon
(4) Deer Rabbit Frog Rat

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 60 Which one of the following pairs of chemical substances, is correctly categarised ?

A. Pepsin and prolactin – Two digestive enzymes secreted in stomach

B. Troponin and myosin – Complex proteins in striated muscles

C. Secretin and rhodopsin – Polypeptide hormones

D. Calcitonin and thymosin – Thyroid hormones


Q. 61 Vernalisation stimulates flowering in –

A. Turmeric

B. Carrot

C. Ginger

D. Zamikand


Q. 62 Green revolution in India occurred during –

A. 1970’s

B. 1980’s

C. 1950’s

D. 1960’s


Q. 63 A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates –

A. Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone

B. Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline

C. Posterior pituitary to release vasopressin

D. Juxta glomerular cells to release renin


Q. 64 What is the function of germ pore ?

A. Absorption of water for seed germination

B. Initiation of pollen tube

C. Release of male gametes

D. Emergence of radicle


Q. 65 Which one of the following option gives the correct categorization of six animals according to the type of nitrogenous wastes (A, B, C,), they give out ?


(1) Frog, Lizards Aquatic, Amphibia, Humans Cockroach Pigeon
(2) Aquatic Amphibia Frog, Humans Pigeon, Lizards Cockroach
(3) Aquatic Cockroach Humans Frog, Pigeon Lizards
(4) Pigeon Humans Aquatic Amphibia Lizards Cockroach Frog


A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 66 Which one of the following sets of items in the option 1 – 4 are correctly categorized with one exception in it ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 67 Which one of the following generally acts as an antagonist to gibberellins ?

A. Ethylene



D. Zeatin


Q. 68 Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described ?

A. Plasmodium falciparum – a protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria

B. Felis tigris – The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests.

C. E.Coli – Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occurring bacterium in human Intestine

D. Musca domestica – The common house lizards, a reptil


Q. 69 Read the following four statements (A-D) :

(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antigen

(B) Chikengunya is caused by a Gram negative bacterium

(C) Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining virus-free plants

(D) Beer is manufactured by distillation of fermented grape juice

How many of the above statements are wrong ?

A. Three

B. Four

C. One

D. Two


Q. 70 Which one of the following organisms is correctly matched with its three characteristics ?

A. Tomato : Twisted aestivation, Axile placentation, Berry

B. Onion : Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation

C. Maize : C3 pathway, Closed vascular bundles, Scutellum

D. Pea : C3 pathway, Endospermic seed, Vaxillary aestivation


Q. 71 The second stage of hydrosere is occupied by plants like

A. Typha

B. Salix

C. Vallisneria

D. Azolla


Q. 72 Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity ?

A. The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes

B. Antibodies are protein molecules each of which has four light chains

C. Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes

D. Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake


Q. 73 Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA ?

A. 5′-CCAATG-3′ 3′-GAATCC-5′

B. 5′-CATTAG-3′ 3′-GATAAC-5′

C. 5′-GATACC-3′ 3′-CCTAAG-5

D. 5′-GAATTC-3′ 3′-CTTAAG-5′


Q. 74 For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires :

A. Iron

B. Niacin

C. Copper

D. Zinc


Q. 75 Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. identify the parts labeled A, B, C and D and select the right option about them

Part – A Part – B Part – C Part – D
(1) Mast Cell Marco – Phage Fibroblast Collagen Fibreso
(2) Macro – phage Collagen fibres Fibroblast Mast Cell
(3) Mast Cell Collagen Fibers Fibroblast Macro Phage
(4) Macro Phage Fibroblast Collagen Fibers Mast Cell

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 76 In the five-kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in

A. Algae

B. Plantae

C. Monera

D. Protista


Q. 77 Read the following four statements (A-D)

(A) Both, photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation involve uphill transport of protons across the membrane

(B) In dicot stems, a new cambium originates from cells of pericycle at the time of secondary growth

(C) Stamens in flowers of Gloriosa and Petunia are polyandrous

(D) Symbiotic nitrogen-fixers occur in free-living state also in soil

How many of the above statements are right

A. THree

B. Four

C. one

D. Two


Q. 78 The domestic sewage in large cities :

A. is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary treatment in Sewage Treatment Plant (STPs)

B. When treated in STPs does not really require the aeration step as the sewage contains adequate oxygen

C. ) has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts

D. has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria.


Q. 79 Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?

A. Salvinia – Prothallus

B. Viroids – RNA

C. Mustard-Synergids

D. Ginkgo-Archegonia


Q. 80 What is it that forms the basis of DNA Fingerprinting ?

A. The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva

B. , The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints

C. Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments

D. The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA


Q. 81 Which one of the following characteristics is common both in humans and adult frogs ?

A. Internal fertilization

B. Nucleated RBCs

C. Ureotelic mode of excretion

D. Four – chambered heart


Q. 82 Represented below is the inheritance pattern of the certain type of traits in humans. Which one of the following conditions could be an example of this pattern ?

A. Sickel cell anaemia

B. Haemophilia

C. Thalassemia

D. Phenylketonuria


Q. 83 The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below, represent four different types of animal tissues. Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct location and function ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 84 Which one of the following structures is an organelle within an organelle ?

A. Peroxisome


C. Mesosome

D. Ribosome


Q. 85 The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating –

A. Chicken pox

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

C. Adenosine deaminase deficiency

D. Diabetes mellitus


Q. 86 Sacred groves are specially useful in –

A. preventing soil erosion

B. year-round flow of water in rivers

C. conserving rare and threatened species

D. generating environmental awareness


Q. 87 Which one of the following is a wrong statement regarding mutations ?

A. Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations

B. UV and Gamma rays are mutagens

C. Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation

D. Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frame-shift mutations


Q. 88 Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for

A. Transformation of plant cells

B. Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors

C. DNA finger printing

D. Disarming pathogen vectors


Q. 89 Which one of the following statements is wrong ?

A. Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell

B. Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for months

C. Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin

D. When pollen is shed at two-called stage, double fertilization does not take place


Q. 90 Identify the human development stage shown below as well as the related right place of its occurrence in a normal pregnant women and select the right option for the two together –

Developmental Stage Site of occurrence
(1) Blastula End part of Fallopian tube
(2) Blastocyst Uterine wall
(3) 8 – Celled morula Starting point of fallopian tube
(4) Late morula Middle part of Fallopian tube

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 91 Red precipitate is obtained when ethanol solution of dimethylglyoxime is added to ammoniacal Ni(II). Which of the following statements is not rue ?

A. Complex has symmetrical H-bonding

B. Red complex has a tetrahedral geometry

C. Dimethylglyoxime functions as bidentate ligand

D. Red complex has a square planar geometry


Q. 92 During change of O2 to O ion, the electron adds on which one of the following orbitals ? − 2

A. π orbital

B. σ*orbital

C. σ orbital

D. π*orbital


Q. 93 Consider the reaction:

RCHO + NH2NH2→ RCH = N – NH2

What sort of reaction is it ?

A. Free radical addition – elimination reaction

B. Electrophilic substitution-elimination reaction

C. Nucleophilic addition – elimination reaction

D. Electrophilic addition – elimination reaction


Q. 94 In which of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the property indicated against it ?

A. H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te : increasing pKa values

B. NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : increasing acidic character

C. CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : increasing oxidising power

D. HF < HCl < HBr < HI : increasing acidic strength


Q. 95 The Gibbs’ energy for the decomposition of Al2O3 at 500ºC is as follows:

2/3 Al2O3→4/3Al + O2; ΔrG = + 960 kJ mol–1.

The potential difference needed for the electrolytic reduction of aluminium oxide (Al2O3) at 500ºC is at least :

A. 3.0 V

B. 2.5 V

C. 5.0 V

D. 4.5 V


Q. 96 Given that the equilibrium constant for the reaction

2SO2(g) + O2(g)⇒ 2SO3(g)

has a value of 278 at a particular temperature. What is the value of the equilibrium

constant for the following reaction at the same temperature ?

SO3(g)⇒ SO2(g) + 1/2 O2(g)

A. 3.6 × 10–3

B. 6.0 × 10–2

C. 1.3 × 10–5

D. 1.8 × 10–3


Q. 97 Which of the following compounds can be used as antifreeze in automobile radiators ?

A. Glycol

B. Nitrophenol

C. Ethyl alcohol

D. Methyl alcohol


Q. 98 Molar conductivities ) (Λºm at infinite dilution of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa are 126.4, 425.9 and 91.0 Scm^2mol–1 respectively. Λºm for CH3COOH will be:

A. 180.5 S cm2 mol–1

B. 290.8 S cm2 mol–1

C. 390.5 S cm2 mol–1

D. 425.5 S cm2 mol–1


Q. 99 Vapour pressure of chloroform (CHCl3) and dichloromethane (CH2Cl2) at 25ºC are 200 mmHg and 41.5 mmHg respectively. Vapour pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 25.5 g of CHCl3 and 40 g of CH2Cl2 at the same temperature will be: (Molecular mass of CHCl3 = 119.5 u and molecular mass of CH2Cl2 = 85 u)

A. 615.0 mm Hg

B. 347.9 mm Hg

C. 285.5 mm Hg

D. 173.9 mm Hg


Q. 100 A certain gas takes three times as long to effuse out as helium. Its molecular mass will be:

A. 36 u

B. 64 u

C. 9 u

D. 27 u


Q. 101 Which one of the following sets forms the biodegradable polymer ?sni

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 102 The catalytic activity of transition metals and their compounds is ascribed mainly to:

A. their unfilled d-orbitals

B. their ability of adopt variable oxidation states

C. their chemical reactivity

D. their magnetic behaviour


Q. 103 Given the reaction between 2 gases represented by A2 and B2 to give the compound AB(g).

A2(g) + B2(g) ⇒ 2 AB(g)

At equilibrium, the concentration

of A2 = 3.0 × 10–3 M

of B2 = 4.2 × 10–3 M

of AB = 2.8 × 10–3 M

If the reaction takes place in a sealed vessel at 527ºC, then the value of KC will be :

A. 1.9

B. 0.62

C. 4.5

D. 2.0


Q. 104 Standard reduction potentials of the half reactions are given below :

F2(g) + 2e– → 2F–(aq) ; Eº = + 2.85 V

Cl2(g) + 2e– → 2Cl–(aq); Eº = + 1.36 V

Br2(l) + 2e– → 2Br–(aq) ; Eº = + 1.06 V

I2(g) + e– → 2I–(aq) ; Eº = + 0.53 V

The strongest oxidizing and reducing agents respectively are –

A. Br2 and Cl–

B. Cl2 and Br–

C. Cl2 and I2

D. F2 and I


Q. 105 Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the correct order in which the bond order is increasing in them –

A. O2– < NO < C22– < He2+

B. C22– < He2+< O2– < NO

C. He2+ < O2– < NO < C22–

D. NO < O2– < C22– < He2


Q. 106 Low spin complex of d6-cation in an octahedral field will have the following energy :

A. 5 −12 -12/5Δ0 + 3P

B. -2/5Δ0 + 2P

C. -2/5Δ0 + P

D. -12/5Δ0 + P


Q. 107 Which of the following compounds will give a yellow precipitate with iodine and alkali ?

A. Methyl acetate

B. Acetamide

C. 2-Hydroxypropane

D. Acetophenone


Q. 108 The orbital angular momentum of a p-electron is given as –

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 109 Which one of the following does not correctly represent the correct order of the property indicated against it ?

A. Ti3+ < V3+ < Cr3+ < Mn3+; increasing magnetic moment

B. Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing melting point

C. Ti < V < Mn < Cr : increasing 2nd ionization enthalpy

D. Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing number of oxidation states


Q. 110 Chloroamphenicol is an :

A. antihistaminic

B. antiseptic and disinfectant

C. antibiotic-broad spectrum

D. antifertility drug


Q. 111 Consider the following reaction :

The product ‘A’ is –



C. C6H5Cl



Q. 112 Which of the following reagents will be able to distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne ?


B. O2

C. Br2

D. NaNH2


Q. 113 For real gases van der Waals equation is written as

Where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are van der Waals constants.

Two sets of gases are :

Where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are van der Waals constants.

Two sets of gases are :

(I) O2, CO2, H2 and He (II) CH4, O2 and H2

The gases given in set-I in increasing order of ‘b’ and gases given in set-II in decreasing order of ‘a’, are arranged below. Select the correct order from the following :

A. (I) O2 < He < H2 < CO2 (II) H2 > O2 > CH4

B. (I) H2 < He < O2 < CO2 (II) CH4 > O2 > H2

C. (I) H2 < O2 < He < CO2(II) O2 > CH4 > H2

D. (I) He < H2 < CO2 < O2 (II) CH4 > H2 > O2


Q. 114 Activation energy (Ea) and rate constant (k1 and k2) of a chemical reaction at two different temperatures (T1 and T2) are related by –

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4


Q. 115 Which of the following exhibits only + 3 oxidation state ?

A. Th

B. Ac

C. Pa

D. U


Q. 116 Equal volumes of two monoatomic gases, A and B, at same temperature and pressure are mixed. The ratio of specific heats (Cp/Cv) of the mixture will be –

A. 1.50

B. 3.3

C. 1.67

D. 0.83


Q. 117 Structure of a mixed oxide is cubic close-packed (c.c.p.). The cubic unit cell of mixed oxide is composed ofoxide ions. One fourth of the tetrahedral voids are occupied by divalent metal A and the octahedral voids are occupied by a monovalent metal B. The formula of the oxide is –

A. A2BO2

B. A2B3O4

C. AB2O2

D. AB O2


Q. 118 our successive members of the first series of the transition metals are listed below.For which one of the them the standard potential ( ) EoM2+ / M value has a positive sign ?

A. Ni (Z = 28)

B. Cu (Z = 29)

C. Fe (Z = 26)

D. Co (Z = 27)


Q. 119 In the replacement reaction

CI + MF → CF + MI

The reaction will be most favourable if M happens to be –

A. K

B. Rb

C. Li

D. Na


Q. 120 An organic compound (C3H9N) (A), when treated with nitrous acid, gave an alcohol and N2 gas was evolved. (A) on warming with CHCl3 and caustic potash gave (C) which on reduction gave isopropylmethylamine. Predict the structure of (A).

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4



Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C B B D A A A D B A
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer C B D C A A D A B A
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer A D A C C D A B A A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer D B B A D A A D B A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A B C D B C C D D D
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer D B D D C C C B D B
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer B D D B B B B A A B
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer C D D D D D D A A C
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C B D D C C C A D B
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B D C A B B A C D A
Question 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer A B B D C A C D B C
Question 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer D D B C B C C B B D

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