CTET July 2013 Paper-I
Q. 1 The following three aspects of intelligence are dealt by Sternberg’s traiarchic theory except
Q. 2 Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences emphasizes
A. general intelligence
B. common abilities required in school
C. the unique abilities of each individual
D. conditioning skills in students
Q. 3 The sounds th, ph, ch are
Q. 4 In order to avoid gender stereotyping in class, a teacher should
A. try to put both boys and girls in non-traditional roles.
B. appreciate students’ good work by saying ‘good girl’ or ‘good boy’
C. discourage girl from taking part in wrestling.
D. encourage boys to take risk and be bold
Q. 5 Schools should cater to Individual differences to
A. narrow the gap between individual students.
B. even out abilities and performance of students.
C. understand why students are able or unable to learn.
D. make individual students feel exclusive.
Q. 6 What kind of support can a school provide to address the individual differences in students ?
A. Follow a child-centered curriculum and provide multiple learning opportunities to students
B. Apply every possible measure to remove the individual differences in students
C. Refer slow learners to special schools
D. Follow same level of curriculum for all students
Q. 7 Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation emphasizes
A. continuous testing on a comprehensive scale to ensure learning.
B. how learning can be observed, . recorded and improved upon.
C. fine-tuning of tests with the teaching.
D. redundancy of the Board examination.
Q. 8 School Based Assessment .
A. Dilutes the accountability of Boards of Education.
B. ·Hinders achieving Universal National Standards.
C. Helps all students learn more through diagnosis
D. Makes stude:nts and teachers nonserious and casual.
Q. 9 “Readiness for learning” refers to
A. general ability level of students
B. present cognitive level of students in the learning continuum
C. satisfying nature of the act of learning
D. Thorndike’s Law of Readiness
Q. 10 A teacher has some physically challenged children in her class. Which of the following would be appropriate for her to say ?
A. Wheel-chaired bound children may take help of their peers in going to hall.
B. Physically inconvenienced children may do an alternative activity in the: classroom.
C. Mohan why don’t you use your crutches to go to the playground.
D. Polio afflicted children will now present a song.
Q. 11 Learning disabilities may occur due to all of the following except.
A. Cerebral dysfunction
B. Emotional disturbance
C. Behavioural disturbance
D. Cultural factors
Q. 12 An inClusive school.
A. Is committed to· improve the learning outcomes of all students irrespective of their capabilities
B. Differentiate between students and sets less challenging achievement targets for specially abled children
C. Committed particularly to improve the learning outcomes of specially abled students
D. Decides learning heeds of students according to their disability
Q. 13 Gifted students
A. Need support not ordinarily provided by the school
B. Can manage their studies without a teacher
C. Can be good models for other students
D. Cannot be learning disabled
Q. 14 Giftedness is due to
A. Genetic makeup
B. Environmental motivation
C. Combination of(l) and (2)
D. Psychosocial factors
Q. 15 Which of the following is appropriate for environment conducive to thinking and learning in children ?
A. Passive listening for long periods of time
B. Home assignments given frequently
C. Individual tasks done by the. learners
D. allowing students to take some decisions about what to learn and how to learn
Q. 16 Learning Disability in motor skills is called
Q. 17 Learning Disability
A. is a stable state
B. is a variable state
C. need not impair functioning
D. does not improve with appropriate input
Q. 18 The following are the steps in the process of problem solving except
A. Identification of a problem
B. Breaking down the problem into smaller parts
C. Explore possible strategies
D. Anticipate outcomes
Q. 19 A teacher should
A. treat errors committed by students as blunders and take serious note of each error
B. measure success as the number of times students avoid making mistakes
C. not correct students while they’re trying to communicate ideas
D. focus more provide a knowledge on lecturing and foundation for
Q. 20 Seema is desperate to score A+ grade in an examination. As she enters the examination hall and the examination begins, she becomes extremely nervous. Her feet go cold, her heart starts pounding and she is unable to answer properly. The primary reason for this is that
A. she may not be very confident about her preparation
B. she may be thinking excessively about the . result of this examination
C. invigilator teacher on duty may be her class teacher and she is of very strict nature
D. she may not be able to deal with sudden emotional outburst
Q. 21 Which of the following cognitive verbs are used to analyse the information given?
Q. 22 Rajesh is a voracious reader. Apart from studying his course · books, he often goes to library and reads books on diverse topics. Rajesh does his project even in the lunch break. He does not need prompting by his teachers or parents to study for tests and seems to truly enjoy learning. He can be best described as a(n) __ _
A. fact centred learner
B. teacher motivated learner
C. assessment-centered learner
D. intrinsically motivated learner
Q. 23 Children in pre-primary get satisfaction room being allowed to discover. They become distressed, when they are discouraged. They do so due to their motivation to
A. reduce their ignorance
B. affiliate with the class
C. create disorder in the class
D. exercise their power
Q. 24 Understanding Human Growth and Development enables a teacher to
A. gain control of learners’ emotions while teaching
B. be clear about teaching diverse learners.
C. tell students how they can improve their lives
D. practice her ·teaching m an unbiased way.
Q. 25 Which one of the following is true ?
A. Development and learning are unaffected by socio-cultural contexts.
B. Students learn only in a certain way
C. Play is significant for cognition and social competence
D. Questioning by teacher constrains cognitive development.
Q. 26 Which one of the following is true about the role of heredity and environment in the development of a child?
A. The relative contributions of peers and genes are not additive.
B. Heredity and environment do not operate together.
C. Propensity IS related to environment while actual development requires heredity.
D. Both heredity and environment contribute 50% each m the development of a child.
Q. 27 Socialization is
A. Rapport between teacher and taught
B. Process of modernization of society
C. Adaptation of social norms
D. Change in social norms
Q. 28 A PT teacher wants her students to improve fielding in the game of cricket. Which one of the following strategies will best help his students achieve that goal ?
A. Tell students how important it is for them to learn to field.
B. Explain the logic behind good fielding and rate of success.
C. Demonstrate fielding while students observe
D. Give students a lot of practice in fielding
Q. 29 A teacher wishes to help her students to appreciate multiple views of a situation. She provides her students multiple opportunities to debate on this situation in different groups. According to Vygotsky’s perspective, her students will various· views and develop multiple perspectives of the situation on their own.
Q. 30 Sita has learned to eat rice and dal with her hand. When she is given dal and rice, she mixes rice and dal and starts ·eating. She has eating rice and dal into her schema for doing things.
Q. 31 Perimeter of a square is 24 em and length of a rectangle is 8 em. If the perimeters of the square and the rectangle are equal, then the area (in square em) of the rectangle is
Q. 32 The difference of the place value and the face value of the number 3 in 12345 is
Q. 33 Which one of the following is not correct?
A. 56.7 kilogram= 5670 grams
B. A ·cube has six faces
C. One millimetre= 0.1 em
D. 0.10 is same as 0.1
Q. 34 The speed of a boat in a river is 20 kmper hour and the speed of another boat is 23 km per hour. They travel in the same direction from the same place at the same time. The distance between the boats after three and half hours is
A. 10 km
B. 10.5 km
C. 11 km
D. 11.5 km
Q. 35 When 90707 is divided by 9, the remainder is
Q. 36 When a fresh fish is dried it becomes 1/3 of its weight. Sunita buys 1500 kg fresh fish for rs. 25 per kg and sell them, when dried, for rs. 80 per kg. How much does she earn ?
Q. 37 Look at the following pattern :
(987 – 3) ÷ 8 = 123
(9876- 4) ÷ 8 = 1234
According to this pattern
(987654- 6) ÷ 8 =
Q. 38 750 ml juice is. fiUed in one bottle and six such bottles are packed in one carton. The number of cartons needed for 450 litres of juice is
Q. 39 Internal length, breadth and depth of a (rectangular) box are 4 em, 3 em and 2 em respectively. How many_such boxes are needed to pack 8664 centimetre cubes ?
Q. 40 “Write the equivalent fraction of 3 .” The above question asked to students of Class IV refers to
A. lower-level demand task as it requires procedural skills only.
B. lower-level demand task as it is based on memorization only.
C. higher-level demand task as it is based on procedure with connection.
D. higher-level demand task as it is based on procedure without connection
Q. 41 Students often make a mistake in comparing the decimal numbers. For example 0.50 is larger than 0.5. The most probable reason for this error is
A. lack of practice of these tyrpes of questions in the class.
B. lack of concrete experience of representation of decimal number on number line.
C. careless attempt by the students.
D. misconception regarding the significance · of zero in ordering decimal.
Q. 42 A teacher prompts the students to prepare Mathematical journal with the theme
“Application of Mathematics in Daily life”. This activity is
A. to test tlhe students understanding of Mathematical concepts.
B. to provide opportunity to students share their ideas and knowledge.
C. to help students to sense of Mathematics.
D. to help students to connect Mathematical concepts and its applications and to share their knowledge and ideas.
Q. 43 According to Van Hiele level of geometric thought, the five )evels are – visualization, analysis, informal deduction, formal deduction arid rigour. Some polygons are given to a child of Class III for sorting.
He classified tbe polygons on the basis of the number of sides. This child is at ________ level of Van-Hiele Geometrical tbought
C. lnformal deduction
D. Formal deduction
Q. 44 A child displays difficulty in differentiating between numbers, operations and symbols, two clock hands, different coins etc. This implies that the specific barrier affecting his. Learning is
A. poor verbal, visual, auditory and working memory.
B. poor visual processing ability i.e. visual discrimination, spatial organization and visual coordination
C. poor language processing ability. i.e. expression, vocabulary and auditory processing.
D. ·poor motor skills, reading and writing skills.
Q. 45 NCF 2005 emphasises on Constructivist Approach of learning as it focuses on
A. memorization of definitions and formulae
B. submission of regular homework.
C. active participation of Ieamer through engaging activities
D. effective lecture and instructions by teacher.
Q. 46 Following are array diagram bindis to represent 15.
The way of representing 15 or any . other number in the above manner can be used to
teach concept of
A. area and commutative,property
B. commutative property of multiplication, identification of prime and composite numbers, area of rectangle
C. representation of a number as product of two numbers, commutative property of multiplication, multiplicative identity, identification of prime · and composite numbers, area of rectangle using units quantity
D. representation of a number as product of two numbers, commutative property of multiplic:ation, multiplication identity, identification of prime and composite numbers.
Q. 47 Which of the following questions is open-ended ?
A. Write the numbers 25, 7I, I9, 9, 8, I7, 85 in ascending order.
B. Which is more ? 1/3 or 7/5
C. Write any four number greater than 2.7
D. What is 7 more than 2/7 ?
Q. 48 The most appropriate tool to expose the students of class II to plane figures, its vertices and edges is
B. Nets of 3D solids
D. Black-board surface
Q. 49 Following is a problem from text book of class V: “There are 4 poles of measure 105 cm, 115 cm, 150 cm and 235 cm respectively. If they have to be cut into pieces of equal length, what is the maximum length of each piece ?”
This question is asked to
A. test knowledge of factors and multiples
B. check the skill of finding HCF
C. enhance problem solving skills using learnt concepts
D. give practice of word problems based on HCF and LCM
Q. 50 Following is a problem from text book of class III :
“Which mathematical operation will be used to solve the following problem . ? A milkman sold I410 litres of milk in 10 days. How many litres of milk did he sell in a day ?”
Which competence of Bloom’s cognitive domain is referred in the above question ?
Q. 51 Rashid is studying in class V. He can classify various types of triangles in different categories but has difficulty in understanding the abstract proof for the sum of three angles in a triangle to be always 180. According to Piaget Cognitive Theory Rashid is · at
A. Concrete operational stage
B. Formal operational stage
C. Sensorimotor stage
D. Pre-operational stage
Q. 52 According to NCF 2005
“Developing children’s abilities for mathematization is the main goal of mathematics
education. The narrow aim of school mathematics is io develop ‘useful’ capabilities.”
Here mathematization refers to develop child’s abilities
A. In performing all number operations efficiently including of finding square root and cube root
B. To formulate Geometry and independently. Theorems of their proofs
C. To translate word problems into linear equations.
D. To develop the child’s resources to think and reason mathematically, to pursue assumptions to their logical conclusion and to handle abstraction.
Q. 53 The highlights of a good textbook are that
A. They contain numerous exercises to give rigorous practice.
B. All concepts can be introduced through situations.
C. Only solved examples are included.
D. They must” be thick and heavy.
A. A and B
B. C and D
C. A and C
D. B and D
Q. 54 NCF 2005 emphasises that
A. Succeeding m Mathematics should be mandatory for every child.
B. Students should be tested first for their logico-mathematical ability.
C. Maths curriculum shall be separate for low achievers.
D. Maths shall be taught to selective students.
Q. 55 The difference between the smallest common multiple and biggest common factor of 5, 10 and 35 is
Q. 56 The number of factors of 105 is
Q. 57 If the time now is 2.17 P.M., what will be. the time 11 hours and 59 minutes from now?
A. 11:57 A.M.
B. 9 : 59 A.M.
C. 2: 16A.M
Q. 58 Number of degrees in three and one and half right angeles is :
Q. 59 11 ones + 11 tens +11 hundred equals
Q. 60 The sum of five hundred nine and three thousand twenty eight is:
Q. 61 The name of the scientist· who first peeped into a mosquito stomach and proved that mosquitoes spread malaria and for his research was awarded Nobel Prize in medicine in December 1902 is
A. Charles Darwin
B. Gregor Mendel
C. George Mistral
D. Ronald Ross
Q. 62 Rajat said to his friend, “I cannot play because I am down with fever. I pass through a cycle of shivering, fever and headache and finally sweating. .After my blood test doctor prescribed me a bitter medicine.” Rajat . might be suffering from
Q. 63 Who was AI-Biruni ?
A. A Qutabshahi Sultan who ruled our country for about 40 years
B. A trader from Afghanistan who came to study the dryfruit markets of our country.
C. A traveller from Uzbekistan who wrote· a book which is helpful to know the past of our country
D. A traveller who travelled from Kashmir to Kanyakumari to study the culture of Indian people.
Q. 64 The animals that flre awake at night can see .objects
A. in all colours
B. only in black and white colours
C. in green colour only
D. in red colour only
Q. 65 Select the correct statements about elephant herd :
A. An elephant herd has· mainly females and baby elephants upto 14-15 years old.
B. An elephant herd comprises members of a particular family.
C. The oldest female is the leader of the herd.
D. An elephant herd may accommodate any· number of female elephant and the young ones.
C. Band D
D. C and D
Q. 66 Inside the petals, in the middle of a flower we find a thin powdery structure, called
Q. 67 If you go to Ahmedabad (Gujarat) by train, then at Ahmedabad railway station you will find that most of the vendors are selling
A. Dhokla with chutney and lemon rice
B. Chholay-bhature and lassi
C. Idli-chutney and Vada-chutney
D. Puri-shaak and thanda doodh
Q. 68 The birds move their neck very often because
A. they can fly.
B. the birds eyes are fixed.
C. the birds have small eyes.
D. their ears are covered with feathers.
Q. 69 After diagnosis a doctor says to a patient that there is less haemoglobin in his blood. Which of the following should he eat to make up the deficiency of iron ?
A. Rice, sugar, amla
B. Green leafy vegetables, wheat, orange
C. Jaggery, lemon, pea
D. Amla, green leafy vegetables,• jaggery
Q. 70 National Curriculum Framework, 2005 strongly · recommends that teaching of EVS at primary stage should primarily aim at
A. developing understanding of basic concepts of the subject.
B. memorizing basic principles of the subject.
C. linking cIassroom learning to life outside the school.
D. acquiring skills to carry out· ·experiments independently.
Q. 71 Which one of the following is not . consistent with the requirements of EVS curriculum at primary stage ?
A. It should equip the learners with knowledge and skills to enter the world of work.
B. · It should inculcate in learners a concern for environment.
C. It should engage learners m acquiring methods and processes leading to generation of new knowledge.
D. It should suit cognitive level of the learners.
Q. 72 Higher priority and space has been given in NCERT textbooks on EVS to
A. explain basic concepts of the subject.
B. provide opportunities to learner for contemplation and wondering.
C. provide exact definitions of technical terms.
D. include large number of practice questions.
Q. 73 Which one of the following is not an objective of including poems and stories in EVS textbooks ?
A. To develop interest in the subject.
B. To have a change in routine and monotonous content
C. To provide fun and enjoyment for learners.
D. To promote imaginative and creative ability in the learners.
Q. 74 Good EVS curriculum should be ‘true to the child, true to life and true to the subject.’ Which of the following characteristics of a curriculum does not meet the above requirements ?
A. It promotes the value of freedom from fear and prejudice
B. It requires the Ieamer to view the subject as a social enterprise
C. It emphasises more on processes of teaching and learning
D. It emphasizes more on terms and definitions.
Q. 75 Nalini wants to introduce the topic on ‘Animals – our friends’ to Class III · students. In order to ·introduce the topic more interestingly, the best teaching strategy would be to
A. use a chart showing pictures of different animals.
B. draw pictures of different animals on the blackboard.
C. show a video film on animals and their usefulness.
D. ask the students to see pictures of animals given in the textbook.
Q. 76 Class V NCERT EVS textbooks · include a section ‘what we have learnt’ in the end of every chapter. It is suggested that answer to questions included in this section should not be assessed in terms of. right or wrong. · · This shift has been done because
A. children cannot · write correct · · answers at this stage.
B. it enhances convenience to teachers in assessment.
C. it helps the teacher to know how children are learning
D. it reduces subjectivity in assessment.
Q. 77 Experimenting, Exploring, Investigating amd Questioning constitute essential elements· of activE learning of EVS. A teacher arranges the following activities related to the concept of ‘Food we should eat’.
Which one of the above four activities satisfy the condition for active learning?
A. Draws the diagrams of all such foods on the blackboard.
B. Gives examples of different foods each in essential components of food.
C. Asks students to collect relate information from. all possible sources.
D. Shows a video on the topic.
Q. 78 While teaching the topic on ‘Air is everywhere’ to Class IV students, Gitika. plans to perform the following activities :
Which one of the above proposed activities is not relevant for teaching of the topic
A. Take the students to a field trip.·
B. Explain the · concept . through specific examples.
C. Use multimedia capsule to explain the concept.
D. Ask probing questions related to the topic
Q. 79 The section on ‘Do this and find out’ included in different topics in EVS textbooks aim at
A. providing direct expenences. hands-on
B. improving performance in examination
C. learning definitions of scientific terms
D. keeping the students engaged at home.
Q. 80 A good assignment in EVS. should primarily aim at
A. revise the lesson for effective learning.
B. ensure better utilization oftime.
C. keep the students engaged and disciplined.
D. provide extended opportunities.
Q. 81 As an EV.S teacher, the major objective of organizing a field trip to a zoo should be
A. to provide fun and enjoyment to students.
B. to have a change in monotony of routine teaching schedule.
C. to provide active learning experience to students
D. to satisfy parents on quality of education.
Q. 82 Which one of the following is not an objective of study of EVS in relation to Social Sciences ?
A. It should enable children to question the existing ideas and practices.
B. It should enable children to grow up as responsible member of society
C. It should enable children to respect differences of · culturalpractices.
D. It should enable children to learn correct definition of key terms
Q. 83 Kavita. wants to emphasise more on social issues like poverty, illiteracy and class inequalities in an EVS class. Which one of the following learning experiences will be more effective to achieve this objective ?
A. Organizing special lectures on related issues.
B. Asking the students to prepare charts on related social issues.
C. Asking the students to undertake group projects to collect and analyse related information.
D. Asking the students to write slogans on related issues.
Q. 84 Formative Assessment in EVS at primary stage does not include
A. identification of learning gaps of students.
B. identification of deficiencies in teaching.
C. enhancement of students’ learning.
D. grading and ranking of students.
Q. 85 Given below . are some human activities :.
A. Digging of mines.
B. Constructing dams.
C. Collection of leaves and herbs to sell them in the market.
D. Weaving baskets from bamboo.
E. Making leaf plates out of fallen leaves.
The activities responsible for the disappearance of forests is/are
A. only A
B. A and B both
Q. 86 Select correct statements are out Bronze:
A, Bronze is an element like iron, silver and gold.
B. Bronze is made on melting copper and tin.
C. Bronze is very strong and is used in ·making cannons and statues.
D. The utensils made of Bronze are lighter and stronger than that of aluminium.
A. B and C
B. C and D
C. D and A
D. A and C
Q. 87 A person living in Gandhidham · (Gujarat) wants to visit first Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh) and then Hyderabad (Andhra Pradesh). The directions of his journey will be
A. First towards East and then towards South
B. First towards West and then towards South
C. First towards South and then towards West
D. First towards South and then towards East
Q. 88 On a city map it was mentioned “Scale 1 em = 110 metres”. If the distance between two localities on the map is 15 em, then the actual distance between the two localities is
A. 1165 centimetres
B. 1100 metres
C. 1500 metres
D. 1.65 kilometres
Q. 89 Mount Everest is a part of
Q. 90 Study the following duties/ responsibilities
A. Help others in carrying their bags.
B. Let the group follow you and · keep at the front.
C. Ask those to stay back who cannot climb properly.
D. Look after those who are ··not well and arrange food for the group.
E. Find a good place to stop and rest.
Which of the above are the responsibilities of a group leader in mountaineering ?
A. A, Band C
B. B, C and D
C. C, D and E
D. A,D and E
Questions: 91 – 99
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow (Q: Nos. 91 to 99) by selecting the most appropriate option :
Why do poets use poems to tell aboutsocial injustices ? Tht: answer is simple. This way a poet can catch and hold the reader’s attention, his/her emotions. Usually poets in their works present facts in order to capture attention of many people. These are not new facts that are presented to an audience. Poems are always aimed at reaching feelings of people and, thus, pulling strings. Literature of every state shows all the complexity of every epoch. When the situation is the same at several countries, it has a worldwide significance. Before talking about poetry, we should answer the question:
What is poetry ? Poetry is a special way of describing situations, things, ideas, feelings. ·Poets present their ideas in short phrases.
A poem can be .compared to a photograph as it reflects real .life, real situations and feelings, In a poem a poet captures the exact moment and represents it the way he/she has seen it. When you read a poem you see the poet’s subjective evaluation of facts, situations and the epoch in general. Poets of the Romantic Movement wrote their poems to share their feelings. They wrote to help people:
understand their time from the poet’s point of view
Q. 91 A poem reflects the culture of the
A. period it belongs to
B. historical past
C. imaginary life
D. present only
Q. 92 Here, the expression ‘pulling strings’ means
A. challenging beliefs
B. promoting popular notions
C. secretly controlling thoughts
D. exerting strength
Q. 93 A word in the passage which means a quality of being intricate is
Q. 94 Romantic . Movement is a literary period when the poetry mostly
A. is religious and philosophical
B. dealt with the supernatural and violence
C. focused on self-reliance and independence
D. emphasised on emotion and “imagination
Q. 95 The structure of poetry is usually characterized by
A. sequences of two or more words without an ‘action word’
B. long winded sentences
C. lengthy descriptive stanzas
D. short, factual stanzas
Q. 96 An example of ‘subjective evaluation’ is
A. Everybody likes dishes prepared with potatoes.
B. The potato is a staple in some countries.
C. There are over 25 types of potatoes around the world.
D. The potato has a large percentage of starch content.
Q. 97 The meaning of the word ‘epoch’ is a
A. lengthy, complex poem
B. type of literary work in England
C. distinctive point of time
D. being great and impressive
Q. 98 The purpose of poetry is to ___ _ the reader.
B. appeal to
Q. 99 The themes of poems are usually about
A. everyday happenings
B. heroism and death
D. important life events
Questions: 100 – 105
Read the given poem and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 100 to 105) by selecting the most appropriate option.
Between the Miles
Because existence can become severe
in one d_ay,
just sense me and I’ll be there.
In the mind’s eye,
I’m not so far away.
If you hold o~t your hand,
I’ll become the zephyr …
and besiege you.
If your eye’s upon the stars,
in the crystalline darkness,
I’ll become the moon.
And the light shall guide you.
If you rest upon the ground,
in the warmth,
I’ll become the grass.
And embrace you.·:,.
If you tum outside,
in the wetness,
I’ll become the rain.
An upon your forehead, kiss you.
If you free the air,
in the light of day,
I’ll become the sun.
And smile for you.
Between the miles- ·
if you need me.
If you need a friend.
Let me be the friend, I want to be. ·
Q. 100 ‘The’ zephyr’ is a
A. fine quality of cloth
B. scent or odour
C. strong stream of air
D. gentle, mild breeze
Q. 101 An example of a metaphor is
A. ‘I’ll become the grass.’
B. ‘Between the miles’
C. ‘I want to be.’
D. ‘If you rest upon the ground’
Q. 102 A synonym of the word ‘besiege’ is
Q. 103 The theme of the poem is about
Q. 104 The ‘crystalline darkness’ that surrounding is
A. black and sombre
B. in the moonlight
C. lit up by the stars only
D. pitch dark and quiet
Q. 105 In the poem, the poet suggests that friendship is unaffected by
A. individual independence
B. changing feelings
C. time and distance
D. differences in attitude
Q. 106 A learner’s competence in English will improve when she/he receives or· learning experience that is appropriate.
A. an equal level
B. a slightly higher level
C. a range of levels
D. a slightly easier, lower level
Q. 107 A ‘mental block’ associated with English language learning is
A. interest in Sports and Arts
B. disinterest in studies in generaL
C. lack of opportunities to use English
D. dyslexia-a disability.
Q. 108 A company labels its frozen snacks 75% fat free rather than contains 25% fat so that people will view them more positively. This is an example of a
C. subjective utility
D. semantic slanting
Q. 109 When children first start to speak in sentences, their speech may be described as
B. exceptionally soft
Q. 110 Which observation supports Noam Chomsky’s ideas about language acquisition ?
A. Children’s language development follows a similar pattern across cultures.
B. The stages of language development occur at about the same ages in most children
C. Children acquire language quickly and effortlessly.
D. All of these
Q. 111 What is the system of rules that governs how words can be meaningfully arranged to form phrases and sentences ?
Q. 112 A twelve-year-old child enjoys using puns. This enjoyment indicates that she has
A. semantic slanting
B. deductive reasoning
C. mental blocks
D. metalinguistic awareness
Q. 113 Did you really ________ the money yesterday?
Q. 114 You don’t smoke, ________ ? (tag question)
A. have you
B. are you
C. do you
D. don’t you
Q. 115 A ‘critical period’ during language learning is
A. the period during which language can be acquired with greater ease than any other time.
B. the length of time before a comprehensive assessment . takes place in class.
C. best preparatory period for any language project.
D. special time set aside for students to intensively practice language use.
Q. 116 The two skills required to take notes effectively are
A. using symbols and abbreviations instead of words.
B. re-writing a text, using your own wOrds
C. writing legibly with correct punctuation.
D. writing fluently, using conjunctions.
Q. 117 Remediation, when students find difficulty in the use of different ‘modals’ would be for them to
A. be given ample practice in using modals in a set of sentences.
B. frame sentences on their own and teacher corrects them.
C. learn about the structures outside the classroom through suitable activities.
D. practice by collaboratively completing tasks where structures are used integratively, in a variety of real life situations.
Q. 118 What is wrong with the following multiple choice question ?
Tick the most appropriate : The Metro theatre is located __ _ LodhiRoad.
A. All answers are wrong
B. Two are wrong
C. The statement IS not correctly framed
D. ‘Over’ is the correct answer
Q. 119 Receptive Language skills are
A. using grammatical structures accurately.
B. writing in a range of styles.
C. listening and reading for information.
D. being able to self-correct while using language.
Q. 120 The ‘Natural Order’ in the process of learning English suggests that, children
A. are slow at learning to speak when riot in school.
B. learn to read and write simultaneously.
C. are able to speak first and then listen
D. acquire some language structures earlier than others.
Questions: 121 – 129
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 121 to 129) by selecting the most appropriate option
1. The fossil remains of the first flying vertebrates, the pterosaurs, have intrigued paleontologists for more than two centuries. How such large creatures, which had wingspans from 8 to 12 metres, solved the problems of powered flight, and exactly what these creatures were-reptiles or birds – are among the questions scientists have puzzled over
2.Perhaps the least controversial assertion about the pterosaurs is that they were reptiles. Their skulls, pelvises and hind feet are reptilian. The anatomy of their wings suggests that they did not evolve. into the class of birds. In pterosaurs, a greatly elongated fourth finger of each forelimb supported a wmg like membrane. In birds the second finger is the principle strut of the wing. If the pterosaur walked or remained stationary, the fourth finger and with it the wing, could. only tum upward in an extended inverted V -shape alongside of the animal’s body. Both the pterosaurs and the birds have hollow bones, a feature that represents a saving in weight. In the birds, however, these bones are reinforced more massively by internal struts.
3.Although scales typically cover reptiles, the pterosaurs probably had hairy coats. The recent discovery of a pterosaur specimen covered in long, dense and relatively thick hair-like fossil material, was the first clear evidence that this reasoning was correct. Efforts to explain how the pterosaurs became air-borne have led to suggestions that they launched themselves by jumping . from cliffs, by dropping from trees, or even by rising into light winds from the crests of waves.
Q. 121 The skeleton of a pterosaur can be distinguished from a birds by the
A. size if its wing span
B. presence of hollow bones
C. hook-like projections at the hind feet.
D. the anatomy of its wing span.
Q. 122 Which is the characteristic of pterosaur?
A. They hung upside down like bats before flight
B. Flew to capture prey
C. Unable to fold their wing fully at rest
D. Lived mostly in the forest
Q. 123 The elongated finger in the ___ _ supported the outstretched wings.
Q. 124 The · body of the pterosaurs was covered in
D. smooth skin
Q. 125 The pterosaurs flew by
A. jumping off a mountain ledge
B. pushed by wind before take of
C. jumping upwards with force
D. moment.um gained by running
Q. 126 A synonym for ‘compressed’, from the passage is
Q. 127 The opposite of ‘contrqversial’ Is
Q. 128 It can be understood from the passage that scientists believe that the
A. large wings help pterosaurs to. fly great distances.
B. hollow bones showed they evolved from bats.
C. fossil remains explain how they flew
D. pterosaurs walked on all fours.
Q. 129 Fossils often left scientists in doubt whether the pterosaur
A. ever existed at all
B. how many lived at that period
C. their size and weight
D. their shape and gender
Questions: 130 – 135
Read the given passage and answer the . questions that follow (Q. Nos. 130 to 135) by selecting the most appropriate option :
1.A man found a cocoon of a butterfly. One day a small opening appeared. He sat and watched the butterfly for several hours as it struggled to force its body through that little hole. Then it seemed to stop making any progress. It appeared as if it had gotten as far as it could, and it could go no further: So the man decided to help the butterfly. He took al pair of scissors and snipped off the remaining bit of the cocoon. ‘fh.e butterfly then emerged easily. But it had a swollen body and small, shriveled wings. The man continued to watch the ‘butterfly because he expected that, . at any moment, the wings would enlarge and expand to be able to support the body, which would contract in time
2.Neither happened! In fact, the butterfly spent the rest of its life crawling around with a swollen body and shriveled wings. It never was able to fly. What the man, in his kindness and haste, did not understand was that the restricting cocoon and the struggle required for the butterfly to get through the tiny opening were God’s way of forcing fluid from the body of the butterfly into its wings so that it would be ready for flight once it achieved its freedom from the cocoon.
Q. 130 The man’s first instinct was
A. leave the cocoon alone
B. help the butterfly
C. leave the butterfly alone
D. keep watching
Q. 131 The natural process would have the wings of the ·butterfly
A. unfold and stretch out
B. fold up and remain snug
C. half open and snug against the body
D. unfold.and remain stiff
Q. 132 A word that means ‘to make or become withered’ is
Q. 133 The writer’s message in his/her essay is about
A. not to have any problems
B. need for struggles in life
C. escape pain at any cost
D. needless struggles in life
Q. 134 The essay is ____ in form.
Q. 135 A man noticed that the—‘——
A. butterfly was hidden
B. cocoon was growing
C. cocoon was moving
D. butterfly was e’merging
Q. 136 The ‘bottom up model’ of curriculum is one where
A. learning IS based on a set of software to make curriculum more Reamer friendly.
B. the curriculum that allows freedom for student mobility with increased choice of curricular activity and encourages learning by doing.
C. the learning process 1s geared towards career orientation.
D. a need-based distance education with indirect influence on students.
Q. 137 The Humanistic Approach is specifically tuned to the
A. mastery of academic disciplines with all their characteristic features .
B. application of learnt structure, content, concepts and principals to new situations.
C. processes that enable students to discover structures for themselves
D. process where sequence is taught along with how to present the related .contents .
Q. 138 A ‘special needs language classroom’ is ideally
A. exclusively furnished.
B. located separately.
C. integrates all types of learners.
D. has extra teachers to help regular teachers.
Q. 139 One of the challenges of ‘Behaviour Management’ in a senior class is
A. students’ readiness to use the smart board.
B. student’s lack of self study skills.
C. teachers’ preference to conduct group rather than individual work
D. teachers’ lack of self confidence.
Q. 140 To inculcate a ‘Never Give Up . Attitude’, a suitable activity is the one when students
A. sang two popular songs and exhibited some of their art and craft works during the parent teacher meet.
B. ·made modifications to their paper planes and tested them. again, experimented with the best way to get them to go the distance and shared their finding.
C. in groups created graphs about the difficult situations that students have had to face in life.
D. managed to get the Principal’s permission to go out and play during the English period.
Q. 141 Assessing reading at Class VII, can be done most effectively through a
A. spoken qUiz based on the meanings of words and expressions.
B. written test based the characters and events in the story/text.
C. an oral interview to find out how much they have read.
D. writing a 50 word book/text _review as a small project.
Q. 142 Curriculum development follows the following sequence :
A. Formulation of objectives, assessment of needs, selection of texts/learning experiences, evaluation
B. Selection of texts/learning experiences, assessment of needs, formulation of objectives, evaluation
C. Assessment of needs, formulatjon (4) of objectives, selection of texts/learning expenences, evaluation of objectives, selection of texts/learning expenences, evaluation
D. Formulation of objectives, assessment of needs, evaluation, selection of texts/learning experiences
Q. 143 The learning experiences that offer a vicarious experience to learners are
A. real objects and specimens
B. abstract words, case study
C. display boards, film clips
D. field trips, observations
Q. 144 In Computer Aided Instruction [CAl), the ‘simulation mode’ is where learners
A. experience real life systems and phenomena.
B. receive bits of information followed by questions with immediate feedback.
C. a senes of exercises with ‘ repetition practice
D. get problems which are solved by a process of trial and error.
Q. 145 A ‘listening stimulus’
A. presents input to separate groups of students who gather again to share what they listened
B. presents an information ‘ gap activity such as giving directions.
C. is listening to a good commentary to review it.
D. enables students to discuss a set of criteria which they prioritize to complete and present a task.
Q. 146 The ‘interactional routine’ during speaking assessment includes a
A. negotiating meanings, taking turns and allowing others to take turns.
B. describing one’s school or its environs informally
C. ‘telephone’ conversation with another.
D. comparing two or more objects/places/event for the assessor
Q. 147 Retrieval skills in writing are
A. note making and note taking
B. diagramming and summarising
C. abilities to do extensive reference work
D. organizing information ·while reading/listening
Q. 148 ‘Awareness raising’ grammar· games encourage students to
A. think consciously about the structures they have learnt.
B. collaborate in completing a given activity.
C. engage and feel about human relationships while the teacher controls the structures.
D. use learnt structures to communicate with one another about a given theme.
Q. 149 Language acquisition
A. is the memorization and use of necessary vocabulary
B. involves a systematic approach to the analysis and comprehension of grammar as well as to the memorization of vocabulary.
C. refers to the process of learning a native or a second language because of the innate capacity of the human brain.
D. is a technique intended to simulate the environment in which children learn their native language.
Q. 150 Noah Chomsky’s reference to “deep structures” means a
A. hidden set of grammatical rules learnt through intensive study.
B. transformational grammar that -has led in tum to increased interest in comparative linguistics.
C. a trend that English is the most common-auxiliary language in the world.
D. universal wammar underlying all languages and corresponding to an innate capacity of the human brain