CDS(I) Exam 2019 General Knowledge Previous Year Paper

CDS(I) Exam 2019 

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Q 1. Henry T. Colebrooke was a Professor of Sanskrit in which one of the following institutions? 

(a) Fort William College

(b) Serampore Mission

(c) Kushi Vidyapith

(d) Asiatic Society

 

Q 2. The Deccan Agriculturists’ Relief Act of 1879 was enacted with which one of the following objectives? 

(a) Restore lands to the dispossessed peasants 

(b) Ensure financial assistance to peasants during social and religious occasions

(c) Restrict the sale of land indebtedness to outsiders

(d) Give legal aid to insolvent peasants

 

Q 3. The Damin-1-Koh was created by the British Government to settle which one of the following communities? 

(a) Santals 

(b) Mundas 

(c) Oraons

(d) Saoras

 

Q 4. The Limitation Law, which was passed by the British in 1859, addressed which one of the following issues? 

(a) Loan bonds would not have any legal validity 

(b) Loan bonds signed between the money lender and Ryotg would have validity only for three years. 

(c) Land bonds could not be executed by moneylenders. 

(d) Loan bonds would have validity for ten years. 

 

Q 5. Who among the following was known during the days of the Revolt of 1857 as “Danka Shah? 

(a) Shah Mal 

(b) Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah 

(c) Nana Sahib 

(d) Tantia Tope

 

Q 6. The Summary Settlement of 1856 was based on which one of the following assumptions? 

(a) The Talukdars were the rightful owners of the land. 

(b) The Talukdars were interlopers with no permanent stakes in the land. 

(c) The Talukdars could evict the peasants from the lands. 

(d) The Talukdars would take a portion of the revenue which flowed to the State.  

 

Q 7. The Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 on the recommendation of 

(a) Punchhi Commission 

(b) Sarkaria Commission 

(c) Rajamannar Commission 

(d) Mungerilal Commission 

 

Q 8. Which among the following writs is issued to quash the order of a Court or Tribunal? 

(a) Mandamus 

(b) Prohibition 

(c) Quo Warranto 

(d) Certiorari 

 

Q 9. Which among the following statements about the power to change the basic structure of the Constitution of India is/are correct? 

1. It falls outside the scope of the amending powers of the Parliament. 

2. It can be exercised by the people through representatives in a Constituent Assembly. 

3. It falls within the constituent powers of the Parliament. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 and 3 

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 only 

(d) 2 and 3

 

Q 10. When a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the right to move a Court for the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights remains suspended, except 

(a) Article 20 and Article 21

(b) Article 21 and Article 22 

(c) Article 19 and Article 20 

(d) Article 15 and Article 16

 

Q 11. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India lays down that no citizen can be denied the use of wells, tanks and bathing Ghats maintained out of State funds? 

(a) Article 14 

(b) Article 15 

(c) Article 16 

(d) Article 17

 

Q 12. Who amongst the following organized the All India Scheduled Castes Federation? 

(a) Jyotiba Phule 

(b) Periyar 

(c) B. R. Ambedkar 

(d) M. K. Karunanidhi 

 

Q 13. Paul Allen, who died in October 2018, was the co-founder of 

(a) Oracle

(b) IBM

(c) Microsoft

(d) SAP

 

Q 14. The mobile app cVIGIL’ is helpful in 

(a) conducting free and fair e-tendering process in government offices 

(b) fighting against corruption in public services

(c) removing garbage from the municipal areas 

(d) reporting violation of model code of conduct in election-bound States

 

Q 15. “Prahaar’ is 

(a) a battle tank

(b) a surface-to-surface missile

(c) an aircraft carrier

(d) a submarine

 

Q 16. Who among the following is/are the recipient/recipients of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, 2018? 

(a) Virat Kohli 

(b) S. Mirabai Chanu and Virat Kohli 

(c) Neeraj Chopra 

(d) Hima Das and Neeraj Chopra

 

Q 17. Pakyong Airport is located in 

(a) Sikkim

(b) Jammu and Kashmir 

(c) Arunachal Pradesh 

(d) Mizoram

 

Q 18. The United Nations has been observing International Day of Rural Women on 

(a) 15th July 

(b) 15th August 

(c) 15th September 

(d) 15th October 

 

Q 19. Who among the following is the first Indian to win a Pulitzer Prize? 

(a) Arundhati Roy 

(b) Gobind Behari Lal 

(c) Vijay Seshadri 

(d) Jhumpa Lahiri 

 

Q 20. Saurabh Chaudhary excels in which one of the following sports? 

(a) Archery

(b) Shooting

(c) Boxing 

(d) Judo

 

Q 21. Which one of the following is not an assumption in the law of demand? 

(a) There are no changes in the taste and preferences of consumers. 

(b) Income of consumers remains constant. 

(c) Consumers are affected by the demonstration effect. 

(d) There are no changes in the price of substitute goods.

 

Q 22. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 

(a) When total utility is maximum, marginal utility is zero. 

(b) When total utility is decreasing, marginal utility is negative. 

(c) When total utility is increasing, marginal utility is positive. 

(d) When total utility is maximum, marginal and average utility are equal to each other. 

 

Q 23. Consider the following statements about indifference curves : 

1. Indifference curves are convex to the origin. 

2. Higher indifference curve represents a higher level of satisfaction. 

3. Two indifference curves cut each other. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) I only

(b) 1 and 2 

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

 

Q 24. Consider the following statements about a joint-stock company : 

1. It has a legal existence.

2. There is limited liability of shareholders. 

3. It has a democratic management.

4. It has collective ownership.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only 

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q 25. When some goods or productive factors are completely fixed in amount, regardless of price, the supply curve is 

(a) horizontal

(b) downward sloping to the right

(c) vertical

(d) upward sloping to the right

 

Q 26. Who designed the Bombay Secretariat in the 1870s? 

(a) H. St. Clair Wilkins

(b) Sir Cowasjee Jehangir Readymoney

(c) Purushottamdas Thakurdas

(d) Nusserwanji Tata

 

Q 27. Who was the founder of Mahakali Pathshala in Calcutta? 

(a) Her Holiness Mataji Maharani Tapaswini

(b) Sister Nivedita

(c) Madame Blavatsky 

(d) Sarojini Naidu

 

Q 28. Which European ruler had observed, “Bear in mind that the commerce of India is the commerce of the world … he who can exclusively command it is the dictator of Europe”? 

(a) Queen Victoria 

(b) Peter the Great of Russia 

(c) Napoleon Bonaparte 

(d) Gustav II Adolf 

 

Q 29. Which European traveller had observed, “A Hindu woman can go anywhere alone, even in the most crowded places, and she need never fear the impertinent looks and jokes of idle loungers”? 

(a) Francois Bernier 

(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier 

(c) Thomas Roe 

(d) Abbe J. A. Dubois 

 

Q 30. Who was the author of the book, Plagues and Peoples? 

(a) W. L. Thomas 

(b) Rachel Carson 

(c) David Cannadine 

(d) William H. McNeill 

 

Q 31. Which Indian social theorist had argued that the idea of a homogenized Hinduism was constructed through the ‘cultural arrogance of post enlightenment Europe? 

(a) Ashis Nandy 

(b) Partha Chatterjee 

(c) T. K. Oommen

(d) Rajni Kothari

 

Q 32. ‘Sub-prime crisis’ is a term associated with which one of the following events? 

(a) Economic recession 

(b) Political instability 

(c) Structural adjustment programmes

(d) Growing social inequality

 

Q 33. Which one of the following is not a change brought about by the Indian Independence Act of 1947? 

(a) The Government of India Act, 1935 was amended to provide an interim Constitution. 

(b) India ceased to be a dependency. 

(c) The Crown was the source of authority till the new Constitution was framed. 

(d) The Governor-General was the constitutional head of Indian Dominion.

 

Q 34. Which one of the following is not a correct statement regarding the provision of the Legislative Council in the State Legislature? 

(a) The States of Bihar and Telangana have Legislative Councils. 

(b) The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State shall not exceed one-third of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly. 

(c) One-twelfth of all members shall be elected by electorates consisting of local bodies and authorities.

(d) One-twelfth of all members shall be elected by graduates residing in the State.

 

Q 35. Which one of the following is not correct about the Panchayats as laid down in Part IX of the Constitution of India? 

(a) The Chairperson of a Panchayat needs to be directly elected by people in order to exercise the right to vote in the Panchayat meetings. 

(b) The State Legislature has the right to decide whether or not offices of the Chairpersons in the Panchayats are reserved for SCs, STs or women.

(c) Unless dissolved earlier, every Panchayat continues for a period of five years.

(d) The State Legislature may by law make provisions for audit of accounts of the Panchayats. 

 

Q 36. Which one of the following is not correct about Administrative Tribunals? 

(a) The Parliament may by law constitute Administrative Tribunals both at the Union and State levels. 

(b) Tribunals may look into disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services.

(c) Tribunals established by a law of the Parliament can exclude the jurisdiction of all Courts to allow for special leave to appeal.

(d) The law establishing the Tribunals may provide for procedures including rules of evidence to be followed.

 

Q 37. A market situation when many firms sell similar but not identical products is termed as 

(a) perfect competition 

(b) imperfect competition

(c) monopolistic competition

(d) oligopoly

 

Q 38. Consider the following statements : 

1. Inflation in India continued to be moderate during 2017-18. 

2. There was significant reduction in food inflation, particularly pulses and vegetables during the period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

 

Q 39. Which one of the following hypothesis postulates that an individual’s consumption in any time period depends upon resources available to the individual, rate of return on his capital and age of the individual? 

(a) Absolute Income Hypothesis 

(b) Relative Income Hypothesis 

(c) Life Cycle Hypothesis 

(d) Permanent Income Hypothesis

 

Q 40. According to John Maynard Keynes, employment depends upon 

(a) aggregate demand 

(b) aggregate supply 

(c) effective demand 

(d) rate of interest 

 

Q 41. Which one of the following canons of taxation was not advocated by Adam Smith? 

(a) Canon of equality 

(b) Canon of certainty 

(c) Canon of convenience 

(d) Canon of fiscal adequacy

 

Q 42. Which Arab scientist could be given the credit of christening the mathematical discipline of algorithms? 

(a) Al-Khwarizmi 

(b) Ibn al-Haytham 

(c) Ibn Rushd 

(d) Ibn Sina 

 

Q 43. Which one of the following developments took place because of the Kansas Nebraska Act of 1854?

(a) The Missouri Compromise was repealed and people of Kansas and Nebraska were allowed to determine whether they should own slaves or not. 

(b) The Act did not permit the territories the right to vote over the question of slavery. 

(c) The voice of the majority in regard to the issue of slavery was muzzled. 

(d) The Federal Government had the sole authority to decide on slavery. 

 

Q 44. Which one of the following issues was included in the Indo-US Nuclear Agreement of 2007? 

(a) India has advance right to reprocess US-origin safeguarded spent fuel. 

(b) India did not have the right to build a strategic fuel reserve with the help of the other supplier countries. 

(c) India should not test a nuclear device. 

(d) The US will impede the growth of India’s nuclear weapons programme. 

 

Q 45. Which of the following statements about Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, as a drafting member of the Constitution of India, are correct? 

1. He favoured the role of the Supreme Court in taking important decisions related to the interpretation of the Constitution of India. 

2. He felt that the Supreme Court had to draw the line between liberty and social control. 

3. He believed in the dominance of the executive over the judiciary. 

4. He favoured a dictatorial form of governance. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 1, 2 and 3 

(c) 3 and 4 

(d) 1, 2 and 4 

 

Q 46. Which of the following are the core functions of the United Nations multidimensional peacekeeping operations? 

1. Stabilization

2. Peace consolidation

3. To extend support to a losing State in a war

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1, 2 and 3 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

 

Q 47. The South China Sea Dispute involves which of the following countries? 

1. China 

2. Vietnam 

3. Malaysia 

4. Indonesia

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 and 4 

(b) 1 and 2 only 

(c) 1, 2 and 3 

(d) 2, 3 and 4

 

Q 48. The Kyoto Protocol’ is an international treaty that commits State parties to reduction in 

(a) poverty 

(b) greenhouse gases emission  

(c) nuclear armaments

(d) agricultural subsidy 

 

Q 49. The “Beijing Declaration’ is concerned with which one of the following issues? 

(a) Rights of children 

(b) Rights of women 

(c) Right to development 

(d) Reduction of tariffs

 

Q 50. The ‘Gujral Doctrine’ relates to which one of the following issues? 

(a) Build trust between India and its neighbours

(b) Initiate dialogue with all insurgent groups in India

(c) Undertake development activities in Naxal-dominated areas

(d) Ensure food security

 

Q 51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : 

List-I(Compound/ Molecule) List-II(Shape of Molecule)
A. CH3 1. Trigonal planar
B. HCHO  2. Tetrahedral 
C. HCN  3. Trigonal pyramidal
D. NH3  4. Linear 

Code:

(a)  A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

(b)  A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

(c)  A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

(d)  A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

 

Q 52. Very small insoluble particles in a liquid may be separated from it by using 

(a) crystallization 

(b) fractional distillation 

(c) centrifugation 

(d) decantation 

 

Q 53. Which one of the following elements cannot be detected by “Lassaigne’s test”? 

(a) I 

(b) Cl 

(c) S

(d) F 

 

Q 54. In which of the following, functional group isomerism is not possible? 

(a) Alcohols 

(b) Aldehydes 

(c) Alkyl halides 

(d) Cyanides 

 

Q 55. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 

(a) Fischer projection represents the molecule in an eclipsed conformation.

(b) Newman projection can be represented in eclipsed, staggered and skew conformations.

(c) Fischer projection of the molecule is its most stable conformation.

(d) In Sawhorse projections, the lines are inclined at an angle of 120° to each other.

 

Q 56. The monomer/monomers used for the synthesis of Nylon 6 is/are 

(a) hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid

(b) caprolactam

(c) urea and formaldehyde

(d) phenol and formaldehyde

 

Q 57. Which one among the following stars is nearest to the earth? 

(a) Sirius 

(b) Arcturus 

(c) Spica 

(d) Proxima Centauri

 

Q 58. Which of the following planets of our solar system has least mass? 

(a) Neptune 

(b) Jupiter 

(c) Mars 

(d) Mercury 

 

Q 59. Two identical solid pieces, one of gold and other of silver, when immersed completely in water exhibit equal weights. When weighed in air (given that density of gold is greater than that of silver) 

(a) the gold piece will weigh more 

(b) the silver piece will weigh more 

(c) both silver and gold pieces weigh equal 

(d) weighing will depend on their masses

 

Q 60. If the wavelengths corresponding to ultraviolet, visible and infrared radiations are given as λUV, λVIS and λIR respectively, then which one of the following gives the correct relationship among these wavelengths? 

(a) λUV < λIR < λVIS

(b) λUV > λVIS >  λIR 

(c) λUV >  λIR  >  λVIS

(d) λUV <  λVIS < λIR

 

Q 61. An electron and a proton starting from rest get accelerated through a potential difference of 100 kV. The final speeds of the electron and the proton are Ve and Ve respectively. Which one of the following relations is correct? 

(a) Ve > Vp 

(b) Ve<V 

(c) Ve = Vp 

(d) Cannot be determined 

 

Q 62. If two vectors and are at an angle θ ≠ 0°, then 

(a) || + || = | +

(b) || + || > | + |

(c) || + || < | + |

(d) || + || = | –  |

 

Q 63. Which one of the following functions is not carried out by smooth endoplasmic reticulum? 

(a) Transport of materials 

(b) Synthesis of lipid 

(c) Synthesis of protein 

(d) Synthesis of steroid hormone

 

Q 64. Which one of the following cell organelles mainly functions as storehouse of digestive enzymes? 

(a) Desmosome 

(b) Ribosome 

(c) Lysosome 

(d) Vacuoles

 

Q 65. Which one of the following tissues is responsible for increase of girth in the stem of a plant? 

(a) Tracheid 

(b) Pericycle 

(c) Intercalary meristem 

(d) Lateral meristem

 

Q 66. Which one of the following organisms is dependent on saprophytic mode of nutrition? 

(a) Agaricus 

(b) Ulothrix 

(c) Riccia 

(d) Cladophora

 

Q 67. Which one of the following has a bilateral symmetry in its body organization? 

(a) Asterias 

(b) Sea anemone 

(c) Nereis 

(d) Echinus

 

Q 68. Which one of the following pairs of animals is warm-blooded? 

(a) Crocodile and Ostrich 

(b) Hagfish and Dogfish 

(c) Tortoise and Ostrich 

(d) Peacock and Camel 

 

Q 69. Which one of the following States of India is not covered by Flood Forecasting Stations set up by the Central Water Commission? 

(a) Rajasthan 

(b) Jammu and Kashmir 

(c) Tripura 

(d) Himachal Pradesh

 

Q 70. The city of Cartagena, which is famous for Protocol on Biosafety, is located in 

(a) Colombia 

(b) Venezuela 

(c) Brazil 

(d) Guyana

 

Q 71. Which one among the following is the most populated State in India as per Census 2011? 

(a) Goa  

(b) Mizoram 

(c) Meghalaya 

(d) Sikkim

 

Q 72. Which among the following countries of South America does the Tropic of Capricorn not pass through? 

(a) Chile 

(b) Bolivia 

(c) Paraguay

(d) Brazil  

 

Q 73. Which one of the following is not correct about Sargasso Sea? 

(a) It is characterized with anticyclonic circulation of ocean currents. 

(b) It records the highest salinity in Atlantic Ocean. 

(c) It is located west of Gulf Stream and east of Canary Current. 

(d) It confined in gyre of calm and motionless water. 

 

Q 74. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : 

List-I (City) List-1 (Product)
A. Detroit  1. Motorcar 
B. Antwerp  2. Diamond cutting 
C. Tokyo  3. Steel
D. Harbin 4. Shipbuilding

Code : 

(a)  A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

(b)  A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

(c)  A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

(d)  A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

 

Q 75. Which one of the following is not situated on Varanasi-Kanyakumari National Highway? 

(a) Satna 

(b) Rewa 

(c) Katni 

(d) Jabalpur 

 

Q 76. Which one of the following methods is not suitable for urban rainwater harvesting? 

(a) Rooftop recharge pit 

(b) Recharge wells 

(c) Gully plug 

(d) Recharge trench 

 

Q 77. If one plots the tank irrigation in India and superimposes it with map of well irrigation, one may find that the two are negatively related. Which of the following statements explain the phenomenon? 

1. Tank irrigation predates well irrigation. 

2. Tank irrigation is in the areas with impervious surface layers. 

3. Well irrigation requires sufficient groundwater reserves. 

4. Other forms of irrigation are not available. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1, 2 and 3 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 3 and 4 

(d) 1 and 4

 

Q 78. When hot water is placed into an empty water bottle, the bottle keeps its shape and does not soften. What type of plastic is the water bottle made from? 

(a) Thermoplastic 

(b) PVC 

(c) Polyurethane 

(d) Thermosetting

 

Q 79. Which of the following is/are function/functions? 

1. q + w 

2. q

3. w 

4. H- TS  

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 and 4 only 

(b) 1, 2 and 4 

(c) 2, 3 and 4 

(d) 1 only

 

Q 80. For a certain reaction, △Gθ  = -45 kJ/mol and △Hθ  = -90 kJ/mol at 0 °C. What is the minimum temperature at which the reaction will become spontaneous, assuming that △Hθ  and △Sθ  are independent of temperature? 

(a) 273 K 

(b) 298 K 

(c) 546 K 

(d) 596 K

 

Q 81. The PCI5 molecule has trigonal bipyramidal structure. Therefore, the hybridization of p orbitals should be 

(a) sp2 

(b) sp3 

(c) dsp2 

(d) dsp3  

 

Q 82. In spherical polar coordinates (γ,θ, α), θ denotes the polar angle around the z-axis and α denotes the azimuthal angle raised from the x-axis. Then the y-component of P is given by 

(a) Psinθsinα 

(b) Psinθ cosα 

(c) Pcosθ sinα 

(d) Pcosθ cosα

 

Q 83. For an ideal gas, which one of the following statements does not hold true? 

(a) The speed of all gas molecules is same. 

(b) The kinetic energies of all gas molecules are not same. 

(c) The potential energy of the gas molecules is zero.

(d) There is no interactive between the molecules.

 

Q 84. What is a constellation? 

(a) A particular pattern of equidistant stars from the earth in the sky

(b) A particular pattern of stars that may not be equidistant from the earth in the sky 

(c) A particular pattern of planets of our solar system in the sky

(d) A particular pattern of stars, planets and satellites in the sky due to their position in the space

 

Q 85. The Hooke’s law is valid for

(a) only proportional region of the stress-strain curve 

(b) entire stress-strain curve 

(c) entire elastic region of the stress strain curve 

(d) elastic as well as plastic region of the stress-strain curve 

 

Q 86. Which one of the following statements regarding histone proteins is correct? 

(a) Histones are proteins that are mitochondrial membrane.

(b) Histones are proteins that are present in nucleus in association with DNA. 

(c) Histones are proteins associated with lipids in the cytosol. 

(d) Histones are proteins associated with carbohydrates in the cytosol.

 

Q 87. Which one of the following statements regarding haemoglobin is correct? 

(a) Haemoglobin present in RBC can carry only oxygen but not carbon dioxide. 

(b) Haemoglobin of RBC can carry both oxygen and carbon dioxide. 

(c) Haemoglobin of RBC can carry only carbon dioxide. 

(d) Haemoglobin is only used for blood clotting and not for carrying gases. 

 

Q 88. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of passage of light in a compound microscope? 

(a) Condenser—Objective lens—Eye—piece—Body tube

(b) Objective lens—Condenser—Body tube—Eyepiece

(c) Condenser—Objective lens—Body—tube—Eyepiece

(d) Eyepiece—Objective  lens—Body tube—Mirror

 

Q 89. Which one of the following statements is correct? 

(a) Urea is produced in liver. 

(b) Urea is produced in blood. 

(c) Urea is produced from digestion of starch. 

(d) Urea is produced in lung and kidney.

 

Q 90. Which one of the following river valleys of India is under the influence of intensive gully erosion? 

(a) Kosi 

(b) Chambal 

(c) Damodar 

(d) Brahmaputra

 

Q 91. Which one of the following may be the true characteristic of cyclones? 

(a) Temperate cyclones move from west to east with westerlies whereas tropical cyclones follow trade winds. 

(b) The front side of cyclone is known as the ‘eye of cyclone’. 

(c) Cyclones possess a centre of high pressure surrounded by closed isobars. 

(d) Hurricanes are well-known tropical cyclones which develop over mid latitudes.

 

Q 92. The Headquarters of the International Tropical Timber Organization is located at 

(a) New Delhi 

b) Yokohama 

(c) Madrid 

(d) Jakarta

 

Q 93. Atmospheric conditions are well-governed by humidity. Which one among the following may best define humidity? 

(a) Form of suspended water droplets caused by condensation 

(b) Deposition of atmospheric moisture 

(c) Almost microscopically small drops of water condensed from and suspended in air 

(d) The moisture content of the atmosphere at a particular time and place

 

Q 94. The Shompens are the vulnerable tribal group of 

(a) Jharkhand 

(b) Odisha 

(c) West Bengal 

(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands 

 

Q 95. Which one of the following cities was not included in the list of smart cities in India? 

(a) Silvassa 

(b) Jorhat 

(c) Itanagar 

(d) Kavaratti 

 

Q 96. Find the correct arrangement of the following urban agglomerations in descending order as per their population size according to Census 2011. 

(a) 8° N latitude 

(b) 10° N latitude 

(c) 12° N latitude 

(d) 13° N latitude 

 

Q 97. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I (Type of Lake) List-II (Example)
A. Tectonic  1. Lonar Lake 
B. Crater  2. Gangabal Lake 
C. Glacial   3. Purbasthali Lake 
D. Fluvial  4. Bhimtal Lake

Code :

(a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 

(b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

(c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 

(d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

 

Q 98. The Andaman group of islands and the Nicobar group of islands are separated by which one of the following latitudes? 

(a) NCT 

(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli 

(c) Puducherry 

(d) Goa

 

.Q 99. Damanganga Reservoir Project with about 115 km of minor canals and distributaries is located in 

(a) Delhi-Mumbai-Kolkata-Chennai

(b) Mumbai-Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai 

(c) Mumbai-Kolkata-Delhi-Chennai 

(d) Kolkata-Chennai-Mumbai-Delhi 

 

Q 100. Consider the following statements relating to Coal India Limited : 

1. It is designated as a ‘Maha Ratna’ company under the Ministry of Coal. 

2. It is the single largest coal producing company in the world. 

3. The Headquarters of Coal India Limited is located at Ranchi, Jharkhand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 1 and 2 only 

(c) 2 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

 

Q 101. Afro-Asian solidarity as a central element of India’s foreign policy was initiated by which of the following Prime Ministers? 

(a) Narendra Modi 

(b) I. K. Gujral 

(c) J. L. Nehru 

(d) Manmohan Singh 

 

Q 102. The Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund is operated by which one of the following bodies? 

(a) The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) 

(b) The National Disaster Management Authority 

(c) The Ministry of Finance 

(d) The National Development Council (NDC)

 

Q 103. Which one of the following statements with regard to India’s surgical strike mission inside Pakistan Occupied Kashmir is correct? 

(a) It was conducted in the year 2018. 

(b) It was led by the Indian Air Force. 

(c) It was not given any name. 

(d) It was sanctioned by the United Nations. 

 

Q 104. Which one of the following statements about the National Green Tribunal is not correct? 

(a) It was set up in the year 2010. 

(b) It is involved in effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests. 

(c) It may consider giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property. 

(d) It is bound by the procedures laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. 

 

Q 105. Which one of the following statements about the provisions of the Constitution of India with regard to the State of Jammu and Kashmir is not correct? 

(a) The Directive Principles of State Policy do not apply. 

(b) Article 35A gives some special rights to the permanent residents of the State with regard to employment, settlement and property. 

(c) Article 19(1)(f) has been omitted. 

(d) Article 368 is not applicable for the amendment of Constitution of the State. 

 

Q 106. In 1921, during which one of the following tours, Gandhiji shaved his head and began wearing loincloth in order to identify with the poor? 

(a) Ahmadabad 

(b) Champaran 

(c) Chauri Chaura 

(d) South India 

 

Q 107. Simla was founded as a hill station to use as strategic place for billeting troops, guarding frontier and launching campaign during the course of 

(a) Anglo-Maratha War 

(b) Anglo-Burmese War 

(c) Anglo-Gurkha War 

(d) Anglo-Afghan War 

 

Q 108. Which politician in British India had opposed to a Pakistan that would mean “Muslim Raj here and Hindu Raj elsewhere”? 

(a) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan 

(b) Sikandar Hayat Khan 

(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad 

(d) Rafi Ahmed Kidwai

 

Q 109. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : 

List-I (Author) List-II (Book)
A. Sekhar Bandyopadhyay 1. Jawaharlal Nehru : A Biography, Vol-I, 1889–1947
B. Sarvepalli Gopal  2. From Plassey to Partition : A History of Modern India
C. David Hardiman  3. The Ascendancy of the Congress in Uttar Pradesh, 1926-1934
D. Gyanendra Pandey 4. Gandhi in His Time and Ours 

Code:

(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 

(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

(c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 

(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

 

Q 110. Eight States have achieved more than 99% household electrification prior to the launch of ‘Saubhagya Scheme!. Which one of the following is not among them? 

(a) Kerala 

(b) Punjab 

(c) Himachal Pradesh 

(d) Madhya Pradesh

 

Q 111. In October 2018, India was elected as a member to the United Nations Human Rights Council for a period of 

(a) five years 

(b) four years 

(c) three years 

(d) two years 

 

Q 112. Consider the following statements about the Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI): 

1. It is the implementing agency of Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP). 

2. It has been registered as an independent society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 113. Consider the following statements about a scheme launched by the Government of India : 

It was launched to provide social security during old age and to protect elderly persons aged 60 years and above against a future fall in their interest income due to uncertain market conditions. The scheme enables old age income security for senior citizens through provision of assured pension/ return linked to the subscription amount based on government guarantee to Life Insurance Corporation of India (LICI). Identify the scheme. 

(a) Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana 

(b) Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana 

(c) Liveability Index Programme 

(d) Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana 

 

Q 114. Who among the following won India’s first ever gold medal in the International Youth Olympic Games (2018) held in Argentina? 

(a) Neeraj Chopra 

(b) Praveen Chitravel 

(c) Jeremy Lalrinnunga 

(d) Suraj Panwar 

 

Q 115. E. K. Janaki Ammal National Award on Taxonomy is administered by the 

(a) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare 

(b) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy 

(c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare 

(d) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change 

 

Q 116. Which one of the following pairs of military training institutes of India and location is not correctly matched? 

(a) Army War College : Mhow

(b) High Altitude Warfare School : Gulmarg 

(c) Army Air Defence College : Pune 

(d) Rashtriya Indian Military College : Dehradun 

 

Q 117. Which one of the following viruses is responsible for the recent death of lions in Gir National Park? 

(a) Canine Distemper Virus 

(b) Nipah Virus 

(c) Hendra Virus 

(d) Foot-and-Mouth Disease Virus

 

Q 118. Till 2018, which of the following countries have legalized the possession and use of recreational cannabis? 

1. America 

2. Canada 

3. Nigeria 

4. Uruguay

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1, 2 and 3 

(b) 2 and 4 only 

(c) 1 and 4 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 4

 

Q 119. Which of the following are the benefits of the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY)? 

 1. Free treatment available at all public and empanelled private hospitals in times of need 

2. Cashless and paperless access to quality health-care services 

3. Government provides health insurance cover of up to Rs. 5,00,000 per family per year

4. Pre-existing diseases are not covered 

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only 

(b) 1, 2 and 3 

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 

 

Q 120. The 11th BRICS Summit in 2019 will be hosted by 

(a) China 

(b) Russia 

(c) Brazil 

(d) India

Latest Current Affairs 23 May 2021

CURRENT AFFAIRS
23 May 2021

NATIONAL NEWS:

 

A) Negative Covid-19 report isn’t the end of problem, warn doctors.

A negative Covid-19 report isn’t the end of the problems associated with the virus, warn doctors. They now say that since it affects multiple organs, those who were on mechanical ventilation, ICU or form into any high-risk category of lung fibrosis are the group of people who need to watch out for the need to have a re-admission. People with diabetes or obesity, prolonged illnesses are also much likely to go back to hospitals with symptoms like breathlessness and decrease in oxygen even after testing negative and getting discharged from hospital. Archana Dhawan Bajaj, gynaecologist obstetrician and IVF expert, Nurture IVF, said, The thrombosis and protein loss due to the virus can lead to delayed recovery. COVID re-infection is rare and people facing re-infection are mainly those with co-morbidities, healthcare workers and frontline workers. Hence, this is something to watch out for in people of these subgroups. On the signs to watch out for even after turning negative, Vikas Maurya, director and HOD, Pulmonology, FortisHospital, Delhi said Covid-19 causes inflammation in our lungs, kidney, heart, and other organs. Therefore, post-Covid-19, people can still experience extreme weakness, and it takes time to fully recover. But those who have mild symptoms can recover a bit faster than those who experience moderate to severe symptoms, he said. Hari Kishan Boorugu, consultant physician, Yashoda Hospitals, Somajiguda, Hyderabad, said people need to maintain adequate hydration and follow a healthy diet after recovery. Avoid eating outside food as it can be difficult for the body to take additional stress in case they develop food-borne gastroenteritis. Patients with diabetes and high blood pressure need to monitor their sugar and BP while making sure that they are in good control, as often they tend to fluctuate post-COVID, due to multiple factors change in diet, stress, and medication, he said.

B) Breach of Air India data poses litigation risk for airline, experts say.

The breach of passenger data at Air India may pose litigation risks for the airline that could further delay the privatisation process, warn experts, adding that the national carrier must prioritise efforts to contain the damage from the cyber attack by informing passengers about steps they can still take to prevent fraud. In a press statement, the airline said that its passenger processing system, supplied by multi-national information technology company SITA, was a target of a sophisticated cyber attack on February 25. Nearly 45 lakh data subjects registered over a period of 10 years, between August 2011 to February 2021, were affected around the world, including passengers of other airlines such as Singapore Airlines, Lufthansa, Cathay Pacific, United Airlines, among others. The attack was on SITA’s servers at its data centre in Atlanta, United States. A major impact it may have is that the current process of privatisation may go slow as there will always be fear of unquantified litigation risks. They (government) may be able to separate past versus future liabilities, but it opens up a new avenue for a discussion with potential bidders, said Sivarama Krishnan, Leader-Asia Pacific, Cybersecurity, PwC. The extent to which individual airlines were affected due to the cyber attack varied from one airline to another. Some airlines wrote to their passengers saying only passenger names and frequent flyer numbers were stolen. In the case of Air India, the theft pertained to name, date of birth, contact information, passport information, ticket information, Star Alliance and Air India frequent flyer data (but no passwords data were affected) as well as credit cards data (but no CVV data).

C) Majority mark in Rajya Sabha to remain elusive for BJP in Modi’s second term.

The majority mark in the Rajya Sabha will remain elusive for the BJP in the second term of the Narendra Modi government, and its performance in the Uttar Pradesh Assembly poll slated for early next year is crucial for it to maintain its current tally in the Upper House. At 93, the BJP is 30 members short of the majority mark of 123 in a House of 245 MPs. In the second term, with more than half a dozen Opposition MPs changing loyalty to the BJP, the ruling party had managed to pass controversial Bills, beginning with the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights of Marriage) Bill, 2019 or Triple Talaq Act, along with J&K Re-organisation Bill and the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill. Three rounds of retirements in the year 2022 – April (18 members), June (20 members) and July (33 members) – will bring the last change in the political arithmetic of the Rajya Sabha in the second term of the Modi government. Major losses for the BJP will come from Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan and Chhattisgarh. This makes Uttar Pradesh crucial for the BJP’s strength in the Upper House. In July next year, 11 seats from Uttar Pradesh will fall vacant. As per the current tally, the BJP holds five of these, which includes two former Samajwadi Party MPs – Sanjay Seth and Surender Singh Nagar – who shifted their loyalties midway through their term. Without repeating its 2017 performance in the State, the BJP cannot hold on to these five seats. In Punjab, if the current anti-BJP sentiment because of the three controversial farm laws prevails till the polls, the BJP will lose one seat. The BJP allies will also be affected – the AIADMK strength is expected to be curtailed after its defeat in the recent Assembly poll in Tamil Nadu. Currently, the AIADMK has six members and its political adversary, the DMK, seven.

D) Stop release of funds to W.B. under PM Kisan Samman Nidhi, State BJP chief urges Modi.

West Bengal BJP president Dilip Ghosh has written to Prime Minister Narendra Modi urging the Centre not to release any funds under the PM Kisan Samman Nidhi without proper checking and verification of data approved by the State. The beneficiary list verified by the State Government needs thorough checking and verification at the level of Union Government so that any genuine beneficiary is not excluded from the benefits. Without proper checking and verification of the data of the beneficiaries as approved by the State on the part of Union Government, no further allotment should be released in the scheme, Ghosh said in a letter addressed to the Prime Minister earlier this week. Earlier this month, about seven lakh farmers received one instalment (₹2,000) as benefits under PM Kisan Samman Nidhi for the first time since the launch of the scheme in three years. During the run-up to the State Assembly polls, senior BJP leaders, including Prime Minister Narendra Modi, had promised ₹18,000 (all pending instalments for three years) under the PM Kisan Samman Nidhi to about 70 lakh farmers in the State. The BJP leader, in the communication, has alleged that the Trinamool Congress government has perpetuated syndicate raj in all spheres of life in West Bengal where no work gets done without common people having to pay cut money in return for including them in the beneficiary lists of all the government schemes. We apprehend that the names of genuine beneficiaries might be found missing from the verified list made ready for payment by the state government for the present scheme, Ghosh has written in the letter. For almost three years, there was a tussle between the State government and the Centre over PM Kisan Samman Nidhi. The Trinamool Congress government maintained that its scheme of providing cash transfer to farmers ‘Krishak Bandhu’ was more inclusive. In an open letter dated May 13, a day before benefits under the PM Kisan were transferred to accounts of seven lakh farmers, West Bengal Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee accused the Centre of delaying the disbursal of the scheme and said the Trinamool Congress had first started ‘Krishak Bandhu’ scheme in 2018, which was a model for the entire country. You all were supposed to get ₹18,000 but have received a very small amount. Even this sum would not have been transferred had we not fought for it. We will continue this fight till you get the entire allocation, Banerjee had said in her letter addressed to people of the State.

E) Music director Raamlaxman, of ‘Hum Aapke Hain Kaun’ fame, dies at 78.

Veteran music director Raamlaxman, best known for his work on Rajshri Productions’ blockbuster movies Maine Pyar Kiya, Hum Aapke Hain Koun..! and Hum Saath Saath Hain died due to a cardiac arrest. He was 78. The composer, whose real name was Vijay Patil, passed away at his residence in Nagpur in the early hours of Saturday, his son Amar said. He had taken second dose of Covid-19 vaccine, Covishield, six days ago. There was no problem at that time… But when he came home he developed weakness. His parameters were dropping. Doctors were attending at home. He passed away at around 2 am on Saturday. He had a cardiac arrest, Amar told PTI. Patil, known by cinema aficionados as ‘Laxman’ of duo composers Raam-Laxman, started his journey in films with Marathi actor-comedian Dada Kondke’s 1975 film Pandu Hawaldar. He gave the music for the movie with his collaborator Surendra under the name Raam-Laxman. Surendra passed away in 1976, but Patil continued to compose under the same name, slightly changing it to Raamlaxman. In his over four decades-long career, he composed music for over 150 films in Hindi, Marathi and Bhojpuri and worked with famous film directors such as Manmohan Desai, Mahesh Bhatt, GP Sippy, Anil Ganguly and Sooraj Barjatya. Some of his other memorable works were for Agent Vinod, 100 Days, Anmol, Tarana, Patthar Ke Phool and Hum Se Badhkar Kaun.

INTERNATIONAL NEWS 

A) Nepal President dissolves Parliament, announces mid-term polls in November.

Nepal President Bidya Devi Bhandari has dissolved the House of Representatives and announced mid-term polls on November 12 and 19 after she determined that both embattled Prime Minister K. P. Sharma Oli and the Opposition alliance were not in a position to form a government. Bhandari’s announcement came after Prime Minister Oli recommended dissolution of the 275-member House following an emergency midnight Cabinet meeting. Last year, on December 20, President Bhandari had dissolved Parliament but later it was reinstated by the Supreme Court in February. A press statement issued by the Office of President said the Parliament was dissolved and dates of midterm polls were announced in line with Article 76 (7) of the Constitution of Nepal. The council of ministers has recommended conducting the first phase of the poll on November 12 and the second phase on November 19. The move followed a notice from the Office of the President which said that it could appoint neither K.P. Sharma Oli, the incumbent Prime Minister, nor Sher Bahadur Deuba, Nepali Congress president, as claims made by both to form a new government were insufficient. With four lawmakers in the 275-member House of Representatives dismissed by their party after they chose to be part of another party, a prime ministerial candidate requires support of at least 136 lawmakers in Parliament to form a new government.

B) Egyptian mediators hold talks to firm up Israel-Hamas truce.

Egyptian mediators held talks on Saturday to firm up an Israel-Hamas cease-fire as Palestinians in the Hamas ruled Gaza Strip began to as the damage from Il days of intense Israeli bombardment. A 130-truck Convoy carrying urgent humanitarian aid headed to Gaza. Saturday marked the first full day of a truce that ended the fourth Israel-Hamas war in just over a decade. In the fighting, Israel unleashed hundreds of airstrikes against militant targets in Gaza, while Hamas and other militants fired more than 4,000 rockets toward Israel. More than 250 people were killed, the vast majority Of them Palestinians. Gaza City’s busiest commercial area, Omar al-Mukhtar Street, was covered in debris, smashed Cars and twisted metal. A Palestinian official said an initial assessment showed at least 2,000 housing units were destroyed in the Il-day fighting. Naji Sarhan, deputy of Gaza’s works and housing ministry, said that more than 15 000 other units were partly destroyed. Sticking points Both Israel and Hamas have claimed victory. There was a widespread expectation that the ceasefire would stick for now, but that another round of fighting at some point Seems inevitable. Underlying issues remain unresolved, including an Israeli Egyptian border blockade, now in its 14th year, that is choking Gaza’s more than 2 million residents and a refusal by the Islamic militant Hamas to disarm. The fighting began on May 10, when Hamas militants in Gaza fired rockets toe ward Jerusalem. The barrage came after days of clashes between Palestinian protesters and Israeli police at the Al-Aqsa Mosque compound. Heavy-handed police tactics at the compound and the threatened eviction of dozens of Palestinian families by Jewish settlers had inflamed tensions. The war has further sidelined Hamas’ political rival, the internationally backed Palestinian Authority, which oversees autonomous enclaves in the Israeli-occupied West Bank. Hamas’ popularity seemed to be growing as it positioned itself as a defender of Palestinian claims to Jerusalem. U.S. Secretary of State Antony Blinken is to meet with Mr. Abbas and Israeli leaders when he visits in the coming week. Mr. Abbas is expected to raise demands that any Gaza reconstruction plans go through the Palestinian Authority to avoid strengthening Hamas.

How to use an Accurate Paraphrasing Tool

HOW TO USE AN ACCURATE PARAPHRASING TOOL

HELPFUL FOR UNIQUE ASSIGNMENTS

Often teachers have long observed that most assigned tasks and vacation rental works which are part of the educational course are either copied or appropriated incorrectly from many internet sources, primarily Wikipedia, with no citations. 

According to the professors, students steal a lot of information from the internet and copy it verbatim without paraphrasing or knowing it. 

It has been a substantial source of worry because the whole object of the “assigned tasks” waste in this way.

Have you ever wondered if you would come up with special assignments? You’ll need to find the proper paraphrasing technique to create a personalized homework assignment. 

The paraphrasing assignment generators designs to alter your text by using different words. The result will still be related to the original thesis statement after the generators have worked their magic.

What Is The Process Of Using The Paraphrase Generator?

Many paraphrasing tools are available online, and these platforms are unique in several ways to quickly provide high-quality content. 

As shortly as you type text into the given text pad, the paraphrasing tool’s algorithm produces synonyms for the terms you’ve used from its extensive vocabulary. 

Before beginning the paraphrasing procedure, the method examines the meaning of the given content. The great process only takes a few moments to understand the structure and provides outcomes with the same amount of time.

Paraphrasing tool and Assignment

Any task comes with a series of instructions that students must obey. These instructions specify the style in which assignments should write, the duration of the Assignment, and the type of font used when writing the works, among other things. 

However, the most critical and often overlooked rule is that the assignments must be plagiarism-free.

Students also copy material straight from the internet and paste it onto their assignments to save time and resources, which leaves the tasks plagiarized and the leading cause for their rejection.

Paraphrasing techniques ensure that students should not use shortcuts while writing papers or copy and paste text from the internet. 

These resources assist teachers in checking and weighing the validity of tasks and assisting students in creating authentic material. It is handy for research students.

Advantages of Using Online Paraphrasing Tools for Assignment

  • Paraphrasing techniques should use as a solution to a time-consuming method, so students don’t have to look up synonyms for nearly any phrase used in place of the source terms.

  • It’s also critical that the context of the paragraph can preserve. These factors are quickly taken into account by paraphrasing techniques when creating a new section. 
  • The process of paraphrasing is made simple by a single click. It saves time since a real and perfect outcome can obtain in a limited period.

  • These methods are effortless to use and relatively inexpensive or cost-efficient compared to other services; however, the findings can obtain in a limited period.

  • Students may get access to high-quality content in a limited amount of time, and it can even provide paraphrasing, proofreading, and editing services. 

  • It also offers complete consumer loyalty to customers by providing a simple way to create the most original works or papers.

  • You can still get live customer service, and you can use this app almost anywhere and at any time.

Best Paraphrasing Tool for Assignment

When it comes to paraphrasing, multiple websites offer some tools, but they aren’t efficient and trustworthy enough.

However, some sites provides a multi-modes paraphrasing tool that helps you rephrase articles, complete essays, assignments, and much more. This paraphrasing tool design to incorporate keyword algorithms into your text. It appears unique and plagiarism-free.

Paraphrasing tool for Assignment

The online websites that offer paraphrasing facilities are costly and not at all suitable for students. The cost of these simple packages will run into the hundreds of thousands, with no promise of genuine success.

However, there are different free rephrase tool that rewrites documents in the most accessible and accurate way possible, avoiding plagiarism.

These paraphrasing tool uses a word bank of millions of words and has access to numerous dictionaries. It allows it to effectively substitute the terms with the most appropriate synonyms.

The tool changes the structure of sentences while maintaining the original meaning. It’s a great medium for paraphrasing lengthy texts and records because of this.

Conclusion

To sum up, paraphrasing is the only way to avoid falling into the plagiarism vortex. It is a technique in which sentences can shuffle using synonyms for such terms to make them distinct while maintaining the context of the sentence. 

Paraphrasing techniques not only assist instructors in identifying plagiarized material and determining its validity, but they also assist students in creating original content for their assignments with the click of a button.

CDS(I) Exam 2019 English Previous Year Paper

CDS(I) Exam 2019 English

Q 1. How we __________to ageing is a choice we must make wisely. 

(a) respond

(b) absolve

(c) discharge

(d) overlook

 

Q 2. Complementary medicine __________fewer risks, since it is used along with standard remedies, often to lessen side-effects and enhance feelings of well-being. 

(a) reacts

(b) releases

(c) ejects

(d) carries

 

Q 3. Stress may__________ fertility in men and women. 

(a) engage

(b) reduce

(c) inject

(d) deduce

 

Q 4. The football match had to be __________because of the weather. 

(a) called on 

(b) called off 

(c) called out 

(d) called over 

 

Q 5. Nobody believed Ram at first but he __________to be right. 

(a) came out 

(b) carried out 

(c) worked out 

(d) turned out 

 

Q 6. How are you __________in your new job? Are you enjoying it? 

(a) keeping on 

(b) going on 

(c) getting on 

(d) carrying on 

 

Q 7. We live  __________a tower block. Our apartment is on the fifteenth floor.

 (a) at 

(b) in 

(c) over 

(d) above

 

Q 9.  __________it was raining, he went out without a raincoat. 

(a) Even 

(b) Since 

(c) Unless 

(d) Although 

 

Q 8. You were going to apply for the job, and then you decided not to. So what  __________.

(a) put you off 

(b) put you out

(c) turned you off 

(d) turned you away

 

Q 10. I parked my car in a no-parking zone, but I  __________ it. 

(a) came up with 

(b) got away with 

(c) made off with 

(d) got on with 

SYNONYMS 

Directions : 

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/ group of words. Select the option that is the nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly. 

Q 11. A provocative message had been doing rounds on social media to instigate the mob against migrants. 

(a) dexterous

(b) inflammatory

(c) valiant

(d) prudent

 

Q 12. The differences include increase in mean temperature and heavy precipitation in several regions. 

(a) drought 

(b) oasis 

(c) rainfall 

(d) snowing 

 

Q 13. The portal will help victims and complainants to anonymously report cyber crime. 

(a) incognito

(b) directly

(c) unfailingly

(d) in situ

 

Q 14. He is suffering from a terminal disease. 

(a) sublunary

(b) terrific

(c) chronic

(d) incurable

 

Q 15. Doctors are reluctant to take rural postings despite big salary offers. 

(a) disinclined

(b) eager

(c) fervent

(d) unrepentant

 

Q 16. The authorities have reprimanded the subordinate officer for violating the protocol. 

(a) extolled 

(b) purported

(c) admonished

(d) required an apology

 

Q 17. For Gandhiji, India’s religious and linguistic diversity was an asset, not a liability. 

(a) obligation 

(b) advantage 

(c) attribute 

(d) reinforcement 

 

Q 18. How hysterical he is! 

(a) berserk 

(b) inconsistent 

(c) duplicitous 

(d) insincere

 

Q 19. Mahesh is mostly prejudiced in his political opinion. 

(a) objectionable 

(b) predatory 

(c) jaundiced 

(d) intimate 

 

Q 20. Do not indulge in tautology. 

(a) truth telling 

(b) prolixity 

(c) foretelling 

(d) telepathic conversation 

ANTONYMS 

Directions : 

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly. 

Q 21. His religious views are rather fanatical. 

(a) bigoted

(b) rabid

(c) moderate

(d) militant

 

Q 22. Religious fundamentalists often consider the followers of other religions to be heretics. 

(a) dissenter

(b) believer

(c) renegade

(d) apostate

 

Q 23. According to GB Shaw, men have become inert. Therefore, life force has chosen women to perform its functions. 

(a) lively

(b) quiescent

(c) dormant

(d) apathetic

 

Q 24. Some of the men are highly misanthropic. 

(a) anti-social 

(b) philosophic 

(c) atrophic 

(d) philanthropic 

 

Q 25. The teacher was a very profound man. 

(a) sincere 

(b) erudite 

(c) scholarly 

(d) superficial 

 

Q 26. His hand-writing is readable. 

(a) well-written

(b) decipherable 

(c) illegible 

(d) comprehensible

 

Q 27. Mohan is his steadfast friend. 

(a) committed

(b) unwavering

(c) unfaltering

(d) unreliable

 

Q 28. Radha often goes tempestuous while debating. 

(a) calm

(b) violent

(c) fierce

(d) vehement

 

Q 29. The thief had very vital information to pass on to the police. 

(a) crucial 

(b) inessential 

(c) indispensable 

(d) fundamental 

 

Q 30. His lectures are often wordy and pointless.

(a) diffuse 

(b) concise 

(c) garrulous 

(d) voluble 

ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE 

Directions : 

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. 

Q 31. the prize money (P) / for refusing her (Q) / Pepsico was ordered (R) / to compensate the woman (S) 

(a) RSQP 

(b) SPQR 

(c) RPSQ 

(d) QRSP 

 

Q 32. trade operating from a colony (P) / held a meeting (Q) / demanding a probe into the illegal drug (R) /  the residents of the city (S)  

(a) QRSP 

(b) SPQR 

(c) SQRP 

(d) RSQP 

 

Q 33. the university authorities cancelled the ongoing students’ union election and (P) / following students’ unrest on campus (Q) /  closed till further orders (R) / declared the institution (S)

(a) QRSP 

(b) QPSR 

(c) SQRP 

(d) RSQP 

 

Q 34.  brushed past the latter’s pet dog (P) /  stabbed to death by a man (Q) /  after his vehicle accidentally (R) / a cargo van driver was allegedly (S) 

(a) QRSP 

(b) QPSR 

(c) SQRP 

(d) SQPR 

 

Q 35. an earthquake and tsunami (P) /   the disaster mitigation agency (Q) /   said that the death toll from (R) /  in Indonesia has crossed 1500 (S)   

(a) PQSR 

(b) RPSQ 

(c) SQRP 

(d) QRPS

 

Q 36. scientists say they have developed a new (P) /  illnesses such as heart disease and cancer (Q) /  DNA tool that uses machine learning to accurately (R) /  predict people’s height and assess their risk for serious (S)   

(a) PRSQ 

(b) RPSQ 

(c) PSRQ 

(d) QRPS

 

Q 37. a rare evergreen tree in the Southern Western Ghats (P) /  researchers have found that (Q) /  common white-footed ants are the best pollinators of (R) /   bees might be the best known pollinators but (S) 

(a) PRSQ 

(b) SRPQ 

(c) QSRP 

(d) PQRS

 

Q 38. say from their forties onwards (P) /   it is thus a good idea (Q) /  and continue to exercise early enough (R) /  for senior citizens to start (S) 

(a) PRSQ 

(b) QRSP 

(c) QSRP 

(d) PORS 

 

Q 39. scientists have determined (P) /  injury in animals and humans (Q) /  that is linked to the severity of spinal cord (R) /  a gene signature (S)   

(a) PSRQ 

(b) QRPS 

(c) QSPR 

(d) PQRS 

 

Q 40. like a muscle and repeating the process (P) /  and stable reading circuit (Q) / helps the child build a strong (R) /  the brain works (S)   

(a) QSRP 

(b) SPRQ 

(c) QSPR 

(d) ROPS 

ORDERING OF SENTENCES 

Directions : 

In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as Sl and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled as P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet. 

Q 41. S1: He no longer dreamed of storms, nor of women, nor of great occur rences, nor of great fish, nor fights, nor contests of strength, nor of his wife. 

S6: He urinated outside the shack and then went up the road to wake the boy.

P : He never dreamed about the boy. 

Q : He only dreamed of places and of the lions on the beach now.

R: He simply woke, looked out through the open door at the moon and unrolled his trousers and put them on.

S : They played like young cats in the dusk and he loved them as he loved the boy. 

The correct sequence should be 

(a) RQPS

(b) SRQP 

(c) QSPR

(d) PRSQ

 

Q 42. S1: We do not know, after 60 years of education, how to protect ourselves against epidemics like cholera and plague. 

S6: This is the disastrous result of the system under which we are educated. 

P: If our doctors could have started learning medicine at an earlier age, they would not make such a poor show as they do. 

Q : I have seen hundreds of homes. I cannot say that I have found any evidence in them of knowledge of hygiene. 

R: I consider it a very serious blot on the state of our education that our doctors have not found it possible to eradicate these diseases. 

S: I have the greatest doubt whether our graduates know what one should do in case one is bitten by a snake. 

The correct sequence should be 

(a) RQSP 

(b) PRQS 

(c) QRPS 

(d) PQSR 

 

Q 43. S1: The weak have no place here, in this life or in any other life. Weak ness leads to slavery. 

S6: This is the great fact: strength is life, weakness is death. Strength is felicity, life eternal, immortal; weakness is constant strain and misery : weakness is death.

P: They dare not approach us, they have no power to get a hold on us, until the mind is weakened. 

Q: Weakness leads to all kinds of misery, physical and mental. Weak ness is death.

R: But they cannot harm us unless we become weak, until the body is ready and predisposed to receive them.

S: There are hundreds of thousands of microbes surrounding us.

The correct sequence should be

(a) PQRS

(b) PRQS

(c) QRSP

(d) QSRP

 

Q 44. S1: The Nobel Prize for Economics in 2018 was awarded to Paul Romer and William Nordhaus for their work in two separate areas: econo mic growth and environmental economics respectively. 

S6: Among recent winners of Nobel Prize in Economics, it’s hard to think of one issue which is more topical and relevant to India. 

P: But there is a common thread in their work. 

Q : In economic jargon it’s termed as externality. 

R : Productive activity often has spillovers, meaning that it can impact an unrelated party. 

S: Romer and Nordhaus both studied the impact of externalities and came up with profound insights and economic models. 

The correct sequence should be 

(a) PQRS 

(b) PROS 

(c) QSPR 

(d) QSRP 

 

Q 45. S1: India’s museums tend to be dreary experiences. 

S6: Because it’s better to attract crowds than dust. 

P: Even the Louvre that attracted an eye-popping 8-1 million visitors last year compared to India’s 10-18 million foreign tourists, has hooked up with Beyonce and Jay-Z for promotion, where they take a selfie with Mona Lisa.

Q: Our museums need to get cool too.

R: A change of approach is clearly called for.

S : Troops of restless schoolchildren are often the most frequent visitors, endlessly being told to lower their voices and not touch the art.

The correct sequence should be

(a) PQRS

(b) PRSQ

(c) SRPQ

(d) QSRP

 

Q 46. Sl: A decade ago UN recognised that rape can constitute a war crime and a constitutive act of genocide.

S6: The fact that these two peace laureates come from two different nations underlines that this problem has been widespread, from Rwanda to Myanmar. 

P : This year’s Nobel peace prize has been awarded to two exceptional individuals for their fight to end the use of sexual violence as a weapon of war. 

Q : Denis Mukwege is a doctor who has spent decades treating rape survivors in the Democratic Republic of Congo, where a long civil war has repeatedly witnessed the horror of mass rapes. 

R: Nadia Murad is herself a survivor of sexual war crimes, perpetuated by IS against the Yazidis. 

S: Today she campaigns tirelessly to 

put those IS leaders in the dock in international courts. 

The correct sequence should be 

(a) PQRS 

(b) PROS 

(c) SRQP 

(d) QRSP 

 

Q 47. S1: Few scientists manage to break down the walls of the so-called ivory tower of academia and touch and inspire people who may not otherwise be interested in science. 

S6: Not many would have survived this, let alone excelled in the manner he did.

P: Stephen Hawking was one of these few. 

Q : Around this time he was diagnosed with Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis, an incurable motor neuron disease, and given two years to live.

R : Judging by the odds he faced as a young graduate student of physics at Cambridge University, nothing could have been a more remote possibility. 

S : When he was about 20 years old, he got the shattering news that he could not work with the great Fred Hoyle for his PhD, as he had aspired to. 

The correct sequence should be

(a) PQSR

(b) PRQS

(c) SRPQ

(d) PRSQ

 

Q 48. S1: The climate question presents a leapfrog era for India’s develop ment paradigm. 

S6: This presents a good template for India, building on its existing plans to introduce electric mobility through buses first, and cars by 2030. 

P: It is aimed at achieving a shift to sustainable fuels, getting cities to commit to eco-friendly mobility and delivering more walkable communities, all of which will improve the quality of urban life. 

Q : At the Bonn conference, a new Transport Decarbonisation Alliance has been declared. 

R: This has to be resolutely pursued, breaking down the barriers to wider adoption of rooftop solar energy at every level and implementing net metering systems for all categories of consumers. 

S : Already, the country has chalked out an ambitious policy on renewable energy, hoping to generate 175 gigawatts of power from green sources by 2022

The correct sequence should be 

(a) SRQP 

(b) SPRQ 

(c) PRSO 

(d) QRSP 

 

Q 49. S1: The dawn of the information age opened up great opportunities for the beneficial use of data. 

S6: To some, in this era of Big Data analytics and automated, algorithm based processing of zettabytes of information, the fear that their personal data may be unprotected may conjure up visions of a dystopian world in which individual liberties are compromised.

P: But it is the conflict between the massive scope for progress pro vided by the digital era and the fear of loss of individual autonomy that is foregrounded in any debates about data protection laws.

Q : It also enhanced the perils of unregulated and arbitrary use of personal data.

R: It is against this backdrop that the White Paper made public to elicit views from the public on the shape and substance of a comprehensive data protection law assumes significance.

S: Unauthorised leaks, hacking and other cyber crimes have rendered data bases vulnerable. 

The correct sequence should be

(a) SQRP 

(b) QPRS

(c) SRPQ

(d) QSPR

 

Q 50. S1: In a globalised world, no country can hope to impose tariffs without affecting its own economic interests. 

S6: The ongoing trade war also threatens the rules-based global trade order which has managed to amicably handle trade disputes between countries for decades. 

P: So both the U.S. and China, which have blamed each other for the ongoing trade war, are doing no good to their own economic fortunes by engaging in this tit-for tat tariff battle. 

Q: Apart from disadvantaging its consumers, who will have to pay higher prices for certain goods, tariffs will also disrupt the supply chain of producers who rely on foreign imports. 

R: China, which is fighting an economic slowdown, will be equally affected. 

S: The minutes of the U.S. Federal Reserve June policy meeting show that economic uncertainty due to the trade war is already affecting private investment in the U.S., with many investors deciding to scale back or delay their investment plans. 

The correct sequence should be 

(a) SQPR 

(b) QPSR 

(c) QRPS 

(d) PSRQ 

COMPREHENSION 

Directions : 

In this section you have few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only. 

Passage – I 

From 1600 to 1757 the East India Company’s role in India was that of a trading corporation which brought goods or precious metals into India and exchanged them for Indian goods like textiles and spices, which it sold abroad. Its profits came primarily from the sale of Indian goods abroad. Naturally, it tried constantly to open new markets for Indian goods in Britain and other countries. Thereby, it increased the export of Indian manufacturers, and thus encouraged their production. This is the reason why Indian rulers tolerated and even encouraged the establishment of the Company’s factories in India. But, from the very beginning, the British manufacturers were jealous of the popularity that India textiles enjoyed in Britain. All of a sudden, dress fashions changed and light cotton textiles began to replace the coarse woolens of the English. Before, the author of the famous novel, Robinson Crusoe, complained that Indian cloth had “crept into our houses, our closets and bed chambers; curtains, cushions, chairs, and at last beds themselves were nothing but calicos or India stuffs”. The British manufacturers put pressure on their government to restrict and prohibit the sale of Indian goods in England. By 1720, laws had been passed forbidding the wear or use of printed or dyed cotton cloth. In 1760 a lady had to pay a fine of 200 for possessing an imported handkerchief ! Moreover, heavy duties were imposed on the import of plain cloth. Other European countries, except Holland, also either prohibited the import of Indian cloth or imposed heavy import duties. In spite of these laws, however, Indian silk and cotton textiles still held their own in foreign markets, until the middle of the eight when the English textile industry began to develop on the basis of new and advanced technology. 

Q 51. The East India Company was encour aging the export of Indian manufacturers because 

(a) it was a philanthropic trading corporation

(b) it wanted Indian manufacturers to prosper in trade and commerce

(c) it profited from the sale of Indian goods in foreign markets

(d) it feared Indian Kings who would not permit them trade in India

 

Q 52. The people of England used Indian cloths because 

(a) they loved foreign and imported clothes 

(b) the Indian textile was light cotton 

(c) the Indian cloths were cheaper 

(d) the Indian cloths could be easily transported 

 

Q 53. What did the British manufacturer do to compete with the Indian manufacturers ? 

(a) They pressurized the government to levy heavy duties on export of Indian clothes 

(b) They pressurized the government to levy heavy duties on import of Indian clothes 

(c) They requested people to change their fashion preferences 

(d) They lowered the prices of the Britain made textiles

 

Q 54. Which source is cited by the author to argue that Indian textile was in hugedemand in 18th century England ? 

(a) The archival source 

(b) The scientific source

(c) The journalistic source 

(d) The literary source

 

Q 55. “New and advanced technology” in the paragraph refers to 

(a) the French Revolution day 

(b) the Glorious Revolution of England 

(c) the Industrial Revolution 

(d) the beginning of colonialism

Passage – II 

Zimbabwe’s prolonged political crisis reached the boiling point earlier this month when President Robert Mugabe dismissed the Vice-President, Emmerson Mnangagwa. A battle to succeed the 93-year-old liberation hero-turned President had already been brewing within the ruling Zimbabwe African National Union-Patriotic Front (Zanu-PF), with the old guard backing Mr. Mnangagwa, himself a freedom fighter, and ‘Generation 40’, a grouping of younger leaders supporting Mr. Mugabe’s 52-year-old wife, Grace. Ms. Mugabe, known for her extravagant lifestyle and interfering ways, has been vocal in recent months about her political ambitions. Mr. Mugabe was seen to have endorsed her when on November 6 he dismissed Mr. Mnangagwa. But Mr. Mugabe, who has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence in 1980, erred on two counts: he underestimated the deep connections Mr. Mnangagwa has within the establishment and overestimated his own power in a system he has helped shape. In the good old days, Mr. Mugabe was able to rule with an iron grip. But those days are gone. Age and health problems have weakened his hold on power, while there is a groundswell of anger among the public over economic mismanagement. So when he turned against a man long seen by the establishment as his successor, Mr. Mugabe left little doubt that he was acting from a position of political weakness. This gave the security forces the confidence to turn against him and make it clear they didn’t want a Mugabe dynasty. The military doesn’t want to call its action a coup d’etat, for obvious reasons. A coup would attract international condemnation, even sanctions. But it is certain that the army chief, Gen. Constantino Chiwenga, is in charge. His plan, as it emerges, is to force Mr. Mugabe to resign and install a transitional government, perhaps under Mr. Mnangagwa, until elections are held. 

Q 56. In the paragraph, who has been called liberation hero? 

(a) Constantino Chiwenga 

(b) Emmerson Mnangagwa 

(c) Robert Mugabe

(d) Army Chief

 

Q 57. Mrs. Mugabe is supported by 

(a) Mr. Mnangagwa 

(b) Mr. Mugabe 

(c) Generation 40 

(d) Zanu-PF

 

Q 58. Mr. Mugabe’s political weakness became apparent when 

(a) he endorsed his wife 

(b) he turned against the army 

(c) he suffered from health issues

(d) he dismissed Mr. Mnangagwa

 

Q 59. The security forces of Zimbabwe staged a coup against the President because 

(a) they wanted Mrs. Mugabe as the President 

(b) they were aware of Mugabe’s failing wealth 

(c) they disliked Mugabe’s extravagant lifestyle

(d) they did not want a Mugabe dynasty

 

Q 60. Why does the military not want to call it a coup d’etat ? 

(a) Because coup is immoral 

(b) Because coup is illegal 

(c) Because coup would lead to inter national censure and sanctions

 (d) Because it would make the public revolt

Passage – III 

Over-eating is one of the most wonderful practices among those who think that they can afford it. In fact, authorities say that nearly all who can get as much as they desire, over-eat to their disadvantage. This class of people could save a great more food than they can save by missing one meal per week and at the same time they could improve their health. A heavy meal at night, the so-called “dinner”, is the fashion with many and often is taken shortly before retiring. It is unnecessary and could be forgone, not only once a week but daily without loss of strength. From three to five hours are needed to digest food. While sleeping, this food not being required to give energy for work, is in many cases converted into excess fat, giving rise to over-weight. The evening meal should be light, taken three or four hours before retiring. This prevents over-eating, conserves energy and reduces the cost of food. 

Q 61. Why should those who over-eat refrain from doing so

(a) Because over-eating leads to loss of wealth 

(b) Because over-eating is bad for health 

(c) Because over-eating conserves food 

(d) Because over-eating is immoral and unhealthy

 

Q 62. Over-eating is more prevalent among 

(a) the rich 

(b) the poor 

(c) everybody 

(d) the bourgeoisie 

 

Q 63. The writer is asking the readers 

(a) to skip the heavy dinner and take light evening meal instead 

(b) to stop eating anything at night 

(c) to take food only during the day 

(d) to eat food before the sunset

 

Q 64. What is the most appropriate time for having evening meal ? 

(a) An hour after the sunset 

(b) Three or four hours before sleeping

(c) Before the sunset

(d) Just before sleeping

 

Q 65. According to the passage, how many times a day should we have food ? 

(a) Three times

(b) Two times

(c) Once 

(d) Has not been specified

 

Q 66. According to the passage, people over eat

(a) because they can afford to

(b) because they are hungry

(c) because they have to work more

(d) because they have to conserve energy

Passage – IV 

Much has been said of the common ground of religious unity. I am not going just now to venture my own theory. But if anyone here hopes that this unity will come by the triumph of any one of the religions and the destruction of the others, to him I say, “Brother, yours is an impossible hope.” Do I wish that the Christian would become Hindu ? God forbid. Do I wish that the Hindu or Buddhist would become Christian? God forbid. 

The seed is put in the ground, and earth and air and water are placed around it. Does the seed become the earth, or the air, or the water? No. It becomes a plant. It develops after the law of its own growth, assimilates the air, the earth, and the water, converts them into plant substance, and grows into a plant. 

Similar is the case with religion. The Christian is not to become a Hindu or a Buddhist, nor a Hindu or a Buddhist to become a Christian. But each must assimilate the spirit of the others and yet preserve his individuality and grow according to his own law of growth. 

If the Parliament of Religions has shown anything to the world, it is this: it has proved to the world that holiness, purity and charity are not the exclusive possessions of any church in the world, and that every system has produced men and women of the most exalted character. In the face of this evidence, if anybody dreams of the exclusive survival of his own religion and the destruction of the others, I pity him from the bottom of my heart, and point out to him that upon the banner of every religion will soon be written in spite of resistance: “Help and not fight,” “Assimilation and not Destruction,” “Harmony and Peace and not Dissension.” 

Q 67. According to the author of the passage, people should

(a) change their religions

(b) follow their religions and persuade others to follow it

(c) follow their own religions and respect other religions

(d) disrespect other religions

 

Q 68. The Parliament of Religions is

(a) a Christian organization

(b) a Buddhist organization

(c) a Hindu organization possessions

(d) a platform for discussion about every religion of the world

 

Q 69. What does the author think about those who dream about the exclusive survival of their own religions and the destruction of the others ? 

(a) He hates them 

(b) He desires to imprison them 

(c) He pities them 

(d) He praises them 

 

Q 70. According to the passage, what is “impossible hope” ?

(a) One day, all the people of the world will follow only one religion 

(b) One day, there will be no religion 

(c) Purity and charity are the exclusive 

(d) Banner of every religion will soon be written 

 

SPOTTING ERRORS 

Directions : 

Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d). 

Q 71. Except for few days (a) / in a year during the monsoon (b) / the river cannot flow on its own. (c) /  No error. (d)  

Q 72. Being apprised with our approach,(a) /  the whole neighbourhood (b) / came out to meet the minister. (c) / No error.(d)   

Q 73. The celebrated grammarian Patanjali (a) /  was (b) / a contemporary to Pushyamitra Sunga.(c) /  No error. (d)  

Q 74. His appeal for funds (a) /  met (b) / a poor response. (c) / No error. (d)

Q 75. Buddhism teaches that (a) / freedom from desires (b) / will lead to escape suffering. (c) / No error. (d) 

Q 76.  This hardly won liberty (a) / was not to (b) /  be lightly abandoned. (c) / No error. (d) 

Q 77. My friend said (a) / he never remembered (b) / having read a more enjoyable book. (c) / No error. (d)  

Q 78. With a population of over one billion, (a) / India is second most populous country (b) / in the world after China. (c) / No error. (d)  

Q 79. There are hundred of superstitions (a) /  which survive (b) / in the various parts of the country. (c) / No error. (d)  

Q 80. It is (a) /  in the temperate countries of northern Europe (b) / that the beneficial effects of cold is most manifest. (c) / No error. (d) 

Q 81. The effects of female employment (a) /  on gender equality (b) / now appear to be trickling at the next generation. (c) / No error. (d) 

Q 82. Since the 15 minutes that she drives, (a) / she confesses that she feels like (b) /  a woman with wings. (c) / No error. (d) 

Q 83. India won (a) / by an innings (b) / and three runs. (c) / No error. (d) 

Q 84.  Each one (a) /  of these chairs (b) / are broken. (c) / No error. (d) 

Q 85. Few creatures (a) / outwit (b) / the fox in Aesop’s Fables. (c) / No error. (d)  

Q 86. Anywhere in the world (a) / when there is conflict (b) / women and children suffer the most. (c) / No error. (d) 

Q 87. The man is (a) / the foundational director (b) / of this company. (c) / No error. (d) 

Q 88. Parents of LGBT community members (a) / are coming in (b) / with a little help from NGOs.(c) / No error. (d) 

Q 89. To love one art form is great (a) / but to be able to appreciate another (b) / and find lateral connections are priceless. (c) / No error. (d) 

Q 90. Female literacy rate has gone up by 11% (a) /  in the past decade as opposed to (b) / a 3% increase in male literacy. (c) / No error. (d)

CLOZE COMPREHENSION 

Directions : 

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. 

CLOZE COMPREHENSION – I 

The question whether war is ever justified, and if so under what circumstances, is one which has been forcing itself __(91)__the attention of all thoughtful men. On this question I find myself in the somewhat__(92)__ position of holding that no single one of the combatants is justified in the present war, while not taking the extreme Tolstoy an view that war is under all circumstances a __(93)__ Opinions on such a subject as war are the outcome of __(94)__ rather than of thought : given a man’s emotional temperament, his convictions, __(95)__ on war in general, and on any particular war which may occur during his lifetime, can be __(96)__with tolerable certainty. 

The arguments used will be. mere reinforcements to convictions otherwise reached. The fundamental facts in this as in all ethical__(97)__ are feelings; all that thought can do is to clarify and systematize the expression of those feelings, and it is such clarifying and systematizing of my own feelings that I wish to __(98)__ in the present article. In fact, the question of rights and wrongs of a particular war is generally __(99)__ from a juridical or quasi-juridical __(100)__.

Q 91. (a) upon (b) on (c) at  (d) over

Q 92. (a) delightful (b) painful (c) pleasant (d) lovely

Q 93. (a) duty. (b) obligation. (c) responsibility (d) crime.

Q 94. (a) feeling (b) sentiment (c) reason (d) patriotism

Q 95. (a) however (b) as well as  (c) both (d) despite

Q 96. (a) thought (b) intimated (c) suggested (d) held

Q 97. (a) questions (b) answers (c) statements (d) experiences

Q 98. (a) engage (b) praise (c) attempt (d) commend

Q 99. (a) considered (b) observed (c) transferred (d) opined

Q 100. (a) possibility. (b) formula. (c) force. (d) standpoint

CLOZE COMPREHENSION – II 

The Nobel Prize for Chemistry this year is a tribute to the power of __(101)__ The laureates harnessed evolution and used it in the __(102)__ with amazing results. Frances H. Arnold, an American who was given one-half of the prize, used directed evolution to __(103)__ variants of naturally occurring enzymes that could be used to __(104)__ biofuels and pharmaceuticals. The other half went to George P. Smith, also of the U.S., and Sir Gregory P. Winter, from the U.K., who evolved antibodies to __(105)__ autoimmune diseases and even metastatic cancer through a process called phage display. 

Q 101. (a) evolution (b) devolution. (c) revolution. (d) involution.

Q 102. (a) microscope (b) field (c) market (d) laboratory

Q 103. (a) inhibit (b) synthesize (c) hamper (d) hold back

Q 104. (a) constitute (b) sink (c) manufacture (d) resolve

Q 105. (a) combat (b) support (c) observe (d) invite

IDIOMS AND PHRASES 

Directions : 

Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression. 

Q 106. A match made in heaven 

(a) a marriage that is solemnized formally 

(b)a marriage that is unsuccessful 

(c)a marriage that is likely to be happy and successful 

(d) a marriage of convenience 

 

Q 107. A culture vulture 

(a) someone who is very keen to experience art and literature 

(b) someone who wants to defend ancient culture 

(c) someone who is ashamed of one’s Own culture 

(d) someone who looks at her/his culture critically

 

Q 108. A death blow 

(a) to be nearly dead 

(b) to be deeply afraid of death 

(c) to beat someone to death 

(d) an action or event which causes something to end or fail 

 

Q 109. The jewel in the crown 

(a) someone who has many skills 

(b) something that one wants 

(c) the most valuable thing in a group of things 

(d) the jewel in the crown of the king

 

Q 110. To live in a fool’s paradise 

(a) to live a life that is dishonest 

(b) to be happy because you will not accept how bad a situation really is 

(c) to believe that things you want will happen 

(d) to enjoy yourself by spending a lot of money 

 

Q 111. A rotten apple 

(a) to remove something which is rotten 

(b) one bad person in a group of good people 

(c) a loving and kind person 

(d) a disorganized person with bad habits

 

Q 112. To vote with your feet 

(a) to show that you do not support something 

(b) to replace something important 

(c) to change something you must do 

(d) to express a particular opinion

 

Q 113. Verbal diarrhoea 

(a) to be sick 

(b) to talk too much 

(c) to be in a difficult situation 

(d) to be a good orator

 

Q 114. To sail close to the wind 

(a) to pretend to be something that you are not 

(b) to be in some unpleasant situation 

(c) to be destroyed by a belief 

(d) to do something that is dangerous

 

Q 115. A double entendre 

(a) to look at someone or something twice 

(b) a situation in which you cannot succeed 

(c) a word which has two meanings 

(d) something that causes both advan tages and problems

 

Q 116. To cut your own throat 

(a) to stop doing something 

(b) to do something because you are angry 

(c) to behave in a relaxed manner 

(d) to allow someone to do something 

 

Q 117. Cook the books 

(a) to record false information in the accounts of an organization 

(b) to do something that spoils some one’s plan 

(c) to tell a false story 

(d) to be very angry

 

Q 118. Change your tune 

(a) to listen to good music 

(b) to do things that you are not willing to 

(c) to change your opinion completely because it will bring you an advantage

(d) to pretend to be very friendly

 

Q 119. Blue blood 

(a) to swallow poison 

(b) to be overly interested in someone 

(c) to suddenly become jealous 

(d) to belong to a family of the highest social class 

 

Q 120. Cut the crap 

(a) an impolite way of telling someone to stop saying things that are not true 

(b) to stop needing someone else to look after you 

(c) to talk about something important 

(d) to upset someone by criticizing them

Science 10th Previous Year Question Paper 2016 (CBSE)

Science

SET I

Section – A

Q. 1. Write the name and structure of an alcohol with three carbon atoms in its molecule.

Answer. Name of an alcohol: Propanol

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-1

 

Q. 2. What happens when a mature spirogyra filament attains considerable length?

Answer. When a mature spirogyra filament attains considerable length, it breaks up into smaller fragments or pieces, and each fragment grows into a new filament or individual.

 

Q. 3.  The depletion of the ozone layer is a cause of concern. Why?

Answer. The depletion of the ozone layer is a cause of concern because ozone shields the surface of the earth from harmful ultraviolet radiations coming from the Sun. These radiations are very harmful and can cause skin cancer and other health problems in human beings. Moreover, ozone protects the ecosystem from damage.

 

Q. 4. Name the type of mirrors used in the design of solar furnaces. Explain how high temperature is achieved by this device.

Answer. Concave mirrors are used in the design of solar furnaces. When a solar furnace is placed at the focus of a large concave mirror (called reflector), it focuses a parallel beam of light on the furnace, as a result a temperature is achieved after some time.

 

Q. 5. “What was Chipko Andolan”? How did this Andolan ultimately benefit the local people and the environment?

Answer. Chipko Movement. Chipko Movement is an example of the contribution of common people towards the conservation of forests. The Chipko Movement also called ‘Hug the tree’ movement originated from an incident in a remote village called ‘Reni’ in Garhwal (Himalayas), where the people of this village clasped the tree trunks with their arms to protect them from being cut down by a contractor’s workers. The people acted this way because they knew that this mass deforestation would spoil their healthy environment. The forest trees were thus saved.

The Chipko Movement quickly spread across all the communities and helped in the conservation of forests and thus helped in safeguarding the environment.

 

Q. 6. “Burning of fossil fuels results in global warming”. Give reasons to justify this statement.

Answer. When fossil fuels (coal and petroleum based fuels like petrol, diesel etc.) are burnt, they produce C02, CO, water vapours, S02, oxides of nitrogen.

Though C02 is not a poisonous gas but it is a greenhouse gas which traps the sun’s heat energy falling on the earth. The burning of more and more of fossil fuels is increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere causing increased greenhouse effect leading to global warming.

 

Q. 7. Write chemical equation of the reaction of ethanoic acid with the following:

(a) Sodium; (b) Sodium hydroxide; (c) Ethanol

Write the name of one main product of each reaction.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-2

 

Q. 8. An aldehyde as well as a ketone can be represented by the same molecular formula, say C3H6O. Write their; language of science.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-3

They are called isomers because both have the same molecular formula but different structural formulas (having different functional groups).

 

Q. 9. An element ‘X’ belongs to the 3rd period and group 16 of the Modern Periodic Table.

(a) Determine the number of valence electrons and the valency of ‘X’.

(b) Molecular formula of the compound when ‘X’ reacts with hydrogen and write its electron dot structure.

(c) Name the element ‘X’ and state whether it is metallic or non-metallic.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-4
cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-5

 

Q. 10. An element ‘X! has mass number 35 and number of neutrons 18. Write atomic number and electronic configuration of ‘X’. Also write group number, period number and valency of ‘X’. 

Answer. ‘X’

Mass number 5= 35 No. of neutrons = 18

Atomic number of X = Mass number – Number of neutrons = 35 – 18 = 17

K L M

Thus, electronic configuration of X = 2, 8, 7

Group number = 17th    Period number = 3rd

Valency = 8-7 = 1

 

Q. 11. Define reproduction. How does it help in providing stability to the population of species?

Answer. The production of new organisms from the existing organisms of the same species is known as reproduction. It is essential for the survival of a species on earth. It helps in replacing the lost section of the population due to death and various other causes.

  • Populations of organisms live in well defined places called niches in the ecosystem using their ability to reproduce.
  • Reproduction involves DNA copying which is the source of information for making proteins thereby controlling body design.
  • These body designs allow the organism to use a particular niche for the stability of the population of a species.
  • Minor variations may also lead to the stability of the species.

 

Q. 12. Explain the term “Regeneration” as used in relation to reproduction of organisms. Describe briefly how regeneration is carried out in multicellular organisms like Hydra.

Answer. Regeneration is a mode of asexual reproduction in some organisms. The process of getting back a full organism from its body parts is called regeneration. The simple multicellular animals like hydra and planaria show regeneration.

Regeneration in hydra:

  • If the body of hydra gets cut into a number of pieces, then each body piece can regenerate into a complete hydra by growing all the missing parts.
  • The regeneration of an organism from its cut body part occurs by the process of growth and development.
  • The cells of cut body parts divide rapidly to make a ball of cells.
  • The cells then become specialised to form different types of tissues which again form various organs and body parts.

 

Q. 13. (a) List two reasons for the appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual reproduction.

(b)

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-6

(i) Name the part marked ‘A’ in the diagram.

(ii) How does ‘A’ reach part ‘B’?

(iii) State the importance of part ‘C.

(iv) What happens to the part marked ‘D’ after fertilization is over?

Answer. (a) The appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual reproduction is due to the following reasons:

(i) Sexual reproduction takes place by the combination of two germ cells produced by two different individuals. Fusion of the male and female gametes.

(ii) Each time zygote is formed by the new combination of variants.

(b) (i) A => Pollen grains .

(ii) Pollen grains, i.e., ‘A’ reach part ‘B’, i.e., stigma of the carpel by the process of pollination.

Pollination is carried out by insects (like bees, butterfuly, etc.), birds, wind, water, etc.

(in) ‘C’ => Pollen tube Pollen tube grows downward through the style towards the female gamete in the ovary. Pollen tube helps the male gamete reach the egg or ovule (female gamete).

(iv) ‘D’ => Fertilised egg or Zygote . The fertilized egg (or zygote) divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule.

 

Q. 14. How does Mendel’s experiment show that traits are inherited independently?

Answer. Gregor Mendel conducted a different series of experiments on the pea plant that helped to deduce the basis of the hereditary rules in living organisms. He worked on how the traits or characters can be passed from one generation to the other. He studied the inheritance pattern in the common pea plant, Pisum sativum. He selected seven pairs of contrasting characters which were present in the parent plants. The plants selected by Mendel were pure breeding pea plants and they showed one form of a trait after fertilization. 

During the experiment, Mendel then crossed these pure breeding lines of the pea plants. When two pairs of contrasting characters were selected during cross, it was known as the dihybrid cross. The dihybrid cross was allowed to fertilize. Mendel selected pea plants with dihybrid seed characteristics such as yellow colored and round seeds and green colored wrinkled seeds. The plants with yellow colored round seeds were crossed with plants with green colored wrinkled seeds. After the cross in the F2 generation, the offspring obtained were with both the parental traits and with two recombinant phenotypes such as yellow round and green wrinkled and another recombinant phenotype with green round and yellow wrinkled. Thus, in the F2 generation all the characters were inherited and the characters were round yellow, round green, wrinkled yellow and wrinkled green.

The obtained traits or characteristics of the phenotypes obtained in the F2 generations indicates original parental combinations are separated which in the process gets inherited independently by the offspring in the next generations.

Note:Mendel selected seven pairs of contrasting characters which he used to experiment with for the inheritance of characteristics in the offspring. In a dihybrid cross, Mendel selected two pairs of contrasting characters and they were crossed. The resultant cross showed the segregation of the traits of both the parents which indicated that the traits were inherited independently. 

 

Q. 15. “Two areas of study namely ‘evolution’ and ‘classification’ are interlinked”. Justify this statement.

Answer. Classification of organisms is based on relative similarities and differences in their internal and external structures. Similarities among organisms will allow us to group them and study the groups and classify them. Some basic characteristics will be shared by most organisms. The more characteristics the two species will have in common, the more closely they are related. The more closely they are related, the more recently they have had a common ancestor. So we can say that classification of a species is in fact a reflection of their evolutionary relationship.

 

Q. 16. The image of an object formed by a mirror is real, inverted and is of magnification -1. If the image is at a distance of 40 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed? Where would the image be if the object is moved 20 cm towards the mirror? State reason and also draw ray diagram for the new position of the object to justify your answer.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-7

 

Q. 17. Describe an activity to show that the colours of white light splitted by a glass prism can be recombined to get white light by another identical glass prism. Also draw a ray- diagram to show the recombination of the spectrum of white light.

Answer. i) When a glass prism is used to obtain a spectrum of sunlight, a second identical prism in an inverted position is kept with respect to the first position.

ii) The inverted second prism will allow all the colours of the spectrum to recombine.

iii) Thus a beam of white light will emerge from the other side of the second prism.

Recombination of the spectrum of white light is as shown below:

 

Q. 18. The activities of man had adverse effects on ail forms of living organisms in the biosphere. Unlimited exploitation of nature by man disturbed the delicate ecological balance between the living and nonliving components of the biosphere. The unfavorable conditions created by man himself threatened the survival not only of himself but also the entire living organisms on the mother earth. One of your classmates is an active member of ‘Eco-club’ of your school which is creating environmental awareness amongst the school students, spreading the same in the society and also working hard for preventing environmental degradation cf the surroundings.

(a) Why is it necessary to conserve our environment?

(b) State the importance of green and blue dust-bins in the safe disposal of the household waste.

(c) List two values exhibited by your classmate who is an active member of Eco-clubof your school.

Answer. (a) It is necessary to conserve our environment because of the following reasons:

(i) To save natural resources like air, water and soil from pollution which are essential for our survival.

(ii) To maintain ecological balance in nature.

(iii) The environment provides us fresh air to breathe, a number of useful products such as wood, paper, medicines, etc. The ozone layer of the environment also protects us from harmful ultraviolet radiations from the sun.

(b) Green dustbins are used for biodegradable wastes, and Blue dustbins are used for non-biodegradable wastes.

Importance of two types of dustbins:

(i) Disposal of wastes after separating them into biodegradable and non- biodegradable wastes in separate dustbins and treating wastes properly before dumping in landfills.

(ii) Segregation of biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes occur without wasting time and energy.

(c) Values: Cooperative spirit, concern about environment, civic sense, sensitive human being.

 

Q. 19. A carbon compound ‘P’ on heating with excess cone. H2S04 forms another carbon compound ‘Q’ which on addition of hydrogen in the presence of nickel catalyst forms a saturated carbon compound ‘R’. One molecule of ‘R’ on combustion, forms two molecules of carbon dioxide and three molecules of water. Identify P, Q and R and write chemical equations for the reactions involved.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-8

 

Q. 20. What is placenta? Describe its structure. State its functions in case of a pregnant human female.

Answer. Placenta. It is a special tissue that helps human embryo in obtaining nutrition from mother’s blood. It serves as a link between the mother’s body and the baby.

Structure and function. After fertilisation, zygote is formed which develops into an embryo. The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta. This is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains thousands of villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue, on the mother’s side are blood spaces, which surround the villi. This provides a large surface area for glucose, nutrients and oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo. In this way, embryo gets its nutrition. The wastes produced by the foetus are also removed through the placenta. It also functions as an endocrine gland and secretes hormones necessary for maintaining pregnancy.

 

Q. 21. Define evolution. How does it occur? Describe how fossils provide us evidences in support of evolution.

Answer. Evolution. Evolution is the sequence of gradual changes which take place in the primitive organisms over millions of years in which new species are produced.

How it occurs? 

  • It is through the constant process of evolution taking place in the organisms since the origin of life that such an enormous variety of plants and animals have come to exist on this earth at present.
  • There is an inbuilt tendency to variation during reproduction due to errors in DNA copying and as a result of sexual reproduction.

Relationship between fossils and evolution:

  • Fossils are the remains of impressions of dead plants or animals which died millions of years ago. The study of fossils helps us to know about the evolution of species. Fossils tell us how new species are developed from the old. Fossils provide evidence of evolution by revealing characteristics of past organisms and the changes that have occurred m these organisms to give rise to present organisms Therefore, fossils have an importance in deciding evolutionary relationship.
  • For example, a fossil called Archaeopteryx has feathered wings like birds but teeth and tail like reptiles hence suggesting that birds and reptiles had a common ancestor.

 

Q. 22. It is desired to obtain an erect image of an object, using concave mirror of focal length of 12 cm.

(i) What should be the range of distance of an object placed in front of the mirror?

(ii) Will the image be smaller or larger than the object? Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in this case.

(iii) Where will the image of this object be, if it is placed 24 cm in front of the mirror?

Draw a ray diagram for this situation also to justify your answer.

Show the positions of the pole, the principal focus and the centre of curvature in the above ray diagrams.

Answer. In a concave mirror an erect image w ill be obtained when the object is placed between pole and focus ; of the mirror.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-9

Focal length, f = 12 cm

(i) Therefore, the range of object distance is between 0 cm to <12 cm (from zero to less than 12 cm).

(ii) Image formed wall be magnified, i.e., larger than the object.

(iii) If the object is placed at 24 cm in from of the mirror, it means that object is placed at 2f, i.e., at the centre of curvature (at C) of the mirror.

The real, inverted and same size (of the object) image will also be formed at 24 cm.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-10

 

Q. 23.(a) Define optical centre of a spherical lens.

(b) A divergent lens has a focal length of 20 cm. At what distance should an object of height 4 cm from the optical centre of the lens be placed so that its image is formed 10 cm away from the lens. Find the size of the image also.

(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in above situation.

Answer. (a) Optical centre of the lens. It is a point within the lens that lies on the principal axis through which avay of light passes undeflected.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-11

 

Q. 24. What is atmospheric refraction? Use this phenomenon to explain the following natural events.

(a) Twinkling of stars (b) Advanced sun-rise and delayed sun-set

Draw diagrams to illustrate your answers.

Answer. Atmospheric refraction. The refraction of light caused by the earth’s atmosphere having air layers of varying optical densities is called atmospheric refraction.

(a) Twinkling of stars. 

The twinkling of a star is due to atmospheric refraction of starlight. 

The starlight, on entering the earth’s atmosphere, undergoes refraction continuously before it reaches the earth. 

The atmospheric refraction occurs in a medium of gradually changing refractive index. 

Since the atmosphere bends starlight towards the normal, the apparent position of the star is slightly different from its actual position. 

The star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual position when viewed near the horizon 

Since the stars are very distant, they approximate point-sized sources of light. As the path of rays of light coming from the star goes on varying slightly, the apparent position of the star fluctuates and the amount of starlight entering eye flickers -the star sometimes appear brighter and sometimes fainter ,which is twinkling effect.

(b) Advanced sun-rise and delayed sun-set. 

The Sun is visible to us about 2 minutes before the actual sunrise, and about 2 minutes after the actual sunset because of atmospheric refraction. By actual sunrise, we mean the actual crossing of the horizon by the Sun. The time difference between actual sunset and the apparent sunset is about 2 minutes. The apparent flattening of the Sun’s disc at sunrise and sunset is also due to the same phenomenon. 

SCATTERING OF LIGHT 

It is the phenomena of change in direction of light on striking an obstacle like an atom, a molecule a dust particle water droplet etc.

It is also due to atmospheric refraction that we can still see the sun for about 2 minutes even after the sun has set below the horizon. At sunset, the apparent position of the sun is visible to us and not the actual position because of the bending of light rays effect.

So, the time from sunrise to sunset is lengthened by about 2 + 2 = 4 minutes because of atmospheric refraction.

SECTION B

Q. 25. A student puts a drop of reaction mixture of a saponification reaction first on a blue litmus paper and then on a red litmus paper. He may observe that:

(a) There is no change in the blue litmus paper and the red litmus paper turns white.

(b) There is no change in the red litmus paper and the blue litmus paper turns red.

(c) There is no change in the blue litmus paper and the red litmus paper turns blue.

(d) No change in colour is observed in both the litmus papers.

Answer. (c)

 

Q. 26. For preparing soap in the laboratory we require an oil and a base. Which of the following combination of an oil and a base would be best suited for the preparation of soap?

(a) Castor oil and calcium hydroxide (b) Turpentine oil and sodium hydroxide

(c) Castor oil and sodium hydroxide (d) Mustard oil and calcium hydroxide

Answer. (c)

 

Q. 27. In the neighborhood of your school, hard water required for an experiment is not available. Select from the following groups of salts available in your school, a group each member of which, if dissolved in distilled water, will make it hard:

(a) Sodium chloride, calcium chloride (b) Potassium chloride, sodium chloride

(c) Sodium chloride, magnesium chloride (d) Calcium chloride, magnesium chloride

Answer. (d)

 

Q. 28. A student while observing an embryo of a pea seed in the laboratory listed various parts of the embryo as given below:

On examining the list the teacher remarked that only three parts are correct.

Select three correct parts from the following list: 1

(a) Testa, Radicle, Cotyledon (b) Tegmen, Radicle, Micropyle

(c) Cotyledon, Plumule, Testa (d) Radicle, Cotyledon, Plumule

Answer. (d)

 

Q.29. If you are asked to select a group of two vegetables, out of the following, having homologous structures which one would you select?

(a) Carrot and radish (b) Potato and sweet potato

(c) Potato and tomato (d) Lady finger and potato

Answer. (a)

 

Q. 30. To determine the approximate value of the focal length of a given concave mirror, you focus the image of a distant object formed by the mirror on a screen. The image obtained on the screen, as compared to the object is always:

(a) Laterally inverted and diminished (b) Inverted and diminished

(c) Erect and diminished (d) Erect and highly diminished

Answer. (b)

 

Q. 31. Suppose you have focused on a screen the image of candle flame placed at the farthest end of the laboratory table using a convex lens. If your teacher suggests you to focus the parallel rays of the Sun, reaching your laboratory table, on the same screen, what you are expected to do is to move the:

(a) lens slightly towards the screen (b) lens slightly away from the screen

(c) lens slightly towards the Sun (d) lens and screen both towards the Sun

Answer. (a)

 

Q. 32. In your laboratory you trace the path of light rays through a glass slab for different values of angle of incidence (∠i) and in each case measure the values of the corresponding angle of refraction (∠r) and angle of emergence (∠e). On the basis of your observations your correct conclusion is:

(a) ∠i is more than ∠r, but nearly equal to Ze

(b) ∠i is less than ∠r, but nearly equal to ∠e

(c) ∠i is more than ∠e, but nearly equal to ∠r

(d) ∠i is less than ∠e, but nearly equal to ∠r

Answer. (a)

 

Q. 33. In the following ray diagram the correctly marked angles are:

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-12

(a) ∠i and ∠e (b) ∠A and ∠D

(c) ∠i, ∠e and ∠D (d) ∠r, ∠A and ∠D

Answer. (d)

 

Q. 34. A student adds a spoon full of powdered sodium hydrogen carbonate to a flask containing ethanoic acid. List two main observations, he must note in his note book, about the reaction that takes place. Also write chemical equation for the reaction.

Answer. When sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to a flask containing ethanoic acid, then

  • brisk effervescence will be formed because of CO2 gas escaping from the reaction mixture.
  • evolution of colourless and odourless gas. Some amount of heat is evolved during the reaction.
    cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-13

 

Q. 35. A student is observing a permanent slide showing sequentially the different stages of asexual reproduction taking place in yeast. Name this process and draw diagrams of what he observes in a proper sequence.

Answer. The process of reproduction in yeast is budding.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-14

 

Q. 36. An object of height 2.5 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm from the optical centre ‘O’ of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Draw a ray diagram to find the position and size of the image formed. Mark optical centre ‘O’, principal focus F and height of the image on the diagram.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-15

SET II

SECTION A

Q. 1. Write the name and structure of an alcohol with four carbon atoms in its molecule.

Answer. Name of an alcohol: Butanol

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-16

Q. 2. What are those organisms called which bear both the sex organs in the same individual? Give one example of such organism.

Answer. Organisms having both the sex organs in the same individual are called Hermaphrodite. Example, Earthworm.

 

Q. 3. Write one negative effect, on the environment, of affluent life style of few persons of a society.

Answer.

  • Excessive use of air conditioners which is a part of affluent lifestyle emits a lot of heat in the atmosphere.
  • Excessive use of packaging materials which are mostly made up of non- biodegradable material are not environment friendly.
  • Excessive use of petrol in vehicles also causes pollution.
    Thus, affluent lifestyle results in the generation of excessive waste materials.

 

Q. 4. “The magnification produced by a spherical mirror is -3”. List four information’s you obtain from this statement about the mirror/image.

Answer. Magnification produced by a spherical mirror, m = -3

  •  image is 3 times magnified than the object.
  • image is inverted (as m has negative sign).
  •  image is real.
  • nature of the mirror is concave.

 

Q. 5. Forests are “biodiversity hot spots”. Justify this statement.

Answer. Forests are ‘biodiversity hot spots’. The measure of the biodiversity of an area is the number of species found there. Since in a forest there is a wide range of different life forms (bacteria, fungi, fern, flowering plants, nematodes, insects, birds, reptiles and so on) it can be termed a ‘biodiversity hotspot’. One of the main aims of conservation is to try and preserve the biodiversity we have inherited.

 

Q. 6. What is water harvesting? How can this technique help in the conservation of water?

Answer. Water harvesting is a conservation technique of capturing rain water when it falls and run off and taking measures to keep the water clean.

The main purpose of water harvesting is not to hold rain water on the surface of the earth but to make rain water percolate under the ground so as to recharge ‘groundwater’. This in turn reduces dependency on rainfall for irrigation.

 

Q. 7. On dropping a small piece of sodium in a test tube containing carbon compound ‘X’ , with molecular formula C2H6O, a brisk effervescence is observed and a gas ‘Y’ is produced. On bringing a burning splinter at the mouth of the test tube the gas evolved burns with a pop sound. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Also write the chemical equation for the reaction. Write the name and structure of the product formed, when you heat ‘X’ with excess cone, sulphuric acid.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-17

 

Q. 10. Three elements ‘X’, ‘Y’ and 71 have atomic numbers 7, 8 and 9 respectively.

(a) State their positions (Group number and period number both) in the Modern Periodic Table.

(b) Arrange these elements in the decreasing order of their atomic radii.

(c) Write the formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ combines with ‘Z’.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-18

 

Q. 12. In the context of reproduction of species state the main difference between fission and fragmentation. Also give one example of each.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-19

 

Q. 15. With the help of an example justify the following statement:

“A trait may be inherited, but may not be expressed.”

Answer. In Mendel’s experiment with pea plants, when he cross-bed a tall pea plant with a short plea plant, he found that the first generation (F1) was of only tall plants. In the F1 progeny, no short plants were obtained. Flow ever, in the F2 generation, both tall and short plants were obtained in the ratio 3 :1 respectively. In the F2 generation, both traits — tallness and shortness were inherited where the tall character was the dominant trait and short character was the recessive trait.

Conclusion. Reappearance of dwarf character in F2 generation proves that the dwarf trait was inherited but not expressed in the F2 generation.

 

Q. 16. The image of an object formed by a lens is of magnification -1. If the distance between the object and its image is 60 cm, what is the focal length of the lens? If the object is moved 20 cm towards the lens, where would the image be formed? State reason and also draw a ray diagram in support of your answer.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-20

 

Q. 19. (a) Define focal length of a spherical lens.

(b) A divergent lens has a focal length of 30 cm. At what distance should an object of height 5 cm from the optical centre of the lens be placed so that its image is formed 15 cm away from the lens? Find the size of the image also.

(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in the above situation.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-21

SET III

SECTION A

Q. 1. Write the name and structure of an aldehyde with four carbon atoms in its molecule.

Answer. Name of an aldehyde : Butanal

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-22

Q. 2. List two functions of ovary of human female reproductive system.

Answer. Two functions of ovary:

  1. To produce female gamete ovum.
  2. To secrete female hormones estrogen and progestrone.

 

Q. 3. In a food chain of frog, grass, insect and snake, assign trophic level of frog.

Answer. Food chain. Grass —> insect —> frog —> snake

Frog belongs to 3rd trophic level.

 

Q. 4. The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to air are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively. If speed of light in glass is 2 x 108 m/s, find the speed of light in water.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-23

 

Q. 5. List four stakeholders which may be helpful in the conservation of forests.

Answer. Four stakeholders which may be helpful in the conservation of forests:

  1. The people who live in and around the forest and are dependent to some extent on forest products for their live hood.
  2. The forest department of the Government which owns the forest land and controls the resources from the forest.
  3. The industrialists who use various forest products as raw materials for their factories.
  4. The forest and wildlife activists who want to conserve the forests and see the forests in their original condition (pristine form).

 

Q. 6. The construction of large dams lead to social and environmental problems. List two problems of each category.

Answer. 

The construction of large dams leads to social and environmental problem.list two problem of each category

Social problem: Already poor tribals gets affected the most, loss of land, livelihood, home, property etc.

2. Not enough cash compensation offered by the government to the tribal groups, hence no source for balancing their livelihood.

Environmental problem: Ecosystem gets disturbed due to unannounced construction of dams.

2.Rate of deposition of sediments of sediments gets reduced and rate of erosion remains constant hence resulting in reduced water tables, less deposition of sediments in deltas etc

 

Q. 7. The position of eight elements in the Modern Periodic Table is given below where atomic numbers of elements are given in the parenthesis.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-24

(i) Write the electronic configuration of Ca.

(ii) Predict the number of valence electrons in Rb.

(iii) What is the number of shells in Sr?

(iv) Predict whether K is a metal or a non-metal.

(u) Which one of these elements has the largest atom in size?

(vi) Arrange Be, Ca, Mg and Rb in the increasing order of the size of their respective atoms.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-25

 

Q. 8. Write three different chemical reactions showing the conversion of ethanoic acid to sodium ethanoate. Write a balanced chemical equation in each case. Write the name of the reactants and the products other than ethanoic acid and sodium ethanoate in each case.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-26

 

Q. 9. An element ‘X’ belongs to the 3rd period and group 13 of the Modern Periodic Table.

(a) Determine the valence electrons and the valency of ‘X’.

(b) Molecular formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ reacts with an element ‘Y’ (atomic number = 8).

(c) Write the name and formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ combines with chlorine.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-27

 

Q. 17. The image formed by a spherical mirror is real, inverted and is of magnification -2. If the image is at a distance of 30 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed? Find the focal length of the mirror. List two characteristics of the image formed if the object is moved 10 cm towards the mirror.

Answer.

cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-28

 

Q. 24. (a) Define focal length of a divergent lens.

(b) A divergent lens of focal length 30 cm forms the image of an object of size 6 cm on the same side as the object at a distance of 15 cm from its optical centre. Use lens formula to determine the distance of the object from the lens and the size of the image formed.

(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in the above situation.

Answer.

(a)

  • The principal focus of a diverging lens is a point on its principal axis from which light rays, originally parallel to the axis appear to diverge after passing through the diverging (concave) lens.
  •  The distance between pole and principal focus of a diverging lens is called the focal length. In the given diagram OF is the focal length.
    cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-29
cbse-previous-year-question-papers-class-10-science-sa2-outside-delhi-2016-30

Science 10th Previous Year Question Paper 2017 (CBSE)

Science

SET I

Section – A

Q 1.Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and the 3rd member of the homologous series whose first member is methane. 

Answer:

Ethane – C2H6

Propane – C3H8

 

Q 2.When a cell reproduces, what happens to its DNA? 

Answer:

During the process of reproduction, the transmission of DNA from parents to offspring takes place. Before reproduction, DNA is replicated, which means two copies of DNA are produced. When the cell divides, the two copies are distributed equally between the two daughter cells so that a similar amount and type of DNA is transferred from the parent cell to the daughter cells. It maintains the consistency in the amount and type of DNA in the living organism of a particular species.

 

Q 3. In the following food chain, 100J of energy is available to the lion. How much energy was available to the producer? 

Plant → Dear → Lion

Answer:

Plant → Dear → Lion

According to 10% law,

10% of x = 100

x = 1000 J in deer.

10% of y = 1000

y = 10,000 J in Plant.

 

Q 4. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. List four characteristics (nature, position, etc.) of the image formed by the lens. 

Answer:

Given: u = -30 cm, f = -15 cm. (for concave lens)

We know that,

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q4
CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q4.1

Characteristics of image:

  • The image is formed at a distance of 10 cm from the concave lens on the left side.
  • Image formed is virtual.
  • Image formed is erect.
  • The size of the image formed is diminished.

 

Q 5.State two advantages of conserving

(i) forests, and

(ii) wildlife. 

Answer:

(i) Advantages of conserving forest:

  • It supports life, purifies air.
  • Holds the soils and thus prevents the soil erosion.

(ii) Advantage of conserving wildlife:

  • Balances ecology and biodiversity.
  • Provides important things to sustain life.

 

Q 6. Explain two main advantages associated with water harvesting at the community level. 

Answer:

Two advantages associated with water harvesting at community level are:

  • Water harvesting is an ideal solution to water problems in areas having inadequate water resources.
  • It improves the quality of water and helps in raising the groundwater level.

 

Q 7. Write the structural formula of ethanol. What happens when it is heated with excess cones? H2SO4 at 443 K? Write the chemical equation for the reaction stating the role of cone. H2SO4 in this reaction. 

Answer:

Structural formula of ethanol is: CH3CH2OH

When ethanol is heated with excess of conc. H2SO4 at 443K it results in the dehydration of ethanol to give ethene.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q7

Role of conc. H2SO4: Conc. H2SO4 acts as a dehydrating agent which removes water from the ethanol.

 

Q 8. Distinguish between esterification and saponification reaction with the help of the chemical equations for each. State one use of each (i) esters, and (ii) saponification process. 

Answer:

Esterification is opposite of saponification. In esterification:

RCOOH + R’OH → RCOOR’ + H2O

Whereas in saponification:

RCOOR’ + NaOH → RCOONa + R’OH

(i) Uses of Esters : Esters are used in making perfumes.

(ii) Uses of saponification reaction: Used in making soaps and soap products on a large scale.

 

Q 9. Write the number of periods and groups in the Modem Periodic Table. How does the metallic character of elements vary on moving

(i) from left to right in a period, and

(ii) down a group ? Give reason to justify your answer. 

Answer:

In the modem periodic table, there are 18 vertical columns known as Groups and 7 horizontal rows known as Periods.

Metallic character: It is defined as the tendency of an atom to lose electrons.

(i) Across the period i.e., from left to right, metallic character decreases.

(ii) Down the group i.e., from top to bottom, metallic character increases.

Reason: Across the period, the effective nuclear charge increases, thus decreasing its atomic radius. This favours the electronegativity and therefore the tendency ‘ to lose electrons is low. This accounts for the decrease in the metallic character. As we move down the group, the number of shells keep on increasing and therefore the atomic size increases and electronegativity decreases. This enhances the ability to lose electrons and therefore the metallic character increases.

 

Q 10. Na, Mg and Al are the elements of the 3rd period of the Modern Periodic Table having group number 1, 2 and 13 respectively. Which one of these elements has the (a) highest valency, (b) largest atomic radius, and (c) maximum chemical reactivity ? Justify your answer stating the reason for each. 

Answer:

Sodium (Na), At. number 11, 2, 8, 1

Magnesium (Mg), At. number 12, 2, 8, 2

Aluminium (Al), At. number 13, 2, 8, 3

(a) The element having the highest valency is Al, as it has 3 valence electrons.

(b) The element with the largest atomic radius is Na as left to right atomic radius decreases.

(c) The element with maximum chemical reactivity is Na as metallic character decreases left to right.

 

Q 11. Reproduction is one of the most important characteristics of living beings. Give three reasons in support of the statement. 

Answer:

Reproduction is an energy-consuming process which is not essential for the survival of an individual. But it is highly essential for all the living beings because of the following reasons:

  • Reproduction helps in increasing the number of members of a population.
  • By replacing the dead members with the new ones, it minimizes the risk of extinction of a species.
  • It brings about variations in species, thus, leading to their evolution.

 

Q 12. What is vegetative propagation ? State two advantages and two disadvantages of this method. 

Answer:

Vegetative propagation is a mode of asexual reproduction in which new plants are obtained from vegetative parts of the plants such as shoots or stem for the propagation of new plants.

Two advantages of vegetative propagation are:

  • Plants which do not produce seeds are propagated by this method.
  • Vegetative propagation is a cheaper, easier and rapid method of propagation in plants than growing plants from their seeds. Plants grow very slowly and take 4 to 7 years to develop flowers when grown with their seeds.

Two disadvantages of vegetative propagation are:

  • As there is no genetic variation, there is no chance of development of new and better varieties.
  • The vegetatively propagated plants are more prone to diseases that are specific to the species.

 

Q 13. List three techniques that have been developed to prevent pregnancy. Which one of these techniques is not meant for males ? How does the use of these techniques have a direct impact on the health and prosperity of a family? 

Answer:

Three techniques that have been developed to prevent pregnancy are:

  1. Mechanical Methods: Include condoms, diaphragm, IUCDs, etc.
  2. Chemical Methods : Include oral contraceptive pills, spermicide.
  3. Surgical Method: Includes vasectomy and tubectomy.
    The chemical methods are not meant for males.

The use of such contraceptive methods have various benefits, such as:

  1. Large size of families have a negative impact on the economic status of the family.
  2. Having pregnancies at quick successions reduces mother’s health and vitality. Use of contraceptive devices thus, effects the maternal health status.
  3. Some contraceptive devices (such as condoms) are also helpful in preventing sexually transmitted diseases.

 

Q 14. How did Mendel explain.that it is possible that a trait is inherited but not expressed in an organism? 

Answer:

Some traits that are inherited may not express themselves. Such hidden traits are known as recessive traits. Mendel explained this phenomenon with the help of a monohybrid cross. In a monohybrid cross performed by Mendel, tall plant was crossed with a dwarf plant which produced all tall plants in F1 progeny.

However, when these F1 tall plants were crossed with each other, both tall and dwarf pea plants were obtained in F2 generation. Reappearance of the dwarf pea plants in F2 generation proves that the dwarf trait was inherited but not expressed in F1 generation.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q14

So, dwarfness traits of plants (pea plant) were not lost but are suppressed in the F1 generation and thus reappears in F2 generation.

 

Q 15. “Evolution and classification of organisms are interlinked”. Give reasons to justify this statement. 

Answer:

Classification refers to the grouping and naming of organisms based on the similarities and difference in their characters. Classification is done on the basis of ancestral characteristics and derived characteristics. So as we move from simple life forms to the complex organisms, we are actually tracing the path of evolution. All life forms on earth have progressively changed during evolution. So the hierarchy develops during classification which throws the light on the evolutionary relationship among organisms. Common ancestors can also be predicted with the help of classification.

 

Q 16. If the image formed by a lens for all positions of an object placed in front of it is always erect and diminished, what is the nature of this lens? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. If the numerical value of the power of this lens is 10 D, what is its focal length in the Cartesian system ? 

Answer:

It is a concave lens (diverging lens).

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q16

 

Q 17. State the cause of dispersion of white light by a glass prism. How did Newton, using two identical glass prisms show that white light is made of seven colours ? Draw a ray diagram to show the path of a narrow beam of white light, through a combination of two identical prisms arranged together in inverted position with respect to each other, when it is allowed to fall obliquely on one of the faces of the first prism of the combination. 

Answer:

When a beam of white light enters a prism, it gets refracted at point and splits into its seven constituent colours. This splitting of the white light occurs because of different angles of bending for each colour and this different angles of bending occurs because different components of light have different refractive indices when passing through the glass prism.

Firstly, Newton made white light to fall on a prism, this cause dispersion of white light into seven colours. Newton then placed an inverted prism in the path of a colour band of seven colours. Only a beam of white ‘ light comes out from the second prism. So, Newton concluded that white light comprises of seven component colours.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q17

 

Q 18. (a) Water is an elixir of life, a very important natural resource. Your science teacher wants you to prepare a plan for a formative assessment activity, “How to save water, the vital natural resource”. Write any two ways that you will suggest to bring awareness in your neighbourhood, on how to save water.

(b) Name and explain any one way by which the underground water table does not go down further. 

Answer:

(a) Water is one of the most precious natural resources that has varied importance in our lives. It is an essential component of the human body, and is used almost everywhere in our day to day activities such as cooking, washing, farming etc. It is an indispensable part of our lives, without which life on earth is not possible. However, the amount of freshwater available for sustaining life is very less, so it is very important to save water by the following ways:

  • Turning off the taps during brushing, washing clothes/utensils etc., and use of buckets instead of showers for bathing.
  • Reusing of water by storing water after washing fruits and vegetables for watering plants and cleaning cars.

(b) The underground water table can be recharged through rainwater harvesting. Rainwater harvesting is a process by which rain water is collected and stored for the purpose of recharging the ground water or for future use like for irrigation and agriculture. In India, rainwater harvesting is an old tradition which is followed till now in many parts of India. For example, bawris are traditional architectural rainwater harvesters that were built for collecting water in the state of Rajasthan.

There are two ways of rainwater harvesting:

  • Surface runoff harvesting: In urban areas, rainwater that flows away from the surface can be collected and used for various purposes.
  • Rooftop rainwater harvesting: The rainwater on the roofs of the buildings is collected through canals that drains the water into ground reservoirs. This stored water is later utilised.

 

Q 19. Why are certain compounds called hydrocarbons? Write the general formula for homologous series of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes and also draw the structure of the first member of each series. Write the name of the reaction that converts alkenes into alkanes and also write a chemical equation to show the necessary conditions for the reaction to occur. 

Answer:

Compounds consisting of carbon and hydrogen are known as hydrocarbons.

1. Saturated hydrocarbons: Alkanes (CnH2n+2) are the compounds of carbon which have single bond.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q19

2. Unsaturated hydrocarbons: The compounds of carbon having double bonds are alkene (CnH2n) and those having triple bonds are alkyne (CnH2n-2).

The reaction which converts unsaturated hydrocarbons to saturated hydrocarbons i.e., alkenes to alkane is known as hydrogenation reaction. It is used to obtain ghee from oil.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q19.1

 

Q 20. (a) Write the functions of each of the following parts in a human female reproductive system:

(i) Ovary

(ii) Uterus

(iii) Fallopian tube

(b) Write the structure and functions of the placenta in a human female. 

Answer:

(a) (i) Functions of the Ovary:

  • It produces female gametes (ova).
  • It secretes female sex hormones

(ii) Functions of Uterus:

  • It supports and nourishes the developing foetus.
  • It expands according to the growth of the baby.

(iii) Functions of Fallopian tubes:

  • They carry eggs from the ovary to the uterus.
  • They act as the site for fertilisation.

(b) The placenta is the connecting link between the mother’s body and the baby. It is a disc embedded in the uterine wall. This special tissue contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue. The mother’s end of the placenta has blood spaces, which surrounds the villi. Placenta functions as a site of exchange of materials between the blood of the mother to the baby. The developing embryo generates certain waste substances that are also removed through placenta. Thus, the placenta serves as the nutritive, respiratory and excretory organ of the foetus.

 

Q 21. With the help of one example for each, distinguish between the acquired traits and the inherited traits. Why are the traits/ experiences acquired during the entire lifetime of an individual not inherited in the next generation? Explain the reason for this fact with an example. 

Answer:

S.No.Acquired traitsInherited traits
1.Those traits that are developed by the individual during his lifetime.Those traits which are present in an in­dividual since birth.
2.They are a result of changes in non-reproductive issues.They are a result of changes in the DNA.
3.They cannot be passed on to the progeny,       e.g., pierced ear, large muscle size etc.They are transmit­ted in the progeny, e.g., colour of eyes, skin or hair.

Traits can be passed on to the next generation only when they have some direct effect on the genes. The traits acquired during the lifetime of an individual cannot be inherited as they do not affect the genetic makeup of an organism. In fact, these traits develop due to the use and disuse of organs or due to the direct effect of the environment. Thus, they are not passed on to the next generation. For example, a wrestler develops large muscles because of his training programme, it does not mean that his offspring will necessarily have large muscles. Similarly, if a lady pierces her nose, the children produced to her will not have pierced nose by birth.

 

Q 22. Analyse the following observation table showing a variation of image-distance (v) with object-distance (u) in case of a convex lens and answer the questions that follow without doing any calculations:

S.No.Object-Distance u (cm)Image-Distance v (cm)
1.-100+ 25
2.-60+ 30
3.-40+ 40
4.-30+ 60
5.-25+ 100
6.-15+ 120

(a) What is the focal length of the convex lens ? Give a reason to justify your answer.

(b) Write the serial number of the observation which is not correct. On what basis have you arrived at this conclusion?

(c) Select an appropriate scale and draw a ray diagram for the observation at S. No. 2. Also, find the approximate value of magnification. 

Answer:

(a) From observation 3, the radius of curvature of the lens is 40 cm as distance of object and the distance of the image is the same.

Focal length, f = R/2 = 40/2 = 20 cm.

(b) S. No. 6 is not correct, as for this observation the object distance is between focus and pole and in such cases, the image formed is always virtual, but in this case real image is forming as the image distance is positive, hence, v should be negative

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q22

 

Q 23. (a) If the image formed by a mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always diminished, erect and virtual, state the type of the mirror and also draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. Write one use such mirrors are put to and why.

(b) Define the radius of curvature of spherical mirrors. Find the nature and focal length of a spherical mirror whose radius of curvature is + 24 cm. 

Answer:

(a) The type of the mirror is a convex mirror. (diverging mirror)

The ray diagram is shown below:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q23

Use of convex mirror: Convex mirror is used as rearview mirror in vehicles as it always produces a virtual, erect and diminished image of an object. So, images of vehicles over a wide area can be seen easily in it.

(b) Radius of curvature: The distance between the centre of curvature and pole of a spherical mirror is called radius of curvature.

R = +24 cm

f = R/2 = 24/2 = +12 cm

The mirror is convex mirror.

 

Q 24. (a) A student suffering from myopia is not able to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m. List two possible reasons due to which this defect of vision may have arisen. With the help of ray diagrams, explain

(i) Why the student is unable to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m from his eyes.

(ii) The type of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision and how this defect is corrected by the use of this lens.

(b) If, in this case, the numerical value of the focal length of the corrective lens is 5 m, find the power of the lens as per the new Cartesian sign convention. 

Answer:

(a) Two possible reasons due to which this defect of vision may have arisen are:

1. Increase in curvature of the lens.

2. Elongation of the eyeball.

(i) A myopic eye has its far point nearer than infinity. It forms the image of a distant object in front of the retina as shown below:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q24

Image is formed in front of Retina

In the given case, student’s far point is 5 m. So, image of the object placed beyond 5 m from his eyes is formed in front of the retina and object appears blurred. That is why the student is unable to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m from his eye.

(ii) Since a concave lens has an ability to diverge the incoming rays. Therefore, it is used to correct this defect of vision. The image is formed at the retina by the use of a concave lens of suitable power as shown.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q24.1

Section – B

Q 25. When you add a few drops of acetic acid to a test-tube containing sodium bicarbonate powder, which one of the following is your observation? 

(a) No reaction takes place.

(b) A colourless gas with the pungent smell is released with brisk effervescence.

(c) A brown coloured gas is released with brisk effervescence.

(d) Formation of bubbles of a colourless and odourless gas.

(d) Formation of bubbles of a colourless and odourless gas. 

 

Q 26. While studying the saponification reaction, what do you observe when you mix an equal amount of colourless vegetable oil and 20% aqueous solution of NaOH in a beaker? 

(a) The colour of the mixture has become dark brown.

(b) A brisk effervescence is taking place in the beaker.

(c) The outer surface of the beaker has become hot.

(d) The outer surface of the beaker has become cold.

Answer:

(c) The outer surface of the beaker has become hot.

 

Q 27. A student requires hard water for an experiment in his laboratory which is not available in the neighbouring area. In the laboratory, there are some salts, which when dissolved in distilled water can convert it into hard water. Select from the following groups of salts, a group, each salt of which when dissolved in distilled water will make it hard. 

(a) Sodium chloride, Potassium chloride

(b) Sodium sulphate, Potassium sulphate

(c) Sodium sulphate, Calcium sulphate

(d) Calcium sulphate, Calcium chloride

Answer:

(d) Calcium sulphate, Calcium chloride

 

Q 28. To perform an experiment to identify the different parts of an embryo of a dicot seed, first of all you require a dicot seed. Select dicot seeds from the following group. 

Wheat, Gram, Maize, Pea, Barley, Groundnut

(a) Wheat, Gram and Pea

(b) Gram, Pea and Ground-nut

(c) Maize, Pea and Barley

(d) Gram, Maize and Ground-nut

Answer:

(b) Gram, Pea and Ground-nut

 

Q 29. The following vegetables are kept in a basket:

Potato, Tomato, Radish, Brinjal, Carrot, Bottle-gourd

Which two of these vegetables correctly represent the homologous structures? 

(a) Carrot and Tomato

(b) Potato and Brinjal

(c) Radish and Carrot

(d) Radish and Bottle-gourd

Answer:

(c) Radish and Carrot

 

Q 30. Study the given ray diagrams and select the correct statement from the following: 

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q30

(a) Device X is a concave mirror and device Y is a convex lens, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively.

(b) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 10 cm and 25 cm respectively.

(c) Device X is a concave lens and device Y is a convex mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively.

(d) Device X is a convex lens arid device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively.

Answer:

(d) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm respectively.

 

Q 31. A student obtains a blurred image of a distant object on a screen using a convex lens. To obtain a distinct image on the screen he should move the lens. 

(a) away from the screen

(b) towards the screen

(c) to a position very far away from the screen.

(d) either towards or away from the screen depending upon the position of the object.

Answer:

(d) either towards or away from the screen depending upon the position of the object.

 

Q 32. A student very cautiously traces the path of a ray through a glass slab for different values of the angle of incidence (∠i). He then measures the corresponding values of the angle of refraction (∠r) and the angle of emergence (∠e) for every value of the angle of incidence. On analysing these measurements of angles, his conclusion would be: 

(a) ∠i > ∠r > ∠e

(b) ∠i = ∠e > ∠r

(c) ∠i < ∠r < ∠e

(d) ∠i = ∠e < ∠r

Answer:

(b) ∠i = ∠e > ∠r

 

Q 33. Study the following ray diagram

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q33

In this diagram, the angle of incidence, the angle of emergence and the angle of deviation respectively have been represented by 

(a) y, p, z

(b) x, q, z

(c) p, y, z

(d) p, z, y

Answer:

(c) p, y, z

 

Q 34. Mention the essential material (chemicals) to prepare soap in the laboratory. Describe in brief the test of determining the nature (acidic/alkaline) of the reaction mixture of saponification reaction. 

Answer:

The essential chemicals required to prepare soap in the laboratory are oil and sodium hydroxide solutions. In order to determine the nature of the reaction mixture of saponification reaction, we dip red litmus paper into it which will turn blue after a while indicating that it is a basic mixture.

 

Q 35. Draw in sequence (showing the four stages), the process of binary fission in Amoeba. 

Answer:

Binary Fission in Amoeba is the asexual type of reproduction in which the organism splits directly into two equal¬sized offsprings, each with a copy of the parent’s genetic material.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I Q35

 

Q 36. A student focuses the image of a candle flame, placed at about 2 m from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm, on a screen. After that, he moves gradually the flame towards the lens and each time focuses its image on the screen. 

  1. In which direction does he move the lens to focus the flame on the screen?
  2. What happens to the size of the image of the flame formed on the screen?
  3. What difference is seen in the intensity (brightness) of the image of the flame on the screen?
  4. What is seen on the screen when the flame is very close (at about 5 cm) to the lens?

Answer:

  1. He moves the lens away from the screen to focus on the image.
  2. Size of the image increases.
  3. The intensity of the image decreases as the flame moves towards the lens.
  4. Nothing can be seen as the image formed is virtual.

SET II

Q 1. Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and 3rd member of the homologous series whose first member is ethene. 

Answer:

1. Propene: C3H6

2. Butene: C4H8

 

Q 2. Newly formed DNA copies may not be identical at times. Give one reason. 

Answer:

During the process of replication of DNA, most of the base sequences in the new copies are identical to those in the parent DNA. However, some changes can occur either due to mutation or due to minor errors during the replication process. Thus, the newly formed DNA copies may not be identical at times.

 

Q 3.In the following food chain, plants provide 500 J of energy to rats. How much energy will be available to hawks from snakes?

Plants → Rats → Snakes → Hawks 

Answer:

500 J of energy is available to the rats thus according to 10% law, 50 J energy will be available to snakes and 5 J energy will be available to hawk.

 

Q 4. An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. List four characteristics (nature, position, etc.) of the image formed by the lens. 

Answer:

Given, u = -15 cm, f = 20 cm

1/f = 1/v – 1/u

1/20 = 1/v + 1/15

1/v = 1/20 – 1/15

v = -60 cm

Four characteristics of the image formed by the lens are:

  • Virtual
  • Erect
  • At a distance of 60 cm on the same side of the lens as the object
  • Enlarged or magnified image.

 

Q 5.Why is an equitable distribution of resources essential in a society? List two forces which are against such distribution. 

Answer:

Equitable distribution of resources is when every individual gets an equal right to access all the available resources and is benefited directly or indirectly. It also avoids the division of society to an extent.

The main forces which work against equitable distribution:

  • Lack of natural resources.
  • Excessive consumption by the rich.
  • Profit motive of people exploiting resources.
  • Corruption. (Any two)

 

Q 6. Why must we conserve our forests? List two factors responsible for causing deforestation. 

Answer:

We must conserve forests because we derive countless benefits such as food, timber etc. from them and they are an important component of our ecosystem. Factors that contribute to deforestation are as follows:

  1. Large scale development projects have contributed to the loss of forests.
  2. Forests are cleared on a large scale to meet the growing needs of industrialisation, especially fuelwood and for other forest products and minerals.
  3. Mining has also contributed to deforestation.
  4. With the increase in population and growing demand for commercial crops and the need for more and more land for agriculture, has to lead to deforestation.
  5. Growing urbanisation, trees are cut to establish cities, to lay down infrastructure.

 

Q 9. What happens when (write a chemical equation in each case)

(a) ethanol is burnt in the air?

(b) ethanol is heated with an excess cone. H2SO4 at 443 K?

(c) a piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol? 

Answer:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set II Q9

 

Q 10. Explain an esterification reaction with the help of a chemical equation. Describe an activity to show esterification. 

Answer:

The reaction of carboxylic acid with alcohol forms an ester. This process of formation of ester is called esterification.

CH3COOH + CH3CH2OH → CH3COOCH2CH3 + H2O

Activity:

  1. Take 1 ml of ethanol and 1 ml of glacial acetic acid in a boiling tube and mix the contents well.
  2. Add a few drops of conc. H2SO4 to it.
  3. Warm the contents on a water bath for a few minutes.
  4. Now pour the solution in a beaker containing 20-50 mL of water.
  5. A sweet fruity smell indicating the formation of an ester is observed.

 

Q 11. With the help of two suitable examples, explain why certain experiences and traits earned by people during their lifetime are not passed on to their next generations. When can such traits be passed on? 

Answer:

The experiences and qualifications that a person earns during their lifetime are examples of acquired traits. These traits are not inherited, they do riot affect the genetic makeup. They are developed due to the direct affect of the environment. Thus they are not passed to the next generation. Piercing of ears or large sized muscles of the wrestler are not carried by the next generation. Traits can only be passed on to the next generation only when they have some direct effect on the genes. For example, mutation is caused in the germ cells of a person due to exposure to some harmful radiations, it is likely that the mutation will be passed on to the subsequent generations.

 

Q 14. Describe reproduction by spores in Rhizopus. 

Answer:

Rhizopus is a fungus that reproduces by spore formation. The fungal hyphae gives rise to a globular structure known as sporangium. The sporangium gives rise to several spores by repetitive division of its nucleus. Each nucleus gets surrounded by a part of cytoplasm and thus develops into a spore. These spores then mature inside the sporangium. Once they are fully mature, the sporangium bursts to release these spores in the environment. Since the spores disperse through air, they can land on various sites. These sites may be favourable or unfavourable. During unfavourable conditions, these spores are protected by a tough coat. Once favourable conditions return, they germinate and grow into new hyphae.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set II Q14

 

Q 16. Draw ray diagrams to show the formation of three times magnified (a) real, and (b) virtual image of an object by a converging lens. Mark the positions of O, F and 2F in each diagram. 

Answer:

(a) For real image: To get a three-times magnified image, the object is placed between F1 & 2F1

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set II Q16

(b) For virtual image: To get a three-times magnified image, the object is placed between the F1 and optical centre O.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set II Q16.1

 

Q 17. What is the dispersion of white light? State its cause. Draw a ray diagram to show the dispersion of white light by a glass prism. 

Answer:

The phenomenon of splitting of white light into its seven constituent colours, when it passes through a glass prism, is called the dispersion of light.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set II Q17

When a beam of white light enters a prism, it gets refracted at point and splits into its seven constituent colours i.e.r violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red i.e., VIBGYOR. This splitting of light rays occurs because of the different angles of bending for each colour and this different angles of bending occurs because different components of light have different refractive indices or speed of different colours is different in glass when passing through the glass prism. When a beam of sunlight is allowed to fall on one of the rectangular surfaces of the glass prism, we obtain a coloured spectrum with red and violet colour at its extremes.

SET III

Q 1. Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and 3rd member of the homologous series where the first member is ethyne. 

Answer:

1. CH3C = CH (propyne), n = 3

2. CH3CH2C = CH (Butyne), n = 4

 

Q 2.Why is variation important for a species? 

Answer:

Variation is necessary for the survival of species as variation makes species more adapted to survive with the change environmental conditions. The vari? t species are more adapted to changing the environment. Therefore, they can survive better and reproduce to pass the genes to the offsprings.

 

Q 3. In the following food chain, 20,000 J of energy was available to the plants. How much energy would be available to man in this chain?

Plants → Sheep → Man 

Answer:

In the given food chain, according to 10% law,

Plants(20,000J) → Sheep(2000J) → Man(200J)

Amount of energy available to the man is 200 J.

 

Q 5. You being an environmentalist are interested in contributing to the conservation of natural resources. List four activities that you can do on your own. 

Answer:

We can bring the following activities in practice to conserve the natural resources:

  1. We can reuse and recycle the paper products so that cutting of trees could be reduced.
  2. We can reduce the consumption of water by avoiding its wastage in our day to day activities.
  3. We can also adopt water harvesting like rainwater harvesting.
  4. We can reduce the consumption of fossil fuels by using public transport, carpool and switching off vehicles at signals.

 

Q 6. Why are coal and petroleum categorised as natural resources ? Give a reason as to why they should be used judiciously. 

Answer:

Natural resources are those living and non-living sources available in our environment which are exploited to meet the human requirements. Since coal and petroleum are actually the fossils of the dead plants and animals respectively, hence considered as natural resources.

Both coal and petroleum are used as important sources of energy since long time. Both these fossil fuels were formed millions of years ago from the degradation of biomass. Since these fossil fuels are non-renewable in nature and they have limited reserves, therefore they must be used judiciously, otherwise they will get exhausted very soon.

 

Q 9. What is periodicity in properties of elements with reference to the Modem Periodic Table? Why do all the elements of the same group have similar properties? How does the tendency of elements to gain electrons change as we move from left to right in a period ? State the reason of this change. 

Answer:

The occurrence of the elements with similar properties after certain regular intervals when they are arranged in increasing order of atomic number is called periodicity. The periodic repetition of the properties is due to the recurrence of similar valence shell configuration after regular interval.

The elements in a group have same valence electrons thus similar chemical properties. In a period, the tendency to gain electrons increases from left to right. This tendency increases because the hold of the nucleus on the outermost electrons becomes weak thus it becomes easy to eject the electron.

 

Q 10. Write the electronic configuration of two elements X and Y whose atomic numbers are 20 and 17 respectively. Write the molecular formula of the compound formed when element X reacts with element Y. Draw the electron-dot structure of the product and also state the nature of the bond formed between both the elements. 

Answer:

X = 20; 2, 8, 8, 2

Y = 17; 2, 8, 7

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set III Q10

The nature of the bond will be ionic.

 

Q 12. What is an organic evolution ? It cannot be equated with progress. Explain with the help of a suitable example. 

Answer:

Organic evolution refers to the gradual changes that occur in living organisms over time. It is the result of change in the genetic makeup of the organism due to mutation and other sources of variations. „ The favourable mutations are accepted by nature and provide the organism an adaptive advantage, leading to its evolution. Evolution cannot always be equated to progress because it does not always lead to the formation of a new species. In fact, most of the time, it leads to the generation of diversity. One species does not necessarily get eliminated to give rise to new ones in prevailing environments. Also, the newly formed species may have complex organisations because of evolution but it cannot be considered better than the earlier species. Many older and simpler designs still survive in nature. For example, bacteria are one of the simplest life forms on earth and still they can survive in the most adverse conditions, such as hot springs, deep sea thermal vents etc. Therefore, having more complex body designs does not make any species superior to others.

 

Q 13. List the two types of reproduction. Which one of the two is responsible for bringing in more variations in its progeny and how? 

Answer:

Reproduction methods are of two types: Sexual and Asexual. Out of these, sexual reproduction brings more variation in organisms. In sexual reproduction fusion of male and female gametes from different organisms occurs. Since the fusion of gametes come from two different individuals, the offspring exhibit more diversity of characters. Also during gamete formation, meiosis occurs which brings new combinations of genes. Both these factors lead to more variations in the progeny.

 

Q 16. “A lens can form a magnified erect image as well as magnified inverted image of an object placed in front of it.” State the nature of this lens and draw ray diagrams to justify the above statement. Mark the positions of O, F and 2F in the diagram.

Answer:

Convex/Converging lens.

Two ray diagrams are drawn to show it-

(a) When object is placed between O and F1, the image formed is magnified, Virtual and erect.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set III Q16

(b) When object is placed between F and 2F, the image formed is magnified and inverted.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set III Q16.1

Q 17. What is “dispersion of white light”? Draw a labelled diagram to illustrate the recombination of the spectrum of white light. Why is it essential that the two prisms used for the purpose should be identical and placed in an inverted position with respect to each other? 

Answer:

The phenomenon of splitting of white light into its constituent colours on passing through a prism is known as the dispersion of white light. This splitting of the light rays occurs because of the different angles of bending for each colour and this different angles of bending occurs because different component of light faces different refractive index (or speed of different colours is different) when passing through the glass prism.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set III Q17

It is essential that the two prisms used for the purpose should be identical and placed in an inverted position with respect to each other so that the second prism completely nullifies the dispersion caused by the first prism and we get pure white light.

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