NEET Previous Year Paper - Page 2 of 3

AIPMT 2009 Prelims Previous Year Paper

AIPMT 2009 Prelims

Q. 1 In the nuclear decay given in figure 1, the particles emitted in the sequence are:

A. γ, β, α

B. β, γ, α

C. α, β, γ

D. β, α, γ

Q. 2 A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis vertical to its plane with a constant angular velocity If two objects each of mass m be attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of the ring, the ring will then rotate with an angular velocity:

A. ωM/(M + 2m)

B. (ω(M + 2m))/M

C. ωM/(M + m)

D. (ω(M – 2m))/(M + 2m)

Q. 3 In thermodynamic processes which of the following statements is not true?

A. In an isochoric process pressure remains constant

B. In an isothermal process the temperature remains constant

C. In an adiabatic process PVγ = constant

D. In an adiabatic process the system is insulated from the surroundings

Q. 4 The number of photoelectrons emitted for light of a frequency v (higher than the threshold frequency v0) is proportional to:

A. Threshold frequency (v0)

B. Intensity of light

C. Frequency of light (v)

D. v – v0

Q. 5 A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic motion about x = 0 with an amplitude a and time period T. The speed of pendulum at x = a/2 will be :

A. πa/T

B. (3π2a)/T

C. (πa√(3))/T

D. (πa√(3))/2T

Q. 6 See the electric circuit shown in this figure (1). Which of the following equations is a correct equation for it?

A. ε 2 – i2 r2 – ε 1 – i1 r1 = 0

B. – ε 2 – (i1 + i2) R + i2 r2 = 0

C. ε 1 – (i1+ i2) R + i1 r1 = 0

D. ε 1 – (i1+ i2) R – i1 r1 = 0

Q. 7 A body, under the action of a force F⃗ = 6 î – 8 ĵ + 10 k⃗ , acquires an acceleration of 1 m/s2. The mass of this body must be:

A. 10 kg

B. 20 kg

C. 10√2 kg

D. 2√10 kg

Q. 8 The symbolic representation of four logic gates are given in figure (i), (ii), (iii), (iv). The logic symbols for OR, NOT and NAND gates are respectively:

A. (iv), (i), (iii)

B. (iv), (ii), (i)

C. (i), (iii), (iv)

D. (iii), (iv), (ii)

Q. 9 If F is the force acting on a particle having position vector r and r be the torque of this force about the origin, then:

Q. 10 The two ends of a rod of length L and a uniform cross-sectional area A are kept at two temperatures T 1 and T 2 (T 1 > T 2). The rate of heat transfer, (dQ/dt) through the rod in a steady state is given by:

A. dQ/dt = (k(T 1 – T 2))/LA

B. dQ/dt = kLA(T 1 – T 2)

C. dQ/dt = (kA(T 1 – T 2))/L

D. dQ/dt = (kL(T 1 – T 2))/A

Q. 11 A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with a band gap of 2.5 eV. It can detect a signal of wavelength:

A. 4000 nm

B. 6000 nm

C. 4000 Å

D. 6000 Å

Q. 12 If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by M a L b T c, then the physical quantity will be:

A. Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = – 1

B. Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = – 2

C. Force if a = 0, b = – 1, c = – 2

D. Pressure if a = 1, b = – 1, c = – 2

Q. 13 A transistor is operated in common-emitter configuration at Vc = 2 V such that a change in the base current from 100μA to 200μA produces a change in the collector current from 5 mA to 10 mA. The current gain is:

A. 100

B. 150

C. 50

D. 75

Q. 14 The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the tension in the supporting cable is 28000 N, then its acceleration is:

A. 4 ms^−2 upwards.

B. 4 ms^−2 downwards.

C. 14 ms^−2 upwards.

D. 30 ms^−2 downwards.

Q. 15 Four identical thin rods each of mass M and length l, form a square frame. Moment of inertia of this frame about an axis through the centre of the square and perpendicular to its plane is :

A. (2/3) Ml2

B. (13/3) Ml2

C. (1/3) Ml2

D. (4/3) Ml2

Q. 16 Each of the two strings of length 51.6 cm and 49.1 cm are tensioned separately by 20 N force. Mass per unit length of both the strings is same and equal to 1 g/m. When both the strings vibrate simultaneously the number of beats is:

A. 7

B. 8

C. 3

D. 5

Q. 17 The number of beta particles emitted by a radioactive substance is twice the number of alpha particles emitted by it. The resulting daughter is an:

A. isomer of parent

B. isotone of parent

C. isotope of parent

D. isobar of parent

Q. 18 The Figure (1) shows a plot of photo current versus anode potential for a photosensitive surface for three different radiations. Which one of the following is a correct statement?

A. curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of same frequency but of different intensities.

B. curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities.

C. curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations of same frequency having same intensity.

D. curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities.

Q. 19 The Figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sum S. The shaded area SCD is twice the shaded area SAB. If t1 is the time for the planet of move from C to D and t2 is the time to move from A to B then:

A. t1 = 4t2

B. t1 = 2t2

C. t1 = t2

D. t1 > t2

Q. 20 A black body at 227°C radiates heat at the rate of 7 Cals/cm 2s. At a temperature of 727°C, the rate of heat radiated in the same units will be:

A. 50

B. 112

C. 80

D. 60

Q. 21 The driver of a car travelling with speed 30 m/sec towards a hill sounds a horn of frequency 600 Hz. If the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s, the frequency of reflected sound as heard by driver is:

A. 555.5 Hz

B. 720 Hz

C. 500 Hz

D. 550 Hz

Q. 22 A wire of resistance 12 ohms per meter is bent to form a complete circle of radius 10 cm. The resistance between its two diametrically opposite points, A and B as shown in the Figure (1) is:

A. 3 Ω

B. 6 πΩ

C. 6 Ω

D. 0.6 πΩ

Q. 23 A rectangular, a square, a circular and an elliptical loop, all in the (x – y) plane, are moving out of a uniform magnetic field with a constant velocity, V⃗ = v î. The magnetic field is directed along the negative z axis direction. The induced emf, during the passage of these loops, out of the field region, will not remain constant for:

A. the circular and the elliptical loops.

B. only the elliptical loop.

C. any of the four loops.

D. the rectangular, circular and elliptical loops.

Q. 24 A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 60 Ω shows full scale deflection when a current of 1.0 amp passes through it. It can be converted into an ammeter to read currents upto 5.0 amp by:

A. putting in series a resistance of 15 Ω

B. putting in series a resistance of 240 Ω

C. putting in parallel a resistance of 15 Ω

D. putting in parallel a resistance of 240 Ω

Q. 25 Power dissipated in an LCR series circuit connected to an a.c source of emf ε is:

A. ε^2 √(R^2 + (Lw – 1/Cw)^2) / R

B. ε^2 [R^2 + (Lw – 1/Cw)^2] / R

C. ε^2R / √(R^2 + (Lw – 1/Cw)^2)

D. ε^2R / [R^2 + (Lw – 1/Cw)^2]

Q. 26 Three concentric spherical shells have radii a, b and c (a < b < c) and have surface charge densities σ, – σ and σ respectively. If VA, VB and VC denote the potentials of the three shells, then for c = a + b, we have:

A. VC = VB ≠ VA

B. VC ≠ VB ≠ VA

C. VC = VB = VA

D. VC = VA ≠ VB

Q. 27 An engine pumps water continuously through a hose. Water leaves the hose with a velocity v and m is the mass per unit length of the water jet. What is the rate at which kinetic energy is imparted to water?

A. mv2

B. (1/2)mv2

C. (1/2)m 2v2

D. (1/2)mv3

Q. 28 A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of 2 × 104 JT^-1 is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. A horizontal magnetic field B = 6 × 10^-4 T exists in the space. The work done in taking the magnet slowly from a direction parallel to the field to a direction 60° from the field is:

A. 12 J

B. 6 J

C. 2 J

D. 0.6 J

Q. 29 In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a projectile of charge z1 and mass M1 approaches a target nucleus of charge z2 and mass M2, the distance of closest approach is r0. The energy of the projectile is:

A. directly proportional to z1 z2

B. inversely proportional to z1

C. directly proportional to mass M1

D. directly proportional to M1 × M2

Q. 30 Monochromatic light of wavelength 667 nm is produced by a helium neon laser. The power emitted is 9 mW. The number of photons arriving per sec. On the average at a target irradiated by this beam is

A. 3 × 10^16

B. 9 × 10^15

C. 3 × 10^19

D. 9 × 10^17

Q. 31 A wave in a string has an amplitude of 2 cm. The wave travels in the + ve direction of x axis with a speed of 128 m/sec. and it is noted that 5 complete waves fit in 4 m length of the string. The equation describing the wave is:

A. y = (0.02) m sin (15.7x – 2010t)

B. y = (0.02) m sin (15.7x + 2010t)

C. y = (0.02) m sin (7.85x – 1005t)

D. y = (0.02) m sin (7.85x + 1005t)

Q. 32 Which one of the following equations of motion represents simple harmonic motion? Where k, k0, k1 and a are all positive.,

A. acceleration = – k(x + a)

B. acceleration = k(x + a)

C. acceleration = kx

D. acceleration = – k0x + k1x2

Q. 33 A student measures the terminal potential difference (V) of a cell (of emf ε and internal resistance r) as a function of the current (I) flowing through it. The slope, and intercept, of the graph between V and I, then, respectively, equal:

A. – r and ε

B. r and – ε

C. – ε and r

D. ε and – r

Q. 34 If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the north or the south pole of a bar magnet, it is:

A. repelled by the north pole and attracted by the south pole

B. attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole

C. attracted by both the poles

D. repelled by both the poles

Q. 35 A bus is moving with a speed of 10 ms^v-1 on a straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake the bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a distance of 1 km from the scooterist, with what speed should the scooterist chase the bus?

A. 40 ms^-1

B. 25 ms^-1

C. 10 ms^-1

D. 20 ms^-1

Q. 36 Sodium has body centred packing. Distance between two nearest atoms is 3.7 Å. The lattice parameter is:

A. 4.3 Å

B. 3.0 Å

C. 8.6 Å

D. 6.8 Å

Q. 37 The internal energy change in a system that has absorbed 2 Kcals of heat and done 500 J of work is:

A. 6400 J

B. 5400 J

C. 7900 J

D. 8900 J

Q. 38 Three capacitors each of capacitance C and of breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination will be:

A. 3C, V/3

B. C/3, 3V

C. 3C, 3V

D. C/3, V/3

Q. 39 An explosion blows a rock into three parts. Two parts go off at right angles to each other. These two are, 1 kg first part moving with a velocity of 12 ms^-1 and 2kg second part moving with a velocity of 8 ms^-1. If the third part flies off with a velocity of 4 ms^-1, its mass would be:

A. 7 kg

B. 17 kg

C. 3 kg

D. 5 kg

Q. 40 A particle starts its motion from rest under the action of a constant force. If the distance covered in first 10 seconds is S1 and that covered in the first 20 seconds is S2, then:

A. S2 = 3S1

B. S2 = 4S1

C. S2 = S1

D. S2 = 2S1

Q. 41 A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 m/s. It momentarily comes to rest after attaining a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction? (g = 10 m/s^2)

A. 30 J

B. 40 J

C. 10 J

D. 20 J

Q. 42 A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field 0.04 T with its plane perpendicular to the magnetic field. The radius of the loop starts shrinking at 2 mm/s. The induced emf in the loop when the radius is 2 cm is:

A. 4.8 π μV

B. 0.8 π μV

C. 1.6 π μV

D. 3.2 π μV

Q. 43 The magnetic force acting on a charged particle of charge -2 μC in a magnetic field of 2T acting in y direction, when the particle velocity is

(2î + 3ĵ) × 106 ms^-1, is:

A. 4 N is z direction

B. 8 N is y direction

C. 8 N in z direction

D. 8 N in – z direction

Q. 44 Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 3 kg have position vectors î + 2ĵ + k^→ and – 3î – 2ĵ + k^→ respectively. The centre of mass of this system has a position vector:

A. – 2î – ĵ + k^→

B. 2î – ĵ – 2k^→

C. – î + ĵ + k^→

D. – 2î + 2k^→

Q. 45 The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by V = – x2y – xz3+ 4 The electric field E⃗ at that point is:

A. E^→ ̂= î 2xy + ĵ(x^2 + y^2) + k̂(3xz – y^2)

B. E^→ ̂= î z^3 + ĵ xyz + k̂z^2

C. E^→ ̂= î (2xy – z^3) + ĵxy^2 + k̂3z^2 x

D. E^→ ̂= î (2xy + z^3) + ĵx2 + k̂3xz^2

Q. 46 The mean free path of electrons in a metal is 4 × 10^-8 m. The electric field which can given on an average 2 eV energy to an electron in the metal will be in units of V/m:

A. 5 × 10^-11

B. 8 × 10^-11

C. 5 × 10^7

D. 8 × 10^7

Q. 47 The ionization energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV. The atoms are excited to higher energy levels to emit radiations of 6 wavelengths.

Maximum wavelength of emitted radiation corresponds to the transition between:

A. n = 3 to n = 1 states

B. n = 2 to n = 1 states

C. n = 4 to n = 3 states

D. n = 3 to n = 2 states

Q. 48 Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field, a charged particle moves with constant speed V in a circle of radius R. The time period of rotation of the particle:

A. depends on R and not on V

B. is independent of both V and R

C. depends on both V and R

D. depends on V and not on R

Q. 49 The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is represented by Ex = 0; Ez = 0; Ey is given in figure (1). The wave is:

A. moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wave length 100 m.

B. moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wave length 200 m.

C. moving along – x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wave length 200 m.

D. moving along y direction with frequency 2π × 106 Hz and wave length 200 m.

Q. 50 A block of mass M is attached to the lower end of a vertical spring. The spring is hung from a ceiling and has force constant value k. The mass is released from rest with the spring initially unstretched. The maximum extension produced in the length of the spring will be:

A. 2 Mg/k

B. 4 Mg/k

C. Mg/2k

D. Mg/k

Q. 51 Which one of the following (given in figure ) is correct pairing of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is:

A. Glandular

B. Ciliated

C. Squamous

D. Cuboidal

Q. 53 Study the pedigree chart given in figure 1. What does it show ?

A. Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait

B. The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible

C. Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like haemophilia

D. Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria

Q. 54 Manganese is required in:

A. Plant cell wall formation

B. Photolysis of water during photosynthesis

C. Chlorophyll synthesis

D. Nucleic acid synthesis

Q. 55 Polyethylene glycol method is used for:

A. Biodiesel production

B. Seedless fruit production

C. Energy production from sewage

D. Gene transfer without a vector

Q. 56 The floral formula given in figure 1 is that of:

A. Soybean

B. Sunn Hemp

C. Tobacco

D. Tulip

Q. 57 Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic ?

A. Aschelminthes (roundworms)

B. Ctenophores

C. Sponges

D. Coelenterates (Cnidarians)

Q. 58 Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants ?

A. Meloidogyne incognita

B. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

C. Penicillium expansum

D. Trichoderma harzianum

Q. 59 Which one of the following (given in figure 1) is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 60 Which one is the wrong pairing (given in figure 1) for the disease and its causal organism ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 61 Global agreement in specific control strategies to reduce the release of ozone depleting substances, was adopted by:

A. The Montreal Protocol

B. The Koyoto Protocol

C. The Vienna Convention

D. Rio de Janeiro Conference

Q. 62 What is true about Bt toxin ?

A. Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus.

B. The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilise it and thus prevent its multiplication.

C. The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins.

D. The inactive protoxin gets converted into active form in the insect gut.

Q. 63 Peripatus is a connecting link between:

A. Mollusca and Echinodermata

B. Annelida and Arthropoda

C. Coelenterata and Porifera

D. Ctenophora and Platyhelminthis

Q. 64 T.O. Diener discovered a:

A. Free infectious DNA

B. Infectious protein

C. Bacteriophage

D. Free infectious RNA

Q. 65 Seminal plasma in humans is rich in:

A. fructose and calcium but has no enzymes

B. glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium

C. fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium

D. fructose, calcium and certain enzymes

Q. 66 A fruit developed from hypanthodium inflorescence is called:

A. Sorosis

B. Syconus

C. Caryopsis

D. Hesperidium

Q. 67 The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap junctions are found in:

A. Connective tissue

B. Epithelial tissue

C. Neural tissue

D. Muscular tissue

Q. 68 What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are totally removed ?

A. Micturition will continue

B. Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder

C. There will be no micturition

D. Urine will not collect in the bladder

Q. 69 If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle on its outer surface without damaging its gut, the fluid that comes out is:

A. coelomic fluid

B. haemolymph

C. slimy mucus

D. excretory fluid

Q. 70 The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC, because “O” in it refers to having:

A. overdominance of this type on the genes for A and B types

B. one antibody only – either anti-A or anti-B on the RBCs

C. no antigens A and B on RBCs

D. other antigens besides A and B on RBCs

Q. 71 One of the synthetic auxin is:

A. IAA

B. GA

C. IBA

D. NAA

Q. 72 A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering:

A. Preformed antibodies

B. Wide spectrum antibiotics

C. Weakened germs

D. Dead germs

Q. 73 Alzheimer disease in humans is associated with the deficiency of:

A. glutamic acid

B. acetylcholine

C. gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)

D. dopamine

Q. 74 Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a river water:

A. has no relationship with concentration of oxygen in the water.

B. gives a measure of salmonella in the water.

C. increases when sewage gets mixed with river water.

D. remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs.

Q. 75 The genetic defect – adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by:

A. administering adenosine deaminase activators.

B. introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages.

C. enzyme replacement therapy.

D. periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA.

Q. 76 Compared to blood our lymph has:

A. plasma without proteins

B. more WBCs and no RBCs

C. more RBCs and less WBCs

D. no plasma

Q. 77 Sickle cell anemia is:

A. caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin

B. caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA

C. characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus

D. an autosomal linked dominant trait

Q. 78 Which of the following plant species you would select for the production of bioethanol ?

A. Zea mays

B. Pongamia

C. Jatropha

D. Brassica

Q. 79 When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low in proteins and calories; the infants below the age of one year are likely to suffer from:

A. Rickets

B. Kwashiorkor

C. Pellagra

D. Marasmus

Q. 80 A young infant may be feeding entirely on mother’s milk which is white in colour but the stools which the infant passes out is quite yellowish. What is this yellow colour due to ?

A. Bile pigments passed through bile juice

B. Undigested milk protein casein

C. Pancreatic juice poured into duodenum

D. Intestinal juice

Q. 81 Which one of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India?

A. Mango

B. Wheat

C. Tea

D. Teak

Q. 82 Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in:

A. Oscillatoria

B. Rhodospirillum

C. Chlorobium

D. Chromatium

Q. 83 There is no DNA in:

A. Mature RBCs

B. A mature spermatozoan

C. Hair root

D. An enucleated ovum

Q. 84 Given in figure (1) is a schematic break-up of the phases / stages of cell cycle. Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle ?

A. C-Karyokinesis

B. D-Synthetic phase

C. A-Cytokinesis

D. B-Metaphase

Q. 85 Tiger is not a resident in which one of the following national park ?

A. Sunderbans

B. Gir

C. Jim Corbett

D. Ranthambhor

Q. 86 Which one of the following statements is true regarding digestion and absorption of food in humans ?

A. Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+.

B. Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries.

C. About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mout.

D. Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen.

Q. 87 Synapsis occurs between:

A. mRNA and ribosomes

B. spindle fibres and centromere

C. two homologous chromosomes

D. a male and a female gamete

Q. 88 Given in figure (1) is a diagrammatic sketch of a portion of human male reproductive system. Select the correct set of the names of the parts labelled A, B, C, D.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 89 What is not true for genetic code?

A. It is nearly universal

B. It is degenerate

C. It is unambiguous

D. A codon in mRNA is read in a non-contiguous fashion

Q. 90 Which one of the following plants is monoecious?

A. Pinus

B. Cycas

C. Papaya

D. Marchantia

Q. 91 Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of

A. ATP and NADPH

B. ATP, NADPH and O2

C. ATP

D. NADPH

Q. 92 The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to:

A. Thalamus

B. Tonsil

C. Thymus

D. Thyroid

Q. 93 Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by:

A. release of oxytocin from pituitary

B. fully developed foetus and placenta

C. differentiation of mammary glands

D. pressure exerted by amniotic fluid

Q. 94 Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root is distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem by

A. Absence of secondary phloem

B. Presence of cortex

C. Position of protoxylem

D. Absence of secondary xylem

Q. 95 Plasmodesmata are :

A. Locomotary structures

B. Membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma

C. Connections between adjacent cells

D. Lignified cemented layers between cells

Q. 96 Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called:

A. Tailing

B. Transformation

C. Capping

D. Splicing

Q. 97 Phylogenetic system of classification is based on :

A. Morphological features

B. Chemical constituents

C. Floral characters

D. Evolutionary relationships

Q. 98 Which part of human brain is concerned with the regulation of body temperature?

A. Cerebellum

B. Cerebrum

C. Hypothalamus

D. Medulla Oblongata

Q. 99 Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in:

A. Escherichia coli

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae

C. Salmonella typhimurium

D. Drosophila melanogaster

Q. 100 Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises ‘jawless fishes’?

A. Mackerals and Rohu

B. Lampreys and hag fishes

C. Guppies and hag fishes

D. Lampreys and eels

Q. 101 Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases ?

A. Common Cold, AIDS

B. Dysentery, Common Cold

C. Typhoid, Tuberculosis

D. Ringworm, AIDS

Q. 102 Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately termed:

A. Parabolic

B. Amphibolic

C. Anabolic

D. Catabolic

Q. 103 A country with a high rate of population growth took measures to reduce it. The Figure 1 shows age-sex pyramids of populations A and B twenty years apart. Select the correct interpretation about them:

A. “B” is earlier pyramid and shows stabilised growth rate.

B. “B” is more recent showing that population is very young.

C. “A” is the earlier pyramid and nochange has occurred in the growth rate.

D. “A” is more recent and shows slight reduction in the growth rate.

Q. 104 Cytoskeleton is made up of:

A. Callose deposits

B. Cellulosic microfibrils

C. Proteinaceous filaments

D. Calcium carbonate granules

Q. 105 An example of axile placentation is:

A. Dianthus

B. Lemon

C. Marigold

D. Argemone

Q. 106 Which one of the following has haplontic life cycle ?

A. Polytrichum

B. Ustilago

C. Wheat

D. Funaria

Q. 107 Steps taken by the Government of India to control air pollution include:

A. compulsory PUC (Pollution Under Control) certification of petrol driven vehicles which tests for carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons.

B. permission to use only pure diesel with a maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel for vehicles.

C. use of non-polluting Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses and trucks.

D. compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol with petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel.

Q. 108 Which one of the following is considered important in the development of seed habit?

A. Heterospory

B. Haplontic life cycle

C. Free-living gametophyte

D. Dependent sporophyte

Q. 109 The annular and spirally thickened conducting elements generally develop in the protoxylem when the root or stem is:

A. elongating

B. widening

C. differentiating

D. maturing

Q. 110 The correct sequence of plants in a hydrosere is:

A. Volvox → Hydrilla → Pistia → Scirpus → Lantana → Oak

B. Pistia → Volvox → Scirpus → Hydrilla → Oak → Lantana

C. Oak → Lantana → Volvox → Hydrilla → Pistia → Scirpus

D. Oak → Lantana → Scirpus → Pistia → Hydrilla → Volvox

Q. 111 Stroma in the chloroplasts of higher plant contains:

A. Light-dependent reaction enzymes

B. Ribosomes

C. Chlorophyll

D. Light-independent reaction enzymes

Q. 112 A health disorder that results from the deficiency of thyroxine in adults and characterised by (i) a low metabolic rate, (ii) increase in body weight and (iii) tendency to retain water in tissues is:

A. simple goitre

B. myxoedema

C. cretinism

D. hypothyroidism

Q. 113 Mannitol is the stored food in:

A. Porphyra

B. Fucus

C. Gracillaria

D. Chara

Q. 114 Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?

A. Alcohol – nitrogenase

B. Fruit juice – pectinase

C. Textile – amylase

D. Detergents – lipase

Q. 115 Which of the following is not used as a biopesticide ?

A. Trichoderma harzianum

B. Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus (NPV)

C. Xanthomonas campestris

D. Bacillus thuringiensis

Q. 116 Which one of the following is a vascular cryptogam?

A. Ginkgo

B. Marchantia

C. Cedrus

D. Equisetum

Q. 117 In a standard ECG which one of the following alphabets is the correct representation of the respective activity of the human heart?

A. S – start of systole

B. T – end of diastole

C. P – depolarisation of the atria

D. R – repolarisation of ventricles

Q. 118 Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component of the excretory products of:

A. Earthworm

B. Cockroach

C. Frog

D. Man

Q. 119 Guard cells help in:

A. Transpiration

B. Guttation

C. Fighting against infection

D. Protection against grazing

Q. 120 Montreal Protocol aims at:

A. Biodiversity conservation

B. Control of water pollution

C. Control of CO2 emission

D. Reduction of ozone depleting substances

Q. 121 DDT residues are rapidly passed through food chain causing biomagnification because DDT is:

A. moderately toxic

B. non-toxic to aquatic animals

C. water soluble

D. lipo soluble

Q. 122 Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by:

A. Offset

B. Rhizome

C. Sucker

D. Runner

Q. 123 Select the incorrect statement from the following:

A. Galactosemia is an inborn error of metabolism

B. Small population size results in random genetic drift in a population

C. Baldness is a sex-limited trait

D. Linkage is an exception to the principle of independent assortment in heredity

Q. 124 Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible parts in:

A. walnut and tamarind

B. french bean and coconut

C. cashew nut and litchi

D. groundnut and pomegranate

Q. 125 Which one of the following statements is correct ?

A. Benign tumours show the property of metastasis.

B. Heroin accelerates body functions.

C. Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis.

D. Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain.

Q. 126 The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human testis is:

A. spermatogonia – spermatocyte – spermatid – sperms

B. spermatid – spermatocyte – spermatogonia – sperms

C. spermatogonia – spermatid – spermatocyte – sperms

D. spermatocyte – spermatogonia – spermatid – sperms

Q. 127 Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick relief from:

A. Nausea

B. Cough

C. Headache

D. Allergy

Q. 128 Chipko movement was launched for the protection of:

A. Forests

B. Livestock

C. Wet lands

D. Grasslands

Q. 129 Which one of the following is the most likely root cause why menstruation is not taking place in regularly cycling human female ?

A. maintenance of the hypertrophical endometrial lining

B. maintenance of high concentration of sex hormones in the blood stream

C. retention of well-developed corpus luteum

D. fertilisation of the ovum

Q. 130 Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in:

A. osmotic balance of body fluids

B. oxygen transport in the blood

C. clotting of blood

D. defence mechanisms of body

Q. 131 Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of :

A. Mustard

B. Soybean

C. Gram

D. Sorghum

Q. 132 In barley stem vascular bundles are:

A. closed and scattered

B. open and in a ring

C. closed and radial

D. open and scattered

Q. 133 Which one of the following given in figure (1) is the correct matching of three items and their grouping category ?

Items	Group
(1)	Lium, ischium, pubis	Coxal bones of pelvic girdle
(2)	Actin, myosin, rhodopsin	Muscle proteins
(3)	Cytosine, uracil, thiamine	pyrimidines
(4)	Malleus, incus, cochlea	Ear ossicles

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 134 Somaclones are obtained by

A. Plant breeding

B. Irradiation

C. Genetic engineering

D. Tissue culture

Q. 135 In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia) the black-coloured form became dominant over the light-coloured form in England during industrial revolution. This is an example of :

A. appearance of the darker coloured individuals due to very poor sunlight

B. protective mimicry

C. inheritance of darker colour character acquired due to the darker environment

D. natural selection whereby the darker forms were selected

Q. 136 Transgenic plants are the ones:

A. generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell.

B. produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium.

C. grown in artificial medium after hybridization in the field.

D. produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium.

Q. 137 Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested?

A. Starch and fat

B. Fat and cellulose

C. Starch and cellulose

D. Protein and starch

Q. 138 A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will affect:

A. Pattern of cleavage

B. Number of blastomeres produced

C. Fertilization

D. Formation of zygote

Q. 139 Middle lamella is composed mainly of:

A. Muramic acid

B. Calcium pectate

C. Phosphoglycerides

D. Hemicellulose

Q. 140 Elbow joint is an example of:

A. hinge joint

B. gliding joint

C. ball and socket joint

D. pivot joint

Q. 141 Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen fixer ?

A. Azotobacter

B. Frankia

C. Azolla

D. Glomus

Q. 142 Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a “triplet”?

A. Hershey and Chase

B. Morgan and Sturtevant

C. Beadle and Tatum

D. Nirenberg and Mathaei

Q. 143 Which one of the following types of organisms occupy more than one trophic level in a pond ecosystem ?

A. Fish

B. Zooplankton

C. Frog

D. Phytoplankton

Q. 144 Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids ?

A. Indole-3-acetic acid

B. Gibberellic acid

C. Abscisic acid

D. Indole butyric acid

Q. 145 The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used in contemporary biology as:

A. Insecticide

B. Agent for production of dairy products

C. Source of industrial enzyme

D. Indicator of water pollution

Q. 146 An example of a seed with endosperm, perisperm, and caruncle is:

A. coffee

B. lily

C. castor

D. cotton

Q. 147 Reduction in vascular tissue, mechanical tissue and cuticle is characteristic of :

A. Mesophytes

B. Epiphytes

C. Hydrophytes

D. Xerophytes

Q. 148 Point mutation involves:

A. Change in single base pair

B. Duplication

C. Deletion

D. Insertion

Q. 149 Which one of the following correctly describes the location of some body parts in the earthworm Pheretima ?

A. Four pairs of spermathecae in 4 – 7 segments.

B. One pair of ovaries attached at intersegmental septum of 14th and 15th segments.

C. Two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th segments.

D. Two pairs of accessory glands in 16 – 18 segments.

Q. 150 The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna (external ears) is also found in:

A. nails

B. ear ossicles

C. tip of the nose

D. vertebrae

Q. 151 The state of hybridization of C2, C3, C5 and C6 of the hydrocarbon, given in figure (1), is in the following sequence:

A. sp3, sp2, sp2 and sp

B. sp, sp2, sp2 and sp3

C. sp, sp2, sp3 and sp2

D. sp, sp3, sp2 and sp3

Q. 152 Oxidation numbers of P in PO4^3-, of S in SO4^2- and that of Cr in Cr2O7^2-, are respectively :

A. + 3, + 6 and + 5

B. + 5, + 3 and + 6

C. – 3, + 6 and + 6

D. + 5, + 6 and + 6

Q. 153 Lithium metal crystallises in a body centred cubic crystal. If the length of the side of the unit cell of lithium is 351 pm, the atomic radius of the lithium will be:

A. 151.8 pm

B. 75.5 pm

C. 300.5 pm

D. 240.8 pm

Q. 154 Which of the following reactions is an example of nucleophilic susbtitution reaction?

A. 2 RX + 2 Na → R – R + 2 NaX

B. RX + H2 → RH + HX

C. RX + Mg → RMgX

D. RX + KOH → ROH + KX

Q. 155 In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character decreases in the order:

A. MF > MCl > MBr > MI

B. MF > MCl > MI > MBr

C. MI > MBr > MCl > MF

D. MCl > MI > MBr > MF

Q. 156 Which one of the elements with the following outer orbital configurations may exhibit the largest number of oxidation states?

A. 3d54s1

B. 3d54s2

C. 3d24s2

D. 3d34s2

Q. 157 The stability of + 1 oxidation state increases in the sequence:

A. Tl < In < Ga < Al

B. In < Tl < Ga < Al

C. Ga < In < Al < Tl

D. Al < Ga < In < T

Q. 158 Given:

(i) Cu^2+ + 2e^− → Cu, E° = 0.337 V

(ii) Cu^2+ + e^− → Cu^+, E° = 0.153 V

Electrode potential, E° for the reaction, Cu^++ e− → Cu, will be:

A. 0.90 V

B. 0.30 V

C. 0.38 V

D. 0.52 V

Q. 159 For the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3, if (d[NH3])/dt = 2 x 10-4 mol L^-1 s^-1, the value of (d[H2])/dt would be :

A. 4 × 10^-4 mol L-1 s-1

B. 6 × 10^-4 mol L-1 s-1

C. 1 × 10^-4 mol L-1 s-1

D. 3 × 10^-4 mol L-1 s-1

Q. 160 Consider the following reaction, given in figure 1, the product Z is:

A. CH3CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3

B. CH3 – CH2 – O – SO3H

C. CH3CH2OH

D. CH2 = CH2

Q. 161 The energy absorbed by each molecule (A2) of a substance is 4.4 × 10^-19 J and bond energy per molecule is 4.0 × 10^-19 J. The kinetic energy of the molecule per atom will be:

A. 2.2 × 10^-19 J

B. 2.0 × 10^-19 J

C. 4.0 × 10^-20 J

D. 2.0 × 10^-20 J

Q. 162 Amongst the elements with following electronic configurations, which one of them may have the highest ionization energy?

A. Ne [3s23p2]

B. Ar [3d104s24p3]

C. Ne [3s23p1]

D. Ne [3s23p3]

Q. 163 In the reaction BrO^-3 (aq) + 5 Br^-(aq) + 6H+ → 3 Br2(l) + 3 H2O(l). The rate of appearance of bromine (Br2) is related to rate of disappearance of bromide ions as following :

A. d(Br2)/dt = -5/3 d(Br^-)/dt

B. d(Br2)/dt = 5/3 d(Br^-)/dt

C. d(Br2)/dt = 3/5 d(Br^-)/dt

D. d(Br2)/dt = -3/5 d(Br^-)/dt

Q. 164 A 0.0020 m aqueous solution of an ionic compound Co(NH3)5 (NO2)Cl freezes at 0.00732°C. Number of moles of ions which 1 mol of ionic compound produces on being dissolved in water will be (kf = – 1.86°C/m)

A. 3

B. 4

C. 1

D. 2

Q. 165 What is the dominant intermolecular force or bond that must be overcome in converting liquid CH3OH to a gas?

A. Dipole-dipole interaction

B. Covalent bonds

C. London dispersion force

D. Hydrogen bonding

Q. 166 Which of the following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide?

A. CaO

B. SiO2

C. BeO

D. B2O3

Q. 167 The segment of DNA which acts as the instrumental manual for the synthesis of the protein is:

A. ribose

B. gene

C. nucleoside

D. nucleotide

Q. 168 Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom is determined by the following:

A. 2 l + 1

B. 4 l – 2

C. 2 n2

D. 4 l + 2

Q. 169 Half life period of a first-order reaction is 1386 seconds. The specific rate constant of the reaction is:

A. 0.5 × 10^-2 s^-1

B. 0.5 × 10^-3 s^-1

C. 5.0 × 10^-2 s^-1

D. 5.0 × 10^-3 s^-1

Q. 170 Which one of the following is employed as a tranquilizer?

A. Naproxen

B. Tetracycline

C. Chlorpheninamine

D. Equanil

Q. 171 Al2O3 is reduced by electrolysis at low potentials and high currents. If 4.0 × 10^4 amperes of current is passed through molten Al2O3 for 6 hours, what mass of aluminium is produced? (Assume 100% current efficiency. At. mass of Al = 27 g mol^-1 )

A. 8.1 × 10^4 g

B. 2.4 × 10^5 g

C. 1.3 × 10^4 g

D. 9.0 × 10^3 g

Q. 172 Benzene reacts with CH3Cl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to form:

A. Chlorobenzene

B. Benzylchloride

C. Xylene

D. Toluene

Q. 173 Which of the following is not permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom?

A. n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = + 1/2

B. n = 3, l = 2, m = – 3, s = – 1/2

C. n = 3, l = 2, m = -2, s = – 1/2

D. n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = – ?

Q. 174 The dissociation constants for acetic acid and HCN at 25°C are 1.5 × 10^−5 and 4.5 × 10^−10 respectively. The equilibrium constant for the equilibrium CN− + CH3COOH HCN + CH3COO − would be:

A. 3.0 × 10^−5

B. 3.0 × 10^−4

C. 3.0 × 10^4

D. 3.0 × 10^5

Q. 175 Propionic acid with Br2| P yields a dibromo product. Its structure would be (among (1), (2), (3), (4):

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 176 The values of ΔH and ΔS for the reaction, C(graphite) + CO2 (g) → 2CO(g) are 170 kJ and 170 JK^−1, respectively. This reaction will be spontaneous at

A. 910 K

B. 1110 K

C. 510 K

D. 710 K

Q. 177 Copper crystallises in a face-centred cubic lattice with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom in pm?

A. 157

B. 181

C. 108

D. 128

Q. 178 Predict the product (among (1), (2), (3), (4)) formed from the reaction (A):

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 179 H2COH . CH2OH on heating with periodic acid gives (among (1), (2), (3), (4)):

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 180 According to MO theory which of the following lists ranks the nitrogen species in terms of increasing bond order?

A. N2^2- < N^2- < N2

B. N2 < N2^2- < N^2-

C. N^2- < N2^2- < N2

D. N^2- < N2 < N22-^

Q. 181 Out of TiF 6^2-, COF 6^3-, Cu2 Cl2 and NiCl4^2- (Z of Ti = 22, CO = 27, Cu = 29, Ni = 28) the colourless species are :

A. Cu2Cl2 and NiCl4^2-

B. TiF 6^2- and Cu2Cl2

C. COF 6^3- and NiCl4^2-

D. TiF 6^2- and COF 63

Q. 182 Which of the following molecules acts as a Lewis acid?

A. (CH3)2O

B. (CH3)3P

C. (CH3)3N

D. (CH3)3B

Q. 183 The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula CH ≡ C – CH = CH2 is:

A. 1-butyn-3-ene

B. but-1-yne-3-ene

C. 1-butene-3-yne

D. 3-butene-1-yne

Q. 184 Which of the following compounds will exhibit cis-trans (geometrical) isomerism?

A. Butanol

B. 2-Butyne

C. 2-Butenol

D. 2-Butene

Q. 185 Which of the following does not show optical isomerism?

A. [CO(NH3)3Cl3]0

B. [CO (en) Cl2 (NH3)2]+

C. [CO (en)3]3+

D. [CO (en)2Cl2]+ (en = ethylenediamine)

Q. 186 Structures of some common polymers are given. Which one is not correctly presented?

A. Neoprene

B. Terylene

C. Nylon 66

D. Teflon

Q. 187 The ionization constant of ammonium hydroxide is 1.77 × 10^-5 at 298 K. Hydrolysis constant of ammonium chloride is:

A. 6.50 × 10^-12

B. 5.65 × 10^-13

C. 5.65 × 10^-12

D. 5.65 × 10^-10

Q. 188 Consider the following reaction given in figure 1:

The product Z is:

A. Benzaldehyde

B. Benzoic acid

C. Benzene

D. Toluene

Q. 189 The equivalent conductance of M/32 solution of a weak monobasic acid is 8.0 mhos cm^2 and at infinite dilution is 400 mhos cm^2. The dissociation constant of this acid is :

A. 1.25 × 10^-6

B. 6.25 × 10^-4

C. 1.25 × 10^-4

D. 1.25 × 10^-5

Q. 190 The straight chain polymer is formed by:

A. hydrolysis of CH3SiCl3 followed by condensation polymerisation

B. hydrolysis of (CH3)4 Si by addition polymerisation

C. hydrolysis of (CH3)2 SiCl2 followed by condensation polymerisation

D. hydrolysis of (CH3)3 SiCl followed by condensation polymerisation

Q. 191 From the following bond energies:

H − H bond energy: 431.37 kJ mol^-1

C = C bond energy: 606.10 kJ mol^-1

C − C bond energy: 336.49 kJ mol^-1

C − H bond energy: 410.50 kJ mol^-1

Enthalpy for the reaction given in figure (1) will be:

A. -243.6 kJ mol^-1

B. -120.0 kJ mol^-1

C. -553.0 kJ mol^-1

D. -1523.6 kJ mol^-1

Q. 192 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water produced in this reaction will be:

A. 3 mol

B. 4 mol

C. 1 mol

D. 2 mil

Q. 193 Among the following which is the strongest oxidising agent?

A. Br2

B. I2

C. Cl2

D. F2

Q. 194 In which of the following molecules / ions BF 3, NO2-, NH2^- and H2O, the central atom is sp2 hybridized?

A. NH2^- and H2O

B. NO2^– and H2O

C. BF 3 and NO2^-

D. NO2^- and NH2-

Q. 195 Nitrobenzene can be prepared from benzene by using a mixture of conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4 in the mixture, nitric acid acts as a/an:

A. acid

B. base

C. catalyst

D. reducing agent

Q. 196 Which of the following complex ions is expected to absorb visible light?

A. [Ti (en)2 (NH3)2]4+

B. [Cr (NH3)6]3+

C. [Zn (NH3)6]2+

D. [Sc (H2O)3 (NH3)3]3+

Q. 197 What is the [OH -] in the final solution prepared by mixing 20.0 mL of 0.050 M HCl with 30.0 mL of 0.10 M Ba(OH)2?

A. 0.40 M

B. 0.0050 M

C. 0.12 M

D. 0.10 M

Q. 198 Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl3CHO reacts with chlorobenzene in presence of sulphuric acid and produces (among (1), (2), (3), (4)):

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 199 For the reaction A + B → products, it is observed that:

(a) on doubling the initial concentration of A only, the rate of reaction is also doubled and

(b) on doubling the initial concentrations of both A and B, there is a change by a factor of 8 in the rate of the reaction. The rate of this reaction is given by:

A. rate = k [A] [B]2

B. rate = k [A]2 [B]2

C. rate = k [A] [B]

D. rate = k [A]2 [B]

Q. 200 Which of the following hormones contains iodine?

A. testosterone

B. adrenaline

C. thyroxine

D. insulin

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	A	A	B	C	D	C	B	B	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	D	C	A	D	A	C	A	B	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	A	C	C	D	D	D	B	A	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	A	A	D	D	A	C	B	D	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	D	D	A	D	C	C	B	B	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	B	A	B	D	C	A	B	B	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	D	B	D	C	B	B	C	A	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	C	B	C	B	B	B	C	B	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	A	A	B	B	A	C	A	D	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	C	B	C	C	D	D	C	A	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	B	D	C	B	B	A	A	D	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	D	B	B	A	C	D	C	B	A	D
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	D	C	C	D	C	A	D	A	D	D
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	D	A	A	D	B	A	B	A	B	A
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	B	D	A	C	A	C	C	A	C	C
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	D	D	A	D	C	B	D	D	D	C
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	D	D	D	D	D	A	B	D	B	D
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	A	D	B	C	C	B	D	D	D	A
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	B	D	C	D	A	A	D	B	D	C
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	B	B	D	C	B	B	D	C	A	C

AIPMT 2007 Prelims Previous Year Paper

AIPMT 2007 Prelims

Q. 1 The primary and secondary coil of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the magnetic flux φ linked with the primary coil is given by φ = φ0 + 4t, where φ is in webers, t is time in seconds and φ0 is a constant, the output voltage across the secondary coil is

A. 120 volts

B. 220 volts

C. 30 volts

D. 90 volts

Q. 2 A beam of electron passes undeflected through mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields. If the electric field is switched off, and the same magnetic field is maintained, the electrons move

A. in a circular orbit

B. along a parabolic path

C. along a straight line

D. in an elliptical orbit

Q. 3 The position x of a particle with respect to time t along x-axis is given by x = 9t^2 – t^3 where x is in metres and t in second. What will be the position of this particle when it achieves maximum speed along the +ve x direction?

A. 54 m

B. 81 m

C. 24 m

D. 32 m

Q. 4 A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in a straight line in the (x, y) plane. Its coordinates at at a later time are (√3, 3). The path of the particle makes with the x-axis an angle of

A. 45°

B. 60°

C. 0°

D. 30°

Q. 5 A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed vu and returns to Y with a uniform speed vd. The average speed for this round trip is

A. √(vu vd)

B. (vd vu)/(vd + vu)

C. (vu + vd)/2

D. (2vd vu)/(vd + vu)

Q. 6 Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants 5λ and λ respectively. At t = 0 they have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of nuclei of A to those of B will be (1/e)^2 after a time interval

A. 4λ

B. 2λ

C. 1/2λ

D. 1/4λ

Q. 7 In the following circuit given in figure (1), the output Y for all possible inputs A and B is expressed by the truth table given as (a), (b), (c), (d):

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 8 In a radioactive decay process, the negatively charged emitted β – particles are

A. the electrons produced as a result of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus

B. the electrons produced as a result of the decay of collisions between atoms

C. the electrons orbiting around the nucleus

D. the electrons present inside the nucleus

Q. 9 The phase difference between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is

A. π

B. 0.707 π

C. zero

D. 0.5 π

Q. 10 In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated by an electric potential V and then made to describe semicircular path of radius R using a magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant, the ratio (charge on the ion / mass of the ion) will be proportional to

A. I/R^2

B. R^2

C. R

D. 1/R

Q. 11 A wheel has angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/sec^2 and an initial angular speed of 2.00 rad/sec. In a time of 2 sec it has rotated through an angle (in radian) of

A. 10

B. 12

C. 4

D. 6

Q. 12 A hollow cylinder given in figure has a charge q coulomb within i. If φ is the electric flux in units of voltmeter associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in units of voltmeter will be

A. q/2εo

B. φ/3

C. q/εo – φ

D. 1/2 (q/εo – φ)

Q. 13 The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 × 10^14 Hz and wavelength is 5000 Å. The refractive index of material will be

A. 1.50

B. 3.00

C. 1.33

D. 1.40

Q. 14 A nucleus ⁿᵢX has mass represented by M(n,i). If M₁ and M₂ denote the mass of proton and neutron respectively and B.E. the binding energy in Mev, then

A. B.E. = [ZM₁ +(n-i)M₁ – M(n,i)]c²

B. B.E. = [ZM₁ +(n-i)M₂ – M(n,i)]c²

C. B.E. = M(n,i) – ZM₁ – (n-i) M₂

D. B.E. = [M(n,i) – Z M₁ – (n-i) M₂] c²

Q. 15 The total power dissipated in watts in the circuit shown in figure (1) is

A. 40

B. 54

C. 4

D. 16

Q. 16 If the nucleus ²⁷₁₃ Al has nucleus radius of about 3.6 fm, then ¹²⁵₃₂Te would have its radius approximately as

A. 9.6 fm

B. 12.0 fm

C. 4.8 fm

D. 6.0 fm

Q. 17 A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity V (given in figure (1)). If μ is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come to rest after a time

A. gμ/V

B. g/V

C. V/g

D. V/(gμ )

Q. 18 A particle moving along x-axis has acceleration f, at time t, given by f = fo (1 – t/T), where fo and T are constants. The particle at t = 0 has zero velocity. In the time interval between t = 0 and the instant when f = 0, the particle’s velocity (Vx) is

A. 1/2 foT^2

B. foT^2

C. 1/2foT

D. foT

Q. 19 A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100Ω and an output impedance of 200Ω. The power gain of the amplifier is

A. 1000

B. 1250

C. 100

D. 500

Q. 20 Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2Ω and an unknown resistance S form the four arms of a Wheatstone bridge circuit. When a resistance of 6Ω is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value of S?

A. 3Ω

B. 6Ω

C. 1Ω

D. 2Ω

Q. 21 A steady current of 1.5 amp flows through a copper voltmeter for 10 minutes. If the electrochemical equivalent of copper is 30 × 10^-5 g coulomb^-1, the mass of copper deposited on the electrode will be

A. 0.50 g

B. 0.67 g

C. 0.27 g

D. 0.40 g

Q. 22 A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker filled with liquid. A ray of light from the coin travels upto the surface of the liquid and moves along its surface. How fast is the light travelling in the liquid?

A. 2.4 × 10^8 m/s

B. 3.0 × 10^8 m/s

C. 1.2 × 10^8 m/s

D. 1.8 × 10^8 m/s

Q. 23 A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 V lamp from a 220 V mains. If the main current is 0.5 amp, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately

A. 50%

B. 90%

C. 10%

D. 30%.

Q. 24 Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, in terms of dimension of mass M, of length L, of time T and of current I, would be

A. ML^2T^-2

B. ML^2T^-1I^-1

C. ML^2T^-3I^-2

D. ML^2T^-3I^-1

Q. 25 A uniform rod AB of length l, and mass m is free to rotate about point A (shown in figure (1)). The rod is released from rest in the horizontal position. Given that the moment of inertia of the rod about A is ml^2/3, the initial angular acceleration of the rod will be

A. mgl/2

B. 3/2gl

C. 3g/2l

D. 2g/3l

Q. 26 A particle of mass m moves in the XY plane with a velocity v along the straight line AB. If the angular momentum of the particle with respect to origin O is LA when it is at A and LB when it is at B, then

A. LA = LB

B. the relationship between LA and LB depends upon the slope of the line AB

C. LA < LB

D. LA > LB

Q. 27 The particle executing simple harmonic motion has a kinetic energy K0 cos^2 ωt. The maximum values of the potential energy and the total energy are respectively

A. K0/2 and K0

B. K0 and 2K0

C. K0 and K0

D. 0 and 2K0

Q. 28 Charges +q and –q are placed at points A and B respectively (shown in figure (1)) which are a distance 2L apart, C is the midpoint between A and B. The work done in moving a charge +Q along the semicircle CRD is

A. qQ/2πεoL

B. qQ/6πεoL

C. -qQ/6πεoL

D. qQ/4πεoL

Q. 29 Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 10^14 Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2 × 10^-3 ω. The number of photons emitted, on the average, by the sources per second is

A. 5 × l 0^16

B. 5 × 10^17

C. 5 × 10^14

D. 5 × 10^15

Q. 30 Three point charges +q, –q and +q are placed at points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The magnitude and direction of the electric dipole moment vector of this charge assembly are

A. √2qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)

B. qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)

C. √2qa along +ve x direction

D. √2qa along +ve y direction

Q. 31 Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2 are moving in the same orbit. The mass of S1 is four times the mass of S2. Which one of the following statements is true?

A. The potential energies of earth satellites in the two cases are equal.

B. S1 and S2 are moving with the same speed

C. The kinetic energies of the two satellites are equal

D. The time period of S is four times that of S2

Q. 32 A→ and B→ are two vectors and θ is the angle between them , if |A→ x B→ | = √3(A→ . B→ ), the value of θ is

A. 45°

B. 30°

C. 90°

D. 60°

Q. 33 A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to a vertical spring fixed on t1he ground as shown in the figure(1). The mass of the spring and the pan is negligible. When pressed slightly and released the mass executes a simple harmonic motion. The spring constant is 200 N/m. What should be the minimum amplitude of the motion so that the mass gets detached from the pan (take g = 10 m/s^2)?

A. 10.0 cm

B. any value less than 12.0 cm

C. 4.0 cm

D. 8.0 cm

Q. 34 A charged particle (charge q) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The associated magnetic moment μ is given by

A. qvR^2

B. qvR^2/2

C. qvR

D. qvR/2

Q. 35 The total energy of electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is – 13.6 eV. The kinetic energy of an electron in the first excited state is

A. 6.8 eV

B. 13.6 eV

C. 1.7 eV

D. 3.4 eV

Q. 36 A 5 watt source emits monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 Å. When placed 0.5 m away, it liberates photoelectrons from a photosensitive metallic surface. When the source is moved to a distance of 1.0 m, the number of photoelectrons liberated will be reduced by a factor of

A. 8

B. 16

C. 2

D. 4

Q. 37 A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude from the equilibrium position is

A. T/8

B. T/12

C. T/2

D. T/4

Q. 38 For a cubic crystal structure which one of the following relations indicating the cell characteristics is correct?

A. a ≠ b ≠ c and α = β = γ = 90°

B. a = b = c and α ≠ β ≠ γ = 90°

C. a = b = c and α = β = γ = 90°

D. a ≠ b ≠ c and α ≠ β and γ ≠ 90°

Q. 39 Two condensers, one of capacity C and other of capacity C/2 are connected to a V-volt battery, as shown in figure:

The work done in charging fully both the condensers is

A. 1/4CV^2

B. 3/4CV^2

C. 1/2CV^2

D. 2CV^2

Q. 40 A black body is at 727° C. It emits energy at a rate which is proportional to

A. (1000)^4

B. (1000)^2

C. (727)^4

D. (727)^2

Q. 41 The resistance of an ammeter is 13 Ω and its scale is graduated for a current upto 100 amps. After an additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure currents upto 750 amperes by this meter. The value of shunt-resistance is

A. 2 Ω

B. 0.2 Ω

C. 2 k Ω

D. 20 Ω

Q. 42 An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature os sink is reduced by 62°C, its efficiency is doubled. Temperature of the source is

A. 37°C

B. 62°C

C. 99°C

D. 124°C

Q. 43 The electric and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave are

A. in opposite phase and perpendicular to each other

B. in opposite phase and parallel to each other

C. in phase and perpendicular to each other

D. in phase and parallel to each other

Q. 44 What is the value of inductance L for which the current is maximum in a series LCR circuit with

C = 10 μF and ω = 1000s^-1

A. 1 mH

B. cannot be calculated unless R is known

C. 10 mH

D. 100 mH

Q. 45 Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room temperature. If the temperature is increased beyond Curie temperature, then it will show

A. anti ferromagnetism

B. no magnetic property

C. diamagnetism

D. paramagnetism

Q. 46 A vertical spring with force constant k is fixed on a table. A ball of mass m at a height h above the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on the spring so that the spring is compressed by a distance d. The net work done in the process is

A. mg(h + d) – 1/2 kd^2

B. mg(h – d) – 1/2 kd^2

C. mg(h – d) + 1/2 kd^2

D. mg(h + d) + 1/2 kd^2

Q. 47 Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charged particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant speed v. The time period of the motion

A. depends on both R and v

B. is independent of both R and v

C. depends on R and not on v

D. depends on v and not on R

Q. 48 If the cold junction of a thermo-couple is kept at 0°C and the hot junction is kept at T°C then the relation between neutral temperature (Tn) and temperature of inversion (Ti) is

A. Tn = 2Ti

B. Tn = Ti – T

C. Tn = Ti + T

D. Tn = Ti/2

Q. 49 Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer surface of radius r, radiating like a black body at temperature t°C, the power received by a unit surface, (normal to the incident rays) at a distance R from the centre of the sun is

A. r^2σ(t + 273)^4/4πR^2

B. 16π^2r^2σt^4/R^2

C. r^2σ(t + 273)^4/R^2

D. 4πr^2σt^4/R^2

Q. 50 In the energy band diagram of a material shown in figure (1), the open circles and filled circles denote holes and electrons respectively. The material is

A. an insulator

B. a metal

C. an n-type semiconductor

D. a p-type semiconductor

Q. 51 Which one of the following on reduction with lithium aluminium hydride yields a secondary amine?

A. Methyl isocyanide

B. Acetamide

C. Methyl cyanide

D. Nitroethane

Q. 52 RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their chirality is due to

A. chiral bases

B. chiral phosphate ester units

C. D-sugar component

D. L-sugar component

Q. 53 The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is deduced using the assumption

A. the adsorption sites are equivalent in their ability to adsorb the particles

B. the heat of adsorption varies with coverage

C. the adsorbed molecules interact with each other

D. the adsorption takes place in multilayers

Q. 54 A weak acid, HA, has a Ka of 1.00 × 10^-5. If 0.100 mole of this acid dissolved in one litre of water, the percentage of acid dissociated at equilibrium is closest to

A. 1.00%

B. 99.9%

C. 0.100%

D. 99.0%

Q. 55 The reaction of hydrogen and iodine monochloride is given as:

H2(g) + 2ICl(g) → 2HCl(g) + I2(g)

The reaction is of first order with respect to H2(g) and ICI(g), following mechanisms were proposed.

Mechanism A:

H2(g) + 2ICl(g) → 2HCl(g) + I2(g)

Mechanism B:

H2(g) + ICl(g) →HI(g) ;slow

HI(g) + ICl(g) → HCl(g) + I(g) ;fast

Which of the above mechanism(s) can be consistent with the given information about the reaction?

A. A and B both

B. neither A nor B

C. A only

D. B only

Q. 56 The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by

A. ΔG/ΔS

B. ΔG/ΔH

C. ΔS/ΔG

D. ΔH/ΔG

Q. 57 Consider the following reactions:

(i) H^+(aq) + OH^-(aq) = H2O(l), ΔH = -X1 kJ mol^-1

(ii) H2(g) + 1/2O2(g) = H2O(l), ΔH = -X2 kJ mol^-1

(iii) CO2(g) + H2(g) = CO(g) + H2O, ΔH = -X3 kJ mol^-1

(iv) C2H5(g) + 5/2O2(g) = 2CO2(g) + H2O(l), ΔH = -X3 kJ mol^-1

Enthalpy of formation of H2O(l) is

A. +X3 kJ mol^-1

B. -X4 kJ mol^-1

C. +X1 kJ mol^-1

D. -X2 kJ mol^-1

Q. 58 The correct order of increasing thermal stability of K2CO3, MgCO3, CaCO3 and BeCO3 is

A. BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3

B. MgCO3 < BeCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3

C. K2CO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < BeCO3

D. BeCO3 < MgCO3 < K2CO3 < CaCO3

Q. 59 In which of the following pairs, the two species are iso-structure?

A. SO3^2- and NO3^-

B. BF3 anD NF3

C. BrO^3- and XeO3

D. SF4 and XeF4

Q. 60 Which of the following oxidation states are the most characteristic for lead and tin respectively?

A. + 2, + 4

B. + 4, + 4

C. + 2, + 2

D. + 4, + 2

Q. 61 Which of the following statements, about the advantage of roasting of sulphide ore before reduction is not true?

A. The ΔGf°of the sulphide is greater than those for CS2 and H2 S.

B. The ΔGf° is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to oxide

C. Roasting of the sulphide to the oxide is thermodynamically feasible

D. Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides

Q. 62 In a first-order reaction A → B, if k is rate constant and initial concentration of the reactant A is 0.5 M, then the half-life is

A. log2/k

B. log2/k√o.5

C. ln2/k

D. 0.693/0.5k

Q. 63 Consider the following compounds given as (i), (ii), (iii), (iv).

The correct decreasing order of their reactivity towards hydrolysis is

A. (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

B. (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)

C. (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)

D. (ii) > (iv) > (iii) > (i)

Q. 64 Predict the product C among (a), (b), (c), (d), obtained in the following reaction given in figure (1) of butyne-1.

CH subscript 3 CH subscript 2 space minus space straight C identical to CH space plus space HCl space rightwards arrow straight B space rightwards arrow with HI on top space straight C

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 65 Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H2SO4 by mass and has a density of 1.80 gmL^-1. Volume of acid required to make one litre of 0.1M H2SO4 solution is

A. 16.65 mL

B. 22.20 mL

C. 5.55 mL

D. 11.10 mL

Q. 66 Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and conc. HCl is called

A. Cope reduction

B. Dow reduction

C. Wolf-Kishner reduction

D. Clemmensen redcution

Q. 67 Given that bond energies of H – H and Cl – Cl are 430 kJ mol-^1 and 240 kJ mol^-1 respectively and ΔHf for HCl is -90 kJ mol^-1, bond enthalpy of HCl is

A. 380 kJ mol^-1

B. 425 kJ mol^-1

C. 245 kJ mol^-1

D. 290 kJ mol^-1

Q. 68 Which of the following represents the correct order of the acidity in the given compounds?

A. FCH2COOH > CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH

B. BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH > CH3COOH

C. FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH > CH3COOH

D. CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH

Q. 69 If there is no rotation of plane polarised light by a compound in a specific solvent, though to be chiral, it may mean that

A. the compound is certainly meso

B. there is no compound in the solvent

C. the compound may be a racemic mixture

D. the compound is certainly a chiral

Q. 70 CH3 – CHCl – CH2 – CH3 has a chiral centre. Which one of the following represents its Rconfiguration among (a), (b), (c), (d)?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 71 Which of the following is water-soluble?

A. Vitamin E

B. Vitamin K

C. Vitamin A

D. Vitamin B

Q. 72 Identify the correct order of the size of the following:

A. Ca^2+ < K^+ < Ar < Cl^- < S^2-

B. Ar < Ca^2+ < K^+ < Cl^- < S^2-

C. Ca^2+ < Ar < K^+ < Cl^- < S^2-

D. Ca^2+ < K^+ < Ar < S^2- < Cl^-

Q. 73 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is 20% ionised. If Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol^-1,the lowering in freezing point of the solution is

A. 0.56 K

B. 1.12 K

C. -0.56 K

D. -1.12 K

Q. 74 Sulphide ores of metals are usually concentrated by froth flotation process. Which one of the following sulphide ores offer an exception and its concentrated by chemical leaching?

A. Galena

B. Copper pyrite

C. Sphalerite

D. Argentite

Q. 75 If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes, 50% of the same reaction would be completed in approximately ?

(log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69)

A. 45 minutes

B. 60 minutes

C. 40 minutes

D. 50 minutes

Q. 76 Which of the following will give a pair of enantiomorphs?

(en =NH2CH2CH2NH2)

A. [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6]

B. [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl

C. [Pt(NH3)4][PtCl6]

D. [Co(NH3)4Cl2]NO2

Q. 77 If NaCl is doped with 10^-4 mol % of SrCl2, the concentration of cation vacancies will be (NA = 6.02 × 10^23 mol^-1)

A. 6.02 × 10^16 mol^-1

B. 6.02 × 10^17 mol^-1

C. 6.02 × 10^14 mol^-1

D. 6.02 × 10^15 mol^-1

Q. 78 The d electron configurations of Cr^2+, Mn^2+, Fe^2+ and Ni^2+ are 3d^4, 3d^5, 3d^6 and 3d^8 respectively. Which one of the following aqua complexes will exhibit the minimum paramagnetic behaviour?

(At. No. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Ni = 28)

A. [Fe(H2O)6]^2+

B. [Ni(H2O)6^2+

C. [Cr(H2O)6]^2+

D. [Mn(H2O)6]^2+

Q. 79 In which of the following the hydration energy is higher than the lattice energy?

A. MgSO4

B. RaSO4

C. SrSO4

D. BaSO4

Q. 80 Which of the compounds with molecular formula C5H10 yields acetone on ozonolysis?

A. 3-methyl-1-butene

B. cyclopentane

C. 2-methyl-1-butene

D. 2-methyl-2-butene

Q. 81 With which of the following electronic configuration an atom has the lowest ionisation enthalpy?

A. 1s^2 2s^2 sp^3

B. 1s^2 2s^2 2p^5 3s^1

C. 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6

D. 1s^2 2s^2 2p^5

Q. 82 Which one of the following ionic species has the greatest proton affinity to form stable compound?

A. NH2^-

B. F^-

C. I^-

D. HS^-

Q. 83 The following equilibrium constants are given:

N2 + 3H2 ⇔ 2NH3; K1

N2 + O2 ⇔ 2NO; K2

H2 + 1/2 O2 ⇔ H2O; K3

The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of NH3 by oxygen to give NO is

A. K2K3^2/K1

B. K2^2K3/K1

C. K1K2/K3

D. K2K3^3/K1

Q. 84 Which one of the following ions is the most stable in aqueous solution?

(At.No. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25)

A. V^3+

B. Ti^3+

C. Mn^3+

D. Cr^3+

Q. 85 The correct order of C – O bond length among

CO, CO3^2-, CO2 is

A. CO < CO3^2- < CO2

B. CO3^2- < CO2 < CO

C. CO < CO2 < CO3^2-

D. CO2 < CO3^2- < CO

Q. 86 Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid strengths of the given acids?

A. HOClO < HOCl < HOClO3 < HOClO2

B. HOClO2 < HOClO3 < HOClO < HOCl

C. HOClO3 < HOClO2 < HOClO < HOCl

D. HOCl < HOClO < HOClO2 < HOClO3

Q. 87 Which one of the following among (1), (2), (3), (4) on treatment with 50% aqueous sodium hydroxide yields the corresponding alcohol and acid?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 88 For (i) I^-, (ii) Cl^-, (iii) Br^-, the increasing order of nucleophilicity would be

A. Cl^- < Br^- < I^-

B. I^- < Cl^- < Br^-

C. Br^- < Cl^- < I^-

D. I^- < Br^- < Cl^-

Q. 89 Calculate the pOH of a solution at 25°C that contains 1× 10^10 M of hydronium ions, i.e.

H3O^+.

A. 4.000

B. 9.0000

C. 1.000

D. 7.000

Q. 90 Consider the following sets given in figure (1) of quantum numbers:

Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible?

A. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

B. (ii), (iv) and (v)

C. (i) and (iii)

D. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Q. 91 The equilibrium constant of the reaction:

Cu(s) + 2Ag^+ → Cu^2+(aq) + 2Ag(s);

E° = 0.46 V at 298 K is

A. 2.0 × 10^10

B. 4.0 × 10^10

C. 4.0 × 10^15

D. 2.4 × 10^10

Q. 92 Which one of the following polymers is prepared by condensation polymerisation?

A. Teflon

B. Natural rubber

C. Styrene

D. Nylon-66

Q. 93 The order of decreasing reactivity towards an electrophilic reagent, for the following would be

(i) benzene

(ii) toluene

(iii) chlorobenzene

(iv) phenol

A. (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)

B. (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)

C. (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)

D. (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

Q. 94 Which of the following anions is present in the chain structure of silicates?

A. (Si2O5^2–)n

B. (SiO3^2–)n

C. SiO4^4–

D. Si2O7^6–

Q. 95 An element, X has the following isotopic composition :

²⁰⁰X : 90% ¹⁹⁹X : 8.0% ²⁰²X : 2.0%

The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X is Closest to

A. 201 amu

B. 202 amu

C. 199 amu

D. 200 amu

Q. 96 The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present in a simple cube is

A. π/3√2

B. π/4√2

C. π/4

D. π/6

Q. 97 In the reaction given in figure (1):

Which of the following compounds will be formed among (a), (b), (c), (d)?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 98 The product formed in Aldol condensation is

A. a beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxyketone

B. an alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone

C. an alpha, beta unsaturated ester

D. a beta-hydroxy acid

Q. 99 The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in acidic solution is,

A. 4/5

B. 2/5

C. 1

D. 3/5

Q. 100 Identify the incorrect statement among the following:

A. Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation of successive shrinkages

B. As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the properties of 4d series of the transition elements have no similarities with the 5d series of elements

C. Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak

D. There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu

Q. 101 ICBN stands for

A. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature

B. International congress of Biological Names

C. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature

D. Indian Congress of Biological Names

Q. 102 Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes

A. Puffballs and Claviceps

B. Peziza and stink borns

C. Morchella and mushrooms

D. Bird’s nest fungi and puffballs

Q. 103 Biological organisation starts with

A. cellular level

B. organismic level

C. atomic level

D. submicroscopic molecular level

Q. 104 Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned.

A. Sunderbans – Bengal Tiger

B. Periyar – Elephant

C. Rann of Kutch – Wild Ass

D. Dachigam National park – Snow Leopard

Q. 105 If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?

A. serum globulins

B. fibrinogen in the plasma

C. haemocytes

D. serum albumins

Q. 106 A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by

A. crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent

B. studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies

C. crossing of one F1 progeny with male parent

D. crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent

Q. 107 The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth

A. polymerize in the 3’ – to – 5’ direction and forms replication fork

B. prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication

C. polymerize in the 5’ – to – 3’ direction and explain 3’ – to – 5’ DNA replication

D. result in transcription

Q. 108 Which one of the following statement is correct?

A. there is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogensis of mammals

B. all plant and animal cells are totipotent

C. ontogeny repeats phylogeny

D. stem cells are specialize cells

Q. 109 In which one of the following the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand ) of sewage (s), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged in ascending order ?

A. SE < PE < S < DE

B. PE < S < SE < DE

C. S < DE < PE < SE

D. SE < S < PE < DE

Q. 110 The concept of chemical evolution is based on

A. interaction of water, air and clay under intense heat

B. effect of solar radiation on chemicals

C. possible origin of life by combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions

D. crystallization of chemicals

Q. 111 Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall?

A. male gamete

B. egg

C. pollen grain

D. microspore mother cell

Q. 112 Probiotics are

A. cancer inducing microbes

B. new kind of food allergens

C. live microbial food supplement

D. safe antibiotics

Q. 113 One of endangered species of Indian medicinal plants is that of plants is that of

A. ocimum

B. garlic

C. nepenthes

D. podophyllum

Q. 114 What is true about Nereis, scorpion, cockroach and silver fish ?

A. they all posses dorsal heart

B. none of them is aquatic

C. they all belong to the same phylum

D. they all have jointed paired appendages

Q. 115 The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for

A. interaction with the environment and progressive evolution

B. reproduction

C. growth and movement

D. responsiveness to touch

Q. 116 A person who is one along hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have

A. less amino acids in his urine

B. more glucose in his blood

C. less urea in his urine

D. more sodium in his urine

Q. 117 The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?

A. super-coiling in nucleosomes

B. DNA digestion

C. through elimination of repetitive DNA

D. deletion of non-essential genes

Q. 118 A sequential expression of a set of human genes

A. messenger RNA

B. DNA sequence

C. ribosome

D. transfer RNA

Q. 119 In a coal fired power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission of

A. NO×

B. SPM

C. CO

D. SO2

Q. 120 Select the wrong statement fom the following.

A. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thyllakoid space bounded by the thylakoid membrane

B. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA

C. The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria

D. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner and an outer membrane

Q. 121 Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of

A. population

B. landscape

C. ecosystem

D. biotic community

Q. 122 During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and assumes a saddle-like structure, what is it’s DNA-binding sequence?

A. AATT

B. CACC

C. TATA

D. TTAA

Q. 123 A plant requires magnesium for

A. protein synthesis

B. chlorophyll synthesis

C. cell wall development

D. holding cells together

Q. 124 In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at different times.

As a result

A. there is high degree of sterility

B. one can conclude that the plant is apomictic

C. self-fertilization is prevented

D. there is no change in success rate of fertilization

Q. 125 Ergot of rye is caused by a species of

A. uncimula

B. ustilago

C. claviceps

D. phytophthora

Q. 126 The finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in favour of

A. evolution due to mutation

B. retrogressive evolution

C. biogeographical evolution

D. special creation

Q. 127 Which one of the following is a slime mould?

A. physarum

B. Thiobacillus

C. Anabaena

D. Rhizopus

Q. 128 The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?

A. the food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season

B. its population growth curve is of J-type

C. the population of its predators increases enormously

D. S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect

Q. 129 Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous nitrogenfixing micro-organism

A. Crotalaria juncea

B. Cycas revoluta

C. Cicer arietinum

D. Casuarina equisetifolia

Q. 130 Which one of the following is being utilized as a source of biodiesel in the Indian countryside?

A. betroot

B. sugarcane

C. pongamia

D. euphorbia

Q. 131 For a critical study of secondary growth in plants. which one of the following pairs is suitable?

A. teak and pine

B. deodar and fern

C. wheat and maiden hair fern

D. sugarcane and sunflower

Q. 132 Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?

A. Retinol – Xerophtahalmia

B. Cobalamine – Beri-beri

C. Calciferol – Pellagra

D. Ascorbic acid – Scurvy

Q. 133 Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will

A. no movement of water

B. equilibrium between the two

C. movement of water from cell A to B

D. movement of water from cell B to A

Q. 134 In which one of the following preparations are your likely to come across cell junctions most frequently ?

A. thrombocytes

B. tendon

C. hyaline cartilage

D. ciliated epithelium

Q. 135 If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you should choose?

A. nature of stored food materials in the cell

B. structural organization of thallus

C. chemical composition of the cell wall

D. types of pigments present in the cell

Q. 136 About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six element including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and

A. sulphur and magnesium

B. magnesium and sodium

C. calcium and phosphorus

D. phosphorus and sulphur

Q. 137 Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants

B. Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and for plant nutrition in soil

C. At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers

D. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies

Q. 138 In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (x) numbers of chromosomes are

A. n = 21 and x = 21

B. n = 21 and x = 14

C. n = 21 and x = 7

D. n = 7 and x = 21

Q. 139 Passage cells are thin walled cells found in

A. Phloem elements that serve as entry points for substance for transport to other plants parts

B. testa of seeds to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed germination

C. central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary

D. endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle

Q. 140 What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo?

A. toothless jaws

B. functional post-end tail

C. ovoparity

D. homoiothermy

Q. 141 Bowman’s glands are located in the

A. anterior pituitary

B. female reproductive system of cockroach

C. olfactory epithelium of our nose

D. proximal end of uriniferous tubules

Q. 142 Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

A. yeast – ethanol

B. streptomycetes – antibiotic

C. coliforms – vinegar

D. methanogens – gobar gas

Q. 143 Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovulation ?

A. stroma

B. germinal epithelium

C. vitelline membrane

D. Graafian follicle

Q. 144 Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of

A. autonomic movement of variation

B. paratonic movement of growth

C. autonomic movement of growth

D. autonomic movement of locomotion

Q. 145 Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it ?

A. ventral central nervous system – Leech

B. Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo – Chamaeleon

C. Ventral heart – Scorpion

D. Post – end tail – Octopus

Q. 146 All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is

A. isocitrate dehydrogenase

B. malate dehydrogenase

C. succinate dehydrogenase

D. lactate dehydrogenase

Q. 147 The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is

A. iron-sulphur protein

B. ferredoxin

C. quinone

D. cytochrome

Q. 148 Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is associated with

A. differential expession of genes

B. lethal mutations

C. deletion of genes

D. developmental mutations

Q. 149 Which one of the following statements about mycoplasma is wrong ?

A. They are pleomorphic

B. They are sensitive to penicillin

C. They cause diseases in plants

D. They are also called PPLO

Q. 150 Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?

A. Apis indica – honey

B. Kenia lacca – lac

C. Bombyx mori – silk

D. Pila globosa – pearl

Q. 151 A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorus metabolism in his body. Which one of following glands may not be functioning properly ?

A. parotid

B. pancreas

C. thyroid

D. parathyroid

Q. 152 A genetically engineered micro-organism use successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a species of

A. Trichoderma

B. Xanthomonas

C. Bacillus

D. Pseudomonas

Q. 153 In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of

A. bundle sheath

B. phloem

C. epidermis

D. mesophyll

Q. 154 Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following sets ?

A. Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla

B. Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis

C. Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas

D. Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra

Q. 155 In the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of the same value, which of the following is most likely to occur

A. a bi-modal distribution

B. a T-shaped curve

C. a skewed curve

D. a normal distribution

Q. 156 One gene-one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in

A. Salmonella typhimurium

B. Escherichia coli

C. Diplocococcus pneumoniae

D. Neurospora crassa

Q. 157 Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will show

A. segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio

B. segregation in 3 : 1 ratio

C. higher number of the parental types

D. higher number of the recombinant types

Q. 158 In cloning of cattle, a fertillized egg is taken out of the mother’s womb and

A. in the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are formed which are implanted into the womb of other cow

B. in the eight cell stage the individual cells are separated under electrical field for further development in culture media

C. from this upto eight identical twins can be produced

D. the egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells which are implanted into the womb of other cows

Q. 159 Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into human body for sonography ?

A. 15 – 30 MHZ

B. 1 – 15 MHZ

C. 45 – 70 MHZ

D. 30 – 45 MHZ.

Q. 160 Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they.

A. have more than 90 per cent similar genes

B. look similar and possess identical secondary metabolites

C. have same number of chromosomes

D. can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds.

Q. 161 Inheritances of skin colour in humans is an example of

A. point mutation

B. polygenic inheritance

C. codominance

D. chromosomal aberration

Q. 162 When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed

A. microevolution

B. co-evolution

C. convergent evolution

D. divergent evolution

Q. 163 Increased asthmatics attacks in certain seasons are related to

A. eating fruits preserved in tin containers

B. inhalation of seasonal pollen

C. low temperature

D. hot and humid environment

Q. 164 Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 CC in

A. Homo erectus

B. Ramapithecus

C. Homo habilis

D. Homo neanderthalensis

Q. 165 Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that

A. the melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial area

B. the lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area or non-polluted area

C. melanism is a pollution-generated feature

D. the true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation

Q. 166 A high density of elephant population in an area can result in

A. intra specific competition

B. inter specific competition

C. predation on one another

D. mutualism

Q. 167 A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?

A. blood serum

B. sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system

C. Whole blood from pulmonary vein

D. blood plasma

Q. 168 Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?

A. tropical deciduous forest

B. temperate evergreen forest

C. temperate deciduous forest

D. tropical rain forest

Q. 169 In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct?

A. Collar bones – 3 pairs

B. Salivary glands – 1 pairs

C. Cranial nerves – 10 pairs

D. Floating ribs – 2 pairs

Q. 170 Telomere repetitive DNA sequences control the function of eukaryotic chromosomes because they

A. are RNA transcription initiator

B. help chromosome pairing

C. prevent chromosome loss

D. act as replicons

Q. 171 Spore diseminiation in some liverworts is aided by

A. indusium

B. calyptra

C. peristome teeth

D. elaters

Q. 172 Which one of the following elements is not an essential micronutrient for plant growth?

A. Zn

B. Cu

C. Ca

D. Mn

Q. 173 The overall goal of glycolysis, krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the formation of

A. ATP in one large oxidation reaction

B. Sugar

C. nucleic acids

D. ATP in small stepwise units

Q. 174 Adaptive radiation refers to

A. evolution of different species from a common ancestor

B. migration of members of a species to different geographical areas

C. power of adaptation in an individual to a different geographical areas

D. adaptations due to geographical isolation

Q. 175 Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?

A. Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall

B. Cytokinin – Cell wall elongation

C. IAA – Cell wall elongation

D. Abscissic acid – Stomatal closure

Q. 176 Select the correct statement from the following?

A. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature

B. All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrae

C. Mutations are random and directional

D. Darwinian variations are small and directionless

Q. 177 Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of

A. generative cell

B. vegetative cell

C. microspore mother cell

D. microspore

Q. 178 In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you expect in F1 generation?

A. 9 : 1

B. 1 : 3

C. 3 : 1

D. 50 : 50

Q. 179 Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon dioxide aerobically?

A. unstraited muscle cells

B. liver cells

C. red blood cells

D. white blood

Q. 180 A human male produces sperms with the genotypes AB, Ab, aB, and ab pertaining to two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this person?

A. AaBB

B. AABb

C. AABB

D. AaBb

Q. 181 What is common to whale, seal and shark?

A. thick subcutaneous fat

B. convergent evolution

C. homoiothermy

D. seasonal migration

Q. 182 One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is

A. preventing speciation

B. speciation through reproductive isolation

C. random creation of new species

D. no change in the isolated fauna

Q. 183 Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys

A. certain types of bacteria

B. all viruses

C. most virus-infected cells

D. certain fungi

Q. 184 In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of

A. combination of FSH and LH

B. combination of estrogen and progesterone

C. FSH only

D. LH only

Q. 185 Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?

A. glycolipids

B. proline

C. phospholipids

D. cholesterol

Q. 186 Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of

A. higher levels of cortisone

B. lower levels of blood testosterone

C. lower levels of adrenaline/ noradrenaline in its blood

D. higher levels of thyroxine

Q. 187 During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric change?

A. first positive, then negative and continue to be positive

B. first negative, then positive and continue to be positive

C. first positive, then negative and again back to positive

D. first negative, then positive and again back to negative

Q. 188 Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic introduced in India?

A. lantana camara, water hyacinth

B. water hyacinth, prosopis cinereria

C. nile perch, licus religiosa

D. ficus religiosa, lantana camara

Q. 189 In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents

A. a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination

B. an opening in the megagametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg

C. the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop

D. a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed

Q. 190 Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in transcription by

A. ribosome

B. transcription factor

C. anticodon

D. RNA polymerase

Q. 191 Which of the following is an example of negative feedback loop in humans?

A. secretion of tears after falling of sand particles into the eye

B. salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food

C. secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot

D. constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal mucles when it is too cold

Q. 192 The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are

A. discontinuous

B. antiparallel

C. semiconservative

D. parallel

Q. 193 Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Animals – Morphological features

(i) Crocodile – 4-chambered heart

(ii) Sea urchin – Parapodia

(iii) Obelia – Thecodont

(iv) Lemur _ Thecodont

A. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

B. only (i) and (iv)

C. only (i) and (ii)

D. (i), (iii) and (iv)

Q. 194 Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cells?

A. vacuoles and fibres

B. flagellum and modulloary sheath

C. nucleus and mitochondria

D. perikaryon and dendrites

Q. 195 In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by

A. crossing of two inbred parental lines

B. harvesting seeds from the most productive plants

C. inducing mutations

D. bombarding the seeds with DNA

Q. 196 Which one of the following is a viral disease of poultry ?

A. coryza

B. new castle disease

C. pasteurellosis

D. salmonellosis

Q. 197 The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of phytochrome is

A. 680 nm

B. 720 nm

C. 620 nm

D. 640 nm

Q. 198 Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution?

A. blood-worms

B. stone flies

C. sewage fungus

D. sludge-worms

Q. 199 Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a multistoryed building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action ?

A. adrenaline

B. glucagon

C. gastrin

D. thyroxine

Q. 200 “Foolish seedling’’ disease of rice led to the discovery of

A. ABA

B. 2, 4-D

C. IAA

D. GA

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	A	A	B	D	C	C	A	D	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	D	B	A	B	D	D	C	B	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	D	B	C	C	A	C	C	D	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	D	A	D	D	D	B	C	B	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	C	C	D	D	A	B	D	C	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	C	A	A	D	B	D	A	C	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	C	C	C	C	D	B	C	A	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	A	B	D	A	B	B	B	A	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	A	D	D	C	D	A	A	A	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	D	C	B	D	D	C	A	B	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	D	D	D	A	C	C	C	B	C
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	D	C	D	A	B	C	A	B	B	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	A	A	B	C	C	C	A	B	D	C
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	A	A	C	D	D	C	D	C	D	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	C	D	C	A	C	C	A	B	D
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	D	D	D	C	D	D	C	A	B	D
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	B	C	B	D	D	A	A	D	D	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	D	C	D	A	A	A	A	D	C	D
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	B	B	A	B	B	B	D	A	C	D
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	D	B	D	D	A	B	A	B	A	D

AIPMT 2006 Prelims Previous Year Paper

AIPMT 2006 Prelims

Q. 1 In producing chlorine through electrolysis 100W power at 125 V is being consumed. How much chlorine per min is liberated ? ECE of chlorine is 0.367 x 10⁻⁶ kg/C :

A. 17.6 mg

B. 34.3 mg

C. 24.3 mg

D. 39.6 mg

Q. 2 In the circuit shown, if a conducting wire is connected between points A and B, the current in this wire will :

A. flow from A to B

B. flow in the direction which will be decided by the value of V

C. be zero

D. flow from B to A

Q. 3 A rectangular block of mass m and area of cross-section A floats in a liquid of densityρ. If it is given a small vertical displacement from equilibrium it undergoes oscillation with a time period T. Then :

A. T ∝√ρ

B. T ∝ (1/√A)

C. T ∝ (1/ρ)

D. T ∝ (1/√m)

Q. 4 A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an efficiency of 40%. By how much should the temperature of source be increased so as to increase its efficiency by 50% of original efficiency ?

A. 275 K

B. 175 K

C. 250 K

D. 225 K

Q. 5 When a charged particle moving with velocity v̅ is subjected to a magnetic field of induction B̅, the force on it is non-zero. This implies that :

A. angle between v̅ & B̅ is necessarily 90°

B. angle between v̅ & B̅ can have any value other than 90°

C. angle between v̅ & B̅ can have any value other than zero and 180°

D. angle between v̅ & B̅ is either zero or 180°

Q. 6 Two cells, having the same emf, are connected in series through an external resistance R. Cells have internal resistances r₁ and r₂ (r₁ > r₂) respectively. When the circuit is closed, the potential difference across the first cell is zero, The value of R is :

A. r₁ – r₂

B. (r₁ + r₂)/2

C. (r₁ – r₂)/2

D. r₁ + r₂

Q. 7 A black body at 1227°C emits radiations with maximum intensity at a wavelength of 5000 Ȧ. If the temperature of the body is increased by 1000°C, the maximum intensity will be observed at :

A. 7500 Ȧ

B. 1500 Ȧ

C. 6000 Ȧ

D. 3000 Ȧ

Q. 8 Two circular coils 1 and 2 are made from the same wire but the radius of the 1st coil is twice that of the 2nd coil. What is the ratio of potential difference applied across them so that the magnetic field at their centres is the same ?

A. 5

B. 4

C. 7

D. 2

Q. 9 A transistor-oscillator using a resonant circuit with an inductor L (of negligible resistance) and a capacitor C in series produce oscillations of frequency f. If L is doubled and C is changed to 4C, the frequency will be :

A. f/4

B. 8f

C. f/2√2

D. 2f

Q. 10 The binding energy of deuteron is 2.2 MeV and that of 42He is 28 MeV. If two deuterons are fused to form one 42He then the energy released is :

A. 21.6 MeV

B. 23.6 MeV

C. 17.2 MeV

D. 28.2 MeV

Q. 11 In a radioactive material the activity at time t₁ is R₁ and at a later time t₂, it is R₂. If the dacay constant of the material is λ, then :

A. R₁ = R₂ e-λ(t₁ -t₂)

B. R₁ = R₂ eλ(t₁ -t₂)

C. R₁ = R₂ eλ(t₂/t₁)

D. R₁ = R₂

Q. 12 Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited by monochromatic radiation of photon energy 12.1 eV. According to Bohr’s theory, the spectral lines emitted by hydrogen will be :

A. two

B. three

C. four

D. one

Q. 13 The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8cm the potential energy stored in it is :

A. 4U

B. U/8

C. 16U

D. U/4

Q. 14 For angles of projection of a projectile at angles (45°θ) and (45° +-θ), the horizontal ranges described by the projectile are in the ratio of :

A. 1 : 1

B. 2 : 3

C. 1 : 2

D. 3 : 2

Q. 15 A body of mass 3 kg is under a constant force which causes a displacement s in metres in it, given by the relation s = (1/3) t₂, where t is in s. Work done by the force in 2 s is :

A. (17/3)J

B. (3/8)J

C. (8/3)J

D. (3/17)J

Q. 16 A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t (in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of the particle from O is given by x = 40 + 12t – t3 How long would the particle travel before coming to rest ?

A. 14 m

B. 28 m

C. 56 m

D. 70 m

Q. 17 The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by v = at + (b/t + c), where a, b and c are constants, The dimensions of a, b and c are respectively :

A. [LT⁻²], [L] and [T]

B. [L], [T] and [LT²]

C. [L²T²], [LT] and [L]

D. [L], [LT] and [T²]

Q. 18 A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3 cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should the

microscope be moved to get the mark in focus again ?

A. 1 cm upward

B. 0.5 cm downward

C. 1 cm downward

D. 0.5 cm upward

Q. 19 300 J of work is done in sliding a 2 kg block up an inclined plane of height 10 m. Taking g =10 m/s², work done against friction is :

A. 50 J

B. 100 J

C. zero

D. 150 J

Q. 20 A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration at constant collector voltage Vc = 1.5 V such that a change in the base current from 100 μA to 150 μA produces a change in the collector current from 5 mA to 10 mA. The current gain (β) is:

A. 50

B. 75

C. 100

D. 125

Q. 21 A forward biased diode is :

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

Q. 22 A photo-cell employs photoelectric effect to convert :

A. change in the frequency of light into a change in electric voltage

B. change in the intensity of illumination into a change in photoelectric current

C. change in the intensity of illumination into a change in the work function of the photocathode

D. change in the frequency of light into a change in the electric current

Q. 23 The core of a transformer is laminated because :

A. energy losses due to eddy currents may be minimised

B. the weight of the transformer may be reduced

C. rusting of the core may be prevented

D. ratio of voltage in primary and secondary may be increased

Q. 24 Two coils of self-inductances 2 mH and 8 mH are placed so close together that the effective flux in one coil is completely linked with the other. The mutual inductance between these coils is :

A. 8 mH

B. 12 mH

C. 4 mH

D. 16 mH

Q. 25 In a discharge tube ionization of enclosed gas is produced due to collisions between :

A. positive ions and neutral atoms/molecules

B. negative electrons and neutral atoms/molecules

C. photons and neutral atoms/molecules

D. neutral gas atoms/molecules

Q. 26 When photons of energy hv fall on an aluminium plate (of work function E₀), photoelectrons of maximum kinetic energy K are ejected. If the frequency of the radiation is doubled, the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons will be :

A. K + E₀

B. 2K

C. K

D. k + hv

Q. 27 The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C. The voltage waveforms of A, B and C are as shown below :

The logic circuit gate is :

A. AND gate

B. NAND gate

C. NOR gate

D. OR gate

Q. 28 A coil of inductive reactance 31 has a resistance of Ω. It is placed in series with a condenser of capacitative reactance 25Ω. The combination is connected to an a.c. source of 110 V. The power factor of the circuit is :

A. 0.40

B. 0.128

C. 0.80

D. 0.66

Q. 29 A 0.5 kg ball moving with a speed of 12 m/s strikes a hard wall at an angle of 30° with the wall. It is reflected with the same speed and at the same angle. If the ball is in contact with the wall for 0.25 s, the average force acting on the wall is :

A. 8 N

B. 24 N

C. 16 N

D. 96 N

Q. 30 The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass M about an axis touching the disc at its diameter and normal to the disc is :

A. MR²

B. (2/5)MR²

C. (3/5)MR²

D. (5/6)MR²

Q. 31 The momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV in kg m/s, will be :

A. 0.33 x 10⁶

B. 8 x 10⁻²⁴

C. 5 x 10⁻²³

D. 5 x 10⁻²²

Q. 32 The radius of germanium (Ge) nuclide is measured to be twice the radius of ₉₄Be. The number of nucleons in Ge are :

A. 73

B. 74

C. 76

D. 72

Q. 33 The molar specific heat at constant pressure of an ideal gas is (7/2)R. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure to that at constant volume is :

A. 7/5

B. 6/7

C. 9/7

D. 4/7

Q. 34 The earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius R. A platform is arranged at a height R from the surface of the earth. The escape velocity of a body from this platform is fvₑ, where vₑ is its escape velocity from the surface of the earth. The value of f is :

A. 2

B. 1/√2

C. 1/3

D. 1

Q. 35 Two sound waves with wavelengths 5.0 m and 5.5 m respectively, each propagate in a gas with velocity 330 m/s. We expect the following number of beats per second :

A. 12

B. 0

C. 3

D. 6

Q. 36 Power dissipated across the 8 resistor Ω in the circuit shown here is 2W. The power dissipated in watt units across the 3 Ω resistor is :

A. 6.0

B. 1.5

C. 0.45

D. 3.0

Q. 37 Kirchhoff’s first and second laws for electrical circuits are consequences of :

A. conservation of energy

B. conservation of electric charge and energy respectively

C. conservation of electric charge

D. conservation of energy and electric charge respectively

Q. 38 A transverse wave propagating along x-axis is represented by :

y(x, t) = 8.0 sin (0.5πx – 4πt – (π/4))

where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The speed of the wave is :

A. 8π m/s

B. 0.5π m/s

C. (π/4) m/s

D. 8 m/s

Q. 39 The time of reverberation of a room A is one second. What will be the time (in seconds) of reverberation of a room, having all the dimensions double of those of room A ?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 1/2

D. 8

Q. 40 Which one of the following statements is true ?

A. Both light and sound waves in air are transverse

B. The sound waves in air are longitudinal while the light waves are transverse

C. Both light and sound waves in air are longitudina

D. Both light and sound waves can travel in vacuum

Q. 41 Above Curie temperature :

A. a ferromagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic

B. a paramagnetic substance becomes diamagnetic

C. a diamagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic

D. a paramagnetic substance becomes ferromagnetic

Q. 42 A convex lens and a concave lens, each having same focal length of 25 cm, are put in contact to form a combination of lenses. The power in diopters of the combination is :

A. 25

B. 50

C. infinite

D. zero

Q. 43 An electric dipole of moment p̅ is lying along a uniform electric field . The work done in rotating the dipole by 90° is :

A. √2 pE

B. pE/2

C. 2pE

D. pE

Q. 44 A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential difference of V volts. After

disconnecting the charging battery the distance between the plates of the capacitor is increased using an insulating handle. As a result the potential difference between the plates :

A. decreases

B. does not change

C. becomes zero

D. increases

Q. 45 A car runs at a constant speed on a circular track of radius 100 m, taking 62.8 s for every circular lap. The average velocity and average speed for each circular lap respectively is :

A. 0, 0

B. 0, 10 m/s

C. 10 m/s, 20 m/s

D. 20 m/s, 0

Q. 46 A square surface of side L m is in the plane of the paper. A uniform electric field E̅ (v/m), also in the plane of the paper, is limited only to the lower half of the square surface, (see figure). The electric flux in SI units associated with the surface is :

A. EL2/(2ε₀)

B. EL2/2

C. zero

D. EL2

Q. 47 A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both the ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity ω. The force exerted by the liquid at the other end is :

A. (MLω 2)/(2)

B. (ML2ω)/(2)

C. 2MLω 2

D. (ML2ω 2)/(2)

Q. 48 A uniform rod of length l and mass m is free to rotate in a vertical plane about A. The rod initially in horizontal position is released. The initial angular acceleration of the rod is :

(Moment of inertia of rod about A is (ml2/3))

A. 3g/2l

B. 2l/3g

C. 3g/2l₂

D. mg(l/2)

Q. 49 The vectors A̅ & B̅ are such that a :

|A̅ + B̅| = |A̅ – B̅|

The angle between the two vectors is :

A. 90°

B. 60°

C. 30°

D. 0°

Q. 50 Two bodies, A (of mass 1 kg) and B (of mass 3 kg) are dropped from heights of 16 m and 25 m, respectively. The ratio of the time taken by them to reach the ground is :

A. 5/4

B. 8/5

C. 5/8

D. 4/5

Q. 51 Identify the correct statement for change of Gibbs energy for a system (ΔGsystem) at constant temperature and pressure :

A. If ΔGsystem > 0, the process is spontaneous

B. If ΔGsystem = 0, the system has attained equilibrium

C. If ΔGsystem = 0, the system is still moving in a particular direction

D. If ΔGsystem < 0, the process is not spontaneous

Q. 52 A solution containing 10g per dm³ of urea (molecular mass = 60g mol⁻¹) is isotonic with a 5% solution of a non-volatile solute. The molecular mass of this non-volatile solute is :

A. 200 g mol⁻¹

B. 300 g mol⁻¹

C. 400 g mol⁻¹

D. 500 g mol⁻¹

Q. 53 A plot of log x/m versus log p for the adsorption of a gas on a solid gives a straight line with slope equal to :

A. – log k

B. n

C. 1/n

D. log k

Q. 54 Assume each reaction is carried out in an open container. For which reaction will ΔH = ΔE ?

A. H₂(g) + Br₂(g) → 2HBr(g)

B. C(s) + 2H₂O(g) → 2H₂(g) + CO₂(g)

C. PCl₅(g) → PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g)

D. 2CO(g) + O₂(g) → 2CO₂(g)

Q. 55 In a set of reactions propionic acid yielded a compound D.

The structure of D would be :

A. CH₃CH₂CH₂NH₂

B. CH₃CH₂CONH₂

C. CH₃CH₂NHCH₃

D. CH₃CH₂NH₂

Q. 56 During the process of digestion, the proteins present in food materials are hydrolysed to amino acids. The two enzymes involved in the process

A. amylase and maltase

B. diastase and lipase

C. pepsin and trypsin

D. invertase and zymase

Q. 57 The human body does not produce :

A. DNA

B. vitamins

C. hormones

D. enzymes

Q. 58 CsBr crystallises in a body centred cubic lattice. The unit cell length is 436.6 pm. Given that the atomic mass of Cs = 133 and that of Br = 80 amu and Avogadro number being 6.02 x 1023 mo1⁻¹, the density of CsBr is :

A. 42.5 g/cm³

B. 2.25 g/cm³

C. 0.225 g/cm³

D. 4.25 g/cm³

Q. 59 More number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than by the lanthanoids.

The main reason for this is :

A. more energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals

B. lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals

C. greater metallic character of the lanthanoids than that of the corresponding actinoids

D. more active nature of the actinoids

Q. 60 Given : The mass of electron is 9.11 x 10⁻³¹ kg

Planck constant is 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ Js, the uncertainty involved in the measurement of velocity within a distance of 0.1 Ȧ is :

A. 5.79 x 10⁶ ms⁻¹

B. 5.79 x 10⁷ ms⁻¹

C. 5.79 x 10⁸ ms⁻¹

D. 5.79 x 10⁹ ms⁻¹

Q. 61 Copper sulphate dissolves in excess of KCN to give :

A. CuCN

B. [Cu(CN)₄]³⁻

C. [Cu(CN)₄]²⁻

D. Cu(CN)₂

Q. 62 In which of the following pairs are both the ions coloured in aqueous solution ?

(At. no. : Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Co = 27)

A. Ni²⁺, Ti³⁺

B. Sc³⁺, Ti³⁺

C. Sc³⁺, Co²⁺

D. Ni²⁺, Cu⁺

Q. 63 Al₂O₃ can be converted to anhydrous AlCl₃ by heating :

A. Al₂O₃ with HCl gas

B. Al₂O₃ with NaCl in solid state

C. a mixture of Al₂O₃ and carbon in dry Cl₂ gas

D. Al₂O₃with Cl₂ gas

Q. 64 The enthalpy and entropy change for the reaction :

Br₂(l) + Cl₂(g) → 2BrCl(g) are 30 kJ mol⁻¹ and 105 JK⁻¹ mol⁻¹ respectively. The temperature at which the reaction will be in equilibrium is :

A. 285.7 K

B. 373 K

C. 250 K

D. 400 K

Q. 65 The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally due to :

A. F-centres

B. Schottky defect

C. Frenkel defect

D. Interstitial positions

Q. 66 The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanols is :

A. CnH₂nO₂

B. CnH₂nO

C. CnH₂n₊₁O

D. CnH₂n₊₂O

Q. 67 See the given figure, then Fe + 2Fe³⁺ → 3Fe²⁺ will be :

A. 0.441 V

B. 1.753 V

C. 1.212 V

D. 0.211 V

Q. 68 For the reaction 2A + B → 3C + D

which of the following does not express the reaction rate ?

A. -(d[C]/3dt)

B. -(d[B]/dt

C. d[D]/dt

D. -d[A]/2dt

Q. 69 For the reaction,

CH₄(g) + 2O₂ (g) CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(l), ΔrH = -170.8 kJ mol⁻¹ Which of the following statements is not true ?

A. At equilibrium, the concentrations of CO₂ (g) and H₂O (l)are not equal

B. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is given by Kp = [CO₂]/[CH₄][O₂]

C. Addition of CH₄(g) or O₂(g) at equilibrium will cause a shift to the right

D. The reaction is exothermic

Q. 70 [NH(CH₂)NHCO(CH₂)4CO]n is a :

A. co-polymer

B. addition polymer

C. thermo-setting polymer

D. homopolymer

Q. 71 A carbonyl compound reacts with hydrogen cyanide to form cyanohydrin which on hydrolysis forms a racemic mixture of α-hydroxy acid. The carbonyl compound is :

A. acetaldehyde

B. acetone

C. diethyl ketone

D. formaldehyde

Q. 72 Which one of the following is a peptide hormone ?

A. Glucagon

B. Testosterone

C. Thyroxin

D. Adrenaline

Q. 73 The major organic product in the reaction,

CH₃ – O – CH(CH₃)₂ + HI → Product is :

A. CH₃OH + (CH₃)₂CHI

B. ICH₂OCH (CH₃)₂

C. CH₃O C(CH₃)₂

D. CH₃I + (CH₃)₂CHOH

Q. 74 Nucleophilic addition reaction will be most favoured in :

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

Q. 75 The enthalpy of combustion of H₂, cyclohexene (C₆H₁₀) and cyclohexene (C₆H₁₂) are – 241, -3800 and -3920 kJ per mol respectively. Heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is :

A. – 121 kJ per mo

B. + 121 kJ per mol

C. + 484 kJ per mol

D. – 484 kJ per mol

Q. 76 Self condensation of two moles of ethyl acetate in presence of sodium ethoxide yields :

A. ethyl butyrate

B. acetoacetic ester

C. methyl acetoacetate

D. ethyl propionate

Q. 77 Consider the reaction

N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g)

The equality relationship between (d[NH₃]/dt) and -(d[H₂]/dt) is :

A. (d[NH₃]/dt) = -(1/3)(d[H₂]/dt)

B. +(d[NH₃]/dt) = -(2/3)(d[H₂]/dt)

C. +(d[NH₃]/dt) = -(3/2)(d[H₂]/dt)

D. (d[NH₃]/dt) = -(d[H₂]/dt)

Q. 78 Which of the following is not chiral ?

A. 2-butanol

B. 2, 3-dibromopentane

C. 3-bromopentane

D. 2-hydroxypropanoic acid

Q. 79 [Co(NH₃)₄(NO₂)₂]Cl exhibits :

A. linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and optical isomerism

B. linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and geometrical isomerism

C. ionization isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism

D. linkage isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism

Q. 80 [Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃ (at. no. of Cr = 24) has a magnetic moment of 3.83 BM, the correct distribution of 3d electrons in the chromium of the complex is :

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

Q. 81 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute (molar mass 250g mol⁻¹) was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene. If the freezing point depression constant, Kf of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol⁻¹, the freezing point of benzene will be lowered by :

A. 0.4 K

B. 0.8 K

C. 0.12 K

D. 0.24 K

Q. 82 Which of the following pairs constitutes a buffer ?

A. HNO₂ and NaNO₂

B. NaOH and NaCl

C. HNO₃ and NH₄NO₃

D. HCl and KCl

Q. 83 The hydrogen ion concentration of a 10⁻⁸ M HCl aqueous solution at 298 K (Kw = 10⁻¹⁴) is :

A. 1.0525 x 10⁻⁶ M

B. 1.0525 x 10⁻⁷ M

C. 8.525 x 10⁻⁸ M

D. 1.0525 x 10⁻⁸ M

Q. 84 A solution of acetone in ethanol :

A. shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s law

B. shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law

C. behaves like a near ideal solution

D. obeys Raoult’s law

Q. 85 A hypothetical electrochemical cell is shown below

A|A+ (xM)|| B+ (yM)| B

The emf measured is +0.20V. The cell reaction is :

A. A⁺ + B → A + B+

B. A⁺ + e- → A; B⁺ + e- → B

C. the cell reaction cannot be predicted

D. A + B⁺ → A⁺ + B

Q. 86 Ethylene oxide when treated with Grignard reagent yields :

A. secondary alcohol

B. tertiary alcohol

C. cyclopropyl alcoho

D. primary alcohol

Q. 87 During osmosis, flow of water through a semi-permeable membrane is :

A. from solution having higher concentration only

B. from both sides of semi-permeable membrane with equal flow rates

C. from both sides of semi-permeable membrane with unequal flow rates

D. from solution having lower concentration only

Q. 88 Which of the following is more basic than aniline ?

A. Diphenylamine

B. Triphenylamine

C. p-nitroaniline

D. Benzylamine

Q. 89 In which of the following molecules are all the bonds not equal ?

A. ClF₃

B. BF₃

C. AlF₃

D. NF₃

Q. 90 The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater than that between N and H yet the dipole moment of NH₃ (1.5 D) is larger than that of NF₃ (0.2 D). This is because :

A. in NH₃ as well as in NF₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction

B. in NH₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction whereas in NF₃ these are in opposite directions

C. in NH₃ as well as NF₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in opposite directions

D. in NH₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the opposite directions whereas in

NF₃ these are in the same directions

Q. 91 The correct order of the mobility of the alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is :

A. Li⁺ > Na⁺ > K⁺ > Rb⁺

B. Na⁺ > K⁺ > Rb⁺ > Li⁺

C. K⁺ > Rb⁺ > Na⁺ > Li⁺

D. Rb⁺ > K⁺ > Na⁺ > Li⁺

Q. 92 The corect order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is :

A. sp > sp² < sp³

B. sp > sp² > sp³

C. sp < sp² > sp³

D. sp < sp² < sp³

Q. 93 Which of the following species has a linear shape ?

A. NO⁻²

B. SO₂

C. NO⁺²

D. O₃

Q. 94 Which of the following is the most basic oxide ?

A. Al₂O₃

B. Sb₂O₃

C. Bi₂O₃

D. SeO₂

Q. 95 The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by :

A. azimuthal quantum number

B. spin quantum number

C. magnetic quantum number

D. principal quantum number

Q. 96 Which of the following is not a correct statement ?

A. The electron-deficient molecules can act as Lewis acids

B. The canonical structures have no real existence

C. Every AB₅ molecule does in fact have square pyramid structure

D. Multiple bonds are always shorter than corresponding single bonds

Q. 97 The number of unpaired electrons in a paramagnetic diatomic molecule of an element with atomic number 16 is :

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 1

Q. 98 Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against it?

A. F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂ : Oxidising power

B. HI > HBr > HCl > HF : Acidic property in water

C. F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂ : Electronegativity

D. F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂ : Bond dissociation energy

Q. 99 Which of the following is not isostructural with SiCl₄ ?

A. SCl₄

B. SO₂⁻⁴

C. PO₃⁻⁴

D. NH⁺⁴

Q. 100 The IUPAC name of the given figure is

A. 3, 4-dimethylpentanoyl chloride

B. 1-chloro-1-oxo-2, 3-dimethylpentane

C. 2-ethyl-3-methylbutanoyl chloride

D. 2, 3-dimethylpentanoyl chloride

Q. 101 What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the aleurone layer in a plant species with 8chromosomes in its synergids ?

A. 16

B. 24

C. 32

D. 8

Q. 102 Pineapple (annanas) fruit develops from :

A. a unilocular polycarpillary flower

B. a multipistillate syncarpous flower

C. a cluster of compactly borne flowers on a common axis

D. a multilocular monocarpillary flower

Q. 103 Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop. When released for cultivation, it will help in :

A. alleviation of vitamin-A deficiency

B. pest resistance

C. herbicide tolerance

D. producing a petrol-like fuel from rice

Q. 104 Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by :

A. removing androecium of flowers before pollen grains are released

B. treating the plants with low concentrations of gibberellic acid and auxins

C. raising the plants from vernalized seeds

D. treating the plants with phenylmercuric acetate

Q. 105 How does pruning help in making the hedge dense ?

A. It induces the differentiation of new shoots from the rootstock

B. It frees axillary buds from apical dominance

C. The apical shoot grows faster after pruning

D. It releases wound hormones

Q. 106 The ‘blue baby’ syndrome results from :

A. excess fo chloride

B. methaemoglobin

C. excess of dissolved oxygen

D. excess of TDS (Total Dissolved Solids)

Q. 107 Praying mentis is a good example of :

A. mullerian mimicry

B. warning colouration

C. social insects

D. camouflage

Q. 108 Which one of the following statements is correct ?

A. Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice versa

B. Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and nervous system regulates endocrine glands

C. Neither hormones control neural activity nor the neurons control endocrine activity

D. Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but not vice versa

Q. 109 Examination of blood of a person suspected of having anaemia, shows large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes without haemoglobin. Supplementing his diet with which of the following, is likely to alleviate his symptoms ?

A. Thiamine

B. Folic acid and cobalamine

C. Riboflavin

D. Iron compounds

Q. 110 Farmers in a particular region were concerned that pre-mature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might cause decrease in the yield. Which treatment could be most beneficial to obtain maximum seed yield ?

A. Frequent irrigation of the crop

B. Treatment of the paints with cytokinins along with a small dose of nitrogenous fertilizer

C. Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying the remaining green leaves with 2, 4, 5- trichlorophenoxy acetic acid

D. Application of iron and magnesium to promote synthesis of chlorophyll

Q. 111 In which of the following fruits is the edible part the aril ?

A. Custard apple

B. Pomegranate

C. Orange

D. Litchi

Q. 112 Which one of the following aminoacids was not found to be synthesized in Miller’s experiment ?

A. Glycine

B. Aspartic acid

C. Glutamic acid

D. Alanine

Q. 113 Crop plants grown in monoculture are :

A. low in yield

B. free from intraspecific competition

C. characterised by poor root system

D. highly prone to pests

Q. 114 Montreal protocol which calls for appropriate action to protect the ozone layer from human activities was passed in the year :

A. 1986

B. 1987

C. 1988

D. 1985

Q. 115 The formula for exponential population growth is :

A. dt/dN = rN

B. dN/rN = dt

C. rN/dN = dt

D. dN/dt = rN

Q. 116 Which one of the following is not used for construction of ecological pyramids ?

A. Dry weight

B. Number of individuals

C. Rate of energy flow

D. Fresh weight

Q. 117 Niche overlap indicates :

A. active co-operation between two species

B. two different parasites on the same host

C. sharing of one or more resources between the two species

D. mutualism between two species

Q. 118 In photosystem-I, the first electron acceptor is :

A. ferredoxin

B. cytochrome

C. plastocyanin

D. an iron-sulphur protein

Q. 119 Treatment of seed at low temperature under moist conditions to break its dormancy is called :

A. scarification

B. vernalization

C. chelation

D. stratification

Q. 120 Which one of the following is the most suitable, medium for culture of Drosophila melanogaster ?

A. Moist bread

B. Agar agar

C. Ripe banana

D. Cow dung

Q. 121 Which one of the following is not included under in situ conservation ?

A. Sanctuary

B. Botanical garden

C. Biosphere reserve

D. National park

Q. 122 Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between t-RNA and m-RNA during bacterial protein synthesis ?

A. Erythromycin

B. Neomycin

C. Streptomycin

D. Tetracycline

Q. 123 Phenotype of an organism is the result of :

A. mutations and linkages

B. cytoplasmic effects and nutrition

C. environmental changes and sexual dimorphism

D. genotype and environment interactions

Q. 124 Photochemical smog pollution does not contain :

A. ozone

B. nitrogen dioxide

C. carbon dioxide

D. PAN (Peroxy Acyl Nitrate)

Q. 125 Moss peat is used as a packing material for sending flowers and live plants to distant places because :

A. it is easily available

B. it is hygroscopic

C. it reduces transpiration

D. it serves as a disinfectant

Q. 126 A common structural feature of vessel elements and sieve tube elements is :

A. thick secondary walls

B. pores on lateral walls

C. presence of P-protein

D. enucleate condition

Q. 127 The thalloid body of a slime mould (Myxomycetes) is known as :

A. protonema

B. Plasmodium

C. fruiting body

D. mycelium

Q. 128 In which mode of inheritance do you expect more maternal influence among the off spring ?

A. Autosomal

B. Cytoplasmic

C. Y-linked

D. X-linked

Q. 129 What type of placentation is seen in sweet pea ?

A. Basal

B. Axile

C. Free central

D. Marginal

Q. 130 Long filamentous threads protruding at the end of a young cob of maize are :

A. anthers

B. styles

C. ovaries

D. hairs

Q. 131 Conifers differ from grasses in the :

A. production of seeds from ovules

B. lack of xylem tracheids

C. absence of pollen tubes

D. formation of endosperm before fertilization

Q. 132 How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype AABbCC ?

A. Three

B. Four

C. Nine

D. Two

Q. 133 In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by :

A. bombarding the protoplast with DNA

B. crossing of two inbreed parental lines

C. harvesting seeds from the most productive plants

D. inducing mutations

Q. 134 Which of the following statements regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct ?

A. The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules

B. The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane

C. The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings

D. The outer membrane resembles a sieve

Q. 135 Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is decided by the sequence of :

A. t-RNA

B. m-RNA

C. c-DNA

D. r-RNA

Q. 136 How many ATP molecules could maximally be generated from one molecule of glucose, if the complete oxidation of one mole of glucose to CO₂ and H₂O yields 686 kcal and the useful chemical energy available in the high energy phosphate bond of one mole of ATP is 12 kcal ?

A. Two

B. Thirty

C. Fifty seven

D. One

Q. 137 An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its acvity is called :

A. coenzyme

B. holoenzyme

C. apoenzyme

D. isoenzyme

Q. 138 Bowman’s glands are found in :

A. olfactory epithelium

B. external auditory canal

C. cortical nephrons only

D. juxtamedullary nephrons

Q. 139 The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that causes botulism is :

A. a facultative anaerobe

B. an obligate anaerobe

C. a facultative aerobe

D. an obligate aerobe

Q. 140 Which one of the following is the correctly matched pair of an endangered animal and a National Park ?

A. Lion — Corbett National Park

B. Rhinoceros — Kaziranga National Park

C. Wild ass — Dudhwa National Park

D. Great Indian bustard —Keoladeo National Park

Q. 141 A person showing upredictable moods, outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with others is suffering from :

A. schizophrenia

B. borderline personality disorder (BPD)

C. mood disorders

D. addictive disorders

Q. 142 Sulphur is an important nutrient for optimum growth and productivity in :

A. pulse crops

B. cereals

C. fibre crops

D. oilseed crops

Q. 143 Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers, bicarpillary ovary with oblique septa, and fruit a capsule or berry, are characteristic features of :

A. Asteraceae

B. Brassicaceae

C. Solanaceae

D. Liliaceae

Q. 144 In a moss the sporophyte :

A. is partially parasitic on the gametophyte

B. produces gametes that give rise to the gametophyte

C. arises from a spore produced from the gametophyte

D. manufactures food for itself, as well as for the gametophyte

Q. 145 Curing of tea leaves is brought about by the activity of :

A. bacteria

B. mycorrhiza

C. viruses

D. fungi

Q. 146 People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas those living at an altitude of 5400 metres have around 8 million. This is because at high altitude :

A. people get pollution-free air to breathe and more oxygen is available

B. atmospheric O₂ level is less and hence more RBCs are needed to absorb the required amount of O₂ to survive

C. there is more UV radiation which enhances RBC production

D. people eat more nutritive food, therefore more RBCs are formed

Q. 147 An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of :

A. homologous and vestigial organs

B. analogous and vestigial organs

C. homologous organs only

D. homologous and analogous organs

Q. 148 Which one of the following is not a living fossil ?

A. King crab

B. Sphenodon

C. Archaeopteryx

D. Peripatus

Q. 149 Annual migration does not occur in the case of :

A. salmon

B. Siberian crane

C. salamander

D. arctic tern

Q. 150 A major breakthrough in the studies of cells came with the development of electron microscope. This is because :

A. the resolution power of the electron microscope is much higher than that of the light microscope

B. the resolving power of the electron microscope is 200 – 350 nm as compared to 0.1 – 0.2 nm for the light microscope

C. electron beam can pass through thick materials, whereas light microscopy requires thin sections

D. the electron microscope is more powerful than the light microscope as it uses a beam of electrons which has wavelength much longer than that of photons

Q. 151 Which one of the following is a matching set of a phylum and its three examples ?

A. Cnidaria — Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia

B. Platyhelminthes — Planaria, Schistosoma, Enterobius

C. Mollusca — Loligo, Teredo, Octopus

D. Porifera — Spongilla, Euplectella, pennatula

Q. 152 Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of :

A. Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda

B. Echinodermata and Annelida

C. Annelida and Arthropoda

D. Mollusca and Chordata

Q. 153 Which of the following pairs of an animal and a plant represents endangered organisms in India ?

A. Bentinckia nicobarica and red panda

B. Tamarind and rhesus monkey

C. Cinchona and leopard

D. Banyan and black buck

Q. 154 Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is characterized by :

A. gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear

B. radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal like reptiles

C. dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appear

D. flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear

Q. 155 What is common about Trypanosoma, Noctiluca, Monocystis and Giardia ?

A. These are all unicellular protists

B. They have flagella

C. They produce spores

D. These are all parasites

Q. 156 Which of the following statements regarding cilia is not correct ?

A. The organized beating of cilia is controlled by fluxes of Ca²⁺ across the membrane

B. Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages

C. Microtubules of cilia are composed of tubulin

D. Cilia contain an outer ring of nine doublet microtubules surrounding two single microtubules

Q. 157 Microbes found to be very useful in genetic engineering are :

A. Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens

B. Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage

C. Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp

D. Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis elegans

Q. 158 Which of the following environmental conditions are essential for optimum growth of Mucor on a piece of bread ?

A. Temperature of about 25°C

B. Temperature of about 5°C

C. Relative humidity of about 5%

D. Relative humidity of about 95%

E. A shady place

F. A brightly illuminated place

Choose the answer from the following options :

A. A, C and E only

B. A, D and E only

C. B, D and E only

D. B, C and F only

Q. 159 Evolutionary history of an organism is known as :

A. Phylogeny

B. Ancestry

C. Paleontology

D. Ontogeny

Q. 160 Which of the following is considered a hot-spot of biodiversity in India ?

A. Western ghats

B. Indo-Gangetic plain

C. Eastern ghats

D. Aravalli hills

Q. 161 During photorespiration, the oxygen consuming reaction(s) occur in :

A. stroma of chloroplasts and mitochondria

B. stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes

C. grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes

D. stroma of chloroplasts

Q. 162 Which one of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance ?

A. Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa

B. Production of male honey bee

C. Pod shape in garden pea

D. Skin colour in humans

Q. 163 Which one of the following not act as a neurotransmitter ?

A. Acetylcholine

B. Epinephrine

C. Nor epinephrine

D. Cortisone

Q. 164 Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as :

A. FSH

B. GH

C. Prolactin

D. LH

Q. 165 A steroid hormone which regulates glucose metabolism is :

A. cortisol

B. corticosterone

C. 11-deoxycorticosterone

D. cortisone

Q. 166 The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is :

A. tropomyosin

B. myosin

C. α-actinin

D. troponin

Q. 167 Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action ?

A. cGMP

B. Calcium

C. Sodium

D. cAMP

Q. 168 In Mendel’s experiments with garden pea, round seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled seeds (rr), yellow cotyledon (YY) was dominant over green cotyledon (yy). What are the expected phenotypes in the F₂ generation of the cross RRYY x rryy ?

A. Only round seeds with green cotyledons

B. Only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons

C. Only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons

D. Round seeds with yellow cotyledons and wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons

Q. 169 One gene – one enzyme hypothesis was postulated by :

A. R. Franklin

B. Hershey and Chase

C. A. Garrod

D. Beadle and Tatum

Q. 170 One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately :

A. 20 nm

B. 0.34 nm

C. 3.4 nm

D. 2 nm

Q. 171 Test cross involves :

A. crossing between two genotypes with recessive trait

B. crossing between two F₁ hybrids

C. crossing the F₁ hybrid with a double recessive genotype

D. crossing between two genotypes with dominant trait

Q. 172 Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that :

A. one strand turns anti-clockwise

B. the phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position

C. the phosphate groups at thestart of two DNA strands are in opposite position (pole)

D. one strand turns clockwise

Q. 173 Areolar connective tissue joins :

A. fat body with muscles

B. integument with muscles

C. bones with muscles

D. bones with bones

Q. 174 Mast cells secrete :

A. hippurin

B. myoglobin

C. histamine

D. haemoglobin

Q. 175 If a colourblind woman marries a normal visioned man, their sons will be :

A. all normal visioned

B. one-half colourblind and one-half normal

C. three-fourths colourbling and one-fourth normal

D. all colourblind

Q. 176 Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the :

A. fertilization of an XX egg by a normal Y-bearing sperm

B. loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5

C. loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5

D. trisomy of 21st chromosome

Q. 177 Restriction endonuclease :

A. cuts the DNA molecule randomly

B. cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites

C. restricts the synthesis of DNA inside the nucleus

D. synthesizes DNA

Q. 178 Antibodies in our body are complex :

A. lipoproteins

B. steroids

C. prostaglandins

D. glycoproteins

Q. 179 Limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution Control Board for the discharge of industrial and municipal waste water into natural surface water, is :

A. < 3.0 ppm

B. < 10 ppm

C. < 100 ppm

D. < 30 ppm

Q. 180 Earthworms are :

A. ureotelic when plenty of water is available

B. uricotelic when plenty of water is available

C. uricotelic under conditions of water scarcity

D. ammonotelic when plenty of water is available

Q. 181 Which of the following is an accumulation and release centre of neurohormones ?

A. Posterior pituitary lobe

B. Intermediate lobe of the pituitary

C. Hypothalamus

D. Anterior pituitary lobe

Q. 182 Withdrawal of which of the following hormones is the immediate cause of menstruation ?

A. Eastrogens

B. FSH

C. FSH-RH

D. Progesterone

Q. 183 Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?

A. The residual air in lungs slightly decreases the efficiency of respiration in mammals

B. The presence of non-respiratory air sacs, increases the efficiency of respiration in birds

C. In insects, circulating body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues

D. The principle of countercurrent flow facilitates efficient respiration in gills of fishes

Q. 184 Which one of the following has an open circulatory system ?

A. Pheretima

B. Periplaneta

C. Hirudinaria

D. Octopus

Q. 185 Which hormone causes dilation of blood vessels, increased oxygen consumption and glycogenolysis ?

A. ACTH

B. Insulin

C. Adrenalin

D. Glucagon

Q. 186 The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a :

A. bacterium

B. prion

C. worm

D. virus

Q. 187 The translocation of organic solutes in sieve tube members is supported by :

A. root pressure and transpiration pull

B. P-proteins

C. mass flow involving a carrier and ATP

D. cytoplasmic streaming

Q. 188 Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are the characteristics of :

A. Starfish and sea anemone

B. Ctenoplana and Beroe

C. Aurelia and Paramecium

D. Hydra and starfish

Q. 189 The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac in the dicot plants is :

A. 2 + 4 + 2

B. 3 + 2 + 3

C. 2 + 3 + 3

D. 3 + 3 + 2

Q. 190 An enzyme that can stimulate germination of barley seeds is :

A. α-amylase

B. lipase

C. protease

D. invertase

Q. 191 In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo is represented by :

A. coleorhiza

B. scutellum

C. prophyll

D. coleoptile

Q. 192 The majority of carbon dioxide produced by our body cells is transported to the lungs :

A. dissolved in the blood

B. as bircarbonates

C. as carbonates

D. attached to haemoglobin

Q. 193 Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has been obtained by crossing wheat with :

A. rye

B. pearl millet

C. sugarcane

D. barley

Q. 194 In order to obtain virus-free plants through tissue culture the best method is :

A. protoplast culture

B. embryo rescue

C. anther culture

D. meristem culture

Q. 195 HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying :

A. B-lymphocytes

B. leucocytes

C. thrombocytes

D. helper T-lymphocytes

Q. 196 In which one of the following sets of animals do all the four give birth to young ones ?

A. Lion, bat, whale, ostrich

B. Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus

C. Shrew, bat, cat, kiw

D. Kangaroo, hedgehog, dolphin, loris

Q. 197 Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated from the African population because :

A. it is controlled by recessive genes

B. it is not a fatal disease

C. it provides immunity against malaria

D. it is controlled by dominant genes

Q. 198 Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach and crab are :

A. compound eyes and anal cerci

B. jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton

C. green gland and tracheae

D. book lungs and antennae

Q. 199 Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s chorea are :

A. bacteria-related diseases

B. congenital disorders

C. pollutant-induced disorders

D. virus-related diseases

Q. 200 Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by :

A. macula densa cells

B. endothelial cells (cells lining the blood vessels)

C. liver cells

D. juxtaglomerular (JG) cells

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	D	B	C	C	A	D	B	C	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	B	C	A	C	C	A	A	B	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	B	A	C	B	D	A	C	B	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	D	A	B	D	D	B	D	A	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	D	D	D	B	C	A	A	A	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	B	C	A	D	C	B	D	B	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	A	C	A	A	D	C	A	B	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	A	D	D	A	B	B	C	B	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	A	B	B	D	D	D	D	A	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	B	C	C	C	C	A	D	A	D
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	C	A	B	B	B	C	A	D	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	D	C	D	B	D	D	B	D	D	C
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	D	D	C	B	B	B	B	D	B
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	D	D	B	B	B	B	A	A	B	B
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	A	A	C	A	A	B	A	C	C	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	C	A	A	A	C	A	B	A	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	B	D	D	A	A	B	C	D	D	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	C	C	B	C	D	B	B	D	B	D
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	C	D	A	B	C	B	C	B	B	A
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	B	B	A	D	D	D	C	B	B	C

NEET 2018 Previous Year Paper

NEET 2018

Section	Questions	Marks
Chemistry	45 Questions (1 – 45)	180
Biology	90 Questions (46 – 135)	360
Physics	45 Questions (136 – 180)	180

Q. 1 Which of the following statements is “not” true for the halogens?

A. All form monobasic oxyacids

B. Chlorine has the highest electron gain enthalpy

C. All but fluorine show positive oxidation states

D. All are oxidizing agents

Q. 2 The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements are:

A. B < Al < In < Ga < Tl

B. B < Ga < Al < In < Tl

C. B < Ga < Al < Tl < In

D. B < Al < Ga < In < Tl

Q. 3 In the structure of CIF₃ , the number of lone pairs of electrons on the central atom “Cl” is:

A. One

B. Three

C. Four

D. Two

Q. 4 The correct order of the N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is:

A. HNO₃, NO, N₂, NH₄Cl

B. NH₄Cl, N₂, NO, HNO₃

C. HNO₃, NH₄Cl, NO, N₂

D. HNO₃, NO, NH₄Cl, N₂

Q. 5 Which one of the following elements is unable to form MF₆⁻³ ion:

A. Ga

B. In

C. B

D. Al

Q. 6 Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce alumina?

A. Fe

B. Cu

C. Mg

D. Zn

Q. 7 The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, and with PCl₅ gives C. B and C react together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order

A. C₂H₅OH, C₂H6, C₂H₅Cl

B. C₂H₅OH, C₂H₅ONa, C₂H₅Cl

C. C₂H₅Cl, C₂H6, C₂H₅OH

D. C₂H₅OH, C₂H₅Cl, C₂H₅ONa

Q. 8 Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon atoms (A) is :

A. CH = CH

B. CH₄

C. CH₃ – CH₃

D. CH₂ = CH₂

Q. 9 The compound C₇H₈ undergoes the following reactions given in the figure. The product ‘C’ is:

A. m-bromotoluene

B. p-bromotoluene

C. 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene

D. o-bromotoluene

Q. 10 Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both due to natural and human activity?

A. N₂O₅

B. NO

C. N₂O

D. NO₂

Q. 11 Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different concentrations:

a. 60mL M/10 HCl + 40mL M/10 NaOH

b. 55mL M/10 HCl + 45mL M/10 NaOH

c. 75mL M/5 HCl + 25mL M/5 NaOH

d. 100mL M/10 HCl + 100mL M/10 NaOH

pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?

A. b

B. c

C. d

D. a

Q. 12 On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend?

A. The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone

B. The sign of charge on the ion alone

C. Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion

D. Size of the ion alone

Q. 13 The solubility of BaSO₄ in water is 2.42 x 10⁻³ gL⁻¹ at 298K.The value of its solubility product (Ksp) will be (Given molar mass of BaSO₄=233g/mol⁻¹)

A. 1.08 x 10⁻¹⁰ mol²/L⁻²

B. 1.08 x 10⁻⁸ mol²/L⁻²

C. 1.08 x 10⁻¹⁴ mol²/L⁻²

D. 1.08 x 10⁻¹² mol²/L⁻²

Q. 14 Given van der Waals constant for NH₃, H₂, O₂ and CO₂ are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and 3.59, which one of the following gases is most easily liquefied?

A. NH₃

B. CO₂

C. O₂

D. H₂

Q. 15 Match the metal ions given in column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in column II (Given in figure (1)) and assign the correct code:

A. a(iv), b(v), c(ii), d(i)

B. a(iii), b(v), c(i), d(ii)

C. a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

D. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

Q. 16 Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)₅ is:

A. tetranuclear

B. dinuclear

C. trinuclear

D. mononuclear

Q. 17 The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)₄] are:

A. square planar geometry and diamagnetic

B. tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic

C. square planar geometry and paramagnetic

D. tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic

Q. 18 Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well?

A. CrO₄⁻²

B. MnO₄⁻²

C. MnO₄⁻

D. Cr₂O₇⁻²

Q. 19 The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl₂(en)₂] is:

A. geometrical isomerism

B. linkage isomerism

C. ionisation isomerism

D. coordination isomerism

Q. 20 Identify the major products P, Q and R (Among options (1), (2), (3), (4)) in the following sequence of reaction given in the figure:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 21 Which of the following compounds can form a zwitterion?

A. Aniline

B. Glycine

C. Benzoic acid

D. Acetanilide

Q. 22 Which of the following molecules represent the order of hybridisation sp², sp², sp, sp from left to right atoms?

A. HC ≡ C – C ≡ CH

B. CH₃ – CH = CH – CH₃

C. CH₂ = CH – CH = CH₂

D. CH₂ = CH – C = CH

Q. 23 Which of the following carbocations is expected to be most stable (Among options (1), (2), (3), (4)):

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 24 Which of the following is correct with respect to -I effect of the substituents?(R = alkyl)

A. -NH₂ < -OR < -F

B. -NR₂ > -OR > -F

C. -NH₂ > -OR > -F

D. -NR₂ < -OR < -F

Q. 25 Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic configuration of (X) is 1s² 2s² 2p³, the simplest formula for this compound is:

A. Mg₂X₃

B. Mg₃X₂

C. Mg₂X

D. MgX₂

Q. 26 Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains constant with temperature) is:

A. √3/√2

B. 1/2

C. 3√3/4√2

D. 4√3/3√2

Q. 27 Which of the following statement is wrong (Among (1), (2), (3), (4))?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 28 Consider the following species:

CN⁺, CN⁻, NO and CN

Which one of these will have the highest bond order?

A. NO

B. CN

C. CN⁺

D. CN⁻

Q. 29 In the reaction given in the figure, the electrolyte involved is:

A. dichloromethyl cation (CHCl₂)

B. dichlorocarbene (:CCl₂)

C. dichloromethyl anion (CHCl₂)

D. formyl cation (CHO)

Q. 30 Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their:

A. formation of intramolecular H-bonding

B. formation of intermolecular H-bonding

C. more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction

D. formation of carboxylate ion

Q. 31 Compound A, C₈H₁₀O is found to react with NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic smell.

A and Y are respectively (Among (1), (2), (3), (4)):

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 32 The correct difference between first and second order reactions is that:

A. The rate of first order reaction does not depend on the reactant concentrations; the rate of a second order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations.

B. The rate of first order reaction does depend on the reactant concentrations; the rate of a second order reaction does not depend on the reactant concentrations.

C. a first order reaction can be catalyzed; a second order reaction cannot be catalyzed.

D. the half time of a first order reaction does not depend on the [A]0; the half life of a second order reaction does not depend on the [A]0

Q. 33 Among the CaH₂, BeH₂, BaH₂, the order of the ionic character is:

A. BeH₂ < CaH₂ < BaH₂

B. BaH₂ < BeH₂ < CaH₂

C. BeH₂ < BaH₂ < CaH₂

D. CaH₂ < BeH₂ < BaH₂

Q. 34 Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values as shown in the diagram.

Then the species undergoing disproportionation is:

A. BrO₃⁻

B. HBrO

C. Br₂

D. BrO₄⁻

Q. 35 In which case is the number of molecules of water maximum?

A. 18 mL of water

B. 10⁻³ mol of water

C. 0.00224L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K

D. 0.18 g of water

Q. 36 Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. They contains covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains.

B. They contains strong covalent bonds in their polymer chains

C. Examples are bakelite and melamine

D. They are formed from bi and tri functional monomers.

Q. 37 Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because:

A. In spite of substitutions nitro group always goes to only m-position

B. In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as anilinium ion

C. In absence of substituents nitro groups always goes to m-position

D. In electrophilic substitution reactions amino group is meta directive

Q. 38 Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature?

A. MgO

B. CaO

C. BaO

D. BeO

Q. 39 The difference between amylose and amylose and amylopectin is:

A. Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 α-linkage

B. Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose

C. Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1→ 6 β-linkage

D. Amylose have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 β-linkage

Q. 40 A mixture of 2:3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. H₂SO₄. The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pallets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be:

A. 1.4

B. 4.4

C. 2.8

D. 3.0

Q. 41 For redox reaction given in the figure, what is the correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 42 The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation corresponds to:

A. density of the gas molecules

B. forces of attraction between the gas molecules

C. electric field present between the gas molecules

D. volume of the gas molecules

Q. 43 Which one of the following conditions will favour maximum formation of the product in the reaction:

A₂(g) + B₂(G) ⇔ X₂(g) ΔrH = – X kJ?

A. low temperature and high pressure

B. high temperature and low temperature

C. high temperature and high pressure

D. low temperature and low pressure

Q. 44 The bond dissociation energies of X₂, Y₂ and XY of in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. ΔH for the formation of XY is -200 KJ/mol⁻¹.The bond dissociation energy of X₂ will be:

A. 200KJ mol⁻¹

B. 400 KJ mol⁻¹

C. 800 KJ mol⁻¹

D. 100 KJ mol⁻¹

Q. 45 When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half life period of a zero order reaction.

A. is halved

B. remains unchanged

C. is tripled

D. is doubled

Q. 46 Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?

A. anthracis

B. emphysema

C. botulism

D. silicosis

Q. 47 Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it:

A. binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin

B. prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament

C. detaches the myosin head from the actin filament

D. activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it

Q. 48 Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?

A. chief cells

B. parietal cells

C. goblet cells

D. mucous cells

Q. 49 Match the items given in column I with those in column II (Given in the figure) and select the correct option:

A. a(iii), b(ii), c(i)

B. a(ii), b(iii), c(i)

C. a(i), b(iii), c(ii)

D. a(i), b(ii), c(iii)

Q. 50 Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?

A. Aldosterone and Prolactin

B. Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin

C. Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone

D. Progesterone and Aldosterone

Q. 51 Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?

A. epinephrine

B. estriol

C. estradiol

D. ecdysone

Q. 52 Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function?

A. Medulla oblongata: It controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes

B. Corpus callosum: band of fibres connecting the left and right cerebral hemispheres

C. Hypothalamus: production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst

D. Limbic system: consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movements.

Q. 53 The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by

A. ligaments attached to ciliary body

B. smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body

C. smooth muscles attached to the iris

D. ligaments attached to the iris

Q. 54 Among the following set of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option.

A. forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah

B. eye of octopus, bat and man

C. brain of bat, man and cheetah

D. heart of bat, man and cheetah

Q. 55 In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?

A. Elephantiasis

B. Amoebiasis

C. Ringworm disease

D. Ascariasis

Q. 56 Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

A. Psoriasis

B. Vitiligo

C. Alzheimer’s disease

D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Q. 57 Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of:

A. Vitamin D

B. Vitamin E

C. Vitamin B12

D. Vitamin A

Q. 58 Which of the following characters represent ‘inheritance of blood groups’ in human:

a. Dominance

b. Co-dominance

c. Multiple allele

d. Incomplete dominance

e. Polygenic inheritance

A. b, c and e

B. a, c and e

C. b, d and e

D. a, b and c

Q. 59 The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of:

A. homology

B. adaptive radiation

C. convergent evolution

D. analogy

Q. 60 Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?

A. earthworm

B. starfish

C. moth

D. tunicate

Q. 61 Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?

A. Macropus

B. Psittacula

C. Camelus

D. Chelone

Q. 62 Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?

A. Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment

B. Presence of anal cerci

C. Forewings with darker tegmina

D. Presence of caudal styles

Q. 63 Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?

A. Dinoflagellates

B. Euglenoids

C. Cyanobacteria

D. Diatoms

Q. 64 Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in

A. using flagella for locomotion

B. having two types of nuclei

C. using pseudopodia for capturing prey

D. having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water

Q. 65 Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system

A. Amphibia

B. Osteichthyes

C. Aves

D. Reptilia

Q. 66 The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from:

A. ectoderm and mesoderm

B. ectoderm and endoderm

C. mesoderm and trophoblast

D. endoderm and mesoderm

Q. 67 Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are:

A. hCG, hPL , progestogens, prolactin

B. hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids

C. hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens

D. hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin

Q. 68 The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’

A. blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted

B. is a post coital contraceptive

C. is an IUD

D. increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.

Q. 69 The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is:

A. In spermatogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed

B. In spermatogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules

C. In spermatogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed

D. In spermatogenesis spermatozoa are formed while in spermiation spermatids are formed

Q. 70 In a growing population of a country:

A. pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals

B. pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals

C. reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number

D. reproductive individuals are less than the post reproductive individuals

Q. 71 Match the items given in the column I with those in column II (Given in the figure) and select the correct option given below:

A. a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

B. a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)

C. a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

D. a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)

Q. 72 Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug ‘smack’ ?

A. flowers

B. leaves

C. roots

D. latex

Q. 73 Which of the following population interactions widely used in medical sciences for the production of antibiotics?

A. Commensalism

B. Amensalism

C. Parasitism

D. Mutualism

Q. 74 All of the following are included in “ex-situ conservation” except

A. wildlife safari parks

B. seed banks

C. botanical gardens

D. sacred groves

Q. 75 Match the items given in column I with those column II (Given in the figure) and select the correct option given below:

A. a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

B. a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

C. a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

D. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

Q. 76 Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below:

A. a(iv), b(v), c(ii), d(iii)

B. a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

C. a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

D. a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

Q. 77 A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by:

A. only daughters

B. both sons and daughters

C. only grandchildren

D. only sons

Q. 78 AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?

A. AGGUAUCGCAU

B. UCCAUAGCGUA

C. ACCUAUGCGAU

D. UGGTUTCGCAT

Q. 79 Match the items given in column I with those in column II (Given in the figure) and select the correct option given below:

A. a(iii), b(ii), c(i)

B. a(iii), b(i), c(ii)

C. a(ii), b(iii), c(i)

D. a(i), b(iii), c(ii)

Q. 80 According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is:

A. multiple step mutations

B. minor mutations

C. phenotypic variations

D. saltation

Q. 81 All of the following are part of an operon except

A. an operator

B. a promoter

C. an enhancer

D. structural genes

Q. 82 Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?

A. protein folding

B. phospholipid synthesis

C. cleavage of signal peptide

D. protein glycosylation

Q. 83 Which of these statements is incorrect?

A. enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix

B. oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane

C. glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms

D. glycolysis occurs in cytosol

Q. 84 Select the incorrect match:

A. lampbrush chromosome – diplotene bivalents

B. polytene chromosome – oocytes of amphibians

C. submetacentric chromosome – L-shaped chromosomes

D. allosomes – sex chromosomes

Q. 85 Which of the following terms describe human dentition?

A. thecodont, diphyodont, homodont

B. pleurodont, diphyodont, heterodont

C. pleurodont, monophyodont, homodont

D. thecodont, diphyodont, heterodont

Q. 86 Nissil bodies are mainly composed of

A. proteins and lipids

B. free ribosomes and RER

C. nucleic acids and SER

D. DNA and RNA

Q. 87 Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as:

A. Polysome

B. Nucleosome

C. Plastidome

D. Polyhedral bodies

Q. 88 Match the items given in the column I with those in column II (Given in figure) and select the correct option given below:

A. a(iii), b(i), c(ii)

B. a(ii), b(i), c(iii)

C. a(i), b(ii), c(iii)

D. a(i), b(iii), c(ii)

Q. 89 Match the item in the column I with the column II (Given in the figure) and select the correct option given below:

A. a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

B. a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

C. a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)

D. a(iii), b(i), c(iv0, d(ii)

Q. 90 Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema , respectively.

A. inflammation of bronchioles, decreased respiratory surface

B. decreased respiratory surface, inflammation of bronchioles

C. increased respiratory surface, inflammation of bronchioles

D. increased number of bronchioles, increased respiratory surface

Q. 91 The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is

A. Pachytene

B. Zygotene

C. Diakinesis

D. Diplotene

Q. 92 Which of the following is true for nucleolus?

A. Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.

B. It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.

C. It takes part in spindle formation.

D. It is a membrane-bound structure.

Q. 93 Stomatal movement is not affected by

A. Temperature

B. CO₂ concentration

C. O₂ concentration

D. Light

Q. 94 Which among the following is not a prokaryote ?

A. Saccharomyces

B. Oscillatoria

C. Nostoc

D. Mycobacterium

Q. 95 Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis ?

A. ATP

B. Oxygen

C. NAPDH

D. NADH

Q. 96 Stomata in grass leaf are

A. Dumb-bell shaped

B. Barrel shaped

C. Rectangular

D. Kidney shaped

Q. 97 The Golgi complex participates in

A. Fatty acid breakdown

B. Activation of amino acid

C. Respiration in bacteria

D. Formation of secretory vesicles

Q. 98 The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are

A. hydroxyl and methyl

B. carbonyl and hydroxyl

C. carbonyl and phosphate

D. carbonyl and methyl

Q. 99 A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to

A. Co-667

B. Basmati

C. Lerma Rojo

D. Sharbati Sonora

Q. 100 Select the correct match:

A. Ribozyme – Nucleic acid

B. G. Mendel – Transformation

C. T.H. Morgan – Transduction

D. F₂ x Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross

Q. 101 Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes ?

A. Retrovirus

B. pBR 322

C. λ phage

D. Ti plasmid

Q. 102 In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is

A. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

B. Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)

C. Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)

D. Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)

Q. 103 The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is

A. Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

B. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

C. Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

D. Annealing, Extension, Denaturation

Q. 104 Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called

A. Bio-infringement

B. Bioexploitation

C. Biodegradation

D. Biopiracy

Q. 105 Winged pollen grains are present in

A. Mustard

B. Pinus

C. Mango

D. Cycas

Q. 106 After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in

A. Neurospora

B. Saccharomyces

C. Agaricus

D. Alternaria

Q. 107 Which one is wrongly matched ?

A. Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia

B. Unicellular organism – Chlorella

C. Gemma cups – Marchantia

D. Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae

Q. 108 Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II (Given in figure) and select the correct option given below:

A. a → i, b → iv, c → iii, d → ii

B. a → iii, b → iv, c → i, d → ii

C. a → ii, b → iv, c → iii, d → i

D. a → iii, b → ii, c → i, d → iv

Q. 109 What is the role of NAD⁺ in cellular respiration ?

A. It functions as an enzyme.

B. It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.

C. It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.

D. It functions as an electron carrier.

Q. 110 Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by

A. Green sulphur bacteria

B. Chara

C. Cycas

D. Nostoc

Q. 111 Double fertilization is

A. Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs

B. Syngamy and triple fusion

C. Fusion of two male gametes with one egg

D. Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei

Q. 112 In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants ?

A. Ferric

B. Both ferric and ferrous

C. Free element

D. Ferrous

Q. 113 Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells?

A. Magnesium

B. Calcium

C. Potassium

D. Sodium

Q. 114 Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other ?

A. Hydrilla

B. Voila

C. Banana

D. Yucca

Q. 115 Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
A. -120°C

B. -160°C

C. -196°C

D. -80°C

Q. 116 Niche can be defined as:

A. All the biological factors in the organism’s environment

B. The functional role played by the organism where it lives

C. The range of temperature that the organism needs to live

D. The physical space where an organism lives

Q. 117 Which of the following is a secondary pollutant ?

A. CO

B. O₃

C. SO₂

D. CO₂

Q. 118 World Ozone Day is celebrated on

A. 5th June

B. 22nd April

C. 16th September

D. 21st April

Q. 119 In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen ?

A. Carbon

B. Oxygen

C. Fe

D. Cl

Q. 120 What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data ?

Secondary consumer : 120 g

Primary consumer: 60 g

Primary producer: 10 g

A. Inverted pyramid of biomass

B. Upright pyramid of biomass

C. Upright pyramid of numbers

D. Pyramid of energy

Q. 121 Natality refers to

A. Death rate

B. Number of individuals entering a habitat

C. Number of individuals leaving a habitat

D. Birth rate

Q. 122 Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils ?

A. Pollenkitt

B. Sporopollenin

C. Oil Content

D. Cellulosic intine

Q. 123 Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?

A. Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles

B. T.H. Morgan : Linkage

C. XO type sex determination : Grasshopper

D. ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance

Q. 124 Select the correct match:

A. Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae

B. Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon

C. Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Pisum sativum

D. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – TMV

Q. 125 Which of the following flowers only once in its lifetime ?

A. Bamboo species

B. Papaya

C. Mango

D. Jackfruit

Q. 126 Select the correct statement:

A. Franklin Stahl coined the term “linkage”.

B. Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.

C. Spliceosomes take part in translation.

D. Punnett square was developed by a British scientist.

Q. 127 Offsets are produced by

A. Meiotic divisions

B. Parthenogenesis

C. Parthenocarpy

D. Mitotic divisions

Q. 128 The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a

A. Fungus

B. Virus

C. Plant

D. Bacterium

Q. 129 Select the wrong statement:

A. Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae.

B. Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera.

C. Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans.

D. Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.

Q. 130 Casparian strips occur in

A. Epidermis

B. Endodermis

C. Cortex

D. Pericycle

Q. 131 Which of the following statements is correct ?

A. Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms.

B. Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus.

C. Horsetails are gymnosperms.

D. Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous

Q. 132 Pneumatophores occur in

A. Halophytes

B. Submerged hydrophytes

C. Carnivorous plants

D. Free-floating hydrophytes

Q. 133 Sweet potato is a modified

A. Stem

B. Rhizome

C. Tap root

D. Adventitious root

Q. 134 Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by

A. Apical meristems

B. Axillary meristems

C. Phellogen

D. Vascular cambium

Q. 135 Plants having little or no secondary growth are

A. Grasses

B. Cycads

C. Conifers

D. Deciduous angiosperms

Q. 136 The power radiated by a black body is P and it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, λ0. If the temperature of the black body is now changed so that it radiates maximum energy at wavelength 3/4λ0 , the power radiated by it becomes nP.The value of n is

A. 3/4

B. 81/256

C. 256/81

D. 4/3

Q. 137 Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. The first wire has cross-sectional area A and the second wire has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first wire is increased by ΔI on applying a force F, how much force is needed to stretch the second wire by the same amount ?

A. 9 F

B. F

C. 4 F

D. 6 F

Q. 138 A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and normal pressure (1.013×10⁵ Nm⁻²) requires 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the sample, is

A. 104.3 J

B. 84.5 J

C. 42.2 J

D. 208.7 J

Q. 139 A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is proportional to

A. r³

B. r⁴

C. r⁵

D. r²

Q. 140 An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance h in a uniform and vertically upward directed electric field E. The direction of electric field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it through the same vertical distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of fall of the proton is

A. smaller

B. equal

C. 10 times greater

D. 5 times greater

Q. 141 A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s² at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is

A. 2 π s

B. 1 s

C. 2 s

D. π s

Q. 142 The electrostatic force between the metal plate of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having charge Q and area A, is

A. independent of the distance between the plates.

B. inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.

C. proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates.

D. linearly proportional to the distance between the plates.

Q. 143 A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in glass tube. The length of the air column in the tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of 27°C two successive resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27°C

A. 330 m/s

B. 300 m/s

C. 350 m/s

D. 339 m/s

Q. 144 The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom. is

A. 1 : 1

B. 1 : -2

C. 2 : -1

D. 1 : -1

Q. 145 When the light of frequency 2v0 (where v0 is threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted is v1. When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased to 5v0, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is

A. 1 : 2

B. 2 : 1

C. 4 : 1

D. 1 : 4

Q. 146 For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is

A. 20

B. 15

C. 30

D. 10

Q. 147 An electron of mass m with an initial velocity V⃗ =V₀î(V₀ > 0) enters an electric field E⃗ = −E₀î (E₀ = constant > 0) at t=0. If λ₀ is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-Broglie wavelength at time t is

A. λ₀/(1 + (eE₀/mV₀)t)

B. λ₀

C. λ₀t

D. λ₀(1 + (eE₀/mV₀)t)

Q. 148 An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 μF and a resistor 50 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in the circuit is

A. 0.79 W

B. 1.13 W

C. 2.74 W

D. 0.43 W

Q. 149 A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0.5 kg m⁻¹ is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing a current through it when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is acting on it in the vertical direction. The current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary is

A. 7.14 A

B. 11.32 A

C. 14.76 A

D. 5.98 A

Q. 150 A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the poles of an electromagnet. When the current in the electromagnet is switched on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains gravitational potential energy. The work required to do this comes from

A. the current source

B. the induced electric field due to the changing magnetic field

C. the lattice structure of the material of the rod

D. the magnetic field

Q. 151 Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is

A. 40 Ω

B. 500 Ω

C. 250 Ω

D. 25 Ω

Q. 152 A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling motion a body possesses translational kinetic energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy (Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is

A. 7 : 10

B. 2 : 5

C. 10 : 7

D. 5 : 7

Q. 153 The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are KA, KB and KC respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun S as shown in the figure. Then

A. KA < KB < KC

B. KB > KA > KC

C. KB < KA < KC

D. KA > KB > KC

Q. 154 If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller and the universal gravitational constant were ten times larger in magnitude, which of the following is not correct ?

A. Raindrops will fall faster

B. g’ on the Earth will not change

C. Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth would decrease.

D. Walking on the ground would become more difficult.

Q. 155 A solid sphere is rotating freely about its symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the sphere is increased keeping its mass same. Which of the following physical quantities would remain constant for the sphere ?

A. Angular velocity

B. Angular momentum

C. Rotational kinetic energy

D. Moment of inertia

Q. 156 Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane surface of a material of refractive index ′μ′. At a particular angle of incidence ′i′, it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. Which of the following options is correct for this situation ?

A. Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector parallel to the plane of incidence

B. i = tan⁻¹(1/μ)

C. i = sin⁻¹(1/μ)

D. Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence

Q. 157 In Young’s double slit experiment the separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength λ of the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe angular width to 0.21° (with same λ and D) the separation between the slits needs to be changed to

A. 1.8 mm

B. 1.7 mm

C. 2.1mm

D. 1.9 mm

Q. 158 An astronomical refracting telescope will have large angular magnification and high angular resolution, when it has an objective lens of

A. small focal length and large diameter

B. small focal length and small diameter

C. large focal length and large diameter

D. large focal length and small diameter

Q. 159 A carbon resistor of (47±4.7) kΩ is to be marked with rings of different colours for its identification. The colour code sequence will be

A. Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver

B. Green – Orange- Violet- Gold

C. Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold

D. Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver

Q. 160 A set of ‘n’ equal resistors, of value R each, are connected in series to a battery of emf E and internal resistance ‘R’ The current drawn is I. Now, the ‘n’ resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of ‘n’ is

A. 10

B. 9

C. 20

D. 11

Q. 161 A battery consists of a variable number ‘n’ of identical cells (having internal resistance ‘r’ each) which are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which of the graphs shows (among (1), (2), (3), (4)) the correct relationship between I and n ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 162 A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to

A. 3/2 D

B. 5/4 D

C. 7/5 D

D. D

Q. 163 Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with the same angular speed ω to about their own symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation

A. WC > WB > WA

B. WA > WC > WB

C. WB > WA > WC

D. WA > WB > WC

Q. 164 Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?

A. Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction

B. Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length

C. Frictional force opposes the relative motion

D. Limiting value of static friction is directly proportional to normal reactions

Q. 165 A moving block having mass m, collides with another stationary block having mass 4m. The lighter block comes to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be

A. 0.5

B. 0.4

C. 0.8

D. 0.25

Q. 166 An em wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity V⃗ = Vî. The instantaneous oscillating electric field of this em wave is along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of the em wave will be along :-

A. –z direction

B. –x direction

C. –y direction

D. +z direction

Q. 167 The refractive index of the material of a prism is √2 and the angle of the prism is 30°. One of the two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path (after reflection from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on the prism is :-

A. 60°

B. zero

C. 30°

D. 45°

Q. 168 The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance

A. 0.138 H

B. 13.89 H

C. 1.389 H

D. 138.88 H

Q. 169 An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the image will be:-

A. 30 cm away the mirror

B. 36 cm towards the mirror

C. 30 cm towards the mirror

D. 36 cm away the mirror

Q. 170 In the circuit shown in the figure, the input voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The values of IB, IC and β are given by :-

A. IB = 40 μA, IC = 10 mA, β = 250

B. IB = 40 μA, IC = 5 mA, β = 125

C. IB = 20 μA, IC = 5 mA, β = 250

D. IB = 25 μA, IC = 5 mA, β = 200

Q. 171 In a p-n junction diode , change in temperature due to heating

A. affects only reverse resistance

B. affects the overall V-I characteristics of p-n junction

C. does not affect resistance of p-n junction

D. affects only forward resistance

Q. 172 In the combination of the following gates output Y can be written in terms of input A and B as :

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 173 A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless horizontal plane surface under the influence of a uniform electric field E⃗ . Due to the force q E⃗ , its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At that instant the direction of the field is reversed. The car continues to move for two more seconds under the influence of this field. The average velocity and the average speed of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are respectively

A. 2 m/s , 4 m/s

B. 1.5 m/s , 3 m/s

C. 1 m/s , 3.5 m/s

D. 1 m/s , 3 m/s

Q. 174 A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination θ as shown in the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’ towards right .The relation between a and θ for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is

A. a= g/cosec θ

B. a= g tan θ

C. a= g cos θ

D. a= g/sin θ

Q. 175 A student measured the diameter of the small steel ball using the screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm .The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with 25 divisions above the reference level. If screw gauge has a zero error of -0.004 cm , the correct diameter of the ball is :

A. 0.521 cm

B. 0.529 cm

C. 0.053 cm

D. 0.525 cm

Q. 176 The moment of the force F = 4î + 5ĵ – 6k̂ at (2,0,-3) about the point (2, -2,-2) is given by

A. -8î – 4ĵ – 7k̂

B. -7î – 4ĵ – 8k̂

C. -7î – 8ĵ – 4k̂

D. -4î – ĵ – 8k̂

Q. 177 The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to state B, is

A. 2/5

B. 2/7

C. 1/3

D. 2/3

Q. 178 The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm , the length of the open organ pipe is :

A. 13.2 cm

B. 16 cm

C. 12.5 cm

D. 8 cm

Q. 179 The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is:

A. 26.8 %

B. 12.5%

C. 6.25%

D. 20%

Q. 180 At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient from escaping from Earth’s atmosphere?

Given: Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 x 10⁻²⁶ kg

Boltzmann’s constant kB = 1.38 x 10⁻²³ J K⁻¹)

A. 2.508 x 10⁴ K

B. 1.254 x 10⁴ K

C. 5.016 x 10⁴ K

D. 8.360 x 10⁴ K

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	B	D	A	C	C	B	B	A	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	C	A	A	A	D	D	B	A	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	D	C	A	B	C	C	D	B	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	D	A	B	A	B	B	D	A	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	B	A	C	D	D	A	B	B	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	D	A	B	A	C	C	D	A	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	D	D	B	C	A	C	A	B	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	D	B	D	B	D	B	A	C	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	B	B	B	D	B	A	A	D	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	B	C	A	D	A	D	B	B	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	B	B	D	B	C	A	B	D	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	A	C	D	C	B	B	C	D	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	D	B	A	B	A	D	D	D	C	B
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	A	A	D	D	A	C	A	D	C	A
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	D	A	D	D	A	A	A	A	B	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	D	D	B	B	D	D	C	D	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	B	A	B	D	D	D	B	D	B
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	B	D	D	B	B	B	A	A	A	D

NEET 2013 Previous Year Paper

NEET 2013

Section	Questions	Marks
Physics	45 Questions (1 – 45)	180
Chemistry	45 Questions (46 – 90)	180
Biology	90 Questions (91 – 180)	360

Q. 1 In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows : P = (a^3)(b^2)/cd. % error in P is —

A. 14%

B. 10%

C. 7%

D. 4%

Q. 2 The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is (2i + 3j) m/s. Its velocity (in m/s) at point B is —

A. – 2i – 3j

B. – 2i + 3j

C. 2i – 3j

D. 2i + 3j

Q. 3 A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances h1, h2 and h3 in the first 5 seconds, the next 5 seconds and the next 5 seconds respectively. The relation between h1, h2 and h3 is —

A. h1 = 2(h2) = 3(h3)

B. h1 = (h2)/3 = (h3)/5

C. h2 = 3(h1) and h3 = 3(h2)

D. h1 = h2 = h3

Q. 4 Three blocks with masses m, 2m and 3m are connected by strings, as shown in the figure. After an upward force F is applied on block m, the masses move upward at constant speed v. What is the net force on the block of mass 2m? (g is the acceleration due to gravity)

A. zero

B. 2 mg

C. 3 mg

D. 6 mg

Q. 5 The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination x is perfectly smooth while lower half is rough. A block starting from rest at the top of the plane will again come to rest at the bottom, if the coefficient of friction between the block and lower half of the plane is given by —

A. 1/tan(x)

B. 2/tan(x)

C. 2tan(x)

D. tan(x)

Q. 6 A uniform force of (3i + j) newton acts on a particle of mass 2kg. Hence the particle is displaced from position (2i + k) meter to position (4i + 3j – k) meter. The work done by the force on the particle is —

A. 9 J

B. 6 J

C. 13 J

D. 15 J

Q. 7 An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal plane. Two of them go off at right angles to each other. The first part of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 12 m/s and the second part of mass 2 kg moves with 8 m/s speed. If the third part flies off with 4 m/s speed, then its mass is —

A. 3 kg

B. 5 kg

C. 7 kg

D. 17 kg

Q. 8 A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end P. The rod is kept horizontal by a massless string tied to point Q as shown in figure. When string is cut, the initial angular acceleration of the rod is —

A. 3g/2L

B. g/L

C. 2g/L

D. 2g/3L

Q. 9 A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity ‘v’. It reaches upto a maximum height of 3v^2/4g with respect to the initial position. The object is —

A. Ring

B. Solid sphere

C. Hollow sphere

D. Disc

Q. 10 A body of mass ‘m’ is taken from the earth’s surface to the height equal to twice the radius (R) of the earth. The change in potential energy of body will be —

A. mg2R

B. (2/3)mgR

C. 3mgR

D. (1/3)mgR

Q. 11 Infinite number of bodies, each of mass 2 kg are situated on x-axis at distances 1 m, 2 m, 4 m, 8 m, respectively, from the origin. The resulting gravitational potential due to this system at the origin will be —

A. -G

B. -8/3 G

C. -4/3 G

D. -4G

Q. 12 The following four wires are made of the same material. Which of these will have the largest extension when the same tension is applied?

A. length = 50 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm

B. length = 100 cm, diameter = 1 mm

C. length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm

D. length = 300 cm, diameter = 3 mm

Q. 13 The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on —

A. viscosity

B. surface tension

C. density

D. angle of contact between the surface and the liquid

Q. 14 The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by C and c, respectively. If ratio of specific heats = C/c and R is the universal gas constant, then c is equal to —

A. 1+(ratio of specific heats)/1-(ratio of specific heats)

B. R/[(ratio of specific heats)-1]

C. [(ratio of specific heats)-1]/R

D. (ratio of specific heats)R

Q. 15 A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow and finally turns to white hot. The correct explanation for the above observation is possible by using —

A. Stefan’s law

B. Wien’s displacement law

C. Kirchoff’s law

D. Newton’s law of cooling

Q. 16 A gas is taken through the cycle A —> B —> C —> A, as shown. What is the network done by the gas?

A. 2000 J

B. 1000 J

C. zero

D. -2000 J

Q. 17 During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its temperature. The ratio of Cp/Cv for the gas is —

A. 4/3

B. 2

C. 5/3

D. 3/2

Q. 18 In the given (V – T) diagram, what is the relation between pressures P1 and P2?

A. P2 = P1

B. P2 > P1

C. P2 < P1

D. cannot be predicted

Q. 19 The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 g of Helium at NTP, from (T1)K to (T2)K is —

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 20 A wave travelling in the +ve x-direction having displacement along y-direction as 1 m, wavelength 2(pi)m and frequency of 1/pi Hz is represented by —

A. y = sin(x – 2t)

B. y = sin(2pix – 2(pi)t)

C. y = sin(10(pi)x – 20(pi)t)

D. y = sin(2(pi)x + 2(pi)t)

Q. 21 If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends, then the following statement is not true —

A. Open end will be antinode

B. Odd harmonies of the fundamental frequency will be generated

C. All harmonies of the fundamental frequency will be generated

D. Pressure change will be maximum at both ends

Q. 22 A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s, when sounded with a source of known frequency 250 Hz. The second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives five beats per second, when sounded with a source of frequency 513 Hz. The unknown frequency is —

A. 254 Hz

B. 246 Hz

C. 240 Hz

D. 260 Hz

Q. 23 Two pith balls carrying equal charges are suspended from a common point by strings of equal length, the equilibrium separation between them is r. Now the strings are rigidly clamped at half the height. The equilibrium separation between the balls now become —

A. (1/root of 2)^2

B. (r/cube root of 2)

C. (2r/root of 3)

D. (2r/3)

Q. 24 A, B and C are three points in a uniform electric field. The electric potential is —

A. maximum at A

B. maximum at B

C. maximum at C

D. same at all the three points A, B and C

Q. 25 A wire of resistance 4 ohm is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of stretched wire would be —

A. 2 ohm

B. 4 ohm

C. 8 ohm

D. 16 ohm

Q. 26 he internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 0.2A through a resistance of 10 ohm is —

A. 0.2 ohm

B. 0.5 ohm

C. 0.8 ohm

D. 1.0 ohm

Q. 27 The resistances of the four arms P, Q, R and S in a Wheatstone’s bridge are 10 ohm, 30 ohm, 30 ohm and 90 ohm, respectively. The e.m.f and internal resistance of the cell are 7 volt and 5 ohm respectively. If the galvanometer resistance is 50 ohm, the current drawn from the cell will be —

A. 1.0 A

B. 0.2 A

C. 0.1 A

D. 2.0 A

Q. 28 When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration a towards west . When it is projected towards north with a speed v it moves with an initial accelration 3a toward west. The electric and magnetic fields in the room are —

A. ma/e west, 2ma/ev up

B. ma/e west, 2ma/ev down

C. ma/e east, 3ma/ev up

D. ma/e east, 3ma/ev down

Q. 29 A current loop in a magnetic field —

A. experiences a torque whether the field is uniform or non-uniform in all orientations

B. can be in equilibrium in one orientation

C. can be in equilibrium in two orientations, both the equilibrium states are unstable

D. can be in equilibrium in two orientations, one stable while the other is unstable

Q. 30 A bar magnet of length ‘l”and magnetic dipole moment ‘M’ is bent in the form of an arc as shown in figure. The new magnetic dipole moment will be —

A. M

B. 3/pi M

C. 2/pi M

D. M/2

Q. 31 A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field. The frequency of change of direction of the induced e.m.f. is —

A. once per revolution

B. twice per revolution

C. four times per revolution

D. six times per revolution

Q. 32 A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of the bulb decreases when —

A. frequency of the AC source is decreased

B. number of turns in the coil is reduced

C. a capacitance of reactance X of C = X of L is included in the same circuit

D. an iron rod is inserted in the coil

Q. 33 The condition under which a microwave oven heats up a food item containing water molecules most efficiently is —

A. The frequency of the microwaves must match the resonant frequency of water molecules

B. The frequency of the microwaves has no relation with natural frequency of water molecules

C. Microwaves are heat waves, so always produce heating

D. Infra-red waves produce heating in a microwave oven

Q. 34 Ratio of longest wave lengths corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is —

A. 5/27

B. 3/23

C. 7/29

D. 9/31

Q. 35 The half-life of a radioactive isotope ‘X’ is 20 years. It decays to another element ‘Y’ which is stable. The two elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’ were found to be in the ratio 1:7 in a sample of a given rock. The age of the rock is estimated to be —

A. 40 years

B. 60 years

C. 80 years

D. 100 years

Q. 36 A certain mass of Hydrogen is changed to Helium by the process of fusion. The mass defect in fusion reaction is 0.02866 u. The energy liberated per u is — (Given 1 u = 931 MeV)

A. 2.67 MeV

B. 26.7 MeV

C. 6.675 MeV

D. 13.35 MeV

Q. 37 For photoelectric emission from certain metal the cutoff frequency is v/ If radiation of frequency 2v impinges on the metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted electron will be (m is the electron mass) —

A. Root of (hv/2m)

B. Root of (hv/m)

C. Root of (2hv/m)

D. 2[root of (hv/m)]

Q. 38 The wavelength of an electron and wavelength of a photon of same energy E are related by —

A. Wavelength of photon is proportional to (wavelength of electron)^2

B. Wavelength of photon is proportional to wavelength of electron

C. Wavelength of photon is proportional to root of wavelength of electron

D. Wavelength of photon is proportional to 1/(root of wavelength of electron)

Q. 39 A piano convex lens fits exactly into a piano concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other. If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices u1 and u2 and R is the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of the combination is —

A. R/2(u1 + u2)

B. R/2(u1 – u2)

C. R/(u1 – u2)

D. 2R/(u2 u1)

Q. 40 For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a converging power of 40D and the least converging power of the ye lens h=behind the cornea is 20D. Using this information, the distance between the retina and the cornea-eye lens can be estimated to be —

A. 5 cm

B. 2.5 cm

C. 1.67 cm

D. 1.5 cm

Q. 41 In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths 12000 A and 10000 A respectively. At what minimum distance from the common central bright fringe on the screen 2m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other?

A. 8 mm

B. 6 mm

C. 4 mm

D. 3 mm

Q. 42 A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased, which of the following statements is correct?

A. Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the case of electrons

B. The angular width of the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will increase

C. The angular width of the central maximum will decrease

D. The angular width of the central maximum will be unaffected

Q. 43 In a n-type semiconductor, which of the following statements is true —

A. Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants

B. Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants

C. Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants

D. Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants

Q. 44 In a common emitter (CE) amplifier having a voltage gain G, the transistor used has transconductance 0.03 ho and current gain 25. If the above transistor is replaced with another one with transconductance 0.02 mho and current gain 20, the voltage gain will be —

A. 2/3 G

B. 1.5 G

C. 1/3 G

D. 5/4 G

Q. 45 The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure will be —

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 46 The value of Planck’s constant is 6.63 x 10^(-34) Js. The speed of light is 3 x 10^17 nm/s. Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light with frequency of 6 x 10^15/s?

A. 10

B. 25

C. 50

D. 75

Q. 47 What is the maximum number of electrons that can be associated with the following set of numbers?

n = 3, l = 1 and m = -1

A. 10

B. 6

C. 4

D. 2

Q. 48 What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised from 20 degrees C to 35 degrees C? (R = 8.314 J/molK)

A. 342 kJ/mol

B. 269 kJ/mol

C. 34.7 kJ/mol

D. 15.1 kJ/mol

Q. 49 A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping platinum wire in a solution of HCl of pH = 10 and by passing hydrogen gas around the platinum wire at one atm pressure. The oxidation potential of electrode would be?

A. 0.059 V

B. 0.59 V

C. 0.118 V

D. 1.18 V

Q. 50 A reaction having equal energies of activation for forward and reverse reactions has —

A. Change in S = 0

B. Change in G = 0

C. Change in H = 0

D. Change in H = Change in G = Change in S = 0

Q. 51 At 25 degrees C, molar conductance of 0.1 molar aqueous solution of ammonium hydroxide is 9.54 (ohm)^-1 (cm)^2 (mol)^-1 and at infinite dilution its molar conductance is 238 (ohm)^-1 (cm)^2 (mol)^-1 . The degree of ammonium hydroxide at the same concentration and temperature is —

A. 2.080%

B. 20.800%

C. 4.008%

D. 40.800%

Q. 52 Based on equation E = -2.178 x 10^18J(Z^2/n^2), certain conclusions are written. Which of them is not correct?

A. The negative sign in equation simply means that the energy of electron bound to the nucleus is lower than it would be if the electrons were at the infinite distance from the nucleus.

B. Larger the value of n, the larger is the orbit radius.

C. Equation can be used to calculate the change in energy when the electron changes orbit.

D. For n = 1, the electron has a more negative energy than it does for n = 6 which means that the electron is more loosely bound in the smallest allowed orbit.

Q. 53 A button cell used in watches functions as following.

The cell potential will be —

A. 1.10 V

B. 0.42 V

C. 0.84 V

D. 1.34 V

Q. 54 How many grams of concentrated nitric acid solutions should be used to prepare 250 mL of 2.0 M HNO3? The concentrated acid is 70% HNO3.

A. 45.0 g conc. HNO3

B. 90.0 g conc. HNO3

C. 70.0 g conc. HNO3

D. 54.0 g conc. HNO3

Q. 55 The number of carbon atoms per unit cell of diamond unit cell is —

A. 4

B. 8

C. 6

D. 1

Q. 56 Maximum deviation from ideal gas is expected from :

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 57 A metal has a fee lattice. The edge length of the unit cell is 404 pm. The density of the metal is 2.72 g cm^-1. The molar mass of the metal is :

[Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 x 10^23 mol^-1]

A. 40 g mol^-1

B. 30 g mol^-1

C. 27 g mol^-1

D. 20 g mol^-1

Q. 58 Dipole-induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs :

A. H20 and alcohol

B. Cl2 and CCl4

C. HCl and He atoms

D. SiF4 and He atoms

Q. 59 A magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be shown by one among the following –

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 60 Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a byproduct. This is colorless gas with choking smell of burnt sulphur and causes great damage to respiratory organs as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous solution is acidic , acts as a reducing agent and its acid has never been isolated. The gas X is —

A. H2S

B. SO2

C. CO2

D. SO3

Q. 61 Which is the strongest acid in the following?

A. H2SO4

B. HClO3

C. HClO4

D. H2SO3

Q. 62 Which of the following is paramagnetic?

A. CO

B. O2^-

C. CN^-

D. NO^+

Q. 63 Which of the following structure is similar to graphite?

A. BN

B. B

C. B4C

D. B2H6

Q. 64 The basic structural unit of silicates is —

A. SiO^-

B. SiO4^4-

C. SiO3^2-

D. SiO4^2-

Q. 65 Reaction by which Benzaldehyde cannot be prepared —

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 66 Which of the following does not give oxygen on heating?

A. KClO3

B. Zn(ClO3)2

C. K2Cr2O7

D. (NH4)2Cr2O7

Q. 67 Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic? (At. No. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Yb = 70)

A. Ce^2+

B. Sm^2+

C. Eu^2+

D. Yb^2+

Q. 68 Identify the correct order of solubility in aqueous medium —

A. CuS > ZnS > Na2S

B. ZnS > Na2S > CuS

C. Na2S > CuS > ZnS

D. Na2S > ZnS > CuS

Q. 69 XeF2 is isostructural with —

A. TeF2

B. ICl2^-

C. SbCl3

D. BaCl2

Q. 70 An excess of AgNo3 is added to 100mL of a 0.01 M solution of dichlorotetra aquachrominum (III) chloride. The number of moles of AgCl precipitated

would be —

A. 0.001

B. 0.002

C. 0.003

D. 0.01

Q. 71 Which of these is least likely to act as a Lewis base?

A. CO

B. F^-

C. BF3

D. PF3

Q. 72 KMnO4 can be prepared from K2MnO4 as per the given reaction.

The reaction can go to completion by removing OH^- ions by adding —

A. HCl

B. KOH

C. CO2

D. SO2

Q. 73 Which of the following is electron-deficient?

A. (CH3)2

B. (SiH3)2

C. (BH3)2

D. PH3

Q. 74 Structure of the compound whose IUPAC name is 3-Ethyl-2hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5- ynoic acid is —

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 75 Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicone polymer?

A. MeSiCl3

B. Me2SiCl2

C. Me3SiCl

D. PhSiCl3

Q. 76 Which of the following statements about the interstitial compounds is incorrect?

A. They retain metallic conductivity

B. They are chemically reactive

C. They are much harder than the pure metal

D. They have higher melting points than the pure metal

Q. 77 Which one of the following molecules contains no pi bond?

A. CO2

B. H2O

C. SO2

D. NO2

Q. 78 Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microrganisms. Identify which of the following statements is not true —

A. A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1% solution acts as a disinfectant

B. Chlorine and Iodine are used as strong disinfectants

C. Dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics

D. Disinfectants harm the living tissues

Q. 79 Among the following ethers, which one will produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot concentrated HI?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 80 Nylon is an example of —

A. Polyester

B. Polysaccharide

C. Polyamide

D. Polythene

Q. 81 The structure of isobutyl group in an organic compound is —

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 82 Nitrobenzene on reaction with conc. HNO3/H2SO4 at 80-100 degrees C forms which one of the following products?

A. 1,2-Dinitrobenzene

B. 1,3-Dinitrobenzene

C. 1,4-Dinitrobenzene

D. 1,2,4-Trinitrobenzene

Q. 83 Some meta-directing substitution in aromatic substitution are given. Which one is most deactivating?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 84 6.02 x 10^20 molecules of urea are present in 100mL of its solution. The concentration of solution is —

A. 0.02 M

B. 0.01 M

C. 0.001 M

D. 0.1 M

Q. 85 Which of the following is a polar molecule?

A. BF3

B. SF4

C. SiF4

D. XeF4

Q. 86 Which is the monomer of Neoprene in the following?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 87 In the reaction, A is —

A. HgSO4/H2SO4

B. Cu2Cl2

C. H3PO2 and H2O

D. H^+/H2O

Q. 88 The given radical is aromatic because it has —

A. 6 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons

B. 7 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons

C. 7 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons

D. 6 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons

Q. 89 The order of stability of the following tautomeric compounds is —

A. I>II>III

B. III>II>I

C. II>I>III

D. II>III>I

Q. 90 Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedal-Craft reaction easily —

A. Cumene

B. Xylene

C. Nitrobenzene

D. Toluene

Q. 91 Select the wrong statement:

A. Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour

B. Anisogametes differ either in structure, function of behaviour

C. In Oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-motile

D. Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy

Q. 92 Which one of the following is not a correct statement?

A. Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens

B. Botanical gardens have collection of living plants for reference

C. A museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals

D. Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of specimens

Q. 93 Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in:

A. Chlamydomonas

B. Spirogyra

C. Volvox

D. Fucus

Q. 94 Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria are also found inside vegetative part of:

A. Pinus

B. Cycus

C. Equisetum

D. Psilotum

Q. 95 Megasporangium is equivalent to :

A. Embryo sac

B. Fruit

C. Nucellus

D. Ovule

Q. 96 Read the following (A-E) and answer the question which follows them :

(A) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free-living

(B) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous

(D) The sporophytes in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses

(E) Both, Pinus and Marchentia are dioecious

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

Q. 97 Among bitter gourd, mustard, brinjal, pumpkin, china rose, lupin, cucumber, sunnhemp, gram, guava, bean, chilli, plum, petunia, tomato, rose, withania, potato, onion, aloe and tulip how many plants have hypogynous flower?

A. Six

B. Ten

C. Fifteen

D. Eighteen

Q. 98 Interfascicular cambium develops from the cells of :

A. Medullary rays

B. Xylem parenchyma

C. Endodermis

D. Pericycle

Q. 99 In china rose the flowers are :

A. Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation

B. Actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate aestivation

C. Zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate aestivation

D. Zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation

Q. 100 Lenticels are involved in

A. Transpiration

B. Gaseous exchange

C. Food transport

D. Photosynthesis

Q. 101 Age of a tree can be estimated by :

A. Its height and girth

B. Biomass

C. Number of annual rings

D. Diameter of its heartwood

Q. 102 Seed coat is not thin membranous in :

A. Maize

B. Coconut

C. Groundnut

D. Gram

Q. 103 Transition state structure of the substate formed during an enzymatic reaction is

A. Transient but stable

B. Permanent but unstable

C. Transient and unstable

D. Permanent and stable

Q. 104 A phosphoglyceride is always made up of :

A. Only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached

B. Only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached

C. A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached

D. A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is also attached to a glycerol molecule

Q. 105 Pigment-containing membranous extensions in some cyanobacteria are

A. Heterocysts

B. Basal bodies

C. Pneumatophores

D. Chromatophores

Q. 106 A major site for synthesis of lipids is :

A. RER

B. SER

C. Symplast

D. Nucleoplasm

Q. 107 The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called :

A. Equatorial plate

B. Kinetochore

C. Bivalent

D. Axoneme

Q. 108 The three boxes in this diagram represent thee three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic respiration. Arrows represent net reactants or products.

Arrows numbered 4, 8, and 12 can all be

A. NADH

B. ATP

C. H2O

D. FAD^+ or FADH2

Q. 109 The most abundant intracellular cation is :

A. Na^+

B. Ca^++

C. H^+

D. K^+

Q. 110 During seed germination its stored food is mobilized by :

A. Ethylene

B. Cytokinin

C. ABA

D. Gibberellin

Q. 111 Which of the following criteria does not pertain to facilitated transport?

A. Requirement of special membrane proteins

B. High selectivity

C. Transport saturation

D. Uphill transport

Q. 112 The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants is :

A. NO2^-

B. Ammonia

C. NO3^-

D. Glutamate

Q. 113 Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?

A. Glucose-6-phosphate

B. Fructose1, 6-bisphosphate

C. Pyruvic acid

D. Acetyl CoA

Q. 114 Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine

B. Sporogenous tissue is haploid

C. Endothecium produces the mocrosphores

D. Tapetum nourishes the devloping pollen

Q. 115 Product of sexual reproduction generally generates :

A. Longer viability of seeds

B. Prolonged dormancy

C. New genetic combination leading to variation

D. Large biomass

Q. 116 Meiosis takes place in :

A. Meiocyte

B. Conidia

C. Gemmule

D. Megaspore

Q. 117 Advantage of cleistogamy is :

A. Higher genetic variability

B. More vigorous offspring

C. No dependence on pollinators

D. Vivipary

Q. 118 Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of :

A. Antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant

B. Stamen and carpel on the same plant

C. Upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant

D. Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant

Q. 119 Perisperm differs from endosperm in :

A. Being a haploid tissue

B. Having no reserve food

C. Being a diploid tissue

D. Its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with several sperms

Q. 120 Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50% recombination frequency?

A. The genes may be on different chromosomes

B. The genes are tightly linked

C. The genes show independent assortment

D. If the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than one crossovers in every meiosis.

Q. 121 Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is referred to as :

A. Genetic flow

B. Genetic drift

C. Random mating

D. Genetic load

Q. 122 If two persons with ‘AB’ blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of children, these children could be classified as ‘A’ blood group : ‘AB’ blood group : ‘B’ blood group in 1:2:1 ratio. Modern technique of protein electrophoresis reveals presence of both ‘A’ and “B’ type proteins in ‘AB’ blood group individuals. This is an example of :

A. Codominance

B. Incomplete dominance

C. Partial dominance

D. Complete dominance

Q. 123 The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge is called :

A. Natural selection

B. Convergent evolution

C. Non-random evolution

D. Adaptive radiation

Q. 124 The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by :

A. random mating

B. lack of migration

C. lack of mutations

D. lack of random mating

Q. 125 Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers?

A. Maize

B. Cotton

C. Brinjal

D. Soybean

Q. 126 A good product of citric acid is :

A. Aspergillus

B. Pseudomonas

C. Clostridium

D. Saccharomyces

Q. 127 DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by :

A. Centrifugation

B. Polymerase chain reaction

C. Electrophoresis

D. Restriction mapping

Q. 128 Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme?

A. Bacteria-Lysozyme

B. Plant cells- Cellulase

C. Algae-Methylase

D. Fungi – Chitinase

Q. 129 The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of nonrecombinant bacteria because of :

A. Non-recombinant bacteria containing betagalactosidase

B. Insertional inactivation of alphagalactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria

C. Insertional inactivation of alphagalactosidase in recombinant bacteria

D. Inactivation of glycosidase in recombinant bacteria

Q. 130 Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water?

A. Archaebacteria

B. Eubacteria

C. Blue-green algae

D. Saprophytic fungi

Q. 131 Natural reservoir of phosphorus is :

A. Sea water

B. Animal bones

C. Rock

D. Fossils

Q. 132 Secondart productivity is rate of formation of new organic matter by :

A. Producer

B. Parasite

C. Consumer

D. Decomposer

Q. 133 Which one of the following is not used for ex situ plant conservation?

A. Field gene banks

B. Seed banks

C. Shifting cultivation

D. Botanical Gardens

Q. 134 Kyoto-Protocol was endorsed at :

A. CoP-3

B. CoP-5

C. CoP-6

D. CoP-4

Q. 135 Which of the following represent maximum number of species among global biodiversity?

A. Algae

B. Lichens

C. Fungi

D. Mosses and Ferns

Q. 136 Match the name of the animal, with one characteristic, and the phylum/class to which it belongs :

A. Petromyson – ectroparasite – Cyclostomata

B. Ichthyophis – terrestrial – Reptilia

C. Limulus – body covered by chitinous exoskeleton – Pisces

D. Adamsia – radially symmetrical – Porifera

Q. 137 Which of the following are correctly matched with respect of their taxonomic classification?

A. Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish – Pisces

B. Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion – Insecta

C. House fly, butterfly, tsetsefly, silverfish – Insecta

D. Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumber-Echinodermata

Q. 138 Which group of animals belong to the same phylum?

A. Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito

B. Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm

C. Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta

D. Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish

Q. 139 One of the representatives of Phylum Arthropoda is :

A. cuttlefish

B. silverfish

C. pufferfish

D. flying fish

Q. 140 The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to —

A. the absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band

B. the central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band

C. the central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the Aband

D. extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band

Q. 141 What external changes are visible after the last moult of a cockroach nymph?

A. Mandibles become harder

B. Anal cerci develop

C. Both fore wings and hind wings develop

D. Labium develops

Q. 142 The Golgi complex plays a major role :

A. in trapping the light and transforming it into chemical energy

B. in digensting proteins and carbohydrattes

C. as energy transferring organelles

D. in post translational modification of proteins and glycosidation of lipids

Q. 143 Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function?

A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of glycoproteins

B. Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis

C. Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids

D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis

Q. 144 Macro molecule chitin is :

A. nitrogen containing polysaccharide

B. phosphorus containing polysaccharide

C. sulphur containing polysaccharide

D. simple polysaccharide

Q. 145 The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are :

A. Proteins

B. Nucleic acids

C. Carbohydrates

D. Vitamins

Q. 146 A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct identification of the stage with its characteristics.

A. Telophase – nuclear envelop reforms, golgi complex reforms

B. Late anaphase – chromosomes move away from equatorial plate, golgi complex not present

C. Cytokinesis – cell plate formed, mitochondria distributed between two daughter cells

D. Telophase – endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus not reformed yet

Q. 147 Select the correct match of the digested products in humans with their absorption site and mechanism.

Column I	Column II
(1)	Glycine, glucose	Small intestine, active
(2)	Fructose, Na*	Small instestine, passive absorption
(3)	Glycerol, fatty acids	Duodemum, move as chilomicrons
(4)	Cholesterol, maltose	Large intestine, active absorption

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 148 A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin.

This is the result of :

A. Deficiency of iodine in diet

B. Low secretion of growth hormone

C. Cancer of the thyroid gland

D. Over secretion of pars distalis

Q. 149 The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D. Select the option which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic.

A. A-trachea long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air

B. B-pleural membrane — surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing.

C. C-Alveoli — thin walled vascular bag like structures for exchange of gases.

D. D-Lower end of lungs — diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration.

Q. 150 Figure shows schematic plant of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Identify the label and give its function/s.

A. A-Pulmonary vein — takes impure blood from body parts, PO2 = 60 mm Hg

B. B-Pulmonary artery — takes blood from heart to lungs, PO2 = 90 mm Hg

C. C-Vena Cava — takes blood from body parts to right auricle, PCO2 = 45 mm Hg

D. D-Dorsal aorta — takes blood from heart to body parts, PO2 = 95 mm Hg

Q. 151 The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the :

A. Contraction of both the atria

B. Initiation of the ventricular contraction

C. Beginning of the systole

D. End of systole

Q. 152 Figure shows human urinary system with structures labeled A to D. Select option which correctly identifies them and given their characteristics and/or functions.

A. A-Adrenal gland-located at the anterior part of Kidney. Secrete Catecholamines which stimulate glycogen breakdown

B. B-Pelvis= broad funnel shaped space inner to hilum, directly connected to loops of Henle.

C. C-Medulla-inner zone of kidney and contains complete nephrons.

D. D-Cortex-outer part of kidney and do not contain any part of nephrons.

Q. 153 Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans :

A. A decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people.

B. Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation

C. The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae.

D. The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint.

Q. 154 The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is :

A. Fluid cartilage between two bones, limited movements — Knee joint

B. Fluid filled between two joints, provide cushion — Skull bones

C. Fluid filled synovial cavity between two bones — Joint between atlas and axis

D. Lymph filled between two bones, limited movement — Gilding joint between carpals

Q. 155 A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly at least two of AD.

A. A-Receptor ; C-Synaptic vesicles

B. B-Synaptic connection ; D-K^+

C. A-Neurotransmitter ; B-Synaptic cleft

D. C-Neurotransmitter ; D-Ca^++

Q. 156 Parts A, B, C and D of the human eye are shown in the diagram. Select the option which gives correct identification along with its functions/characteristics :

A. A-Retina-contains photo receptors-rods and cones

B. B-Blind spot-has only a few rods and cones

C. C-Aqueous chamber-reflects the light which does not pass through the lens

D. D-choroid-its anterior part forms ciliary body

Q. 157 Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the endocrine system?

A. Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus

B. Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any hormones

C. Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amount that act as intercellular messenger are known as hormones

D. Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland

Q. 158 Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its function/deficiency symptom :

A. Anterior pituitary — Oxytocin — Stimulates uterus contraction during child birth

B. Posterior pituitary — Growth Hormone (GH) — Oversecretion stimulates abnormal growth

C. Thyroid gland — Thyroxine — Lack of iodine in diet results in goitre

D. Corpus luteum — Testosterone — stimulates spermatogenesis

Q. 159 What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?

A. Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatozoa

B. Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatozoa, spermatid

C. Spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatocyte, spermatid

D. Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa

Q. 160 Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of :

A. Progesterone

B. FSH

C. Oxytocin

D. Vasopressin

Q. 161 Which one of the following is not the function of placenta? It :

A. facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo

B. secretes estrogen

C. Facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo

D. Secretes oxytocin during parturition

Q. 162 One of the legal methods of birth control is :

A. abortion by taking an appropriate medicine

B. by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle

C. by having coitus at the time of day break

D. by a premature ejaculation during coitus

Q. 163 Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?

A. Klinefelter syndrome

B. Sex of the foetus

C. Down syndrome

D. jaundice

Q. 164 Artificial insemination means “

A. transfer of sperms pf a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova

B. transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova

C. artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina

D. introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary

Q. 165 Which mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the parents?

A. incomplete dominance

B. law of dominance

C. inheritance of one gene

D. co-dominance

Q. 166 The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is :

A. It is a sex-linked disease

B. It is a recessive disease

C. It is a dominant disease

D. A single protein involved int eh clotting of blood is affected

Q. 167 If both parents are carriers for thalessemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?

A. no chance

B. 50%

C. 25%

D. 100%

Q. 168 The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to C.

A. A-transcription, B-replication, C-James Watson

B. A-translation, B-transcription, C-Erevin Chargaff

C. A-transcription, B-translation, C-Francis Crick

D. A-translation, B-extension, C-Rosalind Franklin

Q. 169 Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a non-sense in the lac Y gene?

A. b-galactosidase

B. Lactose permease

C. Transacetylase

D. Lactose permease and transacetylase

Q. 170 According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to —

A. Intraspecific competition

B. Interspecific competition

C. Competition within closely related species

D. Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species

Q. 171 The ye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an example of :

A. Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

B. Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution

C. Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

D. Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution

Q. 172 Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by :

A. drinking water containing eggs of Adcaris

B. eating imperefectly cooked pork

C. Tse-tse fly

D. mosquito bite

Q. 173 The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by :

A. T-lymphocytes

B. B-lymphocytes

C. Thrombocytes

D. Erythrocytes

Q. 174 In plant breeding programmes, the entire collection (of plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called :

A. selection of superior recombinants

B. cross-hybridisation among the selected parents

C. evaluation and selection of parents

D. germplasm collection

Q. 175 During sewage treatment, biogases are produced which include :

A. methane, hydrogensulphide, carbon dioxide

B. methane, oxygen, hydrogensulphide

C. hydrogensulphode, methane, sulphur dioxide

D. hydrogensulphide nitrogen, methane

Q. 176 A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn, he found that the average natality was 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is :

A. 10

B. 15

C. 05

D. zero

Q. 177 Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described?

A. Frangmentation – carried out by organisms such as earthworm

B. Humification – Leads o the accumuation of a dark coloured substance humus which undergoes microbial action at a very fast rate

C. Catabolism – Last step in he decomposition under fully amaerobic condition

D. Leaching – Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the top layers of soil

Q. 178 A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell lining of hermit crab. The association is :

A. Ectoparasitism

B. Symbiosis

C. Commensalism

D. Amensalism

Q. 179 Global warming can be controlled Y :

A. Reducing deforestation, cutting down use fossil fuels

B. Reducing deforestation, increasing the use of fossil fuel

C. Increasing deforestation, slowing down the growth of human population

D. Increasing deforestation, reducing efficiency of energy usage

Q. 180 The Air Prevention and Control of Pollution act came into force in

A. 1975

B. 1981

C. 1985

D. 1990

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	C	B	A	C	A	B	A	D	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	A	D	B	B	B	D	C	A	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	A	B	B	D	B	B	B	D	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	D	A	A	B	C	C	A	C	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	C	C	A	C	C	D	C	B	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	D	A	A	B	D	C	C	A	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	B	A	B	D	D	D	D	B	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	C	C	B	C	B	B	B	C	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	D	B	D	B	B	C	C	A	B	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	C	B	B	D	C	C	A	A	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	C	D	C	C	D	B	C	B	D	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	D	B	C	D	C	A	C	D	C	B
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	A	B	D	B	A	C	C	C	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	C	C	C	A	C	A	C	C	B	C
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	D	D	A	D	A	A	A	C	C
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	A	A	B	C	A	A	C	C	D	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	D	A	D	C	B	C	C	C	A	B
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	C	A	A	D	A	D	A	B	A	B

NEET 2016 Phase-II Previous Year Paper

NEET 2016 Phase-II

Section	Questions	Marks
Physics	45 Questions (1 – 45)	180
Chemistry	45 Questions (46 – 90)	180
Biology	90 Questions (91 – 180)	360

Q. 1 Planck’s constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) and Newton’s gravitational constant (G) are three fundamental constants. Which of the following combinations of these has the dimension of length?

A. √(hG)/c^(3/2)

B. √hG/c^(5/2)

C. √(hc/G)

D. √Gc/h^(3/2)

Q. 2 Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same time in a straight line and their positions are represented by xP(t) = at + bt² and xQ(t) = ft – t². At what time do the cars have the same velocity?

A. (a – f)/(1 + b)

B. (a + f)/(2b – 1)

C. (a + f)/(21 + b)

D. (f – a)/(2 + 2b)

Q. 3 In the given figure, a = 15 m/s² represents the total acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise direction in a circle of radius R = 2.5 m at a given instant of time. The speed of the particle is

A. 4.5 m/s

B. 5.0 m/s

C. 5.7 m/s

D. 6.2 m/s

Q. 4 A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at 60⁰ and gets reflected without loss of speed as shown in the figure below. The value of impulse imparted by the wall on the ball will be

Image result for A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at 60â° and gets reflected without loss of speed as shown in the figure below. The value of impulse imparted by the wall on the ball will be

A. mV

B. 2mV

C. mV/2

D. mV/3

Q. 5 A bullet of mass 10 g moving horizontally with a velocity of 400 m/s strikes a wooden block of mass 2 kg which is suspended by a light inextensible string of length 5 m. As a result, the centre of gravity of the block is found to rise a vertical distance of 10 cm. The speed of the bullet after it emerges out horizontally from the block will be

A. 100 m/s

B. 80 m/s

C. 120 m/s

D. 160 m/s

Q. 6 Two identical balls A and B having velocities of 0.5 m/s and -0.3 m/s, respectively collide elastically in one dimension. The velocities of B and A after the collision respectively will be

A. -0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s

B. 0.5 m/s and -0.3 m/s

C. -0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s

D. 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s

Q. 7 A particle moves from a point -2iˆ + 5jˆ to 4jˆ + 3kˆ when a force of 4iˆ + 3jˆ N is applied. How much work has been done by the force?

A. 8 J

B. 11 J

C. 5 J

D. 2 J

Q. 8 Two rotating bodies a and ᵦ of masses m and 2m with moments of inertia Iₐ and Iᵦ (Iᵦ > Iₐ) have equal kinetic energy of rotation. If Lₐ and Lᵦ be their angular momenta respectively, then

A. Lₐ = Lᵦ/2

B. Lₐ = 2Lᵦ

C. Lᵦ > Lₐ

D. Lₐ > Lᵦ

Q. 9 A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating about its diameter. A solid cylinder of the same mass and same radius is also rotating about its geometrical axis with an angular speed twice that of the sphere. The ratio of their kinetic energies of rotation (Esphere / Ecylinder) will be

A. 2:3

B. 1:5

C. 1:4

D. 3:1

Q. 10 A light rod of length L has two masses m₁ and m₂ attached to its two ends. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod and passing through the centre of mass is

A. √m₁ √m₂ (L²)

B. m₁ m₂ (L²) / (m₁ + m₂)

C. (m₁ + m₂) / m ₁m₂ (L²)

D. (m₁ + m₂) L²

Q. 11 Starting from the centre of the Earth having radius R, the variation of g (acceleration due to gravity) is shown by

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 12 A satellite of mass m is orbiting the Earth (of radius R) at a height h from its surface. The total energy of the satellite in terms of g₀, the value of acceleration due to gravity at the Earth’s surface, is

A. -2mg₀R² / (R+h)

B. mg₀R² / 2(R+h)

C. -mg₀R² / 2(R+h)

D. Rmg₀R² / (R+h)

Q. 13 A rectangular film of liquid is extended from (4 cm x 2 cm) to (5 cm x 4 cm). If the work done is 3 x 10⁴ J, the value of the surface tension of the liquid is

A. 0.250 Nm-1

B. 0.125 Nm-1

C. 0.2 Nm-1

D. 8.0 Nm-1

Q. 14 Three liquids of densities ρ1, ρ2 and ρ3 (with ρ1 > ρ2 > ρ3), having the same value of surface tension T, rise to the same height in three identical capillaries. The angles of contact θ1, θ2 and θ3 obey

A. 2^Π > θ1 > θ2 > θ3 ≥ 0

B. 0 ≤ θ1 < θ2 < θ3 < 2^Π

C. 2^Π < θ1 < θ2 < θ3 < Π

D. Π > θ1 > θ2 > θ3 > 2^Π

Q. 15 Two identical bodies are made of a material for which the heat capacity increases with temperature. One of these is at 100 °C, while the other one is at 0 °C. If the two bodies are brought into contact, then, assuming no heat loss, the final common temperature is

A. 50 °C

B. More than 50 °C

C. Less than 50 °C but greater than 0 °C

D. 0 °C

Q. 16 A body cools from a temperature 3T to 2T in 10 minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume that Newton’s law of cooling is applicable. The temperature of the body at the end of next of 10 minutes will be

A. 7/4 T

B. 3/2 T

C. 4/3 T

D. T

Q. 17 One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a process described by the equation PV³ = constant. The heat capacity of the gas during this process is

A. (3/2) R

B. (5/2) R

C. 2R

D. R

Q. 18 The temperature inside a refrigerator is t₂ °C and the room temperature is t₁ °C. The amount of heat delivered to the room for each joule of electrical energy consumed ideally will be

A. t₁/ (t₁ – t₂)

B. (t₁ + 273) / (t₁ – t₂)

C. (t₂ + 273) / (t₁ – t₂)

D. (t₁ + t₂) / (t₁ + 273)

Q. 19 A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume V at a pressure P and absolute temperature T. The mass of each molecule of the gas is m. Which of the following gives the density of the gas?

A. P/(kT)

B. Pm/(kT)

C. P/(kTV)

D. mkT

Q. 20 A body of mass m is attached to the lower end of a spring whose upper end is fixed. The spring has negligible mass. When the mass m is slightly pulled down and released, it oscillates with a time period of 3 s. When the mass m is increased by 1 kg, the time period of oscillations becomes 5 s. The value of m in kg is :

A. 3/4

B. 4/3

C. 16/9

D. 9/16

Q. 21 The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the same frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe L meter long. The length of the open pipe will be

A. L

B. 2L

C. L/2

D. 4L

Q. 22 Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (n – 1), n, (n + 1). They superimpose to give beats. The number of beats produced per second will be

A. 1

B. 4

C. 3

D. 2

Q. 23 An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field intensity 2 × 10^5 N/C. It experiences a torque equal to 4 Nm. The charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm, is

A. 8 mC

B. 2 mC

C. 5 mC

D. 7 μC

Q. 24 A parallel- plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with four dielectric materials having dielectric constant k1, k₂, k₃, and k₄ as shown in the figure below. If a single dielectric material is to be used to have the same capacitance C in this capacitor, then its dielectric constant k is given by

Image result for A parallel- plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with four dielectric materials having dielectric constant k1, kâ, kâ, and kâ as shown in the figure below. If a single dielectric material is to be used to have the same capacitance C in this capacitor, then its dielectric constant k is given by

A. k = k₁ + k₂ + k₃ + 3 (k₄)

B. k = (2/3)(k₁ + k₂ + k₃) + 2 (k₄ )

C. 2/k = 3/(k₁ + k₂ + k₃) + 1/k₄

D. 1/k = 1/k₁ + 1/k₂ + 1/k₃ + 3/2 (k₄ )

Q. 25 The potential difference (VA – VB) between the points A and B in the given figure is

A. – 3 V

B. + 3 V

C. + 6 V

D. + 9 V

Q. 26 A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used in a 230 V main supply. When a resistance R is connected in series, it works perfectly and the bulb consumes 500 W. The value of R is

A. 230 Ω

B. 46 Ω

C. 26 Ω

D. 13 Ω

Q. 27 A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic field at the centre of this coil of n turns will be

A. nB

B. n²B

C. 2nB

D. 2n²B

Q. 28 A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a uniform horizontal magnetic field and is in equilibrium state. The energy required to rotate it by 60° is W. Now the torque required to keep the magnet in this new position is

A. W/√3

B. √3 W

C. √3/2 W

D. 2W / √3

Q. 29 An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field of 3.57 × 10^(–2) T. If the value of e/m is 1.76 × 10^(11) C/kg, the frequency of revolution of the electron is

A. 1 GHz

B. 100 MHz

C. 62.8 MHz

D. 6.28 MHz

Q. 30 Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an L-C-R circuit used for communication?

A. R = 20 Ω, L = 1.5 H, C = 35μF

B. R = 25 Ω, L = 2.5 H, C = 45μF

C. R = 15 Ω, L = 3.5 H, C = 30μF

D.R = 25 Ω, L = 1.5 H, C = 45μF

Q. 31 A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a region of radius r. The magnetic field changes with time at a rate dB/dt . Loop 1 of radius R > r encloses the region r and loop 2 of radius R is outside the region of magnetic field as shown in the figure below. Then the e.m.f. generated is

Image result for A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a region of radius r. The magnetic field changes with time at a rate dB/dt . Loop 1 of radius R > r encloses the region r and loop 2 of radius R is outside the region of magnetic field as shown in the figure below. Then the e.m.f. generated is

A. Zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2

B. -dB/dt ( πr² ) in loop 1 and -dB/dt ( πr² ) in loop 2

C. -dB/dt ( πr² ) in loop 1 and zero in loop 2

D. -dB/dt ( πR² ) in loop 1 and zero in loop 2

Q. 32 The potential differences across the resistance, capacitance and inductance are 80 V, 40 V and 100 V respectively in an L-C-R circuit. The power factor of this circuit is

A. 0.4

B. 0.5

C. 0.8

D. 1.0

Q. 33 A 100 Ω resistance and a capacitor of 100 Ω reactance are connected in series across a 220 V source. When the capacitor is 50% charged, the peak value of the displacement current is

A. 2.2 A

B. 11 A

C. 4.4 A

D. 11 √2 A

Q. 34 Two identical glass (μg = 3/2) equiconvex lenses of focal length f each are kept in contact. The space between the two lenses is filled with water (μw = 4/3). The focal length of the combination is

A. f/3

B. f

C. 4f/3

D. 3f/4

Q. 35 An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab is

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. 16

Q. 36 The interference pattern is obtained with two coherent light sources of intensity ratio n. In the interference pattern, the ratio (Imax – Imin)/ (Imax + Imin), will be

A. √n/(n + 1)

B. √n/(n + 1)

C. √n/(n + 1)²

D. 2√n/(n + 1)²

Q. 37 A person can see clearly objects only when they lie between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In order to increase the maximum distance of distinct vision to infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens, the person has to use, will be

A. Convex, + 2.25 diopter

B. Concave, – 0.25 diopter

C. Concave, – 0.2 diopter

D. Convex, + 0.15 diopter

Q. 38 A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60 cm. The aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel beam of wavelength 5 × 10^(-5) cm. The distance of the first dark band of the diffraction pattern from the centre of the screen is

A. 0.10 cm

B. 0.25 cm

C. 0.20 cm

D. 0.15 cm

Q. 39 Electrons of mass m with de-Broglie wavelength λ fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cutoff wavelength (λ0) of the emitted X-ray is :-

A. λ0 = 2mcλ2/h

B. λ0 = 2h/mc

C. λ0 = 2m²c²λ³/h²

D. λ0 = λ

Q. 40 Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a cathode C in a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons will reach the anode A, if the stopping potential of A relative to C is:-

A. +3 V

B. +4 V

C. -1 V

D. 3 V

Q. 41 If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3rd orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength λ . When it jumps from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit, the corresponding wavelength of the photon will be :-

A. (16/25) λ

B. (9/16)/λ

C. (20/7) λ

D. (20/13) λ

Q. 42 The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 minutes. The time (in minutes) taken between 40% decay and 85% decay of the same radioactive substance is :-

A. 15

B. 30

C. 45

D. 60

Q. 43 For CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2kΩ is 4 V. If the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100 and the base resistance is 1 kΩ, then the input signal voltage is :-

A. 10 mV

B. 20 mV

C. 30 mV

D. 15 mV

Q. 44 The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure below. The current flowing through the resistance R1 will be

A. 2.5 A

B. 10.0 A

C. 1.43 A

D. 3.13 A

Q. 45 What is the output Y in the following circuit, when all the three inputs A, B, C are first 0 and then 1?

A. 0, 1

B. 0, 0

C. 1, 0

D. 1, 1

Q. 46 Which one of the following compounds shows the presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond?

A. H2O2

B. HCN

C. Cellulose

D. Concentrated acetic acid

Q. 47 The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol/dm³ solution of AgNO3 with electrolytic conductivity of 5.76 × 10^(-3) S cm–1 at 298 K is

A. 2.88 S cm²/mol

B. 11.52 S cm²/mol

C. 0.086 S cm²/mol

D. 28.8 S cm²/mol

Q. 48 The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on tungsten at low pressure is a first-order reaction. It is because the

A. rate is proportional to the surface coverage

B. rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage

C. rate is independent of the surface coverage

D. rate of decomposition is very slow

Q. 49 The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the electrolytes used for the coagulation of As₂S₃ are given below:

I. (NaCl) = 52,

II. (BaCl₂) = 0.69,

III. (MgSO₄) = 0.22

The correct order of their coagulating power is

A. I > II > III

B. II > I > III

C. III > II > I

D. III > I > II

Q. 50 During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the time required to produce 0.10 mol of chlorine gas using a current of 3 amperes is

A. 55 minutes

B. 110 minutes

C. 220 minutes

D. 330 minutes

Q. 51 How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which n = 3 and l = 1?

A. 2

B. 6

C. 10

D. 14

Q. 52 For a sample of perfect gas when its pressure is changed isothermally from pᵢ to p􀀁, the entropy change is given by

A. Δ S =nR ln ( p􀀁 / pᵢ )

B. Δ S =nR ln ( pᵢ / p􀀁 )

C. Δ S =nRT ln ( p􀀁 / pᵢ )

D. Δ S =RT ln ( pᵢ / p􀀁 )

Q. 53 The van’t Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Q. 54 The percentage of pyridine (C₅H₅N) that forms pyridinium ion (C₅H₅N⁺H) in a 0.10 M aqueous pyridine solution (Kᵦ for C₅H₅N = 1.7 × 10⁻⁹) is

A. 0.0060%

B. 0.013%

C. 0.77%

D. 1.6%

Q. 55 In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite structure, the coordination numbers for calcium ion Ca²⁺ and fluoride ion F⁻ are

A. 4 and 2

B. 6 and 6

C. 8 and 4

D. 4 and 8

Q. 56 If the E°cell for a given reaction has a negative value which of the following gives the correct relationships for the values of G° and Keq?

A. ΔG° > 0; Keq < 1

B. ΔG° > 0; Keq > 1

C. ΔG° < 0; Keq > 1

D. ΔG° < 0; Keq < 1

Q. 57 Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal solution?

A. ΔHmix = 0

B. ΔUmix = 0

C. ΔP = Pobs – P(calculated by Raoult’s law) = 0

D. ΔGmix = 0

Q. 58 The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility product 1.6 × 10^(–10) in 0.1 M NaCl solution would be

A. 1.25 × 10^(-5) M

B. 1.6 × 10^(-9) M

C. 1.6 × 10^(-11) M

D. zero

Q. 59 Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole of XY2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are

A. 40, 30

B. 60, 40

C. 20, 30

D. 30, 20

Q. 60 The number of electrons delivered at the cathode during electrolysis by a current of 1 ampere in 60 seconds is (charge on electron = 1.60 ×10^(–19) C)

A. 6 × 10^(23)

B. 6 × 10^(20)

C. 3.75 × 10^(20)

D. 7.48 × 10^(23)

Q. 61 Boric acid is an acid because its molecule

A. contains replaceable H+ ion

B. gives up a proton

C. accepts OH– from water releasing proton

D. combines with proton from water molecule

Q. 62 AlF₃ is soluble in HF only in presence of KF. It is due to the formation of

A. K₃ [ AlF₃H₃ ]

B. K₃ [ AlF₆ ]

C. AlH₃

D. K [ AlF₃H ]

Q. 63 Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron but the reverse is not possible. It is because

A. zinc is lighter than iron

B. zinc has lower melting point than iron

C. zinc has lower negative electrode potential than iron

D. zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron

Q. 64 The suspension of slaked lime in water is known as

A. Lime water

B. Quicklime

C. Milk of lime

D. Aqueous solution of slaked lime

Q. 65 The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+, NO3- and NH4+ respectively are

A. sp, sp³ and sp²

B. sp², sp³ and sp

C. sp, sp² and sp³

D. sp², sp and sp³

Q. 66 Which of the following fluoro-compounds is most likely to behave as a Lewis base?

A. BF3

B. PF3

C. CF4

D. SiF4

Q. 67 Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic and isostructural?

A. (CO₃)²⁻, (NO₃)⁻

B. (ClO₃)⁻, (CO₃)²⁻

C. (SO₃)²⁻, (NO₃)⁻

D. (ClO₃)⁻, (SO₃)²⁻

Q. 68 In context with beryllium, which one of the following statements is incorrect?

A. It is rendered passive by nitric acid.

B. It forms Be2C.

C. Its salts rarely hydrolyze.

D. Its hydride is electron-deficient and polymeric.

Q. 69 Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately strong oxidizing agent. Which of the following reactions does not show oxidizing behavior?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 70 Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have electron density along the axes?

A. dz², dxz

B. dxz, dyz

C. dz² , dx²-y²

D. dxy , dx²-y²

Q. 71 The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF4 are :

A. Octahedral, sp3d2

B. Trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d

C. Planar triangle, sp3d3

D. Square planar, sp3d2

Q. 72 Among the following which one is a wrong statement?

A. PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist

B. pπ-dπ bonds are present in SO2

C. SeF4 and CH4 have same shape

D. I3+ has bent geometry

Q. 73 The correct increasing order of trans-effect of the following species is :

A. (NH3) > (CN–) > (Br–) > (C6H5–)

B. (CN–) > (C6H5–) > (Br–) > (NH3)

C. (Br–) > (CN–) > (NH3) > (C6H5–)

D. (CN–) > (Br–) > (C6H5–) >(NH3)

Q. 74 Which one of the followng statements related to lanthanons is incorrect?

A. Europium shows +2 oxidation state.

B. The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases from Pr to Lu.

C. All the lanthanons are much more reactive than aluminium

D. Ce(+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis

Q. 75 Jahn-Teller effect not observed in high spin complexes of :-

A. d7

B. d8

C. d4

D. d9

Q. 76 Which of the following can be used as halide component for Friedel-Crafts reaction?

A. Chlorobenzene

B. Bromobenzene

C. Chloroethene

D. Isopropyl chloride

Q. 77 In which of the following molecules, atoms are coplanar?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 78 Which one of the following structures represents nylon 6,6 polymer?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 79 In pyrrole, the electron density is maximum on

A. 2 and 3

B. 3 and 4

C. 2 and 4

D. 2 and 5

Q. 80 Which of the following compounds shall not produce propene by reaction with HBr followed by elimination or direct only elimination reaction?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 81 Which one of the following nitro-compounds does not react with nitrous acid?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 82 The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the genetic information flows from

A. Amino acids → Proteins → DNA

B. DNA → Carbohydrates → Proteins

C. DNA → RNA → Proteins

D. DNA → RNA → Carbohydrates

Q. 83 The correct corresponding order of names of following aldoses with configuration given below, respectively, is

A. L-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose, D-threose

B. D-threose, D-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose

C. L-erythrose, L-threose, D-erythrose, D-threose

D. D-erythrose, D-threose, L-erythrose, L-threose

Q. 84 In the given reaction, the product P is,

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 85 A given nitrogen containing aromatic compound aromatic A reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO2 to give an unstable compound B. B, on treatment with phenol, forms a beautiful coloured compound C with the molecular formula C12H10N 2O. The structure of the compound A is

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 86 Consider the reaction

CH3-CH2-CH2-Br + NaCN → CH3 –CH2 – CH2 –CN + NaBr

The reaction will be the fastest in

A. ethanol

B. methanol

C. N, N’ –dimethylformamide (DMF)

D. water

Q. 87 The correct structure of the product A formed in the reaction

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 88 Which among the given molecules can exhibit tautomerism?

A. III only

B. Both I and III

C. Both I and II

D. Both II and III

Q. 89 The correct order of the strengths of the carboxylic acids

A. I> II >III

B. II > III > I

C. III > II > I

D. II > I > II

Q. 90 The compound that will react most readily with gaseous bromine has the formula?

A. C3H6

B. C2H2

C. C4H10

D. C2H4

Q. 91 Which one of the following is wrong for fungi?

A. They are eukaryotic.

B. All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall.

C. They are heterotrophic.

D. They are both unicellular and multicellular.

Q. 92 Methanogens belong to

A. Eubacteria

B. Archaebacteria

C. Dinoflagellates

D. Slime moulds

Q. 93 Select the wrong statement

A. The walls of diatoms are easily destructible.

B. ‘Diatomaceous earth’ is formed by the cell wall of diatoms.

C. Diatoms are chief producers in the ocean.

D. Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water

Q. 94 The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on

A. date of collection

B. name of collector

C. local names

D. height of the plant

Q. 95 Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions because of

A. broad hardy leaves

B. superficial stomata

C. thick cuticle

D. presence of vessels

Q. 96 Which one of the following statements is wrong?

A. Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment.

B. Algin is obtained from red algae, and carrageenan from brown algae.

C. Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria

D. Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food.

Q. 97 The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to

A. gynoecium

B. androecium

C. corolla

D. calyx

Q. 98 How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Aloe, mustard, groundnut, radish, gram and turnip have stamens with different lengths in their flowers?

A. Three

B. Four

C. Five

D. Six

Q. 99 Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of

A. Brassica

B. Trifolium

C. Pisum

D. Cassia

Q. 100 Free-central placentation is found in

A. Dianthus

B. Argemone

C. Brassica

D. Citrus

Q. 101 Cortex is the region found between

A. epidermis and stele

B. pericycle and endodermis

C. endodermis and pith

D. endodermis and vascular bundle

Q. 102 The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses

A. lysozyme

B. ribozyme

C. ligase

D. deoxyribonuclease

Q. 103 A non-proteinaceous enzyme is

A. Stroma

B. Lumen of thylakoids

C. Inter membrane space

D. Antennae complex

Q. 104 Select the mismatch

A. Gas vacuoles – Green bacteria

B. Large central vacuoles – Animal cells

C. Protists – Eukaryotes

D. Methanogens – Prokaryotes

Q. 105 Select the wrong statement.

A. Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan.

B. Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of bacterial cells.

C. Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells.

D. Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism.

Q. 106 A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes is

A. lysosome

B. microsome

C. ribosome

D. mesosome

Q. 107 During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in

A. S Phase

B. G1 phase

C. G2 phase

D. M phase

Q. 108 Which of the following biomolecules is common to respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?

A. Glucose-6-phosphate

B. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate

C. Pyruvic acid

D. Acetyl CoA

Q. 109 A few drops of sap were collected by cutting across a plant stem by a suitable method. The sap was tested chemically. Which one of the following test results indicates that it is phloem sap?

A. Acidic

B. Alkaline

C. Low refractive index

D. Absence of sugar

Q. 110 You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of hormones would you add to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots?

A. IAA and gibberellins

B. Auxin and cytokinin

C. Auxin and abscisic acid

D. Gibberellin and abscisic acid

Q. 111 Phytochrome is a

A. flavoprotein

B. glycoprotein

C. lipoprotein

D. chromoprotein

Q. 112 Which is essential for the growth of root tip?

A. Zn

B. Fe

C. Ca

D. Mn

Q. 113 The process which makes major difference between C3 and C4 plants is

A. glycolysis

B. Calvin cycle

C. photorespiration

D. respiration

Q. 114 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Offspring produced by the asexual reproduction are called clone.

B. Microscopic, motile asexual reproductive structures are called zoospores.

C. In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise from the internodes present in the modified stem.

D. Water hyacinth, growing in the standing water, drains oxygen from water that leads to the death of fishes.

Q. 115 Which one of the following generates new genetic combinations leading to variation?

A. Vegetative reproduction

B. Parthenogenesis

C. Sexual reproduction

D. Nucellar polyembryony

Q. 116 Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 117 In majority of angiosperms

A. egg has a filiform apparatus

B. there are numerous antipodal cells

C. reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cells

D. a small central cell is present in the embryo sac

Q. 118 Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about by the agency of

A. water

B. insects or wind

C. birds

D. bats

Q. 119 The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent

A. megasporangium

B. megasporophyll

C. megaspore mother cell

D. megaspore

Q. 120 Taylor conducted the experiments to prove semiconservative mode of chromosome replication on

A. Vinca rosea

B. Vicia faba

C. Drosophila melanogaster

D. E. coli

Q. 121 The mechanism that causes a gene to move from one linkage group to another is called

A. Inversion

B. Duplication

C. Translocation

D. Crossing over

Q. 122 The equivalent of a structural gene is

A. Mutation

B. Cistron

C. Operon

D. Recon

Q. 123 A true breeding plant is

A. One that is able to breed on its own

B. Produced due to cross pollination among unrelated plants

C. Near homozygous and produces offspring of its own kind

D. Always homozygous recessive in its genetic constitution

Q. 124 Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria?

A. 5S rRNA

B. 18S rRNA

C. 23S rRNA

D. 5.8S rRNA

Q. 125 Stirred tank bioreactors have been designed for

A. Purification of product

B. Addition of preservatives to the product

C. Availability of oxygen throughout the process

D. Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel

Q. 126 A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using

A. Eco R1

B. Taq Polymerase

C. Polymerase III

D. ligase

Q. 127 Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?

A. Separation

B. Purification

C. Preservation

D. Expression

Q. 128 Which of the following restriction enzymes produce blunt ends?

A. Sal I

B. Eco RV

C. Xho I

D. Hind III

Q. 129 Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four year old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency?

A. Gene therapy

B. Chemotherapy

C. Immunotherapy

D. Radiation therapy

Q. 130 How many hot spots of biodiversity in the world have been identified till date by Norman Myers?

A. 17

B. 25

C. 34

D. 43

Q. 131 The primary producers of deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem are

A. Green algae

B. Chemosynthetic bacteria

C. Blue green algae

D. Coral reefs

Q. 132 Which of the following is corrent for r-selected species?

A. Large number of progeny with small size

B. Large number of progeny with large size

C. Small number of progeny with small size

D. Small number of progeny with large size

Q. 133 If ‘+’ sign is assigned to beneficial interactions, ‘-’ sign to detrimental and ‘0’ sign to neutral interactions, then the population interaction represented by ‘+’ ‘-’ refers to

A. Mutualism

B. Amensalism

C. Commensalism

D. Parasitism

Q. 134 Which of the following is correctly matched?

A. Aerenchyma – Opuntia

B. Age pyramid – Biome

C. Parthenium hysterophorus – Threat to biodiversity

D. Stratification – population

Q. 135 Red list contains data or information

A. all economically important plants

B. Plants whose products are in international trade

C. threatened species

D. marine vertebrates only

Q. 136 Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria?

A. Cholera and tetanus

B. Typhoid and smallpox

C. Tetanus and mumps

D. Herpes and influenza

Q. 137 Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Image result for Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below:

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 138 Choose the correct statement

A. All mammals are viviparous

B. All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins

C. All reptiles have a three chambered heart

D. All Pisces have gills covered by an operculum

Q. 139 Study the four statements (A-D) given below and select the two correct ones out of them:

A. Definition of biological species was given by Ernst Mayr

B. Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in plants

C. Binomial nomenclature system was given by R. H. Whittaker

D. In unicellular organisms, reproduction is synonymous with growth The two correct statements are

A. B and C

B. C and D

C. A and D

D. A and B

Q. 140 In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the reproductive system?

A. Seminal vesicles

B. Mushroom glands

C. Testes

D. Vas deferens

Q. 141 Smooth muscles are

A. Involuntary, fusiform, non-striated

B. Voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical

C. Involuntary, cylindrical, striated

D. Voluntary, spindle shaped, uninucleate

Q. 142 Oxidative phosphorylation is

A. Formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group from a substrate to ADP

B. Oxidation of phosphate group in ATP

C. Addition of phosphate group to ATP

D. Formation of ATP by energy released from electrons removed during substrate oxidation

Q. 143 Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three dimensional folding of most proteins?

A. Hydrogen bonds

B. Electrostatic interaction

C. Hydrophobic interaction

D. Ester bonds

Q. 144 Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?

A. Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme

B. Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme

C. Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme

D. Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme

Q. 145 When cell has stalled DNA replication fork, which checkpoint should be predominantly activated?

A. G1/S

B. G2/M

C. M

D. Both G2/M and M

Q. 146 Match the stages of meiosis in column I to their characteristic feature in column II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Image result for Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below:

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 147 Which hormones do stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?

A. Angiotensin and epinephrine

B. Gastrin and insulin

C. Cholecystokinin and secretin

D. Insulin and Glucagon

Q. 148 The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is

A. equal to that in the blood

B. more than that in the blood

C. less than that in the blood

D. less than that of the carbon dioxide

Q. 149 Choose the correct statement.

A. Nociceptors respond to changes in pressure

B. Meissner’s corpuscles are thermoreceptors

C. Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarized during darkness and become hyperpolarized in response to the light stimulus

D. Receptors do not produce graded potentials

Q. 150 Grave’s disease is caused due to

A. hyposecretion of thyroid gland

B. hypersecretion of thyroid gland

C. hyposecretion of adrenal gland

D. hypersecretion of adrenal gland

Q. 151 Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during muscle contraction

A. Calcium

B. Magnesium

C. Sodium

D. Potassium

Q. 152 Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the body.

A. Erythrocytes

B. Leucocytes

C. Neutrophils

D. Thrombocytes

Q. 153 Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilization.

A. Insulin

B. Glucagon

C. Secretin

D. Gastrin

Q. 154 Osteoporosis, age-related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to

A. immune disorder affecting neuro-muscular junction leading to fatigue

B. high concentration of Ca++ and Na+

C. decreased level of estrogen

D. accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints

Q. 155 Serum differs from blood in

A. lacking globulins

B. lacking albumins

C. lacking clotting factors

D. lacking antibodies

Q. 156 Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can never be expelled because

A. there is a negative pressure in the lungs

B. there is negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls

C. there is a positive intrapleural pressure

D. pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure

Q. 157 The posterior pituitary gland is not a ‘true’ endocrine gland because

A. it is provided with a duct

B. it only stores and release hormones

C. it is under the regulation of hypothalamus

D. it secretes enzymes

Q. 158 The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of sodium is

A. distal convoluted tubule

B. proximal convoluted tubule

C. Bowman’s capsule

D. descending limb of Henle’s loop

Q. 159 Which of the following is hormone-releasing IUD?

A. LNG-20

B. Multiload 375

C. Lippes loop

D. Cu7

Q. 160 Which of following incorrect regarding vasectomy?

A. No sperm occurs in seminal fluid

B. No sperms occurs in epididymis

C. Vasa deferentia is cut and died

D. Irreversible sterility

Q. 161 Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilization is transferred into

A. uterus

B. fallopian tube

C. fimbriae

D. cervix

Q. 162 Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms?

A. Rete testis → Efferent ductules → Epididymis → Vas deferens

B. Rete testis → Epididymis → Efferent ductules → Vas deferens

C. Rete testis → Vas deferens → Efferent ductules → Epididymis

D. Efferent ductules → Rete testis → Vas deferens → Epididymis

Q. 163 Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Column I	Column II
a. Mons pubis	(i) Embyo formation
b. Antrum	(ii) Sperm
c. Trophectoderm	(iii)Female external genitalia
d. Nebenkern	(iv) Graafin follicle

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 164 Several hormones likes hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone are produced by

A. Ovary

B. Placenta

C. Fallopian tube

D. Pituitary

Q. 165 If a colour-blind man marries a woman who is homozygous for normal vision, the probability of their son being colour blind is

A. 0

B. 0.5

C. 0.75

D. 1

Q. 166 Genetic drift operates in:

A. Small isolated population

B. Large isolated population

C. Non-reproductive population

D. Slow reproductive population

Q. 167 In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individuals is represented by

A. p²

B. 2pq

C. pq

D. q²

Q. 168 The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is

A. Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus

B. Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus

C. Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Homo erectus

D. Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus

Q. 169 Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?

I. Formation of protobionts

II. Synthesis of organic monomers

III. Synthesis of organic polymers

IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic systems

A. I, II, III, IV

B. I, III, II, IV

C. II, III, I, IV

D. II, III, IV, I

Q. 170 A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the traits given below, except

A. It should be able to express itself in the form of ‘Mendelian characters’

B. It should be able to generate its replica

C. It should be unstable structurally and chemically

D. It should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution

Q. 171 DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes transcription on one strand of the DNA which is called the

A. template strand

B. coding strand

C. alpha strand

D. antistrand

Q. 172 Interspecific hybridization is the mating of

A. animals within same breed without having common ancestors

B. two different related species

C. superior males and females of different breeds

D. more closely related individuals within same breed for 4—6 generations

Q. 173 Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?

A. HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase

B. HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase

C. HIV is unenveloped virus

D. HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response

Q. 174 Among the following edible fishes, which one is a marine fish having rich source of omega-3 fatty acids?

A. Mystus

B. Mangur

C. Mrigala

D. Mackerel

Q. 175 Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Column I Column II
a. Citric acid (i) Trichoderma

b. Cyclosporin A (ii) Clostridium

c. Statins (iii) Aspergillus

d. Butyric acid (iv) Monascus

A. a – (III), b – (I), c – (II), d – (IV)

B. a – (III), b – (I), c – (IV), d – (II)

C. a – (I), b – (IV), c – (II), d – (III)

D. a – (III), b – (IV), c – (I), d – (II)

Q. 176 Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a good index for pollution for water bodies receiving effluents from

A. Domestic sewage

B. Dairy industry

C. Petroleum industry

D. Sugar industry

Q. 177 The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by

A. C. Darwin

B. G. F. Gause

C. MacArthur

D. Verhulst and Pearl

Q. 178 Which of the following National Parks is home to the famous musk deer or hangul?

A. Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur

B. Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya Pradesh

C. Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, Arunachal Pradesh

D. Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir

Q. 179 A lake which is rich in organic waste may result in

A. Increased population of aquatic organisms due to minerals

B. Drying of the lake due to algal bloom

C. Increased population of fish due to lots of nutrients

D. Mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen

Q. 180 The highest DDT concentration in aquatic food chain shall occur in

A. Phytoplankton

B. Seagull

C. Crab

D. Eel

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	D	C	A	C	B	C	C	B	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	C	B	D	B	B	D	B	B	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	D	B	C	D	C	B	B	A	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	C	A	D	C	B	B	D	A	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	B	A	C	C	B	A	C	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	B	D	B	C	A	D	B	A	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	B	D	C	C	B	A	C	D	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	C	B	C	B	D	A	D	C	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	C	D	C	B	C	B	A	B	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	A	D	C	B	B	B	A	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	C	B	B	B	A	A	D	B	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	D	C	C	C	C	D	C	B	A	B
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	C	B	C	C	C	D	D	B	A	C
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	B	A	D	C	C	A	A	B	C	A
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	A	D	D	B	B	A	C	B	C	B
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	A	D	A	C	C	B	B	B	A	B
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	A	B	B	A	A	B	B	C	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	A	B	B	D	B	C	B	D	D	B